Answers of National MCQ 2

ANATOMY SCIENCES
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
4
A
B
C
D
E
5
A
B
C
D
E
6
A
B
C
D
E
7
A
B
C
D
E
8
A
B
C
D
E
9
A
B
C
D
E
10
A
B
C
D
E
11
A
B
C
D
E
12
A
B
C
D
E
13
A
B
C
D
E
14
A
B
C
D
E
15
A
B
C
D
E
16
A
B
C
D
E
17
A
B
C
D
E
18
B
C
D
E
19
A
B
C
D
E
20
A
B
C
D
E
21
A
B
C
D
E
22
A
B
C
D
E
23
A
B
C
D
E
24
A
B
C
D
E
25
A
B
C
D
E
26
A
B
C
D
E
27
A
B
C
D
E
28
A
B
C
D
E
29
A
B
C
D
E
30
A
B
C
D
E
31
A
B
C
D
E
32
A
B
C
D
E
33
A
B
C
D
E
34
A
B
C
D
E
35
A
B
C
D
E
36
A
B
C
D
E
37
A
B
C
D
E
38
A
B
C
D
E
39
A
B
C
40
A
B
C
D
E
41
A
B
C
D
E
42
B
C
D
E
43
A
B
C
D
E
44
A
B
C
D
E
45
A
B
C
D
E
46
A
B
C
D
E
47
A
B
C
D
E
48
A
B
C
D
E
49
A
B
C
D
E
50
A
B
C
D
E
51
A
B
C
D
E
52
A
B
C
D
E
53
A
B
C
D
E
54
A
B
C
D
E
55
A
B
C
D
E
56
A
B
C
D
E
57
A
B
C
D
E
58
A
B
C
D
E
59
A
B
C
D
E
60
A
B
C
D
E
61
A
B
C
D
E
62
A
B
C
D
E
63
A
B
C
D
E
64
A
B
C
D
E
65
A
B
C
D
E
66
A
B
C
D
E
67
A
B
C
D
E
68
A
B
C
D
E
69
A
B
C
D
E
70
A
B
C
D
E
71
A
B
C
D
E
72
A
B
C
D
E
73
A
B
C
D
E
74
A
B
C
D
E
75
A
B
C
D
E
76
A
B
C
D
E
77
A
B
C
D
E
78
A
B
C
D
E
79
A
B
C
D
E
80
B
C
D
E
81
A
B
C
D
E
82
A
B
C
D
E
83
A
B
C
D
E
84
A
B
C
D
E
85
A
B
C
D
E
86
A
B
C
D
E
87
A
B
C
D
E
88
A
B
C
D
E
89
A
B
C
D
E
90
A
B
C
D
E
91
A
B
C
D
E
92
A
B
C
D
E
93
A
B
C
D
E
94
A
B
C
D
E
95
A
B
C
D
E
96
A
B
C
D
E
97
A
B
C
D
E
98
A
B
C
D
E
99
A
B
C
D
E
100
A
B
C
D
E
101
A
B
C
D
E
102
A
B
C
D
E
103
A
B
C
D
E
104
A
B
C
D
E
105
A
B
C
D
E
106
A
B
C
D
E
107
A
B
C
D
E
108
A
B
C
D
E
109
A
B
C
D
E
110
A
B
C
D
E
111
A
B
C
D
E
112
A
B
C
D
E
113
A
B
C
D
E
114
A
B
C
D
E
115
A
B
C
D
E
116
A
B
C
D
E
117
A
B
C
D
E
118
A
B
C
D
E
119
A
B
C
D
E
120
A
B
C
D
E
121
A
B
C
D
E
122
A
B
C
D
E
123
A
B
C
D
E
124
A
B
C
D
E
125
A
B
C
D
E
126
A
B
C
D
E
127
A
B
C
D
E
128
A
B
C
D
E
129
A
B
C
D
E
130
A
B
C
D
E
131
A
B
C
D
E
132
A
B
C
D
E
133
A
B
C
D
E
134
A
B
C
D
E
135
A
B
C
D
E
136
A
B
C
D
E
137
A
B
C
D
E
138
A
B
C
D
E
139
A
B
C
D
E
140
A
B
C
D
E
141
A
B
C
D
E
142
A
B
C
D
E
143
A
B
C
D
E
144
A
B
C
D
E
145
A
B
C
D
E
146
A
B
C
D
E
147
A
B
C
D
E
148
A
B
C
D
E
149
A
B
C
D
E
150
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
151
A
B
C
D
E
152
A
B
C
D
E
153
A
B
C
D
E
154
A
B
C
D
E
155
A
B
C
D
E
156
A
B
C
D
E
157
A
B
C
D
E
158
B
C
D
E
159
A
B
C
D
E
160
A
B
C
D
E
161
A
B
C
D
E
162
A
B
C
D
E
163
A
B
C
D
E
164
A
B
C
D
E
165
B
C
D
E
166
A
B
C
D
E
167
A
B
C
D
E
168
A
B
C
D
E
169
A
B
C
D
E
170
A
B
C
D
E
171
A
B
C
D
E
172
A
B
C
D
E
173
A
B
C
D
E
174
A
B
C
D
E
175
A
B
C
D
E
176
A
B
C
D
E
177
A
B
C
D
E
178
A
B
C
D
E
179
A
B
C
D
E
180
A
B
C
D
E
181
A
B
C
D
E
182
A
B
C
D
E
183
A
B
C
D
E
184
B
C
D
E
185
A
B
C
D
E
186
A
B
C
D
E
187
A
B
C
D
E
188
A
B
C
D
E
189
A
B
C
D
E
190
A
B
C
D
E
191
A
B
C
D
E
192
A
B
C
D
E
193
A
B
C
D
E
194
A
B
C
D
E
195
A
B
C
D
E
196
A
B
C
D
E
197
A
B
C
D
E
198
B
C
D
E
199
A
B
C
D
E
200
A
B
C
D
E
201
B
C
D
E
202
A
B
C
D
E
203
A
B
C
D
E
204
A
B
C
D
E
205
A
B
C
D
E
206
A
B
C
D
E
207
A
B
C
D
E
208
A
B
C
D
E
209
A
B
C
D
E
210
A
B
C
D
E
211
A
B
C
D
E
212
A
B
C
D
E
213
A
B
C
D
E
214
A
B
C
D
E
215
A
B
C
D
E
216
A
B
C
D
E
217
A
B
C
D
E
218
A
B
C
D
E
219
A
B
C
D
E
220
A
B
C
D
E
221
A
B
C
D
E
222
A
B
C
D
E
223
A
B
C
D
E
224
A
B
C
D
E
225
A
B
C
D
E
226
A
B
C
D
E
227
A
B
C
D
E
228
A
B
C
D
E
229
A
B
C
D
E
230
A
B
C
D
E
231
A
B
C
D
E
232
A
B
C
D
E
233
A
B
C
D
E
234
A
B
C
D
E
235
A
B
C
D
E
236
A
B
C
D
E
237
A
B
C
D
E
238
A
B
C
D
E
239
A
B
C
D
E
240
A
B
C
D
E
241
A
B
C
D
E
242
A
B
C
D
E
243
A
B
C
D
E
244
A
B
C
D
E
245
A
B
C
D
E
246
A
B
C
D
E
247
A
B
C
D
E
248
A
B
C
D
E
249
A
B
C
D
E
250
A
B
C
D
E
251
A
B
C
D
E
252
A
B
C
D
E
253
B
C
D
E
254
A
B
C
D
E
255
A
B
C
D
E
256
A
B
C
D
E
257
A
B
C
D
E
258
A
B
C
D
E
259
A
B
C
D
E
260
A
B
C
D
E
261
A
B
C
D
E
262
A
B
C
D
E
263
A
B
C
D
E
264
A
B
C
D
E
265
A
B
C
D
E
266
A
B
C
D
E
267
A
B
C
D
E
268
A
B
C
D
E
269
A
B
C
D
E
270
A
B
C
D
E
271
A
B
C
D
E
272
A
B
C
D
E
273
B
C
D
E
274
A
B
C
D
E
275
A
B
C
D
E
276
A
B
C
D
E
277
A
B
C
D
E
278
A
B
C
D
E
279
A
B
C
D
E
280
A
B
C
D
E
281
A
B
C
D
E
282
A
B
C
D
E
283
A
B
C
D
E
284
A
B
C
D
E
285
A
B
C
D
E
286
A
B
C
D
E
287
A
B
C
D
E
288
A
B
C
D
E
289
A
B
C
D
E
290
A
B
C
D
E
291
A
B
C
D
E
292
A
B
C
D
E
293
A
B
C
D
E
294
A
B
C
D
E
295
A
B
C
D
E
296
A
B
C
D
E
297
A
B
C
D
E
298
A
B
C
D
E
299
A
B
C
D
E
300
A
B
C
D
E
301
A
B
C
D
E
302
A
B
C
D
E
303
A
B
C
D
E
304
A
B
C
D
E
305
A
B
C
D
E
BIOMEDICAL SCIENCES
ATOMY SCIENCES
ID:
ED (Emergency Department )

MRI CT scan
(Skull) in an epidural hematoma?
Anterior communicating artery.

Posterior cerebral artery.
Anterior cerebara artery.
Posterior communicating artery.
Middle meningeal artery.
ID:
ED( Emergency Department )

MRI (Bleeding ) CT scan
posterior cranial fossa. EXCEPT
Occipital bone.
Jugular foramen.
Cerebellum.
Hypoglossal canal.
Optic foramen.
ID:
ED Emergency Department
MRI
(Bleeding ) CT scan
Cranial nuclei Thalamus Mediating facial sensation
?
Ventral posterior medial nuclei (PM)

Ventral anterior nucleus.
Lateral geniculate. nucleus.
Ventral posterior lateral nuclei.
Ventral lateral nuclei.
ID:

MRI
CT scan Cranial nuclei of the
thalamus
mediating facial senation and pian?
Brainstem nuclei Crania nerve
Superior salivatory nucleus.

Nucleus ambiguus
Nucleus of the sotitary tract
Ventromedial nucleus
Inferior salivatary nucleus

ID:
Germ Layer epithelial lining of the cardio vascular?
Mesoderm.
Endoderm.
Ectoderm.
All of the above.
None of the above.
ID:
Tissue attachments ?
Tendons form attachments between bone and bone.

Aponeuroses are merely sheetlike layers of tendon.
Neary all connective tissue is of neural crest origin, with head and neck regions of connective
tissue being of mesodermal origin.
Ligaments form attachments between muscle and bone.
None of the above are correct.
ID:

Genial tubercles
Hamulus
Hyiod bone
Styliod process
None of the above
ID:
Mandibular condyle
Dense fibrocartilage.
Loose connective tissue.
Elastic cartilage.
Hyaline cartilage.
None of the above.
ID:
disc Tempora-mandibular joint Condyle
Stylomandibular ligament.
Collateral ligament.
Temporomandibular ligament.
Sphenomandibular ligament.
None of the above.
ID:
articulating disc of the temporomandibular joint
Anteromedially.
Laterally.
Inferiorly.
Superiorly.
Posteromedially.
ID:
pituitary gland Sinus ?

Frontal.
Maxillary.
Anterior ethmoid.
Posterior ethmoid.
Sphenoid.
ID:

Mandibular cowhorn forceps
2/3

Buccal nerve.
Lingual nerve.
Middle superior alveolar nerve.
Hypoglossal nerve.
Inferior alveolar nerve.
ID:

Mandibular cowhorn
Infection (at the root
apices) Infection facial plane ?
Sublingual.
Parapharyngeal.
Masticator.
Submandibular.
Parotid.

Mandibular cowhorn fosceps
ID:

(air way obstruction) (Cricothyrotomy)
(incising)
Hyoid bone and thryroid cartilage.

Cartilaginous rings of trachea.
Thyroid cartilage and criciod cartilage.
Thyroid gland.
Left 3rd and intercostal muscles, laterally.
ID:
IDB (inferior alveolar nerve block)
?
Buccinator.
Lateral pterygoid.
Medial pterygoid.
Mylohyoid.
Parotid gland.
ID:
Pterygomandibular raphe?
Superior pharyngeal constrictor and mylohyoid.
Medial pterygoid and mylohyoid.
Buccinator and superior pharyngeal constrictor.
Buccinator and mylohyoid.
Medial pterygoid and superior pharyngeal constrictor.
ID:
Deep scaling and root planing
periodontitis pocket

Scale plane the roots IDB
IDB?
Lingula.
Coronoid notch.
Antilingula.
Angle of the mandible.
External oblique ridge of the mandible.
ID:
Deep scaling and root planing
periodontitis Periodontal periodontal
attachment Pricipal collagen fibers of the PDL
Cementum alveolar bone?
Horizontal
Apical
Interradicular
Transseptal
Oblique
ID:
Deep scaling root planing
periodontitis Principal collagen fibers of the PDL Type
of collagen ?
Type I only.
Type II only.
Type III only.
Type I and III
Type II and III.
ID:
Deep scaling root planing
periodontitis Cell Periodontal
ligament?
Lymphocytes.
Neutrophils.
Osteoblasts.
Cementobasts.
Fibroblasts.
ID:

Infero-lateral ()
orbit
Frontal.
Zygoma.
Ethmoid.
Lacrimal.
Temporal.
ID:

(periorbital edema)
Infero-lateral Artery orbit
?
Facial
Ophthalmic
Maxillary
Transverse facial
Infraorbital
ID:

Infero-lateral Zygamatic Process of Maxilla
(superfi-ciallyn ) Zygamatic arch ( Deep)
Lateral pterygoid.
Temporalis.
Buccinator.
Masseter.
Medial pterygoid.
ID:

Infero-Lateral Superior orbital fissure ?
Lesser wing of sphenoid and frontal

Ethmoid and maxilla
Greater wing of sphenoid and maxilla.
Greater wing of sphenoid and lesser wing of sphenoid.
Lesser wing of sphenoid and ethmoid.
ID:
platysma ?
Trigeminal.
Facial.
Glossopharyngeal.
Spinal accessory.
Vagus.
ID:
layer of fascial Lymphatic vessels ?
Pretracheal.
Prevertebral.
Subcutaneous.
Investing.
Nun of the above.
ID:
cartilage Calcify ?
Fibrocartilage.
Hyaline.
Elastic.
Elastic and Hyaline.
Hyaline and Fibrocartilage.
ID:
The one-cell thick layer Osteoprogenitor cell
Endosteum.
Haversian canal.
Volkmann canal.
Lacuna.
Periosteum.
ID:
Type of syndesmosis
Tooth in socket.
Cranial sutures.
Temporomandibular joint.
Epiphyseal plate of long bones.
Connection between radius and ulna.

ID:
Granulocyte ?
T cell.
Marcrophage.
Platelet.
Neutrophil.
B cell.
ID:
Nuclei ?
Subperior Salivatory.
Nucleus ambiguus.
Inferior Salivatory.
Facial Nucleus.
Nucleus of the solitary tract.
ID:
Layer of mucosa interdigitates ?
Stratum granulosum.
Papillary layer of lamina propria.
Stratum corneum.
Reticular layer of lamina propria.
Stratum spinosum.
ID:
cell
Inner enamel epitphelium.
Dental follicle.
Dental papilla.
Dental follicle and papilla.
Inner enamel epitphelium and Dental papilla.
ID:
Ameloblasts Enamel matrix?
During the cap stage.
After the odontoblasts form dentin.
Before the odontoblasts form dentin.
After root formation begins.
Before cap stage.
ID:
cribiform plate ?
Sphenoid.
Ethoid.
Frontal.
Maxilla.
Vomer.
ID:

anterior palatal mucosa Nerve
?
Nasopalatine.
Middle superior alveolar.
Posterior superior alveolar.
Maxillary.
Lesser palatine.
Stylomandibular ligament ?
ID:
Temporal.
Sphenoid.
Occipital.
Maxilla.
Parietal.

ID:
Occipital.
Sphenoid.
Ethmoid.
Frontal.
None of the above.
Mylohyoid? ?
ID:

Hyoid.

hyoid.

hyoid.

hyoid

hyoid
ID:
Nerve digastric muscle ( innervates the anterior Belly of the digastric muscle?)
Inferior alveolar nerve.
Mental nerve.
Mylohyoid nerve.
Auriculotemporal nerve.
Facial nerve.
The infrahyoid musculature
ID:
C4-C6.
ansa cervicalis.
Leesser occipital nerve.
Greater occipital nerve.
C6- C8.
External carotid artery
Ophthalmic artery.
ID:
Ascending pharyngeal artery.

Superior thyroid artery.
Posterior aurcular artery.
Occipital artery.
Crista galli ?
ID:
Sphenoid.
Ethmoid.
Vomer.
Frontal.
Maxilla.
ID:
Hypothetically, Cavity Crown
Enamel Dentin ?
Circumpulpal dentin.
Mantle dentin.
Odontoblasts.
Radicular dentin.
Circumpulpal and radicular dentin.
Alveolus
Maxillary Sinus?
Buccal root of the maxillary 1st premolar.
Root of the maxillary canine.
Root of the maxillary lateral incisor.
Lingual root of the maxillary 1st molar.
ID:
Lingual root of the maxillary 1st premolar.

Zygoma
ID:
Temporal.
Maxilla.
Frontal.
Sphenoid.
Parietal.
ID:

Luxation Mandible Mandible condyle
?
Posterior and superior.
Posterior and inferior.
Lateral and inferior.
Anteriorly.
Medially.
the inferior alveolar artery Artery ?
ID:
Meddle meningeal.
Facial.
External carotid.
Maxillary.
Buccal.
attachment of epithelium ?
ID:
Hemidesmosome.
Zonula adherens.
Zonula occludens.
Desmosome.
Gap junction.
A-gamma fibers
ID:
Touch sensation.
Muscle spindle apparatus.
Pressure sensation.
Temperature sensation.
Sharp pain sensation.
The submaxillary ganglion Presynap-tie efferent innervation Nerve ?
ID:
Inferior alveolar.
Facial.
Buccinator.
Maxillary.
Lingual.
motor innervation Facial Nerve
Risorius.
Masseter.
Orbicularis oris.
Mentalis.
ID:
Buccinator.
The jaw-jerk reflex efferent signals Cranial nerves?
ID:
V-1
V-3
VII
V-2
IX
the esophagus epithelium ?
ID:
Nonkeratinized stratified squamous

Columnar
Keratinized stratified squamous
Cuboidal
Pseudostratified squamous
Spem
ID:
Epididymis
Urethra
Testis
Seminiferous tubules
Prostate gland

Sensation of touch, pain , and pressure.
Synthesis of vitamin E from ultraviolet light.
ID:
Excretion via sweat glands.

Homeostatic regulation of body temperature.
Protection against physical and chemical stresses.
ID:
1/3
tymphatiel
Deep cervical nodes.
Submental nodes.
Submandibular nodes.
Rectopharyngeal nodes.
Subpraclavicular nodes.
ID:
bone marrow ?
It is contained within the medullary spaces of spongy bone.
Red marrow contain fatty cells and is the predominant marrow type in the
mandibular ramus and condyles.
Red marrow contains hematopoietic cells.
Yellow marrow contains fatty cells.
Yellow marrow is the predominant marrow type in the maxilla and mandible.
ID:
combination of epithelium ?
Stratified squamous, pseudostratified ciliated columnar, olfactory.
Simple squamous, olfactory, simple columnar.
Stratified squamous, olfactory, stratified columnar.
Simple cuboidal, simple squamous, simple columnar.
Stratified columnar, simple squamous, simple columnar.
ID:
Facial artery.
Ascenting pharyngeal artery.
Lingual artery.
Superior laryngeal artery.
External carotid artery.
ID:

Longitudinal.
Styloglossus
Hyoglossus.
Transverse.
Palatoglossus.
ID:
Combinations of cranial nerves motor innervation

VII, X.
X, XII.
VII, XII.
V, XII.
VII, IX.
ID:

?
Sweet.
Salt.
Bitter.
Sour.
None of the above.
ID:
formation compete bilateral paratal clefting?
Lip.
Primary palate.
Alveolar process.
Inferior nasal turbinate/concha
Secoondary palate
ID:
?
Elongation of cervical loop and formation of HERS.
Fusion of REE and oral epithelium.
Disappearance of the enamel knot.
Formation of the enamel organ.
Mergin of the OEE with the IEE.
ID:
hemostasis Malfunction

?
Monocytes.
B cells.
Megakaryocytes.
Erythroblasts.
Granulocytes.
ID:
bile pigment
causative factor ?
Neutrophils.
Eosinophils
Erythrocytes.
Platelets.
Macrophages.
ID:
Gingival crevicular fluid. ?
It is comprised mostly of PMNs and leukocytes.
It lacks plasma proteins and epithelial cells.
It is contained mostly within the vestibule of the buccal mucosa.
It lacks function in immune defense.
It is not located within the gingival sulcus.
ID:

brownish pigmentation and mottling
of his dentition?
Conginatal syphilis.
Nutritional deficiency.
Fluorosis.
Hypocalcification.
Hypomineralization.
ID:
efferent output of the gag

reflex?
CN XII
CN V
CN IX
CN VII
CN X
Vein deoxygenated blood
Hepatic vein.
Superior vena cava.
inferior vena cava.
Pulmonary vein.
Coronary sinus.
Maxillary artery ?
Lateral pterygoid.
Masseter.
Posterior belly of digastric.
Stylohyoid.
Anterior belly of digastric.
External carotid
Thyroid.
Brain.
Salivary glands.
Teeth.
Jaw bones.
Vestibulocochlear nerve ?
Parietal
Occipital
Temporal
Frontal
Maxilla
Arteries Maxillary Canines and Incisors?
Pterygoid
Sphenopalatine
Descenting palatine
Infraorbital
Pharyngeal
ID:
Dentin ( ) ?
Increased dentinal tubule diameter.
Decreased reparative dentin.
Decreased dead tracts.
Decreased sclerrotic dentin.
Increased deposition of peritubularl dentin.
ID:

Brownish gray
?
10
11
5
14
17
ID:
Vitamin ? Enamel ?
A
B
C
K
Calcium
ID:
Epithelium Body cavities?
Simple columnar
Simple squamous
Transitional
Stratifies squamous
Pseudostratified columnar
ID:
basement membrane ?
Lamina lucida is electron dense.
Lamina densa is a product of the connective tissue.

Type IV collagen is typically found in the basal lamina.
Reticular lamina contains anchoring fibrils.
It does not have a filtering function.
ID:
Oral epithelium Keratinized?
Sulcular epithelium.
Alveolar mucosa.
Junctional epithelium.
Attached gingiva.
Gingival col.
ID:
Organic Composition ?
Cementum
Dentin
pulp
Enamel
Alveolar bone
ID:
(Pulpal Chamber)
Decreased collagen content.
Decreased size of apical foramen.
Decreased sensitivity.
Decreased cellularity
Increased calcification
ID:
Orthodontic?
Enamel
Cementum
Dentin
Epithelial attcachment
Alveolar bone
ID:
Nerve periodontal ligament?
Coiled
Spindle
Free
Meissner
Ruffini
ID:
Interdental gingiva lingual facial Papillae?
Gingival col
Alveolar mucosa
Attached gingiva
Mucogingival junction
Interdental papilla
ID:

primary palate?
It can be involved in facial clefting
It contains the incisive foramen.
It Usually contains no teeth.

It is mesenchymal in origin.
It is formed by fusion of two metian nasal processes.
ID:
circumpulpal dentin?
Most is produced in the form of intertubular dentin.
It is the initial 150 m of dentin laid down.
It lacks hydroxyapatite.
It forms before mantle dentin.
It lacks dead tracts
ID:
Amelogenesis Enamel ?
0.04 m
1mm
0.1mm
4 m
4mm
ID:
odontogenesis
?
Mesoderm
Mesenchyme
Ectomesenchyme
Endoderm
Ectoderm
ID:
parotid gland sensory innervation ?
Transverse cervical
Superficial temporal
Long buccal
Lesser occipital
Great auricular
ID:
Temporal
Parietal
Occipital
Zygoma
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
ID:
The embryological stomodeum
Endoderm
Mesoderm
Neural crest
Ectoderm
Ectomesenchyme
ID:
Vitamin D ?
Large intestine
Kidney
Spleen
Liver
Epidermis
ID:
Serum
Electrolytes
Fibrinogen
Immunglobulins
Water
Albumin
ID:
?
The pericardium contains cardiac muscle.
The endocardium has a layer of simple squamous endothelium.
The innermost layer of the heart is pericardium.
Normally the thickest portion of the heart is the endocardium.
A layer of columnar epithelium surrounds the pericardium.
ID:
Platelets?
They range 200,000-400,000 per mm3 blood.
They are involved in immunoregulation.
They average lifespan is upward of 120 days.
They are nucleated.
They function in blood gas trasport.
ID:
B-cell maturation?
Lymph nodes
Blood
Thymus
Bone marrow
Target tissue
ID:
Thyroxine
Follicular cells.
Outer cortex of adrenals.
Pars distalis.
Pars intermedia.
Parafollicular cells.
ID:
blood elements fragment megakaryocytic cytoplasm?
Platelet
Normoblast
Erythrocyte
Promyelocyte
Proerythroblast
ID:
retracting and elevating the mandible?
Masseter
Digastric
Mylohyoid
Temporalis
Lateral pterygoid
ID:
walls of large arteries
Arterioles
Capillaries
Vasa vasorum
Metarterioles
Glomus
ID:
Calcified
Enamel
Dentin
Cementum
True denticle
ID:
Dentin
Circumpulpal.
Intertubular
Transparent.
Reparative.
Mantle
ID:
oral cavity fauces?

Tonsil.
Soft palate.
Dorsum of the tongue.
Palatopharyngeal arch.
Palatoglossal arch.
ID:
fiber groups PDL ( ) central incisor ?
Apical
Oblique
Horizontal
Alveolar crest
Interradicular
ID:
Peptide hormone?
PTH
Insulin
GH
Aldosterone
ADH
ID:
vascular resistance ?
Arteries
Arterioles
Capillaries
Venules
Veins
ID:
Carbonic anhydrase
Zinc

Carbon dioxide and bicarbonate

Platelets
Osteoclastic activity
ID:
25%
33%
50%
66%
75%
ID:
cartilage may calcify ?
Elastic
Hyaline
Fibrocartilage
B and C
All of the above
ID:
Key Enzyme DNA

Polymerase
Exonuclease
Aminotransferase
Topoisomerase
Helicase
ID:
Feedback axis with the Hypothalamus
Thyroid
Parathyroid
Pituitary
Adrenal
Testicular
ID:
somatic nervous system
(12Cranial Nerves)

Skeletal muscle
preganglionic motor neurons
Somatic nervous system
ID:
Pulmonary circulation System circulation
Resistance
Compliance

Deoxygenated pulmonary artery
ID:
Aldosterone pathway ?
Renin
ADH
Vasopressin
Erythropoietin
ACTH
ID:
plasma membranes
Selectively permeable
Function as barriers
Symmetrical
Contain cholesterol
Have a hydrophobic inner layer
ID:

Substrate

ID:
Zymogens
Clotting factor I
Calmodulin
Trypsinogen
Clotting factor X
Procollagen
ID:
Hyperventilation
Increased PO2
Hypocapnia
Decrease cerebral blood flow
Increased PCO2
Respiratory alkalosis
ID:

LA function by
Activating Na+ channels
Blocking Na+ cannels
Activating K+ channels
Blocking K+ channels

ID:
Osteonecrosis of the jaws?
Pamidronate
Zolendronate
Alendronate

ID:
Insulin ?
Mecrocrin
Acinar
Tubular
ID:

Bicarbonate
Dissolved O2
Bound to hemoglobin
B and C
ID:
plasma membranes
Sphinogomyelin
Cholesterol
G proteins
Collagen
Arachidonic acid
ID:
?
Dorsal column pathway
Anterior spinothalamic tract (of the antero-lateral pathway)
Lateral spinothalamic tract ( of the antero-lateral pathway)

Corticospinal tract (of the pyramidal system)
Medial lemniscal pathway
ID:
Swallowing
Salpingopharyngeus
Levator veli palatine
Palatopharyngeus
Tensor veli palatine
Inferior pharyngeal constrictor
ID:

?
Intramembranous
Endochodral
Intermembranous
A and B
ID:
Epinephrine Amino acids
Histidine
Serin
Glycine
Tryptophan
Phenylalanine
ID:
Receptors detecting stretch?

Free nerve endings
Meissner corpuscles
Ruffini corpuscles
Pacinian corpuscles
Merkel discs
ID:
ADH ?
Hypothalamus
Anteroir pituitary
Posterior pituitary
Adrenal medulla
Adrenal cortex
ID:
?
Bile
Pancreatic
Gastric
Intestinal
ID:
Amino acid collagen ?
Apartate
Proline
Glycine
Lysine
Glutamine
ID:
Hematopoiesis ?
Lymph nodes
Red marrow
Yellow marrow
Spleen
Thymu
ID:
Na+ /K+ pump
ATP

ID:
Prednisone

Addison disease
Cushing disease
Cushing syndrome
Plummer disease
Myxedema
ID:
?
VII
IX
X
A and B
ID:
DNA
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Interphase
ID:
(Jaundice)
Bilirubin
Bile
Hemoglobin
Cholesterol
Cholecystokinin
ID:
regulating serum Calcium levels
PTH
Calcitonin
Vitamin D
Hydroxyapatite

ID:
Fatty acids Glucose Glucose fatty acids

ID:
Taste Buds Papillae
Fungiform
Filiform
Vallate
Foliate

ID:
Reverse transcriptase
Synthesizes a complementary strand of RNA from DNA
Synthesizes a complementary strand of DNA from RNA
Ligates each anticodon to tRNA
Copies cellular RNA
Copies cellularDNA
ID:
Hematocrit is defined as
The concentration of hemoglobin within erythrocytes

The percentage of erythrocytes in blood plasma volume
The number of erythrocytes in blood volume
The percentage of hemoglobin in blood volume
ID:

Grave disease
Plummer disease
Hashimoto thyroiditis
Cretinism
Toxic multinodular goiter
ID:
Antibiotic inhibits bacterial protein synthesis
Amoxicillin
Doxycycline
Metronidazole
Cephalexin
Ciprofloxacin
ID:
Mandible cortical bone Maxilla cancellouse bone

ID:

Alanine
Leucine
Glutamate
Methionine
Valine
ID:
Eeccrine sweat cholinergic neurons Apocrine sweat glands
pheromones

ID:
Fatigue
Cyanosis
Hypoxia
Increase cardiac output
Pulmonary vasoconstriction
Folic acid
Vitamin E
Biotin
ID:
(Water-soluble vitamin)
Vitamin B6
Vitamin C
Na+ Channel closure
K+ channel closure
Ca+ channel opening
ID:
Transient cessation of breathing
Hypoventilation
Dyspnea
Hypocapnia
Apnea
Hyperapnea
ID:
Beta-2 adrenergic agonists
Vascular smooth muscle vasoconstriction
Bronchodilation
Miosis
Increase heart rate
GI relaxation
ID:
LOWEST organic composition
Cementum
Dentin
Pulp
Enamel

ID:
pernicious anemia
Cobalt
Iodine
Magnesium
Manganese
Zinc
ID:
impair odontogenesis
Cephalexin
Amoxicillin
Doxycycline
Clindamycin

ID:
smooth muscle cells
They have only one nucleus
They are typically very long
Their myofibrils are not striated
They have an extensive SR
They do not have T tubules
ID:

Adrenal medulla
Anterior pituitary
Posterior pituitary
B and C

ID:
Frank Starling
Cardiac Output ?
Diastolic Volume
Stroke Volume

Oxygen
Systolic intraventricular
ID:
Carbon dioxide
CO2
Bicarbonate
Carbaminohemoglobin
A and B
All of the above
ID:
Post ganglionic sympathetic neurons Cholinergic ?
Sebaceous glands
Skeletal muscle vasculature
Sweat glands
B and C
All of the above

ID:
Anatomic

Pituitary Gland
Adrenal medulla
Adrenal Cortex
Pancreatic Alpha - Cell
Pancreatic Delta - Cell
ID:
Sickle cell anemia Mutation ?
Non sense mutation
Transition mutation
Repeat mutation
Transverse mutation
Missense mutation
ID:
Hypoglycemia
Glucose
Insuline
Glucagon
Cyclic-AMP
Epinephrine
ID:
Fluoride

Bone resorption Kidney tubular

Simple skeletal exchange and resorption of bone
Skeletal uptake and soft tissue deposition
Skeletal uptake and renal excretion
ID:
?
Vitamin A
Niacin
Thiamine
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
ID:
Apnea Hyperventilation

Oxygen
Cerebral
Carbon dioxide
Hydrogen
Oxydation oxygenation of carotid bodies
ID:
Anemia
Vitamin A and D
Vitamin C and D
Vitamin E and K
Vitamin B12 and folic acid
Thiamine, riboflavin, and niacin

ID:

Buffering
Facilitates deglutition
Initiates protein digestion
Demineralization
ID:

Node Cervical Sub mandibular
Node Biosy
Node Reed Sternberg cell Cytological
Exam ?
Non Hodgkin Lymphoma

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia
Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
Hodgkin lymphoma
Multiple myeloma
ID:

Node Cervical Sub mandibular
Node Biosy
Node Cell immediate Immunity
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

Parasite
NK Cell Macrophage
Predominantly B Cells
ID:

Medical History
Intra venous line
Secondary hemostatic
Von Willebrand disease

Hemophilia A
Bernard Soulier syndrome
Thrombocytopenia
Hemophilia C
ID:

Medical History
Intra venous line
Von Willebrand
Platelet ( Qualitative Platelet defect)
vWF Platelets Collagen
Pletelet plug Coagu-lation cascade.
vWF functions independent of factor VIII
Autosomal dominant
ID:

Medical History

Intra venous line

Vitamin K ?
Clotting factors II VII IX X
PT
PTT

Platelet
ID:

Medical History
Intra venous line

Secondary intention wound healing

Extraction socket Primary intention
Contact inhibition migrating epithelial wound
margin meet
Primary intention Secondary intention
ID:

Medical History
Intra venous line
Topical antibiotic
Neomycin
Bacitracin
Polymyxin B
Ofloxacin
all of the above are topical antibiotics
ID:
Gram positive Cooci ?
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus bovis
Streptococcus viridians
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Actinomyces israelii
ID:
Burning mouth
Multiple carious lesions
Immunologic marker
antinuclear antibodies
Reiter syndrome
Behcet syndrome
Scleroderma
Ankylosing spondylitis
Sjgren syndrome
ID:
Burning mouth
Immunologic marker
Stephan curve?
Nonfermentable carbohydrates
pH
B. pH

C. Sucrose pH
D. pH 7.0
E. Enamel Demineralize pH 5.5
ID:
Burning mouth
Immunologic marker
Plaque ?
Total ( Sodium fluoride triclosan)

Gel-Kem ( Stannous fluoride)
Listerine (phenolic/ essential oil compound)
Peridex (Chlorhexidine gluconate)
Scope (cetylpyridinium chloride)
ID:
Burning mouth
Immunologic marker
Bacterial growth curve?
Cell growth plateaus Stationary phase
The initial phase Cell death

Bacterial growth Log phase
Metabolic Lag phase
E. The lag phase

Bacterial
ID:
Necrotic
Infection
Penincillin
Bulls-eye rush () ?
Impetigo
Type IV hypersensitivity
Bullous pemphigoid
Pemphigus vulgaris
Erythema multiforme
ID:
Necrotic
Infection
Penincillin
Bulls-eye rush ()
Pemphigus vulgaris Bullous pemphigoid?
Clinical
IgM
Histology
Pemphigus Vulgaris Tzanck cells
Immunofluorescence
ID:

Gram positive microorganisms LTA Cell walls
Anaerobes
Oxygen
Spore Gram positive rod

Bacterium Acid fast stain
E. Bacteria Cocci
Microscope
ID:

Polyarthritis ,
Erythema marginaturm, Chorea, Carditis , subcutaneous nodules.

Rheumatic fever
Measles
Pneumonia
Mumps
Parvovirus
ID:

Streptococcal strains Rheumatic Fever?
Group A beta hemolytic
Group C
Group B beta- hemolytic
Alpha hemolytic
Group D beta hemolytic

Nacrotic?
Ischemia Coagulative necrosis
Fatty acid liquefactive necrosis
Myocardial infarcts liquefactive necrosis
Caseous necrosis Tuberculosis infection
Granulomas caseous
necrosis
Periodontal health
The epitactic concept states that calculus formation is independent
of proteins
Material alba Desquamated cells

Subgingival plaque Gram negative bacteria
Chlorhexidine gluconate
Plaque
Supragingival plaque Gram positive bacteria
Periodontal Interproximal papillae, fetor oris Marginal
gingival pseudomembrane ?
Chronic periodontitis
Aggressive periodontitis
Plaque- induced gingivitis
Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
Candidiasis
( )
Pigmentation

Buccal mucosa

ACTH ?
Primary Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Hyper Hypothyroidism
Primary Secondary Addison disease
Acromegaly dwarfism
( )
Pigmentation

Buccal mucosa

Addison disease?
Cortisol
aldosterone
androgens
Growth hormone
Parathyroid hormone
Cystic bone lesions , nephrocalcinosis, metastatic calcifications?
Hyperparathyroidism
Grave disease
Hyperthyroidism
Hypoparathyroidism
Addison disease
Immune defense
Acquired immunity Cell- and antibody-mediated defense
Innate immunity Immunologial memory
Active passive

Acquired immunity
Lysosome Innate immunity
B lymphocytes Acquired immunity
RNA enveloped
Poliovirus
Rubella virus
Human T-cell leukemia virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Hepatitis C Virus
Baterial?
Antitoxin vaccine Active immunity

Immunity Cholera Killed Vanccine
Active immunity Bateria, Capsular polysaccharides, toxoids.
Antitoxine vaccine Antibodies bacterial exotoxins
Passive immunity include preformed antibody preparation which elicit
immunity
Cellular dysplasia?
Nonmalignant cellular growth
Atypical cells Invasion
Maturation
Spatial arrangement
Chronic irritation
Mitosis Pleomorphism
NSAIDs (Odontogenic pain).
Peritoneum hematemesis
?
Peptic Ulcer disease
Duodenal ulcers
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Hiatal hernia
Inflammatory bowel disease
Basal cell carcinoma
Local Aggressive
Malignant

Papule
United State

Basal cell carcinoma?
Malignant

Metastasize

Neoplastic epidermoid cells

()
( )
?
Chronic bronchitis
Emphysema
Asthma
Asbestosis
Anthracosis
Bateria Subacute bacterial endocarditis?
Streptococcus Viridians
Streptococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus sanguis
Streptococcus mutans
Pericardial
Hemopericardium
Acute pericarditis
Constructive pericarditis
Hydropericardium
Myocarditis

?
Cardiac tamponade
Endocarditis
Primary hypertension
Coronary artery disease
Angina
Macrophage
Thymus
Cytokines
Antigen ClassII MHC
Phagocytose Connective tissue
Bacterial
Parasitic infection
Eosinophils
Basophils
mast cells
PMNs
Dendritic cells
Antigen presenting cell
Monocytes
B cells
Macrophages
Langerhans cells
PMNs
Pathological Teratogenic?
Cytomegalovirus
Rubella
Toxoplasmosis
Herpes simplex virus
Influenza
Impetigo?
Noncontagious

Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes

Caf au lait spots

Clinic ?
Neurofibromatosis (type I)
Tuberous sclerosis
Fanconi anemia
McCune- Albright syndrome
Vitiligo
non progressive shock
compensated
perfusion

total peripheral resistance
metabolic acidosis
sympathetic nervous output
hyperemia
Arteriolar dilation active hyperemia
Chronic passive hyperemia heart-failure
passive hyperemia
venous return
active hyperemia
& back pressure chronic hyperemia

poly-cythemia ?
True polycythemia RBC mass & Total blood

volume
Primary polycythemia gontic perdisposition
Spurious polycythemia (Gaisbock syndrome ) relative

polycythemia
secondary polycythemia erythropotein

primary polycythemia erythropoter
59 root canal therapy #9 (

glucose 180mg/dl
?
Hyperthyroidism
type II diabeter mellitus
Hypothyroidsm
Addison disease
Type I diabetes mellitus
59 root canal therapy #9(

glucose 180mg/dl type I diabetes mellitus
type II diabetes mellitus

genetic predisposition

59 root canal therapy #9(

glucose 180mg/dl Hyperglycemia glucose
100mg/dL
90mg/dL
125mg/dL
75mg/dL
50mg/dL
myeloma

platelet count
white blood cell count
Red blood cell count
Plasma cell count
Osteolytic lesion
eosinophilic granuloma
benign
30
The maxilla
& Periodontal

histocytes
Tissue hypoxia
carbon monoxide
Tissue perfusion
O2
Vascular Ischemia

cellular
Aplasia "
Hypertrophy "
Metaplasia "
Atrophy " Cellular mass
Hypoplasia
"
Troche-from anti-fungal drugs

Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis?
Clotrimazole
Ketoconazole
Fluconazle
Nystatin
Amphoterincin B
45

clinical vignette,
?
HIV
Syphilis
Hepatitis C
Gonorrhea
Chlamydia
45

HBsAg ?
Acute hepatitis A infection

Acute hepatitis B infection
Acute hepatitis C infection
Acute hepatitis D infection
Acute hepatitis E infection
45

hepatitis Vaccine ?
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E
Picornavirus Hepatitis ?
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E
sterilization
Hepatitis B?
Autoclaving
Ethylene oxide gas
Chemical vapor
Formaldehyde
Glutaraldehyde
45

Glutaraldehyde 2% Sterilization teehnigne ?
technigne
hypersensitivity
nucleic acids &proteins
protein
Endemic infection
Infection

infection
Infection
Infection

Ludwig angina fascial spaces
Sublingnal
Submandibnlar
Submental
Parapharyngeal

fluid-filled sac True Epithelium?
Granuloma
Abcess
Cellulitis
Cyst

(right-side TMJ dislocation)
mandible
?
ramus (Push the ramus superiorly)
ramus (Push the ramus posteriorly)
ramus (Push the ramus downward)
ramus
(Slide the ramus mesially)
ramus (Slide the ramus laterally)
(congenitally absent)?
Maxillary lateral incisor
Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
Mandibular 1st premolar
Mandibular 2nd premolar
( age range )
?
0.5-1 year
1-1.5 years
1-2 years
2.5- 5.5 years
3.5-.6.5 years
ideal occlusion, mesiolingual cusp mandibular 1st molar articulates
The distal marginal ridge of the maxillary 2nd premolar

The lingal embrasure between the maxillary 2nd premolar and 1st molar
The mesial marginal ridge of the maxillary 1st molar
The central fossa of the maxillary 1st molar
The lingal embrasure between the maxillary 1st premolar and 2nd molar
primay mandibular 1st molar permanent?
Mandibular 1st molar
Mandibular 2nd molar
Maxillary 1st molar
Maxillary 2nd molar

mesial cervical line(CEJ) curvature ?
Maxillary central incisor
Maxillary canine
Maxillary 1st premolar

Maxillary 2nd premolar
ideal occlusion, lingual cusp maxillary 2nd premolar contacts
Mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular 2nd premolar
Distal triangular fossa of the mandibular 2nd premolar
Distal marginal ridge of the mandibular 2nd premolar
Mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular 1st molar
Mesial triangular fossa of the mandibular 1st molar
condyle mandible
left lateral pterygoid (is still functional)

( Both the statement and reason are correct

( Both the statement and reason are correct but not related)

(The statement is correct, but the reason is not)

(The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct)
statement reason
Ideal maximum intercuspation, oblique ridge maxillary 1st molar area
mandibular 1st molar?
Buccal groove
Distobuccal groove
Lingual groove
Mesial marginal ridge
Distal marginal ridge
primary mandibular 2nd molar cusps ?
1
2
3
4
5

(An individual diagnosed withposterior bite collapse will most likely have a decrease in which of the following?)
Freeway space
Postural position
VDR
Maximum opening
VDO
?
Maxillary canine
Maxillary 1st molar
Mandible canine

?
Mesial
Distal
Buccal
Lingual
.

radiograph
PDL space

?
(It is ankylosed)
(It is a taurodont
(It has a dilaceration)
It has hypercementosis
enamel (It has a cervical enamel projection)
?
(All of the primary teeth have just completed root formation at what age?)
1-1 1/2 year
1 1/2- 2 years
2-3 years
3-4 years
4-5 years
maxillary canine, mandibular canine
sharper cusp
more pronounced labial ridge
more cervical mesial contact 2-3 years
Centered cingulum.
more narrow mesiodistal crown wide

The terminal hinge position condyles glenoid fossa.

(The terminal hinge position occurs when the condyles are in the most wihin the glenoid fossa).
Anterior and Superor

Anterior and inferior
Medial and superior
Lateral and superior
Posterior and superior location
Calcification permanent dentition ?

Angle classification a deep overbite maxillary lateral incisors
(proclined)?
Class I
Class II, division I
Class II, division II
Class III, division I
Class III, division II

?

CEJs

The lingual height-of-contour
segment crown?
Incisal 3rd
Junction of the incisal and middle 3rd
Middle 3rd
Junction of the middle and cervical 3rds
Cervical 3rd
a Bennett shift?(Which of the following best
describes a Bennett shift?)
The lateral movement of the working-side condyle in the opposite
direction of the excursive movement
The lateral movement of the working-side condyle in the same direction of the exursive movement
The anterior translation of both condyles during protrusive movement
The anterior translation of the contralateral condyle during lateral excursive
movement
The anterior traslation of the ipsilateral condyle during lateral excursive
movement
(Which of the following is the 1st succeda-neous
tooth to erupt?)
Maxillary 1st molar

Mandibular central incisor
None of the above
? (Which of the following is a microdont?)
(Geminated incisor)
Carabelli (Cusp of Carabelli)
lateral (Peg-shaped lateral)
lateral incisors (Dens evaginatus)
(Mulberry molar)
nerve cranial nerve
?(The principal
muscle that protrude the tougue is innervated by which cranial nerve?)
CN V
CN VII
CN IX
CN X
CN XII
Which of the following points in the horizontal view of Posselt envelope of motion below is the anterior edge-toedge position?
A
B
C
D
E
?(On
average, how much root structure must be
formed before a tooth erupts?)
0% - 25%
25% - 33%
33%-50%
50%-66%
66%- 75%
glenoid fossa ? (The glenoid fossa is a portion of which bone?)
Zygomatic
Temporal
Maxilla
Mandible
Palatine
posterior bitewing radiopaque 2 mm x 2mm distal surface
apical CEJ ?(A posterior
bitewing radiograph revels a 2 mm x 2mm radiopaque mass on the distal surface of tooth No.17 just apical to the
CEJ.Which of the following is most likely the finding ?)
Enamel pearl
Cervical enamel projection
Taurodont
Distodens
Hypercementosis

(In an unworn dentition, tooth -to-tooth contacts maybe characterized as all of thefollowing EXCEPT)
piont-to-point
point-to-area
edge-to-edge
edge-to-erea
area-to-area
(All of the following teeth typically have one
root canal EXCEPT)
maxillary central incisor
maxillary lateral incisor
Maxillary canine
mandibular canine
all of above
mandible ?
(Which two muscles form a sling around the mandible?)
Masseter and temporalis
Medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid
Masseter and medial pterygoid
Masseter and lateral pterygoid
None of the above
working-side excursion, distobuccal cusp maxillary molar
? (During working-side excursion, the distobuccal cusp of the maxillary molar passes through which
of the following?)
Lingual groove of the mandibular 1st molar
Lingual embrasure between the mandibula
Buccal groove of the mandibular 1st molar

Distobuccal groove of the mandibular 1st molar
Buccal embrasure between the mandibular 1st and 2nd molar
maxillary canine ?
(The proximal contact positions of the maxillary canine are in which areas?)
Mesial: incisal 3rd; Distal: Junction of the incisal and middle 3rds
Mesial: Junction of the incisal and middle 3rds; Distal: Junction of

the incisal and middle 3rds
Mesial: Junction of the incisal and middle 3rds; Distal: Middle 3rds
Mesial: Middle 3rd; Distal: Junction of the incisal and middle 3rds
(All of the following are true of

eruption EXCEPT)

( boy's teeth generally erupt before girls' teeth)
( mandibular teeth generally
erput before maxillary teeth.
(teeth generally erupt in contralateral pairs)

(eruption starts after at least 50%
of root formation is complete)
all of the above are true
3rd molars?
(An individual who never formed 3rd molars has which of the following?)
Anodontia
Hypodontia
Oligodontia
Hyperdontia
Hyperdontia
CT scans maxillary mandible

alveolar sagittal. horizontal axial
? ( You are evaluating maxillary and mandibular CT scans for a patient who has recently had facial trauma.
Out of curiosity, you notice the natural inclination of roots within the alveolar bone on the sagittal slices.Which
tooth root has the greatest horizontal axial inclination?)

Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
?(Which of the following is typically the last
primpary tooth to exfoliate?)
Maxilllary canine
Mandibular canine
Maxillary 2nd molar
Maxillary 1st molar
cusps mandibular 1st molar pulp horn ?(Which of the
following cusps on a mandibular 1st molar has the largest pulp horn?)
Mesiobuccal
Distobuccal
Mesiolingual
Distolingual
Distal
Mandible VDO centric occlusion

? (In which of the following mandibular positions would you find the greatest increase in VDO from
centric occlusion?)
Centric relation
Maximum protrusion
Anterior edge-to-edge position
Postural position
Maximum opening

tooth abrasion?
(Which of the following chronic conditions may cause tooth abrasion?)
GERD ( GORD)
Nocturnal bruxism
Occlusal trauma
Pipe smoking
Cigarette smoking

? (what
are the typical positions of the maxillary and mandibular teeth, and the tongue during empty-mouth swallowing?)

(Centric occlusion;
the tongue touches the palate.)

(Centric
occlusion;the tongue touches the lingual aspects of the anterior teeth.)
Retruded contact; the tongue touches the palate
Retruded contact; the tongue touches the lingual aspects of the anterior teeth
Rest position; the tongue touches the patate
excursion
?(In right lateral
excursion, which of the following is correct?)
(The mandibular teeth move to the right.)
The mandibular teeth move to the left
working side (The left mandibular

teeth are on the working side)
Both A and C
Both B and C
mesiodistal ?
(Which anterior tooth has the greatest mesiodistal length when viewed from the facial?)
Maxillary canine
Mandibular lateral incisor
(All of
the following muscles are involved in right lateral excursive movement EXCEPT)
right masseter
right temporalis
right medial pterygoid
left medial ptergoid
Left lateral pterygoid
?(By age 9 1/2 , how many teeth will a young boy have?)
12 primary and 12 permanent teeth
sagittal view Posselt envelope of motion free opening or closing of

the mandible?
Which of the following regions in the sagittal view of Posselt envelope of motion below represents a free
opening or closing of
A
B
C
D
E
proximal contact
?
(Failure to properly close a proximal contact when restoring a posterior tooth can lead to which of the
following?)
Mesial (Mesial drifting of the tooth)
(Gingival inflammation)
(A food trap)
All of the above
None of the above
faciolingual mesiodistal occlusal?
(Which anterior tooth has the greatest faciolingual-to-mesiodistal length ratio when viewed from the occlusal?)

Mandibular lateral incisor
Mandibular canine

, the lingual cusp mandibular 2nd premolar
?
MARGINAL ridges of the maxillary 1st and premolar
Marginal ridges of the maxillary 2nd pre-molar and 1st molar
Central fossa of the maxillary 2nd premolar
Lingual embrasure of the maxillary 1st and 2nd premolar
Lingual embrasure of the maxillary 2nd premolar and 1st molar
Oblique ridge maxillary molar cusps ?
(The oblique ridge on a maxillary molar extends between what two cusps?)
MB and DB
MB and ML
MB and DL
DB and DL
DB and ML
embrasures ?(How many embrasures are present per contact area?)
1
2
3
4
5

Distal
?
(In an ideal occlusion, the distal of the mandibular 2nd molar articulates
with which of the following?)
The central fossa of the maxillary 2nd molar
The marginal ridges of the maxillary 2nd and 3rd molars
The buccal groove of the maxillary 2nd molar

The central fossa of the maxillary 3rd molar
None of the above
ridges ?
(Which of the following ridges is not located on the corresponding tooth type?)
Cervical ridge: All molars
Labial ridge: All anterior teeth
Oblique ridge: Maxillary molars
Margianal ridge: All teeth
Buccal cusp ridge: All premolars
Mandibular 1st molar ?
(From which view is only one root visible on a mandibular 1st molar?)
Mesial
Distal
Buccal
Lingual
Occlusal
gutta percha apex
mental foramen?
(Following root canal therapy, gutta percha extending beyond the apex of
which tooth is most likely to impinge on the mental foramen?)
Mandibular canine
Mandibular 1st premolar
Mandibular 2nd premolar

maxillary sinus ?
(Which of the following tooth roots is most likely to be pushed into the
maxillary sinus during extrarion?)
Maxillary canine
Maxillary 1st premolar
Maxillary 2nd premolar
Maxillary 1st molar
Maxillary 2nd molar
primary mandibular first molar pulp horns ?
(How many pulp horns are usually present in a typical primary mandibular first molar?)
1
2
3
4
5

rotation ?
(Considering root morphology, which of the following teeth MOST
readily lend themselves to rotation during extraction?)
Mandibylar lareral incisor
Maxillary first premolar
Mandibular canine
periodontal ligament?
(Which of the following are the tissue immediately adjacent to the periodontal ligament?)
Dentin and lamina dura

Cementum and alveolar bone
Gingiva and alveolar plate
Bundle bone and intermediate plexus
Junctional epithelium and cortical bone
anatomic progression
mandibular first third molars?
(Which of the following describes the anatomic progression from mandibular
first to third molars?)
(The roots become more divergent)
(The crowns and roots
become longer)
(The crowns and roots
becomes shorter)
(The crowns
become longer,but the roots get shorter)
(The crowns become shorter,
but the roots get longer)

?
(A female child's primary first molars and primary incisors have erupted,
but the primary canines and primary second molars remain unerupted.
What is the child's approximate age in months?)
7
10
13
16
20
quadrant ?
(How many teeth are present in one quadrant of a complete adult (permanent) dentition?)
5
8
10
20
32
Class permanent dentition primary dentition?
(What class of teeth in present in the permanent dentition that is NOT
present in the primary dentition?)
Incisors
Canines
Premolars
Molars
midline
(In a permanent dentition, the fifth tooth from the midline is a)
Canine
Premolar
Molar
Incisor
Posterior teeth permanent dentition ?

(Posterior teeth in the permanent dentition include which of the following?)
Premolars only
Molars only
Premolars and molars only

Canines, premolars , and molars
pimary second molar?

(Which pernament tooth erupts into the space previously held by the pimary second molar?)
first molar
second molar
first premolar
second premolar
anatomic landmarks
CEJ ?
What is correct order of anatomic landmarks of a tooth with two roots from the cement enamel junction to the
root tip?
cervix, trunk,furcation,apex
trunk,cervix,furcation,apex
trunk,furcation,cervix,apex
cervix,trunk,apex,furcation
furcation,trunk,cervix,ape
proximal ?
When view from the proximal vie, what is the location of the greatest bulge
(crest of curvature or height of contour)on the facial surface of al teeth?
occlusal third
lingual third
buccal third
middle third
cervical third
class I occusion mesioobuccall
cusp maxillary first molar
Ideal class I occusion involves an important first permanent molar relationship where the mesiobuccal cusp of
the maxillary first molar is located within the
mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
distobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
buccal groove of the mandibular second molar
mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular second molar
distobuccal groove of the mandibular second molar
developmental lobe cusps
premolar ?
how many developmental lobe form a premolar with two cusps(one buccal cusp
and one lingual cusp)?
1
2
3
4
5
permanent iscisor mesiodistal
?
Select the letter of the permanent iscisor that normallly exhabit:this tooths has the widest (mesiodistally) incisor
crown.
mandibular central incisor
mandibular lateral insor
permanent incisor
crown
(select the letter of the permanent incisor that normallly exhabit:this
tooths has the shortest root relative to its crown.)
permanent incisor

(select the letter of the permanent incisor that normallly exhabit:this
tooths is the most symmetrical incisor)
permanent incisor
mesiodistal
Select the letter of the permanent incisor that normally exhabit:
this tooth has the narrowest incisor crown (mesiodistally).
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A
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96
A
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A
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98
A
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A
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100
A
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A
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102
A
B
C
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103
A
B
C
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104
A
B
C
D
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105
A
B
C
D
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106
A
B
C
D
E
107
A
B
C
D
E
108
A
B
C
D
E
109
A
B
C
D
E
110
A
B
C
D
E
111
A
B
C
D
E
112
A
B
C
D
E
113
A
B
C
D
E
114
A
B
C
D
E
115
A
B
C
D
E
116
A
B
C
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117
A
B
C
D
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A
B
C
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119
A
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120
A
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121
A
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122
A
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123
A
B
C
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(Pharmacology)
Local anesthetics (Local anesthetics produce):

(analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness)

(blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness)

(alleviation of anxiety an pain with an altered level of consciousness)
(a stupor or somnolent state)

(A good local anesthetic agent shouldn't cause)

(local irritation and tissue damage)
systemic toxicity

(fast onset and long duration of action)
(vasodilatation)

?
Which one of the following groups is responsible for the duration of the local anesthetic action?
intermediate chain
lipopyslic group
ionizable group
all of the above

?
(lidocaine
Indicate(lignocaine)
the local anesthetic agent,which has shorter duration of action):
procaine
bupivacaine
articaine
?
Indicate the drug,which has greater potency of the local anesthetic action:
lidocaine (lignocaine)
bupivacaine
procaine
mepivacaine
Ionizable group (Ionizable group is responsible for):

(the potency and the toxicity)
(the duration of action)
(the ability to diffuse to the site of action)
all of the above
(Local anethetic are):

(weak bases)
(weak acids)
(salts)
none of the above
(Indicated the anesthetic agent of choice in patient with a liver disease):
procaine
etidocaine
fiber ?
Which of the following fiber is the first to be blocked?
type A alpha fibers
B and C fiber
type A beta fiber
type Agamma fibers
the choice of the local anesthetic for specific procedures is usually based on:
the duration of action

water solubility

(capability of rapid penetration through the skin or mucosa with limited tendency to diffuse away from the
site of application)
all of the above
?Indicate the local

anesthetic,which is a long-acting agent:
bupivacaine
procaine
mepivacaine
(a vasoconstrictor dose not):

retard the removal of drug from the injection site
(Hence the chance of toxicity)
(decrease the blood level)
reduce a local anesthetic uptake by the nerve
Vasoconstrictor

Vasoconstrictor are less efective in prolonging anesthetic properties of:

procaine
bupivacaine
lidocaine
mepivacaine
intravenous benzodiazepine?
Noloxone
Flumazenil
Ketamine
Fomepizole
intravenous anesthetics antiemetic actions?

Thiopental
Propofol
Ketamine
Fentanyl
intravenous anesthetic cardiovascular respiratory

depressant?
Propofol
Thiopental
Etomidate
Midazolam
Ketamine anesthesia
Cardiovascular stimulation
cerebral blood flow, Oxygen Consumption
intracranial pressure

Physiologic reactions
Platelet adhesion reaction
Platelet release reaction
antifibrinolytic system
Triggering of coagulation process
Thrombosis
Anticoagulant drugs
Antifibrinolitic drugs
Fibrinolytic drugs
Antiplatelet drugs
anticoagulants
Aspirin
Heparin
Diusmarol
Phenprocoumon
antagonists heparin
Aspirn
Dicusmarol
Daltreparin
Protamine sulphate
oral anticoagulant
Heparin
Daltreparin
Dicumarol
Enoxaparin
indirect acting anticoagulants

Dicumarol
Warfarin
Dalteparin
Phenindione
coumarin derivatives?
Heparin
Enoxaparin
Dalteparin
Warfarin
antiplatelet agents
Aspirin
Urokinase
Ticlopidine
Clopidogrel
fibrinolytic?
Ticlopidine
Streptokinase
Aspirin
Warfarin
Fibrinolytic drugs
Central deep venous thrombosis
Multiple pulmonary emboli
Heart failure
Acute myocardial infarction
Glucocorticoids hormonal steroids

intermediary metabolism, cardiovasuilar function,

salt retaining activity

androgenic estrogenic activity
Inflammation
,
, ,

normal immune response
immune reaction
antibody extracellular proeins
Acute, transient phase inflammation

Local vasodilatation capillary permeability
(phase of damage)
Infiltration of leucocytes phagocytic cell (phase of exudation)
Tissue degeneration and fibrosis occurrence (phase of proliferation)
Delayed, subacute phase

Local vasodilatation and increased capillary permeability(phase of damage)
Infiltration of leucocytes and phagocytic cells (phase of exudation)
Chronic, proliferative phase of inflammation

Local vasodilatation and increased capillary permeability(phase of damage)
Infiltration of leucocytes and phagocytic cells (phase of exudation)

glucocorticoids Short to medium acting drugs?
Prenisolon
Dexamethasone
Triamcinolone
gluw corticoids intermediate acting drugs?

Cortisone
Triam cinolone
Butamethasone
Glucocorticoids long acting drugs?

Prednisolone
Dexamethasone
Triamcinolone
Anti-inflammatory effect gluococorticoids

prostaglandin and leukotriene enzyme phospholipase A2
macrophages
Capillary permeability
Glucocorticoids
Chronic (Addisons disease) and acute adrenocortical insufficiency
Organ transplants (Prevention and treatment of rejection
immunosuppression)
(arthritis, bursitis, tenosynovitis)
Glucocorticoids
Chronic (Addisons disease) and acute adrenocortical insufficiency
Organ transplants (Prevention and treatment of rejection
immunosuppression)
Glucocorticoids
Gastro-intestinal diseases ( )
Postmenopausal normonal therapy
( atopic dermatitis, dermatoses, localized neurodermatitis)
glucocorticoids
Acute peptic ulcer

Iatrogenic Cashings syndrome (rounding, fat deposition and plethora alter
appearance of face-moon face)
Salicylism (, , , )
Hypomania or acute psychosis
NSAIDs?
Antihistaminic, Antipyretic, Analgesic

Immunodepressive, Anti-inflammatory, Analgesic
Antipyertic, Analgesic, Anti-inflammatory
Anti-inflammatory, Immunodepressive, Antihistaminic
NSAIDs propionic acid derivative?

Ibuprofen
Indomethacin
Metamizole (Analgin)
Diclofenac
NSAIDs indol derivative?

Ibuprofen
Indomethacin
Meclofenamic acid
Diclofenac
NSAIDs pyrazolone derivative?

Ibuprofen
Indomethacin
Metamizole (Analgin)
Diclofenac
NSAIDs oxicam derivative?

Piroxicam
Indomethacin
Meclofenamic acid
Diclofenac
NSAIDs selective COX2 inhibitor?

Piroxicam
Indomethacin
Celecoxib
Diclofenac
NSAIDs non selective COX inhibitor?

Piroxicam
Rofecobix
Celecobix
aspirin
NSAIDs , aspirin COX

Aspirin chemical mediators Kallikrein
Aspirin phospholipase A2
Aspirin thromboxane A2 formation
Aspirin

(intolerance)
Salicylism (, , , )
Gastric ulcers and upper gastrointestinal bleeding
metamizole
Agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia
Salicylism (, , , )
Iatrogenic Cushings syndrome (rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the appearance of
the face-moon face)
indomethacin
, , gastrointestinal hemorrhage
,
Thrombocytopenia
Vitamins

Various fat soluble or water soluble organic substances

endocrine gland secretion
Vitamin-like compounds

endocrine gland secretion
Riboflavin
Water soluble vitamin

Vitamin A
Vitamin E
Vitamin D
Vitamin B1
?
Vitamin C
Vitamin A
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B6
?
Vitamin K
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Beri-beri
Riboflavin
Ascorbic acid
Nicoinic acid
Thiamine
Deficiency symptom of Riboflavin

Cheilitis:
Cheilosis:
Angular stomatitis wrinkled or fissured epithelium

mucosa
Vitamin A

Xerophthalmia and Keratomalacia
Various epithelial tissue defects

Xerophthalmia

A
softening and
subsequent ulceration and perforation of the cornea

A
Keratomalacia

A
A
ulceration
Nigh blindness (Hemeralopia, Nyclalopia)

A
A ulceration
cornea

A
isoniazide ?
Nicotinic acid
Riboflavin
Pyridoxine
Ascorbic acid
Vitamin antisterility factor?

Vitamin E
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B1
Vitamin K
viral
respiratory infecton?
Vitamin C
Vitamin A
Vitamin K
Vitamin PP
Vitamin megaloblast anemia

anemia ?
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B6
Vitamin PP
Vitamin D
, gingivitis
Vitamin K
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B6
Vitamin C

Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Antivitamins vitamin B6

metabolic?
Isoniazide
Ethanol
Carbamazepine

Choline
Vitamin PP
Vitamin U (methyl methioninesulfonil chloride)
Orotate acid

Ascorbic acid
Taurine
Thiamine
Riboflavin
anti-enzymes proteolysis inhisbitor?

Contrical
Sulbactam
Aminocaproic acid
Disulfiram
anti-enzymes fibrinolysis inhibitor?
Clavulanic acid
Sulbactam
Aminocaproic acid
Disulfiram
Calcitonin
Hypercalcemia
Pagets disease
Hypophosphatemia
Osteoporosis
Calcitonin
Pruritus
Hypotension
Fractures
Hypocalcemia
Glucocorticoid hormones bone mineral hemostasis

Antagonizing vitamin D Ca
Ca
parathyroid
Vitamin D3
Subcutaneous
Oral
Intravenous
Intranasal
Vitamin D3
Bone mineralization
Metastatic calcification
Toxic
Nephrolithiasis
Vitamin D3
Hypercalcemia
Pagets disease
Hypophosphatemia
Osteomalacia
Hypercalcemia
Hyperparathyroidism
/ Bone netastses
Renal failure and malabsorption
Hypervitaminosis D
Calcium
D
D
Hypercalcemia of malignancy
D
antibiotic
Streptomycin
Penicillin
Co-trimoxazole
Chloramphenicol
Bactericidal

L-form
antibiotic bactericidal effect?
Tetracyclines
Macrolides
Penicillins
Bacteriostatic effect is

L-form
Antibiotics bacteriostatic?
Carbapenems
Macrolides
Aminoglycosides
Cephalosporins
Antibiotics beta-lactam rings ?
Penicillin
Cephalosporins
Cabapenems and monobactams
antibiotic macrolides?
Neomycin
Doxycycline
Erythromycin
Cefotaxime
antibiotic cephalosporins?
Streptomycin
Cefaclor
Phenoxymethil penicillin
Erythromycin
Lincozamides?
Erythromycin
Lincomycin
Azithromycin
Aztreonam
antibiotic tetracyclin?
Doxycycline
Streptomycin
Clarithromycin
Amoxacillin
antibiotics aminoglycosides,
Gentamycin
Streptomycin
Clindamycin
Neomycin
acid ?
Penicillin G
Penicillin V
Carbenicillin
Procain penicillin
Penicillinase resistant?
Oxacillin
Amoxacillin
Bacillin-5
Penicillin G
Cephalosporines
Gram positive microorganism infection
Gram negative microorganism infection
Gram positive and gram negative microorganism infection penicillin
bacteroide infection
Antibiotics macrolides
Erythromycin
Clarithromycin
Lincomycin
Roxythromycin
Tetracyclins
gastrointestinal mucosa, photo toxicity
Hepatotoxicity, anti-anabolic effect
Dental hypoplasia, bone deformities
Antibiotic aminoglycosides?
Erythromycin
Gentamycin
Vancomycin
Polymyxin
Aminoglycosides
Gram (+) microorganism, anaerobic microorganism, spirochetes
Broad spectrum, Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Gram (-) microorganism, anaerobic microorganism
Broad spectrum, anaerobic microorganism and virus
Aminoglycoid ?
Pancytopenia
Hepatotoxicity
Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
gastrointestinal mucosa
Chloramphenicol ?
Broad spectrum, bactericidal
Gram (+) microorganism, bactericidal
Gram (-) microorganism, bactericidal
Broad spectrum, bacteriostatic
Chloramphenicol
Nephrotoxicity
Pancytopenia
Hepatotoxicity
Ototoxicity
Lincozamides (Lincozamides have the following unwanted effect:)

Nephrotoxicity
Cancerogenity
Pseudomembranous colitis
Irritation of respiratory organs
systemic and deep mycotic
infections treatment:
Co-trimoxazol
Griseofulvin
Amphotericin B
Nitrofungin
dermatomycosis
Nystatin
Griseofulvin
Amphotericin B
Vancomycin
Griseofulvin
Nitrofungin
Myconazol
candidiasis :
Streptomycin
antifungal antibiotics,:
Amphotericin B
Nystatin
Myconazol
Griseofulvin
Azoles antifungal effect because of:

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Inhibition of fungal protein synthesis
Reduction of ergosterol synthesis
Inhibition of DNA synthesis
Candida cell membranes(alter

permeability of Candida cell membranes)
Amphotericin B
Ketoconazole
Nystatin
Terbinafine
Amfotericin B (Amfotericin B has the following unwanted effects):
Psychosis
Renal impairment, anemia
Hypertension, cardiac arrhythmia
Bone marrow toxicity
Sulfonamides (Sulfonamides are effective against):

Bacteria and Chlamidia
Actinomyces
Protozoa
All of the above
sulfonamides trimethoprim:(Combination of sulfonamides with trimethoprim)

sulfonamides (Decreases the unwanted
effects of sulfonamides)
(Increases the antimicrobial activity)
(Decreases the antimicrobial activity)
sulfonamides (Increases the elimination of
sulfonamides)
Sulfonamide (Sulfonamide potency is decreased in

case of co-administration with)
Oral hypoglycemic agents
Local anesthetics derivatives of paraaminobenzoic acid
Local anesthetics derivatives of benzoic acid
Non-narcotic analgesics
Resorptive sulfonamides ? (Resorptive sulfonamides have the

following unwanted effects on
blood system):
Hemolytic anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Granulocytopenia
All of the above
Rifampin ? (Rifampin has the following unwanted effect:)

Dizziness, headache
Loss of hair
Flu-like syndrome, tubular necrosis

Hepatotoxicity
Isoniazid ?
( Isoniazid has following unwanted effect)
Cardiotoxicity
Hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy
Loss of hair
Immunotoxicity
Ethambutol ?
(Ethambutol has the following unwanted effect)
Cardiotoxicity
Immunetoxicity
Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness
Hepatotoxicity
Streptomycin ?
(Streptomycin has the following unwanted effect)
Cardiotoxicity
Hepatotoxicity
Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness
Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
Tick the unwanted effects of Metronidazole

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, stomatitis
Hypertension
Disturbances of peripheral blood circulation
All of the above
Fluoroquinolones
(Fluoroquinolones are activeagainst:)
Gram negative microorganisms only
Mycoplasmas and Chlamidiae only
Gram positive microorganisms only
Variety of Gram-negative and positive microorganisms, including
Mycoplasmas and Chlamidiae
fluoroquinolones ?
Tick the unwanted effects of fluoroquinolones
Hallucinations
Headache, dizziness, insomnia

Hypertension
Immune toxicity
Fluoroquinolones ?(Tick the indications for fluoroquinolones)

Infections of the urinary tract
Bacterial diarrhea

Infections of the urinary and respiratory tract, bacterial diarrhea
Respiratory tract infections
( The drug of choice for syphilis treatment is:)

Gentamycin
Penicillin
Chloramphenicol
Doxycycline
action?
29
he local
31
33
34
respiratory
mycotic
membranes(alters
wanted effects):
trimethoprim)
s decreased in
es have the
is:)
A
B
C
D
E
2
A
B
C
D
E
3
A
B
C
D
E
4
A
B
C
D
E
5
A
B
C
D
E
6
A
B
C
D
E
7
A
B
C
D
E
8
A
B
C
D
E
9
A
B
C
D
E
10
A
B
C
D
E
11
A
B
C
D
E
12
A
B
C
D
E
13
A
B
C
D
E
14
A
B
C
D
E
15
B
C
D
E
16
A
B
C
D
E
17
A
B
C
D
E
18
A
B
C
D
E
19
A
B
C
D
E
20
A
B
C
D
E
21
B
C
D
E
22
A
B
C
D
E
23
A
B
C
D
E
24
A
B
C
D
E
25
A
B
C
D
E
26
A
B
C
D
E
27
A
B
C
D
E
28
A
B
C
D
E
29
A
B
C
D
E
30
A
B
C
D
E
31
A
B
C
D
E
32
A
B
C
D
E
33
A
B
C
D
E
34
A
B
C
D
E
35
A
B
C
D
E
36
A
B
C
D
E
37
A
B
C
D
E
38
A
B
C
D
E
39
A
B
C
D
E
40
A
B
C
D
E
41
A
B
C
D
E
42
A
B
C
D
E
43
A
B
C
D
E
44
A
B
C
D
E
45
A
B
C
D
E
46
A
B
C
D
E
47
A
B
C
D
E
48
A
B
C
D
E
49
A
B
C
D
E
50
A
B
C
D
E
51
A
B
C
D
E
52
B
C
D
E
53
A
B
C
D
E
54
A
B
C
D
E
55
A
B
C
D
E
56
A
B
C
D
E
57
A
B
C
D
E
58
A
B
C
D
E
59
A
B
C
D
E
60
A
B
C
D
E
61
A
B
C
D
E
62
A
B
C
D
E
63
A
B
C
D
E
64
A
B
C
D
E
65
A
B
C
D
E
66
A
B
C
D
E
67
A
B
C
D
E
68
A
B
C
D
E
69
A
B
C
D
E
70
A
B
C
D
E
71
A
B
C
D
E
72
A
B
C
D
E
73
A
B
C
D
E
74
A
B
C
D
E
75
A
B
C
D
E
76
A
B
C
D
E
77
A
B
C
D
E
78
A
B
C
D
E
79
A
B
C
D
E
80
A
B
C
D
E
81
A
B
C
D
E
82
B
C
D
E
83
A
B
C
D
E
84
A
B
C
D
E
(Morphology of the Permanent Canines)

cervical line distal mesial

Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
All of the above
None of the above

: The cingulum

mesiodistally.
Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
All of the above
None of the above

: outline
crown root mesial surface

Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
All of the above
None of the above

:
mesial incisal distal
(For the trait described, indicate the letter of the best response: The mesial contact area is located more
incisally than the distal contact area on the same tooth.)

Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
All of the above
None of the above

: cusp
lingual mid-root axis proximal

Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
All of the above
None of the above

: Mamelons

Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
All of the above
None of the above

:
cusp angle ?

Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
All of the above
None of the above

: mesiodistal
labiolingual
Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
All of the above
None of the above

: The mesial
distal marginal ridges lingual surface

Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
All of the above

None of the above

:
The teeth (tooth) develop(s) from four lobes
Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
All of the above
None of the above

:
3[The teeth (tooth) develop(s) from three lobes.]
Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
All of the above
None of the above

premolars
Mesial cusp ridge buccal cusp distal cusp ridge
(For the following traits or statements, select the letter of the premolars that apply: Mesial cusp
ridge of the buccal cusp is longer than the distal cusp ridge.)

Maxillary second premolar
Mandibular first premolar

Mandibular second premolar (two-cusp type)
Mandibular second premolar (three-cusp type)

premolars
a nonfunctioning
lingual cusp

premolars
/3 cervical mesial side
(Has a depression in the cervical one third of the mesial side of the crown and root)


premolars
Maxillary premolar buccal cusp


premolars
maxillary premolar


premolars
Mandibular premolar buccal cusp



premolars
Maxillary premolar [that is most
symmetrical (occlusal view).]


premolars
Premolars a central groove


premolars
Mesial marginal ridge distal marginal ridge


premolars
(Has no transverse ridge.)


premolars
central groove


premolars
major cusps size length


premolars
central fossa



premolars
Premolars fossae : fossae


premolars
central fossa triangular fossae


premolars
lingual groove


cusp ?
Mesiobuccal
Distobuccal
Mesiolingual
Distolingual
Distal
cusp ?
Mesiobuccal
Distobuccal
Mesiolingual
Distolingual
Distal
developmental groove the lingual groove
?
Mesiobuccal
Distobuccal
Buccal
Mesiolingual
Distolingual
?
root visible on a mandibular first molar?)
(From which view is only one
Mesial
Distal
Buccal
Lingual
Apical
?(Which root may
occasionally be divided or bifurcated on a mandibular first molar?)
Buccal
Lingual
Mesial
Distal
Mesiobuccal
cusp triangular ridge a transverse ridge a five-cusp first
molar?
Mesiobuccal
Distobuccal
Mesiolingual
Distolingual
Distal
cusp a maxillary second molar?
Mesiobuccal
Mesiolingual
Distobuccal
Distolingual
Cusp of Carabelli
cusp a maxillary second molar?
Mesiobuccal
Mesiolingual
Distobuccal
Distolingual
Distal
Fossae , ?
Mesial triangular
Distal triangular
Central
Distal
a maxillary first molar?

Mesial
Distal
Buccal
Lingual
?
visible in the mouth of a 3-year-old?)
None
10
(How many teeth should be
20
24
28
?
(How many teeth should be
present in the mouth of a 13-year-old?)

10
20
24
28
32
primary molar ?
Tooth A
Tooth E
Tooth F
Tooth T
Tooth B
? primary incisors
, canines, molars;
secondary incisors first molars.
2 to 4 years
5 to 7 years
8 to 9 years
10 to 11 years
Over 12 years
J?
(Which succedaneous tooth
erupts beneath tooth J?)

No. 1
No. 5
No. 10
No. 13
No. 16
furcation cervical line (only one correct
answer)?
First premolar
Second premolar
First molar
Second molar
Third molar
clinical attachment
+2 mm 4 mm pocket?
+2 mm
+6 mm
6 mm
2 mm
The furcations cervical portion ?
Mandibular first molar

Mandibular second molar
Mandibular third molar
Maxillary first molar
Maxillary second molar
?
(Which of the following is
considered as root anomalies?)

Furcation
Cingulum
Radicular palatal groove
Occlusal fissure
a pseudopocket?
(What phrase best defines a pseudopocket?)
Gingival margin is located coronal to the CEJ
Gingival margin is located apical to the CEJ
The distance between the gingival margin and CEJ
The distance between the gingival margin and furcation
? (Maxillary anterior teeth are most likely to have how many

root canals?)
One
Two
Three
One or two
(Maxillary first molars are most
likely to have roots and root canals?)

Two, two
Two, three
Two, four
Three, three
Three, four
The one premolar ( )
Maxillary first premolar.
Maxillary second premolar.
Mandibular first premolar.
Mandibular second premolar
(The two roots of a maxillary
first premolar are called)

Mesial and lingual.
Mesial and distal.
Buccal and mesial.
Buccal and lingual.
Mesiobuccal and distobuccal.
incisal edge right mandibular lateral incisor protrusion
mandible?
Maxillary right central incisor and left central incisor
Maxillary right central incisor and right lateral incisor

Maxillary right lateral incisor and canine
Maxillary right canine and first premolar
MIP, landmark lingual cusp ? (In MIP, with

what landmark would the lingual cusp of the maxillary second premolar occlude?)
The mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular second premolar

The mesial fossa of the mandibular second premolar
The distal marginal ridge of the mandibular second premolar
The mesial fossa of the mandibular first molar
class I occlusion class II (where the mandible was positioned one

full tooth distal to its class I position), () maxillary second premolar?
Mandibular canine and first premolar

Mandibular first premolar and second premolar
Mandibular second premolar only
Mandibular second premolar and first molar
Mandibular first molar only
class I occlusion class III occlusion (where the mandible was
positioned one full tooth mesial to its class I position), () maxillary
second premolar?
Mandibular canine and first premolar

Mandibular first premolar and second premolar
Mandibular second premolar only
Mandibular second premolar and first molar
Mandibular first molar only
succedaneous an
abscess ?
Turner tooth
Fluorosis
Tetracycline staining
Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Amelogenesis imperfecta
( crowns) maxillary incisor , crowns
width notched ?(What do you suspect?)
Fusion
Twinning
Gemination
Concrescence
Cementosis

?
)?
Attrition
Erosion
Abrasion
Amelogenesis imperfecta
Hypoplasia

a bifurcated root?
Maxillary central incisors
Maxillary lateral incisors
Mandibular canines
Mandibular first premolars
Mandibular second premolars
temporal fossa?
Parietal
Frontal
Sphenoid
Temporal
Occipital
mental foramen ?
On the external surface of the mandible
On the internal surface of the mandible
On the palatal surface of the maxilla
On the external surface of the maxillae
On the sphenoid bone
space maxillary nerve the foramen rotundum?
Nasopalatine canal
Mandibular canal
Maxillary sinus
Infraorbital canal
Pterygopalatine space
bony process maxilla ?
Nasofrontal process
Frontal process
Alveolar process
Zygomatic process
Palatine process
sphenoid?
Foramen ovale
Foramen rotundum
Greater wing
Pterygoid process
Articular fossa
the maxillary sinus?
Maxillary molars and premolars
Maxillary canines
Maxillary incisors
Mandibular posterior teeth
the parietal bones
(The suture line joining the two
parietal bones is called the)

Squamosal suture.
Coronoid suture.
Sagittal suture.
Intermaxillary suture.
Lambdoid suture.
disc TMJ?
articulate with the disc in the TMJ?)
(What two structures
The coronoid process of the mandible and the mandibular fossa of the
temporal bone
The condyloid process of the mandible and the mandibular fossa of the
temporal bone
The coronoid process of the mandible and the mandibular fossa of the
sphenoid bone
The condyloid process of the mandible and the mandibular fossa of the
sphenoid bone
The condyloid process of the mandible and the mandibular fossa of
the maxillae
mandible the inferior surface the
neurocranium the lingula
(The ligament that limits the amount of movement of the mandible and attaches from the inferior surface
of the neurocranium to the lingula of the mandible is the)
Lateral (TMJ) ligament.

Stylomandibular ligament.
Sphenomandibular ligament.
Sternocleidomastoid ligament.
temporal mandible function?

In the anterior three quarters of the mandibular fossa called the articular fossa
In the posterior quarter of the mandibular fossa called the articular fossa
On the posterior inferior portion of the articular eminence
On the anterior inferior position of the articular eminence
origin pterygoidfossa?
Medial pterygoid muscle
Lateral pterygoid muscle
Masseter
Temporalis muscle
masseter mandible. mandible ?
Temporalis (anterior fibers) and lateral pterygoid muscles

Lateral pterygoid muscles and medial pterygoid muscles
Temporalis (posterior and anterior fibers) and medial pterygoid muscles
Medial pterygoid muscles and temporalis (anterior fibers)
Lateral pterygoid muscles and temporalis (posterior fibers)
fibers lateral pterygoid origin
insertion ?
Medial and posterior

Medial and anterior
Lateral and anterior

Lateral and posterior
facial expression (lips)?
Orbicularis oris
Risorius
Levator labii superioris
Depressor labii inferioris
Orbicularis oculi
inches ?
Masseter, the origin

Masseter, the insertion
Temporalis, posterior fibers
Temporalis, anterior fibers
Temporalis, the insertion
, , mandible ?
The left medial pterygoid muscle
The right medial pterygoid muscle
The left temporalis muscle, horizontal fibers
The right lateral pterygoid muscle
The left lateral pterygoid muscle
branches nerve fibers masseter ,

?
CN V: maxillary division
CN V: mandibular division
CN V: ophthalmic division
Facial nerve
Lingual nerve
nerve branches

?
Buccal nerve
Mental nerve
Incisive nerve
Inferior alveolar nerve
Lingual nerve
infraorbital nerve infraorbital canal?
(Which two nerves branch off the infraorbital nerve while it is in the infraorbital canal?)
MSA and PSA

ASA and MSA
PSA and ASA
MSA and nasopalatine
Nasopalatine and greater palatine

nerve fibers nerve

?(results in numbness in half of the anterior two thirds of the tongue?)
Hypoglossal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Lingual nerve branch of the trigeminal nerve
Lingual nerve branch of the facial nerve
nerve trigeminal skull

foramen?
Foramen ovale
Foramen rotundum
Mandibular foramen
Mental foramen
Infraorbital foramen
a
mandibular incisor?
Submental
Submandibular
Parotid
Cervical
Preauricular
the cervical lymph node chain?
Around the sternocleidomastoid muscle
Near the symphysis of the mandible

Over the submandibular gland
Behind the ear
Over the parotid gland
artery the mandibular teeth?
Maxillary artery
Masseteric artery
Pterygoid artery
Pterygopalatine artery
Superficial temporal artery
artery the maxillary teeth?
Maxillary artery
Masseteric artery
Pterygoid artery
Pterygopalatine artery
Superficial temporal artery
he cingulum
outline
a is located more
cusp
Mamelons
mesiodistal
he mesial
ply: Mesial cusp
(Morphology of Premolars)
[that is most
ge
view is only one
hich root may
ive-cusp first
eth should be
eeth should be
cisors
aneous tooth
only one correct
4 mm pocket?
ollowing is
ave how many
olars are most
of a maxillary
protrusion
(Fun
? (In MIP, with
positioned one
cond premolar?
ndible was
maxillary
an
rowns
dum?
joining the two
ructures
ace the
e inferior surface
mandible ?
lips)?
skull
(Functional Occlusion and Malocclusion)
A
B
C
D
E
2
A
B
C
D
E
3
A
B
C
D
E
4
B
C
D
E
5
A
B
C
D
E
6
A
B
C
D
E
7
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
9
A
B
C
D
E
10
A
B
C
D
E
11
A
B
C
D
E
12
A
B
C
D
E
13
A
B
C
D
E
14
A
B
C
D
E
15
A
B
C
D
E
16
A
B
C
D
E
17
A
B
C
D
E
18
A
B
C
D
E
19
A
B
C
D
E
20
A
B
C
D
E
( Biology)
cellular organelles ?
(What cellular organelles would you expect to be absent from fungi?)
Mitochondria
Lysosomes
Ribosomes
Golgi bodies
Chloroplasts
Intracellular organelles metabolic oxidations
H2O2
centrioles.
endoplasmic granules
peroxisomes.
lysosomes.
macrobodies.
cell organelles a membranous structure
?
Golgi complex
Centrioles
Mitochondria
Lysosomes
Endoplasmic reticulum
organelle cell?
Golgi body
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Ribosome
Chloroplast
motor unit (The term motor unit refers to)
an entire muscle.
a single muscle fiber.
all the muscle fibers innervated by one nerve fiber.
all the motor nerves in one muscle.
all the sliding filaments of actin andmyosin in one muscle fiber.

(The human heart beat is initiated within the)
sinus venosus.
Hensens node.
conus arteriosus.
artio-ventricular node.
sino-atrial node.
potassium iodine a nutritional supplement

?
Thyroid
Sweat glands
Adrenal cortex
Kidneys
Parathyroid
synthesized anterior lobe pituitary gland (vertebrates

?
Thyrotropic hormone
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Growth hormone
Oxytocin
(Clotting of human blood)
requires that hemoglobin be present.
results from fibrin joining globulin.
is a result of platelets releasing fibrinogen.
depends on the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen.
is accelerated when Ca2+ is removed.
(Embryonic induction is a
process in which)
embryonic tissues influence adjacent tissues to differentiate.

an unfertilized egg is induced to develop.
genes are transferred from one developing tissue to another.
resting potentials are induced in neurons of embryos.
the maternal parent induces expression of recessive genes in embryos

(Of the following, the rate and type of cleavage occurring after fertilization would be most affected by
the)
amount and distribution of yolk.

number of chromosomes.
thickness of the cell membrane.

temperature.
thickness of the zona pellucida.
the molecules:
move faster.
move slower.
become heavier.
become lighter.
strike a unit area of the container more often.
750C
(The melt conducts electricity)

molecular.
ionic.
macromolecular.
metallic.
polymeric.
parotid gland ganglia
?
Gasserian
Geniculate
Otic
Pterygopalatine
Trigeminal
( )

(size) dental tissues
?
Cementum
Dentin
Enamel
Periodontal ligament
Pulp

nerves
?
Facial nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Inferioralveolar nerve
Lingual nerve
Mandibular nerve
maximum intercuspation
Centric position
Centric occlusion
Centric relation
Centric organization
Centric bite
Glands of von Ebner

Minor Salivary Glands
Parotid glands
Submandibular glands
Sublingual glands
distal contact
?
First premolar
No distal contact
Second deciduous molar
Second permanent molar
Second premolar
Lesion
vasodilatation migration white blood cells

cells zones ?
Cell free zone

Cell rich zone
Odontoblast layer
Plexus of Raschow
Pulp core
741
742
743
744
745
746
747
(vertebrates)
748
749
onic induction is a
750
751
st affected by
molecules:
752
753
ganglia
754

( Organic Chemistry)
755
756

issues
757
758
759
760

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ANATOMY SCIENCES

Anterior communicating artery.

posterior cranial fossa. EXCEPT

Ventral posterior medial nuclei (PM)

mediating facial senation and pian?

Brainstem nuclei Crania nerve

Superior salivatory nucleus.

Inferior salivatary nucleus

Tendons form attachments between bone and bone.

pituitary gland Sinus ?

Hyoid bone and thryroid cartilage.

Lesser wing of sphenoid and frontal

Connection between radius and ulna.

Ascending pharyngeal artery.

Lingual root of the maxillary 1st premolar.

Nonkeratinized stratified squamous

Excretion via sweat glands.

efferent output of the gag

Lamina densa is a product of the connective tissue.

It Usually contains no teeth.

oral cavity fauces?

Key Enzyme DNA

Lateral spinothalamic tract ( of the antero-lateral pathway)

Receptors detecting stretch?

The concentration of hemoglobin within erythrocytes

All of the above

Bone resorption Kidney tubular

Thiamine, riboflavin, and niacin

Non Hodgkin Lymphoma

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

Von Willebrand disease

Primary intention Secondary intention

Total ( Sodium fluoride triclosan)

Cell growth plateaus Stationary phase

The initial phase Cell death

E. The lag phase

Spore Gram positive rod

Subgingival plaque Gram negative bacteria

Antitoxin vaccine Active immunity

Phagocytose Connective tissue

Caf au lait spots

& back pressure chronic hyperemia

True polycythemia RBC mass & Total blood

Spurious polycythemia (Gaisbock syndrome ) relative

secondary polycythemia erythropotein

59 root canal therapy #9 (

white blood cell count

Red blood cell count

Plasma cell count

Troche-from anti-fungal drugs

Acute hepatitis A infection

The distal marginal ridge of the maxillary 2nd premolar

Maxillary 1st premolar

The terminal hinge position condyles glenoid fossa.

Anterior and Superor

Class III, division II

Mandibular 1st molar

Buccal groove of the mandibular 1st molar

Mesial: Junction of the incisal and middle 3rds; Distal: Junction of

(All of the following are true of

CT scans maxillary mandible

Maxillary central incisor

Mandible VDO centric occlusion

The mandibular teeth move to the left