Quiz Osteopathic Part 1 of 4

Osteopathic Principles & Practice – Part 1 14Mar2009
OPP #1 – History of Osteopathic Medicine

1) In the United States of America, what are the distinct forms of medicine that have
fully-licensed physicians?
a) Allopathic Medicine (M.D.’s)
b) M.D.’s and Osteopathic Medicine (D.O.’s)
c) M.D.’s, D.O.’s, and Naturopathic Medicine (N.D.’s)
d) M.D.’s, D.O.’s, N.D.’s, and Chiropractic Medicine (D.C.’s)
e) M.D.’s, D.O.’s, N.D.’s, D.C.’s, and Homeopathic Medicine
2) When was Andrew Taylor Still born?
a) August, 1826
b) August, 1827
c) August, 1828
d) August, 1829
e) August, 1830
3) What percentage of body mass does the musculoskeletal system comprise?
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%
e) 60%
4) A.T. Still laid on a rope to relieve his ____. This solution contributed to his future
ideas on manipulation and manual medicine.
a) Back aches
b) Shoulder aches
c) Hip aches
d) Head aches
e) Side aches
5) Andrew Taylor Still practiced medicine under the apprenticeship of his father. Which
of the following is NOT a role his father had?
a) Farmer
b) Methodist Preacher
c) Physician
d) Medical Educator
e) Chiropractor
6) On ____, A.T. Still “flung the banner of osteopathy to the breeze.”
a) June 22, 1874
b) July 4, 1875
c) June 22, 1875
d) July 4, 1874
e) January 15, 1983
7) What year and where did A.T. Still open the American School of Osteopathy?
a) 1890; Kirksville, M.O.
b) 1891; Kirksville, M.O.
c) 1892; Kirksville, M.O.
d) 1893; Kirksville, M.O.
e) 1992; Erie, P.A. via Millcreek Hospital
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -1-

8) What was the (Abraham) Flexner Report of 1910?

a) A report showing the decent medical education in the U.S. and Canada.
b) A report showing the excellent medical education in the U.S. and Canada and
resulting in a rush of new school.
c) A report showing the vast difference in medical education between allopathic
and osteopathic schools.
d) A report showing the poor medical education in the U.S. and Canada and
leading to many school closures.
e) A report showing the impact of osteopathic medical education in the U.S. and
Canada.
9) When did A.T. Still die and at what age?
a) 1916; 88
b) 1917; 89
c) 1918; 90
d) 1919; 91
e) 1920; 92
10) What was one of the results of the Great Swine Flu of 1918-1919?
a) Osteopathically treated patients were more likely to live than allopathically
treated patients.
b) Osteopathically treated patients and allopathically treated patients had an equal
chance of survival.
c) Allopathically treated patients were more likely to live than osteopathically
treated patients.
d) Nearly 50% of the osteopathic physicians became ill.
e) Nearly 50% of the allopathic physicians became ill.
11) D.O.’s were not allowed to join the military during WWI and WWII. What impact
did this have?
a) The general public avoided osteopathic physicians.
b) Many osteopathic physicians were forced to seek other work.
c) The general public started seeing more osteopathic physicians.
d) Many osteopathic physicians were outraged and sought legal justice.
e) Many osteopathic physicians joined the military anyway.
12) During the Loss of California 1861-1862, many D.O.’s felt:
a) Excited to become M.D.’s
b) Happy that the “discrimination would end”
c) Sad as this “marked the beginning of the end”
d) Depressed that they would “not be able to do OMT”
e) Angry because they really liked California
13) Where did the first-state supported osteopathic medical school open in 1970?
a) Erie, PA
b) Kirksville, MO
c) Chicago, IL
d) Des Moines, IA
e) East Lansing, MI
14) When the Osteopathic profession suffered a major setback in California, D.O.s could
purchase an M.D. degree for which of the following amounts?

a) $45
b) $55
c) $65
d) $75
e) $100
OPP #2 – Principles of Osteopathic Medicine

1) Which of the following best describes the first principle of Osteopathic Medicine?
a) The body is comprised of many things.
b) Spinal manipulation is essential for good health.
c) All disease is curable with manipulation.
d) The body functions as completely separate parts.
e) The body is a unit, component parts linked by fascia.
2) Which of the following best describes the second principle of Osteopathic Medicine?
a) Structure and function are directly related.
b) Structure and function are reciprocally related.
c) Structure and function are not related.
d) Structure exists only without function.
e) Function exists only without structure.
3) What is the third principle of Osteopathic Medicine?
a) The body possesses self-regulatory mechanisms.
b) The body is not capable of self-regulation.
c) Spinal manipulation is self-regulating.
d) Disease is a result of self-regulation.
e) The body regulates other bodies.
4) Which of the following best describes the fourth principle of Osteopathic Medicine?
a) The body does not have the inherent capacity to defend itself.
b) The body does not have the inherent capacity to repair itself.
c) The body has the inherent capacity to defend itself but not repair itself.
d) The body has the inherent capacity to defend itself and repair itself.
e) The body has the inherent capacity to repair itself but not defend itself.
5) Which of the following best describes the fifth principle of Osteopathic Medicine?
a) Disease will ensue regardless of the body’s capacity for self-maintenance.
b) When the body is tired due to internal or external (environmental) changes,
disease will ensue.
c) When normal adaptability is disrupted or when environmental changes
overcome the body's capacity for self-maintenance, disease may ensue.
d) Disease ensues when the body’s ability to adapt affects the structure/function
relationship.
e) Without regimental manipulative treatments, disease may ensue.
6) Which of the following best describes the sixth principle of Osteopathic Medicine?
a) Rational treatment is based on the previous principles.
b) Rational treatment is based on inherent knowledge.
c) Rational treatment is based on public agreement of acceptable practice.
d) Rational treatment is based on learned clinical knowledge.
e) Rational treatment is not based on any osteopathic principles.

7) Which of the following best describes the seventh principle of Osteopathic Medicine?
a) Movement of lymph only is essential to health maintenance.
b) Movement of blood only is essential to health maintenance.
c) Movement of body fluids is never necessary for health maintenance.
d) Body fluid movement within the cranium leads to the maintenance of health.
e) Movements of body fluids is essential to the maintenance of health.
8) Which of the following best describes the eighth principle of Osteopathic Medicine?
a) The nerves play no role in controlling the fluids of the body.
b) The nerves play no role in controlling the muscles of the body.
c) The nerves play a crucial part in controlling the fluids of the body.
d) The nerves play a crucial part in controlling the muscles of the body.
e) Nerves can be “soldered” together like electrical wires.
9) Which of the following best describes the ninth principle of Osteopathic Medicine?
a) All somatic components of a disease contribute to that disease.
b) There are somatic components to disease that are not only manifestations of
disease but also are factors that contribute to maintenance of the diseased state.
c) The somatic components to disease allow for the disease state or cycle to be
easily broken with proper manipulative technique.
d) Somatic disease can be described by holding two of your friend’s hands.
e) There are somatic components to disease that are manifestations of disease and
contribute to reversal of the diseased state.
10) Which of the following is the definition of Somatic Dysfunction?
a) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
skeletal, muscular and fascial structures, and their related vascular, lymphatic, and
spinal elements
b) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
skeletal, neural and myofascial structures, and their related vascular, lymphatic,
and arthrodial elements
c) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
skeletal, arthrodial and myofascial structures, and their related vascular,
lymphatic, and neural elements
d) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
lymphatic, arthrodial and myofascial structures, and their related vascular,
skeletal, and neural elements
e) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
skeletal, arthrodial and vascular structures, and their related myofascial,
OPP #3 – Integrative Medicine Introduction

1) Which of the following best describes Integrative Medicine?
a) A form of medicine that deal with adding together a patient’s symptoms.
b) A form of medicine first enunciated by Andrew Taylor Still.
c) A form of medicine that combines conventional and alternative medicine.
d) A form of medicine first enunciated by Daniel Palmer.
e) A form of medicine that extensively uses calculus.
2) Which of the following best describes Personal Wellness?

a) A spiritual system used to describe medical therapies.

b) A healthy balance of mind, body, and spirit that results in an overall feeling of
well-being.
c) Medical therapy dealing with mind, body, and spirit.
d) The resulting patient feeling after osteopathic manipulative therapy.
e) A healthy balance of academics, exercise, and relaxation.
3) Which of the following is NOT considered an alternative form of health care?
a) Naturopathy
b) Oriental Medicine
c) Homeopathy
d) Ayurvedic
e) Chemotherapy
4) Which of the following conditions could be treated with alternative medicine?
a) Heart Attack
b) Stroke
c) Bone Fracture
d) Cancer
e) Psychological Issues
5) Which of the following is a form of Energy Medicine?
a) Acupuncture and Acupressure
b) Endotracheal Intubation
c) Electrocardiography
d) Anticoagulation
e) Amniocentesis
6) What is “root cause” of illness relating to Integrative Medicine?
a) Using the patient’s Chief Complaint to determine therapy.
b) Determining if the patient has eaten any food or taken any drug derived from
the roots of a plant (e.g. Colchicine from meadow saffron)
c) Thinking of all possible causes to develop a differential diagnosis.
d) Combining body, mind, emotions, and spirit to determine a cause beyond
present symptoms.
e) Looking into a patient’s history as far back as possible to find an original, or
root, medical problem in their life.
OPP #4 – Fryette’s Principles

1) Which of the following regarding the vertebral column is NOT correct?
a) The anterior segment has the functions of: support, weight bearing, shock
absorption, and protection of the spinal cord.
b) The posterior segment has the function of: joint movement direction, protection
of the spinal cord, and almost no-weight bearing in the upright position.
c) The anterior column bends, has disks/bodies that accommodate, and moves
away from the concave side.
d) The posterior column has facets/ligaments that control movement, and moves
away from the concave side during side-bending.
e) The posterior and anterior column both contain the intervertebral disks.
2) Which of the following describes Fryette’s First Principle?

a) T2-8 N SL RL
b) T2-8 N SR RR
c) T2-8 E SL RR
d) T2-8 F SR RL
e) T2-8 N SL RR
3) Which of the following spinal segments is the exception for Fryette’s First Principle?
a) Cervical
b) Thoracic
c) Lumbar
4) Which of the following describes Fryette’s Second Principle?
a) T4 N SL RL
b) T4 N SR RL
c) T4 E SL RL
d) T4 F SR RL
e) T4 E SL RR
5) Which of Fryette’s Principles is most commonly associated with sudden or traumatic
events as well as in general with the cervical column?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
6) Which of Fryette’s Principles is described as motion in one plane affects motion in
another plane?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
7) Which of the following does NOT describe a Type I somatic dysfunction?
a) Group spinal motion
b) Neutral spine
c) Maximum rotation occurs at the apex
d) Side-bending and rotation occur on the same side
e) Rotation occurs toward the convexity
8) Which of the following does NOT describe a Type II somatic dysfunction?
a) Side-bending and rotation occur on the same side
b) Group spinal motion
c) Involves flexion
d) Involves extension
e) Rotation and side-bending occur toward the concavity
OPP #5 – Somatic Dysfunction & Motion Testing

1) Somatic Dysfunction includes impaired or altered function to all of the following
EXCEPT:
a) Skeletal structures
b) Myofascial structures
c) Arthrodial structures
d) Lymphatic elements
e) Inflammatory processes

2) All of the following statements relating to Somatic Dysfunction are true EXCEPT:
a) Improves with osteopathic manipulative therapy
b) Is a disturbance of the normal function of somatic structures.
c) Possesses characteristics unidentifiable by palpation
d) The basis of the phenomenon appears to be neurophysiologic.
e) Has deleterious effects on health when present.
3) What does the “R” mean in the acronym T.A.R.T.?
a) Response to tenderness
b) Restriction of motion
c) Relative asymmetry
d) Ropiness
e) Red reflex
4) Which of the following describes the Barrier Concept starting from no movement
through the full range of movement?
a) Neutral, Somatic Dysfunction Region, Physiological Barrier, Anatomic Barrier
b) Neutral, Physiological Barrier, Somatic Dysfunction Region, Anatomic Barrier
c) Physiological Barrier, Somatic Dysfunction Region, Anatomic Barrier, Neutral
d) Somatic Dysfunction Region, Physiological Barrier, Anatomic Barrier, Neutral
e) Somatic Dysfunction Region, Neutral, Physiological Barrier, Anatomic Barrier
5) Which of the following would NOT likely be a pathologic barrier to spinal rotation?
a) Spondylitis
b) Osteophytes
c) Inflammation
d) CSF
e) Joint effusion
6) Which of the following is NOT likely a sign seen in chronic viscerosomatic
dysfunction?
a) Tissue texture is firm
b) When correct, the dysfunction will return within 24 hours
c) Tissues display a firm, dry sponginess
d) Skin tends to be more atrophic over the involved area
e) Tissues display a distinct bogginess
7) You diagnose a Type I somatic dysfunction from T4-T8 in a patient who has
restriction of side-bending movement to the left. After you finish the last part of your test
to ensure no extension or flexion, how would you name this dysfunction?
a) T4-8 E SL RR
b) T4-8 F SR RL
c) T4-8 E SL RL
d) T4-8 N SR RL
e) T4-8 N SL RR
8) Which of the following is NOT a transitional area?
a) Cranial-occipital
b) Occipital-atlantal
c) C7-T1
d) T12-L1
e) L5-S1

9) Where are the sympathetic chains of the sympathetic nervous system located?
a) T1 to T12 bilaterally
b) T1 to T5 bilaterally
c) T1 to L2-3 bilaterally
d) T4 to T12 bilaterally
e) T1 to T4 bilaterally
10) If you removed all other tissue in the body except for ____, you will still have the
complete outline of a person.
a) Bone
b) Muscle
c) Organs
d) Fascia
e) Vessels
11) Which of the following vertebral segments has its tip of the spinous process in the
same plane as the transverse process of the segment below?
a) T2
b) T4
c) T8
d) T10
e) T12
12) Which of the following anatomical points is NOT matched with the correct
corresponding level?
a) Xiphisternal Angle; T9
b) Spine of scapula; T3
c) Sternal angle; T4
d) Sternal notch; T2
e) Inferior angle of the scapula; T8
OPP #6 – Upper Limb

1) Hypermobility can most likely occur in all of the following cases EXCEPT:
a) Thumb carpometacarpal joint extension
b) Wrist palmar flexion
c) Knee extension
d) Ankle dorsiflexion
e) Elbow flexion
2) If a patient is able to perform a complete active ROM without pain or discomfort,
passive testing still needs to be done.
a) True
b) False
3) Which of the following ROMs is NOT correct for the shoulder joint?
a) Abduction 0 to 180 degrees
b) Adduction 0 to 45 degrees
c) Flexion 0 to 90 degrees
d) Extension 0 to 45 degrees
e) Protraction/Retraction 0 to !25 degrees
4) Which movement pairs are considered 0 to 90 degrees?

a) Pronation and Supination of the forearm

b) Varus and Valgus of the carrying angle
c) Radial and Ulnar deviation of the hand
d) Adduction and Abduction of the fingers
e) Opposition of the thumb and little finger
5) During a physical exam, what would a positive Tinel Sign at Guyon Canal allude to?
a) Median nerve involvement
b) Radial nerve involvement
c) Musculocutaneous nerve involvement
d) Axillary nerve involvement
e) Ulnar nerve involvement
OPP #7 – Integrative Exercise: Conventional

1) Regular exercise decreases all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Physiological and phychological effects of stress
b) Risk of developing high cholesterol
c) Risk of developing high blood pressure
d) Work load of the heart
e) Cardiovascular and cardiorespiratory function
2) Which of the following is NOT considered a component of physical fitness?
a) Cardiorespiratory
b) Muscle Endurance
c) Flexibility
d) Diet
e) Balance and Agility
3) What is considered “the recommended heart rate attained to derive goal cardio
exercise benefits”?
a) Target Heart Rate
b) Max Heart Rate (HRmax)
c) Tolerable Heart Rate
d) 2 times resting Heart Rate
e) Age - 220
4) What is equivalent to one metabolic equivalent (MET)?
a) Energy expended while walking
b) Energy expended while sitting quietly
c) Energy expended while watching a movie
d) Energy expended while working on the computer
e) Energy expended while exercising vigorously
5) What is considered the best index of cardiorespirator endurance and physical fitness?
a) Max Heart Rate (HRmax)
b) 220-Age (Target Heart Rate)
c) VO2 (Rate of Oxygen Consumption)
d) VO2max (Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption during exercise)
e) METs per day
6) Which of the following percentages of body fat is the statistical cut-off for increased
risk of heart disease, Type 2 diabetes, increased lipids, and high blood pressure?

a) Males > 15%, Females > 15%

b) Males > 25%, Females > 25%
c) Males > 25%, Females > 38%
d) Males > 38%, Females > 25%
e) Males > 38%, Females > 38%
7) In the FITT Principles. “F” stands for frequency and “I” for intensity. What do the two
“T”s stand for?
a) Tension and Time
b) Type and Time
c) Traction and Time
d) Total HR and Total VO2
e) Total endurance and Total flexibility
OPP #8 – Integrative Exercise: Unconventional

1) Which of the following is NOT a type of yoga?
a) Karma (action)
b) Stillness and Meditation (“raja”)
c) Relationship (reflection)
d) Intellect (science and understanding)
e) Sutra (excitement and relaxation)
2) Which of the following is NOT a principle of yoga?
a) Proper diet (grains and meat)
b) Proper relaxation (savasana)
c) Proper exercise (asanas)
d) Proper breathing (pranayama)
e) Meditation (dhyana)
3) Which of the following is NOT considered an unconventional exercise?
a) Yoga
b) Tai Chi
c) Martial Arts
d) Weight Lifting
e) Pilates
OPP #9 – Upper Limb: Spencer Technique & Soft Tissue

1) Which of the following is NOT an upper limb joint where active and passive ranges of
motion are tested?
a) Glenohumeral
b) Scapulothaorcic
c) Humeral-Ulnar or Humeral-Radial
d) Wrist and Digits
e) Humeral-Carpal
2) At what angle during shoulder abduction does the surgical neck of the humerus strike
the acromion?
a) 60
b) 90
c) 120
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 10 -
d) 150
e) 180
3) What does the Yergason Test check for?
a) Stability of the brachioradialis
b) Flexion of the wrist
c) Extension of the wrist
d) Stability of the biceps tendon
e) Stability of the long head of the triceps
4) What does the Drop Arm Test check for?
a) Rotator cuff tear
b) AC joint tear
c) CC joint tear
d) Biceps tear
e) Triceps tear
5) What does the Apprehension Test check for?
a) Chronic Tennis Elbow
b) Chronic shoulder dislocation
c) Chronic Golfer Elbow
d) Chronic Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
e) Chronic back pain
6) What (denervated) muscle is being checked in the Scapular Protraction Test?
a) Infraspinatus
b) Superspinatus
c) Deltoid
d) Serratus Anterior
e) Pectoralis Major
7) Lateral epicondylitis and medial epicondylitis are also known as:
a) Tennis Elbow and Golfer Elbow
b) Tennis Elbow and Nursemaid Elbow
c) Nursemaids Elbow and Tennis Elbow
d) Nursemaids Elbow and Golfer’s Elbow
e) Golfer’s Elbow and Tennis Elbow
8) What does Allen Test check for?
a) Compression of the medial nerve
b) Compression of the ulnar nerve
c) Radial/Ulnar artery competency
d) Radial nerve compression and radial artery competency
e) Ulnar nerve compression and ulnar artery competency
9) A patient with DeQuervein Sign (Finkelstein Test) would have pain in the ____.
a) Ulnar groove
b) Guyon tunnel
c) Carpal tunnel
d) Lateral epicondyle
e) Anatomical snuffbox
10) During a soft tissue procedure, the physician should:
a) Press tissue into bone
b) Start “low and slow”

c) Use gentle force even on deep back muscles
d) Use indirect pressure
e) Go beyond the anatomical barrier
11) The Spencer technique can be used on the:
a) Neck
b) Knee
c) Elbow
d) Shoulder
e) Back
OPP #10 – Hip

1) The hip can do all of the following types of motion EXCEPT:
a) Flexion/Extension
b) Abduction/Adduction
c) Protraction/Retraction
d) Internal/External rotation
e) Circumduction
2) Hip pathology most likely presents as pain in any of the following locations EXCEPT:
a) Lower spine
b) Abdomen
c) Sacrum
d) Femoral shaft
e) Knee
3) At what vertebral level are the posterior superior iliac spines located?
a) L10
b) L11
c) L12
d) S1
e) S2
4) Anteversion is an important anatomical consideration for the hip and femur. In
children, anteversion may be seen as walking with their toes inward (in-towing).
Hypothetically, you lie this child’s left femur bone on the table. The distal head of the
femur is closest to you and you are looking straight across the length of the femur, with
the greater trocanter furthest away from you. The head of the femur is pointing to your
left. Anteversion of 35 degrees can be seen at the head of the femur as:
a) The head of the femur coming 35 degrees towards you
b) The head of the femur going 35 degrees away from you
c) The head of the femur extending 35 degrees towards the ceiling
d) The head of the femur extending 35 degrees towards the floor
e) The head of the femur going 35 degrees to the right
5) On a muscle grading chart, what number corresponds to complete range of motion
against the resistance of gravity?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
6) The Patrick Test (FABER test) tests for lower back pain due to the ____.
a) Sacroiliac joint
b) Sacrospinous joint
c) Sacrotubular joint
d) Iliolumbar joint
e) Lumbrosacral joint
7) The Thomas Test is used for what muscle?
a) Tensor fascia lata
b) Piriformis
c) Adductor magnus
d) Iliopsoas
e) Pectineus
8) The Ober Test is used for it iliotibial band of the ____?
a) Tensor fascia latae
b) Piriformis
c) Adductor magnus
d) Iliopsoas
e) Pectineus
9) The Trendelenburg Test is used for what muscle?
a) Gluteus minimus
b) Gluteus medius
c) Gluteus maximus
d) Sartorius
e) Gracilis
10) The stages of the Spencer Technique for the hip start with ____ and end with ____.
a) Internal/External rotation; Flexion
b) Abduction/Adduction; Extension
c) Circumduction; Circumduction
d) Flexion; Internal/External rotation
e) Flexion; Abduction/Adduction
OPP #11 – Fascia and OMT

1) Connective tissue/fascia has all of the following functions EXCEPT:
a) Structural support
b) Compartmentalization
c) Impulse conduction
d) Immunity/lymphatics/repair
e) Sensorimotor
2) Skin is considered what kind of connective tissue?
a) Dense irregular
b) Loose areolar
c) Adipose
d) Dense regular - ligament
e) Dense regular - tendon
3) Which of the following is NOT a layer of fascia?

a) Supmucosal
b) Subserous
c) Deep
d) Adipose
e) Superficial
4) Which of the following is NOT a type of deep investing fascia?
a) Dura mater
b) Skeletal muscle
c) Peripheral nerve
d) Bone - periosteum
5) Intestinal and bronchial contain/are what type of fascia?
a) Superficial
b) Adipose
c) Deep
d) Subserous
e) Supmucosal
6) Connective tissue/fascia has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
a) “Intelligent”
b) Communication
c) Glycogen storage
d) Maintain structural integrity
e) Production of extracellular substances
7) All of the following are horizontal diaphragms EXCEPT:
a) Tentorium cerebelli
b) Thoracic inlet/outlet
c) Pelvic diaphragm
d) Plantar fascia/arches of feet
e) Prevertebral fascia
8) All of the following are longitudinal cables EXCEPT:
a) Dural sleeve
b) Respiratory diaphragm
c) Psoas major
d) Rectus abdominus
e) Esophagus
9) Which of the following best describes the piezoelectric phenomenon?
a) Stress on a nerve creates mechanical motion of the innervated muscles
b) Stress on a muscle creates direct mechanical motion of the muscle
c) Stress on a muscle creates electrical potentials that radiate to skin dermatomes
d) Stress on a muscle creates electrical potentials that create mechanical motion
e) Stress on collagen fibers creates magnetic fields that create mechanical motion
10) Infrared frequencies are in the range of ____ Hertz.
a) 10^15
b) 10^14
c) 10^13
d) 10^12
e) 10^11
11) Which of the following best describes Wolff Law?
a) Mechanical stress results in bone remodeling
b) Electrical stress results in bone remodeling
c) Muscle stress results in electrical potentials
d) Mechanical stress results in fascia remodeling
e) Electrical stress results in fascia remodeling
12) What is “an architectural system in which structures stabilize themselves by
balancing counteracting forces of compression and tension”?
a) Elasticity
b) Compresegrity
c) Tensegrity
d) Blastity
e) Clastity
13) What is “stress applied to stretch or compress a body is proportional to the strain
(change in length thus produced), so long as the limit of elasticity of the body is not
exceeded”?
a) Charles Law
b) Young Law
c) Boyle Law
d) Ohm Law
e) Hooke Law
14) What is the reactive component of fascia, which handles mechanical and internal
stress?
a) Actin
b) Myosin
c) Collagen
d) Elastin
e) Adipose
15) Plasticity refers to the ability of connective tissue/fascia to be ____.
a) Mechanically stressed
b) Electrically stressed
c) Recovered after stretching
d) Molded
e) Deformed under load and yielding to stress
16) Which of the following elements is NOT part of the definition of somatic
dysfunction?
a) Myofascial
b) Cardiac
c) Vascular
d) Lymphatic
e) Neural
17) Which of the following is NOT an indication for fascial OMT techniques?
a) No contraindications
b) Acute painful condition
c) Chronic pain
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
e) Visceral disorders
18) Which of the following is NOT a myofascial release technique?
a) Direct action
b) Indirect action
c) Percussion
d) Recoil
e) Unwinding
19) The recoil technique is similar to what other technique in the direction that force is
applied?
a) Unwinding
b) Percussing
c) Direct action
d) Indirect action
e) HVLA
20) With myofascial release, force is always applied ____.
a) Directly
b) Indirectly
c) Gently
d) Quickly
e) Strongly
OPP #12 – Knee, Leg, Ankle, ROM, Ortho Tests

1) This joint is the largest in the body and considered the most well adapted.
a) Elbow
b) Tibiofemoral
c) Hip
d) Tibiofibula
e) Talofibula
2) Full extension of the knee is continuous throughout the saggital plane.
a) True
b) False
3) Primary support of the knee joint is achieved through the ____.
a) Quadriceps
b) Hamstrings
c) Lateral and medial collateral ligaments
d) Pes anserinus
e) Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
4) The LCL is ____ to palpate and ____ part of the knee capsule while the MCL ____
part of the knee capsule.
a) easier; is; is
b) harder; is not; is not
c) harder; is not; is
d) easier; is not; is
5) Genu valgus (knocked knee) is in the ____ plane and is normally ____ to ____
degrees.
a) Coronal; 7-11
b) Saggital; 7-11
c) Transverse; 7-11
d) Coronal; 5-10
e) Saggital; 5-10
6) All of the following are locations for pulses in the lower limb EXCEPT:
a) Femoral
b) Popliteal
c) Anterior genicular
d) Dorsalis pedis
e) Medial malleolar
7) Normal range of motion (no ligamentous laxity) for the knee joint is ____ degrees
flexion and up to ____ extension.
a) 170; 5
b) 110; 30
c) 90; 15
d) 100; 20
e) 130; 10
8) The knee is only capable of mild internal and external rotation throughout its entire
range of motion.
a) True
b) False
9) The McMurray test is a circumduction test to evaluate for ____ of the ____ joint.
a) Lateral meniscus tears; knee
b) Medial meniscus tears; knee
c) Tears; Tibiofibular joint
d) Tears; Anterior talofibular joint
e) Tears; Posterior talofibular joint
10) The positive Anterior Drawer test would indicate a torn:
a) LCL
b) MCL
c) Medial meniscus
d) PCL
e) ACL
11) A positive patellar apprehension test would indicate the patient has a history of ____
dislocation of the patella.
a) Inferior
b) Superior
c) Lateral
d) Medial
e) Rotational
12) Weight on the feet is transmitted to the ____, ____ ray, and ____ ray, creating a
tripod effect.
a) Navicular; 2nd; 5th
b) Navicular; 1st; 5th
c) Navicular; 1st; 4th
d) Calcaneus; 2nd; 5th

e) Calcaneus; 1st; 5th
13) Unilateral ankle swelling would most likely indicate:
a) Trauma
b) Cardiac insufficiency
c) Lymphatic insufficiency
d) Diabetes
e) Pelvic obstruction to venous drainage
14) Paronychia (felon) in the foot would be an infection of the:
a) Toe
b) Nail fold
c) Deltoid ligament
d) Ankle
e) Plantar surface
15) Ankle dorsiflexion is ____ degrees and plantarflexion is ____ degrees.
a) 20; 20
b) 50; 50
c) 50; 20
d) 20; 50
e) 35; 35
16) What adaptation allows for reduced force along the tibia to the knee as well as
allowing for walking on uneven paths such as a cobblestone road?
a) Foot dorsiflexion/plantarflexion
b) Knee medial/lateral rotation
c) Foot inversion/eversion
d) Hip circumduction
e) Foot medial/lateral rotation
17) Normal forefoot adduction (with ankle and subtalar joint stabilized) is ____ degrees
and abduction is ____ degrees.
a) 20; 10
b) 10; 20
c) 15; 15
d) 10; 10
e) 20; 20
18) Toe extension (extensor hallucis longus) is normally about ____ degrees and normal
toe flexion (flexor digitorum longus) is ____ degrees.
a) 80; 80
b) 45; 80
c) 45; 45
d) 80; 45
e) 80; 0
19) Unlike the varus/valgus stress test of the ankle, an anterior draw test would NOT be
affected by damage to the ____ ligament.
a) Anterior Talofibular
b) Calcaneofibular
c) Posterior Talofibular
d) Tibiofibular
e) Deltoid
OPP #13 – Muscle Reflexes

1) Which proprioceptor detects muscle tension?
a) Muscle spindle
b) Golgi tendon organ
c) Joint receptor
d) Contractile protein
e) Sensory dendrite
2) Which afferent type is considered the largest afferent fiber and is involved in sensing
acceleration (as opposed to length)?
a) Ia
b) Ib
c) II
d) III
e) IV
3) Which motor neuron (MN) type is involved in adjusting the level of spindle tension (as
opposed to skeletal muscle tension)?
a) "-MN
b) #-MN
c) $-MN
d) %-MN
e) &-MN
4) When a muscle is initially stretched, which of the following fires rapidly?
a) "-MN
b) $-MN
c) " & $ co-activation
d) Type Ia
e) Type II
5) You are sitting in class after a long night out and you start to fall asleep. As your head
tips forward, there is a sudden muscle stretch in your neck. This causes an involuntary
(monosynaptic) response and your neck muscles contract to raise your head. What is this
response called?
a) Tonic labyrinthine reflex
b) Moro reflex
c) Escape reflex
d) Jaw jerk reflex
e) Myotactic reflex
6) During the patellar (monosynaptic) reflex, the leg is extended at the knee. Which of
the following muscles would relax due to interneuron inhibition?
a) Rectus femoris
b) Vastus lateralis
c) Vastus intermedius
d) Vastus medialis
e) Biceps femoris
7) Electronic nerve stimulation would normally give constant force of muscle

contraction. With a dorsal root lesion (no Type Ia or II afferents), what force of
contraction would be seen with stimulation?
a) Constant
b) Increasing
c) Decreasing
d) Fluctuating
e) None
8) During a particular muscle receptor malfunction (mis-set), there is an increased gain
for Type Ia and Type II Firing Rate plotted against Shortening Rate and Muscle Spindle
Length, respectively. In this situation, the brain thinks the muscle is moving ____ than it
really is and will ____ the muscle.
a) Slower; speed up
b) Faster; slow down
c) Slower; slow down
d) Faster; speed up
9) In this reflex, excessive tension inhibits the muscle associated with the Golgi tendon
organ. This reflex also involves Type Ib afferents.
a) Myotactic reflex
b) Withdrawal reflex
c) Lengthening reflex
d) Jaw jerk reflex
e) Escape reflex
10) Joint receptor firing is ____ joint angle.
a) Directly related to
b) Indirectly related to
c) Constant with
11) Myelinated fibers in the dermis detect:
a) Fast pain
b) Slow pain
c) Touch
d) Heat/cold
e) Pressure
12) Crossed extensor reflex (polysynaptic) helps to:
a) Withdraw from pain
b) Respond to muscle lengthening
c) Respond to muscle flexion
d) Respond to muscle extension
e) Maintain balance
13) Pain induced flexor-crossed extensor reflex will have increased ipsilateral ____ and
increased contralateral ____.
a) Extension; Flexion
b) Flexion; Extension
c) Extension; Extension
d) Flexion; Flexion
14) All of the following are causes of movement limitation EXCEPT:
a) Changes in golgi tendon organ gain

b) Changes in muscle spindle gain
c) Pain-induced guarding
d) Muscle fiber lengthening
15) Benefits of passive motion include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Lysing of excessive connective tissue
b) Increased synovial fluid formation
c) Decreased range of motion
d) Stimulation of glycosaminoglycan formation
e) Stimulation of mechano-receptors
16) What reflex is exploited by high velocity low amplitude (HVLA) manipulation?
a) Myotactic reflex
b) Withdrawal reflex
c) Lengthening reflex
d) Jaw jerk reflex
e) Escape reflex
17) Which manipulative technique has effects that include reciprocal inhibition of
overactive muscle and use of the Golgi tendon reflex to reduce tension of the overactive
muscle?
a) HVLA
b) Muscle energy
c) Counterstrain
d) Myofascial release
18) Counterstrain has a shortening phase where firing of motorneurons in increase as well
as a reshortening phase, which allows the central nervous system to reset its ____, after
about 90 seconds.
a) "-MN
b) #-MN
c) $-MN
d) %-MN
e) &-MN
OPP #14 – Nutrition Introduction

1) Health is defined as the absence of disease.
a) True
b) False
2) There is an early departure from health before a disease can be detected. The point of
detection is called the:
a) Degree of ill health
b) Intervention
c) Prevention
d) Clinical horizon
3) For nutritional decision making, there is great individual variability in all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Digestion of food
b) Absorption of nutrients
c) Metabolism
d) Environment of the individual
e) Calories in food consumed
4) It is important to be critical and open-minded about nutritional claims and advice.
a) True
b) False
5) The American diet is low in all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Fiber
b) Calcium
c) Simple sugars
d) Potassium
e) Vitamins
6) Which of the following is considered a significant carcinogenesis risk factor, aside
form tobacco?
a) Diet
b) Occupation
c) Alcohol use
d) Cell phone use
e) Pollution
7) Currently (2007), more than ____% of the United States population over the age of 20
is considered overweight.
a) 20
b) 40
c) 60
d) 80
e) 100
8) Risk factors for anorexia include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Chronic disease
b) Multiple medications
c) Poverty
d) Prader-Willi syndrome
e) Inadequate nutritional knowledge
9) 19-26 is the normal weight scale for ____ and 90-109 is the normal weight scale for
____.
a) Ideal body weight; Body mass index
b) Body mass index; Ideal body weight
c) Weight/Nutrition scale; Ideal body weight
d) Body mass index; Weight/Nutrition scale
e) Weight/Nutrition scale; Body mass index
10) Ideal body weight is calculated starting at a height of ____ and is 106lbs + 6lbs per
inch for men and 100lbs + 5lbs per inch for women (+/- 10% in each case for frame size).
a) 4’ 10”
b) 5’ 0”
c) 5’ 2”
d) 5’ 4”
e) 5’ 6”
OPP #15 – Ribs/Thoracic Interplay and Autonomics

1) Which of the following vertebra does NOT articulate with only the head of the ribs on
its body?
a) T1
b) T10
c) T11
d) T12
2) Atypical ribs include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Rib 12
b) Rib 2
c) Rib 9
d) Rib 10
e) Rib 11
3) Which of the following ribs does NOT have a rib angle?
a) Rib 1
b) Rib 2
c) Rib 10
d) Rib 11
e) Rib 12
4) Which of the following ribs has a large tuberosity on the shaft for attachment of
serratus anterior?
a) Rib 12
b) Rib 11
c) Rib 10
d) Rib 2
e) Rib 1
5) Rib 12 floats in what muscle?
a) Psoas
b) Iliacus
c) Serratus anterior
d) Rectus abdominus
e) Quadratus lumborum
6) True ribs are:
a) Ribs 1, 2, 10, 11, 12
b) Ribs 1-12
c) Ribs 1-7
d) Ribs 8-12
e) Ribs 11-12
7) Which ribs are associated with bucket handle motion?
a) Ribs 2-4
b) Ribs 4-6
c) Ribs 6-8
d) Ribs 8-10
e) Ribs 10-12
8) Which ribs are associated with pump handle motion?
a) Ribs 2-3
b) Ribs 4-5
c) Ribs 6-7
d) Ribs 8-9
e) Ribs 10-11
9) Which ribs are associated with caliper (or pincer) motion?
a) Ribs 2-3
b) Ribs 4-5
c) Ribs 6-7
d) Ribs 9-10
e) Ribs 11-12
10) Which of the following is NOT found at the area of the thoracic inlet?
a) Stellate ganglion
b) Attachments for serratus anterior muscle
c) Brachial plexus
d) Thoracic duct
e) Subclavian vein and artery
11) A patient is complaining of tingling in their right hand and fingers with difficulty
doing certain hand movements. The clinician believes there is a problem with the brachial
plexus. Which of the following anatomical areas could be causing this problem?
a) Sphincter of Oddi
b) Anterior-Posterior ribcage diameter
c) Transverse ribcage diameter
d) Rib 1
e) Angle of Louis
12) Which of the following muscles is NOT used during rib elevation (inspiration)?
a) External intercostals
b) Interchondral internal intercostals
c) Trapezius
d) Sternocleidomastoid
e) Serratus posterior superior
13) What muscle is used as an accessory during forced inspiration?
a) Pectoralis major
b) Pectoralis minor
c) Teres major
d) Teres minor
e) Serratus anterior
14) Which of the following muscles is NOT used during rib depression (exhalation)?
a) Abdominal muscles
b) Internal innermost intercostals
c) Serratus posterior inferior
d) Posterior scalene
e) Transversus thoracis
15) A patient presents with right-sided inhalation somatic dysfunction from ribs 2-5.
Which rib is the key rib for treatment?
a) Right rib 1
b) Left rib 2
c) Right rib 2
d) Left rib 5
e) Right rib 5
16) A patient presents with left-sided exhalation somatic dysfunction from ribs 2-5.
Which rib is the key rib for treatment?
a) Right rib 1
b) Left rib 2
c) Right rib 2
d) Left rib 5
e) Right rib 5
17) Pre-ganglionic sympathetics in the intermediolateral cell column (IML) arise from
what cord levels?
a) All levels
b) C1-T2
c) T1-L2
d) L1-S2
e) Cranial & Sacral
18) Pre-ganglionic parasympathetics come from all of the following EXCEPT:
a) IML
b) S2-S4
c) CN III
d) CN VII
e) CN IX
19) Which of the following is a reflex in which disruption, irritation, or disease of an
internal organ results in reflex dysfunction of a segmentally related musculoskeletal
region?
a) Segmentalsomatic reflex
b) Somatovisceral reflex
c) Internalsomatic reflex
d) Viscerosomatic reflex
e) Somatic reflex
20) Which of the following describes a viscerosomatic reflex pathway?
a) Skeletal muscle to dorsal root to synapse to ventral root to skeletal muscle
b) Sympathetic chain to gray rami to ventral root to synapse to dorsal root to
skeletal muscle
c) Sympathetic chain to white rami to dorsal root to synapse to ventral root to
skeletal muscle
d) Organ wall to celiac ganglia to gray rami to ventral root to synapse to dorsal
root to skeletal muscle
e) Organ wall to celiac ganglia to white rami to dorsal root to synapse to ventral
root to skeletal muscle
21) Which of the following would NOT be a clue that a viscerosomatic reflex is taking
place?
a) Skeletal muscle spasm/contraction
b) Organ pain at location of problem
c) Sweat glands making lots of sweat

d) Hair follicles standing on end
e) Blood vessels dilated
22) What type of reflex would have an initial sensory receptor in a muscle and lead to
constipation?
a) Segmentalsomatic reflex
b) Somatovisceral reflex
c) Internalsomatic reflex
d) Viscerosomatic reflex
e) Visceral reflex
23) I.M. Korr, Ph.D. speculated that all disease processes involved ____ activity.
a) Hyposympathetic
b) Hypoparasympathetic
c) Hypersympathetic
d) Hyperparasympathetic
24) Which of the following is NOT true regarding facilitated segments?
a) Chronically hyperirritable
b) Muscles are tender
c) Muscles are hypertonic
d) Hyporesponsive
e) Area develops a lower threshold for irritation and dysfunction when other
structures are stimulated
25) Facilitated segments (increased sympathetic tone) are not difficult to treat with OMT.
a) True
b) False
26) Which of the following Chapman Points is NOT matched correctly?
a) Pylorus; Manubrium
b) Anterior 5th intercostal left of sternum; Stomach acid
c) Anterior 5th intercostal right of sternum; Liver
d) Anterior 6th intercostal left of sternum; Stomach peristalsis
e) Anterior 6th intercostal right of sternum; Liver and gallbladder
27) Chapman reflexes are anterior and posterior ____ points that may result from ____
reflexes.
a) Pressure; Viscerosomatic
b) Pressure; Somatovisceral
c) Tender; Viscerosomatic
d) Tender; Somatovisceral
28) Tissue that is boggy, warm, moist, tender, hyperirritable, and bounces off when
performing HVLA is characteristic of:
a) Acute facilitated segments
b) Acute viscerosomatic reflex
c) Chronic facilitated segments
d) Chronic viscerosomatic reflex
e) A and B
OPP #16 – Innominates (Pelvis, Pelvic Girdle, and Hip)
1) What muscle is the primary hip flexor?

a) Sartorius
b) Rectus femoris
c) Iliacus
d) Iliopsoas
2) What is the action of the gracilis muscle?
a) Flexion of the hip
b) Adduction of the hip
c) Abduction of the hip
d) Extension of the hip
e) Rotation of the hip
3) What is the action of the gluteus medius muscle?
a) Flexion of the hip
b) Adduction of the hip
c) Abduction of the hip
d) Extension of the hip
e) Rotation of the hip
4) What muscle lies directly on top of the sciatic nerve and in some cases is pierced by
the sciatic nerve?
a) Iliopsoas
b) Pectineus
c) Adductor magnus
d) Gluteus maximus
e) Piriformis
5) Sacral flexion and extension caused by respiratory motion occurs on what axis?
a) Vertical axis
b) Oblique axis
c) Superior transverse axis
d) Middle transverse axis
e) Anteroposterior axis
6) Rotation of the sacrum occurs on what axis?
a) Vertical axis
b) Oblique axis
7) Lateral flexion of the sacrum occurs on what axis?
a) Vertical axis
b) Oblique axis
8) Torsional motions of the sacrum occur on what axis?
a) Vertical axis
b) Oblique axis

9) Anteroposterior rotation of the ilium on the sacrum occurs on what axis?
a) Vertical axis
b) Superior transverse axis
c) Middle transverse axis
d) Inferior transverse axis
10) A patient presents after falling off a ladder and landing with their weight on one leg.
They complain of hip pain and walk with a stumbling limp. Upon examination, the left
iliac crest appears to have superior shear. What type of translatory hip motion occured?
a) Superoinferior
b) Anteroposterior
c) Caliper motion
d) Torsional motion
e) Compression of the hip
11) A patient presents after falling backwards on ice. They complain of hip pain and walk
with an exaggerated sway. Upon examination, the left iliac crest appears to have
slid/sheared forward. What type of translatory hip motion occured?
a) Superoinferior
b) Anteroposterior
c) Caliper motion
d) Torsional motion
e) Compression of the hip
12) During childbirth, the sacrum undergoes a process called nutation (nodding). What
type of somatic dysfunction is associated with this situation?
a) Superior pubic dysfunction
b) Inferior pubic dysfunction
c) Adducted pubic dysfunction
d) Abduction pubic dysfunction
e) Sacroiliac dysfunction
13) A patient presents with pain at the pubic symphysis. This is a good indicator of what
type of dysfunction?
a) Pubic symphysis
b) Sacroiliac
c) Ilial
d) Ishial
e) Sacral
14) What type of dysfunction would be present with a positive Erichsen Test?
a) Pubic symphysis
b) Sacroiliac
c) Ilial
d) Ishial
e) Sacral
15) The Ludloff Sign is positive if ecchymosis (bruising) is present within the femoral
triangle. This would be a sign of possible:
a) Tibial fracture
b) Fibular fracture
c) Torn ACL
d) Distal femur fracture
e) Hip fracture
16) Which of the following tests is used to check for contracture of the iliotibial band
(tensor fascia lata)?
a) Patrick (Fabere) Test
b) Ober Test
c) Trendelenberg Test
d) Thomas Test
e) Erichsen Test
17) Which of the following tests is used to check for gluteus medius weakness on the
weight-bearing side?
b) Ober Test
d) Thomas Test
e) Erichsen Test
18) Which of the following tests for gross motion of the hip joint?
b) Ober Test
d) Thomas Test
e) Erichsen Test
19) The Squatting Test involves having the patient squat and rise back up to standing
position, using two distinct sets of muscles. The Tinel Test involves using a reflex
hammer approximately two-thirds of the way from the ASIS to the greater trochanter.
These tests can be used to:
a) Test the veins of the leg
b) Test the arteries of the leg
c) Test the nerves of the leg
d) Test the muscles tightness of the leg
e) Test the muscle looseness of the leg
OPP #17 – Integrative Therapies I

1) Which of the following is NOT an alternative system of medicine?
a) Ayurvedic medicine
b) Oriental medicine
c) Osteopathic medicine
d) Naturopathic medicine
e) Homeopathic medicine
2) Which of the following is concerned with protecting “ayus” (life) and includes healthy
living along with therapeutic measures that relate to physical, mental, social, and spiritual
harmony?
a) Ayurvedic medicine
b) Oriental medicine
c) Osteopathic medicine
d) Naturopathic medicine
e) Homeopathic medicine
3) What is the most common intake method for essential oils?
a) Injection
b) Ingestion
c) Absorption
d) Inhalation
4) Which of the following is NOT a form of energy medicine?
a) OMT
b) Meridian regulation
c) Qi Gong
d) Reiki
e) Homeopathy
5) Which of the following is NOT a form of energy medicine?
a) Jin Shin
b) Judo
c) Chakra
d) TENSCAM
e) Polar therapy and zero balancing
6) Which of the following therapies uses an electromagnetic field to interact with the
body’s fascia?
a) Jin Shin
b) Chakra
c) Reiki
d) Polar therapy
e) TENSCAM
7) Which part of the brain is stimulated by acoustic (sound) therapies?
a) Temporal
b) Parietal
c) Occipital
d) Frontal
e) Cerebellum
8) Which part of the brain is stimulated by color therapies?
a) Temporal
b) Parietal
c) Occipital
d) Frontal
e) Cerebellum
9) Which of the following is a deep myofascial therapy where fascial layers are
separated?
a) Craniosacral therapy
b) Chiropractic manipulation
c) Therapeutic massage
d) Rolfing or structural integration
e) Trigger point myotherapy

10) Which of the following techniques deals with posture therapy to relieve the stress on
the body?
a) Watsu
b) Alexander technique
c) Yoga
d) Pilates
e) Tai Chi
11) Which of the following techniques involves myofascial therapy in a warm pool?
a) Watsu
c) Yoga
d) Pilates
e) Tai Chi
12) Which of the following techniques uses conscious means to control internal systems,
such as increasing the temperature of your skin?
a) Hypnosis
b) Guided imagery
c) Shamanism
d) Biofeedback
e) Meditation
13) Which of the following techniques would involve picturing tiny Pac-Man characters
in your body chasing and eating cancer cells?
a) Hypnosis
b) Guided imagery
c) Shamanism
d) Biofeedback
e) Meditation
14) Which of the following therapies involves giving intravenous substances, such as
EDTA, to remove heavy metals?
a) Homeopathy
c) Chelation
d) Watsu
e) Orthomolecular
15) How many years lapsed (difference) between the first osteopathy class (Kirksville,
MO) and the first chiropractic class (Davenport, IA)?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
16) Which of the following is NOT a main type of chiropractic therapy?
a) Straight (spinal subluxations)
b) Mixers (nutrition, physiotherapy)
c) Convert (only physiotherapy)
d) Network Spinal Analysis (NSA)

17) Which of the following was founded by Benedict Lust, states the body is self-healing,
illness is a non-homeostatic condition, and holistic approaches should be used to heal?
a) Shamanism
b) Chiropractic
c) Osteopathy
d) Homeopathy
e) Naturopathy
18) Which of the following is part of the homeopathic Law of Similars and NOT the Law
of Cure?
a) Remedies work from top to bottom
b) Remedies work from inside to outside
c) Remedies work from major organs to minor organs
d) Remedies work by mimicking symptoms of the illness
e) Remedies work to clear symptoms in the reverse order that they appeared
19) In the Five Elements model of Oriental Medicine (not Traditional Chinese Medicine),
which of the following is NOT considered an element?
a) Wood
b) Metal
c) Fire
d) Earth
e) Air
20) Which of the following is NOT an element of Ayurveda?
a) Ether
b) Fire
c) Wood
d) Earth
e) Air
21) Which of the following is NOT one of the “five actions” of Pancha Karma, from
Aurveda?
a) Emetics
b) Purgative
c) Enema
d) Nasal administration of medication
e) Letting of blood
OPP #18 – Integrative Therapies II

1) Which of the following therapies could involve taking in energy from the auric field,
energy bodies, or meridians and downloading it into the nervous system, fascia, and body
components?
a) Acupuncture
b) Meridian regulation
c) Qi Gong
d) Reiki
e) Therapeutic touch
2) Which of the following, meaning the way of the compassionate spirit, combines
elements from other therapies such as Japanese acupressure, Chinese acupuncture, and
Taoist philosophy?
a) Chakra
b) Qi Gong
c) Reiki
d) Wu Wei
e) Jin Shin Do
3) What symbol is commonly mistaken for the traditional medical symbol (Rod of
Asclepius)?
a) Star of Life
b) Rx symbol
c) Caduceus
d) Heart shape
e) Hermes wing
4) What does a SQUID magnetometer measure?
a) Magnetic field variance
b) Electrical flux
c) Magnetic field strength
d) Electrical current
e) Electrical voltage
5) According to Sisken & Walker (1995), what healing effect would be seen at 7 Hz?
a) Nerve regeneration
b) Bone growth
c) Ligament healing
d) Decreased skin necrosis
e) Synergistic effects with nerve growth factor
6) Schumann Resonance (SR) is a set of spectrum peaks in the extremely low frequency
(ELF) portion of the Earth's electromagnetic field spectrum. The fundamental mode of
the Schumann resonance is a standing wave in the Earth-ionosphere cavity with a
wavelength equal to the circumference of the Earth. This lowest-frequency (and highest-
intensity) mode of the Schumann resonance occurs at a frequency of approximately:
a) 2 Hz
b) 8 Hz
c) 40 Hz
d) 60 Hz
e) 80 Hz
7) Although there is no known physical interpretation, what change has been seen in a
Raman Spectrum graph of tap water in-situ after Qi treatment?
a) Increased intensity
b) Increased shift
c) Decreased intensity
d) Decreased shift
e) No change (negative result)
OPP #19 – Sacrum
1) The Ferguson angle, measured at the sacroiliac joint, is normally:

a) 0 – 5 degrees
b) 10 – 15 degrees
c) 15 – 25 degrees
d) 25 – 35 degrees
e) 35 – 45 degrees
2) What muscle attaches at the sacrum and ilium?
a) Psoas
b) Iliacus
c) Quadratus lumborum
d) Gracilis
e) No muscle attaches
3) Which of the following is considered an accessory pelvic ligament and NOT a true
pelvic ligament?
a) Anterior sacroiliac
b) Posterior sacroiliac
c) Iliolumbar
d) Interosseous sacroiliac
4) Which of the following movements is restrained by both the true pelvic ligaments and
the accessory pelvic ligaments?
a) Anterior movement
b) Rotation
c) Vertical stability
d) Posterior movement
e) Lateral movement
5) Where do the left and right sympathetic chains join (ganglion impar)?
a) Anterior sacrum
b) Posterior sacrum
c) Lateral sacrum
d) Posterior coccyx
e) Anterior coccyx
6) What level is the middle axis of the sacrum (postural flexion/extension) located?
a) S1 body
b) S2 body
c) S3 body
d) S4 body
e) S5 body
7) The right oblique axis is on the ____ side crossing the left inferior lateral angle (ILA).
The left oblique axis is on the ____ side crossing the left sacral sulcus.
a) Ipsilateral; Ipsilateral
b) Contralateral; Contralateral
c) Ipsilateral; Contralateral
d) Contralateral; Ipsilateral
8) What level is the superior transverse axis of the sacrum (respiration) located?
a) S1 segment
b) S2 segment
c) S3 segment
d) S4 segment
e) S5 segment
9) Which of the following pubic motions would increase the pubic angle the most?
a) Caliper
b) Torsional
c) Superior translatory
d) Inferior translatory
10) The standing flexion test primarily evaluates ____ dysfunction where motion
restriction is present if the posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) moves ____.
a) Sacroiliac; Caudad
b) Sacroiliac; Cephalad
c) Iliosacral; Caudad
d) Iliosacral; Cephalad
11) Which of the following factors could confound (flaw) the seated flexion test?
a) Shoe size
b) Anatomical short leg
c) Patient bends too far forward
d) Patient bends too far backwards
e) Knee injury
12) If a standing flexion test were positive on the right side, and a seated flexion test were
positive on the right side, which of the following can be said?
a) Right sacroiliac dysfunction
b) Left sacroiliac dysfunction
c) Right iliosacral dysfunction
d) Left iliosacral dysfunction
e) Right iliosacral or sacroiliac dysfunction
13) The spring test checks for forward torsion. A good spring test is a ____ test and a
poor spring test, or board-like resistance, is a ____ test.
a) Positive; Negative
b) Negative; Positive
c) Positive; Positive
d) Negative; Negative
14) Sacral torsions are described relative to what vertebrae?
a) L4
b) L5
c) S1
d) S2
e) S5
15) What is the dysfunction if a deep sacral sulcus is found on the right, the ILA is
posterior on the left, the seated flexion test is positive on the right, and the spring test is
negative?
a) Left on Left
b) Right on Right
c) Left on Right
d) Right on Left
e) Unilateral
16) What is the dysfunction if a deep sacral sulcus is found on the left, the ILA is
posterior on the right, the seated flexion test is positive on the right, and the spring test is
positive?
a) Left on Left
b) Right on Right
c) Left on Right
d) Right on Left
e) Unilateral
17) What is the dysfunction if a deep sacral sulcus is found on the left, the ILA is
posterior on the left, the seated flexion test is positive on the left, and the spring test is
negative?
a) Left on Left
b) Right on Right
c) Left on Right
d) Right on Left
e) Unilateral
18) A bilateral sacral flexion dysfunction would have a ____ spring test and a bilateral
sacral extension dysfunction would have a ____ spring test.
a) Positive; Positive
b) Positive; Negative (Equivocal)
c) Negative (Equivocal); Positive
d) Negative (Equivocal); Negative (Equivocal)
19) What is the dysfunction if the ASIS is more superior on the left, the PSIS is more
inferior on the left?
a) Left posterior innominate
b) Left anterior innominate
c) Right posterior innominate
d) Right anterior innominate
e) Left superior sheer
OPP #20 – Head

1) Who is considered the discoverer of cranial osteopathy?
a) A.T. Still
b) Beryl Arbuckle
c) Harold Magoun
d) W.G. Sutherland
e) Viola Frymann
2) Craniosacral rhythmic motion (sphenobasilar junction) occurs at what frequency?
a) 2 – 4 Hz
b) 8 – 14 Hz
c) 15 – 50 Hz
d) 24 – 36 Hz
e) 54 – 112 Hz
3) Why type of suture is seen at the border between parietal bones?
a) Serrate
b) Squamous
c) Harmonic
d) Squamoserrate
4) What type of suture is seen at the border between the temporal and parietal bones?
a) Serrate
b) Squamous
c) Harmonic
d) Squamoserrate
5) What type of suture is the intermaxillary suture?
a) Serrate
b) Squamous
c) Harmonic
d) Squamoserrate
6) How far laterally is the pivot point along the coronal suture from the vertex/saggital
suture?
a) 3/4 of the suture
b) 1/2 of the suture
c) 2/3 of the suture
d) 1/3 of the suture
e) At the apex
7) Which of the following is NOT a component of the reciprocal tension membrane?
a) Falx cerebri
b) Falx cerebelli
c) Tentorium cerebelli
d) Spinal dura
e) Foramen magnum
8) How much cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced daily?
a) 1/2 cup
b) 1/2 quart
c) 1/2 liter
d) 1 liter
e) 1 gallon
9) Which of the following is NOT involved in the sinus drainage technique?
a) Frontal sinuses
b) Supraorbital notches
c) Sphenoid sinuses
d) Infraorbital notches
e) Lateral nasal bones
10) Which of the following muscles is most likely associated with myofascial
dysfunction causing lower tooth pain?
a) Masseter
b) Sternocleidomastoid
c) Medial pterygoid
d) Lateral pterygoid
e) Temporalis
11) What muscle is considered the “disc” of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?
a) Masseter
b) Sternocleidomastoid
c) Medial pterygoid
d) Lateral pterygoid
e) Temporalis
OPP #21 – Static Symmetry

1) Which of the following is the definition of Somatic Dysfunction?
a) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
skeletal, muscular and fascial structures, and their related vascular, lymphatic, and
spinal elements
b) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
skeletal, neural and myofascial structures, and their related vascular, lymphatic,
and arthrodial elements
c) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
skeletal, arthrodial and myofascial structures, and their related vascular,
d) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
lymphatic, arthrodial and myofascial structures, and their related vascular,
skeletal, and neural elements
e) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
skeletal, arthrodial and vascular structures, and their related myofascial,
2) What lumbar vertebra does a gravitational (plumb) line most directly transverse?
a) L1
b) L2
c) L3
d) L4
e) L5
3) A gravitational (plumb) line would cross the ____ head of the humerus and the ____
condyle of the knee.
a) Lateral; Lateral
b) Medial; Medial
c) Lateral; Medial
d) Medial; Lateral
e) It does not cross these structures
4) A gravitational (plumb) line would cross the ____ trochanter and the ____ malleolus,
as well as the anterior 1/3 of the sacrum.
a) Greater; Medial
b) Greater; Lateral
c) Lesser; Medial
d) Lesser; Lateral
5) The spring test pushes the sacrum into ____ and the lumbar vertebra into ____.
a) Flexion; Flexion
b) Extension; Extension
c) Extension; Flexion
d) Flexion; Extension
6) Which of the following is NOT true regarding kypholordosis?
a) The pelvis tends to rotate anteriorly
b) The lumbar musculature (erector spinae) will be tight
c) Psoas tension will be increased
d) The quadriceps will be tight
e) The hamstrings will be tight
7) The military posture would show a pelvis rotated ____ and a ____ Thomas Test.
a) Posterior; Positive
b) Posterior; Negative
c) Anterior; Positive
d) Anterior; Negative
8) Which of the following muscle groups would be the most tight in a swayback posture?
a) Psoas
b) Ilacus
c) Erector spinae
d) Hamstrings
e) Quadriceps
9) Which of the following is the most common form of scoliosis?
a) Occipitoatlantal
b) Cervicalthoracic
c) Thoracolumbar
d) Lumbosacral
e) Sacroiliac
10) What is considered moderate scoliosis (Cobb angle)?
a) 0 – 5 degrees
b) 5 – 15 degrees
c) 20 – 45 degrees
d) 35 – 55 degrees
e) Greater than 50 degrees
11) At what degree of scoliosis (Cobb angle) is cardiovascular function compromised?
a) 45 degrees
b) 50 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 70 degrees
e) 80 degrees
12) At what degree of scoliosis (Cobb angle) is respiratory function compromised?
a) 45 degrees
b) 50 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 70 degrees
e) 80 degrees
13) Functional scoliosis caused by an anatomical short leg would have an anterior
innominate rotation on the ____ side (to the short leg) and an internally rotated leg on the
____ side.
a) Ipsilateral; Ipsilateral
b) Ipsilateral; Contralateral
c) Contralateral; Contralateral
d) Contralateral; Ipsilateral
OPP #22 – Soft Tissue Techniques in Cervical/Thoracic/Lumbar

1) As you are walking and placing your right foot forward, you step on a nail. As your
right leg reflexively withdraws, the ____ muscles tense in the right leg and the ____
muscles are inhibited in the left leg (cross reflex).
a) Hamstrings; Hamstrings
b) Quadriceps; Quadriceps
c) Hamstrings; Quadriceps
d) Quadriceps; Hamstrings
2) What osteopathic technique is analogous to first pulling out a jammed drawer (moving
in freedom of motion) before pushing it back in (releasing restriction)?
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) HVLA
d) Myofascial
e) Articulatory
3) In the direct technique, the barrier ____ engaged and the physician applies a force
____ the barrier.
a) Is not; Away from
b) Is; Away from
c) Is not; Towards
d) Is; Towards
4) Counterstrain is a(n) ____ technique and diagnosis is done by ____.
a) Direct; Tender points
b) Indirect; Tender points
c) Direct; Restriction of motion
d) Indirect; Restriction of motion
5) Which of the following is NOT a factor in choosing which osteopathic manipulative
technique to use for treatment?
a) Patient tolerance
b) Skill of the physician
c) Location of clinic
d) Equipment
e) Space available
6) Where are the interneurons for the Renshaw inhibitory system located and what is their
function?
a) Anterior horn; Sharpen motor unit signal
b) Dorsal horn; Sharpen motor unit signal
c) Anterior horn; Dampen motor unit signal
d) Dorsal horn; Dampen motor unit signal
7) What information is sent to the nervous system from the muscle spindle reflex?
a) Speed
b) Amplitude
c) Tension
d) Location
e) Length
8) What information is sent to the nervous system from the Golgi tendon reflex?
a) Speed
b) Amplitude
c) Tension
d) Location
e) Length
9) What does the gamma motor neuron control?
a) Golgi tendon specificity
b) Golgi tendon sensitivity
c) Muscle spindle specificity
d) Muscle spindle sensitivity
10) Afferent action potentials activate the interneurons, which inhibit the alpha motor
neurons back to the skeletal muscle.
a) True
b) False
11) In the myofascial technique, if the extrafusal muscle fibers contract ____ than the
intrafusal fibers, the muscle spindle will maintain a stretch reflex, further ____ the
extrafusal fibers.
a) More; Exciting
b) Less; Exciting
c) More; Inhibiting
d) Less; Inhibiting
12) During myofascial techniques, muscle should always be pushed into bone for support
instead of toward or away from the bone.
a) True
b) False
13) Using moist heat prior to a myofascial technique would ____ the elastic response and
____ circulation to the treated area.
a) Increase; Decrease
b) Decrease; Increase
c) Increase; Increase
d) Decrease; Decrease
14) In the Golgi tendon organ reflex, extreme tension on the tendon causes a(n) ____
effect that causes a sudden ____ of the entire muscle.
a) Inhibitory; Tension
b) Excitatory; Tension
c) Inhibitory; Relaxation
d) Excitatory; Relaxation
OPP #23 – Functional Anatomy of the Cervical Spine

1) Which of the following could be described as shooting pain feeling like an electric
shock going down your arm?
a) Myofascial pain
b) Tendon pain
c) Ligament pain
d) Repetitive strain injury
e) Radiculopathy
2) Which of the following best describes a typical cervical radiograph after a whiplash
injury?
a) Hyper-flexion seen throughout the cervical region
b) Hyper-extension seen throughout the cervical region
c) Cervical curve is absent; cervical spine appears straight
d) A single vertebra is hyper-flexed
e) A single vertebra is hyper-extended
3) Which of the following OMT treatment methods is NOT likely a good choice for
treating an acute whiplash injury?
a) Myofascial release (MFR)
b) Soft tissue (ST) techniques
c) Counterstrain (CS)
d) HVLA
e) Still technique
4) A 25-year-old patient experiences neck pain, deep pain near the left shoulder blade and
left upper extremity to the thumb. During physical examination it is noted that the pain
worsens when the patient coughs, strains, or laughs. The physician notes that the pain
increases when the neck is flexed or the head is turned to the side. Which of the following
is the most likely?
a) Whiplash injury
b) Herniated disk
c) Cervical spondylolisthesis
d) Chronic degenerative disk
e) Torticollis (wry-neck)
5) A 3-year-old patient is seen by his primary care physician. History reveals that the
child has neck pain accompanied with a stiff neck. During the physical exam the
physician notes a limited range of motion for the neck and an elevated right shoulder.
Palpation of the patient’s cervical region reveals an asymmetry of the child’s neck
muscles with an enlarged muscle mass on the right side. Which of the following is the
most likely?
a) Whiplash injury
b) Herniated disk
6) A 79-year-old patient is experiencing stiffness in his neck that progressively has gotten
worse. The stiffness in his neck is accompanied by a neck pain that radiates down his
shoulder and arm. A detailed history reveals that he has also been experiencing
headaches in the back of his head and gets “zingers” when he reaches for things above his
head. Neurological examination reveals that the patient has a loss of sensation over her
shoulders. Range of motion testing shows that he has limited passive and active ability to
laterally flex (side bend) and rotate his head. Which of the following is the most likely?
a) Whiplash injury
b) Herniated disk
7) Which of the following can lead to forehead pain as a myofascial trigger point, which
is usually precipitated by a sudden stretch?
a) Clavicular head of SCM
b) Sternal head of SCM
c) Anterior scalene
d) Middle scalene
e) Posterior scalene
8) Which of the following does NOT traverse the jugular foramen?
a) Transverse sinus (IJV)
b) CN XI
c) CN X
d) CN XI
e) CN XII
OPP #24 – Cervical I

Match the following Osteopathic events with their date:
1) Death of A.T. Still a) 1828
2) The California Experience b) 1874
3) A.T. Still “flung the banner of osteopathy to the breeze” c) 1892
4) American School of Osteopathy opens in Kirksville d) 1917
5) Birth of A.T. Still e) 1961
6) Which of the following describes how the superior facets of the atlas face?
a) Backward, upward, medially
b) Backward, upward, laterally
c) Backward, downward, medially
d) Backward, downward, laterally
e) Forward, upward, medially
f) Forward, upward, laterally
g) Forward, downward, medially
h) Forward, downward, laterally
7) Which of the following applies for the OA joint?
a) Freyette’s 1st Principle
b) Freyette’s 2nd Principle
c) Freyette’s 3rd Principle
d) Type I Mechanics
e) Type II Mechanics
8) A newborn presents with poor suck, swallowing difficulties, emesis, hiccups,
opisthotonus (hyper-extension), and failure to thrive. Which of the following somatic
dysfunctions is the most likely?
a) Plagiocephaly (flat-head)
b) Torticollis
c) Occipital condylar compression

d) Strabismus
e) Cervical scoliosis
9) If the occiput rotates left on the axis, it slides/translates ____ and side bends ____.
a) Left; Left
b) Right; Right
c) Left; Right
d) Right; Left
10) For the atlantoaxial joint, somatic dysfunction occurs in what plane?
a) Side bending
b) Rotation
c) Flexion/Extension
11) What is the disk height to vertebral body ratio?
a) 1:5
b) 2:5
c) 3:5
d) 4:5
e) 1:1
12) Which of the following applies to vertebrae C3-C7?
a) Freyette’s 1st Principle
b) Freyette’s 2nd Principle
c) Freyette’s 3rd Principle
d) Type I Mechanics
e) Type II Mechanics
13) What type of curve does the cervical spine normally have?
a) Straight
b) Kyphosis
c) Lordosis
d) Scoliosis
e) Kypholordosis
14) What cervical motion is limited by the joints of Luschka (Unciform joints)?
a) None
b) Anterior translation
c) Posterior translation
d) Rotational translation
e) Lateral translation
OPP #25 – Cervical II

1) Which of the following is a term for the area between the cervical facet joints?
a) Anterior transverse processes
b) Posterior transverse processes
c) Transverse foramina
d) Articular pillars
e) Joints of Luschka
2) Which of the following structure should be avoided during OMT?
a) Thyroid gland
b) Sternocleidomastoid muscle
c) Clavicle
d) Trapezius muscle
e) Middle scalene muscle
3) The major motion of the atlas is:
a) Rotation on the occiput
b) Rotation on the axis
c) Flexion/extension on the occiput
d) Flexion/extension on the axis
e) Side bending on the axis
4) In a lateral translation test of the atlas, the occiput is posterior on the right. Which of
the following statements is NOT true?
a) Translation is freer to the right
b) The occiput is side-bent left
c) The occiput is rotated left on the atlas
d) The right OA joint will not move anterior in extension
e) The right OA has palpable tissue texture changes
5) When testing atlas motion on the axis, how should the patient be positioned?
a) In the position of comfort
b) Prone, cervical spine flexed
c) Prone, cervical spine extended
d) Supine, cervical spine flexed
e) Supine, cervical spine extended
6) If C3 is flexed, side-bent and rotated left, which of the following is NOT true?
a) Translation is freer to the right
b) Rotation is freer to the left
c) The transverse process is prominent on the left
d) Flexion will be freer than extension
e) Rotation and side-bending are freer to the right
7) Due to the dural connection, chronic somatic dysfunction in the cervical area is often
associated with chronic dysfunction in which of the following locations?
a) Thoracic
b) Ribs
c) Lumbar
d) Sacral
e) Lower limbs
8) What clinical problem does vestibular asymmetry lead to?
a) Cervical spasm
b) Vertigo
c) Temporal bone pain
d) Torticollis
e) OA dysfunction
9) Which of the following is the correct sequence for treating whiplash injury?
a) Thoracics, suboccipital, neck
b) Neck, thoracics, suboccipital
c) Suboccipital, neck, thoracics
d) Thoracics, neck, suboccipital

e) Neck, suboccipital, thoracics
f) Suboccipital, thoracics, neck
10) A patient presents with a possible osteophyte in the cervical region. They feel
lightning bold shooting down their arm and specifically in their thumb. Which cervical
root is likely being compressed?
a) 3rd
b) 4th
c) 5th
d) 6th
e) 7th
11) Which radiographic view would be the best for diagnosing an osteophyte of the
cervical region?
a) AP
b) PA
c) Lateral
d) Oblique
OPP #26 – Cervical III

1) In treating acute myositis, the OMT dosage is ____ proportional to the acuteness of the
injury and ____ proportional to the intensity of the problem.
a) Directly; Directly
b) Directly; Inversely
c) Inversely; Inversely
d) Inversely; Directly
2) How many hours does the acute phase of myositis last, which is considered consistent
in all mammals?
a) 1
b) 10
c) 24
d) 48
e) 100
3) In acute myositis treatment, how should heat be applied?
a) Have patient lie down on heating pad for hours (resting)
b) Once a day for an hour
c) 2-3 times per day for an hour each
d) 2-3 times per day for 10-15 minutes each
e) 5-7 times per day for 5 minutes each
4) There are standards in place for ruling out cervical spinal fracture without radiography.
a) True
b) False
5) In traumatic cervical injuries, the integrity of individual cells may be compromised.
This would occur primarily at what location?
a) Mitochondria
b) Cell membrane
c) Cytoplasm
d) Lysosomes
e) SER and RER
Match the definition of whiplash with the author:
a) Wright b) McHenry c) McKeever
6) With sudden impact from the rear, the body in the area of the cervico-dorsal junction is
thrown forward, the head moves relatively backward in a straight line, forcefully
shortening the cervical spine by about one inch.
7) Sudden hyper-flexion of the cervical spine, followed by spontaneous extension recoil
of the posterior articular ligament and ligamentum flavum.
8) The impact is an indirect one, transmitted throughout the parts of the car to the
automobile seat, which transmits the inertia to the body of the victim
9) Which of the following is NOT a late sequelae of traumatic cervical injury?
a) Adhesion of nerves
b) Scar formation
c) Disk degeneration
d) Traumatic arthritis
e) Stiffness and edema
10) Which of the following is the most likely misdiagnosis for benign cervical vertigo?
a) Torticollis
b) Psychological disorder
c) Inner ear infection
d) Gastroenteritis
e) Migraine headache
11) Which of the following would NOT contribute to a muscle tension headache?
a) Postural imbalance
b) Upper thoracic dysfunction
c) Decreased sympathetic tone
d) Stress and anxiety
e) Depression
OPP #27 – Muscle Energy & Cervical

1) Muscle energy is ____ and ____.
a) Active; Direct
b) Passive; Direct
c) Active; Indirect
d) Passive; Indirect
2) Which of the following patients could most likely receive muscle energy?
a) Comatose patient
b) Uncooperative patient
c) Very old patient
d) Very young patient
e) Unresponsive patient
3) Who is credited with developing muscle energy techniques?
a) A. T. Still
b) P. S. Moran
c) N. A. Pruzzo
d) F. L. Mitchell, Jr.
e) F. L. Mitchell, Sr.
4) T.J. Ruddy used a muscle-energy-like technique involving rapid rhythmic resistive
duction, where the patient moved how many excursions per minute?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 60
e) 120
5) What is the ultimate goal of muscle energy?
a) Myotactic reflex
b) Isometric contraction
c) Isometric relaxation
d) Proprioceptive innervation
e) Golgion tendon innervation
Match the force with the muscle energy technique:
6) 30-50 pounds a) Respiratory assistance
7) 10-20 pounds b) Joint mobilization
8) Exaggerated movement c) Post isometric relaxation
9) Exceptionally gentle d) Reciprocal inhibition and crossed extensor reflex
10) Very gentle (ounces) e) Oculocephalogyric reflex
11) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for muscle energy techniques?
a) Acute whiplash injury
b) Post-surgical patient
c) ICU patient post AMI
d) Bone fracture at site of treatment
e) Trauma at site of treatment
12) What is meant by “feather edge” in muscle energy techniques?
a) Engaging the barrier fully
b) Engaging the barrier minimally
c) Not engaging the barrier
d) Moving away from the barrier fully
e) Moving away from the barrier minimally
Match the following definitions with the type of exercise:
a) Isometric b) Isokinetic c) Isotonic
13) Dynamic exercise with a constant load. The resistance is not constant.
14) Dynamic exercise in which the speed of motion is controlled by varying the
resistance.
15) Static exercise in which the muscle contracts with little or no shortening (static
contraction).
16) Chapman points are seen as small, smooth, firm nodules where pain is pinpoint, non-
radiating, sharp, and exquisitely distressing. Where would the Chapman point be found
for a stomach acid visceral sympathetic reflex loop?
a) Sternum
b) Right 5th costochontral space
c) Right 6th costochontral space
d) Left 5th costochontral space

e) Left 6th costochontral space
17) Where is the Chapman point for a pylorus reflex?
a) Sternum
18) Where is the Chapman point for a reflex involving the liver and gallbladder?
a) Sternum
19) In treating Chapman reflexes, pressure should be applied:
a) Quickly in a circular motion for 3-5 minutes at a time
b) Quickly in a circular motion for 10-30 seconds at a time
c) Slowly in a circular motion for 3-5 minutes at a time
d) Slowly in a circular motion for 10-30 seconds at a time
e) Directly on the point until the patient indicates the pain is gone
20) Where would you most likely find a Travell trigger point?
a) Near bone
b) At a boney attachment point
c) At a ligamentous attachment point
d) At a tendenous attachment point
e) In the middle of the muscle belly
21) In treating Travell trigger points, an ice or vapocollant spray is used as a ____ and
stretch is used as the ____.
a) Distraction; Action
b) Action; Distraction
c) Warm up; Action
d) Action; Cool down
e) Injection; Action
22) Who, through years of clinical observation, developed counterstain techniques?
a) A. T. Still
b) F. Chapman
c) L. H. Jones
d) F. L. Mitchell, Jr.
e) F. L. Mitchell, Sr.
23) How long is the body positioned during counterstain treatment, with passive return to
neutral afterwards?
a) 3 to 5-seconds
b) 10-seconds
c) 30-seconds James Lamberg
d) 60-seconds
e) 90-seconds
AnswerKey 10) B 9) B 2) C
OPP #1 OPP #5 11) D 10) E 3) A
1) B 1) E 11) C 4) D
2) C 2) C OPP #10 12) E 5) E
3) E 3) B 1) C 13) A 6) C
4) D 4) A 2) B 14) B 7) D
5) E 5) D 3) E 15) D 8) A
6) A 6) E 4) C 16) C 9) E
7) C 7) D 5) C 17) A 10) B
8) D 8) A 6) A 18) D 11) D
9) B 9) C 7) D 19) B 12) C
10) A 10) D 8) A 13) B
11) C 11) C 9) B OPP #13 14) D
12) C 12) E 10) E 1) B 15) E
13) E 2) A 16) B
14) C OPP #6 OPP #11 3) C 17) C
1) E 1) C 4) D 18) A
OPP #2 2) B 2) B 5) E 19) D
1) E 3) C 3) D 6) E 20) E
2) B 4) A 4) A 7) D 21) B
3) A 5) E 5) E 8) B 22) B
4) D 6) C 9) C 23) C
5) C OPP #7 7) E 10) A 24) D
6) A 1) E 8) B 11) A 25) B
7) E 2) D 9) D 12) E 26) A
8) C 3) A 10) B 13) B 27) C
9) B 4) B 11) A 14) D 28) E
10) C 5) D 12) C 15) C
6) C 13) E 16) C OPP #16
OPP #3 7) B 14) C 17) B 1) D
1) C 15) D 18) C 2) B
2) B OPP #8 16) B 3) C
3) E 1) E 17) A OPP #14 4) E
4) E 2) A 18) C 1) B 5) C
5) A 3) D 19) D 2) D 6) A
6) D 20) C 3) E 7) E
OPP #9 4) A 8) B
OPP #4 1) E OPP #12 5) C 9) D
1) E 2) C 1) B 6) A 10) A
2) E 3) D 2) B 7) C 11) B
3) A 4) A 3) E 8) D 12) E
4) C 5) B 4) D 9) B 13) A
5) B 6) D 5) A 10) B 14) B
6) C 7) A 6) C 15) E
7) D 8) C 7) E OPP #15 16) B
8) B 9) E 8) A 1) B 17) C
18) A 11) C 8) C OPP #26

19) C 12) E 9) D 1) C
13) B 10) A 2) E
OPP #17 14) B 11) B 3) D
1) C 15) A 12) B 4) A
2) A 16) D 13) C 5) B
3) D 17) E 14) C 6) C
4) E 18) C 7) A
5) B 19) A OPP #23 8) B
6) E 1) E 9) E
7) A OPP #20 2) C 10) C
8) C 1) D 3) D 11) C
9) D 2) B 4) B
10) B 3) A 5) E OPP #27
11) A 4) B 6) D 1) A
12) D 5) C 7) A 2) C
13) B 6) D 8) E 3) E
14) C 7) E 4) D
15) D 8) C OPP #24 5) C
16) C 9) C 1) D 6) B
17) E 10) A 2) E 7) C
18) D 11) D 3) B 8) A
19) E 4) C 9) E
20) C OPP #21 5) A 10) D
21) E 1) C 6) A 11) A
2) C 7) D 12) B
OPP #18 3) A 8) C 13) C
1) D 4) B 9) C 14) B
2) E 5) D 10) B 15) A
3) C 6) E 11) B 16) D
4) C 7) C 12) E 17) A
5) B 8) D 13) C 18) C
6) B 9) C 14) E 19) D
7) A 10) C 20) E
11) D OPP #25 21) A
OPP #19 12) B 1) D 22) C
1) D 13) B 2) A 23) E
2) E 3) B
3) C OPP #22 4) C
4) B 1) A 5) D
5) E 2) B 6) E
6) B 3) D 7) D
7) A 4) A 8) B
8) B 5) C 9) A
9) A 6) A 10) D
10) D 7) E 11) D

Quiz Osteopathic Part 1 of 4

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Quiz Osteopathic Part 1 of 4

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Osteopathic Principles & Practice – Part 1 14Mar2009

OPP #1 – History of Osteopathic Medicine

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -1-

8) What was the (Abraham) Flexner Report of 1910?

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -2-

OPP #2 – Principles of Osteopathic Medicine

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -3-

OPP #3 – Integrative Medicine Introduction

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -4-

a) A spiritual system used to describe medical therapies.

OPP #4 – Fryette’s Principles

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -5-

OPP #5 – Somatic Dysfunction & Motion Testing

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -6-

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -7-

OPP #6 – Upper Limb

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -8-

a) Pronation and Supination of the forearm

OPP #7 – Integrative Exercise: Conventional

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -9-

a) Males > 15%, Females > 15%

OPP #8 – Integrative Exercise: Unconventional

OPP #9 – Upper Limb: Spencer Technique & Soft Tissue

b) Start “low and slow”

OPP #10 – Hip

OPP #11 – Fascia and OMT

3) Which of the following is NOT a layer of fascia?

OPP #12 – Knee, Leg, Ankle, ROM, Ortho Tests

d) Calcaneus; 2nd; 5th

OPP #13 – Muscle Reflexes

7) Electronic nerve stimulation would normally give constant force of muscle

a) Changes in golgi tendon organ gain

OPP #14 – Nutrition Introduction

OPP #15 – Ribs/Thoracic Interplay and Autonomics

c) Sweat glands making lots of sweat

OPP #16 – Innominates (Pelvis, Pelvic Girdle, and Hip)

1) What muscle is the primary hip flexor?

d) Middle transverse axis

OPP #17 – Integrative Therapies I

e) Trigger point myotherapy

d) Network Spinal Analysis (NSA)

OPP #18 – Integrative Therapies II

OPP #19 – Sacrum

1) The Ferguson angle, measured at the sacroiliac joint, is normally:

OPP #20 – Head

OPP #21 – Static Symmetry

OPP #22 – Soft Tissue Techniques in Cervical/Thoracic/Lumbar

OPP #23 – Functional Anatomy of the Cervical Spine

OPP #24 – Cervical I

c) Occipital condylar compression

OPP #25 – Cervical II

d) Thoracics, neck, suboccipital

OPP #26 – Cervical III

OPP #27 – Muscle Energy & Cervical

d) Left 5th costochontral space

18) A 11) C 8) C OPP #26

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