booker cove [A | 1. Separate Optical Mark Reader (OMR) Answer Sheet is supplied to you along with this Question | Paper Booklet 2, THE QUESTION PAPER CONSISTS OF PART A AND PART B WITH 120 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS. THIS MAY BE VERIFIED FIRST AND IN CASE OF ANY DISCREPANCY IN THE QUESTION PAPER BOOKLET, PLEASE ASK THE INVIGILATOR FOR REPLACEMENT. CANDIDATES SHALL NOTE THAT THEY WILL NOT BE GIVEN A SECOND BLANK OMR ANSWER SHEET | UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCE. HENCE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHALLBE HANDLED CAREFULLY. ALL QUESTIONS ARE TO BE ANSWERED AND THERE IS NO CHOI EACH QUESTION CARRIES ONE MARK. 3. Use only black/blue ball point pen for filling the Question Paper Booklet SI. No. and Booklet Code (A, B, C or D) in SectionI of OMR Answer Sheet. Do not write Hall Ticket Number anywhere. 4. Use only Black/Blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circles corresponding to Booklet Code etc. in Section-II of OMR Answer Sheet 5. Darken the appropriate circles of 1, 2, 3 or 4 in the OMR Answer Sheet corresponding to the correct answer to the concemed Question Number with Blue/Black ball point Pen only. Darkening of more than one against any question automatically gets invalidated. You should not use 10. INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Duration of Test: 2.30 p.m. to 4.00 p.m. Maximum Marks: 120 Licks, crosses ete. in the circle, Follow the instructions given on the OMR Answer Sheet. ‘The script will not be valued if the candidate: (Writes Hall Ticket No. in any other place of OMR Answer Sheet. (ii) Writes irrelevant matter, including religious symbols, prayers or any communication whatsoever, in any place of OMR Answer Sheet (iii) Adopts any method of malpractice. (iv) Uses other than Blue/Black ball point pen for darkening the circles, Rough work should be done only in the space provided for this purpose in the Question Paper Booklet at the end. No loose sheet of paper or electronic gadget will be allowed into the Examination Hall Once the candidate enters the Examination Hall, he/ she shall not be permitted to leave the Hall till the end of Examination Ensure that Invigilator puts his/her signature in the space provided on Question Paper Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. Candidate should sign in the space provided on the OMR Answer sheet and Question Paper Booklet, The candidate should write the Question Paper Booklet No., and OMR Answer Sheet No., and sign in the space provided in the Nominal Rolls, . Return the OMR Answer Sheet and the upper portion of this page upto perforation to the Invigilator after the Examination,3 9-BHADRADRI-S2-2015 Part-A ._ Imperative theory of law is proposed by: (1) Austin (2) Pollock 3) Hibbert (4) Salmond . “Tt is an ability on the part of a person to produce a change in a given legal relation by doing or not doing a given act.” This statement is related to: () Right (2) Ownership 3) Duty (4) Power . The Distinction between vested interest and contingent interest is pointed out by the Calcutta High Court in: (1) Sashikantha y, Pramodachandra (2) Hannah v Peel (3) Bridges v Hawkesworth (4) Merry v Green . What are the two important elements of Possession among the following? (1) Interest and Desire (2) Possession in Law and Possession in Fact (3) Corpus of Possession and animus (4) None of the above . A person is held responsible irrespective of the existence of either wrongful intent or negligence. Such cases are known as the wrongs of (1) Vicarious liability (2) Penal Liability (3) Remedial liability (4) Absolute liability “Right is legal protected interest” said by (1) Irving (2) Duguit (3). Starke (4) Salmond . Legislation has its source in: (1) Practice (2) Theory (3) Custom ) Precedent ([PT.O 9-BHADRADRL-S210. ML. 12, 13. 14, 15, 16. 17. 4 Who is called as “Father of jurisprudence’? (1) Austin (2) Salmond (3) Savigny (4) Bentham Expositorial approach is: (1) Commiand of sovereign (2) Morality of Law @) Positive Law (4) Natural Law Several persons may possess the thing in common, just as they may own it in common. This is the possession of: (1) Immediate 2) Mediate 3) Co-owners () Corporeal ownership What are the “Transitory Rights"? (1). Rights which can be owned, but are not capable of being possessed. (2) Aggregate of rights (3) Right of reputation (4). Right to service ‘Taking delivery and operation of Law are the three modes of acquiring: (1) Ownership (2) Possession (3) Contract (4) Agreement A debtor is under obligation to pay off his creditor. This is a: (1) Negative duty (2) Primary duty (3) Secondary duty (4) Positive duty Rights may be legal or natural right: (1) Bentham (2) Pollock @) Henry Maine (4) Salmond This type of Law consist of rules for the attainment of certain ends: (1) Customary law (2) Practical Law (3) International Law (4) Conventional law ‘This theory says that realities are the sovereign and the individual. The other groups cannot claim recognition as persons. (1) Bracket theory (2) Realistic theory (3) Fiction theory (4) Concession theory Idol in the temple is a person decided by the privy council in: (1) Rea Dean, Cooper Dean v. Stevens (2) William v. Williams (3) Pramatha Nath Mullick v. Pradyumna Kumar Mullick (4) Fanton v. Denville 9-BHADRADRI-S218. 19, 20. 2 22. 23. 24, 26. A 5 Which one of the following maxims says that "One who is to be born is deemed to have been born"? (1) De mortuis nisi nil. (2) Nasciturus pro jam nato hobetur. (3) Hominum causa omme jus constitutum. (4) Extra legem posits est civiliter rortuus, There is actual transfer of possession or document of title to goods. But there is no transfer of legal ‘ownership is: (1) Power ofsale (2) Power of forfeiture (3) Lien (4) Pledge From the constitution of which country the Colle ive Responsibility of cabinet system was adopted? (2) British (2) Irish (3) France (4) Germany Disputes between States in India come to Supreme Court under: (1). Appellate Jurisdiction (2). Original Jurisdiction @) Advisory Jurisdiction (4) None of the above The Election laws Amendment Act came into force on: () 6-8-1975 (2) 18-6-1975 (3) 03-10-1975" 4) 05-11-1975 Centre, State and Local Self Government, the three tier Government system has been established through. (1) 72nd Constitution Amendment Act (2). 74th Constitution Amendment Act (3). 46th, 47th Constitution Amendment Act (4) 73rd, 74th Constitution Amendment Act ‘Who is the author of the book “The Republic of India’? (1) Savigny (2) Alan Gledhill (3) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (4) Bentham Concurrent List was drawn from: (1) American Constitution (2) Germany Constitution (3) Australian Constitution (4) Soviet Constitution ‘Through 42nd Amendment which word was inserted in the Preamble to the Constitution: (1) Equality Q) Fraternity 8) Democratic (4) Secular [PTO 9-BHADRADRI-S221. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. ‘The powers of President are: (i) Treaty making power (ii) Diplomatic power (iii) Administrative power. (iv) Military power @) @), Gi) (2) Gi), Gi (3) @), Gv) (4) @, Gi), Gi), (iv). After which one of the following Supreme Court decision, the special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes introduced by an amendment in the constitution? (1) Balaji v. State of Mysore (2) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (3) Devadasan v. Union of India (4) Periakaruppan y. State of Tamil Nadu "The State of Jammn & Kashmir has separate Constitutional status, laws passed by Indian Parliament apply to Jammu & Kashmir if they are accepted by Jammu & Kashmir legislature” is given in: (1) Article 375 (2) Article 370 (3) Article 368 (4) Article 294 Defence, Foreign relations, Citizenship and Banking are the important subjects in the: (1) State List (2) Union List (3) Concurrent List (4) Fundamental Rights Which of the following amendments declared that the “Possession of Private property is not a Fundamental Right"? (1) 42nd Amendment (2) 50th Amendment (3) 44th Amendment (4) 47th Amendment Enemy alien can be imprisoned without trial is mentioned in which of the following Article: (Q) Article 22(5) 2) Article 22(3) (3) Article 22(6) (4) Article 22(4) Inwhich of the following cases Chief Justice Subba Rao was first to evolve the Doctrine of Prospective overruling? (2) Golaknath v State of Punjab (2) Sajjan Singh v State of Rajasthan (3) Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala (4) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India 9-BHADRADRI-S2A 7 34. A Writ issued to an inferior court or a tribunal on the ground of exceeding its jurisdiction or acting country to the rules of natural justice, itis called a writ of: (1) Certiorari (2) Mandamus (3) Quo Warranto (4) Habeas Corpus 35. On the recommendation of which committee, the Fundamental Duties were added in the Constitution? (1) Sarkaria Committee (2) Muddiman Committee (3) Butler Committee (4) Swaran Singh Committee 36. Constitutional Reforms of 1919 traced to the origin of (1) Committee system (2) Commission system (3). Federal system with strong centre (4) All the above 37. In which year the “Indian Citizenship Act’ was passed? () 1955 2) 1930 3) 1947 (4) 1949 38. Dr. Ambedkar described which of the following is the novel feature of Constitution: (1) Preamble (2) Fundamental Rights (3) Fundamental Duties (A) Directive Principle of State Policy 39. India, the Bharat is mentioned in the following Article: (1) Preamble Q) Article 2 @) Article 1 (4) Article 4 40. Opinio juris sine necessitatis means: (2) Jurists opinion regarding existence of along practice is a necessary requirement for a valid custom. (2) The practice is recognized as obligatory and there is a conviction that its repetition is the result of a compulsory rule. (3) Jurists opinion is that states are required necessarily to follow the practice. (4) The alleged practice must be proved by satisfactory evidence before juristic tribunals. [PTO 9-BHADRADRI-S241. 42. 43. 45, 46. Part-B Consider the following statements: (1) A treaty rule can become custom and a customary rule can lead to a treaty. (2) A treaty to become customary law for non-party state should create mandatory norms for party states. (3) A treaty cannot create customary law for nations which have refrained from ratifying it. Which of the above statements are correct? (1) Lonly (2) 2and3 (3) Land2 (4) 1,2and3 For recognition of belligerency, (1) Hostilities must be general (2) Rebels must have organized force (3) Rebels should be having control over substantial part of national territory. Which of the above are correct? (1) 1&2 2) 2&3 @) 1&3 4) 12,3 ‘A decision of the International Court of Justice has a binding effect on: (1) Parties alone in the particular case (2) The states in similar situations (3) National courts in similar circumstances (4) Interveners who were not original parties in the particular case British India was sueceeded by the Dominion of India and Dominion of Pakistan. This succession is known (1) Partial succession (2) Universal succession (3) Territorial succession (4) Division of Territory ‘The right of self defence provided in the U.N. Charter is subject to the judgement of the: (1). General Assembly (2) Security Council (3) International Court of Justice (4) Secretary General of the U.N. ‘The General Assembly of the U.N. passed Unity for Peace Resolution on: (1) November 10, 1950 (2) November 3, 1950 (3) July 20, 1963 (4) October 24, 1945 9-BHADRADRI-S241. 48. 49, 50, Sl. 52. 53. A 9 In the case of abstention of permanent member of the Security Council from voting, the Security Council: (1) Becomes invalid (2). Still remains valid (3) Remains valid but non-enforceable (4) Requires to be considered by the General Assembly ‘When a State fulfils the qualifications prescribed for acquiring statehood, it becomes an International person. No recognition is necessary for this purpose. This was laid down in the: (1) Vienna Convention, 1815 (2) Hague Convention 1907 (3) Montevideo Convention, 1933 (4) Charter of the United Nations Organisation 1945 The principle of resjudicata was applied by the International Court of Justice in a case: (1) Southwest African case (2) Mavrommatis Palestine concessions case (3) Serbian loans case (4) Chozow factory indemnity case ‘The Rann of Kutchch dispute was settled by: (1) The International Council (2) The Security Councit (3) Mediation by the Soviet Union (4) International Arbitration Monism denotes that the International Law and State law are: (D)_ Represent two entirely distinct legal system (2) Are concomitant aspects of the one system (3) Are not enforceable (4) Are not binding The Latin American concept of “uti possidetis juris” is related to succession to: (1) State property (2) State archives (3) Public debt (4) Foriner colonial orders In which of the following case it was observed"that recognition was not necessary for a state to acquire international personality? (1) Tinoco Arbitration (2) Kutch Arbitration (3) Palmas Arbitration (4) Albama Arbitration [PT.O 9-BHADRADRI-S254, 55. 56. 37. 58. 59. 61. 62. A 10 ‘The United Nation Commission on Human Rights was established.by the: (1) Secretariat (2) General Assembly (3) SecurityCouncil (4) ‘None of the above According to the Italian Jurist Anzilloti a positivist, the binding force of International Law is founded on the Supreme principle of: (1) Jus cogens (2). Rebus sig stantibus (3) Paeta sunt servanda (4) Quid pro quo “Every Law is gift of God and a decision of sages" said by: (1) Demosthenes (2). Dicey (3) Stone (4) Austin Where was the Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted? (1) Germany (2) France 3) Geneva (4) Italy ‘The juristic concept of contract consists of (1) Free consent and capacity (2) Offer and acceptance (3) Consideration and lawful object (4) Agreement and obligation Which of the following is prescribed by the maxim ex nudo pacto non oritur actio? (1). Doctrine of privity of contract (2) Doctrine of implied term (3) Doctrine of consideration (4) None of the above A, a married woman, agreed to live in adultery with B and also agreed to serve him as his house keeper. In return, B agreed to pay A Rs. 500 p.m. for living in adultery and Rs. 500 p.m.for housekeeping. The agreement is (1) Valid (2) Void as to the first object but valid with respect to the second object 3) Void (4) Unlawful being opposed to public policy. What is an agreement to discover a treasure by magic? (1). Valid contract as it is voluntarily concluded (2). Void contract as itis impossible of performance (3) Voidable contract as it amounts to misrepresentation, (4) Unenforceable contract as it is against notions of public policy. In case of anticipatory breach of contract, an aggrieved party: (1) Cannot claim any remedy as performance is still executor. (2) May wait tll the date of performance. (3) Does not have the right to terminate the contract, (4) Has the right to claim performance at any time. 9-BHADRADRI-S263. 67. i The decision is Mohori Bibi v Dharmdas Ghose was related to the: (1) Offer and its communication (2), Acceptance and its communication (3) Undue influence (4) Capacity of minor to enter into contract. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (1) Oral acceptance is a valid acceptance. (2) Acceptance must be in writing. (3) Acceptance ntust be communicated. (4) Acceptance must be in the prescribed manner. Ifa sum fixed represents a genuine pre-estimate of the probable that is likely to result from the breach is: (2) Liquidated damage (2) Penalty (3) Special damage (4) General damages. The display of articles in a showroom indicating their prices amounts to: () Offer (2) Counter-offer (3) Invitation to an offer (4) Mere advertisement ‘Match list I with list IT (Rule laid down) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list: List I List I (Case) (Rule laid down) Ramsgate Victoria | I Acceptance complete when letter oF AJ Hotel Co. vs acceptance posted Montiflora B.| Tinn vs Hoffimann | 2 [Cross offers do not create contract C.| Household Fire 3 | Communication of offer cannot be Insurance Co vs. Grant] | waived DJ Fitch vs. Snedaker [4 | Unreasonable delay in accepting offer| causes it to lapse (2 as 1 Q 2 1 od GB) 3 Heed 2 @ 3 4 1 2 IPT.O 9-BHADRADRI-S268. 69, 70. 1. n. 7A, 15. A 12 If the Parties to a contract agree to substitute a new contract for it, or to rescind or alter it, the original contract need not be performed. "The above passage relates to: (1) Substitute for a contractual party. (2) The effect of novation, recission and alternation of contract. (3) Unilateral alteration of a contract. (4) A substitute contract without consideration. Accounter offer is: (1) An invitation to treat (2) Amacceptance of the offer (3) rejection of the original offer (4) Abargain If the performance of contract becomes impossible because the subject matter of contract has ceased to exist, then: (1) Both the parties are liable. (2) Neither party is liable. (3) Only offerer is liable. (4) Only acceptor is liable. The juridical basis of quasi contractual obligation can be explained through the theory of: (1) Indebitatus assumpsit. (2) Unjust enrichment. (3) Just and reasonable solution. (4) Voluntary benefits. A contract without consideration is void. There are exceptions which one of the following exceptions is correct? (1) Nearness of relationship (2) Natural love and affection (3) Promise to pay time-barred debt (4) To create an agency . The contract uberrimae fidei means a contract: (1) Of goodwill (2) Guaranteed by a surety (3) Of utmost good faith (4) Of good faith Under what circumstances the gratuity of an employee can be forfeited: (1) Wilful omission or negligence (2) Termination of riotous or disorderly conduct (3) Offence involving moral turpitude (4) Allof the above. How many minimum number of workers are to be employed for provisions of a canteen as per the provisions of the Factories Act 1948? (1) 100 (2) 250 (3) 600 (4) 1000 9-BHADRADRI-S216. 71. 78. 79. 80. 81 82. A 1B In which of the following cases Supreme Court distinguished the difference between lockout and closure? (1) General Labour Union vs. B.V, Chavan (2) Express Newspaper Limited vs Their Workmen (3) Punjab National Bank Vs Their Workmen (4) Bhagath Sugar Mills Vs Jai Singh. If any article is stored in a cold storage, is it considered as a Manufacturing Process under thé Act? (1) Correct (2) Not correct (3) Partly correct (4) None of the above As per the Factories Act 1948, a person who has not completed his 15th year of age is a: () Adolescent (2) Teenager (3) Child 4) Adutt Gratuity is paid to the employee for every completed year of service or part thereof in excess of six ‘months at the rate of 15.days wages based on last drawn wages by the employee. While calculating the 15 day's wages, the number of working days in a month are taken as a) 30 (2) 31 @) 15 (4) 26 Job Evaluation is a technique which aims at: (1) Establishing fair and equitable pay structure. (2) Analysing of requirement of updating technology. (3) Assessing safety requirement of jobs. (4) Improving productivity. Which act provides for the provision of Medical Benefit to the insured employees? (1). Workmen's Compensation Act 1923 (2) Employee's State Insurance Act 1948 (3) Maternity Benefit Act 1961 (4) Contract Labour Act 1970 Prior permission of the Government is required for retrenchment in an industry where the number of workmen employed is: (1) More than 50 (2) More than 100 (3) More than 150 (4) None of the above PTO 9-BHADRADRI-S283, 85. 86. 87. 14 No person shall go on strike in breach of contract: (1) Without giving notice of strike to the employer (2) Within 20 days of giving notice of strike to the employer (3) During the pendency of any conciliation proceedings and within 3 days after the conclusion of conciliation proceedings. (4) All the above In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the benefit of running allowance had to be taken into consideration for computing pension only once, at the time of retirement of the employee, not for any future calculation? (1) U.O.1vs Dhingara and others (2008) I LLI 867 (SC) (2) Bennet Coleman & Co. vs Punya Priyadas AIR 1970 SC 426 (3) State Bank of Patiala vs Phoolpati 2005 II LLJ 473 SC (4) Pearlite Lines Pvt. Ltd., vs. Manorama Sirse 2004 I LLJ 1041 SC Which of the following amounting to Industrial Dispute? (1) Any dispute between Employers and Employees. (2) Between Employers and Workmen. (3) Between Workmen and Workmen. (4) All these. Retrenchment does not include: (1) Voluntary retirement. (2) Retirement on reaching the age of supefannuation, (3). Termination of services as a result of the non-renewal of contract of employment. (4) All the above. ‘Which rights remain unaffected, during the pendency of a proceeding before a court of inquiry under sections 22, 23,33 of the ID act, 1947? (1) Workmen to go on strike. (2) The rights of Employer to dismiss or to punish the workmen, (3) Employer to lock-out his business. (4) All the above. 9-BHADRADRI-S288. 91. 92. 93. 94, 95. A 15 In which of she follewing cases the Supreme Court had held that the medical representative is not workman? (J) Standard Vacuum Oil Company vs Commissioner of Labour (2) Anand Bazaar Patrika vs. Its Workment (3) Workmen vs Greaves Cotton & Co. (4) J&J Dechane vs State of Kerala Which of the following statements are true? (1) Allemployees are workmen. (Il) All employees are not workmen. (IID) All workmen are employees. (IV) All managerial staff are workmen, Codes: (2) Land It (2) Wand I (3) Mand Iv (4) Tand HIT. AA building was created by the defendant who caused diminution of light to two ground floor windows of the plaintiff's house. Subsequently electric lights were always needed in the place. An action for damages can be brought on the ground, (1) Public nuisance (2) Private nuisance (3) Negligence (4). Strict liability Which one of the following is not a valid defence in Torts? ()_ Volenti non fit injuria Q) Vis major (3) Scienti non fit injuria (4) Consent ‘Two or more persons can be made joint tort-feasors, they have: (1) Acommon design. (2) Acommon victim (3) Same intention (4) Similar intention Ubi jus ibi remedium means: (1) Every law provides for remedies (2) Ifa law is made corresponding remedy also must be made (3) There is no wrong without remedy. (4) Every remedy presupposes some injury to somebody. ‘The essential character of torts is violation of: (1) Right in personam (2) Acontractual right (3) Right in rem (4) None of the above Liability in tort depends upon: (1) Infringement of legal right (2) Effect on public interest (3) Quantum of damages suffered (4) Involvement of intention [PTO 9-BHADRADRI-S216 96. The absolute theory as the basis for liability in tort for industrial injuries was propounded by: (Y) Blackburn J. (2) VIR. Krishna Iyer J. (3) Lord Atkin (4) PN Bhagwati C.J. 97. X and Y are on morning walk with their dogs. Y's dog is ferocious. Z is also on a morning walk. The dogs of X & Y suddenly start fighting and approach Z. Freightened by the dogs, Z tries to step aside and is injured in the process. Consequently: (2) Zcan file a suit only against X along as his dog started the fight. (2) Zcan file a suit only against Y as his dog was more ferocious. (3) Zcan file a suit either against Y or against X. (4) Zcannot file as it against either X or Y. 98. Mental condition of the wrong-doer at the time of wrong-doing is: (1). Relevant in all torts +2). Relevant in torts based on fault (3). Relevant in torts based on strict liability. (4) Not relevant in tortuous liability. 99. The rule laid down in Re Polemis case is that the defendant shall be liable for all: (1). Direct consequences of his act. (2) Direct consequences of his act, if he could foresee some damage to the plaintiff from his act. (3) Direct consequences of his act, only if he could foresee the kind of damage which has actually occurred. (4) Foreseeable damage 100. A obtained a sum of Rs. 1000 from B by putting B in fear of death. A committed which kind of offence? (1) Extortion (2) Robbery (3) Mischief (4) Cheating 101. X instigates Z to murder C who refuses to do so, X is guilty of: (1) No offence (2) Abetment to commit murder (3) Criminal conspiracy (4) Criminal instigation 102. Use of violence by a member of an assembly of five or more persons in furtherance of common object will constitute: (1) Affray (2) Unlawful assembly (3) Rioting (4) Assault 9-BHADRADRI-S2103. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. M1. 17 Compulsion amounts to defence (1) Act done by a person who is compelled to do it by threat of instant death (2) Mischief caused by a person when he was compelled to do so by thréat to his property (3) Murder committed by a person in order to gain custody of his kidnapped child (4) Act done by a person who is compelled to do it by threat of death within seven days ‘The benefit of general exceptions must be proved and pleaded by the (1). Prosecution (2) Accused (3) Witness (4) Court Culpable homicide is not murder if it is committed (1) With the consent of the victim who has completed 12 years of age (2) With the consent of the victim who has completed 18 years of age (3) When the offender action is under the spell of madness (4) When the offender is acting in anger Exclusive Marketing Rights are given to the Patent holder: (1) Correct (2) Not correct (3) Partly sure (4) None of the above Whether an Indian Residents can apply abroad for patent without permission of the Controller? (1) Yes, can apply (2) No, Can't apply (3) Still an issue (4) No specific rule ‘The Controller of patent had beeri granted a certain powers of (1) Tribunal 2) Criminal Court 3) Civil Court (4) None of the above In India Computer programs are protected under (1) Copyright Act (2) Patent Act (3) Designs Act (4) None of the above Copyright law protects (1) Idea (2) Expression of idea (3) Both idea and expression (4) None of the above Indian Copyright Act gives protection to the right holder for a period of: (1) Life + 60 years (2) Life + 50 years (3). Life of the author alone (4) Life + 30 years (PT.O 9-BHADRADRI-S218 112. The Environmental Protection Act was enacted in furtherance of the (1). Stockholm Declaration, 1972 (2) Nairobi Declaration, 1982 (3) Rio Declaration, 1992 (4) Johannesburg Declaration, 2002 113. Which Schedule of the Environment Protection Rules, 1986 list the Ambient Air Quality Standards in respect of noise: (1) Schedule 1 (2) Schedule IT (3) Schedule II (4) Schedule IV 114, BAT means (1) Best Available Technology (2) Bad Availability of Technology (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) None of the above 115. The given below which are said to be the essential character of Tax: (Tax is imposed by the Government only, (ID) Tax is a compulsory contribution of the tax payer (11D In the payment of tax, the element of sacrifice is involved (LV) Tax is not imposed to realize the cost of benefit, @) 1&t Q mei @) 1&mr @® Lama 116. The Right to Information Act 2005 was implemented on (1) 20 September 2005 (2) 15 June 2005 (3) 10 October 2005 (4). 15 January 2005 117, Right to family is ensured in which Article of Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1) Article 10 (2) Article 12 @) Article 16 (4) ‘Article 15 118. When is Human Rights Day is observed? (1) 10December (2) 10 November (3). 10 March (4) 103uly 119. What isthe meaning of International Bill of Human Rights? (i) Universal Declaration of Human Rights Gi) International Covenant of Civil and Political Rights Gii) International Covenant of Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (iv) Universal Declaration of Human Rights and International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights Mi (2) iandii (3) iand iii @ i and iv 120. “United Nations Commission on Human Rights” meet at Geneva for (1) Two weeks each year (2) Three weeks alternative year (3) Six weeks each year (4) Five weeks each year 9-BHADRADRI-S2