CAAC ATPL Test Questionnaire ATPL-60 1. what we wither is predicted by the term VCTS in A TAF A.

TS are expected in the vicinity B. TS may occur over the station and within 50 km of the station C. Thunderstorms are expected between 5-25 km of the R/Y complex a 2. What conditions are indicated on a weather depiction chart A. Forecast ceiling & visibilities over a geographic area B. actual en route C. actual sky cover c 3 Dew point temperature is: A. the drywet bulb B. wet and dry bulb C. wet bulb b 3. a common symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is A. impairment of VIS B. tingling hands and arms C. decreased body temperature a 4. what action should be taken when cleared for approach while A. descend to min vector alt B. remain at last assigned altitude until establish on published route segment C. descend to initial approach fix altitude b 5. what is the safest and most efficient take off and initial climb procedure in a light twin-engine airplane? Accelerate to A. Vmc, then B. An airspeed slightly above Vmc, the lift off and climb at the best rate of climb airspeed C. Best engine-out, rate of climb while the ground b 6. what is corrected altitude approximate true altitude? A. density altitude corrected for temperature variation form standard B. pressure altitude corrected for instrument error C. indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard c 7. 9600 A 9600 B a 8. a mismatch between the real world and the mental model is termed A. an illusion B. an hallucination C. a dream a 9. 121 A 90 3 B 100 3 C 120 3 a 11 A B C

b 12 A 18 B 20 C 21 c 13 10800M A impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitude B lower than C higher than c 14. what procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing A. the altitude and should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach B. a except to not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold C. the flight path and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing c 15. by changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane A. lift, gross weight and drag B. lift, airspeed and drag C. lift and airspeed but on drag b 16. leading-edge flaps A decrease rate of sink B increase profile drag C prevent flow separation c 17. downdrafts and precipitation 18. which type storms are most likely to found clouds or tormals cold front or squall line thunderstorms 19. 20 4TKM 21 22Wind strength in upper air riffle are stormy and serious turbulence will occur 23.generator voltage A. is controlled by the voltage regulator B. is controlled by the PRM of the engine C. is controlled by number of magnetic poles (a) 24.in relation to accelerate stop distance certification rules allow a period of time for engine failure recognition and pilot reaction, how long is this period A. V1 plus 2 second B. 2 second C. Vef until V1 plus 2 S c 25. an ATC instruction A. is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action providing the safety of the aircraft in not jeoparalized B. is the same as an ATC clearance C. must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective a 26. how does aroused affect performance A. affected in overload but not underload B. affected in underload but not overload

C. both affected (c) 27. the surface air temperature of a running will depend on all of the following A. airfield elevation, runway length and slope, airfield latitude and wind B. airfield elevation and latitude time of the year, time of day, runway surface prevailing wind and cloud cover C. airfield elevation runway length, prevailing wind and the time of day (b) 28.the dew point temperature is higher when A. air is very warm and dry B. air is very cold and moist C. air is very moist (c) 30What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ZLS approach A. must maintain the last assigned altitude established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes B. ma descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course C. may begin a descend to the procedure turn altitude (a) 31 provisional or modified route are displayed as A, a solid white line B, a dashed white line C, a dashed magenta line B 32.when making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot be aware of the possibility of illusion the approach may appear to be too A. shallow B. high C. low b 34.when must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach A. when the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible B. at the DH, if the visual for the intended runway are not destinaty visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost C. at the DH when the runway is not clearly visible (b) 35. when thrust reversers are not available ASDA must be increase by A. a distance equal to half of the clearway B. 10% C. 200 meters b 36. assuring that all ILS components are operating and the required visual reference are not acquired the missed approach should be initiated upon A. expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach B. arrival at the DH on the glide slope C. arrival at the visual descent point b 37.which statement is correct regarding holding pattern and procedure turns that are displayed on the EHSI screen A. active holding patterns and procedure turn are shown in magenta inactive in blue and modified in white B. active holding patterns and procedure turn are displayed in white in magenta and modified in blue C. active holding patterns and procedure turn are turn in blue inactive in magenta and modified in white a

38 where is the normal location of the jet stream relative to surface lows and front? A. the jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold front B. the jet stream is located north of the surface system C. the jetstream is located south of the low and warm front b 39.summer thunderstorm in the arctic region will generally move A. southwest to northeast with the jetstream flow B. directly north to south with the low level polar airflow C. northeast to southwest in polar easterlies c 40.dew point A. the temperature to which dry air must be cooled in order to just reach saturation B. the temperature at which a parcel at air reach super satruature point, irrespective of pressure C. the temperature to which saturated air must be cooled to produce condensation a 41APROB4PROB abilityHHhh group in an IAF indicates the probability of a. precipitation or low visibility b. Ts or high wind c. Ts or other precipitation c 42. when simultaneous ILS approach are in progress which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately A. if radar monitoring be desired to confirm lateral separation B. any inoperative of malfunction aircraft receivers C. if a simultaneous ILS approach is desired b 43. with increase altitude at a constant IAS, TEM and thrust respectively A. decrease and decrease B. increase and decrease C. decrease and increase a 44.121 A 2 B 1 C 45 3 NO. 1 NAV. Would center the CDI and change the to A. 16S B. 17S C. 34S 46. 11 A. an ILS critical area holding position sign B. a runway boundary sign C. an ILS critical area boundary sign c 47. engine bleed air is supplied to the air gap above the fuel in the tanks primarily to A. warm the fuel B. ensure an adequate supply of fuel pressure is maintained to the APU C. prevent cavitation c 48. which type clouds maybe associated with the jetstream A. cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jet stream B. cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front C. ciro stratus cloud bland on the polar side and under the jet stream c

49. a. b. c. B

a rheostat is a temperature indicator a remote automatic manual switch a temperature control device

50.when the forecast weather condition for destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for a domestic air carriers operation, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command take A. list at least are additional alternate airport B. list an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternate C. add additional hour of fuel based on cruise power settings for the airplane is use A 51.CAT can occur in widely different circumstances, but there are some features which generally hold true, which of the following is generally true A. if CAT is encountered a 1000 altitude change is likely to be sufficient to leave the CAT area B. there will be probably be a jet stream in the vicinity if CAT is encountered C. CAT occurs more frequently over weather than land (b) 52. TMPO 53Which of the following statements correctly describes the effect resulting from exposure over many years to aircraft engine noise A. some loss of heaving may occur but total recovery will eventually take place B. a permanent loss heaving may occur C. some loss of heaving may occur but it will last for only a few minutes after each exposure b 55. when does min temperature normally occur during a 24 hours period A. about 1 hour before sunrise B. at midnight C. after sunrise C 56.the purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with weather in nonprecipitation conditions is to A. increase the mn freezing point conset of crystallization B. decrease the freeze point C. raise the eutectic point B 58. what is the propose of the term hold for release when included in an IFR clearance A. when an IFR clearance is received by telephone the pilot will have time to precpave for take off prior to being release B. a procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume weather or need to issue further instructions C. gate hold procedure are in effect and the pilot receives an estimate of the time the flight will be released B 59. what is max allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimension of 148*125.2 inch es? Condition: floor load limit: 209 pound/sqft, pallet weight:197 pounds, tiedown device: 66pounds A. 25, 984.9 pound B. 25, 987.9 C. 25, 721.9 c

60 ..how often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment after initial training A. 6 calendar months B. 12 C. 24 b

ATPL 01 1. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 2.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds? A.500 feet. B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 3.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 4.What is load factor? A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 5. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.2,000 feet A X 6.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 7.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 8.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X

9.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 10.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 11.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 12.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 13.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 14. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 15.Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 16.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 17.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 18.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 19. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are?

A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X 20.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 21.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 22.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X 23.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds? A.136 knots. B.132 knots. C.139 knots. A X 24.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 25.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 26.Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 27.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 28.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. A X 29.As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X

30.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 31.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.124 knots. B.137 knots. C.130 knots. C X 32.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 33.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 34.. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range? A.10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. B.25,000 feet to the tropopause. C.The tropopause to 45,000 feet B X 35..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes. C.8 minutes. A X 37.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the AIRMET information, the expected changes in intensity of the icing is. A. Intensify B. Weaken C. No change B X 38.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 39.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m.

C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 40.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 41.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning. A X 42. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 43.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 44.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. A.the change of sun radiation B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.the movement of the weather system B X 45.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 46.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than A.80hours B.90 hours C.100hours B X 47.What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be A.The same. B.Two times greater. C.Four times greater. C X 48. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 49. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report A. within 10 days after the deviation. B. after returning home. C. after the flight is completed.

C X 50.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 51.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 52.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 53. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 54. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 55.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 56. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 57.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. A X 58. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 59.Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety.

B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 60.. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as. A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility B.stratus, light rain, poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence. B X 61.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 62.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 63.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 64.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 65.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 66.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 67.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. B X 68. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X

69.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 70. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 71. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 72.A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right A.(To be continuedengine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.expectancy producing a mental block C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 73.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.Sluggish in aileron control. B.Sluggish in rudder control C.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 74.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 75. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34.0 HUR to D16.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R, Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower, what frequency should be tuned? A.118.1KHz. B.118.5KHz. C.118.1MHz. C X 76.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 77.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR.

B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 78.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Look only at far away, dim lights. B.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 80.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 81.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.24,600 feet. B.23,400 feet. C.20,000 feet. A X 83.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 84.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 85.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 86.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X

87.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 88.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 89.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 90.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 91. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above A. FL200 B. FL240 C. FL250 C X 92.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48 B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48 C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48 A X 93.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 94.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 95.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 96.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly.

B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 97.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 98."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 99. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter check is considered to have been taken in A.November 1988. B.December 1988. C.January 1989. B X 100. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is A.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. B.not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X

1. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 2.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 3. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 4.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X

5. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 6. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 7..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 8.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 9.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 10. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 11.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 12. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 13.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 14.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m.

C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 15.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 16.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X 17.The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 18. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 19.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 20.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 21..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time A X 22.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 23. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737. C X 24.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker.

B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 25.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 26.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X 27.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A.9,500 pounds. B.10,400 pounds. C.11,300 pounds. B X 28.. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region, which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. visibility and low clouds B. windshear at low altitude C. hail and rainstorm B X 29.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 31.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.Increase the camber of the wing. B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. A X 32.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 33.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X

34..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 35.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 36. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 37.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A.They are both the same 31,000feet. B.True altitude is lower than 31,000feet. C.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. B X 38.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 39. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 40.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 41.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 42.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. A X 43. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. A X 44.. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? A.Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent.

B.Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. C.Reduction of all performance by 50 percent. B X 45.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 46. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 47.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 48.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 49.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 50.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 51. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 53.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 54. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.1,800 feet.

A X 55.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 56.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 57.Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(To be continueddrastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 58.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.2.115 EPR. B.2.10 EPR. C.2.06 EPR. C X 59.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots B X 60.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X 61.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning. A X 62.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 63..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 64.Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 65.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane.

B X 66.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 67.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 68.. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is A.V2. B.V1. C.VEF. C X 69.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 70.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 71.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 72.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 73.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 74. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.2 B.3 C.4 B X

75.Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 77..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 78.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 79.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. A X 80. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter check is considered to have been taken in A.November 1988. B.December 1988. C.January 1989. B X 81.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 82..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 83.Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A.Eustachian tube B.the cochlea C.the semicircular canals C X

84.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 85.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 86.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end B.Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end C.Alternate red and white lights from3,000 feet to the end of the runway B X 87. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 88.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 89. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. A X 90.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 91.. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.7 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.28 days ago. A X 92.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above; B X

93.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 94.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 95.The symptoms of hyperventilation are A.quite different to those of hypoxia B.quite similar to those of hypoxia C.profuse sweating B X 96.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 97.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. A X 98. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 99..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 100. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG. C.16.5SM from ILG. B X

1. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X

2.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.FL118. B.FL128. C.FL138. A X 3.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 4.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.(to be continued Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 5.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 6. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 7.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B X 8.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 9.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 10.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D is A.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 11.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute.

C.737 feet per minute. C X 12.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 13.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar year, for no more than A.800hours B.900 hours C.1000hours C X 14.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 15. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C X 16.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 17.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 18.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 19.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 20. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 21.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter

A.G. B.S. C.R. B X 22.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 170 knots B X 23.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 24.Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. A.(To be continuedThis causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. A X 25.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 26. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. B.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. C.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop. B X 27.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X 28.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 29.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 30.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X

31..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 32.The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration take off is known as A.inversion illusion. B.autokinesis. C.somatogravic illusion. C X 33. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 34.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 35.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 37.Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 38. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 39.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 40.. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 1.7hPa. C. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 17hPa. B X

41. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 42.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 43.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 44.What functions are provided by ILS? A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. B. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. C. Guidance, range, and visual information. C X 45.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 46. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 47.. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight? A.Higher than at low elevation. B.Lower than at low elevation. C.The same as at low elevation. A X 48.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 49.. The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities_______________. A. at their destinations B. at their alternate aerodromes C. A and B C X 50. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies?

A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 51.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 52.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 53.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.12hours B.10hours C.8hours B X 54.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is at A.D25 to PEK VOR/DME. B.DAWANGZHUANG. C.The point cleared by ATC. B X 55.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 56.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 57.Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 58.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 59.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X

60.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 61.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X 62.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Severe turbulence, moderate icing, rain shower, thunderstorms B. Moderate turbulence, severe icing, freezing precipitation, severe clear air turbulence C. Moderate turbulence, moderate icing, rain, severe clear air turbulence C X 63.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. C X 64.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 65. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 66.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved C X 67.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 68.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 69.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM.

B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 70. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 71.Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. A X 72.. If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended? A.Maintain a constant altitude. B.Maintain a constant attitude. C.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude. B X 73. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 74. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.2 NAV? A.1? B.-2? C.-4? C X 75.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 76.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A.Immediately after ground contact. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 77.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 78.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 79.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine?

A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 80.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,000 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 113,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 105,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. A X 81.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 83.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. B X 84..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 85.If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 86.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 87. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 88.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 89.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m.

B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 90..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 91.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 92..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 93.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 94. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 95.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 25,600 feet, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F256. B.F0256. C.M256. A X 96.. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. B.Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher. C.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air. A X 97.An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 98. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is A.upgrade training. B.transition training. C.initial training. C X

99.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A.YV. B.WF. C.DK. A X 100.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. C X

1.(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727. A.(To be continued What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 2.If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 3.. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds, it will encounter___. A. head windshear B. turbulence C. vertical windshear C X 4. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 5.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.17 hours B.24 hours C.25 hours A X 6.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 7. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet

C X 8.After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.30 minutes B.1 hours C.5 minutes. A X 9..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 10. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 11.The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration take off is known as A.inversion illusion. B.autokinesis. C.somatogravic illusion. C X 12. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 13. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 14.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 15.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 16.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 17.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC

A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 18.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 19.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(To be continuedincidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 20. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.2 B.3 C.4 B X 21.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 22.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 23. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 24.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 25.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 26.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.1,420 pounds, 97 NAM. B.1,440 pounds, 102 NAM. C.1,390 pounds, 92 NAM. A X

27.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 28.Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 29. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 31.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 32.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 33. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 34.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. the absence of clouds in the area B. an area of no convective turbulence C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 35.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 36.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 37.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system.

A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 38.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 39.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 40.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X 41..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 42.What is load factor? A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 43.. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.7 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.28 days ago. A X 44.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP. B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP. B X 45.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 46.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 47. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV?

A.R-175 B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 48.. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. B. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. C. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. A X 49. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 50.Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 51. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 53.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact B.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 54. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 55.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. A X 56.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.

C X 57.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 58.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.12,097 feet. B.12,093 feet. C.13,123 feet. A X 59.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48 B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48 C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48 A X 60.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 61.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.40 kilometers. B.50 kilometers. C.46 kilometers. B X 62.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Compressor discharge. B.Fuel spray nozzles. C.Turbine inlet. C X 63.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 64.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.VYSE. C.VXSE. B X 65. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B.At least one full stop landing must be made. C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. B X 66..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.

C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 67.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes, 118 NAM. B.26 minutes, 125 NAM. C.25 minutes, 118 NAM. B X 68. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 69.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 70.. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. C X 71.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 72.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 73. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 74.What functions are provided by ILS? A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. B. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. C. Guidance, range, and visual information. C X 75.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 76.. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A.VS. B.VS1. C.VSO. B X 77.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds

B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 78.. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region, which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. visibility and low clouds B. windshear at low altitude C. hail and rainstorm B X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds? A.500 feet. B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 80.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 81.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 82. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet. B X 83.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 84.In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 85.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 86.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z.

B X 87.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 88.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 89.The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. A X 90. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 91.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.124 knots. B.137 knots. C.130 knots. C X 92..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 93.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 94.A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 95.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 96.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 97.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25

kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 98.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet. B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 100.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X

1. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 2.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red. B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red. C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red. A X 3.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU) A. 50 metres B. 500 metres C. 150 metres C X 4.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 5. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.3,000 feet C.3,500 feet. B X 6.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 170 knots

B X 7.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 8. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 9.In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload B X 10.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature C.air pressure B X 11. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 12.In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 13. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 14.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 46 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Five C.Three A X 15.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.1,625 pounds. B.1,950 pounds. C.2,460 pounds. C X 16.. The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities_______________. A. at their destinations B. at their alternate aerodromes C. A and B C X

17.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 18.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres A X 19.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.increased visual field B.An increase in breathing rate C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 20.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 21.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 22.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A.loss of the vertical component of lift B.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 23.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 24.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR. C.2.04 EPR. B X 25.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B. Position is not affected C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 26.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X

27.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds? A.500 feet. B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 28.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 29.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 30.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 31.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 32..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 33.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.reached the cruising IAS. B.entered VFR weather conditions. C.received an ATC clearance. C X 34. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X 35.In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. A X 36..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 37.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.VYSE. C.VXSE.

B X 38.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A.Immediately after ground contact. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 39. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 40..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 41.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end B.Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end C.Alternate red and white lights from3,000 feet to the end of the runway B X 42.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 43.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 44.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 45.person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 46. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 47.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is A.Plus or minus 6 B.Plus 6 or minus 4 C.Plus or minus4? A X

48.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 49.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 50.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 51..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 52..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 53.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C X 54.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 55..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 56.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. B X 57.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet.

A X 58.. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds. B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air. B X 59.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 60.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 61.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute B X 62.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots B X 63.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 64.What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 65.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 66.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet. B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X 67. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. The fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

A X 68.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 69. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit. B X 70..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 71.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 72.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which CCAR 121 operations are conducted. B. all flight time, except military, in any flight crewmember position. C. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 73.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 74.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 75. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 76.The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 77.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities.

C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 78..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 79.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. A X 80.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 81.In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 82.. If the estimated time of departure is 1400 Beijing Time, pilot should file flight plan at least before A.1330 Beijing Time. B.1300 Beijing Time. C.1230 Beijing Time. C X 83.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 84.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 85.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 86.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the VHF communication frequency? A.122.20MHz. B.3016MHz. C.8897MHz. A X 87. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG.

C.16.5SM from ILG. B X 88. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 89.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 90.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 91.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.35,000 pounds. B.32,600 pounds. C.30,200 pounds. B X 92.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 93.The perception of color is a function of the A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. A X 94.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 95.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 96.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 97.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A.Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. B.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. C.One light projector with two colors; red and white. B X 98.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds.

B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 99. Route that require a flight navigator are listed in the A.Airplane Flight Manual B.International Flight Information Manual C.Air Carrier's Operations Specifications C X 100.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. C X ATPL-680 Questions A.680 questions 1..Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A.Heavy,slow,gear and flaps up. B.Heavy,slow,gear and flaps down. C.Heavy,fast,gear and flaps down. A X 2..In a decision-making process,a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources. C.may ultimately decide the team's actions,but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience,knowledge,and preferences. A X 3..The perception of color is a function of the A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. A X 4..Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold. B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body. C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low. C X 5..(According to Figure 4) At Shanghai,which description is correct A.The visibility is 800 meters,the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B.The visibility is 8 kilometers,the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C.The visibility is 8 kilometers,the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 6.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 7..A plane,MH 160,receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 8..The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours

C.18 hours A X 9..A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. B X 10..Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that isscheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 11..If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight,who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X 12..(Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1,the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X 13..Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind. B. A clear sky, little or no wind,and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 14..If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia,the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 15..For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 16.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 17.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. C X 18.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions,

A.( encounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 19.. An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR. A X 20.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 21.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X 22.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. 3 per 1,000 feet. B. 2 per 1,000 feet. C. 4 per 1,000 feet. A X 23. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.destination airport. B.provisional airport. C.alternate airport. B X 24.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.FL118. B.FL128. C.FL138. A X 25.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 26..What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. C. There is an inversion with colder air below. A X 27.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X

28.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C X 29.. The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities_______________. A. at their destinations B. at their alternate aerodromes C. A and B C X 30.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z, pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A.122.20MHz. B.8897KHz. C.3016KHz. C X 31..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time A X 32. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 33.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 34.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.Sluggish in aileron control. B.Sluggish in rudder control C.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 35. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 36.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 37. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.

C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X 38. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 39.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2 hours 12 minutes. B.2 hours 15 minutes. C.2 hours 18 minutes. A X 40.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 41.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 42.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 43..Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A.It moves with the weather system. B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 44.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 45.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 47.Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 48.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway

B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X 49.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 50.Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 51.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 52.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 53.What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.Rapid, shallow breathing. B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. C.Dizziness. C X 54.Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 55.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 56.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 57. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 58.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots

B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 59.Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight? A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 60.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. C X 61. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. C X 62.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.HIALS. B.HIALS with PAPI. C.PAPI. B X 63.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 64.A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.( result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 65..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 66.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 67..During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. cumulus B. dissipating C. mature B X 68.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only.

B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 69.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 70.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? A.Increase in indicated airspeed. B.Decrease in indicated airspeed. C.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 71. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 72..If the aircraft enters the strong downdraft burst, where is the aircraft expected to meet the strongest downdraft? A. in the center of strong downdraft burst B. when it enters the strong downdraft burst C. when leaves the strong downdraft burst A X 73.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 74.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds? A.500 feet. B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 75.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(health, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 76. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 77.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 78..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X

79. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 80.. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities, which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. B.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. C.An area beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. A X 81. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B737-300), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? A.Upgrade training. B.Recurrent training. C.Initial training. A X 82.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 83.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU. B.VMD. C.VFC. A X 84.The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 85.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 86.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight? A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 87..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 88.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine?

A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 89.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 90.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 91..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 92.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 93.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.increased visual field B.An increase in breathing rate C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 94.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 95.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 96. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 97. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 98.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 99.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?

A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. B.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C.Aircraft constantly tries pitch down. A X 100.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 101..Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(efficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 102.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 103.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Strong wind with shower B. Snow and rain C. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 104.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 105.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 106.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 107.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 108..When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 109..When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right.

C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa. B X 110.Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it? A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.A and B C X 111.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 112. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 113..Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200or NW B. 315or NW C. 135or SE B X 114..What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 115..Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 116Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 117.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A.Approach Control Regulation. B.Visual Flight Regulation. C.Instrument Control Regulation. C X 118..Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X

119..[Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 120..An ATC "instruction" A.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective. B.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action. C.is the same as an ATC clearance. B X 121.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 122..When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 123..Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X 124..What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C X 125..An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow A.(can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach. B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B X 126..What is load factor? A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 127..What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 128..With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight.

B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 129..what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 130..Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.Increase the camber of the wing. B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. A X 131..During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 132..The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 133..The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 134..What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 135..In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 136..A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 137..[Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .78 Mach? A.1 hours 08 minutes. B.1 hours 02 minutes. C.1 hours 05 minutes. A X 138..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X

139..When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 140..Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(drastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 141..(according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 142..If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A.They are both the same 31,000feet. B.True altitude is lower than 31,000feet. C.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. B X 143..(According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52 B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52 C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52 C X 144..What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 145..Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 146..At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 147..What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 148..Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component.

C X 149..Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 150..[Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 151..(According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 152..When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 153..The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 154..(Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 155..(Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 156..What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 157..[Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 158..When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 170 knots B X

159..What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. A X 160..The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 161..[Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.1,625 pounds. B.1,950 pounds. C.2,460 pounds. C X 162..For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 163..If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 164..What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 165..Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 166..[Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 167..What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 168..(Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet.

C X 169..(Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.1,244 feet. C.900 feet. B X 170..An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than A.80hours B.90 hours C.100hours B X 171..Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 172..Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 173..The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 174..What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 175..The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. The fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. A X 176..[Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 177..Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X 178..In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X

179..It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 180..In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 181..which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 182..What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 183..Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C X 184..(Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 185..What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 186..What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. A X 187..If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only A.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.In VFR conditions C.In day VFR conditions C X 188..[Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds.

C.2,980 pounds. B X 189..The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 190..An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.Four B.Three C.Two B X 191..[Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 192..What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 193..What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 194..For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 195..(Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 196..(Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 197..Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 198..Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.Same direction.

B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions A X 199..How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X 200..An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 201..[Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 202..What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 203..What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 204..What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 205..What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 206..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 207..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 208..The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is. A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. A X

209..What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X 210..If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 211..When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B.is not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 212..Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have A.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B.White inscriptions on a black background C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 213..(Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated? A.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. B X 214..Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 215..The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 216..What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 217..What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Look only at far away, dim lights. B.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B X 218..In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as A.somatogravic illusion. B.ground lighting illusion.

C.autokinesis. C X 219..While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.( can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 220..What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 221..While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 222.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 223..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 224..Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 225..When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi, which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. C. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. B X 226..How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 227..(Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 228..Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture.

B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC C.A and B C X 229..(Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 230..[Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.124 knots. B.137 knots. C.130 knots. C X 231..[Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 232..What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. B X 233..Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 234..(Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 235..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 236..[Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 237..How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 238..How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere.

A X 239..[Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,000 feet. B.4,300 feet. C.4,500 feet. A X 240..What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber. B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber. C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber. B X 241..During the flight, a good leader should not A.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. C.involve the team in most decision making processes. A X 242..(Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 243..While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 244..On the weather chart of ground, the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. A.front B.low pressure center C.shear line A X 245..What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall? A.Reduce fuel flow, reduce angle of attack, and increase airspeed. B.Advance throttle, lower angle of attack, and reduce airspeed. C.Reduce throttle, reduce airspeed, and increase angle of attack. A X 246..Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 247..When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X

248..Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. B X 249..Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. freezing rain B. clear air turbulence C. embedded thunderstorms C X 250..The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 251..If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds, it will encounter___. A. head windshear B. turbulence C. vertical windshear C X 252..Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved C X 253..person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 254..The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 255..In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 256..The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 257..The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.12hours B.10hours C.8hours B X

258..(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 259..What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 260..(Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 261..(Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 262..What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 263..The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 264..What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 265..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 266.[Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 267.."The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 268..Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing

B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 269..Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 270..Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 271..Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.122.1MHz B.122.0MHz C.123.6MHz B X 272..Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 273..What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. B X 274..An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 275..Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.Rate of turn B.Angle of bank C.True airspeed B X 276..What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.A severe moment or "tuck under" C.-Severe porpoising B X 277.[Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X 278..How are smoke cleared or dispersed?

A.By wind or the movement of air. B.By convective mixing in cool night air. C.By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. A X 279..(Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 280..[Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2,224 pounds. B.1,987 pounds. C.1,454 pounds. A X 281..What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. A X 282..(Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 283..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 284..In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere, the wind of low pressure area is. A. clockwise inbound wind B.counter clockwise outbound wind C.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 285..What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 286..In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds. B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air. B X 287..The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers.

C.minimum fuel supply. B X 288..What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 289..Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 290..Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 291..The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A.certificate holder's operations specifications. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 292..One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 293..For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.3000m. B.3,600m. C.2,800m. B X 294..During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 295..A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 296..An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.17 hours B.24 hours C.25 hours A X 297..(Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves

B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 298..[Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 299..Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 300..Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. C X 301..(Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 302..If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 303..Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 304..At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X 305..The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol A.V2min . B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 306..A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport.

B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X 307..(Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 308..How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack. B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 309..While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 310..Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 311..How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip. C X 312..Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 313..[Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 314..What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 315..A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X

316..To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. B. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. C. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. B X 317..What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 318..[Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 319..If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 320..When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report A. within 10 days after the deviation. B. after returning home. C. after the flight is completed. C X 321..Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end B.Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end C.Alternate red and white lights from3,000 feet to the end of the runway B X 322..What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 323..The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 324..Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried.

A X 325..The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational, lifesaving decision and carry it out following A.(a lack of oxygen at a given altitude. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 326..If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 327..Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B. Position is not affected C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 328..A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 329..If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 330..(Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 331..Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A.Angle of attack. B.Altitude. C.Airspeed. B X 332..Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 333..Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 334..Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway

B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 335..There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 336..Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 337..The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 338..[Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds? A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 339..(Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. B X 340..The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 341..Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 342..(Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.FL 10,100 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. B X 343..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 344..A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9.

C X 345..Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 346..If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 347..What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twinengine airplane represent? A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. A X 348..The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 349..Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range? A.10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. B.25,000 feet to the tropopause. C.The tropopause to 45,000 feet B X 350..What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 351..If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 352..Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. key to the flight deck door. B. certificate holder's manual. C. flashlight in good working order. C X 353..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 354..Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.VLE. B.VMO/MMO. C.VLO/MLO.

C X 355..The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 356..What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Cargo and passenger distribution information. B.Copy of the flight plan. C.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. B X 357..(Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 358..What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C.An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B X 359..Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 360..If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 361..What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 362..In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 363..[Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.300 feet. C.750 feet. B X 364..(Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG.

C.16.5SM from ILG. B X 365..A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 366..What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X 367..Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A.VS. B.VS1. C.VSO. B X 368..Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 369..In small airplanes, normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. B.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. C.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. C X 370..What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 371..[Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A.9,500 pounds. B.10,400 pounds. C.11,300 pounds. B X 372..(1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 373..As the CG is moved forward, the stability A.Improves B.Decrease C.dose not change A X 374..At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur?

A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach. C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach. A X 375..If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 376..When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 377..The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 378..Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 379..[Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 380..Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 381..(Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A.11.7NM from PEK. B.11.7KM from PEK. C.11.7SM from PEK. A X 382..Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 383..(Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence

B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 384..The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. A X 385..(Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 386..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 387..If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 388..(According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 389..(Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 390..What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 391..The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 392..(According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct A. Smoke with overcast B. Strong wind with sand storm C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 393..(Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X

394..What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Notify ATC immediately. B. Squawk 7600. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 395..If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 396..(Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o, what is the corresponding rate of descent? A.5.2%. B.4.8%. C.5.5%. A X 387..When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. A X 388..How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.An abrupt change in relative wind. B.A decrease in angle of attack. C.Sudden decrease in load factor. A X 389..[Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 390..What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit. B X 391..When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. Temperature inversion. B. Wind stronger than 15 konts. C. Surface radiation. B X 392..After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later.

A X 393..Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. to check the performance of the aircraft; B. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety; C. to achieve or maintain the desired separation. C X 394..How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 395..What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 396..When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 397..When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 398..If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 399..If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 400..Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X 401..The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X 402..Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. key to the flight deck door. B. certificate holder's manual. C. flashlight in good working order. C X

403..The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 404..[Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 405..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 406..In average, for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will . A. descend 2 B.descend 3 C. descend 4 A X 407..What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 408..Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 409..What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 410..(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 411..What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 412..To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A.a third-class medical certificate. B.a second-class medical certificate. C.a first-class medical certificate. C X

413..The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 414..The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 415..In the (AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 416..who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 417..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 418..What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A.Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. B.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. C.One light projector with two colors; red and white. B X 419..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 420.."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 421..What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 422..[Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet.

B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. B X 423..When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 424..Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. 3,000 meters. B. 3,600 meters. C. 6,000 meters. A X 425..(Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48 B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48 C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48 A X 426..What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.RVR 1,000 feet C.RVR 700 feet. C X 427..(Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.2 B.3 C.4 B X 428..A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 429..An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 430..Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 431..Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center.

B X 432..Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 433..(Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.308 feet. B.193 feet. C.200 feet. B X 434..[Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.1,420 pounds, 97 NAM. B.1,440 pounds, 102 NAM. C.1,390 pounds, 92 NAM. A X 435..(Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV? A.R-175 B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 436..[Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR. C.2.04 EPR. B X 437..To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 438..What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 439..If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 440..What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X 441..[Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet.

B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X 442..(Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV? A.5.0NM B.7.5NM C.10.0NM A X 443..(Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4.6% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.690 feet/minute. B.644 feet/minute. C.600 feet/minute. B X 444..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU A X 445..Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 446..(Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A.VIS 1,600m. B.RVR 200m. C.RVR 250m. A X 447..Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 448..[Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 449..What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. A X 450..Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C X

451..Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind B.clear, high wind, good visibility C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility A X 452..The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 453..What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 454..(Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 455..(Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 456..(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B727. A.(What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 457..(Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34.0 HUR to D16.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R, Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower, what frequency should be tuned? A.118.1KHz. B.118.5KHz. C.118.1MHz. C X 458..Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 459..[Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.16,200 pounds. C.17,700 pounds. B X

460..[Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 461..An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 462..Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 463..[Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots. B X 464..When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 465..The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 466..To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. A X 467..What affects indicated stall speed? A. Weight, load factor, and power B. Load factor , angle of attack ,and power C. Angle of attack, weight, and airspeed A X 468..One purpose of high-lift devices is to A.- increase the load factor. B.delay stall. C.increase airspeed. B X 469..The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 470..(Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A.YV. B.WF.

C.DK. A X 471..[Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.143 knots. B.144 knots. C.145 knots. A X 472..Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 473..(According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above; B X 474..Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "nil" C X 475..(Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.2 NAV? A.1? B.-2? C.-4? C X 476..What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 477..Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn. C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. A X 478..What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft. A X 479..(Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.12,097 feet. B.12,093 feet. C.13,123 feet. A X 480..The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X

481..GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 482..The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 483..(Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 484..Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 485..If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from south to north B.from west to east C.from north to south C X 486..In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload B X 487..When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region, which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. visibility and low clouds B. windshear at low altitude C. hail and rainstorm B X 488..(According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low cloud and perhaps icing B. Strong wind with bad visibility C. Snow shower A X 489..If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 490..Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green. B X 491..Which of the following is the right description about CRM?

A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 492..[Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 493..(Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 494..If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X 495..[Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 496..Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 497..[Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 498..A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 499..A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A.2005Z. B.1905Z. C.0005Z. C X 500..What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.

B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, {three} of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 501..By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 502..Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 503..Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A.Eustachian tube B.the cochlea C.the semicircular canals C X 504..A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 505..What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. C X 506..Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 507..Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 508..(Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 509..What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 510..[Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X

511..What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 512..Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 513..An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 514..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 515..Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Director of operations or flight follower. C.Pilot in command. C X 516..(Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 517..(Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low-level wind share B. Microburst C. Turbulence A X 518..What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. B.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. A X 519..In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 520..Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. high personal attention and high task orientation B.medium personal attention and high task orientation C.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X

521..Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 522..When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 523..(Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.500 feet B.1,000feet C.1,500 feet B X 524..Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and {flight plan}. C X 525..What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be {wet or slippery} at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a {dry} runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 526..[Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124,000 pounds. B.129,500 pounds. C.134,500 pounds. A X 527..(Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 528..What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 529..[Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds.

C.15,300 pounds. A X 530..Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 531..What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A.100 feet AGL. B.150 feet AGL. C.200 feet AGL. B X 532..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 533..Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable {trim tab} move when the control surface is moved? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains {fixed} for all positions. C X 534..If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended? A.Maintain a constant altitude. B.Maintain a constant {attitude}. C.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude. B X 535..When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are up towering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.( Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 536..Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 537..What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 538..When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 539..[Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X

540..What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight? A.Higher than at low elevation. B.Lower than at low elevation. C.The same as at low elevation. A X 541..In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 542..What is the purpose of the danger airspace? A.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger. B.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry. C.To protect military activities. A X 543..(Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.1,800 feet. A X *544..The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 545..What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 546..The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 547..Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A.loss of the vertical component of lift B.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 548..A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 549..Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 550..(According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU) A. 50 metres B. 500 metres C. 150 metres C X

551..[Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 552..[Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 553..What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X 554..If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 555..What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.To require a pilot to take a specific action. B.To state some important information. C.To warn the pilot. A X 556..What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.{Amber} lights replace white on the last {2,000} feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 557..TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 558..(Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 559..Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X 560.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, {Ground}? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X

561..The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X *562..A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 563..Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 564..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 565..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground C X 566..[Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 567..During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 568..Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 569..What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 570..The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 571..The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific

A.(circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 572..[Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.400 feet. C.850 feet. C X 573..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 574..At which location does Coriolis force have the {least} effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. C X 575..when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X 576..If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. C X 577..When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 578..(Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.6 B.7 C.12 C X 579..(Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.127.6MHz. B.127.6KHz. C.114.7MHz. A X 580..(Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 1.7hPa. C. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 17hPa. B X 581..(Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.121.7MHz. B.121.9MHz. C.121.7KHz.

B X 582..Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 583..Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "{keep the peace}" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 584..Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller. B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. A X 585..If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.{VYSE}. C.VXSE. B X 586..(Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 587..(Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is at A.D25 to PEK VOR/DME. B.DAWANGZHUANG. C.The point cleared by ATC. B X 588..Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. A X 589..(Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.760 feet/minute. B.851 feet/minute. C.699 feet/minute. A X 590..(Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. B X 591..when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A. 250 knots B. 230 knots C. 210 knots B X

592..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 593..If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B.-positive longitudinal static stability. C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 594..The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 595..If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 596..(Refer to Figure 3) In the AIRMET information, the expected changes in intensity of the icing is. A. Intensify B. Weaken C. No change B X 597..When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 598..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a {cold front} C.behind a stationary front B X 599..(Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog C X 600..In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 601..(Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to? A.FL158.

B.FL148. C.FL168. B X 602..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 603..The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 604..The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D is A.Detect the fact that a change has occured B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 605..At Which location dose Coriolis force have the {most effect} on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 606..An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight {simulator}, is A.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. B.not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 607..[Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 608..When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 609..(According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 610..In the (SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3), what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 611..[Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight? A.650 feet.

B.1,300 feet. C.1,050 feet. C X 612..Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 613..A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 614..What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One-light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X *615..The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 616..In daily aeronautical weather reports, the code "VCTS" means ____. A. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. C. There are thunderstorms over the airport. A X 617..The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are . A.nimbostratus B.cumulonimbus C.altostratus. B X 618..An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C.decrease due to higher density altitude. C X 619..It should be reported without ATC request that A. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 5%, whichever is greater. B. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 10%, whichever is greater. C. A change in cruising true airspeed of 5 knots or 10%, whichever is greater. A X 620..After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.30 minutes B.1 hours C.5 minutes. A X 621..If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X

622..[Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 623..Which of the following is {not} the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 624..The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and {commercial}. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 625..Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to {detonation} in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP. B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP. B X 626..What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? A.Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. B.Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. C.Adjust airspeed to that {recommended for rough air}. C X 627..Which of the following is {not normally a} {symptom of hypoxia}? A.several headache B.reduced visual field C.a feeling of euphoria A X 628..[Refer to Figures 4-22, and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.2.06 EPR. B.2.07 EPR. C.2.09 EPR. A X 629..(Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. B X 630..What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B.At least one {full stop landing} must be made. C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. B X 631..The {Coriolis illusion} can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during {instrument flight}

C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 632..At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and {Coriolis force}. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 633..which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C X 634..When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 250 knots B. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 635..A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. C X 636..Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. B X 637..When a flight plan indicates {IFR} for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 638..What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 639..When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X 640..A plane, MH 60, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE {ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL}...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X

641..Scanning procedures for {effective collision avoidance} should constitute A.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. A X 642..before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very {low and thick} clouds, {flat and gray bottoms} with {light rain}. This clouds is refered as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 643..If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be {10,200 meters}, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F1020. B.{S}1020. C.L1020. B X 644..If the cruising speed of an aircraft is {420 nautical miles}, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 645..Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from {carbon monoxide poisoning}? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 646..[Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. A X 647..What information must be included on {a domestic air carrier dispatch release}? A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B.{Minimum fuel supply and trip number}. C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. B X 648..(According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres A X 649..Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "{on course}" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.{Green} C X 650..As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot {in the day} if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet

B X 651..The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 652..(Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet C X 653..If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest {mountain} from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is {2,650 meters}, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 654..What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous {China} upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 655..(Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. C X 656..Which type of {compressor stall} has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 657..Which of the following is considered an {auxiliary flight control}? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 658..The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 659..{Except during an emergency}, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, {on a first-come}, {first serve basis}. C X 660..(According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A. ZUUU B. ZHHH

C. ZSSS C X 661..[Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and {spoilers}. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 662..[Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 663..When making an approach to a {wider-than-usual runway}, without VASI assistant, there is a tendency A.to fly a lower-than -normal approach. B.to fly a {higher-than -normal approach.} C.to fly a normal approach. B X 664..[Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 665..What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 666..A plane, {MH 160}, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE {ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL}, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 667..For {scheduled airline}, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.G. B.S. C.R. B X 668..The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The {first E} is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the {need to counter or react to the change} C X 669..(Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the VHF communication frequency? A.122.20MHz. B.3016MHz. C.8897MHz. A X

670..Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of {final approach} B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 671..What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger {seating capacity of 238} with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Six B.Five C.Two B X 672..How does {Coriolis force} affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere. A. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. A X 673..If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 674..If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be {9,000 meters}, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 675..{Empty Field Myopia} is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. A.(This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. A X 676..[Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds? A.136 knots. B.132 knots. C.139 knots. A X 677..What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a {tailwind} is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 678..The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous {China} , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 679..In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: A.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport.

B.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C.The landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds. A X 680..When a pilot's flight time consists of {80 hours'} pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C X ATPL-988 Total 988 questions 1.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 2.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 3..Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A.It moves with the weather system. B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 4.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 5.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Compressor discharge. B.Fuel spray nozzles. C.Turbine inlet. C X 6.. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.VLE. B.VMO/MMO. C.VLO/MLO. Maximum Speed for Landing Gear Operation C X 7.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 8.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport, A.( he should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale

C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 9.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green. B X 10. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737. C X 11.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X 12. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 13.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 14.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 15.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 16.The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 17..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X

18.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 19.During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 20.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 21.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o, what is the corresponding rate of descent? A.5.2%. B.4.8%. C.5.5%. A X 22.Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 23.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours C X 24.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 25.(Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 26.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.143 knots. B.144 knots. C.145 knots. A X 27.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. B X

28. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number. C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. B X 29.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 31. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 32..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 33.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 34.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 35.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 36.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B. Position is not affected C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 37.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU)

A. 50 metres B. 500 metres C. 150 metres C X 38. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above A. FL200 B. FL240 C. FL250 C X 39.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 40.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 41..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 42.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the VHF communication frequency? A.122.20MHz. B.3016MHz. C.8897MHz. A X 43.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 44.A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 45.A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right A.(engine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.expectancy producing a mental block C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 46.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is

A.right B.wrong A X 47.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 48.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 49. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 50.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 51.. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet, the wind speed is 120 km/h B. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 120 knots C. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 52.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 53.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 54.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 55.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 56.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X

57.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 58.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: A.Must be adhered to. B.Does not preclude rejected landing. C.Precludes a rejected landing. B X 59.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 60. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 61.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 62.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. C X 63.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 64.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar year, for no more than A.800hours B.900 hours C.1000hours C X 65.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 66..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 67.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front.

C X 68. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 69. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 70.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which CCAR 121 operations are conducted. B. all flight time, except military, in any flight crewmember position. C. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 71.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 72.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4,600-foot icy runway? A.128,000 pounds. B.124,000 pounds. C.120,000 pounds. C X 73.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 74.The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 75.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 76. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 77. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X

78.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 79.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 80. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV? A.5.0NM B.7.5NM C.10.0NM A X 81..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 82.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 83.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5,200-foot icy runway? A.124,000 pounds. B.137,000 pounds. C.108,000 pounds. B X 84.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 85.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 86.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 87.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.( Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 88.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority?

A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 89. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 90.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 91.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 92. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C X 93. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 94.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. B X 95.Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 96.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 97.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.

A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 98. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 99..What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. B. time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. C. time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length. A X 100.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. C X 101..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 102.If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 103.. Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. to check the performance of the aircraft; B. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety; C. to achieve or maintain the desired separation. C X 104..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 105. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 106.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 107. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?

A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 108.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.122.1MHz B.122.0MHZ C.123.6MHz B X 109.In small airplanes, normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. B.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. C.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. C X 110.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 111.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 112.The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X 113.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.requiring a pilot to read back. B.keeping flight status. C.requiring a pilot to take specific action. C X 114. When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, there is a tendency A.to fly a lower-than -normal approach. B.to fly a higher-than -normal approach. C.to fly a normal approach. B X 115.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. B X 116. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 117.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability

B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 118. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 119.An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 120.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 121..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 122.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 123.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet. B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 124.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller. B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. A X 125. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 126.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 127.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X

128.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 129.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Notify ATC immediately. B. Squawk 7600. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 130.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X 131.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71,000,DISTANCE (NM): 200,WIND COMPONENT: 30TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.34 minutes. B.55 minutes. C.57 minutes. C X 132.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 133. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.500 feet B.1,000feet C.1,500 feet B X 134.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 135..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 136.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Request a clarification from the ATC. C.Read the clearance back entirely. B X 137.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. A.the change of sun radiation B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.the movement of the weather system B X

138.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B X 139.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 140.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 141.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 142.. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. B.Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher. C.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air. A X 143.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. Expansion of air as rises. B. Movement of air over a colder surface. C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. A X 144.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 145.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.121.7MHz. B.121.9MHz. C.121.7KHz. B X 146.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 147.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 148.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight.

B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 149.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 150.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 151.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 152.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 153.What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 154.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is A.Plus or minus 6 B.Plus 6 or minus 4 C.Plus or minus4? A X 155..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 156.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A.a third-class medical certificate. B.a second-class medical certificate. C.a first-class medical certificate. C X 157.Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 158.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. 3 per 1,000 feet.

B. 2 per 1,000 feet. C. 4 per 1,000 feet. A X 159. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. A X 160.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 161.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.2.06 EPR. B.2.07 EPR. C.2.09 EPR. A X 162.What is load factor? A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 163. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. C X 164.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 165.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 166.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 167.. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X

168.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 169.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct A. Smoke with overcast B. Strong wind with sand storm C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 170..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 171.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres A X 172.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 173.What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.Rapid, shallow breathing. B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. C.Dizziness. C X 174.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilotin-command could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 175.. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed? A. Katabatic. B. Advection. C. Adiabatic. C X 176. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes, 118 NAM. B.26 minutes, 125 NAM. C.25 minutes, 118 NAM. B X 177.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout.

C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 178.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Strong wind with shower B. Snow and rain C. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 179.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.1620. B.1720. C.1670 C X 180.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 181.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog C X 182.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip. C X 183.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. C X 184.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X 185.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 186.The perception of color is a function of the A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. A X 187.Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water

A X 189.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X 190.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C X 191..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 192. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 193.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.5 hours 3 minutes. B.5 hours 20 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. A X 194.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 195.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 5,400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.117,500 pounds. B.136,500 pounds. C.140,500 pounds. B X 196.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 197.. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight? A.Higher than at low elevation. B.Lower than at low elevation. C.The same as at low elevation. A X 198.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X

199.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 140,000 pounds? A.127 knots. B.149 knots. C.156 knots. C X 200.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48 B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48 C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48 A X 201.The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 202. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C X 203.. In en route flight, the altimeter setting is A. QNE B. QNH C. QFE A X 204.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 205.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 206..Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved C X 207.. (According to figure 6) The position of the upper jet is A. From A to B then to C B. From A to C then to D C. From A to B then to D B X 208.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 209.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)?

A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. A X 210.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 211.If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process-even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 212..Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 213..By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 214.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 50.. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi, which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. C. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. B X 215.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds? A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 216. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 217..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance

C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 218.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.increased visual field B.An increase in breathing rate C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 219.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 220..Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact B.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 221.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 222.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 223.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 224. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 225.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X 226.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X

227.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 228.Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 229.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52 B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52 C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52 C X 230..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 231.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight? A.650 feet. B.1,300 feet. C.1,050 feet. C X 232.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 233.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(health, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 234.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 235.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 236. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.

C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 237.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 238.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 239.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 240.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 241.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 242. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft. A X 243.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 244.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 245. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 246.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor

B X 247.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 248.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.several headache B.reduced visual field C.a feeling of euphoria A X 249.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 250. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 251.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 252..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 253.What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. C X 254.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 255.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 256.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning.

A X 257.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 258.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 259. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 260. An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR. A X 261."Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 262.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. A X 263.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 264.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 265.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber. B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber. C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber. B X 266. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated

A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 267.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 268. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X 269.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 270.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 2714.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers A.Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining B.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3.000 feet from the end C.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end A X 272.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 273.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 274.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 275.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa. B X

276.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X 277.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 278.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 279.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C.decrease due to higher density altitude. C X 280. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 281.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 282.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A.loss of the vertical component of lift B.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 283."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 284.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Six B.Five C.Two B X 285. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B.At least one full stop landing must be made.

C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. B X 286.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.G. B.S. C.R. B X 287. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 288.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 289.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.HIALS. B.HIALS with PAPI. C.PAPI. B X 290.In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 291.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 292.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X 293.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. B X 294.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 295.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight.

C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. A X 296.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 297.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to___. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 298.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 299. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C X 300.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 301.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? A.Increase in indicated airspeed. B.Decrease in indicated airspeed. C.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 302.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 303.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 304..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 305.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction.

A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 306.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 307.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end B.Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end C.Alternate red and white lights from3,000 feet to the end of the runway B X 308.. If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency, who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport? A. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft. B. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft. C. no one have the responsibility during emergency situation. B X 309.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 340.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 341.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG, the heading indicator should indicate A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. B X 342.. In average, for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will . A. descend 2 B.descend 3 C. descend 4 A X 343.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 344.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,150 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X

345.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 346.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. C X 347.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 348. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 349. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 350.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute B X 351..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 352.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 353.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.10 hours B.14 hours C.16 hours A X

354.Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. A X 355. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit. B X 356.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 357.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 358. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.6 B.7 C.12 C X 359.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.12,097 feet. B.12,093 feet. C.13,123 feet. A X 360.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 361.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 362.. If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended? A.Maintain a constant altitude. B.Maintain a constant attitude. C.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude. B X 363. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "nil" C X 364. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications

B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X 365. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 366.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 367. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 368. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Director of operations or flight follower. C.Pilot in command. C X 369.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 370. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.127.6MHz. B.127.6KHz. C.114.7MHz. A X 371.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 372.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. Temperature inversion. B. Wind stronger than 15 konts. C. Surface radiation. B X 373. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X

374.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 375.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 376.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 377. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 378.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 379.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 380.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 381. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 382.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 383.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended.

B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 384.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.300 feet. C.750 feet. B X 385.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 386.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above; B X 387.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU. B.VMD. C.VFC. A X 388.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots B X 389.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 390.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 391.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 392.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X

393.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 394..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 395.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 396.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft with 2 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 35 at PUDONG with only RL operating? A.RVR 250m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 200m. B X 397.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 398.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 399.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 400.The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 401.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 402.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X

403.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. A X 404.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 405. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV? A.R-175 B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 406.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.12hours B.10hours C.8hours B X 407.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 408.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 409.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 410.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase. B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease. C.Rate and radius will increase. A X 411. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X

412. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 413.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.16,200 pounds. C.17,700 pounds. B X 414.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 415.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 416. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. C X 417.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 418.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 419. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 420.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight.

B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 421.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 422. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 423.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 424.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. C X 425. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 426. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F1020. B.S1020. C.L1020. B X 427. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 428.. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds, it will encounter___. A. head windshear B. turbulence C. vertical windshear C X 429.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. A X 430..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?

A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 431.Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(efficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 432..What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. B. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. C. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. C X 433.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 434.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 435.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.FL 10,100 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. B X 436.. Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind B.clear, high wind, good visibility C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility A X 437. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A.certificate holder's operations specifications. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 438.Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC C.A and B C X 439.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.

B X 440.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C X 441. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 442.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. B X 443.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 444.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 445.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 446.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 447. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A.1360 feet. B.3940 feet. C.3842 feet. C X 448.As the CG is moved forward, the stability A.Improves B.Decrease C.dose not change A X 449.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 450.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft?

A.Immediately after ground contact. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 451.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 452.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 453.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 454.TCAS I provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 455. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid? A.60 days. B.90 days. C.120 days. C X 456.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 457. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 458.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds? A.500 feet. B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 459.. The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities____. A. at their destinations B. at their alternate aerodromes C. A and B C X 460. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m.

C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 461.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 462.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X 463.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. C X 464.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 465.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 466.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is A.blue. B.white. C.green. B X 467.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 468.Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 469.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 470.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X

471. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 472.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 473.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 474.. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocatingengine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. B.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. C.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B X 475.. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere, the wind of low pressure area is . A. clockwise inbound wind B.counter clockwise outbound wind C.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 476.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 477.Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 478.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 479.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 480.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW

A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 481.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 482.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.2.115 EPR. B.2.10 EPR. C.2.06 EPR. C X 483.The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 484.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 485.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 486.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 487.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X 488..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time A X 489. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 490.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X

491.Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 492. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.3,000 feet C.3,500 feet. B X 493. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 494.After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.30 minutes B.1 hours C.5 minutes. A X 495.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 496.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C X 497. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 498.(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727. A.(What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 499.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 500.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X

501.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.VYSE. C.VXSE. B X 502.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach. C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach. A X 503. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 504.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. C X 505..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground C X 506..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 507.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 508.If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 509.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 560. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X

561. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.2,000 feet A X 562. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 563.. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds. B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air. B X 564..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 565.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 566.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 567. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 568.How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators. C.not considered to be part of a rest period. C X 569.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. C X 570.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing?

A. ZSSS B. ZUUU C. ZHHH B X 571.. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. A X 572.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 573.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 574.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A.Approach Control Regulation. B.Visual Flight Regulation. C.Instrument Control Regulation. C X 575.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases. A X 576.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.1,625 pounds. B.1,950 pounds. C.2,460 pounds. C X 577.What are the indications of the pulsating VASI? A.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-green, low-pulsing red. B.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-steady white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low-pulsing red. C.High-pulsing white, on course and on glidepath-steady white, off course but on glidepath-pulsing white and red; low-pulsing red. B X 578. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 579.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only

A.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.In VFR conditions C.In day VFR conditions C X 580..What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. C. There is an inversion with colder air below. A X 581. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 582.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 583.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.Increase speed for a headwind. B.Increase speed for a tailwind. C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind. A X 584.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 585.Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 586.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low cloud and perhaps icing B. Strong wind with bad visibility C. Snow shower A X 587. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. B.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. C.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop. B X 588. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.

C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X 589.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 590.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn. C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. A X 591.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 592.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 593.The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 594.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 595.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124,000 pounds. B.129,500 pounds. C.134,500 pounds. A X 596..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 597. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X

598. Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 599.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 600.The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 601..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 602.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.reached the cruising IAS. B.entered VFR weather conditions. C.received an ATC clearance. C X 603.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 604.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X 605.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.( than _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 606.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.( encounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 607.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K.

B X 608.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. C X 609.. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A. summer in northern areas. B. spring in northern areas. C. spring in southern areas. B X 610.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.3000m. B.3,600m. C.2,800m. B X 612.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X 613.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A.Climb straight ahead to L NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. B.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet. C.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. C X 614. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 615.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 616.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 617.. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. A X 618.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 619. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters?

A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 620.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 621.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR. C.2.04 EPR. B X 622.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 623.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 624.In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 625.. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. B.Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher. C.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air. A X 626.. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as. A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility B.stratus, light rain, poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence. B X 627..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 628.Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.headache and fatigue B.a feeling of euphoria C.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 629. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release.

B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan. C X 630.An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow A.(can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach. B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B X 631.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 632.who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 633.. Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200or NW B. 315or NW C. 135or SE B X 634.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 635.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 636.Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 637.The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. A X 638.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X

639..If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B.-positive longitudinal static stability. C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 640.. On the weather chart of ground, the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. A.front B.low pressure center C.shear line A X 641.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 642 (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C X 643. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 644.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 645.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU A X 646..Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur? A.-.50 to .75 mach B.-.75 to .1.20 mach C.-1.20 to 2.50 mach B X 647. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet C X 648.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is

A.19hours B.20 hours C.21hours B X 649.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 650.. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are . A.nimbostratus B.cumulonimbus C.altostratus. B X 651.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 652.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 653.. Which altitude is appropriate to the top of Class B airspace? A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. B X 654.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 655. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 656. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B.is not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 657..How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack.

B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 658.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A. ZUUU B. ZHHH C. ZSSS C X 659. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 660. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 661.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 662.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 663. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 664.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 665.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 666.Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green C X 667..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus

C X 668.For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. B.varies with the rate of turn. C.is constant C X 669.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 670.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 671.A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.( result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 672.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 673.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 674..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 675.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 676.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One -light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 677.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing

B X 678. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 679.Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A.Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. B.Increased vision keenness. C.Decreased breathing rate. A X 680.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 681..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 682.. Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. 3,000 meters. B. 3,600 meters. C. 6,000 meters. A X 683.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature C.air pressure B X 684.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Severe turbulence, moderate icing, rain shower, thunderstorms B. Moderate turbulence, severe icing, freezing precipitation, severe clear air turbulence C. Moderate turbulence, moderate icing, rain, severe clear air turbulence C X 685.. A plane, MH 60, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 686..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 687.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP. B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP. B X

688.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.( might encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 689.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 690.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D is A.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 691.The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational, lifesaving decision and carry it out following A.(a lack of oxygen at a given altitude. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 692.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 693.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.24,600 feet. B.23,400 feet. C.20,000 feet. A X 694.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.40 kilometers. B.50 kilometers. C.46 kilometers. B X 695.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. A X 696.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 697.person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours.

B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 698.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 699. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 700.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 701.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A.VIS 1,600m. B.RVR 200m. C.RVR 250m. A X 702.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 703.. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? A. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft. B. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. C. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices. B X 704."The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 705.What affects indicated stall speed? A. Weight, load factor, and power B. Load factor , angle of attack ,and power C. Angle of attack, weight, and airspeed A X 706.Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(drastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 707.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute.

B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 708.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to? A.FL158. B.FL148. C.FL168. B X 709.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. the absence of clouds in the area B. an area of no convective turbulence C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 710.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 711.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. A X 712..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 713.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. B X 714.. If the estimated time of departure is 1400 Beijing Time, pilot should file flight plan at least before A.1330 Beijing Time. B.1300 Beijing Time. C.1230 Beijing Time. C X 715. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B737-300), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? A.Upgrade training. B.Recurrent training. C.Initial training. A X 716. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. A X 717.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A.- increase the load factor. B.delay stall. C.increase airspeed. B X

718.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 719.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 720.. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A.Increases takeoff distance. B.Decreases takeoff speed. C.Decreases takeoff distance. A X 721. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. A X 722. Route that require a flight navigator are listed in the A.Airplane Flight Manual B.International Flight Information Manual C.Air Carrier's Operations Specifications C X 723.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.400 feet. C.850 feet. C X 724.The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 725. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet. B X 726.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 727.In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload B X 728.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?

A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 729.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. A X 730..If the aircraft enters the strong downdraft burst, where is the aircraft expected to meet the strongest downdraft? A. in the center of strong downdraft burst B. when it enters the strong downdraft burst C. when leaves the strong downdraft burst A X 731..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 732. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 733.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 734.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. B X 735..With the increase of temperature, the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. A. remain unchanged B. increase C. reduce B X 736. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 737. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated.

C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 738.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator C.Outer compass locator. B X 739.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 740. Which is a definition of the term "flight crewmember"? A.a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight time. B.Any person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. A X 741.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 742. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.( an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 743. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 744.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 745.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red. B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red. C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red. A X 746.. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. B. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. C. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. A X 747.In a decision-making process , a participatory leader

A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. A X 748.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.A severe moment or "tuck under" C.-Severe porpoising B X 749.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 750.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 751.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 752.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 753.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 754.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 755.In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as A.somatogravic illusion. B.ground lighting illusion. C.autokinesis. C X 756.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. B X

757.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 758.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4.6% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.690 feet/minute. B.644 feet/minute. C.600 feet/minute. B X 759.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.1,244 feet. C.900 feet. B X 760.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 761..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 762.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 763.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C X 764. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 765. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. A X 766.The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as

A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 967.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2,224 pounds. B.1,987 pounds. C.1,454 pounds. A X 768.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 769.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 770..Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 771.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes. C.8 minutes. A X 772.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 773. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 774.Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it? A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.A and B C X 775. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b

C X 776.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.Increase the camber of the wing. B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. A X 777.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 778.Night vision is enhanced by A.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. C.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 779. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 780.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots B X 781. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 782. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X 783.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 784.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 785.When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina

B.cornea C.iris A X 786. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report A. within 10 days after the deviation. B. after returning home. C. after the flight is completed. C X 787..Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes? A. 0000 through 1000. B. 7200 and 7500 series. C. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series. C X 788.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 789.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 790.Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 791.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 792.Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. A.(This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. A X 793.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 794. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "good" C. braking action is "100%" B X 795.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.To require a pilot to take a specific action.

B.To state some important information. C.To warn the pilot. A X 796.In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 797.What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank an altitude? A.The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. B.The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. C.-The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor. C X 798.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 799.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X 800.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 801.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 802.Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 803.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A.9,500 pounds. B.10,400 pounds. C.11,300 pounds. B X 804.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 805.. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. freezing rain B. clear air turbulence C. embedded thunderstorms C X

806. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. C X 807. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 808.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 809. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere. A. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. A X 810.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots ) __MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 811.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 812.. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway? A.At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. B.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. C.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning. B X 813.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 814.. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. C X 815.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.35,000 pounds. B.32,600 pounds.

C.30,200 pounds. B X 816.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 817.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 818. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 819.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds? A.136 knots. B.132 knots. C.139 knots. A X 820.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A.They are both the same 31,000feet. B.True altitude is lower than 31,000feet. C.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. B X 821.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 822.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.1,420 pounds, 97 NAM. B.1,440 pounds, 102 NAM. C.1,390 pounds, 92 NAM. A X 823. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 824.. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C.An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B X 825. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be

A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 826. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 827.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 828.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than A.80hours B.90 hours C.100hours B X 829.. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 830.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind. B X 831.En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57.If the field elevation is 650feet,and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing? A.585feet B.1.300feet C.Sea level C X 832.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z, pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A.122.20MHz. B.8897KHz. C.3016KHz. C X 838. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Cargo and passenger distribution information. B.Copy of the flight plan. C.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. B X 839.Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have A.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B.White inscriptions on a black background C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X

840.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 841.. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 1.7hPa. C. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 17hPa. B X 842.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 843.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twinengine airplane represent? A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. A X 844. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.2 B.3 C.4 B X 845.Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. B X 846.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 847. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B X 848.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.124 knots. B.137 knots. C.130 knots. C X

849.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 850.Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 851. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.1,800 feet. A X 852.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 853.The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.strong leadership B X 854.Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. high personal attention and high task orientation B.medium personal attention and high task orientation C.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X 855. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C X 856.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 857.. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground, it will usually produce . A. layer clouds B. smooth airflow and advection fog C. warm front clouds B X 858. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 859.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X

860. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is A.upgrade training. B.transition training. C.initial training. C X 861.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 862.. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. B. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. C. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. B X 863.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 864.. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol A.V2min . B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 865.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions A X 866. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 867.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A.After passing the visual descent point (VDP). B.When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. C.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight. 868. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 869.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet.

B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 870.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. A X 871.Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 872. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 873. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 874.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is 100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.220m. B.150m. C.160m. A X 875.Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A.Eustachian tube B.the cochlea C.the semicircular canals C X 876.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 877.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 878.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X

879.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: A.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. B.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C.The landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds. A X 880.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 881.. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.An abrupt change in relative wind. B.A decrease in angle of attack. C.Sudden decrease in load factor. A X 882. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A.2005Z. B.1905Z. C.0005Z. C X 883.. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.7 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.28 days ago. A X 884.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X 885.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. C X 886.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 887.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.RVR 1,000 feet C.RVR 700 feet. C X 888.A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. C.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. C X

889..What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be A.The same. B.Two times greater. C.Four times greater. C X 890 (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated? A.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. B X 891.. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A.Angle of attack. B.Altitude. C.Airspeed. B X 892.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 893. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter check is considered to have been taken in A.November 1988. B.December 1988. C.January 1989. B X 894..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 895. A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument competency check. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made? A.12 months. B.90 days. C.6 months. C X 896.. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? A.Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. B.Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. C.Reduction of all performance by 50 percent. B X 897.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet. B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X 898.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.Sluggish in aileron control. B.Sluggish in rudder control

C.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 899.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 900.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Look only at far away, dim lights. B.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B X 901.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 902 ..If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 60 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs B X 903. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. key to the flight deck door. B. certificate holder's manual. C. flashlight in good working order. C X 904.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 905. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X 906.What functions are provided by ILS? A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. B. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. C. Guidance, range, and visual information. C X 907.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 908..What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. B.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. A X 909.The symptoms of hyperventilation are A.quite different to those of hypoxia B.quite similar to those of hypoxia

C.profuse sweating B X 910. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 911.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 912.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 913.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots. B X 914.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,000 feet. B.4,300 feet. C.4,500 feet. A X 915. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 916.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 917.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X 918.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 25,600 feet, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F256. B.F0256. C.M256. A X 919.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from south to north

B.from west to east C.from north to south C X 920.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 921.. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? A.Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. B.Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. C.Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. C X 922.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 923.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 924..In daily aeronautical weather reports, the code "VCTS" means ____. A. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. C. There are thunderstorms over the airport. A X 925.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A.YV. B.WF. C.DK. A X 926.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 927..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 928. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A.11.7NM from PEK. B.11.7KM from PEK. C.11.7SM from PEK. A X 929.. What is the purpose of the danger airspace? A.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger. B.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry. C.To protect military activities. A X

930.. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities, which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. B.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. C.An area beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. A X 931. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 932. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34.0 HUR to D16.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R, Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower, what frequency should be tuned? A.118.1KHz. B.118.5KHz. C.118.1MHz. C X 933.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 934.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.Four B.Three C.Two B X 935.. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is A.V2. B.V1. C.VEF. C X 936.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 937While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.( can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 938.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low-level wind share B. Microburst C. Turbulence A X 939.During the flight, a good leader should not A.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions

B.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. C.involve the team in most decision making processes. A X 940.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 941.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .78 Mach? A.1 hours 08 minutes. B.1 hours 02 minutes. C.1 hours 05 minutes. A X 942.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. Rain and snow B. Drizzle C. Continuous snow A X 943.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 944. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 945. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A.100 feet AGL. B.150 feet AGL. C.200 feet AGL. B X 946.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.Rate of turn B.Angle of bank C.True airspeed B X 947. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A. 250 knots B. 230 knots C. 210 knots B X 948.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,850 feet. C.153 knots and 3,450 feet. C X 949.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio.

B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 950. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 951.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 952.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 953.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.FL118. B.FL128. C.FL138. A X 954.. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region, which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. visibility and low clouds B. windshear at low altitude C. hail and rainstorm B X 955.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 170 knots B X 956.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.17 hours B.24 hours C.25 hours A X 957. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. The fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. A X 958.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 46 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Five C.Three A X

959.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 250 knots B. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 960.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 961..During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. cumulus B. dissipating C. mature B X 962.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.760 feet/minute. B.851 feet/minute. C.699 feet/minute. A X 963. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG. C.16.5SM from ILG. B X 964.. An ATC "instruction" A.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective. B.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action. C.is the same as an ATC clearance. B X 965.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 966.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 967.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X

968.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 969.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 - Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 - Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 - Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 970.As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 971.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 972.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X 973. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.2 NAV? A.1? B.-2? C.-4? C X 974.. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A.VS. B.VS1. C.VSO. B X 975. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is A.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. B.not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 976.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 977. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.destination airport. B.provisional airport. C.alternate airport. B X

978.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,000 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 113,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 105,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. A X 979.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is at A.D25 to PEK VOR/DME. B.DAWANGZHUANG. C.The point cleared by ATC. B X 980.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 981.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A.Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. B.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. C.One light projector with two colors; red and white. B X 982.The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration take off is known as A.inversion illusion. B.autokinesis. C.somatogravic illusion. C X 983.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. A X 984.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 985.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.308 feet. B.193 feet. C.200 feet. B X 986.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 987.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 988.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter

A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X

1.The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 2.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 3.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above; B X 4.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 5.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 6..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 7.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X 8.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 9.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X

10.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A.9,500 pounds. B.10,400 pounds. C.11,300 pounds. B X 11.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack. B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 12.. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A.Increases takeoff distance. B.Decreases takeoff speed. C.Decreases takeoff distance. A X 13.Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(To be continuedefficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 14.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 15. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV? A.5.0NM B.7.5NM C.10.0NM A X 16. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B.At least one full stop landing must be made. C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. B X 17.Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have A.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B.White inscriptions on a black background C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 18.. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol A.V2min . B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 19.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU) A. 50 metres B. 500 metres C. 150 metres C X 20.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority?

A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 21.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 22.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 23.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.Four B.Three C.Two B X 24.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 25..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 26.If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 27.The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 28.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only A.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.In VFR conditions C.In day VFR conditions C X 29.During the flight, a good leader should not A.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance.

C.involve the team in most decision making processes. A X 30.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 31.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B. Position is not affected C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 32. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. C X 33. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 34. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 35.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low cloud and perhaps icing B. Strong wind with bad visibility C. Snow shower A X 36.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red. B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red. C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red. A X 37..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 38.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 39.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15

A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 40.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 41.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X 42.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact B.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 43.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.To require a pilot to take a specific action. B.To state some important information. C.To warn the pilot. A X 44.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X 45.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 46.. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A.Angle of attack. B.Altitude. C.Airspeed. B X 47.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 48.(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727. A.(To be continued What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 49.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC

B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X 50.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 51.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 52.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Notify ATC immediately. B. Squawk 7600. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 53.Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 54.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 55. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 56. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X 57. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 58.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 59. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?

A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. A X 60. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. A X 61. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 62.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.requiring a pilot to read back. B.keeping flight status. C.requiring a pilot to take specific action. C X 63. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 64.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 65. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 66.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 67.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 68.. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds, it will encounter___. A. head windshear B. turbulence

C. vertical windshear C X 69.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 70.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.35,000 pounds. B.32,600 pounds. C.30,200 pounds. B X 71.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 72. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 73.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 74.Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 75.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 76.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 77.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 78.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach.

C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach. A X 79.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. A X 80.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 81.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(To be continuedincidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,000 feet. B.4,300 feet. C.4,500 feet. A X 83.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 84.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 85.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 86.Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 87.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative.

B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 88.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. C X 89.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. A X 90.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 91.Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 92.While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.(To be continued can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 93.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X 94.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 95.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 96.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X

97.The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 98.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 99.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.A severe moment or "tuck under" C.-Severe porpoising B X 100.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Look only at far away, dim lights. B.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B X

1.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C C 2.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator C.Outer compass locator. B X 3.. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds, it will encounter___. A. head windshear B. turbulence C. vertical windshear C X 4.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 5.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 6.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.

B X 7.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. C X 8.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 9.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 10..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 11.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 12.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 13.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 14.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.To require a pilot to take a specific action. B.To state some important information. C.To warn the pilot. A X 15. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X 16.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X

17. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 18.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 19.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 20. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 21.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B.-positive longitudinal static stability. C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 22.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X 23.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 24.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X 25.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 26.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Six B.Five C.Two B X

27. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 28.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 29.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 30.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 31.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 32. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X 33.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 34.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 35.In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X

36.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds? A.500 feet. B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 37.. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A.Increases takeoff distance. B.Decreases takeoff speed. C.Decreases takeoff distance. A X 38.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 39.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.1,420 pounds, 97 NAM. B.1,440 pounds, 102 NAM. C.1,390 pounds, 92 NAM. A X 40.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 41.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 42. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "good" C. braking action is "100%" B X 43.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 44.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 45.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 46.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA

B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 47.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 48.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 49..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 50.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 51.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning. A X 52.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 53.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.reached the cruising IAS. B.entered VFR weather conditions. C.received an ATC clearance. C X 54.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 55.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 56..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.

B X 57.who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 58.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 59. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 60.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 61.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 62.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 63.. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. freezing rain B. clear air turbulence C. embedded thunderstorms C X 64..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 65.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 66.A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right A.(To be continuedengine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.expectancy producing a mental block

C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 67.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. Z X 68.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X 69.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continuedof an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 70.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 71.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 72.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. A X 73. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 74.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 75.The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X

76.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 77.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 78.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 79.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 80.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet. B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 81.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 82.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(To be continuedincidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 83.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 84.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 85..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 86.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter

A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 87.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. Expansion of air as rises. B. Movement of air over a colder surface. C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. A X 88.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C X 89.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 90.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 91.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X 92.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 93.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 94.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 95.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 96.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.

C X 97. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 98.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 99.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa. B X 100. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 1

1.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 2.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 3.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low-level wind share B. Microburst C. Turbulence A X 4..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 5.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. Rain and snow B. Drizzle C. Continuous snow

A X 6.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 7.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 8.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Severe turbulence, moderate icing, rain shower, thunderstorms B. Moderate turbulence, severe icing, freezing precipitation, severe clear air turbulence C. Moderate turbulence, moderate icing, rain, severe clear air turbulence C X 9.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 10.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 11. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere. A. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. A X 12.Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 13.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 14. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.127.6MHz. B.127.6KHz. C.114.7MHz. A X 15.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X

16.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 17.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 18.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 19.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 20.. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.VLE. B.VMO/MMO. C.VLO/MLO. C X 21. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A.11.7NM from PEK. B.11.7KM from PEK. C.11.7SM from PEK. A X 22.The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 23.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 24..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 25. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X

26.If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 27. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 28.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 29.The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.strong leadership B X 30.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 31.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 32.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 33.Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 34.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z, pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A.122.20MHz. B.8897KHz. C.3016KHz. C X 35.. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as. A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility B.stratus, light rain, poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence.

B X 36. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 37.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 38.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 39.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 40.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 41.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 42.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 43.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 44.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. the absence of clouds in the area B. an area of no convective turbulence C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 45.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X

46.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 47. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft. A X 48.. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. B. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. C. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. A X 49.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 50.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 51..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 52.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 53.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Notify ATC immediately. B. Squawk 7600. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 54. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X

55..With the increase of temperature, the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. A. remain unchanged B. increase C. reduce B X 56.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 57. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 58.. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is. A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. A X 59. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X 60.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 61.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X 62.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5,200-foot icy runway? A.124,000 pounds. B.137,000 pounds. C.108,000 pounds. B X 63.Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 64..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 65.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar.

B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 66.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 67.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 68.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute B X 69. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 70.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X 71.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 72.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C X 73.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 74.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X

75.Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A.Eustachian tube B.the cochlea C.the semicircular canals C X 76.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 77.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 78. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 79..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 80.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 81.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.35,000 pounds. B.32,600 pounds. C.30,200 pounds. B X 82.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 83.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.3000m. B.3,600m. C.2,800m. B X 84.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet. B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X

85.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continuedof an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 86.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 87.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 88.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 89.. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? A.Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. B.Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. C.Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. C X 90.What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 91.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 92.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 93.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 94.Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible

C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 95.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 96.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 97.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR. C.2.04 EPR. B X 98. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 99..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 100.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Strong wind with shower B. Snow and rain C. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X

1.Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 2.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 3..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 4.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C X

5.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 6.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 7.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 8.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 9..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 10. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A.100 feet AGL. B.150 feet AGL. C.200 feet AGL. B X 11.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 12.In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. A X 13. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 14.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 15.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?

A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 16.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. B X 17. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.500 feet B.1,000feet C.1,500 feet B X 18.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 19.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours C X 20. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 21.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 22.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 23.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continuedof an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 24.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(To be continuedincidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 25.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.

B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 26. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 27.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.FL118. B.FL128. C.FL138. A X 28..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 29.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 30.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 31. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 32.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 33.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A.a third-class medical certificate. B.a second-class medical certificate. C.a first-class medical certificate. C X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet. B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X 35.. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density.

B.Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher. C.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air. A X 36.The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 37.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 38.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 39.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 40.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP. B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP. B X 41.. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 1.7hPa. C. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 17hPa. B X 42.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 43.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 44.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 45.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight.

C.High density altitude. A X 46. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C X 47.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A.Approach Control Regulation. B.Visual Flight Regulation. C.Instrument Control Regulation. C X 48. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 49.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. C X 50.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 51.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 52.The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.strong leadership B X 53. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 54.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 55. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero"

C. braking action is "nil" C X 56.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 57.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 58.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 59.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X 60.In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 61.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 62.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,850 feet. C.153 knots and 3,450 feet. C X 63. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 64.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 65.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X

66.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 67.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 68. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 69.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C X 70.. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet, the wind speed is 120 km/h B. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 120 knots C. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 71.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 72.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 73. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C X 74.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X

75. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 77.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 78."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 79.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 80..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 81.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 82.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 83. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.destination airport. B.provisional airport. C.alternate airport.

B X 84.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots B X 85.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 86.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 87. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X 88.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 89. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X 90.. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C.An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B X 91.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.760 feet/minute. B.851 feet/minute. C.699 feet/minute. A X 92.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 93.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours.

B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 94.. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground, it will usually produce . A. layer clouds B. smooth airflow and advection fog C. warm front clouds B X 95.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 96.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 97..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 98.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 99. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft. A X 100. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X

1.. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. A X 2. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X

3.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 4. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. C X 5.Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 6.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 7. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 8. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Director of operations or flight follower. C.Pilot in command. C X 9.. Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. to check the performance of the aircraft; B. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety; C. to achieve or maintain the desired separation. C X 10.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. C X 11.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 12.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B.-positive longitudinal static stability. C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is

A.1,496 feet. B.1,244 feet. C.900 feet. B X 14.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 15.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.2.115 EPR. B.2.10 EPR. C.2.06 EPR. C X 16. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 17.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 18.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 19.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 20.. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A.Angle of attack. B.Altitude. C.Airspeed. B X 21. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 22.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 23.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds?

A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 24.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 25.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 26.. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. A X 27.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Six B.Five C.Two B X 28.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 29.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. B X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 31.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A.- increase the load factor. B.delay stall. C.increase airspeed. B X 32.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 33.When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 34.. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.7 days ago.

B.15 days ago. C.28 days ago. A X 35.. What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall? A.Reduce fuel flow, reduce angle of attack, and increase airspeed. B.Advance throttle, lower angle of attack, and reduce airspeed. C.Reduce throttle, reduce airspeed, and increase angle of attack. A X 36.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 37.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 38.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 39. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 40.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 41.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 42.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 43.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 44.. What is the purpose of the danger airspace? A.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger. B.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry. C.To protect military activities. A X 45. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are?

A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X 46.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X 47.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 48.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 49. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter check is considered to have been taken in A.November 1988. B.December 1988. C.January 1989. B X 50. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 51.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 52.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 53.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X

54. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 55.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 56.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. A.the change of sun radiation B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.the movement of the weather system B X 57.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 58.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 59. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B737-300), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? A.Upgrade training. B.Recurrent training. C.Initial training. A X 60.A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.(To be continued result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 61.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 62.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 63.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller.

B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. A X 64.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 65.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 66.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 67.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 68.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 69.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 70. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.2 B.3 C.4 B X 71.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 72.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position.

B X 73.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport, A.(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 74.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 75.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 76.A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 77. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 78. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 79.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 80.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 81.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 82.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 83.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right

B.wrong A X 84.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 85. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X 86.. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. freezing rain B. clear air turbulence C. embedded thunderstorms C X 87.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F1020. B.S1020. C.L1020. B X 88.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 89.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 90.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the AIRMET information, the expected changes in intensity of the icing is. A. Intensify B. Weaken C. No change B X 91.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. A X 92.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.Rate of turn B.Angle of bank C.True airspeed B X 93. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.2 NAV? A.1? B.-2? C.-4? C X

94. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 95. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 96.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 97. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 98.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds? A.136 knots. B.132 knots. C.139 knots. A X 99.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 100.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X

1..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 2.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A.VIS 1,600m. B.RVR 200m. C.RVR 250m.

A X 3.The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 4.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 5.Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 6."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 7.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 8.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 9.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 10.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 11.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.5 hours 3 minutes. B.5 hours 20 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. A X 12.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.increased visual field B.An increase in breathing rate C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X

13. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 14. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 15.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red. B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red. C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red. A X 16.If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 17.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 18..In daily aeronautical weather reports, the code "VCTS" means ____. A. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. C. There are thunderstorms over the airport. A X 19.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 20.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 21.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 22.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase. B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease. C.Rate and radius will increase. A X

23.In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 24. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 25.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 26.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A.Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. B.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. C.One light projector with two colors; red and white. B X 27.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.2.06 EPR. B.2.07 EPR. C.2.09 EPR. A X 28.person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 29. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 30.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 31.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(To be continuedhealth, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 32. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13

C.7and 11 B X 33.. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is A.V2. B.V1. C.VEF. C X 34.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 35.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twinengine airplane represent? A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. A X 36.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 37.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. C X 38.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X 39.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.G. B.S. C.R. B X 40. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 41.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind.

B X 42.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 43. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 44.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU A X 45.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 46. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 47.. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A.VS. B.VS1. C.VSO. B X 48..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 49.What functions are provided by ILS? A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. B. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. C. Guidance, range, and visual information. C X 50.Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 51..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 52.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air.

C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. A X 53.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 54..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 55. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 56. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 57. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 58.The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 59.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 60.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 61. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?

A.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. B X 62.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 63..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 64.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 65.Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 66.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 67.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 68.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. A X 69.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 70.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 71.. Northwest wing can be presented as .

A. 200or NW B. 315or NW C. 135or SE B X 72. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.6 B.7 C.12 C X 73.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 74.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 75.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 76.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 77. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 78.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 79.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 170 knots B X 80.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 81. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training.

B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 82. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 83. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 84.. An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR. A X 85.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 86.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,150 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 87.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 88..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 89.The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 90.The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific

A.(To be continuedcircumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 91.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 92. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 93.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 94.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. 3 per 1,000 feet. B. 2 per 1,000 feet. C. 4 per 1,000 feet. A X 95. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "nil" C X 96.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 97.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 98. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 100.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach. C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach.

A X

1.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 2.When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 3.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,850 feet. C.153 knots and 3,450 feet. C X 4.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes, 118 NAM. B.26 minutes, 125 NAM. C.25 minutes, 118 NAM. B X 5.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 6.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 7.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X 8. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid? A.60 days. B.90 days. C.120 days. C X 9. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. C X 10.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction.

C.Remains fixed for all positions A X 11.Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A.Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. B.Increased vision keenness. C.Decreased breathing rate. A X 12.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 13.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 14. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 15.Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.headache and fatigue B.a feeling of euphoria C.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 16.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2 hours 12 minutes. B.2 hours 15 minutes. C.2 hours 18 minutes. A X 17..Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur? A.-.50 to .75 mach B.-.75 to .1.20 mach C.-1.20 to 2.50 mach B X 18..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 19.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 20.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only.

B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 21..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 22.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 23.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 24.If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 25.The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.(To be continuedcircumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 26.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 27.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 28.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. Rain and snow B. Drizzle C. Continuous snow A X 29.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B. Position is not affected C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 30.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.

A X 31.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 32. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 33.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 34.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 35.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 36.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 37.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 38..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 39.. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A.Angle of attack. B.Altitude. C.Airspeed. B X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 140,000 pounds? A.127 knots. B.149 knots. C.156 knots. C X

41.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 42.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124,000 pounds. B.129,500 pounds. C.134,500 pounds. A X 43..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 44.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low cloud and perhaps icing B. Strong wind with bad visibility C. Snow shower A X 45.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 250 knots B. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 46.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 47.. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A.Increases takeoff distance. B.Decreases takeoff speed. C.Decreases takeoff distance. A X 48.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 49.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 50.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 51.An authoritative leader

A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 52..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 53.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 54.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 55.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X 56.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 57.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 58.. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet, the wind speed is 120 km/h B. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 120 knots C. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 59.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 60.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X

61.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 62.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X 63..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 64.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 65.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 66.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 67. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 68.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.Rate of turn B.Angle of bank C.True airspeed B X 69.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 70.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 46 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Five C.Three A X 71. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots

B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 72.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 73.How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators. C.not considered to be part of a rest period. C X 74.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 5,400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.117,500 pounds. B.136,500 pounds. C.140,500 pounds. B X 75.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 76.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight? A.650 feet. B.1,300 feet. C.1,050 feet. C X 77.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 78. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.3,000 feet C.3,500 feet. B X 79.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.G. B.S. C.R. B X 80.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will

A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 81.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 82..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 83.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 84.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 85.A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.(To be continued result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 86.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 87.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 88. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 89.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.143 knots. B.144 knots.

C.145 knots. A X 90. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 91.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 92.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 93. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above A. FL200 B. FL240 C. FL250 C X 94.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. C X 95.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 96. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 97.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to? A.FL158. B.FL148. C.FL168. B X 98.The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night

B X 99.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 100..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X

1.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 2. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 3.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 4.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 5. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 6.The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X 7.Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC C.A and B C X

8.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 9.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 10.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 11.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 12.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 13.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 14.The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational, lifesaving decision and carry it out following A.(To be continueda lack of oxygen at a given altitude. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 15.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority? A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 16.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.

C X 17.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.124 knots. B.137 knots. C.130 knots. C X 18.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature C.air pressure B X 19..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 20. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.( an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 21.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 22.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 23..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 24.Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it? A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.A and B C X 25. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 26.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator C.Outer compass locator. B X 27. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere.

A. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. A X 28.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 29.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 30.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. C X 31. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 32. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 33.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 34.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 35.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 36.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 37.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.143 knots. B.144 knots.

C.145 knots. A X 38.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 39.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 40.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 41.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 42.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 43..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 44.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 45.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 46.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52 B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52 C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52 C X 47. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.127.6MHz. B.127.6KHz. C.114.7MHz. A X 48.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency

C. both a and b C X 49.The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. A X 50.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 51.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 52.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 53.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase. B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease. C.Rate and radius will increase. A X 54.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. A X 55.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. A X 56.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 57.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG, the heading indicator should indicate A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. B X 58.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions.

C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 59.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 60.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 61.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 62.. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range? A.10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. B.25,000 feet to the tropopause. C.The tropopause to 45,000 feet B X 63.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. A X 64.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 65..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 66. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 67.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 68."Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude?

A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 69.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 70.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 71.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 72.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 73.. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is. A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. A X 74.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 75. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 77.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 78. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond?

A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 79.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 80.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU. B.VMD. C.VFC. A X 81. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 82. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 83.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 84.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 85.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 86.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 87.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog

C. layer clouds A X 88.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 89. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 90..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 91.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 92.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 93.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 94.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 95.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 96.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. A X 97.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.

B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 98.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 100.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,150 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X

1.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.Increase speed for a headwind. B.Increase speed for a tailwind. C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind. A X 2.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B.-positive longitudinal static stability. C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 3.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 4.The symptoms of hyperventilation are A.quite different to those of hypoxia B.quite similar to those of hypoxia C.profuse sweating B X 5.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 6.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet.

B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 7.. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.An abrupt change in relative wind. B.A decrease in angle of attack. C.Sudden decrease in load factor. A X 8.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 9. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 10. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 11.TCAS I provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 12. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. A X 13.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 14.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 15.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 16.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater

A.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 17.Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A.Eustachian tube B.the cochlea C.the semicircular canals C X 18.Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have A.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B.White inscriptions on a black background C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 19.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 20. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C X 21.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 22.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,150 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 23.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 24.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Notify ATC immediately. B. Squawk 7600. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 25.As the CG is moved forward, the stability A.Improves B.Decrease C.dose not change A X 26. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?

A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737. C X 27.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 28.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 29.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. B X 30.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 31.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 32.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.24,600 feet. B.23,400 feet. C.20,000 feet. A X 33.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 35.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 36.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D is

A.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 37.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.40 kilometers. B.50 kilometers. C.46 kilometers. B X 38.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 39.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 40.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 41.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 42.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 43. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 44.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.To require a pilot to take a specific action. B.To state some important information. C.To warn the pilot. A X 45.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 46..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet

C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 47. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 48.The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 49.The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. A X 50.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X 51.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C.decrease due to higher density altitude. C X 52.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 53.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 54.Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it? A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.A and B C X 55.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 56.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease.

A X 57.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 58.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 59.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 60.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 61. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 62.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 63.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 64.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours C X 65. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 66. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA?

A.DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 67. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 68..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 69.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(To be continuedhealth, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 70.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.124 knots. B.137 knots. C.130 knots. C X 71.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip. C X 72.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 73.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU. B.VMD. C.VFC. A X 74.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twinengine airplane represent? A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. A X 75.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 76.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet.

B X 77.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 78.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 79.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 80.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 81.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2 hours 12 minutes. B.2 hours 15 minutes. C.2 hours 18 minutes. A X 82.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 83.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 84.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 85.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. B X 86.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X

87..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 88.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 89.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 90.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 91.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 92.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.35,000 pounds. B.32,600 pounds. C.30,200 pounds. B X 93.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 94.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 95.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 96.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet.

C.FL 39,400 feet. C X 97.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 98.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 99. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 100.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. C X

ATPL02 1.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C C 2.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator C.Outer compass locator. B X 3.. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds, it will encounter___. A. head windshear B. turbulence C. vertical windshear C X 4.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 5.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X

6.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B X 7.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. C X 8.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 9.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 10..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 11.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 12.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 13.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 14.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.To require a pilot to take a specific action. B.To state some important information. C.To warn the pilot. A X 15. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X 16.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur?

A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 17. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 18.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 19.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 20. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 21.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B.-positive longitudinal static stability. C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 22.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X 23.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 24.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X 25.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 26.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Six

B.Five C.Two B X 27. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 28.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 29.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 30.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 31.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 32. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X 33.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 34.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 35.In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance

B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds? A.500 feet. B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 37.. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A.Increases takeoff distance. B.Decreases takeoff speed. C.Decreases takeoff distance. A X 38.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 39.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.1,420 pounds, 97 NAM. B.1,440 pounds, 102 NAM. C.1,390 pounds, 92 NAM. A X 40.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 41.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 42. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "good" C. braking action is "100%" B X 43.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 44.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 45.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m.

A X 46.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 47.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 48.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 49..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 50.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 51.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning. A X 52.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 53.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.reached the cruising IAS. B.entered VFR weather conditions. C.received an ATC clearance. C X 54.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 55.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 56..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10.

B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 57.who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 58.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 59. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 60.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 61.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 62.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 63.. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. freezing rain B. clear air turbulence C. embedded thunderstorms C X 64..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 65.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X

66.A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right A.(To be continuedengine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.expectancy producing a mental block C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 67.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 68.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X 69.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continuedof an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 70.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 71.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 72.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. A X 73. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 74.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X

75.The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 76.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 77.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 78.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 79.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 80.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet. B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 81.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 82.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(To be continuedincidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 83.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 84.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X

85..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 86.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 87.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. Expansion of air as rises. B. Movement of air over a colder surface. C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. A X 88.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C X 89.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 90.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 91.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X 92.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 93.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 94.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 95.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.

C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 96.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 97. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 98.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 99.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa. B X 100. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 1 ------------------------------------

1.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 2.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 3.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low-level wind share B. Microburst C. Turbulence A X 4..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.

B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 5.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. Rain and snow B. Drizzle C. Continuous snow A X 6.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 7.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 8.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Severe turbulence, moderate icing, rain shower, thunderstorms B. Moderate turbulence, severe icing, freezing precipitation, severe clear air turbulence C. Moderate turbulence, moderate icing, rain, severe clear air turbulence C X 9.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 10.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 11. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere. A. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. A X 12.Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 13.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 14. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.127.6MHz. B.127.6KHz. C.114.7MHz.

A X 15.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 16.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 17.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 18.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 19.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 20.. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.VLE. B.VMO/MMO. C.VLO/MLO. C X 21. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A.11.7NM from PEK. B.11.7KM from PEK. C.11.7SM from PEK. A X 22.The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 23.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 24..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X

25. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 26.If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 27. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 28.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 29.The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.strong leadership B X 30.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 31.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 32.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 33.Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 34.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z, pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A.122.20MHz. B.8897KHz.

C.3016KHz. C X 35.. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as. A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility B.stratus, light rain, poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence. B X 36. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 37.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 38.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 39.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 40.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 41.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 42.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 43.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 44.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. the absence of clouds in the area B. an area of no convective turbulence C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected

C X 45.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 46.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 47. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft. A X 48.. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. B. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. C. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. A X 49.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 50.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 51..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 52.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 53.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Notify ATC immediately. B. Squawk 7600. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 54. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for

A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 55..With the increase of temperature, the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. A. remain unchanged B. increase C. reduce B X 56.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 57. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 58.. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is. A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. A X 59. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X 60.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 61.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X 62.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5,200-foot icy runway? A.124,000 pounds. B.137,000 pounds. C.108,000 pounds. B X 63.Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low

C X 64..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 65.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 66.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 67.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 68.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute B X 69. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 70.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X 71.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 72.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C X 73.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X

74.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 75.Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A.Eustachian tube B.the cochlea C.the semicircular canals C X 76.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 77.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 78. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 79..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 80.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 81.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.35,000 pounds. B.32,600 pounds. C.30,200 pounds. B X 82.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 83.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.3000m.

B.3,600m. C.2,800m. B X 84.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet. B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X 85.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continuedof an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 86.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 87.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 88.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 89.. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? A.Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. B.Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. C.Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. C X 90.What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 91.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 92.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 93.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?

A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 94.Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 95.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 96.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 97.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR. C.2.04 EPR. B X 98. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 99..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 100.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Strong wind with shower B. Snow and rain C. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X

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1.Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 2.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X

3..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 4.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C X 5.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 6.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 7.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 8.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 9..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 10. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A.100 feet AGL. B.150 feet AGL. C.200 feet AGL. B X 11.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 12.In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. A X 13. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z.

B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 14.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 15.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 16.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. B X 17. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.500 feet B.1,000feet C.1,500 feet B X 18.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 19.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours C X 20. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 21.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 22.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 23.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continuedof an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X

24.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(To be continuedincidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 25.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 26. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 27.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.FL118. B.FL128. C.FL138. A X 28..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 29.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 30.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 31. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 32.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 33.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A.a third-class medical certificate. B.a second-class medical certificate. C.a first-class medical certificate. C X

34.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet. B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X 35.. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. B.Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher. C.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air. A X 36.The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 37.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 38.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 39.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 40.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP. B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP. B X 41.. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 1.7hPa. C. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 17hPa. B X 42.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 43.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin

B X 44.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 45.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 46. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C X 47.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A.Approach Control Regulation. B.Visual Flight Regulation. C.Instrument Control Regulation. C X 48. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 49.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. C X 50.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 51.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 52.The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.strong leadership B X 53. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X

54.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 55. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "nil" C X 56.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 57.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 58.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 59.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X 60.In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 61.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 62.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,850 feet. C.153 knots and 3,450 feet. C X 63. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 64.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front?

A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 65.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 66.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 67.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 68. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 69.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C X 70.. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet, the wind speed is 120 km/h B. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 120 knots C. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 71.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 72.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 73. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline.

C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C X 74.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 75. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 77.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 78."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 79.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 80..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 81.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 82.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least

A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 83. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.destination airport. B.provisional airport. C.alternate airport. B X 84.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots B X 85.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 86.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 87. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X 88.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 89. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X 90.. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C.An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B X 91.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.760 feet/minute. B.851 feet/minute. C.699 feet/minute.

A X 92.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 93.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 94.. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground, it will usually produce . A. layer clouds B. smooth airflow and advection fog C. warm front clouds B X 95.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 96.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 97..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 98.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 99. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft. A X 100. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X

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1.. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. A X 2. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 3.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 4. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. C X 5.Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 6.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 7. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 8. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Director of operations or flight follower. C.Pilot in command. C X 9.. Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. to check the performance of the aircraft; B. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety; C. to achieve or maintain the desired separation. C X 10.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. C X 11.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating.

B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 12.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B.-positive longitudinal static stability. C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.1,244 feet. C.900 feet. B X 14.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 15.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.2.115 EPR. B.2.10 EPR. C.2.06 EPR. C X 16. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 17.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 18.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 19.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 20.. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A.Angle of attack. B.Altitude. C.Airspeed. B X 21. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days.

B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 22.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 23.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds? A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 24.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 25.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 26.. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. A X 27.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Six B.Five C.Two B X 28.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 29.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. B X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 31.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A.- increase the load factor. B.delay stall. C.increase airspeed. B X 32.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.

C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 33.When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 34.. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.7 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.28 days ago. A X 35.. What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall? A.Reduce fuel flow, reduce angle of attack, and increase airspeed. B.Advance throttle, lower angle of attack, and reduce airspeed. C.Reduce throttle, reduce airspeed, and increase angle of attack. A X 36.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 37.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 38.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 39. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 40.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 41.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 42.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 43.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 44.. What is the purpose of the danger airspace? A.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger. B.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry. C.To protect military activities. A X 45. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X 46.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X 47.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 48.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 49. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter check is considered to have been taken in A.November 1988. B.December 1988. C.January 1989. B X 50. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 51.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 52.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown

C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 53.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 54. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 55.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 56.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. A.the change of sun radiation B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.the movement of the weather system B X 57.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 58.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 59. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B737-300), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? A.Upgrade training. B.Recurrent training. C.Initial training. A X 60.A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.(To be continued result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 61.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet.

C X 62.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 63.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller. B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. A X 64.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 65.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 66.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 67.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 68.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 69.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 70. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.2 B.3 C.4 B X

71.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 72.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 73.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport, A.(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 74.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 75.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 76.A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 77. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 78. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 79.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 80.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 81.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office.

B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 82.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 83.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 84.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 85. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X 86.. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. freezing rain B. clear air turbulence C. embedded thunderstorms C X 87.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F1020. B.S1020. C.L1020. B X 88.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 89.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 90.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the AIRMET information, the expected changes in intensity of the icing is. A. Intensify B. Weaken C. No change B X 91.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. A X

92.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.Rate of turn B.Angle of bank C.True airspeed B X 93. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.2 NAV? A.1? B.-2? C.-4? C X 94. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 95. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 96.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 97. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 98.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds? A.136 knots. B.132 knots. C.139 knots. A X 99.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 100.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X

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1..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 2.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A.VIS 1,600m. B.RVR 200m. C.RVR 250m. A X 3.The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 4.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 5.Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 6."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 7.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 8.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 9.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 10.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.

C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 11.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.5 hours 3 minutes. B.5 hours 20 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. A X 12.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.increased visual field B.An increase in breathing rate C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 13. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 14. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 15.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red. B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red. C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red. A X 16.If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 17.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 18..In daily aeronautical weather reports, the code "VCTS" means ____. A. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. C. There are thunderstorms over the airport. A X 19.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 20.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR.

C X 21.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 22.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase. B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease. C.Rate and radius will increase. A X 23.In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 24. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 25.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 26.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A.Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. B.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. C.One light projector with two colors; red and white. B X 27.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.2.06 EPR. B.2.07 EPR. C.2.09 EPR. A X 28.person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 29. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 30.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack

B.camber C.energy B X 31.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(To be continuedhealth, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 32. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 33.. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is A.V2. B.V1. C.VEF. C X 34.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 35.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twinengine airplane represent? A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. A X 36.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 37.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. C X 38.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X 39.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.G. B.S. C.R.

B X 40. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 41.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind. B X 42.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 43. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 44.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU A X 45.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 46. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 47.. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A.VS. B.VS1. C.VSO. B X 48..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 49.What functions are provided by ILS? A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. B. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. C. Guidance, range, and visual information. C X 50.Carbon monoxide is dangerous because

A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 51..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 52.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. A X 53.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 54..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 55. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 56. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 57. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 58.The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 59.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC?

A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 60.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 61. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated? A.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. B X 62.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 63..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 64.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 65.Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 66.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 67.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 68.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. A X

69.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 70.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 71.. Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200or NW B. 315or NW C. 135or SE B X 72. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.6 B.7 C.12 C X 73.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 74.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 75.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 76.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 77. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 78.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 79.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots

B. 200 knots C. 170 knots B X 80.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 81. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 82. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 83. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 84.. An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR. A X 85.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 86.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,150 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 87.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 88..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station

C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 89.The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 90.The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.(To be continuedcircumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 91.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 92. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 93.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 94.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. 3 per 1,000 feet. B. 2 per 1,000 feet. C. 4 per 1,000 feet. A X 95. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "nil" C X 96.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 97.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 98. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three

C.Two A X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 100.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach. C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach. A X

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1.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 2.When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 3.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,850 feet. C.153 knots and 3,450 feet. C X 4.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes, 118 NAM. B.26 minutes, 125 NAM. C.25 minutes, 118 NAM. B X 5.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 6.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 7.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X

8. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid? A.60 days. B.90 days. C.120 days. C X 9. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. C X 10.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions A X 11.Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A.Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. B.Increased vision keenness. C.Decreased breathing rate. A X 12.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 13.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 14. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 15.Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.headache and fatigue B.a feeling of euphoria C.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 16.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2 hours 12 minutes. B.2 hours 15 minutes. C.2 hours 18 minutes. A X 17..Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur? A.-.50 to .75 mach B.-.75 to .1.20 mach C.-1.20 to 2.50 mach B X

18..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 19.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 20.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 21..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 22.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 23.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 24.If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 25.The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.(To be continuedcircumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 26.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 27.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X

28.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. Rain and snow B. Drizzle C. Continuous snow A X 29.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B. Position is not affected C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 30.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 31.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 32. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 33.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 34.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 35.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 36.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 37.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 38..What is the hijack code? A. 7200.

B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 39.. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A.Angle of attack. B.Altitude. C.Airspeed. B X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 140,000 pounds? A.127 knots. B.149 knots. C.156 knots. C X 41.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 42.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124,000 pounds. B.129,500 pounds. C.134,500 pounds. A X 43..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 44.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low cloud and perhaps icing B. Strong wind with bad visibility C. Snow shower A X 45.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 250 knots B. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 46.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 47.. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A.Increases takeoff distance. B.Decreases takeoff speed. C.Decreases takeoff distance. A X 48.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME.

C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 49.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 50.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 51.An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 52..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 53.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 54.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 55.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X 56.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 57.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 58.. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet, the wind speed is 120 km/h B. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 120 knots

C. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 59.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 60.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X 61.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 62.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X 63..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 64.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 65.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 66.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 67. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 68.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.Rate of turn B.Angle of bank C.True airspeed B X 69.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance.

B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 70.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 46 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Five C.Three A X 71. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 72.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 73.How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators. C.not considered to be part of a rest period. C X 74.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 5,400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.117,500 pounds. B.136,500 pounds. C.140,500 pounds. B X 75.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 76.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight? A.650 feet. B.1,300 feet. C.1,050 feet. C X 77.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.

C X 78. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.3,000 feet C.3,500 feet. B X 79.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.G. B.S. C.R. B X 80.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 81.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 82..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 83.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 84.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 85.A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.(To be continued result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 86.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 87.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb

A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 88. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 89.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.143 knots. B.144 knots. C.145 knots. A X 90. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 91.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 92.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 93. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above A. FL200 B. FL240 C. FL250 C X 94.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. C X 95.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 96. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance.

C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 97.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to? A.FL158. B.FL148. C.FL168. B X 98.The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 99.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 100..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X

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1.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 2. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 3.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 4.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 5. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet

B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 6.The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X 7.Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC C.A and B C X 8.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 9.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 10.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 11.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 12.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 13.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 14.The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational, lifesaving decision and carry it out following A.(To be continueda lack of oxygen at a given altitude. The statement is )right B.wrong

A X 15.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority? A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 16.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 17.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.124 knots. B.137 knots. C.130 knots. C X 18.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature C.air pressure B X 19..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 20. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.( an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 21.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 22.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 23..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 24.Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it?

A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.A and B C X 25. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 26.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator C.Outer compass locator. B X 27. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere. A. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. A X 28.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 29.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 30.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. C X 31. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 32. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 33.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 34.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability.

C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 35.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 36.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 37.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.143 knots. B.144 knots. C.145 knots. A X 38.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 39.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 40.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 41.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 42.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 43..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 44.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 45.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component.

C X 46.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52 B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52 C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52 C X 47. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.127.6MHz. B.127.6KHz. C.114.7MHz. A X 48.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 49.The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. A X 50.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 51.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 52.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 53.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase. B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease. C.Rate and radius will increase. A X 54.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. A X 55.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried.

A X 56.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 57.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG, the heading indicator should indicate A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. B X 58.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 59.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 60.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 61.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 62.. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range? A.10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. B.25,000 feet to the tropopause. C.The tropopause to 45,000 feet B X 63.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. A X 64.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 65..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear?

A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 66. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 67.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 68."Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 69.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 70.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 71.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 72.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 73.. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is. A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. A X 74.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 75. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.

B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 77.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 78. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 79.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 80.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU. B.VMD. C.VFC. A X 81. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 82. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 83.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 84.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 85.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course

A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 86.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 87.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 88.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 89. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 90..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 91.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 92.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 93.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 94.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet.

C X 95.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 96.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. A X 97.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 98.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 100.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,150 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X

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1.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.Increase speed for a headwind. B.Increase speed for a tailwind. C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind. A X 2.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B.-positive longitudinal static stability. C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 3.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance.

B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 4.The symptoms of hyperventilation are A.quite different to those of hypoxia B.quite similar to those of hypoxia C.profuse sweating B X 5.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 6.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 7.. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.An abrupt change in relative wind. B.A decrease in angle of attack. C.Sudden decrease in load factor. A X 8.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 9. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 10. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 11.TCAS I provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 12. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. A X 13.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation

B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 14.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 15.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 16.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 17.Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A.Eustachian tube B.the cochlea C.the semicircular canals C X 18.Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have A.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B.White inscriptions on a black background C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 19.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 20. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C X 21.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 22.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,150 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X

23.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 24.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Notify ATC immediately. B. Squawk 7600. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 25.As the CG is moved forward, the stability A.Improves B.Decrease C.dose not change A X 26. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737. C X 27.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 28.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 29.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. B X 30.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 31.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 32.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.24,600 feet. B.23,400 feet. C.20,000 feet. A X

33.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 35.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 36.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D is A.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 37.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.40 kilometers. B.50 kilometers. C.46 kilometers. B X 38.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 39.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 40.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 41.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 42.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 43. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land.

B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 44.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.To require a pilot to take a specific action. B.To state some important information. C.To warn the pilot. A X 45.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 46..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 47. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 48.The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 49.The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. A X 50.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X 51.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C.decrease due to higher density altitude. C X 52.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 53.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base.

C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 54.Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it? A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.A and B C X 55.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 56.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 57.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 58.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 59.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 60.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 61. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 62.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 63.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.

B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 64.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours C X 65. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 66. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 67. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 68..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 69.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(To be continuedhealth, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 70.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.124 knots. B.137 knots. C.130 knots. C X 71.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip. C X 72.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 73.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU. B.VMD.

C.VFC. A X 74.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twinengine airplane represent? A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. A X 75.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 76.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 77.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 78.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 79.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 80.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 81.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2 hours 12 minutes. B.2 hours 15 minutes. C.2 hours 18 minutes. A X 82.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 83.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL.

B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 84.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 85.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. B X 86.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 87..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 88.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 89.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 90.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 91.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 92.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.35,000 pounds. B.32,600 pounds. C.30,200 pounds. B X

93.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 94.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 95.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 96.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. C X 97.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 98.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 99. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 100.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. C X

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1.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X

2.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 3."Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 4. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is A.upgrade training. B.transition training. C.initial training. C X 5.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 6.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A.loss of the vertical component of lift B.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 7.. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. A X 8.The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 9.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet. B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X 10.. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.An abrupt change in relative wind. B.A decrease in angle of attack. C.Sudden decrease in load factor. A X 11.. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range? A.10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. B.25,000 feet to the tropopause. C.The tropopause to 45,000 feet

B X 12. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 13.. Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. 3,000 meters. B. 3,600 meters. C. 6,000 meters. A X 14. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 15. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 16.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 17.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 18.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 19.Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it? A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.A and B C X 20.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 21. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11

B X 22.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.Rate of turn B.Angle of bank C.True airspeed B X 23.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 24.What is load factor? A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 25.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.(to be continued Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 26.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 27.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.40 kilometers. B.50 kilometers. C.46 kilometers. B X 28.. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocatingengine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. B.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. C.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B X 29.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 30.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 31.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X

32. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B X 33.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X 34.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 35.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. A X 37.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 38.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 39.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 40..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 41.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.

C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 42.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 43.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 44. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 45. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737. C X 46.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 47.. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds, it will encounter___. A. head windshear B. turbulence C. vertical windshear C X 48."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 49.The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 50. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

A X 51.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 52.While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.(To be continued can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 53.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.HIALS. B.HIALS with PAPI. C.PAPI. B X 54.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,000 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 113,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 105,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. A X 55.How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators. C.not considered to be part of a rest period. C X 56.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 57.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 58.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 59.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 60.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X

61. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV? A.5.0NM B.7.5NM C.10.0NM A X 62.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 63.. A plane, MH 60, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 64.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 65.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots B X 66.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 67.The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.strong leadership B X 68. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 69.What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.Rapid, shallow breathing. B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. C.Dizziness. C X 70.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures.

C. Poor visibility. C X 71.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 72.The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. A X 73.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 74..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 75.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X 76.Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. A X 77.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 78.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes, 118 NAM. B.26 minutes, 125 NAM. C.25 minutes, 118 NAM. B X 79.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 80.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is at A.D25 to PEK VOR/DME. B.DAWANGZHUANG. C.The point cleared by ATC. B X

81.As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 82. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 83.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. B X 84.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 85..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 86. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 87.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 88.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 89.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Request a clarification from the ATC. C.Read the clearance back entirely. B X 90.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X

91. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 92.Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC C.A and B C X 93.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 94. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 95.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X 96.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 97.. Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind B.clear, high wind, good visibility C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility A X 98.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds? A.136 knots. B.132 knots. C.139 knots. A X 99.The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X 100.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.

B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X

ATPL03

1.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 2.In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. A X 3.The perception of color is a function of the A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. A X 4.Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 5.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 6.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 7.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 8.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 9. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding

A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 10.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 11. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X 12.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X 13.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 14.If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 15.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 16.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 17.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. C X 18.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .

B X 19.. An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR. A X 20.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 21.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X 22.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. 3 per 1,000 feet. B. 2 per 1,000 feet. C. 4 per 1,000 feet. A X 23. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.destination airport. B.provisional airport. C.alternate airport. B X 24.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.FL118. B.FL128. C.FL138. A X 25.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 26..What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. C. There is an inversion with colder air below. A X 27.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 28.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs

C X 29.. The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities_______________. A. at their destinations B. at their alternate aerodromes C. A and B C X 30.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z, pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A.122.20MHz. B.8897KHz. C.3016KHz. C X 31..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time A X 32. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 33.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 34.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.Sluggish in aileron control. B.Sluggish in rudder control C.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 35. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 36.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 37. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X

38. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 39.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2 hours 12 minutes. B.2 hours 15 minutes. C.2 hours 18 minutes. A X 40.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 41.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 42.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 43..Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A.It moves with the weather system. B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 44.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 45.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 46.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X 47.Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting

B X 48.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X 49.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 50.Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 51.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 52.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 53.What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.Rapid, shallow breathing. B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. C.Dizziness. C X 54.Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 55.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X !56.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 57. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z.

C.1845Z. B X 58.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 59.Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 60.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. C X 61. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. C X 62.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.HIALS. B.HIALS with PAPI. C.PAPI. B X 63.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 64.A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.(To be continued result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 65..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 66.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 67..During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

A. cumulus B. dissipating C. mature B X 68.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 69.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 70.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? A.Increase in indicated airspeed. B.Decrease in indicated airspeed. C.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 71. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 72..If the aircraft enters the strong downdraft burst, where is the aircraft expected to meet the strongest downdraft? A. in the center of strong downdraft burst B. when it enters the strong downdraft burst C. when leaves the strong downdraft burst A X 73.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 74.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds? A.500 feet. B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 75.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(To be continuedhealth, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 76. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 77.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.

C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 78..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 79. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 80.. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities, which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. B.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. C.An area beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. A X 81. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B737-300), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? A.Upgrade training. B.Recurrent training. C.Initial training. A X 82.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 83.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU. B.VMD. C.VFC. A X 84.The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 85.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 86.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X

87..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 88.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 89.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 90.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 91..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 92.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 93.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.increased visual field B.An increase in breathing rate C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 94.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 95.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 96. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 97. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI.

A X 98.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 99.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. B.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. A X 100.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X --------------------------------------------------

1.Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A. (efficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 2.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 3.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Strong wind with shower B. Snow and rain C. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 4.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 5.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 6.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 7. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL

A X 8.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 9.When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 10.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa. B X 11.Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it? A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.A and B C X 12.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 13.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 14. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 15.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 16.. Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200or NW B. 315or NW C. 135or SE B X 17.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.

B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 18.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 19.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 20.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A.Approach Control Regulation. B.Visual Flight Regulation. C.Instrument Control Regulation. C X 21. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 22.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 23.. An ATC "instruction" A.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective. B.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action. C.is the same as an ATC clearance. B X 24.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 25.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 26.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn.

B X 27. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.destination airport. B.provisional airport. C.alternate airport. B X 28. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C X 29.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 30.An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow A.(To be continuedcan create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach. B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B X 31.What is load factor? A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 32.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 33.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 34.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 35.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.Increase the camber of the wing. B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. A X 36.During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right

B.wrong A X 37.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 38.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 39.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 40.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(To be continuedincidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 41.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 42.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .78 Mach? A.1 hours 08 minutes. B.1 hours 02 minutes. C.1 hours 05 minutes. A X 43..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 44.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 45.Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(To be continueddrastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 46.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____.

A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 47.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A.They are both the same 31,000feet. B.True altitude is lower than 31,000feet. C.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. B X 48.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52 B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52 C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52 C X 49.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 50.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 51.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 52.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 53.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(To be continuedhealth, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 54.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 55. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 56.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes.

B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 57.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 58. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 59. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 60. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 61. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 62.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 63.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 64.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 170 knots B X 65.. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. A X 66.. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X

67.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.1,625 pounds. B.1,950 pounds. C.2,460 pounds. C X 68. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 69.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 70.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 71.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 72.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 73.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 74.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. C X 75.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.1,244 feet. C.900 feet. B X 76.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than A.80hours B.90 hours

C.100hours B X 77.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 78.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 79.The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 80.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 81. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. The fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. A X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 83.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X 84.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X 85. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 86.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X

87.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 88.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 89.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 90.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 91.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C X 92.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 93..Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A.It moves with the weather system. B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 94.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 95.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. A X 96.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only A.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.In VFR conditions C.In day VFR conditions C X

97.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 98.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 99.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.Four B.Three C.Two B X 100.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X ---------------------------------------------

1.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 2.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 3.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 4. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 5.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X

6.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 7.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions A X 8.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X 9.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 10.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 11.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 12.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 13.Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(To be continuedefficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 14.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 15.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 16..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC?

A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 17..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 18.. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is. A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. A X 19.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X 20.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 21.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. C X 22. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 23.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 24.. An ATC "instruction" A.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective. B.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action. C.is the same as an ATC clearance. B X 25. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B.is not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 26.Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have

A.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B.White inscriptions on a black background C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 27. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated? A.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. B X 28.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 29. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 30.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 31.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Look only at far away, dim lights. B.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B X 32.In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as A.somatogravic illusion. B.ground lighting illusion. C.autokinesis. C X 33.While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.(To be continued can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 34.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 35.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X

36.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continuedof an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 37..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 38..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 39.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 40.. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi, which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. C. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. B X 41. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 42.An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow A.(To be continuedcan create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach. B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B X 43.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 44.Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC C.A and B C X

45.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 46.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.124 knots. B.137 knots. C.130 knots. C X 47.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 48.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. B X 49.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 50.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 51..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds? A.500 feet. B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 53.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 54.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 55.. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low.

B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. A X 56.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,000 feet. B.4,300 feet. C.4,500 feet. A X 57.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 58.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber. B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber. C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber. B X 59.During the flight, a good leader should not A.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. C.involve the team in most decision making processes. A X 60.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 61.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 62. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 63. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 64.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X

65.. On the weather chart of ground, the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. A.front B.low pressure center C.shear line A X 66.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 67.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 68.. What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall? A.Reduce fuel flow, reduce angle of attack, and increase airspeed. B.Advance throttle, lower angle of attack, and reduce airspeed. C.Reduce throttle, reduce airspeed, and increase angle of attack. A X 69.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X 70.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 71.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 72.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 73.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. B X 74..During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. cumulus

B. dissipating C. mature B X 75.. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. freezing rain B. clear air turbulence C. embedded thunderstorms C X 76. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.destination airport. B.provisional airport. C.alternate airport. B X 77.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 78.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 79.. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds, it will encounter___. A. head windshear B. turbulence C. vertical windshear C X 80.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved C X 81.person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 82.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 83.In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 84.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is

A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 85.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.12hours B.10hours C.8hours B X 86.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 87.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 88. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 89.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 90.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 91.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. C X 92.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 93.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 94.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only.

B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 95.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 96.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 97.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 98..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 100."The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X ----------------------------------------------

1.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 2.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 3.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X

4.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 5.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.122.1MHz B.122.0MHZ C.123.6MHz B X 6.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 7.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. B X 8.An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 9.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.Rate of turn B.Angle of bank C.True airspeed B X 10.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.A severe moment or "tuck under" C.-Severe porpoising B X 11. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 12.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X 13.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.

A X 14. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 15.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 16.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2,224 pounds. B.1,987 pounds. C.1,454 pounds. A X 17. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. A X 18.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 19. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 20..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 21. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 22.. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere, the wind of low pressure area is . A. clockwise inbound wind B.counter clockwise outbound wind

C.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 23. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 24.. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds. B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air. B X 25. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X 26.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? A.Increase in indicated airspeed. B.Decrease in indicated airspeed. C.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 27. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 28.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 29. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 30.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 31.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 32.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl?

A.2 hours 12 minutes. B.2 hours 15 minutes. C.2 hours 18 minutes. A X 33.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 34.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 35.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 36..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 37.Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 38. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A.certificate holder's operations specifications. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 39.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 40.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C X 41.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.3000m. B.3,600m. C.2,800m. B X 42. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?

A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 43. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 44.. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi, which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. C. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. B X 45.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.17 hours B.24 hours C.25 hours A X 46.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 47..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 48.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 49. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 50.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,000 feet. B.4,300 feet. C.4,500 feet. A X 51.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. C X

52. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 53. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 54.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 55.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 56.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 57.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X 58.. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol A.V2min . B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 59. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 60. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X

61.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 62.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack. B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 63.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 64.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 65.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 66. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 67.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip. C X 68.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 69.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 70.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 71.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office.

B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 72.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 73. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 74.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 75.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 76.. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. B. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. C. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. B X 77.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 78.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 79.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating.

C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 80. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report A. within 10 days after the deviation. B. after returning home. C. after the flight is completed. C X 81.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end B.Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end C.Alternate red and white lights from3,000 feet to the end of the runway B X 82.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 83.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 84.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 85.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 86.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 87.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 88.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 89.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation.

B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 90.The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational, lifesaving decision and carry it out following A.(To be continueda lack of oxygen at a given altitude. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 91.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 92.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B. Position is not affected C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 93.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 94.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 95.If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 96.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.1,244 feet. C.900 feet. B X 97. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 98.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 99.. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases?

A.Angle of attack. B.Altitude. C.Airspeed. B X 100.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X ----------------------------------------------

1.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B X B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas 2. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B X C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway 3.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 4.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X 5.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator.C.Outer compass locator C X 6.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 7.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds? A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 8.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. B X 9..During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. cumulus B. dissipating C. mature B X 10. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 11.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 12.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 13.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action

C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 14.. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere, the wind of low pressure area is . A. clockwise inbound wind B.counter clockwise outbound wind C.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 15.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 16.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.FL 10,100 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. B X 17..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 18. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 19.. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities, which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. B.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. A X C.An area beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. 20.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 21.. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y B.I. C.Z. C X 22.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 23.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twinengine airplane represent? A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. A X 24. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 25. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B737-300), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? A.Upgrade training. B.Recurrent training. C.Initial training. A X 26.. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range? A.10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. B.25,000 feet to the tropopause. C.The tropopause to 45,000 feet B X 27.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. A X B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.

28.Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation C X B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong 29.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 30.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B X B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. 31. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. key to the flight deck door. B. certificate holder's manual. C. flashlight in good working order. C X 32..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force C. sufficient water vapor and front area B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. B X 33.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 34.. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.VLE B.VMO/MMO. C.VLO/MLO. C X 35. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 36. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Cargo and passenger distribution information. B.Copy of the flight plan. C.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. B X 37.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 38.. It should be reported without ATC request that A X A. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 5%, whichever is greater. B. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 10%, whichever is greater. C. A change in cruising true airspeed of 5 knots or 10%, whichever is greater. 39.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 40. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. A X B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. 41.. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? B X A.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C.An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. 42.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.

B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 43.The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 44.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(To be continuedincidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation A X C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future 45.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 46. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 47.What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 48.In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 49.. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 50.In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources A X C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. 51. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 54.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 55.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 56.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 57.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X

58.. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A.VS. B.VS1. C.VSO. B X 59.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 60.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 61.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 62. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. B X C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. 63.In small airplanes, normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. B.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. C.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. C X 64.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 65.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A.9,500 pounds. B.10,400 pounds. C.11,300 pounds. B X 66.While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.(To be continued can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 67. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 68.As the CG is moved forward, the stability A.Improves B.Decrease C.dose not change A X 69.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach. C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach. A X 70.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 71.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X

72.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 73. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 74.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. C.when the flight arrives. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C X 75.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 76.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift C.Compensate for increase in drag B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component A X 77.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 78.Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it? A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.A and B C X 79. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A.11.7NM from PEK. B.11.7KM from PEK. C.11.7SM from PEK. A X 80. Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C X C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. 81.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 82.The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. A X 84..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. B X C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. 85.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X

86. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 88.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 89.. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol A.V2min . B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 90.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 91. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 95.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Notify ATC immediately. B. Squawk 7600. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 96.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours C X B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty 97.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o, what is the corresponding rate of descent? A.5.2%. B.4.8%. C.5.5%. A X 98.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2,224 pounds. B.1,987 pounds. C.1,454 pounds. A X 99.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B X B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. 100.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.122.1MHz B.122.0MHZ C.123.6MHz B X ---------------------------------------------

1. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 2.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds? A.500 feet.

B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 3.What is load factor? A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 4.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 5.Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 6.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 7.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 8.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 9.. In average, for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will . A. descend 2 B.descend 3 C. descend 4 A X 10.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 11. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 12.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres A X 13.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays

A.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B.-positive longitudinal static stability. C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 14.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than A.80hours B.90 hours C.100hours B X 15.Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green C X 16.As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 17.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 18..During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. cumulus B. dissipating C. mature B X 19.The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 20.. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region, which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. visibility and low clouds B. windshear at low altitude C. hail and rainstorm B X 21..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 22.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 23. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?

A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet C X 24. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 25.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 26.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 27.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 28.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X 29.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 30.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 31. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 32.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.Increase the camber of the wing. B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. A X

33. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 34.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. C X 35.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 36. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.2 B.3 C.4 B X 37.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .78 Mach? A.1 hours 08 minutes. B.1 hours 02 minutes. C.1 hours 05 minutes. A X 38.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 39.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 40.The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 41..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 42. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft.

C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 43.The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 44.. On the weather chart of ground, the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. A.front B.low pressure center C.shear line A X 45.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A. ZUUU B. ZHHH C. ZSSS C X 46.. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 47.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Strong wind with shower B. Snow and rain C. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 48..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 49.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 50.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 51. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X 52.When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, there is a tendency A.to fly a lower-than -normal approach. B.to fly a higher-than -normal approach. C.to fly a normal approach.

B X 53.Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(To be continueddrastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 54.Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 55.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 56.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 57. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 58.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 59.who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 60.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 61. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.

C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 62.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 63.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 64.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 65.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 66.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X 67.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 68.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 69.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.G. B.S. C.R. B X 70.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 71.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action

C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 72.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the VHF communication frequency? A.122.20MHz. B.3016MHz. C.8897MHz. A X 73. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 74.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 75.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Six B.Five C.Two B X 76. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 77.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 78. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere. A. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. A X 79.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU) A. 50 metres B. 500 metres C. 150 metres C X 80.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. A X 81.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X

82.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.RVR 1,000 feet C.RVR 700 feet. C X 83.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 84. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 85.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 86.Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. A.(To be continuedThis causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. A X 87.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 88.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds? A.136 knots. B.132 knots. C.139 knots. A X 89. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. A X 90.. Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind B.clear, high wind, good visibility C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility A X 91.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.

C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 92.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 93. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X 94.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 95.. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are . A.nimbostratus B.cumulonimbus C.altostratus. B X 96.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 97. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 98.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: A.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. B.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C.The landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds. A X 99. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C X

100.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. C X --------------------------------------------

1.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. A X 2.. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.An abrupt change in relative wind. B.A decrease in angle of attack. C.Sudden decrease in load factor. A X 3.. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 4.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 5. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit. B X 6.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. Temperature inversion. B. Wind stronger than 15 konts. C. Surface radiation. B X 7.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. A X 8..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise.

C. when exit the runway. B X 9.. Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. to check the performance of the aircraft; B. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety; C. to achieve or maintain the desired separation. C X 10.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 11.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 12.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 13.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 14.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 15.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 16. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 17.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 18..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds

C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 19.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 20.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 21.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 22.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 23. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 24. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X 25. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 26.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 250 knots B. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 27. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X

28.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X 29.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 30. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. key to the flight deck door. B. certificate holder's manual. C. flashlight in good working order. C X 31.The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 32..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 33. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 34.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 35. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 37.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 38.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds?

A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 39..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 40.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 41. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 42.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 43.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. 3 per 1,000 feet. B. 2 per 1,000 feet. C. 4 per 1,000 feet. A X 44.. In average, for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will . A. descend 2 B.descend 3 C. descend 4 A X 45.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 46.Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 47.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 48.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.

B X 49.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 50.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 51.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 52.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 53.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A.a third-class medical certificate. B.a second-class medical certificate. C.a first-class medical certificate. C X 54.The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 55.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 56.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 57..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 58.who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day.

C.avoid using contact lenses B X 59..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 60.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 61.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 62.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A.Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. B.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. C.One light projector with two colors; red and white. B X 63. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 64..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 65."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 66.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 67.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 68.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps?

A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. B X 69. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 70. Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 71.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 72.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 73.. Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. 3,000 meters. B. 3,600 meters. C. 6,000 meters. A X 74.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48 B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48 C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48 A X 75.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.RVR 1,000 feet C.RVR 700 feet. C X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 77. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.2 B.3

C.4 B X 78.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 79.In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 80.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 81.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 82.. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. freezing rain B. clear air turbulence C. embedded thunderstorms C X 83.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 84.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 85. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report A. within 10 days after the deviation. B. after returning home. C. after the flight is completed. C X 86.person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 87.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized

A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 88.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.308 feet. B.193 feet. C.200 feet. B X 89.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.1,420 pounds, 97 NAM. B.1,440 pounds, 102 NAM. C.1,390 pounds, 92 NAM. A X 90. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV? A.R-175 B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 91.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 92.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR. C.2.04 EPR. B X 93.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 94.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 95.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 96.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 97. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed.

B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 98.While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.(To be continued can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 99.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X 100.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X -------------------------------------------ATPL04 1.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 2.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet. B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X 3.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 4. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 5. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV? A.5.0NM B.7.5NM C.10.0NM A X

6.Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 7.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved C X 8.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 9.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4.6% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.690 feet/minute. B.644 feet/minute. C.600 feet/minute. B X 10.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU A X 11.. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi, which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. C. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. B X 12.Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A.VIS 1,600m. B.RVR 200m. C.RVR 250m. A X 14.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 15.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility.

C X 16.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 17.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 18.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 19.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 20.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. A X 21. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C X 22.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 23. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. C X 24.. Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind B.clear, high wind, good visibility C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility A X 25.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS

B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 26.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 27.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 28.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 29.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 30. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 31.(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727. A.(To be continued What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 32.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 33. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34.0 HUR to D16.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R, Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower, what frequency should be tuned? A.118.1KHz. B.118.5KHz. C.118.1MHz. C X 34.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.increased visual field B.An increase in breathing rate C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X

35. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.16,200 pounds. C.17,700 pounds. B X 37.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 38.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 39.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 40.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 41.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 42.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots. B X 43.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 44.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed.

B X 45. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. A X 46.. Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200or NW B. 315or NW C. 135or SE B X 47.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 48.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 49.Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 50.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 51.What affects indicated stall speed? A. Weight, load factor, and power B. Load factor , angle of attack ,and power C. Angle of attack, weight, and airspeed A X 52.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 53.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A.- increase the load factor. B.delay stall. C.increase airspeed. B X 54.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft

B X 55.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X 56.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 57.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 58.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 59.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A.YV. B.WF. C.DK. A X 60.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 61.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.143 knots. B.144 knots. C.145 knots. A X 62.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 63.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. A X 64.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above; B X 65.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds

B X 66.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 67. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "nil" C X 68.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 69. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. A X 70. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.2 NAV? A.1? B.-2? C.-4? C X 71. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 72.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 73.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn. C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. A X 74.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 75. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft. A X

76.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.12,097 feet. B.12,093 feet. C.13,123 feet. A X 77. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X 78.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 79.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 80.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 81.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 82. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 83.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 84.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 85.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from south to north B.from west to east C.from north to south C X 86.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?

A. 3 per 1,000 feet. B. 2 per 1,000 feet. C. 4 per 1,000 feet. A X 87.In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload B X 88..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 89.. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region, which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. visibility and low clouds B. windshear at low altitude C. hail and rainstorm B X 90.If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 91.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 92.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 93.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 94..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 95.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.

A. Low cloud and perhaps icing B. Strong wind with bad visibility C. Snow shower A X 96. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 97.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 98.. An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR. A X 99.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.Rate of turn B.Angle of bank C.True airspeed B X 100.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green. B X

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1..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 2.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 3.The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 4.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots?

A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 5.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 6.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 7.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 8.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 9.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X 10.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 11.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 12.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A.a third-class medical certificate. B.a second-class medical certificate. C.a first-class medical certificate. C X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48 B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48 C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48 A X 14.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.HIALS.

B.HIALS with PAPI. C.PAPI. B X 15.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.Four B.Three C.Two B X 16..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 17.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 18.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 19.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 20.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU A X 21. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 22.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4.6% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.690 feet/minute. B.644 feet/minute. C.600 feet/minute. B X 23. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A.2005Z. B.1905Z. C.0005Z. C X 24. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 25. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 26. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 27.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 28.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 29.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 30.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 31.Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A.Eustachian tube B.the cochlea C.the semicircular canals C X 32.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 33.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X

34.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 35.As the CG is moved forward, the stability A.Improves B.Decrease C.dose not change A X 36.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 37. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 38.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 39.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 40.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 41.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. C X 42.Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 43.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 44.. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.An abrupt change in relative wind. B.A decrease in angle of attack.

C.Sudden decrease in load factor. A X 45.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. A X 46.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 47.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 48.. Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind B.clear, high wind, good visibility C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility A X 49.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 50.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.300 feet. C.750 feet. B X 51.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 52.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 53.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 54.During the flight, a good leader should not A.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance.

C.involve the team in most decision making processes. A X 55. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 56.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 57.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 58.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 59.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 60.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 61.Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 62..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 63.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green. B X 64. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Director of operations or flight follower. C.Pilot in command. C X

65.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 66.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 67. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 68.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 69..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 70.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low-level wind share B. Microburst C. Turbulence A X 71.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. B.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. A X 72. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X 73.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 74. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 75.Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. high personal attention and high task orientation

B.medium personal attention and high task orientation C.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X 76. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 77. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 78. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.500 feet B.1,000feet C.1,500 feet B X 79.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 80. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan. C X 81. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 82.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 83. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.2 NAV? A.1? B.-2? C.-4? C X 84.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.

A X 85.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124,000 pounds. B.129,500 pounds. C.134,500 pounds. A X 86..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 87. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 88.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 89..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 90..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 91.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 92.The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational, lifesaving decision and carry it out following A.(To be continueda lack of oxygen at a given altitude. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 93.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 94.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X

95.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 96. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 97.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 98.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 99. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A.100 feet AGL. B.150 feet AGL. C.200 feet AGL. B X 100.In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X --------------------------------------------

1.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 2..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 3.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. C X 4.. If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended? A.Maintain a constant altitude. B.Maintain a constant attitude. C.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.

B X 5. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 6.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 7.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.(to be continued Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 8. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Cargo and passenger distribution information. B.Copy of the flight plan. C.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. B X 9.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 10.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 11.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.308 feet. B.193 feet. C.200 feet. B X 12.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 13..What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. C. There is an inversion with colder air below. A X 14.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?

A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 15.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 16.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 17.. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight? A.Higher than at low elevation. B.Lower than at low elevation. C.The same as at low elevation. A X 18.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 19.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 20.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 21.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 22.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 23. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 24.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas

B X 25.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 26. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 27.During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 28.. What is the purpose of the danger airspace? A.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger. B.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry. C.To protect military activities. A X 29.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 30.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 31. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.1,800 feet. A X 32.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 33.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 35.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours.

C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. C X 36.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 37.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 38.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 39.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 40.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 41.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 42.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 43.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above; B X 44.. An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR. A X 45.. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is. A. warm front. B. stationary front.

C. cold front. A X 46.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 47.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 48.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A.loss of the vertical component of lift B.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 49.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 50.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 51.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 52. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV? A.R-175 B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 53.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU) A. 50 metres B. 500 metres C. 150 metres C X 54.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2,224 pounds. B.1,987 pounds. C.1,454 pounds. A X 55. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X

56.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 57.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 58.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 59.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X 60.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 61. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 62..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 63.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 64.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.Increase the camber of the wing. B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. A X 65.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.To require a pilot to take a specific action. B.To state some important information. C.To warn the pilot. A X

66.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 67.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 68.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 69.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 70.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(To be continuedhealth, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 71. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 72.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X 73. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 74.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X

75.. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds. B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air. B X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 77.. Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200or NW B. 315or NW C. 135or SE B X 78.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X 79.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots. B X 80.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 81.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack. B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 82.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(To be continuedincidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 83.Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(To be continuedefficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 84. Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X

85.The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 86. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 87. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 88.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 89.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 90..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 91..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground C X 92. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A. 250 knots B. 230 knots C. 210 knots B X 93. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan. C X 94.In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. A X 95.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb

A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 96.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 97.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 98. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 99.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 100.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X ---------------------------------------------

1. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A.11.7NM from PEK. B.11.7KM from PEK. C.11.7SM from PEK. A X 2.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 3.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 4.The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.(To be continuedcircumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X

5.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 6.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.400 feet. C.850 feet. C X 7..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 8.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 9.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. C X 10.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 11. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X 12.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots. B X 13.. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities, which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. B.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. C.An area beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. A X 14.In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as A.somatogravic illusion. B.ground lighting illusion. C.autokinesis.

C X 15.The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 16.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 17.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 18. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 19. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.6 B.7 C.12 C X 20..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 21.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 22.Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 23.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 24. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.127.6MHz. B.127.6KHz. C.114.7MHz. A X 25.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about

A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 26.. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 1.7hPa. C. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 17hPa. B X 27.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.121.7MHz. B.121.9MHz. C.121.7KHz. B X 28.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 29.Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 30.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller. B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. A X 31.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.VYSE. C.VXSE. B X 32.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 33.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 34.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is at A.D25 to PEK VOR/DME. B.DAWANGZHUANG. C.The point cleared by ATC. B X 35.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.

B X 36.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 37.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 38.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 39. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 40.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. A X 41.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 42.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.760 feet/minute. B.851 feet/minute. C.699 feet/minute. A X 43.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Look only at far away, dim lights. B.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B X 44.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 45.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. B X

46. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A. 250 knots B. 230 knots C. 210 knots B X 47.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.122.1MHz B.122.0MHZ C.123.6MHz B X 48.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 49.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct A. Smoke with overcast B. Strong wind with sand storm C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 50..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 51.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 52.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B.-positive longitudinal static stability. C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 53.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 54.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 55.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X

56.If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 57.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 58.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the AIRMET information, the expected changes in intensity of the icing is. A. Intensify B. Weaken C. No change B X 59.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 60.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 61.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 62.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 63.The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. A X 64.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 65.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X

66.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 67..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 68.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 69.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 70.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog C X 71.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 72.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 73.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 74. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. C X 75.In small airplanes, normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. B.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. C.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. C X 76.If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute.

C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 77.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 78.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to? A.FL158. B.FL148. C.FL168. B X 79.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 80.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than A.80hours B.90 hours C.100hours B X 81. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 82.. An ATC "instruction" A.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective. B.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action. C.is the same as an ATC clearance. B X 83..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 84. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 85.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn.

C. summer and autumn. B X 86. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 87. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 88.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D is A.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 89.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 90.. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds. B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air. B X 91.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 92.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X 93.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 94.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 95.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS.

C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 96.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 97. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is A.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. B.not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 98.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 99.. In average, for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will . A. descend 2 B.descend 3 C. descend 4 A X 100.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X ---------------------------------------------

1.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 2.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only A.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.In VFR conditions C.In day VFR conditions C X 3. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 4.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions.

C X 5.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 6.. Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind B.clear, high wind, good visibility C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility A X 7.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 8.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 9.Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. high personal attention and high task orientation B.medium personal attention and high task orientation C.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X 10.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 11.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight? A.650 feet. B.1,300 feet. C.1,050 feet. C X 12.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 13.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 14.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X

15. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 16. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 17. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 18.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 19.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip. C X 20.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 21.who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 22.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 23.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 24.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. A X

25. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 26.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124,000 pounds. B.129,500 pounds. C.134,500 pounds. A X 27..In daily aeronautical weather reports, the code "VCTS" means ____. A. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. C. There are thunderstorms over the airport. A X 28.Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(To be continueddrastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 29.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 30.. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are . A.nimbostratus B.cumulonimbus C.altostratus. B X 31.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 32.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 33.Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 34.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 35..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front

C.behind a stationary front B X 36.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C.decrease due to higher density altitude. C X 37. Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 38. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 39..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 40.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 5%, whichever is greater. B. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 10%, whichever is greater. C. A change in cruising true airspeed of 5 knots or 10%, whichever is greater. A X 41.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 42.After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.30 minutes B.1 hours C.5 minutes. A X 43.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 44.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 45.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent.

B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 46.Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 47.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X 48.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 49. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. C X 50.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A.loss of the vertical component of lift B.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 51. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 52..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 53.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP. B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP. B X 54.. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? A.Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. B.Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. C.Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. C X 55.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.several headache B.reduced visual field C.a feeling of euphoria

A X 56.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 57..What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. C. There is an inversion with colder air below. A X 58.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.2.06 EPR. B.2.07 EPR. C.2.09 EPR. A X 59.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. B X 60.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 61. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 62. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B.At least one full stop landing must be made. C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. B X 63.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 64.The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 65. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment.

B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 66.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 67.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C X 68. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 69.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 250 knots B. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 70. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. C X 71.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. B X 72.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 73.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 74.What affects indicated stall speed? A. Weight, load factor, and power B. Load factor , angle of attack ,and power C. Angle of attack, weight, and airspeed A X

75. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 76.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 77.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 78.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 79. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B.is not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 80.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 81..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 83.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X 84.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet.

B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 85.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 86.. A plane, MH 60, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 87.Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. A X 88.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 89.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.12,097 feet. B.12,093 feet. C.13,123 feet. A X 90.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F1020. B.S1020. C.L1020. B X 91.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.1,420 pounds, 97 NAM. B.1,440 pounds, 102 NAM. C.1,390 pounds, 92 NAM. A X 92. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 93.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 94..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail

C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 95.Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 96.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. A X 97. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number. C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. B X 98.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 99.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 100.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X

1 1.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 2.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 3..Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A.It moves with the weather system. B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 4.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?

A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 5.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Compressor discharge. B.Fuel spray nozzles. C.Turbine inlet. C X 6.. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.VLE. B.VMO/MMO. C.VLO/MLO. C X 7.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 8.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport, A.(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 9.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green. B X 10. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737. C X 11.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X 12. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 13.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 14.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements,

A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 15.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 16.The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 17..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 18.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 19.During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 20.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 21.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o, what is the corresponding rate of descent? A.5.2%. B.4.8%. C.5.5%. A X 22.Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 23.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours C X 24.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.

B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 25. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 26.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.143 knots. B.144 knots. C.145 knots. A X 27.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. B X 28. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number. C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. B X 29.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 31. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 32..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 33.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin

C X 34.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 35.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 36.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B. Position is not affected C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 37.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU) A. 50 metres B. 500 metres C. 150 metres C X 38. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above A. FL200 B. FL240 C. FL250 C X 39.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 40.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 41..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 42.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the VHF communication frequency? A.122.20MHz. B.3016MHz. C.8897MHz. A X

43.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 44.A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 45.A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right A.(To be continuedengine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.expectancy producing a mental block C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 46.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 47.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 48.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 49. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 50.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 51.. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet, the wind speed is 120 km/h B. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 120 knots C. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 52.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.

C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 53.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 54.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 55.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 56.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 57.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 58.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: A.Must be adhered to. B.Does not preclude rejected landing. C.Precludes a rejected landing. B X 59.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 60. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 61.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 62.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. C X

63.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 64.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar year, for no more than A.800hours B.900 hours C.1000hours C X 65.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 66..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 67.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 68. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 69. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 70.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which CCAR 121 operations are conducted. B. all flight time, except military, in any flight crewmember position. C. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 71.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 72.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4,600-foot icy runway? A.128,000 pounds. B.124,000 pounds. C.120,000 pounds. C X 73.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB.

B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 74.The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 75.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 76. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 77. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X 78.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 79.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 80. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV? A.5.0NM B.7.5NM C.10.0NM A X 81..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 82.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 83.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5,200-foot icy runway? A.124,000 pounds. B.137,000 pounds. C.108,000 pounds. B X

84.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 85.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 86.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 87.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.(to be continued Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 88.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority? A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 89. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 90.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 91.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 92. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C X 93. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit.

B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 94.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. B X 95.Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 96.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 97.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 98. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 99..What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. B. time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. C. time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length. A X 100.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. C X

2 1.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 2..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear?

A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 3.If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 4."Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 5.. Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. to check the performance of the aircraft; B. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety; C. to achieve or maintain the desired separation. C X 6.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog C X 7..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 8. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 9.Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 10. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 11.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 12. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?

A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 13.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 14.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.122.1MHz B.122.0MHZ C.123.6MHz B X 15.In small airplanes, normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. B.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. C.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. C X 16.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 17.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 18.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 19.The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X 20.. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet, the wind speed is 120 km/h B. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 120 knots C. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 21.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.requiring a pilot to read back. B.keeping flight status. C.requiring a pilot to take specific action. C X 22.When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, there is a tendency A.to fly a lower-than -normal approach. B.to fly a higher-than -normal approach. C.to fly a normal approach.

B X 23.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. B X 24. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 25.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 26. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 27.An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 28.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 29.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres A X 30..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 31.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 32.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet. B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 33.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller.

B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. A X 34. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 35.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 36.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 37.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 38.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. C X 39.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 40.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Compressor discharge. B.Fuel spray nozzles. C.Turbine inlet. C X 41.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Notify ATC immediately. B. Squawk 7600. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 42.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X 43.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71,000,DISTANCE (NM): 200,WIND COMPONENT: 30TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.34 minutes.

B.55 minutes. C.57 minutes. C X 44.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 45.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 46.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C X 47. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 48. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.500 feet B.1,000feet C.1,500 feet B X 49.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 50. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 51. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X 52..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 53.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Request a clarification from the ATC. C.Read the clearance back entirely. B X

54.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. A.the change of sun radiation B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.the movement of the weather system B X 55.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B X 56.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 57.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 58.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 59.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 60.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 61.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 62.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 63.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X

64.. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. B.Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher. C.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air. A X 65.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip. C X 66.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 67.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. Expansion of air as rises. B. Movement of air over a colder surface. C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. A X 68.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continuedof an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 69.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.121.7MHz. B.121.9MHz. C.121.7KHz. B X 70.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 71.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 72.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes, 118 NAM. B.26 minutes, 125 NAM. C.25 minutes, 118 NAM. B X 73.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 74.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only

B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 75.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 77. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "nil" C X 78.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 79.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 80.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.308 feet. B.193 feet. C.200 feet. B X 81.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(To be continuedhealth, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 82.What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 83.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is A.Plus or minus 6 B.Plus 6 or minus 4 C.Plus or minus4? A X

84..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 85.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A.a third-class medical certificate. B.a second-class medical certificate. C.a first-class medical certificate. C X 86. Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 87.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. 3 per 1,000 feet. B. 2 per 1,000 feet. C. 4 per 1,000 feet. A X 88. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. A X 89.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 90.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.2.06 EPR. B.2.07 EPR. C.2.09 EPR. A X 91.What is load factor? A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 92. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. C X 93.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course.

C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 94.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 95.If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 96.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 97.. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 98.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 99.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct A. Smoke with overcast B. Strong wind with sand storm C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 100..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X

3 1.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres A X 2.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is

A.right B.wrong A X 3.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 4.What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.Rapid, shallow breathing. B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. C.Dizziness. C X 5.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 6.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 7.. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed? A. Katabatic. B. Advection. C. Adiabatic. C X 8.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes, 118 NAM. B.26 minutes, 125 NAM. C.25 minutes, 118 NAM. B X 9.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 10.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Strong wind with shower B. Snow and rain C. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 11.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 12.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight.

B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 13.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog C X 14.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip. C X 15.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. C X 16.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X 17.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 18.The perception of color is a function of the A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. A X 19.Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 20.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X 21.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C X 22..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain.

C. Ice pellets. B X 23. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 24.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.5 hours 3 minutes. B.5 hours 20 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. A X 25.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 26.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 5,400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.117,500 pounds. B.136,500 pounds. C.140,500 pounds. B X 27.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 28.. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight? A.Higher than at low elevation. B.Lower than at low elevation. C.The same as at low elevation. A X 29.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 140,000 pounds? A.127 knots. B.149 knots. C.156 knots. C X 31.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 32..What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. B. time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. C. time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length. A X

33.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48 B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48 C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48 A X 34.The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 35. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C X 36.. In en route flight, the altimeter setting is A. QNE B. QNH C. QFE A X 37.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 38.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 39.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved C X 40.. (According to figure 6) The position of the upper jet is A. From A to B then to C B. From A to C then to D C. From A to B then to D B X 41.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 42.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 43.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front.

C. cold front. C X 44.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. A X 45.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 46.If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 47.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 48.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 49.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 50.. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi, which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. C. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. B X 51.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds? A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 53.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X

54. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 55..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 56.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.increased visual field B.An increase in breathing rate C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 57.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 58.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact B.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 59.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 60.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 61.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 62. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X

63.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X 64.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 65.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 66.Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 67.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52 B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52 C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52 C X 68..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 69.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight? A.650 feet. B.1,300 feet. C.1,050 feet. C X 70.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 71.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(To be continuedhealth, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 72.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine.

C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 73.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 74. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 75.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 76.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 77.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 78.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 79.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 80.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 81.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar year, for no more than A.800hours B.900 hours C.1000hours C X

82. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft. A X 83..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 84.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 85.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 86. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 87.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 88.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 89.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.several headache B.reduced visual field C.a feeling of euphoria A X 90.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. B X 91.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 92. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.

A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 93.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 94..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 95.What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. C X 96.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 97.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 98.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning. A X 99.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 100.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining B X

4 1. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 2. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 3.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.122.1MHz B.122.0MHZ C.123.6MHz B X 4.. An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR. A X 5.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 6."Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 7.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog C X 8.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. A X 9.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 10.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone

C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 11.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 12..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 13.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber. B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber. C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber. B X 14.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 15. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 16. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 17.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 18. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X 19.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 20. Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.

C X 21.What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. C X 22.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 23. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X 24.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers A.Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining B.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3.000 feet from the end C.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end A X 25.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres A X 26.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 27.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 28.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 29.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 30.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.

C X 31.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa. B X 32.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X 33.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 34.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 35.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C.decrease due to higher density altitude. C X 36. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 37.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 38.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A.loss of the vertical component of lift B.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 39."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 40.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet.

B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 41.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Six B.Five C.Two B X 42. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B.At least one full stop landing must be made. C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. B X 43.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 44.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.G. B.S. C.R. B X 45.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 46.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 47. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 48.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 49.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.HIALS. B.HIALS with PAPI. C.PAPI. B X 50. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command.

B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 51.In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 52.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 53.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 54.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X 55. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 56.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. B X 57.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 58.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. A X 59.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X

60..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 61.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 62.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 63.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 64. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C X 65.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 66.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? A.Increase in indicated airspeed. B.Decrease in indicated airspeed. C.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 67.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 68.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 69.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL.

C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 70..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 71.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 72..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 73.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X 74.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 75.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. C X 76.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 77.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end B.Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end C.Alternate red and white lights from3,000 feet to the end of the runway B X 78.. If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency, who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport? A. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft. B. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft. C. no one have the responsibility during emergency situation. B X 79.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?

A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 80.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 81.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG, the heading indicator should indicate A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. B X 82.. In average, for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will . A. descend 2 B.descend 3 C. descend 4 A X 83.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 84.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,150 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 85.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 86.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. C X 87.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 88.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X

89. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 90. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 91.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute B X 92.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 93..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 94.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 95..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 96.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 97.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X

98.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.10 hours B.14 hours C.16 hours A X 99.Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. A X 100.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X

5 1.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 2. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit. B X 3.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 4. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 5.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 6. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.6

B.7 C.12 C X 7.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.12,097 feet. B.12,093 feet. C.13,123 feet. A X 8. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 9.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 10.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 11.. If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended? A.Maintain a constant altitude. B.Maintain a constant attitude. C.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude. B X 12. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "nil" C X 13. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X 14. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 15. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 16.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS.

C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 17. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 18.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 19. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Director of operations or flight follower. C.Pilot in command. C X 20.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 21.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 22. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 23.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 24.. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 25. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.127.6MHz. B.127.6KHz. C.114.7MHz. A X 26.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to

A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 27.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. Temperature inversion. B. Wind stronger than 15 konts. C. Surface radiation. B X 28. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 29.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 30.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 31.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 32.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 33. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 34. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. A X 35.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet.

C.12 feet. A X 36.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 37.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 38.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 39.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight? A.650 feet. B.1,300 feet. C.1,050 feet. C X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 41.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 42. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 43.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 44. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 45.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?

A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 46.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 47.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Notify ATC immediately. B. Squawk 7600. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 48.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.300 feet. C.750 feet. B X 49. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 50.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 51.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above; B X 52.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU. B.VMD. C.VFC. A X 53.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots B X 54.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind.

C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 55.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 56.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Strong wind with shower B. Snow and rain C. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 57.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 58.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 59.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.308 feet. B.193 feet. C.200 feet. B X 60.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X 61.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 62.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 63..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 64.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz.

B X 65.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft with 2 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 35 at PUDONG with only RL operating? A.RVR 250m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 200m. B X 66.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 67.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 68.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 69.The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 70.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 71.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X 72.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. A X 73.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 74. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV? A.R-175

B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 75.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 76.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.12hours B.10hours C.8hours B X 77.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 78.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 79.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 80.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 81.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 82.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase. B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease. C.Rate and radius will increase. A X 83. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X

84. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 85.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.16,200 pounds. C.17,700 pounds. B X 86.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 87.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 88. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. C X 89.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 90.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 91. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 92.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight.

B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 93.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 94. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 95.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 96.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds? A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 97.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. C X 98.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 99. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 100.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F1020. B.S1020. C.L1020. B X

1. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 2.. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds, it will encounter___. A. head windshear B. turbulence C. vertical windshear C X 3.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B. Position is not affected C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 4.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. A X 5..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 6.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 7..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 8.Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(To be continuedefficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 9.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,150 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 10.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X

11.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 12..What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. B. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. C. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. C X 13.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X 14.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 15.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 16.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 17.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 18.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.FL 10,100 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. B X 19.. Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind B.clear, high wind, good visibility C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility A X 20. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the

A.certificate holder's operations specifications. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 21.Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC C.A and B C X 22.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F1020. B.S1020. C.L1020. B X 23.What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.Rapid, shallow breathing. B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. C.Dizziness. C X 24.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 25.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C X 26. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 27.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. B X 28.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 29.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 30.. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi, which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.

B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. C. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. B X 31.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 32.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 33.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 34.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 35.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 36. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A.1360 feet. B.3940 feet. C.3842 feet. C X 37.As the CG is moved forward, the stability A.Improves B.Decrease C.dose not change A X 38. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C X 39.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 40. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign

C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 41.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A.Immediately after ground contact. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 42.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 43.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 44. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C X 45.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 46.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 47.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 48.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 49.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 50.TCAS I provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X

51.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 52. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid? A.60 days. B.90 days. C.120 days. C X 53. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 54.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 55. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 56.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds? A.500 feet. B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 57..Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A.It moves with the weather system. B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 58.. The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities_______________. A. at their destinations B. at their alternate aerodromes C. A and B C X 59. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 60.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 61.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed.

B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X 62.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. C X 63.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 64.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 65.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is A.blue. B.white. C.green. B X 66.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 67.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.16,200 pounds. C.17,700 pounds. B X 68.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 69.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 70.Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 71.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet.

B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 72.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 73.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 74.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds? A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 75.The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 76.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight? A.650 feet. B.1,300 feet. C.1,050 feet. C X 77. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 78.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 79.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 80.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 81.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur?

A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 82.. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocatingengine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. B.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. C.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B X 83.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 84.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 85.. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere, the wind of low pressure area is . A. clockwise inbound wind B.counter clockwise outbound wind C.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 86.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 87.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. B X 88. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 89.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 90. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months.

C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 91.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 92.Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 93.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 94.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 95.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 96.The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.(To be continuedcircumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 97.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 98.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52 B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52 C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52 C X 99.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.2.115 EPR. B.2.10 EPR. C.2.06 EPR. C X

100.The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X

7 1.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 2.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 3.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 4.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 5.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Request a clarification from the ATC. C.Read the clearance back entirely. B X 6.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 7.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 8. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 9.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet.

C.755 feet. A X 10.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 11.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 12..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time A X 13. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 14.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X 15.Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 16.. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight? A.Higher than at low elevation. B.Lower than at low elevation. C.The same as at low elevation. A X 17. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.3,000 feet C.3,500 feet. B X 18. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 19. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C X

20. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 21.After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.30 minutes B.1 hours C.5 minutes. A X 22.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 23.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.2.06 EPR. B.2.07 EPR. C.2.09 EPR. A X 24.The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 25.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.122.1MHz B.122.0MHZ C.123.6MHz B X 26.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 27.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 28. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X 29. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties.

C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 30.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 31.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 32..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 33.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C X 34. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 35.What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 36. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 37.(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727. A.(To be continued What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 38.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 39.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X

40.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 41.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X 42.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.VYSE. C.VXSE. B X 43.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach. C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach. A X 44. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 45. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 46.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.10 hours B.14 hours C.16 hours A X 47.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 48.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller. B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. A X 49.The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X

50.A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right A.(To be continuedengine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.expectancy producing a mental block C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 51.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 52.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 250 knots B. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 53.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 54.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. C X 55.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 56.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.increased visual field B.An increase in breathing rate C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 57.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber. B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber. C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber. B X 58..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground C X 59..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area B X

60.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 61.If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 62..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 63.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F1020. B.S1020. C.L1020. B X 64.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 65.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 66. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 67. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.2,000 feet A X 68.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 69. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?

A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 70.. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds. B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air. B X 71..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 72.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 73. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV? A.R-175 B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 74.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 75.If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 76.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 77.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 78. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI.

B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 79.How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators. C.not considered to be part of a rest period. C X 80.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 81.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. C X 82.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing? A. ZSSS B. ZUUU C. ZHHH B X 83.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 84.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X 85.. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. A X 86.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 87.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 88.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m.

C.RVR 250m. C X 89.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 90.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A.Approach Control Regulation. B.Visual Flight Regulation. C.Instrument Control Regulation. C X 91.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases. A X 92.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Six B.Five C.Two B X 93.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 94.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.1,625 pounds. B.1,950 pounds. C.2,460 pounds. C X 95.What are the indications of the pulsating VASI? A.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-green, low-pulsing red. B.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-steady white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low-pulsing red. C.High-pulsing white, on course and on glidepath-steady white, off course but on glidepath-pulsing white and red; low-pulsing red. B X 96. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. C X 97. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months.

C. 24 calendar months. B X 98.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only A.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.In VFR conditions C.In day VFR conditions C X 99..What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. C. There is an inversion with colder air below. A X 100. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X

8 1. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above A. FL200 B. FL240 C. FL250 C X 2.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 3.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. B X 4.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.FL 10,100 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. B X 5. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A.certificate holder's operations specifications. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 6.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes.

B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 7.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 8.The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 9.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.Increase speed for a headwind. B.Increase speed for a tailwind. C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind. A X 10.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 11.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 12.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X 13.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 14.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 15.Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X

16.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low cloud and perhaps icing B. Strong wind with bad visibility C. Snow shower A X 17. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. B.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. C.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop. B X 18. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X 19.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.2.115 EPR. B.2.10 EPR. C.2.06 EPR. C X 20.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 21.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 22.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots B X 23.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 24.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C.decrease due to higher density altitude. C X 25. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release?

A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number. C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. B X 26.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 27.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn. C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. A X 28.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 29.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 31.TCAS I provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 32.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 33.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4,600-foot icy runway? A.128,000 pounds. B.124,000 pounds. C.120,000 pounds. C X 35.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours

B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 36.The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 37.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.increased visual field B.An increase in breathing rate C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 38.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 39.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124,000 pounds. B.129,500 pounds. C.134,500 pounds. A X 40..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 41.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 42.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 43. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 44.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 45.. If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended? A.Maintain a constant altitude.

B.Maintain a constant attitude. C.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude. B X 46.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 47.Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 48.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 49.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. C X 50. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 51.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 52.The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 53..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 54.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 55.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Request a clarification from the ATC. C.Read the clearance back entirely. B X 56.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and

A.reached the cruising IAS. B.entered VFR weather conditions. C.received an ATC clearance. C X 57.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 58.Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 59..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 60.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 61.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 62.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X 63.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved C X 64..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 65.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 66.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than

A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 67.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 68.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 69.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 70.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 71.. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocatingengine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. B.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. C.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B X 72..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 73.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. C X 74.. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A. summer in northern areas. B. spring in northern areas. C. spring in southern areas. B X 75.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. C X

76.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 77.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.3000m. B.3,600m. C.2,800m. B X 78.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 80.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 81.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X 82.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o, what is the corresponding rate of descent? A.5.2%. B.4.8%. C.5.5%. A X 83.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A.Climb straight ahead to L NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. B.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet. C.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. C X 84. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 85.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X

86.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 87.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 88.. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. A X 89.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 90.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 91. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 92.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 93.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X 94.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 95.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR.

C.2.04 EPR. B X 96.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 97.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 98.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 99.In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 100.. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. B.Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher. C.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air. A X

9 1.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 2.. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as. A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility B.stratus, light rain, poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence. B X 3..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 4. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.

B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. A X 5.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 6.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 7. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X 8.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases. A X 9.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 10.The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 11.Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.headache and fatigue B.a feeling of euphoria C.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 12.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 13.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet.

B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 14. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan. C X 15.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 16. Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 17.An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow A.(To be continuedcan create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach. B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B X 18.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 19.who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 20.The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.(To be continuedcircumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 21. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 22.. Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200or NW B. 315or NW C. 135or SE

B X 23.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 24.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Request a clarification from the ATC. C.Read the clearance back entirely. B X 25.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 26.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 27.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is A.blue. B.white. C.green. B X 28.Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 29.Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 30.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. C X 31.The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. A X 32.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight? A.650 feet. B.1,300 feet.

C.1,050 feet. C X 33.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 34..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 35.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 36.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 37.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 38.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B.-positive longitudinal static stability. C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 39.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 40.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 41.. On the weather chart of ground, the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. A.front B.low pressure center C.shear line A X 42.What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 43.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?

A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 44.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 45.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 46. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C X 47.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X 48. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 49.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 50.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 51.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU A X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet.

B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 53.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 54.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 55. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 56..Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur? A.-.50 to .75 mach B.-.75 to .1.20 mach C.-1.20 to 2.50 mach B X 57.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 58.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 59. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet C X 60.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 61.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 62.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.

B X 63.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 64.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.19hours B.20 hours C.21hours B X 65.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 66.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 67.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 68.. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are . A.nimbostratus B.cumulonimbus C.altostratus. B X 69.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 70..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 71.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 72..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground

C X 73.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 74.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B X 75.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 76.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 77.. Which altitude is appropriate to the top of Class B airspace? A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. B X 78.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 80.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 81.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds? A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 82. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.

B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 83.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A.Climb straight ahead to L NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. B.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet. C.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. C X 84.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 85. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B.is not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 86.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack. B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 87..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 88.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. A X 89..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 90. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 91.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 92.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4,600-foot icy runway?

A.128,000 pounds. B.124,000 pounds. C.120,000 pounds. C X 93. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit. B X 94.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 95.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 96.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.143 knots. B.144 knots. C.145 knots. A X 97.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A. ZUUU B. ZHHH C. ZSSS C X 98. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 99. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 100.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing? A. ZSSS B. ZUUU C. ZHHH B X

10 1.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet.

B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 2.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 3.During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 4.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours C X 5.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 6.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 7.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 8.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 9.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 10.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X

11. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 12.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.12,097 feet. B.12,093 feet. C.13,123 feet. A X 14.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet. B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X 15.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 16.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 17.Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green C X 18..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 19. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 20.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m.

C.3,100m. A X 21.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 22.Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 23.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 24.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 25.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds? A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 26.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 27.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continuedof an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 28..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 29.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X 30.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X

31.For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. B.varies with the rate of turn. C.is constant C X 32.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C X 33.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 34.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 35. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 36.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 37.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 38.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 39.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 40.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 41.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?

A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X 42.A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.(To be continued result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 43.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 44.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.FL 10,100 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. B X 45.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 46.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 47.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 48.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.requiring a pilot to read back. B.keeping flight status. C.requiring a pilot to take specific action. C X 49.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 50. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 51.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to

A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 52.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 53.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 54.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 55.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 56.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. A X 57. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft. A X 58.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X 59..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 60.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 61."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew.

C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 62.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 63.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 64. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 65.Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A.Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. B.Increased vision keenness. C.Decreased breathing rate. A X 66.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 67.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 68..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 69.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 70.. Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. 3,000 meters. B. 3,600 meters. C. 6,000 meters. A X 71.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?

A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 72.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 73.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature C.air pressure B X 74.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 75.The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 76.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 77.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X 78.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct A. Smoke with overcast B. Strong wind with sand storm C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 79. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 80. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 81.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd

A. Severe turbulence, moderate icing, rain shower, thunderstorms B. Moderate turbulence, severe icing, freezing precipitation, severe clear air turbulence C. Moderate turbulence, moderate icing, rain, severe clear air turbulence C X 82.An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 83.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 84.If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 85.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 86.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 87.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 88.. A plane, MH 60, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 89..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 90.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger

C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 91.If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 92.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 93.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP. B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP. B X 94.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 95.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 96.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber. B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber. C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber. B X 97.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 98.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 99.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 100.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Strong wind with shower B. Snow and rain C. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X

ATPL05

1.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 2.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4,600-foot icy runway? A.128,000 pounds. B.124,000 pounds. C.120,000 pounds. C X 3.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres A X 4.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar year, for no more than A.800hours B.900 hours C.1000hours C X 5.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 6.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 7.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 8. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. C X 9.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X

10.The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X 11.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 12.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 13.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X 14.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D is A.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 15.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase. B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease. C.Rate and radius will increase. A X 16.The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational, lifesaving decision and carry it out following A.(To be continueda lack of oxygen at a given altitude. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 17.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 18. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds.

C.11,754 pounds. A X 20.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 21. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 22.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.24,600 feet. B.23,400 feet. C.20,000 feet. A X 23.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.40 kilometers. B.50 kilometers. C.46 kilometers. B X 24. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 25.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 26. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 27.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 28.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. A X 29.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus

B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 30.person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 31.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 32. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 33.A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 35.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 36.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 37.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 38.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 39..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET

A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 40.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. C X 41.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 42.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 43..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time A X 44.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X 45.When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, there is a tendency A.to fly a lower-than -normal approach. B.to fly a higher-than -normal approach. C.to fly a normal approach. B X 46. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 47. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 48.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 49.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's

A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 50.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. A X 51.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 52.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 53. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 54.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 55.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 56.During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 57.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A.VIS 1,600m. B.RVR 200m. C.RVR 250m. A X 58.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 59.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is

A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X 60.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X 61.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. C X 62.. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? A. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft. B. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. C. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices. B X 63.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 64. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 65.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48 B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48 C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48 A X 66. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 67.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 68."The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight

B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 69.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 70.What affects indicated stall speed? A. Weight, load factor, and power B. Load factor , angle of attack ,and power C. Angle of attack, weight, and airspeed A X 71.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. C X 72.Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(To be continueddrastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 73.. In en route flight, the altimeter setting is A. QNE B. QNH C. QFE A X 74.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 75. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X 76.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 77.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 78.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz.

C.118.8MHz. C X 79.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to? A.FL158. B.FL148. C.FL168. B X 80.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. the absence of clouds in the area B. an area of no convective turbulence C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 81.The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 82.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 83..Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur? A.-.50 to .75 mach B.-.75 to .1.20 mach C.-1.20 to 2.50 mach B X 84.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 85. Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 86.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 87. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 88.In small airplanes, normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. B.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. C.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. C X

89.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 90.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 91.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 92.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124,000 pounds. B.129,500 pounds. C.134,500 pounds. A X 93.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 94. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV? A.R-175 B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 95.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 96.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. A X 97..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 98.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet

A X 99.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 100.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X

1.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is A.Plus or minus 6 B.Plus 6 or minus 4 C.Plus or minus4? A X 2.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. B X 3.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 4.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber. B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber. C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber. B X 5.. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A. summer in northern areas. B. spring in northern areas. C. spring in southern areas. B X 6.. If the estimated time of departure is 1400 Beijing Time, pilot should file flight plan at least before A.1330 Beijing Time. B.1300 Beijing Time. C.1230 Beijing Time. C X 7. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 8.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases.

C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases. A X 9.The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.(To be continuedcircumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 10..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time A X 11.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 12. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B737-300), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? A.Upgrade training. B.Recurrent training. C.Initial training. A X 13. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. A X 14.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A.- increase the load factor. B.delay stall. C.increase airspeed. B X 15..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 16..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 17.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed.

C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X 18.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 19.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 20.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 21..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 22.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 23. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C X 24.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 25.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 26.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. C X 27.. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A.Increases takeoff distance. B.Decreases takeoff speed.

C.Decreases takeoff distance. A X 28. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Director of operations or flight follower. C.Pilot in command. C X 29.Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 30. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. A X 31.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. B X 32.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 33. Route that require a flight navigator are listed in the A.Airplane Flight Manual B.International Flight Information Manual C.Air Carrier's Operations Specifications C X 34.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 35.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.400 feet. C.850 feet. C X 36.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 37.The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night

B X 38. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet. B X 39.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 40.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 41.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 42.In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload B X 43.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 44.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 45..What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. B. time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. C. time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length. A X 46. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.6 B.7 C.12 C X 47.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 48.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected?

A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 49.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 50.A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right A.(To be continuedengine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.expectancy producing a mental block C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 51.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 52.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 53. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A.certificate holder's operations specifications. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 54.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. A X 55..If the aircraft enters the strong downdraft burst, where is the aircraft expected to meet the strongest downdraft? A. in the center of strong downdraft burst B. when it enters the strong downdraft burst C. when leaves the strong downdraft burst A X 56..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 57.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane.

A.(to be continued Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 58. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 59.Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(To be continuedefficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 60.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 61.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 62.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 63.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 64.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. A X 65.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 66. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 67. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X

68.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. B X 69. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 70.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,150 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 71.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 72.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 73.. If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency, who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport? A. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft. B. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft. C. no one have the responsibility during emergency situation. B X 74.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 75..With the increase of temperature, the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. A. remain unchanged B. increase C. reduce B X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 77.. Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200or NW B. 315or NW

C. 135or SE B X 78. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 79. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 80.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator C.Outer compass locator. B X 81. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 83.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 84.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 85.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 86.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 87.The "runway hold position" sign denotes

A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X 88. Which is a definition of the term "flight crewmember"? A.a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight time. B.Any person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. A X 89.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 90.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 91.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 92.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. A X 93. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.( an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 94.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 95.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 96. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12

C.11 C X 97.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 98.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 99. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 100.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X

1.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 2.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. B X 3.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A.- increase the load factor. B.delay stall. C.increase airspeed. B X 4.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.HIALS. B.HIALS with PAPI. C.PAPI. B X 5.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C.decrease due to higher density altitude. C X 6.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red.

B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red. C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red. A X 7.. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. B. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. C. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. A X 8.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 9.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 10.In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. A X 11.Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 12.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 13. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 14.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.A severe moment or "tuck under" C.-Severe porpoising B X 15..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 16.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km

C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 17. Which is a definition of the term "flight crewmember"? A.a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight time. B.Any person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. A X 18.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C X 20.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 21.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D is A.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 22.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 23. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 24. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 25.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .

B X 26.An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow A.(To be continuedcan create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach. B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B X 27.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X 28.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 29. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 30.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 31..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 32.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 33.Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 34.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 35..What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

A. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. B. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. C. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. C X 36.In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as A.somatogravic illusion. B.ground lighting illusion. C.autokinesis. C X 37.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.300 feet. C.750 feet. B X 38. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 39.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. B X 40.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 41.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 42.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 43. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 44.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X

45. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 46.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 47.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. A.the change of sun radiation B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.the movement of the weather system B X 48.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 49.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 50. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.127.6MHz. B.127.6KHz. C.114.7MHz. A X 51.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 52.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 53.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 54. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above A. FL200 B. FL240

C. FL250 C X 55.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 56..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 57.During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 58.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 59.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 60.Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(To be continueddrastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 61.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 62.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 63.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4.6% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.690 feet/minute. B.644 feet/minute. C.600 feet/minute. B X 64.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.1,244 feet. C.900 feet. B X

65.who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 66.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip. C X 67..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 68.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X 69..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 70.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 71..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 72.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 73.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 74.A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 75. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least

A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 76.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 77. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 78.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C X 79. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 80."The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 81.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 82.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 83.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X

84.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 85. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 86.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 87. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C X 88.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 89.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 90.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach. C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach. A X 91.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 92.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 93. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH.

C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. A X 94.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 95.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 96.The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 97.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2,224 pounds. B.1,987 pounds. C.1,454 pounds. A X 98.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 99.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 100.The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. A X

1.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 2. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.

A X 3.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 4.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 5.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 6.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 7..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 8.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. A X 9.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 10.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 11. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 12. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond?

A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 13. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A.1360 feet. B.3940 feet. C.3842 feet. C X 14.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 15.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 16."Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 17.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 18.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 19. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 20.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 21.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ

C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 22.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.3000m. B.3,600m. C.2,800m. B X 23.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers A.Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining B.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3.000 feet from the end C.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end A X 24.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 25.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 26.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.(to be continued Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 27.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.Increase speed for a headwind. B.Increase speed for a tailwind. C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind. A X 28.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 29. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes.

C.8 minutes. A X 31.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 32.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 33.. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds. B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air. B X 34.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 35.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 36.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 37. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 38.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 39.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots

C. 90 knots C X 40.person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 41.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 42.. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet, the wind speed is 120 km/h B. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 120 knots C. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 43.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 44. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 45.Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it? A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.A and B C X 46. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.500 feet B.1,000feet C.1,500 feet B X 47.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 48.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 49.The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds

C X 50.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A.- increase the load factor. B.delay stall. C.increase airspeed. B X 51.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52 B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52 C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52 C X 52. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X 53.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 54.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. B X 55.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet. B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 56.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet. B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X 57.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 58.Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 59.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X

60.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only A.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.In VFR conditions C.In day VFR conditions C X 61. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.2,000 feet A X 62.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: A.Must be adhered to. B.Does not preclude rejected landing. C.Precludes a rejected landing. B X 63. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. A X 64.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 65.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.Increase the camber of the wing. B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. A X 66.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 67.Night vision is enhanced by A.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. C.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 68.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 69.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X

70.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 71.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red. B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red. C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red. A X 72.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 73..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 74. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.3,000 feet C.3,500 feet. B X 75.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 76.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.Sluggish in aileron control. B.Sluggish in rudder control C.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 77.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 78.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 79.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots B X 80. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?

A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 81.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 82. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet. B X 83.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 84. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X 85.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 86.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 87.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 88.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X

89. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 90. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. A X 91. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 92.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 93.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. the absence of clouds in the area B. an area of no convective turbulence C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 94.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 95. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. C X 96.When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 97.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 98.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely.

C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 99. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X 100. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report A. within 10 days after the deviation. B. after returning home. C. after the flight is completed. C X

1..Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes? A. 0000 through 1000. B. 7200 and 7500 series. C. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series. C X 2. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 3.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.requiring a pilot to read back. B.keeping flight status. C.requiring a pilot to take specific action. C X 4.Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(To be continuedefficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 5.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 6.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight? A.650 feet. B.1,300 feet. C.1,050 feet. C X

7.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 8.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B.-positive longitudinal static stability. C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 9.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 10.The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 11.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 12.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 13.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 14.Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 15..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 16.The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight

B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 17..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 18.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 19.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(To be continuedhealth, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 20.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 21. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 22..What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. B. time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. C. time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length. A X 23. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. A X 24. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 25.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed.

B X 26. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 27.. A plane, MH 60, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 28.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.10 hours B.14 hours C.16 hours A X 29.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 31.Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. A.(To be continuedThis causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. A X 32. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "nil" C X 33.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 34.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. C X 35. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "good"

C. braking action is "100%" B X 36.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 37.. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed? A. Katabatic. B. Advection. C. Adiabatic. C X 38. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 39.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.To require a pilot to take a specific action. B.To state some important information. C.To warn the pilot. A X 40. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.( an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 41. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 42.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X 43.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 44.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X 45.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?

A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 46.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller. B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. A X 47.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X 48.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 49.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 50..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 51.In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 52.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 53. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 54.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway

C.Intersecting runways C X 55.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.308 feet. B.193 feet. C.200 feet. B X 56.. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as. A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility B.stratus, light rain, poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence. B X 57.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 58.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 59.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 60.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 61. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 62.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 63. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 64. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 65.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?

A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 66.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 67.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet. B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 68..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 69.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres A X 70.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D is A.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 71.The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 72.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 73.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 74.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 75.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells

B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 76. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 77.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 78.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 79.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Strong wind with shower B. Snow and rain C. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 80.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 81.What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank an altitude? A.The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. B.The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. C.-The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor. C X 82..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 83..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 84.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa.

B X 85.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 86.Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 87.The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.(To be continuedcircumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 88.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 89.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 90.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.FL118. B.FL128. C.FL138. A X 91.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 92.Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 93.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X

94.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 95.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. Temperature inversion. B. Wind stronger than 15 konts. C. Surface radiation. B X 96.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. C X 97.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. C X 98.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 99.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 100.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X

1. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 2.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.

B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 3.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 4.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.40 kilometers. B.50 kilometers. C.46 kilometers. B X 5..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 6.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 7.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 8.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 9.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.121.7MHz. B.121.9MHz. C.121.7KHz. B X 10.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X 11. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

C X 12. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 13.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 14.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 15. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 16.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 17.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 18.As the CG is moved forward, the stability A.Improves B.Decrease C.dose not change A X 19.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2,224 pounds. B.1,987 pounds. C.1,454 pounds. A X 20.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 21.For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. B.varies with the rate of turn. C.is constant

C X 22. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 23.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 24.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 25.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 26.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to? A.FL158. B.FL148. C.FL168. B X 27.Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 28.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. C X 29.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continuedof an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 30.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. B X 31.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F1020. B.S1020. C.L1020.

B X 32.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 33.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 34.How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators. C.not considered to be part of a rest period. C X 35.. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are . A.nimbostratus B.cumulonimbus C.altostratus. B X 36. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet C X 37."The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 38.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 39.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X 40. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X

41. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 42.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A.9,500 pounds. B.10,400 pounds. C.11,300 pounds. B X 43.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 44.A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 45.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers A.Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining B.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3.000 feet from the end C.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end A X 46.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X 47.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 48.. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocatingengine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. B.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. C.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B X 49.. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. freezing rain B. clear air turbulence C. embedded thunderstorms C X

50.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X 51.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 52.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Compressor discharge. B.Fuel spray nozzles. C.Turbine inlet. C X 53.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A.Approach Control Regulation. B.Visual Flight Regulation. C.Instrument Control Regulation. C X 54. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. C X 55. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 56. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737. C X 57. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 58.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 59. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3.

C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 60. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 61. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 62..Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A.It moves with the weather system. B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 63.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. C X 64.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 65. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above A. FL200 B. FL240 C. FL250 C X 66.In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 67.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 68.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.A severe moment or "tuck under" C.-Severe porpoising B X 69.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 70.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 71.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 72.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 73.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 74.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute B X 75.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 76.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 60 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs B X 77.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: A.Must be adhered to. B.Does not preclude rejected landing. C.Precludes a rejected landing. B X 78.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 79.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 80.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz.

B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 81..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 82.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.requiring a pilot to read back. B.keeping flight status. C.requiring a pilot to take specific action. C X 83.An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 84.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 85. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere. A. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. A X 86.Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it? A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.A and B C X 87.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn. C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. A X 88.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 89.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach. C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach. A X 90.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. Temperature inversion. B. Wind stronger than 15 konts. C. Surface radiation. B X

91.While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.(To be continued can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 92.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 93.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 94.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 95.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 96.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 97.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 98.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog C X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 100.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots

B X

1.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog C X 2.How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators. C.not considered to be part of a rest period. C X 3.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A.Climb straight ahead to L NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. B.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet. C.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. C X 4.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 5.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing? A. ZSSS B. ZUUU C. ZHHH B X 6.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 7.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 8.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 9.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 10.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48

B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48 C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48 A X 11.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 12.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 13.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 14.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 15.. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed? A. Katabatic. B. Advection. C. Adiabatic. C X 16.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 17.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 18.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.requiring a pilot to read back. B.keeping flight status. C.requiring a pilot to take specific action. C X 19. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 20.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall.

B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 21.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 22.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 23.. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway? A.At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. B.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. C.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning. B X 24.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. A X 25.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 26.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. B X 27.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 28.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 29.. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. C X 30.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP.

B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP. B X 31.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 32.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.FL 10,100 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. B X 33.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 34.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 35..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 36.. Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200or NW B. 315or NW C. 135or SE B X 37.The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.(To be continuedcircumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 38.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.35,000 pounds. B.32,600 pounds. C.30,200 pounds. B X 39. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 40.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds.

C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 41.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 42.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 43. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 44. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 45.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 46. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 47.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. B X 48..Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A.It moves with the weather system. B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 49.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X

50.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 51.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continuedof an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 52.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 53.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours C X 54.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds? A.136 knots. B.132 knots. C.139 knots. A X 55.In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 56.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A.They are both the same 31,000feet. B.True altitude is lower than 31,000feet. C.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. B X 57.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 58.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. Expansion of air as rises. B. Movement of air over a colder surface. C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. A X 59.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X

60.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.10 hours B.14 hours C.16 hours A X 61. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.( an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 62..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 63.Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 64.When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 65.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.A severe moment or "tuck under" C.-Severe porpoising B X 66.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 67.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 68. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 69. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months.

C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 70.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A.9,500 pounds. B.10,400 pounds. C.11,300 pounds. B X 71.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. 3 per 1,000 feet. B. 2 per 1,000 feet. C. 4 per 1,000 feet. A X 72.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.1,420 pounds, 97 NAM. B.1,440 pounds, 102 NAM. C.1,390 pounds, 92 NAM. A X 73.. In average, for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will . A. descend 2 B.descend 3 C. descend 4 A X 74.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 75.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 76.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 77.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. A X 78. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X

79. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 80.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red. B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red. C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red. A X 81. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. A X 82.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 83.. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C.An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B X 84.The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 85. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft. A X 86.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase. B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease. C.Rate and radius will increase. A X 87. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 88.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required.

B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 89.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low cloud and perhaps icing B. Strong wind with bad visibility C. Snow shower A X 90.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 91.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport, A.(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 92. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 93. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 94.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 95.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. A.the change of sun radiation B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.the movement of the weather system B X 96..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 97.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz.

B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 98..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 99.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 100.For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. B.varies with the rate of turn. C.is constant C X

1.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low-level wind share B. Microburst C. Turbulence A X 2.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 3. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. C X 4.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.300 feet. C.750 feet. B X 5.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 6.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than A.80hours B.90 hours

C.100hours B X 7. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 8. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 9. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 10.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 11.. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 12.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 13.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 14.. Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind B.clear, high wind, good visibility C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility A X 15.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind.

B X 16. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. B.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. C.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop. B X 17.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 18.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 19. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Director of operations or flight follower. C.Pilot in command. C X 20.En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57.If the field elevation is 650feet,and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing? A.585feet B.1.300feet C.Sea level C X 21. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 22. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.500 feet B.1,000feet C.1,500 feet B X 23.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn. C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. A X 24.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved C X 25.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG?

A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 26."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 27.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X 28.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.3000m. B.3,600m. C.2,800m. B X 29. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 30.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 31. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 32.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 33.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z, pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A.122.20MHz. B.8897KHz. C.3016KHz. C X 34.In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources

C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. A X 35.(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727. A.(To be continued What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 36.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48 B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48 C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48 A X 37. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 38. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Cargo and passenger distribution information. B.Copy of the flight plan. C.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. B X 39.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 40..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 41.Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have A.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B.White inscriptions on a black background C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 42.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 43.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway

C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 44.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. B X 45.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 46.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X 47.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 48.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green. B X 49.. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. C X 50.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 51.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. A X 52.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. C X 53..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.

B X 54.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 55.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 56.While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.(To be continued can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 57.Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 58.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 59. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 60.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 61.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 62. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 63.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.12hours B.10hours C.8hours B X

64. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C X 65.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 66.In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as A.somatogravic illusion. B.ground lighting illusion. C.autokinesis. C X 67.. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 1.7hPa. C. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 17hPa. B X 68.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases. A X 69.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C X 70.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 71.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 72.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 73.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is A.Plus or minus 6 B.Plus 6 or minus 4 C.Plus or minus4? A X

74.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 75.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twinengine airplane represent? A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. A X 76. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 77. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.2 B.3 C.4 B X 78..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 79.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 80.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 81..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 82.Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. B X 83.The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye.

C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 84.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 85.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 86.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 87.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 88.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 89.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight? A.650 feet. B.1,300 feet. C.1,050 feet. C X 90.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds? A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 91.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 92.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 93.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. Expansion of air as rises.

B. Movement of air over a colder surface. C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. A X 94. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 95.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 96.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. C X 97. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B X 98.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 140,000 pounds? A.127 knots. B.149 knots. C.156 knots. C X 99. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. A X 100.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.124 knots. B.137 knots. C.130 knots. C X

1.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 2. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do?

A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 3.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.FL118. B.FL128. C.FL138. A X 4..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 5.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 6.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 7.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 8.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR. C.2.04 EPR. B X 9..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 10.. Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200or NW B. 315or NW C. 135or SE B X 11. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737. C X 12.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B.-positive longitudinal static stability.

C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 13.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 14. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C X 15.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. A X 16.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 17.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 18.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 19.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 20. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 21.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. C X 22.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end B.Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end

C.Alternate red and white lights from3,000 feet to the end of the runway B X 23.. An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR. A X 24.As the CG is moved forward, the stability A.Improves B.Decrease C.dose not change A X 25.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 26. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 27.A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.(To be continued result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 28.Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 29.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 30.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport, A.(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 31.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres

A X 32.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 33. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.1,800 feet. A X 34.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 35. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan. C X 36.If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 37.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 38.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 39..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 40.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 41.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 42.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing

B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 43.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 44.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase. B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease. C.Rate and radius will increase. A X 45.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 46.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 47.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 48.The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.strong leadership B X 49.. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway? A.At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. B.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. C.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning. B X 50.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 51.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.400 feet. C.850 feet. C X

52.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 53.Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. high personal attention and high task orientation B.medium personal attention and high task orientation C.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X 54. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. C X 55. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C X 56.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots B X 57.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 58.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 59.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 60.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 61.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 62. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the

A.certificate holder's operations specifications. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 63.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 64.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 65.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X 66.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 67.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 68.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X 69.How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators. C.not considered to be part of a rest period. C X 70..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 71.. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground, it will usually produce . A. layer clouds B. smooth airflow and advection fog C. warm front clouds B X

72.. Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. 3,000 meters. B. 3,600 meters. C. 6,000 meters. A X 73. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 74.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 75. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 76.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots B X 77.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 78.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 79. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 80.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A.Immediately after ground contact. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X

81.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 82.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X 83.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 84.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 85.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.12,097 feet. B.12,093 feet. C.13,123 feet. A X 86. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 87.Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(To be continuedefficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 88. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is A.upgrade training. B.transition training. C.initial training. C X 89.When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 90.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 91.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface.

B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 92.The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 93.. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. B. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. C. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. B X 94.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X 95.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. A X 96.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack. B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 97.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 98.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.124 knots. B.137 knots. C.130 knots. C X 99.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. the absence of clouds in the area B. an area of no convective turbulence C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 100..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X

1.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X 2.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes, 118 NAM. B.26 minutes, 125 NAM. C.25 minutes, 118 NAM. B X 3.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 4.. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol A.V2min . B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 5.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions A X 6.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 7.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 8.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 9. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. C X 10. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

C X 11.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5,200-foot icy runway? A.124,000 pounds. B.137,000 pounds. C.108,000 pounds. B X 12.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. B X 13.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 14. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 15.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 16.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR. C.2.04 EPR. B X 17.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 18.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A.After passing the visual descent point (VDP). B.When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. C.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight. C X 19.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 20.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X

21.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 22. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 23.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU. B.VMD. C.VFC. A X 24. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X 25. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "good" C. braking action is "100%" B X 26. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X 27. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 28. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 29.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48 B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48 C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48 A X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet.

C.300 feet. C X 31. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 32. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X 33. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 34. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 35.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 36. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 37. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 38.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X

39.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. A X 40.Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 41.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 42.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved C X 43.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.several headache B.reduced visual field C.a feeling of euphoria A X 44.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 45.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 46.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 47.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 48. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly

A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 49..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 50.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 51.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 52.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. B X 53.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 54..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 55.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 56. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet. B X 57.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. C X 58.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases.

B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 59. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. A X 60.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 61.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 62. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 63. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 64.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 65. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 66.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 67.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 68.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the

A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 69.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52 B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52 C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52 C X 70.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 71.Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(To be continuedefficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 72..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 73.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 74.The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 75.Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 76.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 77. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 78.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds.

B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 79.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A.- increase the load factor. B.delay stall. C.increase airspeed. B X 80.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 81.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.5 hours 3 minutes. B.5 hours 20 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. A X 82.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn. C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. A X 83. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.3,000 feet C.3,500 feet. B X 84.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 85.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is 100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.220m. B.150m. C.160m. A X 86.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 87.TCAS I provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 88.Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A.Eustachian tube B.the cochlea C.the semicircular canals C X

89.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 90.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X 91. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 92..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 93.. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed? A. Katabatic. B. Advection. C. Adiabatic. C X 94.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 95.Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 96. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 97.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 98.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone

C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 99.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 100.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. A X

ATPL06

1.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 2.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 3.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 4. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 5. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 6. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 7. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual

C.International Notices To Airmen A X 8.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 9.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 10.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 11.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 12.What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. C X 13.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 14. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 15.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 16.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 17.What cause hypoxia?

A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 18.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 19. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 20.Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 21.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. C X 22.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 23. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 24. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 25.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 26.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X

27.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 28. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 29..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 31.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 32.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 33.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 34.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 35.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 36.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is 100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.220m. B.150m. C.160m. A X 37..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s

C. 6 m/s A X 38.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 39.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 40.In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload B X 41.When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, there is a tendency A.to fly a lower-than -normal approach. B.to fly a higher-than -normal approach. C.to fly a normal approach. B X 42.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 43.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 44. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 45.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 46. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 47.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?

A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 48.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 49.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 50.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A.After passing the visual descent point (VDP). B.When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. C.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight. C X 51.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 52.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 53.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP. B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP. B X 54.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.40 kilometers. B.50 kilometers. C.46 kilometers. B X 55.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 56.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 57.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X

58.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 59. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 60.Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 61.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 62.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 63.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 64.The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 65. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 66.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 67.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 68.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the

A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 69.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 70.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 71.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 72. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 73.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 74.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 75. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 76.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. B X 77.What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank an altitude? A.The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. B.The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. C.-The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor. C X 78..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground

C X 79.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 80.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 81.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 60 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs B X 82.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 83.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 84.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 85.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 86.What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 87.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 88.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 89.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.

C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 90.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 91.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 92.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 93. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 94.In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 95. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 96.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 97.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 98.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 99.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: A.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport.

B.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C.The landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds. A X 100.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X

1.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 2. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 3.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 4.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 5.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 6. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 7.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots.

B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 8.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 9.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing? A. ZSSS B. ZUUU C. ZHHH B X 10. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 11.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 12.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 13.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 14. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.( an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 15. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X 16.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.

C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 17.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 18.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 19. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 20.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 21. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 22.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 23.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 24.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 25.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds.

C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 26..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 27.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 28.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 29.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 30.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 31.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(To be continuedhealth, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 32.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 33.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 34. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A.certificate holder's operations specifications. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 35.Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A.Eustachian tube B.the cochlea

C.the semicircular canals C X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 37.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 38.. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.An abrupt change in relative wind. B.A decrease in angle of attack. C.Sudden decrease in load factor. A X 39..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 40. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 41.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 42. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A.2005Z. B.1905Z. C.0005Z. C X 43.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 44.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 45.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 46.. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.7 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.28 days ago.

A X 47.. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? A. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft. B. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. C. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices. B X 48.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 49. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 50.Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 51.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 53.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 54.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X

55.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes. C.8 minutes. A X 56..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 57.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 58.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 59.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 60.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 61.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 62. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Director of operations or flight follower. C.Pilot in command. C X 63.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. C X 64.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40

A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 65.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 66.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 67.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 68.En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57.If the field elevation is 650feet,and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing? A.585feet B.1.300feet C.Sea level C X 69.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71,000,DISTANCE (NM): 200,WIND COMPONENT: 30TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.34 minutes. B.55 minutes. C.57 minutes. C X 70. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 71.. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. A X 72.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 73..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 74. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. braking action is "fair"

B. braking action is "good" C. braking action is "100%" B X 75..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 76. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid? A.60 days. B.90 days. C.120 days. C X 77.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 78.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.RVR 1,000 feet C.RVR 700 feet. C X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 80.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 81.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A.Immediately after ground contact. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 82.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 83.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 84.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X

85.Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. B X 86.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 87.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 88..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 89.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 90.In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as A.somatogravic illusion. B.ground lighting illusion. C.autokinesis. C X 91. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 92.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 93.who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 94.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed

C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 95.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 96.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 97.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 5%, whichever is greater. B. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 10%, whichever is greater. C. A change in cruising true airspeed of 5 knots or 10%, whichever is greater. A X 98.Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green C X 99.A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. C.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. C X 100.. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground, it will usually produce . A. layer clouds B. smooth airflow and advection fog C. warm front clouds B X

1.What affects indicated stall speed? A. Weight, load factor, and power B. Load factor , angle of attack ,and power C. Angle of attack, weight, and airspeed A X 2.. Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind B.clear, high wind, good visibility C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility A X 3.What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be A.The same. B.Two times greater. C.Four times greater. C X 4.In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes.

B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. A X 5.. Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. 3,000 meters. B. 3,600 meters. C. 6,000 meters. A X 6. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated? A.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. B X 7.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 8.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.To require a pilot to take a specific action. B.To state some important information. C.To warn the pilot. A X 9.. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A.Angle of attack. B.Altitude. C.Airspeed. B X 10.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 11.A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 12.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 14. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival

at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 15.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 16..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 17. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.127.6MHz. B.127.6KHz. C.114.7MHz. A X 18.A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.(To be continued result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 19.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 20.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 21. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C X 22.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 23.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions.

A X 24.What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 25. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 26.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes, 118 NAM. B.26 minutes, 125 NAM. C.25 minutes, 118 NAM. B X 27.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.Increase the camber of the wing. B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. A X 28.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 29.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 30.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 31.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 32.The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 33.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 34. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment?

A.1360 feet. B.3940 feet. C.3842 feet. C X 35.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 36.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A.Immediately after ground contact. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 37.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact B.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 38. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 39.Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(To be continuedefficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 41.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 42."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 43.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport

A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 44..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 45. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter check is considered to have been taken in A.November 1988. B.December 1988. C.January 1989. B X 46.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 47.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 48.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 49. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 50.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 51.Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 52.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 53.Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture.

B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC C.A and B C X 54.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B X 55.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52 B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52 C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52 C X 56..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 57.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller. B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. A X 58.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. C X 59.Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 60.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 61.A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right A.(To be continuedengine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.expectancy producing a mental block C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X

62.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 63.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 64. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 65.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 66. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 67. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 68.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 69.The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 70.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than A.80hours B.90 hours C.100hours B X 71.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X

72..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 73. A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument competency check. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made? A.12 months. B.90 days. C.6 months. C X 74."The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 75.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 76.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 77.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 78.Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 79. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 80.A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. C.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. C X 81.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport, A.(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 82.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-incommand could descend it to

A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 83. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 84.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 85. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 86.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 87. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 88.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 89.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 90.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C X 91.. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? A.Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. B.Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. C.Reduction of all performance by 50 percent. B X 92.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Strong wind with shower B. Snow and rain

C. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 93. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 94.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 95.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 96. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 97.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 98.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 99. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. B.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. C.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop. B X 100.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X

1.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet. B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X 2.(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727. A.(To be continued What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 3.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.Sluggish in aileron control. B.Sluggish in rudder control C.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 4.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 5.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Look only at far away, dim lights. B.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B X 6.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X 7.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5,200-foot icy runway? A.124,000 pounds. B.137,000 pounds. C.108,000 pounds. B X 8.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 9.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 60 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs B X 10.The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith

B X 11. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. key to the flight deck door. B. certificate holder's manual. C. flashlight in good working order. C X 12.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.1,625 pounds. B.1,950 pounds. C.2,460 pounds. C X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 14.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact B.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 15.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 16.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 17.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 18. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 19.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller. B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. A X 20. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?

A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. A X 21..Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur? A.-.50 to .75 mach B.-.75 to .1.20 mach C.-1.20 to 2.50 mach B X 22. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 23. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 24.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. A X 25.The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.(To be continuedcircumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 26.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 27.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.10 hours B.14 hours C.16 hours A X 28.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 29.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet.

B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 5,400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.117,500 pounds. B.136,500 pounds. C.140,500 pounds. B X 31..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 32. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X 33.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 34.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 35. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 36.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 37. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 38.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 39..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave?

A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 40.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 41.. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A. summer in northern areas. B. spring in northern areas. C. spring in southern areas. B X 42.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 43.Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 44.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 45..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 46.What functions are provided by ILS? A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. B. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. C. Guidance, range, and visual information. C X 47.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 48.During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 49.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land.

A X 50.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 51. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 52.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o, what is the corresponding rate of descent? A.5.2%. B.4.8%. C.5.5%. A X 53.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 54.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 55.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds? A.136 knots. B.132 knots. C.139 knots. A X 56.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 57.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 58.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 59.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X

60..With the increase of temperature, the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. A. remain unchanged B. increase C. reduce B X 61. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report A. within 10 days after the deviation. B. after returning home. C. after the flight is completed. C X 62.. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. A X 63.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 64.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 65.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 66..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground C X 67. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 68.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 69.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. B.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. A X 70.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain.

C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 71.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers A.Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining B.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3.000 feet from the end C.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end A X 72.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 73. Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 74.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 75.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 76.. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 77.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 78.. A plane, MH 60, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 79.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. C X 80.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.

B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. A X 81.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 82.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. C X 83.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71,000,DISTANCE (NM): 200,WIND COMPONENT: 30TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.34 minutes. B.55 minutes. C.57 minutes. C X 84.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.G. B.S. C.R. B X 85.The symptoms of hyperventilation are A.quite different to those of hypoxia B.quite similar to those of hypoxia C.profuse sweating B X 86.Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. A X 87. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 88.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 89.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 90.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO.

B.VS. C.VS1. B X 91. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A.2005Z. B.1905Z. C.0005Z. C X 92.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 93.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2,224 pounds. B.1,987 pounds. C.1,454 pounds. A X 94..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 95.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 96.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 97.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. Temperature inversion. B. Wind stronger than 15 konts. C. Surface radiation. B X 98. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X 99.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 100.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air

B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C X

1.The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 2..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 3. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. A X 4. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.2 NAV? A.1? B.-2? C.-4? C X 5..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 6.The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X 7. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 8..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X

9. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 10.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 11.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 12.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 13.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 14.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 15.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 16.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 17.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 18.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. A X

19.The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 20.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 21. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. A X 22. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 23.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 24.In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 25.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A.Climb straight ahead to L NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. B.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet. C.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. C X 26. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.2,000 feet A X 27.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.300 feet. C.750 feet. B X 28.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC.

B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 29.(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727. A.(To be continued What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 30..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 31..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 32.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 33.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green. B X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 35. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 36..If the aircraft enters the strong downdraft burst, where is the aircraft expected to meet the strongest downdraft? A. in the center of strong downdraft burst B. when it enters the strong downdraft burst C. when leaves the strong downdraft burst A X 37.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. B X 38. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line

C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C X 39..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 40. Route that require a flight navigator are listed in the A.Airplane Flight Manual B.International Flight Information Manual C.Air Carrier's Operations Specifications C X 41.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 42.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 43..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 44.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 45.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 46.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. B X 47.Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially

B X 48. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 49. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X 50.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 51. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 5,400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.117,500 pounds. B.136,500 pounds. C.140,500 pounds. B X 53.The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 54.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 55.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 56.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X

57.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 58.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.2.115 EPR. B.2.10 EPR. C.2.06 EPR. C X 59.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 60.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 61. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 62.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 63.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots. B X 64.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn. C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. A X 65..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 66.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 67.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight?

A.4,000 feet. B.4,300 feet. C.4,500 feet. A X 68.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 69.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 70.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 71.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 72.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. B X 73.Night vision is enhanced by A.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. C.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 74.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 75.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above; B X 76.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 77.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds.

C.32,600 pounds. C X 78.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 79.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 80.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 81.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 82.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. C X 83.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 84. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 85.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 86.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 87.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.FL 10,100 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet.

B X 88.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 89.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 90. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 91.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 92. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 93.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B X 94.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 95.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute B X 96.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 97.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold?

A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 98.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X 99..What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. B. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. C. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. C X 100.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X

1.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 2. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.3,000 feet C.3,500 feet. B X 3.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 4.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 5.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 6.. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.

C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 7..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 8.The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 9.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 10.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 25,600 feet, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F256. B.F0256. C.M256. A X 11.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 12.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved C X 13.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from south to north B.from west to east C.from north to south C X 14..What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. C. There is an inversion with colder air below. A X 15.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 16..With the increase of temperature, the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. A. remain unchanged B. increase

C. reduce B X 17.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.2.115 EPR. B.2.10 EPR. C.2.06 EPR. C X 18.In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 19..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 20. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 21. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 22.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 23.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 24..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 25. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 26. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m

B X 27.If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 28.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 29. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 30.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 31.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 32.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft with 2 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 35 at PUDONG with only RL operating? A.RVR 250m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 200m. B X 33.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 35.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 36.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 37.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions,

A.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 38. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 39.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. Expansion of air as rises. B. Movement of air over a colder surface. C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. A X 40.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 41..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 42.. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? A.Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. B.Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. C.Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. C X 43.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is A.blue. B.white. C.green. B X 44. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 45.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X

46.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 47..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 48. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 49. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 50.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 51.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack. B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 52.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 53.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 54.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 55.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 56.Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication?

A.Red B.Amber C.Green C X 57.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 58.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 59.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 60.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 61.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 62. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 63..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 64.. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. B. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. C. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. B X 65.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.VYSE. C.VXSE.

B X 66.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 67.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 68.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 69.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 70.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 71.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 72. Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 73.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 74..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 75.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center.

C.Airport flight information office. C X 76.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. B.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. A X 77.Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 78.Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 79.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 80.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 81.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 82.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 83.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. A X 84.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X

85.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 86.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 87.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 88.. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol A.V2min . B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 89.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 90.Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 91.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind. B X 92..In daily aeronautical weather reports, the code "VCTS" means ____. A. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. C. There are thunderstorms over the airport. A X 93.If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 94.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40

A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 95.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 96.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 97.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 98.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 99. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 100. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X

1.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Severe turbulence, moderate icing, rain shower, thunderstorms B. Moderate turbulence, severe icing, freezing precipitation, severe clear air turbulence C. Moderate turbulence, moderate icing, rain, severe clear air turbulence C X 2.As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 3.. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? A.Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent.

B.Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. C.Reduction of all performance by 50 percent. B X 4.Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 5.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 6.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 7. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid? A.60 days. B.90 days. C.120 days. C X 8..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 9..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 10.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 11.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z, pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A.122.20MHz. B.8897KHz. C.3016KHz. C X 12.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 13.. On the weather chart of ground, the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. A.front

B.low pressure center C.shear line A X 14.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 15.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A.YV. B.WF. C.DK. A X 16.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 17. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 18. Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.35,000 pounds. B.32,600 pounds. C.30,200 pounds. B X 20.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 21.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 22.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.

C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 23.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 24.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. A X 25.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 26.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.308 feet. B.193 feet. C.200 feet. B X 27. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 28.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than A.80hours B.90 hours C.100hours B X 29.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 30.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 31. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X

32.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 33. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 34. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 35.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 36.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 37.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 38.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 39.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X 41..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail C X

42.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 43. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 44. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.500 feet B.1,000feet C.1,500 feet B X 45.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 46.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Compressor discharge. B.Fuel spray nozzles. C.Turbine inlet. C X 47. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 48. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 49.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 50. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 51.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz.

C.111.7MHz. C X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 53.Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 54.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 55.Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 56.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres A X 57. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 58.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 59. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 60. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 61..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.

C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 62.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 63.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X 64.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 65.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C X 66. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.1,800 feet. A X 67.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 68. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 69. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 70.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X

71.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 72.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 73.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 74.An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 75.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority? A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 76.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. A X 77.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 78. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 79..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 80.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X

81.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 82. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 83.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which CCAR 121 operations are conducted. B. all flight time, except military, in any flight crewmember position. C. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 84.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 85.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 86.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 87.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 88.A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. C.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. C X 89.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 90. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A.11.7NM from PEK. B.11.7KM from PEK. C.11.7SM from PEK.

A X 91.. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? A. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft. B. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. C. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices. B X 92..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 93.. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 94.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 95.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 96. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 97.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 98.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.400 feet. C.850 feet. C X 99.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 100.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.

B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X

1.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 2.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 3.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 4.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 5.Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 6.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 7.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 8.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 9.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF.

C.V1. C X 10.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 11.Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. B X 12.. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol A.V2min . B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 13.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach. C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach. A X 14.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 15.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 16.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 17.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute B X 18.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased

B X 19.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 20.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 21.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 22.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 23. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 24. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 25.Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. A X 26.The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.(To be continuedcircumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 27.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW

C X 28.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 29.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 30.An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow A.(To be continuedcan create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach. B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B X 31.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X 32. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 33.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. A X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 35.In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload B X 36.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.

B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 37.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 38.. What is the purpose of the danger airspace? A.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger. B.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry. C.To protect military activities. A X 39.Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 41.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Notify ATC immediately. B. Squawk 7600. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 42.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 43. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 44.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 45. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 46.. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities, which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. B.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.

C.An area beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. A X 47.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 48.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 5,400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.117,500 pounds. B.136,500 pounds. C.140,500 pounds. B X 49.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 50. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 51.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet. B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 52. Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 53.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog C X 54.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 55.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 56.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight.

C X 57.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 58.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature C.air pressure B X 59..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 60.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 61..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 62.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. C X 63.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 64..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time A X 65. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 66..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 67.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m

B X 68.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 69.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 70.Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A.Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. B.Increased vision keenness. C.Decreased breathing rate. A X 71. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 72.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. A.the change of sun radiation B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.the movement of the weather system B X 73.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 74..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 75.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa. B X 76.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots. B X 77.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 78.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change

B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 79.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 80.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 81..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 82.. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A.Angle of attack. B.Altitude. C.Airspeed. B X 83.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 84.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 85.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 86.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: A.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. B.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C.The landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds. A X 87.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.24,600 feet. B.23,400 feet. C.20,000 feet. A X

88.Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 89. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 90.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A.YV. B.WF. C.DK. A X 91. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 92. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A.1360 feet. B.3940 feet. C.3842 feet. C X 93.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 94.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 95.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 96.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 97.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X

98. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 99.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 100.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X

1.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 2.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 3.En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57.If the field elevation is 650feet,and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing? A.585feet B.1.300feet C.Sea level C X 4.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 5. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 6.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X

7.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 8.In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 9. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 10.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 11. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 12..What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. B. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. C. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. C X 13. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 14.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 15..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time A X 16.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours

C X 17..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 18.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 19.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 20..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 21.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 22. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 23.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. A X 24.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 25.The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 26.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz.

C.121.65MHz. A X 27. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 28.Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 29. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34.0 HUR to D16.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R, Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower, what frequency should be tuned? A.118.1KHz. B.118.5KHz. C.118.1MHz. C X 30.Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. B X 31.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 32.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 33. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV? A.R-175 B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 34.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 35.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X

36.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 37.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 38.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 39.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 40.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C.decrease due to higher density altitude. C X 41..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 42.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG, the heading indicator should indicate A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. B X 43. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV? A.5.0NM B.7.5NM C.10.0NM A X 44..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 45.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 46.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds.

B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 47. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 48..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 49.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber. B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber. C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber. B X 50. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 51.. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocatingengine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. B.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. C.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B X 52.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 53. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 54.In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 55.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X

56.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 57.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 58.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.16,200 pounds. C.17,700 pounds. B X 59.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 60.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Look only at far away, dim lights. B.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B X 61.What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 62.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.Four B.Three C.Two B X 63. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 64.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. B X 65.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X

66.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 67.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(To be continuedincidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 68..What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. C. There is an inversion with colder air below. A X 69.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71,000,DISTANCE (NM): 200,WIND COMPONENT: 30TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.34 minutes. B.55 minutes. C.57 minutes. C X 70.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 71.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 72. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 73.A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 74.. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. B. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. C. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. A X

75. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 76. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C X 77.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 78.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 79.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 80.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots B X 81.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 82.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 83.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.143 knots. B.144 knots. C.145 knots. A X 84..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus

B X 85.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X 86. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 87.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 88.. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is A.V2. B.V1. C.VEF. C X 89. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 90.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5,200-foot icy runway? A.124,000 pounds. B.137,000 pounds. C.108,000 pounds. B X 91.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 92. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X 93.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. B X 94.While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement

A.(To be continued can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 95.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.12,097 feet. B.12,093 feet. C.13,123 feet. A X 96.What is load factor? A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 97.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124,000 pounds. B.129,500 pounds. C.134,500 pounds. A X 98.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 100.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X

1.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 2.While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.(To be continued can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 3.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low-level wind share

B. Microburst C. Turbulence A X 4.During the flight, a good leader should not A.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. C.involve the team in most decision making processes. A X 5.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 6.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 7.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 8..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 9.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A.Climb straight ahead to L NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. B.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet. C.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. C X 10. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 11.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 12.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty

C X 13.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 14. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 15.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 16.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 17. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 18.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 19.. In average, for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will . A. descend 2 B.descend 3 C. descend 4 A X 20.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 21.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes. C.8 minutes. A X 22.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots.

B X 23. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A.1360 feet. B.3940 feet. C.3842 feet. C X 24. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 25.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .78 Mach? A.1 hours 08 minutes. B.1 hours 02 minutes. C.1 hours 05 minutes. A X 26.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 27.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 28.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. Rain and snow B. Drizzle C. Continuous snow A X 29.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 30. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 31.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X

32.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 33.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 34.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: A.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. B.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C.The landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds. A X 35.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X 36. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 37.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 38..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 39.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 40.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.121.7MHz. B.121.9MHz. C.121.7KHz. B X 41. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X

42.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 43. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 44.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Compressor discharge. B.Fuel spray nozzles. C.Turbine inlet. C X 45.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.2.06 EPR. B.2.07 EPR. C.2.09 EPR. A X 46. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 47.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.12hours B.10hours C.8hours B X 48.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o, what is the corresponding rate of descent? A.5.2%. B.4.8%. C.5.5%. A X 49.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 50.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport, A.(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 51.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only.

B X 52.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 53.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 54.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 55.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 56.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 57.Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 58.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 59.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 60.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 61.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X

62.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 63..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 64.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 65.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 66. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above A. FL200 B. FL240 C. FL250 C X 67.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 68.Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(To be continueddrastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 69.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller. B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. A X 70.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 71. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 72.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?

A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 73. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 74.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 75. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 76. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 77.. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.VLE. B.VMO/MMO. C.VLO/MLO. C X 78.Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 79.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 80.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 81.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF

A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 82. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG. C.16.5SM from ILG. B X 83.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B. Position is not affected C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 84.In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 85. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 86.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 87.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 88.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 89.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 90.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.24,600 feet. B.23,400 feet.

C.20,000 feet. A X 91. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 92.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 93.Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A.Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. B.Increased vision keenness. C.Decreased breathing rate. A X 94.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 95.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 96.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 97.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. A X 98. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number. C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. B X 99..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 100. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond?

A.8 B.1 C.2 B X

ATPL07

1.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 2.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 3.The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 4.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 5.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 6.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet. B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 7."Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 8. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X

9.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 10.After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.30 minutes B.1 hours C.5 minutes. A X 11.. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. B. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. C. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. A X 12. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 13.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 14. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 15.TCAS I provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 16. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG. C.16.5SM from ILG. B X 17.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 18.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X

19.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 20.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 21. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 22.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 23.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 24.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 25.The perception of color is a function of the A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. A X 26.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 27.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is

A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 28.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. A X 29.A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right A.(To be continuedengine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.expectancy producing a mental block C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 30.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 31.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 32.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 33.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 34. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. C X 35.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 36.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS

B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 37..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 38. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 39..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground C X 40.When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 41.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 42.Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. B X 43.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 44.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. C X 45.person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 46.Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right

B.wrong A X 47.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.reached the cruising IAS. B.entered VFR weather conditions. C.received an ATC clearance. C X 48.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 49.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 50. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 51.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 52.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 53.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 54.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 55.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 56.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above;

B X 57.. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. A X 58.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 59.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 60.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 61.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X 62. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. C X 63..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 64. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 65.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twinengine airplane represent? A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. A X 66. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate.

B.is not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 67.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F1020. B.S1020. C.L1020. B X 68.The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational, lifesaving decision and carry it out following A.(To be continueda lack of oxygen at a given altitude. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 69.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 70.. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. B. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. C. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. B X 71. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 72. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 73.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 74.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 75.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X

76.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 77.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? A.Increase in indicated airspeed. B.Decrease in indicated airspeed. C.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 78.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 79..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 80.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 81.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 82.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 83.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 84. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A.100 feet AGL. B.150 feet AGL. C.200 feet AGL. B X

85.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X 86.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 87.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X 88. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 89.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 90.. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A.Increases takeoff distance. B.Decreases takeoff speed. C.Decreases takeoff distance. A X 91.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 92.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 93.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU A X 94.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red. B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red. C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red. A X 95..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.

C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 96.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.121.7MHz. B.121.9MHz. C.121.7KHz. B X 97.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.300 feet. C.750 feet. B X 98.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 99.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 100. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X

1.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.Rate of turn B.Angle of bank C.True airspeed B X 2..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 3.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X

4.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 5..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 6.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 7. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. A X 8. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 9.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 10.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 11.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 12.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 13.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight?

A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 14. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A. 250 knots B. 230 knots C. 210 knots B X 15. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 16. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 17.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. A X 18.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 20.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 21. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 22.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background

B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 23.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 24.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 25.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 26.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind. B X 27.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 28.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 29.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 30..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 31.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.

C X 32.What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be A.The same. B.Two times greater. C.Four times greater. C X 33."The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 34.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 35.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.VYSE. C.VXSE. B X 36.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 37.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: A.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. B.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C.The landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds. A X 38.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 39.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 40.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is A.Plus or minus 6 B.Plus 6 or minus 4 C.Plus or minus4?

A X 41.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.24,600 feet. B.23,400 feet. C.20,000 feet. A X 42. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 43.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 44. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C X 45.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. C X 46.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.2.06 EPR. B.2.07 EPR. C.2.09 EPR. A X 47. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 48.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 49.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 50.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only.

C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 51. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet C X 52.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 53.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 54.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.HIALS. B.HIALS with PAPI. C.PAPI. B X 55.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X 56.. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.VLE. B.VMO/MMO. C.VLO/MLO. C X 57. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X 58.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots. B X 59.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X

60.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 61.. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C.An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B X 62. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X 63.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 64.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 65.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 66.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X 67.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. B X 68.. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities, which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. B.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.

C.An area beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. A X 69.While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.(To be continued can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 70.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 71.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 72. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C X 73.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 74.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 75.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 76.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 77.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A. ZUUU B. ZHHH C. ZSSS C X 78. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as

A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 79.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 80.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 81.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 82. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 83. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A.certificate holder's operations specifications. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 84.If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 85.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 86.After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.30 minutes B.1 hours C.5 minutes. A X 87.Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me"

C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 88.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.Four B.Three C.Two B X 89..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 90.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,850 feet. C.153 knots and 3,450 feet. C X 91.. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 92.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 93.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 94.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases. A X 95.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 96. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X

97.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,000 feet. B.4,300 feet. C.4,500 feet. A X 98.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 99.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 100.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X

1.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 2.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 3. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737. C X 4.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 5..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 6.Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense.

C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 7.The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 8.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 9.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours C X 10.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 11. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 12.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 13.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU. B.VMD. C.VFC. A X 14. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan. C X 15.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 16.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X

17.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.FL118. B.FL128. C.FL138. A X 18.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. Expansion of air as rises. B. Movement of air over a colder surface. C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. A X 19.Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. A.(To be continuedThis causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. A X 20.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 21.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.VYSE. C.VXSE. B X 22.Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 23.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 24.Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 25.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 26.. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway? A.At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. B.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. C.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning. B X 27.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m.

B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 28.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 29. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 31. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 32. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 33.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority? A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 34.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 35.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B X 36.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground

C X 37.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 38.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 39.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 40. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X 41.The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 42.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C X 43. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 44.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 45..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 46.. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. B. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. C. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. A X

47..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 48.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 49.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.reached the cruising IAS. B.entered VFR weather conditions. C.received an ATC clearance. C X 50.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 51. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 52.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 53.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 54.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.(to be continued Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 55.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 56. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 57.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats

B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 58.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 59.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. A X 60.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 61.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots. B X 62.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.19hours B.20 hours C.21hours B X 63.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 64.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind. B X 65.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 66.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft?

A.Immediately after ground contact. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 67.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 68. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 69.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 70.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 71.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 72. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 73.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 74.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 75.When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 76. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed.

B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X 77.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 78.Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC C.A and B C X 79.. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 1.7hPa. C. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 17hPa. B X 80.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 81. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.1,800 feet. A X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds? A.136 knots. B.132 knots. C.139 knots. A X 83."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 84.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 85..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X

86.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 87. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 88.Night vision is enhanced by A.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. C.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 89. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 90.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 91.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 92. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. A X 93. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 94. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 95.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude.

B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X 96.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 97.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 98.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 99.. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 100.Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X

1.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog C X 2.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .78 Mach? A.1 hours 08 minutes. B.1 hours 02 minutes. C.1 hours 05 minutes. A X 3.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 4.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 5. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.

B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 6.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 7.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 8..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 9.Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(To be continuedefficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 10. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B.is not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 11.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 12.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.(to be continued Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 13. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C X 14.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X

15.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is 100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.220m. B.150m. C.160m. A X 16. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 17.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 18.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 20.In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 21.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 22.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A. ZUUU B. ZHHH C. ZSSS C X 23.person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours.

B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 24.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 25.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 26..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 27. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 28.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 29.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 30.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 31.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 32.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 33..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 34..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence

B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 35.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(To be continuedincidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 36.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 37. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 38.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 39.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 40.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 41. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 42.. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. freezing rain B. clear air turbulence C. embedded thunderstorms C X 43.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 44.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight?

A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. C X 45.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 46..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 47.. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region, which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. visibility and low clouds B. windshear at low altitude C. hail and rainstorm B X 48.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 49.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 50.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.121.7MHz. B.121.9MHz. C.121.7KHz. B X 51.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 52.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 53.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 54.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. Rain and snow B. Drizzle C. Continuous snow

A X 55.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C X 56.. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere, the wind of low pressure area is . A. clockwise inbound wind B.counter clockwise outbound wind C.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 57.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 58.What is load factor? A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 59.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 60.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2,224 pounds. B.1,987 pounds. C.1,454 pounds. A X 61.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 62.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 63.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 64.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 170 knots B X 65.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation

C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 66.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 67.The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 68..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 69.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 70.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 71. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet C X 72.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 73. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 74.In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 75.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?

A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 76.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 77.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 78.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 79.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.3000m. B.3,600m. C.2,800m. B X 80.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is A.Plus or minus 6 B.Plus 6 or minus 4 C.Plus or minus4? A X 81.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.17 hours B.24 hours C.25 hours A X 82.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. A X 83.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X

84."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 85.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 86.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 87.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 88.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 89.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 90.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,150 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 91.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.A severe moment or "tuck under" C.-Severe porpoising B X 92.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 93. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is

A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. The fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. A X 94. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft. A X 95.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 96.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.HIALS. B.HIALS with PAPI. C.PAPI. B X 97. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 98.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 100. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X

1.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 2.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes.

A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 3. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 4. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report A. within 10 days after the deviation. B. after returning home. C. after the flight is completed. C X 5.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 6.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. A X 7.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions A X 8.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 9. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocatingengine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 10.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 11.. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground, it will usually produce . A. layer clouds B. smooth airflow and advection fog C. warm front clouds B X 12.. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway? A.At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. B.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. C.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning.

B X 13.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 14.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 15.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 16.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 17.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X 18.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 19..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 20.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 21.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 22.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds

B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 23.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 24. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 25.The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 26.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 27.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 28.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 29.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 30.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind. B X 31.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only

C X 32.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 33. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.1,800 feet. A X 34. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 35.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 36.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 37.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.1,244 feet. C.900 feet. B X 38.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.FL 10,100 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. B X 39.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to? A.FL158. B.FL148. C.FL168. B X 40.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 41.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X

42.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 43.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 44.Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.headache and fatigue B.a feeling of euphoria C.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 45. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "good" C. braking action is "100%" B X 46.During the flight, a good leader should not A.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. C.involve the team in most decision making processes. A X 47.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 48.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 49. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B X 50.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 51.The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is

A.right B.wrong. A X 52.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 46 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Five C.Three A X 53. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is A.upgrade training. B.transition training. C.initial training. C X 54.As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 55. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A. 250 knots B. 230 knots C. 210 knots B X 56.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 250 knots B. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 57.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase. B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease. C.Rate and radius will increase. A X 58.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 59.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 60.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X

61.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 62.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 63.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 64.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C X 65.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 66.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 67.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.Increase speed for a headwind. B.Increase speed for a tailwind. C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind. A X 68. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 69.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 70.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X

71.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 72.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 73.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 74.The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 75. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 76. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 77.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 78.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is 100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.220m. B.150m. C.160m. A X 79.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 80.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.

B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 81.. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region, which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. visibility and low clouds B. windshear at low altitude C. hail and rainstorm B X 82.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 83.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 84.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 85. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. key to the flight deck door. B. certificate holder's manual. C. flashlight in good working order. C X 86.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red. B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red. C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red. A X 87.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 88.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 89.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 90. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach.

B.At least one full stop landing must be made. C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. B X 91.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X 92.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 93.who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 94.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 95.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours C X 96. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 97.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X 98.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 99.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 100.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke

B. Sand C. Sand storm B X

1.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 2.The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 3. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 4.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 5.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 6.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 7..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 8.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 9.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise

C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. B X 10.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 11.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 12. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 13.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only A.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.In VFR conditions C.In day VFR conditions C X 14.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 15. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV? A.R-175 B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 16.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 17.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 18.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight.

B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 20. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 21.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.300 feet. C.750 feet. B X 22..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 23.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A.They are both the same 31,000feet. B.True altitude is lower than 31,000feet. C.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. B X 24. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 25.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 26.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F1020. B.S1020. C.L1020. B X 27.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots B X 28.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 29. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.

C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 30.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 31.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 32.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 33. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 34.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 35.. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.7 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.28 days ago. A X 36.. An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR. A X 37.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 38.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 39.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.

B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 40.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 41.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 42.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 43.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 44.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 45.The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X 46..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 47. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 48.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.12hours B.10hours C.8hours B X

49.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes. C.8 minutes. A X 50.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Six B.Five C.Two B X 51.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 52.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 53.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU A X 54.What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.Rapid, shallow breathing. B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. C.Dizziness. C X 55. A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument competency check. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made? A.12 months. B.90 days. C.6 months. C X 56..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 57.. (According to figure 6) The position of the upper jet is A. From A to B then to C B. From A to C then to D C. From A to B then to D B X 58. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?

A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 59.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.19hours B.20 hours C.21hours B X 60.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 61.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 62.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 63. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X 64. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 65.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 66.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 67. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X

68.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 69.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from south to north B.from west to east C.from north to south C X 70.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 71..In daily aeronautical weather reports, the code "VCTS" means ____. A. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. C. There are thunderstorms over the airport. A X 72.. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi, which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. C. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. B X 73.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR. C.2.04 EPR. B X 74.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases. A X 75.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4.6% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.690 feet/minute. B.644 feet/minute. C.600 feet/minute. B X 76.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 77. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X

78.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 79.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 80.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2,224 pounds. B.1,987 pounds. C.1,454 pounds. A X 81.. Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. to check the performance of the aircraft; B. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety; C. to achieve or maintain the desired separation. C X 82.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 83.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 84.TCAS I provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 85.. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? A. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft. B. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. C. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices. B X 86.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.Increase the camber of the wing. B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. A X 87.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.

C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 88.. In en route flight, the altimeter setting is A. QNE B. QNH C. QFE A X 89. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 90.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 91.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 92.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 93.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 94. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 95.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 96.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 97.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?

A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 98.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 99.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 100.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X

1.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 2. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X 3.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 4.The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 5.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair"

B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 6.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 7.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 8.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 9.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X 10.In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 11. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X 12..During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. cumulus B. dissipating C. mature B X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.760 feet/minute. B.851 feet/minute. C.699 feet/minute. A X 14.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 15.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions.

A X 16.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.reached the cruising IAS. B.entered VFR weather conditions. C.received an ATC clearance. C X 17. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X 18.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn. C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. A X 19.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 20."The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 21. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B X 22.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 23.Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 24.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X

25. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 26.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 27.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 28.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 29.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 30. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 31.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 32.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 33. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 34. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.

B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 35.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X 36.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 37.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 38.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 39. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV? A.R-175 B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 40. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated? A.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. B X 41. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 42.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 43.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X

44.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG, the heading indicator should indicate A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. B X 45.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X 46.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 47.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 48. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 49.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 50. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 51.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. A X 52. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34.0 HUR to D16.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R, Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower, what frequency should be tuned? A.118.1KHz. B.118.5KHz. C.118.1MHz. C X 53.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor

B X 54.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 55.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 56. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. C X 57.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 58.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 59."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 60..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 61.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X

62.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.17 hours B.24 hours C.25 hours A X 63.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 64. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X 65.The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.strong leadership B X 66.. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.VLE. B.VMO/MMO. C.VLO/MLO. C X 67.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 68.Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(To be continueddrastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 69. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C X 70. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 71.. An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR.

A X 72.During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 73.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 74.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 75.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 76.Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A.Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. B.Increased vision keenness. C.Decreased breathing rate. A X 77.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 78..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 80.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 81.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 82.. If the estimated time of departure is 1400 Beijing Time, pilot should file flight plan at least before A.1330 Beijing Time. B.1300 Beijing Time.

C.1230 Beijing Time. C X 83.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.Four B.Three C.Two B X 84.. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight? A.Higher than at low elevation. B.Lower than at low elevation. C.The same as at low elevation. A X 85.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 86.If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 87.The perception of color is a function of the A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. A X 88.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 89..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 90.An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow A.(To be continuedcan create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach. B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B X 91.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 92.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers A.Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining

B.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3.000 feet from the end C.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end A X 93.Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 94.What affects indicated stall speed? A. Weight, load factor, and power B. Load factor , angle of attack ,and power C. Angle of attack, weight, and airspeed A X 95.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 96.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 97.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 98.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 99.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Notify ATC immediately. B. Squawk 7600. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 100.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X

1. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet

C.2,000 feet A X 2.What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank an altitude? A.The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. B.The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. C.-The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor. C X 3.. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C.An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B X 4..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground C X 5.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority? A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 6.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 7. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 8.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 9.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Compressor discharge. B.Fuel spray nozzles. C.Turbine inlet. C X 10.(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 11.A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong

A X 12.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 13. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 14.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 15.Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 16.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 17. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 18. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 19.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 20.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 21.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP. B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP.

B X 22.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 23.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 24. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 25.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 26.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 27.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124,000 pounds. B.129,500 pounds. C.134,500 pounds. A X 28.Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 29.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 30.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.reached the cruising IAS. B.entered VFR weather conditions. C.received an ATC clearance. C X 31.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 32.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep.

C.add slats C X 33. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 34.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG, the heading indicator should indicate A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. B X 35.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 36.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 37. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 38.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 39.In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload B X 40.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 41. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X

42.What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 43. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 44.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. B X 45. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 46.In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 47.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 48.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. C X 49. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG. C.16.5SM from ILG. B X 50.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. A X 51.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet.

C.755 feet. C X 52.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 250 knots B. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 53.. An ATC "instruction" A.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective. B.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action. C.is the same as an ATC clearance. B X 54.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 55.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 56.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.requiring a pilot to read back. B.keeping flight status. C.requiring a pilot to take specific action. C X 57.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 58. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 59.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 60.Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 61.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds.

B X 62.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 63.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 64.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 65. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 66.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 67.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 68. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 69. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. A X 70.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 71. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance.

C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 72.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 73..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 74.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 75.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 76.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 77.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 78.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 79. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 80. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid? A.60 days. B.90 days. C.120 days. C X 81. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts.

B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X 82.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. the absence of clouds in the area B. an area of no convective turbulence C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 83. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 84.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 85.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 86.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 87.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. B.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. A X 88.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 89.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 90.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning

C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 91.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.Increase speed for a headwind. B.Increase speed for a tailwind. C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind. A X 92.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 93.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 94.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X 95.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 96. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 97. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 98.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 99. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X

100.. A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X

1.In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. A X 2.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 3.If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 4.. A plane, MH 60, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 5.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 6.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 7.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 8.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft

B X 9.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A. ZUUU B. ZHHH C. ZSSS C X 10.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Request a clarification from the ATC. C.Read the clearance back entirely. B X 11.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases. A X 12.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. C X 13. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Cargo and passenger distribution information. B.Copy of the flight plan. C.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. B X 14.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 15.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 16.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 17.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 18.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold.

B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 19. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 20.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 21.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: A.Must be adhered to. B.Does not preclude rejected landing. C.Precludes a rejected landing. B X 22..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 23.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 24.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 25.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 26.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. C X 27. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X

28.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 29.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 31.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. C X 32.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 33.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continuedof an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 34..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 35. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 36.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 37.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator.

A X 38.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(To be continuedincidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 39.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 40.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 41.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 42. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 43.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 44.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is A.blue. B.white. C.green. B X 45.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 46. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 47.As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet

B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 48.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 49.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 50.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 51.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 52.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to? A.FL158. B.FL148. C.FL168. B X 53.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(To be continuedhealth, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 54.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 55.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 56.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X

57. A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument competency check. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made? A.12 months. B.90 days. C.6 months. C X 58.A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 59.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 60."The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 61. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 62.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 63.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 64.. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as. A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility B.stratus, light rain, poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence. B X 65.. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway? A.At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. B.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. C.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning. B X 66. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.2

B.3 C.4 B X 67. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 68.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.VYSE. C.VXSE. B X 69.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 70.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 71.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 72.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 73.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.400 feet. C.850 feet. C X 74.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 75.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 76.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct A. Smoke with overcast B. Strong wind with sand storm C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration

C X 77. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B.At least one full stop landing must be made. C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. B X 78. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B.is not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 79.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 80..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 81. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 82.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. 3 per 1,000 feet. B. 2 per 1,000 feet. C. 4 per 1,000 feet. A X 83.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 84.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 85.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 86.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X

87..What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. B. time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. C. time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length. A X 88. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere. A. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. A X 89.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X 90.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature C.air pressure B X 91.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 92.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Six B.Five C.Two B X 93.Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 94.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 95. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 96.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 97. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.6 B.7 C.12

C X 98. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 99..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 100.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X

1. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. A X 2.Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 3.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 4.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 5.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 6. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is A.upgrade training. B.transition training. C.initial training. C X

7.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 8.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 9.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 10. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 11. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 12.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.19hours B.20 hours C.21hours B X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4.6% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.690 feet/minute. B.644 feet/minute. C.600 feet/minute. B X 14.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 15..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X

16.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 17.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. C X 18.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 20.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 21.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 22.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 23.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X 24.. Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200or NW B. 315or NW C. 135or SE B X 25.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 26. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number.

C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. B X 27.After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.30 minutes B.1 hours C.5 minutes. A X 28.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 29. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.2 NAV? A.1? B.-2? C.-4? C X 30.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continuedof an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 31..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 32. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 33.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 34.Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 35.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 36. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?

A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. A X 37. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 38.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 39.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 40.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. B X 41.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 42."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 43.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 44.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 45.As the CG is moved forward, the stability A.Improves B.Decrease C.dose not change

A X 46. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 47.Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(To be continueddrastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 48.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,000 feet. B.4,300 feet. C.4,500 feet. A X 49.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 50.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 51.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases. A X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes. C.8 minutes. A X 53. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 54. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 55. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X

56.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X 57.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 58.Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.headache and fatigue B.a feeling of euphoria C.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 59.What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.Rapid, shallow breathing. B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. C.Dizziness. C X 60.. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A.VS. B.VS1. C.VSO. B X 61.What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 62.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 63.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 64.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 65.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours.

C.6 hours. C X 66.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 67.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning. A X 68.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 69.The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 70.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 71.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X 72. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 73. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 74.. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.7 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.28 days ago. A X 75.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.

B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 77.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 78.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 80.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 81.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 82.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from south to north B.from west to east C.from north to south C X 83.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 84.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 85.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves

B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 86.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. C X 87..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 88. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 89.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 90. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. The fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. A X 91.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. C X 92. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. key to the flight deck door. B. certificate holder's manual. C. flashlight in good working order. C X 93. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 94.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 95.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m

B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 96.. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities, which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. B.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. C.An area beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. A X 97.A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. C.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. C X 98.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 99.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 100.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X

ATPL08

1. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is A.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. B.not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 2.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 3. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 4.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.121.7MHz.

B.121.9MHz. C.121.7KHz. B X 5. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 6.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 7.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 8.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 9.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 10.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 11.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.300 feet. C.750 feet. B X 12.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 13.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 14.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach

B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 15.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 16.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 17.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 18."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 19. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 20.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above; B X 21. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X 22.A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.(To be continued result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 23.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived

A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B. Position is not affected C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 24.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 25.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z, pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A.122.20MHz. B.8897KHz. C.3016KHz. C X 26.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 27.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 28.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. B X 29.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 30. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 31. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 32. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Cargo and passenger distribution information. B.Copy of the flight plan. C.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. B X 33. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications

B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X 34.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 35. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 36.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is 100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.220m. B.150m. C.160m. A X 37. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 38.The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 39. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 40.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 41.What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank an altitude? A.The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. B.The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. C.-The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor. C X 42.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 43.What affects indicated stall speed? A. Weight, load factor, and power

B. Load factor , angle of attack ,and power C. Angle of attack, weight, and airspeed A X 44. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X 45.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber. B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber. C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber. B X 46. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 47..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 48.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 49.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 50.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 51..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 52.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 53.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front?

A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 54.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 55.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. A X 56.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 57.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 58. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 59..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 60. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 61.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 62..With the increase of temperature, the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. A. remain unchanged B. increase C. reduce B X

63.The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.strong leadership B X 64.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 65.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X 66. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.( an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 67.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 68.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 69.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact B.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 70.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 71.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X

72.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.1,420 pounds, 97 NAM. B.1,440 pounds, 102 NAM. C.1,390 pounds, 92 NAM. A X 73.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 74.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 75.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 76.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 77. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 78.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 80.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from south to north B.from west to east C.from north to south C X 81.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 82.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will

A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C.decrease due to higher density altitude. C X 83.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 84.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 85.As the CG is moved forward, the stability A.Improves B.Decrease C.dose not change A X 86..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 87.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 88.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 89..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 90.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 91.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa.

B X 92.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 93.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X 94.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 95.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.several headache B.reduced visual field C.a feeling of euphoria A X 96.. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.An abrupt change in relative wind. B.A decrease in angle of attack. C.Sudden decrease in load factor. A X 97.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 98.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority? A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 99.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 100.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X

1.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 2..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 3. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 4.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 5.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 6.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent? A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. A X 7.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 8.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP. B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP. B X 9.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X

10. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.destination airport. B.provisional airport. C.alternate airport. B X 11. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 12.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 13.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 14.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 15.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority? A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 16.Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 17.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 18.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X 19. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual

C.International Notices To Airmen A X 20.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 21.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 22. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 23.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X 24.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X 25.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.(to be continued Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 26.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Request a clarification from the ATC. C.Read the clearance back entirely. B X 27.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 28.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 29.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air.

C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. A X 30.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 31.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 32. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.6 B.7 C.12 C X 33.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 34.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 35. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 36."Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 37.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 38.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 39.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.

B X 40.Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. A X 41.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. A X 42. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 43. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 44.The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 45. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 46.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 47.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.122.1MHz B.122.0MHZ C.123.6MHz B X 48.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 49.Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view.

A.(To be continuedThis causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. A X 50.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 51.The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.strong leadership B X 52.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning. A X 53. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 54.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A.After passing the visual descent point (VDP). B.When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. C.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight. C X 55..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 56.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 57. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 58.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X

59.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 60.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Compressor discharge. B.Fuel spray nozzles. C.Turbine inlet. C X 61.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 62.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 63.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X 64.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 65. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C X 66. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 67..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 68. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X

69.The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X 70.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .78 Mach? A.1 hours 08 minutes. B.1 hours 02 minutes. C.1 hours 05 minutes. A X 71..What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. B. time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. C. time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length. A X 72..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 73.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 74.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 75.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 76.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 77.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach. C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach. A X 78.If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X

79.During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 80..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 81. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 82.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 83.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 84.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 85. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 86.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 87.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 88. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A.1360 feet. B.3940 feet. C.3842 feet. C X

89. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 90.A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. C.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. C X 91.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 92.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X 93.Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 94. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 95.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 96.For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. B.varies with the rate of turn. C.is constant C X 97.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 98. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.( an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m.

C X 99.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. C X 100.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X

1.. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A. summer in northern areas. B. spring in northern areas. C. spring in southern areas. B X 2.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 3.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 4.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 5.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 6.An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 7.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.3000m. B.3,600m. C.2,800m. B X 8.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude?

A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X 9.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 10.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end B.Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end C.Alternate red and white lights from3,000 feet to the end of the runway B X 11.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 12.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48 B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48 C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48 A X 13.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A.loss of the vertical component of lift B.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 14.Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 15.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 16. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.3,000 feet C.3,500 feet. B X 17. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights

B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 18.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 19.. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. C X 20.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 21.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 22.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 23.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 24.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 25.If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 26.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4.6% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.690 feet/minute. B.644 feet/minute. C.600 feet/minute. B X 27. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival

at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 28.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 29.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 30.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 31.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 32. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 33.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 34. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 35.The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 36.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using?

A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 37.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 38. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 39.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.2.06 EPR. B.2.07 EPR. C.2.09 EPR. A X 40. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. C X 41. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 42.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 43. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 44.The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 45. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is A.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. B.not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 46.En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57.If the field elevation is 650feet,and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing?

A.585feet B.1.300feet C.Sea level C X 47.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport, A.(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 48. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 49.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X 50.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 51.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continuedof an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 52.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 53.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 54. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 55..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 56.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence?

A. ZUUU B. ZHHH C. ZSSS C X 57.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 58.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 59.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 60.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. C X 61.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 62.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 63.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 64.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 65.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X

66. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 67. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 68.Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. A.(To be continuedThis causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. A X 69.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.1,244 feet. C.900 feet. B X 70.Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 71.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 72.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 73.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 74.. Which altitude is appropriate to the top of Class B airspace? A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. B X 75.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,000 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 113,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 105,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. A X

76.Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 77.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog C X 78. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 79.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 80.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? A.Increase in indicated airspeed. B.Decrease in indicated airspeed. C.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 81.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 82.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A.VIS 1,600m. B.RVR 200m. C.RVR 250m. A X 83. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 84. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C X 85.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 86.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is at

A.D25 to PEK VOR/DME. B.DAWANGZHUANG. C.The point cleared by ATC. B X 87. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 88.who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 89.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 90.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 91..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 92..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 93. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 94.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 95.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.17 hours B.24 hours C.25 hours A X 96.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases.

B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 97.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. Temperature inversion. B. Wind stronger than 15 konts. C. Surface radiation. B X 98.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 99.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 100. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X

1.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 2.. In average, for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will . A. descend 2 B.descend 3 C. descend 4 A X 3.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4,600-foot icy runway? A.128,000 pounds. B.124,000 pounds. C.120,000 pounds. C X 4.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack. B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 5.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?

A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 6.What functions are provided by ILS? A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. B. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. C. Guidance, range, and visual information. C X 7.An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 8.How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators. C.not considered to be part of a rest period. C X 9.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 10.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. B X 11.If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 12.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X 13.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52 B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52 C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52 C X 14.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan?

A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 15.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 16.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 17.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 18. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 19.. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 20.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is 100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.220m. B.150m. C.160m. A X 21.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 22.If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 23.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X

24.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 25. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 26.. Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind B.clear, high wind, good visibility C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility A X 27.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 28.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 29.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 30. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number. C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. B X 31. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C X 32.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X 33.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures.

C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. A X 34.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 35.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 36..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 37. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 38.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.1,625 pounds. B.1,950 pounds. C.2,460 pounds. C X 39.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes. C.8 minutes. A X 41. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 42.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two

A X 43..Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes? A. 0000 through 1000. B. 7200 and 7500 series. C. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series. C X 44..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 45.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 46.who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 47.Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.headache and fatigue B.a feeling of euphoria C.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 48.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 49.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 50.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 51.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 52.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature C.air pressure B X 53.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag.

C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 54.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 55..With the increase of temperature, the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. A. remain unchanged B. increase C. reduce B X 56. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 57.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 58..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 59.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 60.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 61.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 62.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 63.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 64.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability

A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 65.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 66.In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. A X 67.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 68.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X 69.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 70.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.To require a pilot to take a specific action. B.To state some important information. C.To warn the pilot. A X 71. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 72. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 73.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 74..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface

B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 75. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 76. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 77.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 78.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 79.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 80. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 81.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 82.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 83.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X

84.Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have A.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B.White inscriptions on a black background C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 85. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 86.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 87. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B.At least one full stop landing must be made. C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. B X 88.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.RVR 1,000 feet C.RVR 700 feet. C X 89.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 90.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 91.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 92. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 93.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X

94.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU A X 95. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 96.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X 97.. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. A X 98. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 99.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 100.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X

1.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 2.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X

3.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 4. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C X 5.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 6. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG. C.16.5SM from ILG. B X 7.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 8.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A.Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. B.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. C.One light projector with two colors; red and white. B X 9.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 10.What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be A.The same. B.Two times greater. C.Four times greater. C X 11.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct A. Smoke with overcast B. Strong wind with sand storm C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 12.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X

13.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 14.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 15.. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are . A.nimbostratus B.cumulonimbus C.altostratus. B X 16.If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 17.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 18. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated? A.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. B X 19. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C X 20.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,850 feet. C.153 knots and 3,450 feet. C X 21.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X

22.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 23. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 24.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 25.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 26.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 27.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 28.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 29.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 30. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 31..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 32.In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X

33.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 34.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 35.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 37.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 38.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. B X 39. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A.100 feet AGL. B.150 feet AGL. C.200 feet AGL. B X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 41.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X

42. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.127.6MHz. B.127.6KHz. C.114.7MHz. A X 43.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.5 hours 3 minutes. B.5 hours 20 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. A X 44.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes, 118 NAM. B.26 minutes, 125 NAM. C.25 minutes, 118 NAM. B X 45.What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 46. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 47. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 48.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 49.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 50.Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(To be continuedefficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 51..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X

52. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 53.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. B X 54.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature C.air pressure B X 55.The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 56.. A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 57.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 58.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 59. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 60. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is A.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. B.not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X

61. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 62.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 63.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 64.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 65.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 66.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 67.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 68.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 69. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit. B X 70. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release.

C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C X 71.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 72. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 73.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 74.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 75.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 76. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 77.Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 78. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 79.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X

80..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 81. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet. B X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X 83.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack. B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 84.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 85.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.12hours B.10hours C.8hours B X 86.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 87..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 88. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 89.The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 90.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine?

A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 91..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 92.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions A X 93.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52 B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52 C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52 C X 94.The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 95.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 96.Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. high personal attention and high task orientation B.medium personal attention and high task orientation C.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X 97.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A.After passing the visual descent point (VDP). B.When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. C.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight. C X 98.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 99..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 100.. Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200or NW B. 315or NW C. 135or SE

B X

1. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 2.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 3.Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 4.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 5.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. Temperature inversion. B. Wind stronger than 15 konts. C. Surface radiation. B X 6.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 7. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 8.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 9.The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration take off is known as A.inversion illusion.

B.autokinesis. C.somatogravic illusion. C X 10.The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 11.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 12.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 13.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124,000 pounds. B.129,500 pounds. C.134,500 pounds. A X 14.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 15..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 16. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 17.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 18.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet.

A X 19. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet. B X 20.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 21.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 22.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 23.. Which altitude is appropriate to the top of Class B airspace? A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. B X 24. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 25.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 26.The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 27. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X 28.For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. B.varies with the rate of turn. C.is constant C X

29.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 30.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 31.. On the weather chart of ground, the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. A.front B.low pressure center C.shear line A X 32.Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. high personal attention and high task orientation B.medium personal attention and high task orientation C.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X 33. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 34.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 35.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 36.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 37.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres A X 38.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 39. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour.

B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 40.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 41.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 42.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 43.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 44.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. B X 45.. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. B. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. C. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. B X 46.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 47.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 48.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace?

A.Approach Control Regulation. B.Visual Flight Regulation. C.Instrument Control Regulation. C X 49.What are the indications of the pulsating VASI? A.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-green, low-pulsing red. B.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-steady white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low-pulsing red. C.High-pulsing white, on course and on glidepath-steady white, off course but on glidepath-pulsing white and red; low-pulsing red. B X 50.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 51.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 52.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 53.. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway? A.At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. B.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. C.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning. B X 54.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 55.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X 56.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 57.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X

58. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 59.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 60..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 61.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 62.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 63.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.35,000 pounds. B.32,600 pounds. C.30,200 pounds. B X 64.The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 65.Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 66.In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as A.somatogravic illusion. B.ground lighting illusion. C.autokinesis. C X 67.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized.

A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 68.Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 69.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 70.In small airplanes, normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. B.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. C.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. C X 71.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 72..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 73.Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 74.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 75.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 76."Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 77.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear.

C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 78.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 79.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 80.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.G. B.S. C.R. B X 81.Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 83.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only A.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.In VFR conditions C.In day VFR conditions C X 84.The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X 85.During the flight, a good leader should not A.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. C.involve the team in most decision making processes. A X 86.person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours.

A X 87. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 88.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 89.In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 90.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,150 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 91. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 92.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 93.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 94. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 95. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 96.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes, 118 NAM.

B.26 minutes, 125 NAM. C.25 minutes, 118 NAM. B X 97.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 98.. If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency, who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport? A. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft. B. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft. C. no one have the responsibility during emergency situation. B X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 100.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X

1.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator C.Outer compass locator. B X 2.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Severe turbulence, moderate icing, rain shower, thunderstorms B. Moderate turbulence, severe icing, freezing precipitation, severe clear air turbulence C. Moderate turbulence, moderate icing, rain, severe clear air turbulence C X 3.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 60 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs B X 4.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.

C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 5. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 6. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 7.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 8.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 9.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach. C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach. A X 10.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 11."Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 12.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.19hours B.20 hours C.21hours B X 13.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 14.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of

A.40 kilometers. B.50 kilometers. C.46 kilometers. B X 15. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 16. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 17.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 18. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 19. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 20. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 21.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 22.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A.YV. B.WF. C.DK. A X 23.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 24.. Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited?

A. 3,000 meters. B. 3,600 meters. C. 6,000 meters. A X 25.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing? A. ZSSS B. ZUUU C. ZHHH B X 26.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 27.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 28.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 29.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 30.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. B X 31.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.G. B.S. C.R. B X 32. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 33. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number. C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. B X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes.

B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 35.. If the estimated time of departure is 1400 Beijing Time, pilot should file flight plan at least before A.1330 Beijing Time. B.1300 Beijing Time. C.1230 Beijing Time. C X 36..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 37.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 38.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 39.Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 40..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 41.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 42.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 43.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 44.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1?

A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR. C.2.04 EPR. B X 45.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.RVR 1,000 feet C.RVR 700 feet. C X 46.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 47.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 48.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 49.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.122.1MHz B.122.0MHZ C.123.6MHz B X 50. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Cargo and passenger distribution information. B.Copy of the flight plan. C.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. B X 51.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 52..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 53.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 54.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: A.Must be adhered to. B.Does not preclude rejected landing. C.Precludes a rejected landing. B X

55.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.143 knots. B.144 knots. C.145 knots. A X 56.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 57.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU. B.VMD. C.VFC. A X 58.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 59.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 60.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 61.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 62.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 63. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 64. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X

65..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 66.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X 67.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 68.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 69. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 70.As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 71..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 72.The perception of color is a function of the A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. A X 73.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 74.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A.Immediately after ground contact.

B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 75. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 76.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 77.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 78. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 79.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 80.person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 81.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 82.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 83. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C X

84.After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.30 minutes B.1 hours C.5 minutes. A X 85.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 86. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV? A.5.0NM B.7.5NM C.10.0NM A X 87. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B X 88.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 89.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 90. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.6 B.7 C.12 C X 91.. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? A.Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. B.Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. C.Reduction of all performance by 50 percent. B X 92.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 93.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X

94.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 95. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 96.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 97.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 98.What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. C X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 100. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34.0 HUR to D16.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R, Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower, what frequency should be tuned? A.118.1KHz. B.118.5KHz. C.118.1MHz. C X

1.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 2.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 3.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 4.. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere, the wind of low pressure area is . A. clockwise inbound wind B.counter clockwise outbound wind C.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 5.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 6. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 7..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 8.In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 9.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 10.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 11.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red. B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red. C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red. A X

12. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 14.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 15. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 16.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C X 17.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 18.Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 19. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. A X 20.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 21. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3

A X 22.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 23.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.5 hours 3 minutes. B.5 hours 20 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. A X 24. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 25.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 26.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. A X 27. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 28.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 29. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 30.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 31. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 32.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport.

C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 33.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning. A X 34. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 35.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.40 kilometers. B.50 kilometers. C.46 kilometers. B X 36.Night vision is enhanced by A.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. C.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 37. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 38.As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 39.. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. C X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 41. Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 42.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet.

B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 43..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 44.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 45.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.(to be continued Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 46.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A.After passing the visual descent point (VDP). B.When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. C.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight. C X 47.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 48. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 49. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 50.In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload B X 51. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354

C X 52.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 53.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 54.. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. A X 55..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 56.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 57.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.17 hours B.24 hours C.25 hours A X 58.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 59..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 60. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 61.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea.

B X 62.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 63.. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A. summer in northern areas. B. spring in northern areas. C. spring in southern areas. B X 64. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 65.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct A. Smoke with overcast B. Strong wind with sand storm C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 66.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 67.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X 68.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 69. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A.2005Z. B.1905Z. C.0005Z. C X 70..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 71.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction.

C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 72.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 73.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.10 hours B.14 hours C.16 hours A X 74.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute B X 75.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 77.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A.They are both the same 31,000feet. B.True altitude is lower than 31,000feet. C.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. B X 78. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 79.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 80.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 250 knots B. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 81.. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol A.V2min .

B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 82.Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 83.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 84.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 85. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X 86."The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 87.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. C X 88. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV? A.5.0NM B.7.5NM C.10.0NM A X 89.Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC C.A and B C X 90.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 91.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?

A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 92. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 93.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 94.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 95.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X 96.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 97.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.Sluggish in aileron control. B.Sluggish in rudder control C.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 98.. If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency, who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport? A. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft. B. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft. C. no one have the responsibility during emergency situation. B X 99.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 100.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X

1.. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocatingengine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. B.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. C.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B X 2.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 3. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 4."Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 5.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. A X 6.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 7.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X 8.Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 9.The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances.

C X 10. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 11. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 12..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 13. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. A X 14.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar year, for no more than A.800hours B.900 hours C.1000hours C X 15. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X 16.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 17. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X 18.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 20.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?

A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind. B X 21.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 22. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 23.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 24.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.1,244 feet. C.900 feet. B X 25. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet C X 26. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 27.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 28.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa. B X 29.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 30.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C X

31.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 32.Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 33. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.( an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 34. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 35.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A.VIS 1,600m. B.RVR 200m. C.RVR 250m. A X 36.. In en route flight, the altimeter setting is A. QNE B. QNH C. QFE A X 37. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan. C X 38.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.17 hours B.24 hours C.25 hours A X 39..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 40. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Director of operations or flight follower. C.Pilot in command.

C X 41.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 42. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. The fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. A X 43. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 44. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 45.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 46.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 47. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A.certificate holder's operations specifications. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 48. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 49.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours

B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 50. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 51.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 52.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 53.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 54.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. A X 55. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 56.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 57.Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts.

B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 58.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 59.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. B X 60.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 61.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 62. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit. B X 63. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 64.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 65.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 66. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.

A X 67.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A.a third-class medical certificate. B.a second-class medical certificate. C.a first-class medical certificate. C X 68.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 69.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 70.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 71. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 72. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 73. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 74.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 75.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(To be continuedincidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 76.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF.

B X 77. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 78.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 79.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 80.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 81.Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 82.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 83. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 84.What are the indications of the pulsating VASI? A.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-green, low-pulsing red. B.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-steady white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low-pulsing red. C.High-pulsing white, on course and on glidepath-steady white, off course but on glidepath-pulsing white and red; low-pulsing red. B X 85. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 86.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 87.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet. B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 88.. A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 89.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. A.the change of sun radiation B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.the movement of the weather system B X 90. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A.11.7NM from PEK. B.11.7KM from PEK. C.11.7SM from PEK. A X 91. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 92.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A.Approach Control Regulation. B.Visual Flight Regulation. C.Instrument Control Regulation. C X 93.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 94.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 95.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. A X 96.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms.

B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 97.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 98.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 99.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X 100.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X

1.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 2.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 3.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 4.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X

5. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 6.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 7..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 8. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 9.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.several headache B.reduced visual field C.a feeling of euphoria A X 10.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.Increase speed for a headwind. B.Increase speed for a tailwind. C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind. A X 11.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 12.. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A.VS. B.VS1. C.VSO. B X 13.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X

14.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 15.When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 16.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 17.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip. C X 18.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 19. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 20.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 21.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 22. Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 23.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 24..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.

B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 25.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 26.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 27.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 28.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 29.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 30. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 31.Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. A.(To be continuedThis causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. A X 32.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 33.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 5,400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.117,500 pounds. B.136,500 pounds. C.140,500 pounds. B X

34. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 35.Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC C.A and B C X 36. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "good" C. braking action is "100%" B X 37.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,000 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 113,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 105,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. A X 38.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 39.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 40.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 41.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 42..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 43. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.

B X 44.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 45. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 46..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 47.Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 48.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 49.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 50.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 51.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 52.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact B.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 53..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object.

C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 54.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 55.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71,000,DISTANCE (NM): 200,WIND COMPONENT: 30TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.34 minutes. B.55 minutes. C.57 minutes. C X 56. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.destination airport. B.provisional airport. C.alternate airport. B X 57.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to? A.FL158. B.FL148. C.FL168. B X 58. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 59.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 60. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 61.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 62.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 63.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power.

B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 64.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 65. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 66.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 67.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 68. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.( What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95mVIS1600 B.DH65mRVR600 C.DH65mRVR550 B X 69.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 70.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 71.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet.

C.755 feet. C X 72. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet C X 73.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 74.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 75.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 76.Night vision is enhanced by A.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. C.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 77.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 78. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 79. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 80.Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 81.The symptoms of hyperventilation are A.quite different to those of hypoxia B.quite similar to those of hypoxia C.profuse sweating B X

82.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 83.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 84.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 85. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 86.Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 87.The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 88.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C.decrease due to higher density altitude. C X 89.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 90.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 91.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 92.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots.

B X 93. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 94.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. the absence of clouds in the area B. an area of no convective turbulence C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 95.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 96.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.308 feet. B.193 feet. C.200 feet. B X 97.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 98.. In en route flight, the altimeter setting is A. QNE B. QNH C. QFE A X 99.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 100.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X