1.

________ is a virtual-circuit wide-area network that was designed in response to demands for a new type of WAN in the late 1980s and early 1990s. A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above 2. Frame Relay provides ________. A) PVCs B) SVCs C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 3. VCIs in Frame Relay are called ______. A) PVC B) SVC C) DLCIs D) none of the above 4. In Frame Relay, when a _____ is selected, the corresponding table entry is recorded for all switches by the administrator A) PVC B) SVC C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 5. In Frame Relay, when. ______ is selected, it requires establishing and terminating phases A) a PVC B) an SVC C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 6. Frame Relay has _______. A) only the physical layer B) only the data link C) the physical and data link layers D) the physical, data link, and network layers 7. At the data link layer, Frame Relay uses a protocol that supports _____control. A) flow B) error C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 8. In Frame Relay, an address can be ________ bytes. A) only 2 B) 2 to 3 C) 2 to 4 D) none of the above

9. In Frame Relay, the EA field defines the number of bytes; it is _____ in the last byte of the address. A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 10. To handle frames arriving from other protocols, Frame Relay uses a device called a _________. A) VOFR B) FRAD C) MUX D) none of the above 11. Frame Relay networks offer an option called ______________ that sends voice through the network. A) VOFR B) FRAD C) MUX D) none of the above 12. ________ is the cell relay protocol designed by the corresponding Forum and adopted by the ITU-T. A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above 13. A _______ is defined as a small, fixed-size block of information. A) frame B) packet C) cell D) none of the above 14. In ATM, a virtual connection is defined by _________. A) VPI B) VCI C) DLCI D) a combination of (a) and (b) 15. The ATM standard defines ______ layers. A) two B) three C) four D) five 16. The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in length. A) 8 B) 12 C) 16 D) 24

17. The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in length. A) 8 B) 12 C) 16 D) 24 18. The ATM data packet is a cell composed of ______ bytes. A) 40 B) 50 C) 52 D) 53

19. ______ eliminates the varying delay times associated with different-size packets. A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) all of the above 20. A(n) ______ is the interface between a user and an ATM switch. A) UNI B) NNI C) NNN D) None of the above 21. _________ is the interface between two ATM switches. A) UNI B) NNI C) NNN D) none of the above 22. In ATM, connection between two endpoints is accomplished through _______. A) TPs B) VPs C) VCs D) all of the above 23. In ATM, the _______layer accepts transmissions from upper-layer services and maps them into ATM cells. A) physical B) ATM C) AAL D) none of the above 24. In ATM, the ______ layer provides routing, traffic management, switching, and multiplexing services. A) physical B) ATM C) AAL D) none of the above

25. In ATM, the _____ layer defines the transmission medium, bit transmission, encoding, and electrical-to-optical transformation. A) physical B) ATM layer C) AAL D) none of the above 26. The AAL is divided into _______ sublayers. A) two B) three C) four D) none of the above 27. In ATM, ______ is for constant-bit-rate data. A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5 28. In ATM, _______is for short packets. A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5 29. In ATM, _____ is for conventional packet switching (virtual-circuit approach or datagram approach). A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5 30. In ATM, ______ is for packets requiring no sequencing and no error control mechanism. A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5 31. ________ technology can be adapted for use in a LAN (ATM LAN). A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above 32. In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch connects stations. A) pure B) legacy C) mixed architecture D) none of the above 33. In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone that connects traditional LANs uses ATM technology.

A) B) C) D)

pure legacy mixed architecture none of the above

34. A _______ ATM LAN combines features of a pure ATM LAN and a legacy ATM LAN. A) pure B) legacy C) mixed architecture D) none of the above ANSWERS: 1 B 22 D 2 C 23 C 3 C 24 B 4 A 25 A 5 B 26 A 6 C 27 A 7 D 28 B 8 C 29 C 9 B 30 D 10 B 31 C 11 A 32 A 12 C 33 B 13 C 34 C 14 D 15 B 16 A 17 B 18 D 19 C 20 A 21 B

1. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN? WANs generally support higher bandwidth than LANs support. A WAN link typically traverses shorter geographic distances than a LAN link traverses. A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not. All WAN implementations generally use the same Layer 2 protocol but there are many accepted LAN Layer 2 protocols in use. 2. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company? ATM ISDN analog dialup T1 Leased Line 3. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.) low cost availability traffic encryption available bandwidth support for voice and video 4. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits? ATM ISDN Frame Relay metro Ethernet 5. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.) ATM switches core routers CSU/DSU Ethernet switches

Frame Relay switches repeaters 6. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop? DLCI DTE DCE BRI PRI 7. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology? Packet-switched networks are less susceptible to jitter than circuit-switched networks are. Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network. Packet-switched networks do not require an expensive permanent connection to each endpoint. Packet-switched networks usually experience lower latency than circuit-switched networks experience. 8. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider? Normally the CSU/DSU is the designated demarcation point for the service provider but not the customer. The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the last mile. The local loop is the segment between the CSU/DSU and the serial port on a router. Putting data on the local loop is the responsibility of the DTE. 9. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice? X.25 DSL ATM ISDN BRI ISDN PRI 10. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model? The purpose of the access layer is to provide very high bandwidth communications between network devices. Most security screening to prevent unauthorized entry to the network happens at the core layer. Untrusted external connections are segmented from the rest of the network at all three levels. The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus. 11. Why is the call setup time of a circuit-switched WAN implementation considered a drawback? Routing protocols are incompatible with this function. It restricts the communication sent to voice traffic only. A telephone must be used to initially start transferring data. Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established. 12. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop? CSU/DSU Frame Relay switch ISDN switch modem PBX switch 13. Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure? Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) metro Ethernet Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)

14. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dial-out traffic of multiple users to and from a network? core router access server Frame Relay switch ATM switch 15. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.) modem router CSU/DSU ISDN switch Ethernet switch 16. Which two features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose two.) 53-byte cells DLCI DSLAM PVC SPID 17. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct? ATM differs from other WAN protocols in that it uses variably sized packets. Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism. The frame header consists of the frame check sequence and cyclic redundancy check. ISDN differs from Frame Relay, HDLC, and ATM in that it is packet-switched rather than circuitswitched technology. 18. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer? circuit-switched dedicated switched lines frame-switched packet-switched 19. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadbandconnection? smaller cells number of subscribers committed information rate distance from the central office of the provider 20. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.) cell DLCI circuit switching packet switching data bearer channels time-division multiplexing 21. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.) Physical Layer Data Link Layer Network Layer Transport Layer Presentation Layer Application Layer 22. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?

PVCs DLCIs tunnels dedicated Layer 2 links 1. In _______ delivery, both the deliverer of the IP packetand the destination are on the same network. A) a connectionless B) a direct C) an indirect D) none of the above 2. In _______ delivery, the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on different networks. A) a connection-oriented B) a direct C) an indirect D) none of the above 3. In _______ forwarding, the full IP address of a destination is given in the routing table. A) next-hop B) network-specific C) host-specific D) default 4. In _______ forwarding, the mask and destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the routing table. A) next-hop B) network-specific C) host-specific D) default 5. In _______ forwarding, the destination address is a network address in the routing table. A) next-hop B) network-specific C) host-specific D) default 6. In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the next hop instead of complete route information. A) next-hop B) network-specific C) host-specific D) default 7. The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in routing table entries when using ________. A) classful addressing B) classless addressing C) both a and b D) none of the above

8. The principle of ________ states that the routing table is sorted from the longest mask to the shortest mask. A) first mask matching B) shortest mask matching C) longest mask matching D) none of the above 9. The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________ the size of the routing tables. A) reduce B) increase C) both a and b D) none of the above 10. _______ deals with the issues of creating and maintaining routing tables. A) Forwarding B) Routing C) Directing D) None of the above 11. A _______ routing table contains information entered manually. A) static B) dynamic C) hierarchical D) none of the above 12. A _______ routing table is updated periodically using one of the dynamic routing protocols. A) static B) dynamic C) hierarchical D) none of the above 13. The input and output ports of a router perform the ________ layer functions of the router. A) physical and data link B) network C) transport D) none of the above 14. The routing processor of a router performs the ________ layer functions of the router. A) physical and data link B) network C) transport D) none of the above 15. The task of moving the packet from the input queue to the output queue in a router is done by _________. A) input and output ports B) routing processor C) switching fabrics D) none of the above 16. A static table is one _______.

A) B) C) D)

with manual entries which is updated automatically either a or b none of the above

17. A dynamic table is one _______. A) with manual entries B) which is updated automatically C) either a or b D) none of the above 18. For purposes of routing, the Internet is divided into ___________. A) wide area networks B) autonomous networks C) autonomous systems D) none of the above 19. ____________ is a group of networks and routers under the authority of a single administration. A) An autonomous system B) An area C) a and b D) none of the above 20. Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as _______________. A) interdomain routing B) intradomain routing C) both a and b D) none of the above 21. Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as ____________. A) interdomain routing B) intradomain routing C) both a and b D) none of the above 22. In _______ routing, the least cost route between any two nodes is the route with the minimum distance. A) path vector B) distance vector C) link state D) none of the above 23. In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum distances to every node. A) path vector B) distance vector C) link state D) none of the above 24. In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table with _________ and whenever there is a change.

A) B) C) D)

every other node its immediate neighbors one neighbor none of the above

25. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on _________ routing. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) none of the above 26. The metric used by _______ is the hop count. A) OSPF B) RIP C) BGP D) none of the above 27. The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing table. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) none of the above 28. The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing protocol based on _______ routing. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) none of the above 29. The _______ protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, called the metric, to each route. A) OSPF B) RIP C) BGP D) none of the above 30. In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers without any other host or router in between. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) none of the above 31. In OSPF, a _______ link is a network with several routers attached to it. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) none of the above 32. In OSPF, a ________ link is a network is connected to only one router. A) point-to-point B) transient

C) D)

stub none of the above

33. In OSPF, when the link between two routers is broken, the administration may create a _________ link between them using a longer path that probably goes through several routers. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) none of the above 34. In ________ routing, we assume that there is one node (or more) in each autonomous system that acts on behalf of the entire autonomous system. A) distant vector B) path vector C) link state D) none of the above 35. ___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path vector routing. A) BGP B) RIP C) OSPF D) none of the above 36. To create a neighborhood relationship, a router running BGP sends an ________ message. A) open B) update C) keepalive D) none of the above 37. An area is _______. A) part of an AS B) composed of at least two ASs C) another term for an AS D) none of the above 38. A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on a network is classified as a _______ communication. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above 39. A one-to-many communication between one source and a specific group of hosts is classified as a _______ communication. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above 40. A one-to-one communication between one source and one destination is classified as a _______ communication.

A) B) C) D)

unicast multicast broadcast none of the above

41. In ______, the router forwards the received packet through only one of its interfaces. A) unicasting B) multicasting C) broadcasting D) none of the above 42. In _______, the router may forward the received packet through several of its interfaces. A) unicasting B) multicasting C) broadcasting D) none of the above 43. Emulation of ________ through ___________ is not efficient and may create long delays. A) unicasting; multiple unicasting B) multicasting; multiple unicasting C) broadcasting; multicasting D) none of the above 44. In unicast routing, each router in the domain has a table that defines a ______ path tree to possible destinations. A) average B) longest C) shortest D) none of the above 45. In multicast routing, each involved router needs to construct a ________ path tree for each group. A) average B) longest C) shortest D) none of the above 46. In the _______ tree approach, each router needs to have one shortest path tree for each group. A) group-shared B) source-based C) a or b D) none of the above 47. In the group-shared tree approach, _________ involved in multicasting. A) only the core router is B) all routers are C) only some routers are D) none of the above 48. Multicast link state routing uses the _______ tree approach. A) source-based

B) C) D)

group-shared a or b none of the above

49. The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF) protocol is an extension of the OSPF protocol that uses multicast routing to create source-based trees. The protocol is based on _______ routing. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) none of the above 50. MOSPF is a _______ protocol. A) data-driven B) command-driven C) both a and b D) none of the above 51. _________ broadcasts packets, but creates loops in the systems. A) Forwarding B) Flooding C) Backwarding D) none of the above 52. In RPF, a router forwards only the copy that has traveled the _______ path from the source to the router. A) shortest B) longest C) average D) none of the above 53. RPF eliminates the ________ in the flooding process. A) forwarding B) backwarding C) flooding D) none of the above 54. RPF guarantees that each network receives only ____ of the multicast packet. A) one copy B) two copies C) a or b D) none of the above 55. RPB creates a shortest path _______ tree from the source to each destination. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above 56. RPB guarantees that each destination receives _________ of the packet. A) one copy B) no copies

C) D)

multiple copies none of the above

57. In ________, the multicast packet must reach only those networks that have active members for that particular group. A) RPF B) RPB C) RPM D) none of the above 58. _______ adds pruning and grafting to _______ to create a multicast shortest path tree that supports dynamic membership changes. A) RPM; RPB B) RPB; RPM C) RPF: RPM D) none of the above 59. __________ is an implementation of multicast distance vector routing. It is a source-based routing protocol, based on RIP. A) MOSPF B) DVMRP C) CBT D) none of the above 60. DVMRP is a ________routing protocol, based on RIP. A) source-based B) group-shared C) both a and b D) none of the above 61. Pruning and grafting are strategies used in _______. A) RPF B) RPB C) RPM D) none of the above 62. A _______ message tells an upstream router to stop sending multicast messages for a specific group through a specific router. A) weed B) graft C) prune D) none of the above 63. A _______ message tells an upstream router to start sending multicast messages for a specific group through a specific router. A) weed B) graft C) prune D) none of the above 64. CBT is a ________ protocol that uses a core as the root of the tree.

A) B) C) D)

source-based group-shared a or b none of the above

65. PIM-DM is used in a _______ multicast environment, such as a LAN. A) dense B) sparse C) a or b D) none of the above 66. PIM-SM is used in a _______multicast environment such as a WAN. A) dense B) sparse C) a or b D) none of the above ANSWERS: 1 B 2 C 3 C 4 D 5 B 6 A 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 B A B A B C A B C A B A B

23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 B B A B B B A A B C D B A A A C B A A B B C

45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 C B A A B A B A D D C A C A B A C C B B A B