In This Issue

Regulars
Editorial 799
September 2009 Science and Technology 801
Year—12 Issue—139 Latest General Knowledge 805
Inspiring Young Talent—
Selected in UP-CPMT-2009 (Rank 6)—Ratish Kumar Mishra 809
Science Tips 811

Physics
Sound-I : Wave Motion 814

Editor Nuclear Physics-I : Radioactivity 822

MAHENDRA JAIN Typical Model Paper 828
Typical Model Paper 834

Chemistry
Transition Elements : Elements of d-Block 842
Aromatic Nitro Compounds : Nitrobenzene 849
Typical Model Paper 856
Typical Model Paper 861

Zoology
Human Skeletal System 866
Editor/Publisher is not responsible for
views, data, figures etc. expressed in the Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD) 872
articles by the authors. Typical Model Paper 876
—Editor
Typical Model Paper 879
Typical Model Paper 882
No part of this publication can be
reproduced or transmitted in any form Botany
without the prior written permission from
the publishers. Vegetative Parts of Plant Body 885
Fat (Lipid) Metabolism 890
Biogeochemical Cycle 893
Typical Model Paper 896
Edited, printed and published by Mahendra
Jain for M/s. Pratiyogita Darpan, 2/11A,
Typical Model Paper 899
Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA–2 and
printed by him at Pratiyogita Darpan Other Features
Printing Unit, 5 & 6, Bye pass Road, Agra.
Phone : 4053333, 2531101, 2530966 Assertion and Reason Type Questions 902
Fax : (0562) 4031570, 4053330 True or False 905
E-mail : publisher@pdgroup.in
Website : www.pdgroup.in
Do You Know ? 909
General Awareness 913
CSV Quiz Contest No. 136 916
Branch Office :
4845, Ansari Road, Correct Solution and Prize Winners of CSV Quiz No. 133 919
Daryaganj, New Delhi–110 002 Mental Ability Test 920
Phone : 23251844/66

C.S.V. / September/ 2009 / 797

 To Our Readers
Dear Readers,
The September issue of your favourite magazine ‘Competition Science Vision’
is in your hands. To start a fresh session of PMTs, all efforts have been made to
make this issue totally examination-oriented and useful for various future tests.
It is worth repeating at this stage that the opinions of toppers, other
successful candidates and readers in general have uni-vocally decided that
CSV is a valuable guide which stands unmatched in its field. Even experts
have ranked it as second to none in its utility. The magazine will undoubtedly
improve your performance and give an extra-edge over other competitors which is
so essential for success.
We also remind you that success comes to those who earnestly work for it. It
requires hardwork and devotion. Remember a few months of hard labour can land
you in a meaningful and fabulous career. The undisputed guidance of CSV is always
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Read CSV regularly and intelligently. It gives you the power to master
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With best wishes for your success.
Sincerely yours,
Mahendra Jain
(Editor)

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much earlier. According to ISRO
Chairman, Madhavan Nair, the star
sensor’s failure was due to excessive
radiation from the Sun. As the sensor
could not be recovered at this stage,
the remainder of the two-year mission
will be completed using a gyroscope,
an electro-mechanical device that
was used in Indian Remote Sensing
satellites.
Gyroscope, however, needs
regular intervention to stabilise the
orientation, and the ISRO’s ground
station has begun weekly altitude
corrections. With the failure of the two
star sensors, the number of technical
glitches, Chandrayaan has encoun-
tered in its nine-month lunar orbit,
stand at three—third being the failure
of a Bus Management Unit, which
has been replaced by a back-up unit.
The Rs. 400 crore satellite had
also encountered problems of thermal
heating. On one instance, in January
2009, the temperature within the
spacecraft had risen to 80 degree
celsius. The optional temperature for
electronic packages and payloads is
zero to 40° celsius.
Chandrayaan was launched on
October 22, 2008 carrying 11
payloads (scientific equipments for
experiments), including the moon
impact probe that crash-landed on a
designated location near the moon’s
South Pole in November 2008.
Hackers tap into personal com-
puters all the time—but what would
happen if they focussed their
nefarious energy on neural devices
such as the deep brain simulators
currrently used to treat parkinson and
depression or electrode systems for
controlling prosthetic limbs ?
Brain Storming : As neural devices go
wireless, hackers might try to mani-
pulate deep-brain stimulators or elec-
trode systems for controlling prosthetic
limbs.
The next generation of implant-
able devices to control prosthetic limbs
will likely include wireless controls
that allow physicians to adjust remotely
the settings on the machine. If neural
engineers do not build in security
features such as encryption and
access control, an attacker could
hijack the device and takeover robotic
limb.
Some might question why anyone
would want to hack into someone
else’s brain, but the experts say that
there is a precedence for using PCs
to cause neurological harm.
Digging Deeper for
Geothermal Energy
A new project financed by the
Energy Department of U.S.A., aims to
capture geothermal energy from hot
bedrock. But the rock must be broken
upto extract the heat and that process
creates earthquakes.
For decades energy companies
have been drilling into a sandstone-
like rock, called graywacke that is
heated by hot bedrock underneath.
The new project will drill miles deeper
into the felsite rock that intrudes into
the gaywacke, causing the rock to
shift and break—and generate earth-
quakes.
The start-up company running the
project ‘Altarock Energy’, says that the
small tremors are negligible, and that
large quakes can be avoided by con-
trolling the fractures and staying away
from known faults.
●●●

From Computer Hacking

to Brain Hacking
Hackers, who can easily break
into personal computers, are giving
researchers sleepless nights as they
fear that someday the human brain
might get hacked as well.
In the past years, researchers
have developed technology that
makes it possible to use thoughts to
operate a computer, maneuver a
wheelchair or even use Twitter—all
without lifting a finger. But as neural
devices become more complicated—
and go wireless—some scientists say
the risks of ‘brain hacking’ should be
taken seriously.
Neural devices are innovating at
an extremely rapid rate and hold
tremendous promise for the future. If
we do not start paying attention to
security, we are worried that we might
find ourselves in 5 or 10 years saying
we have made a big mistake. Process of Capturing Geothermal Energy

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 803 / 2


AWARDS/HONOURS
Gandhi Peace Award
The pro-democracy Myanmar
leader and Nobel Laureate Aung San
Suu Kyi was felicitated with Mahatma
Gandhi International Award for Peace
and Reconciliation on July 21, 2009
in Durban. The Award was bestowed
by the South African-based Mahatma
Gandhi Foundation. Burmese Prime
Minister in exile received the Award
on her behalf.
The Award is in recognition of
her strong commitment to non-vio-
lence, justice and peace.
Sports Awards 2008
Khel Ratna Award—Four-time
women’s boxing World champion,
M. C. Mary Kom was chosen for the
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for
the year 2008 on July 20, 2009 in New
Delhi.
The awardees :
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
Award : M. C. Mary Kom (boxing).
Arjuna Award : Mangal Singh
Champia (archery), Sinimole Paulose
(athletics), Saina Nehwal (badminton),
Sarita Devi (boxing), Tania Sachdev
(chess), Gautam Gambhir (cricket),
Ignace Tirkey and Surinder Kaur
(hockey), Pankaj Shirsat (kabaddi),
Satish Joshi (rowing), Ronjan Sodhi
(shooting), Poulomi Ghatak (table
tennis), Yogeshwar Dutt (wrestling),
Girdhari Lal Yadav (sailing) and V.
Prabhu (wheelchair tennis).
Dronacharya Award : P. Gopi
Chand (badminton), Satpal (wrestling),
J. Uday Kumar (kabaddi), Baldev
Singh (hockey) and Jaidev Bisht
(boxing).
Royal Medal (for C.N.R. Rao)—
Noted scientist, Dr. C.N.R. Rao,
National Research Professor at the
Jawahar Lal Nehru Centre for
Advanced Scientific Research,
Bangalore has been awarded the
prestigious Royal Medal by the Royal
Society, London for his contributions
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 805
to solid state and material chemistry.
The medal is awarded by the Queen
on recommendations of the Council
of the Royal Society.
BOOKS
Readings in Indian Agriculture
and Industry—Edited by K. L.
Krishna and Uma Kapila (A collection
of essays written by noted economists
providing insights into two vital
sectors of Indian Economy).
Global Bollywood—Edited by
Anandam P. Kavoori and Aswin
Punathambekar (The book is a
collection of scholarly essays which
examine the manner in which Hindi
cinema has reframed relationship
among geography, cultural production
and cultural identities).
Accelerating Growth and Job
Creation in South Asia—Ejaz Ghani
and Sadiq Ahmed (A study of South
Asian political economy beyond the
conventional discourse of market and
state).
Archaeology in India—Gautam
Sengupta and Kaushik Gangopadhyay
(The book deals with the glimpses of
the methods and means adopted by
the pioners in archaeology to unravel
India’s past).
DAYS
August 1—World Breast Feeding
Day
August 3—International Friend-
ship Day.
August 6—Hiroshima Day.
August 8—World Senior Citizens’
Day.
August 9—Quit India Day,
Nagasaki Day.
August 15—Independence Day
of India.
August 18—International Day of
the World’s Indigenous People.
August 19—Photography Day.
August 20—Sadbhavna Diwas.
August 29—National Sports Day.
Gangubai Hangal—A doyenne
of Hindustani classical music and one
of the foremost exponents of the
Kirana Gharana, Gangubai Hangal
passed away on July 21, 2009 in
Hubli, Karnataka. She was 97.
A recipient of more than 50
awards, includig the Padma Vibhu-
shan, the Padma Bhushan and the
Central Sangeet Natak Akademi
Award, four honorary doctoral degrees
and 24 titles, Ms. Hangal had the rare
honour of being felicitated by nine
Prime Ministers and five Presidents.
Abdullah Bukhari—Former
Shahi Imam of Delhi’s Jama Masjid,
Syed Abdullah Bukhari, died on July
7, 2009 following a heart attack. He
was 87. He is survived by four sons
and two daughters. He was the 12th
Shahi Imam of the grand old mosque
built by Mughal emperor, Shah Jahan.
Born in Rajasthan, Syed Abdullah
Bukhari completed senior cambridge
and became Naib-Shahi Imam in
1946. He became Shahi Imam in
1973. He was one of the strong
voices that opposed the Emergency
in 1975. His eldest son is the current
Shahi Imam.
Shiv Charan Mathur—Assom
Governor and former Rajasthan Chief
Minister, Shiv Charan Mathur passed
away in New Delhi. He was born on
February 14, 1926 in Guna district of
Madhya Pradesh. He shifted to his
maternal grandfather to Karauli
(Rajasthan). Twice he had been the
Chief Minister of Rajasthan—since
July 14, 1981 till February 23, 1985
and since January 20, 1988 till
December 4, 1989.
R. S. McNamara (U.S. Defence
Chief during Vietnam War)—Robert
S. McNamara, the cerebral Secretary
of Defence of U.S.A. who was vilified
for prosecuting the Vietnam war, died
on July 6, 2009 in Washington. He
was 93. He was fundamentally
associated with the Vietnam war,
America’s most disastrous venture.
Known as a policymaker, McNamara
was recruited to run the Pentagon by
President John F. Kennedy in 1961.
Later on, Mr. McNamara served as
the President of World Bank for 12
years.
Pradeep Kumar (New Defence
Secretary )—Union Government
appointed Pradeep Kumar as Defence
Secretary on July 13. Mr. Kumar, a
1972 batch Haryana cadre IAS officer,
had been working as Secretary
(Defence Production). He succeeded
Vijay Singh who retired. Mr. Kumar,
who will be 60 years of age this
September, will get a two-year tenure
as per the decision taken by the
governmet. He is a graduate in
Electrical Engineering from IIT, Delhi.
Nirupama Rao ( New Foreign
Secretary )—Nirupama Rao took over
as the Secretary of
External Affairs. She
succeeded Shiv
Shankar Menon who
retired. Before this,
she had been work-
ing as Ambassador
to China. A 1973-
batch officer of the Nirupama Rao
Indian Foreign Services, Ms. Rao has
extensive experience of full range of
diplomatic assignments that a pros-
pective Foreign Secretary is expected
to have. She worked as Indian High
Commissioner to Sri Lanka, Ambas-
sador to Peru and Deputy Head of
Indian Embassies in Moscow and
Washington. She will turn 60 in
December 2010.
Indira Jaisingh (New Add.
Solicitor-General )—Eminent lawyer of
Supreme Court, Indira Jaisingh, is
appointed as the first woman
Additional Solicitor-General of India.
She has also been a human rights
activist.
Vikas Swaroop—Vikas Swaroop,
whose book was turned into the
Oscar-winning ‘Slumdog Millionaire’,
is appointed as the India’s Consul-
General in Osoka, Japan.
Hansraj Bhardwaj (New Gov.,
Karnataka )—Former Union Minister
for Law and Justice, Hansraj Bhar-
dwaj was sworn-in as the Governor of
Karnataka. Born in 1937 in Haryana,
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 806
Mr. Bhardwaj began his career as the
Public Prosecutor for the Delhi
Administration and Delhi High Court
and rose as a Senior lawyer in
Supreme Court. He has also authored
three books.
Devanand Konwar (New Gov.,
Bihar )—President Pratibha Patil
appointed Devanand Konwar as the
Governor of Bihar. Mr. Konwar had
been Finance Minister of Assom.
Ramesh Pokhriyal (New CM,
Uttarakhand)—Mr. Ramesh Pokhriyal
‘Nishank’ was sworn-in as the fifth
Chief Minister of Uttarakhand. Mr.
Pokhriyal (51) succeeded Mr. Bhuvan
Chandra Khanduri, who had tendered
his resignation.
G. K. Pillai ( New Home Secre-
tary)—The former Commerce Secre-
tary, Mr. Gopal Krishna Pillai, took
over as the Union Home Secretary.
Earlier Mr. Pillai had also served as
the Joint Secretary in Union Home
Ministry.
Hillary Clinton—The U.S. Secre-
tary of State Hillary Clinton’s five-day
visit to India was
meant to herald a
new era in bilateral
relations, the em-
phasis she laid on
the need to conclude
the end use moni-
toring agreement
Hillary Clinton
(EUMA) for the sale
of American military hardware sug-
gests that Washington is looking at its
strategic partner in purely transac-
tional terms. For this dialogue to be
meaningful, Military and civil nuclear
cooperation were key pillars of the
bilateral talks.
Bandra-Worli Sea Link—A
proud Landmark—With the inaugu-
ration of the picturesque Bandra-Worli
sea link, more than four decades after
it was first mooted, Mumbai’s land-
scape has acquired an undeniable
facelift. This is India’s largest sea link,
the third of its kind after Pamban
Railway Bridge connecting Mandapam
and the island of Rameshwaram and
the Indira Gandhi Bridge (built in
1988) that runs parallel to the Pamban
Bridge. The 5·6 km Bandra-Worli sea
link with its cable-stayed bridge is an
impressive engineering feat and struc-
tural wonder in recent times.
This Rs. 1600 crore link has
undoubtedly become the new icon of
the city. The link is meant to be
extended to connect Worli and Haji
Ali in the next phase, enhancing
mobility further within the heavily
congested city. The highlight of this
project is that it is designed for the
vehicles to travel 100 km per hour,
reducing the travel time from 40
minutes to seven and thus saving on
the vehicle operating costs. It is
promissing to note that the Bandra-
Worli link, when it is fully operational,
will have two of its eight lanes
dedicated to buses.
Desert National Park (In
UNESCO’s Heritage List )—After
remaining merely on official records
for almost three decades, the ‘Desert
National Park’ in Jodhpur division is
now on the Tentative list of UNESCO’s
World Heritage. The unique habitat, a
3,162 sq. km, treeless, sandy, gravel
and rocky tract punctuated by deso-
late hills, houses many rare and
endangered species of flora and fauna
including the Great Indian Bustard.
Unique Habitat : The Desert National
Park is home to endangered species
like the Great Indian Bustard.
The ‘Desert National Park’
accounts for 60 species of mammals,
including chinkara desert fox, desert
hare, hairy-footed gerbil and long-
eared hedgehog. This park can take
pride in the fact that it is home to
Rajasthan’s state bird, the Great
Indian Bustard, State tree khejri, State
animal chinkara and the state flower
rohida.

15th Summit of Non-Aligned
Movement (NAM)—Two-day summit
of Non-Aligned Movement was con-
cluded at Sharm El-Sheikh in Egypt
on July 16, 2009. In a concluding
declaration, this 118-nation grouping
ended their summit with an agenda
that was both, focussed and compact,
emphasising the need for collective
action on the principal global issues
of the day.
From disarmament and terrorism
to climate change, the financial cricis
and Palestine, there was virtually no
global problem of relevance of the
developing world that was ignored.
Yet by spelling out a future agenda,
the Non-Aligned Movement leaders
have increased the likelihood of the
summit declaration being taken
seriously by its own members and
rest of the world.
G-8 and G-5 Summits—Leaders
of the G-8 industrial nations and the
G-5 developing countries started their
summit in L’Aquila, a mountain town
east of Rome on July 8, 2009. On the
beginning day, parallel summits of the
G-8 countries (chaired by Italy) and
the G-5 (chaired by Mexico) were
held. Then on July 9, there was a
combined meeting of the G-8 and G-5
alongwith the international organiza-
tions, Egypt and other major eco-
nomies. Third day of the summit
brought the African countries into the
dialogue with the G-8 and the G-5,
with the focus on food security.
The declaration expressed the
joint commitment of the G-8 and G-5
to implementing rapidly the decisions
taken at Washington and London in
G-20 summits, including those on
providing additional resources to the
international financial institutions. The
declaration committed the G-8 and
the G-5 to facilitating the develop-
ment, dissemination and mutually
agreed transfer of clean, low carbon
technologies, reducing carbon emis-
sions and increasing energy effi-
ciency. This is the first time in a G-8
and G-5 summit that a joint declara-
tion has been issued.
Mini Pravasi Bhartiya Divas—
In a view to involving Indians living in
Europe, the Government of India has
decided to hold the next mini Pravasi
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 807
Bhartiya Divas in Hague on Septem-
ber 19, 2009. The convention is
expected to bring together the Indians
to discuss their role in enhancing
India-Europe cooperation, understand
the opportunities and challenges
faced by them in culture, heritage and
tradition, as also trade and investment
opportunities in India.
India Launched First Nuclear-
powered Indigenous Submarine—
On July 26, 2009 India demonstrated
its capability to indigenously build and
operate a nuclear-powered submarine
when Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan
Singh launched INS Arihant (dest-
royer of enemies) for sea trial in
Visakhapatnam.
DESTROYER OF ENEMIES
● Length : 110 metres
● Width : 11 metres
● Displacement : 6,000 tonnes
● Crew : Around 100
● Induction : 2011
● Speed : 30 knots
● It can remain under water for three
months at a stretch, unlike India’s
existing diesel-electric submarines
that have to surface frequently to
recharge their batteries and thus run
serious risk of detection.
● Arihant still has to undergo rigorous
testing.
● “We've got to get its heart ticking
now,” said Advanced Technology
Vehicle Director General Vice
Admiral (retd) DSP Verma.
India has now joined a select
group of five countries which possess
the capability to build a nuclear-
powered submarine. Submarine is
INS Arihant–India’s Nuclear-powered
Submarine
equipped with anti-ship missiles,
torpedoes and sensors to keep it
undersea for a prolonged period of
time.
It took 11 years for the submarine
to be built under the code name
“Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV)”,
with the strategic cooperation of the
Russian Federation. The ATV pro-
gramme has spawned a new era in
cooperation among DRDO, Bhabha
Atomic Research Centre (BARC), the
Navy and public and private sectors,
synergised their efforts to achieve a
significants milestone. A nuclear-
powered submarine is a much-more
complex platform than any other
vessel and India built one of its own is
a great achievement. This is the
unanimous assessment of experts of
the world. The nuclear-powered
submarine is a highly complex
platform and safety regulations have
to be adhered to. There are hundreds
of systems and subsystems on the
submarine. They have to work one
after another. This is called setting-to-
work.
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
built the mini-nuclear reactor that
powers the submarine. DRDO
developed the K-15 missiles. What
enhances the scale of the achieve-
ment is that INS Arihant will be fitted
with India’s own K-15 ballistic missiles
that can be launched from under
water. The K-15 missiles, which are
already under production, can carry
both conventional and nuclear
warheads. They have a range of 700
kms. They are 10·4 metres tall and
weight 6·3 tonnes each.
On occasion of launching, the
Prime Minister, Dr. Singh, said, “We
do not have any aggressive desire
nor do we seek to threaten anyone.
We seek an external environment in
our region and beyond that is con-
ducive to our peaceful development
and the protection of our value
systems. Nevertheless, it is incumbent
upon us to take all measures neces-
sary to safeguard our country and
keep pace with technological
advancements worldwide.”
SPORTS
Cricket
Champions Trophy—Prize
money hiked—The International
Cricket Council announced a new
format for the Champions Trophy
according to which only the top eight
one-day teams will battle it out for an
increased prize money of $ 4 million.
Prize money for the title winner has
been increased to a four-fold. The
significant increase in prize money is
just the first of a series of innovations
which will mark out the ICC Cham-
pions Trophy as a high-value tourna-
ment.
Champions Trophy-2009—
Champions Trophy tournament will
begin on September 22, 2009 with
host South Africa locking horns with
Sri Lanka at Centurian Park and will
conclude at the Sams venue on
October 5, 2009.
Unlike previous editions, only top
eight ranked teams are eligible to
play in the tournament, spread over
15 matches. The teams, Australia,
England, India, New Zealand, Pakis-
tan, host South Africa, Sri Lanka and
the West Indies, have been divided
into two groups of four, with the top
two from each group advancing to the
semi-final stage.
India-West Indies ODI Series—
India won the ODI series 2–1 against
West Indies. Fourth and the final
match of the series was washed away
by rain, Mahendra Singh Dhoni was
adjusted as the ‘Man of the Series’ for
his consistent performance through-
out the series. As a result of this
victory, India achieved its second
series win in West Indies. In 2002
also, India had won the series in West
Indies. In this series win, left-hander
Yuvraj Singh Zoomed to a career best
second place in the ICC ODI rankings
which is currently topped by M. S.
Dhoni.
Sri Lanka-Pakistan Test Series
—On July 24, 2009 in Colombo, Sri
Lanka clinched the series 2–0, its first
at home against Pakistan after five
unsuccessful attempts and it provided
Sangakkara with a winning start as a
Captain. He hit an unbeaten century
to steer Sri Lanka to a draw on the
final day of final test.
SCORE BOARD
Pakistan—1st Innings : 299.
Sri Lanka—1st Innings : 233.
Pakistan—2nd Innings : 425 for
nine decl.
Sri Lanka—2nd Innings : 391.
Tennis
Wimbledon 2009—On July 5,
2009 in London, Switzerland’s Roger
Federer, came up as the most
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 808
successful Grand Slam Champion
after beating Andy Roddick of the Just Released
United States 5–7, 7–6, 7–6, 3–6,
16–14 in the men’s singles final. He
won his record 15th Grand Slam title
eclipsing USA’s Pete Sampras’
record of 14 major titles. With this title
he again became the world’s No. 1,
relegating Rafael Nadal of Spain to
the second spot. Women’s Singles :
In the women’s singles final played
on July 4, 2009, Serena Williams of
USA prevailed over her elder sister
Venus Williams 7–6, 6–2 to claim her
third Wimbledon women’s singles Useful for Various Competitive Exams.
title. Men’s Doubles : In the men’s and Professional Courses
doubles final, Canada’s Daniel Nestor
and Nenad Zimonjic of Serbia By : Dr. L. M. Prasad
defeated Mike Bryan and Bob Bryan Code No. 1673 Price : Rs. 75/-
of USA 7–6, 6–7, 7–6, 6–3. Women’s
Doubles : In the women’s doubles UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
E-mail : publisher@upkar.in Website : www.upkar.in
final, Serena Williams and Venus
Williams of USA pipped Samantha
Stotsur and Rennae Stubbs of
Australia 7–4, 6–4. Mixed Dubles :
Mark Knowles of Bahamas and Anna-
Lena Groenefeld of Germany beat
Leander Paes of India and his partner
Cara Black of Zimbabwe 7–5, 6–3 to
win the mixed doubles title. (Useful for Various Competitive Exams.)
Boxing By : Dr. Alok Kumar
Indian Team for World Boxing Code No. 1630 Rs. 40/-
Championship—The Indian Boxing
Federation on July 18, 2009 an- UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
nounced a nine-member team for the
World Boxing Championships to be
held in Milan, Italy since September 1
till 12. UPKAR’S
The team : Nanao Singh (48 kg),
Suranjoy Singh (51 kg), Jitender
Kumar (54 kg), Akhil Kumar (57 kg),
Jai Bhagwan (60 kg), Manoj Kumar
(64 kg), Vijender Singh (75 kg),
Dinesh Kumar (81 kg), Manpreet
Singh (91 kg).
Major P. N. Joshi (Retd.)
Rs. 125/-
Archery
Deepika is World Champion—
Deepika Kumari of India won the
By
individual gold medal in the cadet
Code 916
recurve women section of the 11th
Youth World Archery Championship
in Ogden (Utah), United States on
July 21, 2009. Deepika, a trainee at
the Jamshedpur–based Tata Archery
Academy, is the current senior
National and sub-junior National It Includes
Champion. ❖ Intelligence Tests ❖ Psycho-
This is second time India has won logical Tests ❖ GTO’s Tests
a world title in archery. Palton Hansda ❖ The Interviews Techniques
became the first Indian to be the ❖ Pilot’s Aptitude Tests
World Champion in 2006 in Mexico.
●●● UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA–2
 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Inspiring Young Talent ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
‘‘Clear focus on target, regular study, study with concentration and
regular revision are the elements of my success.’’
[‘Competition Science Vision’ arranged an exclusive interview with Mr. Ratish Kumar Mishra who has
the credit of being successful with a high rank in U.P. CPMT and also in PMT of AMU. For his brilliant
success he deserves all praise and our hearty congratulations. This important interview is published here in
its original form.]
CSV—Congratulations on your
brilliant success.
Ratish—Thank you.
CSV—Before knowing your result
what did you think about those who
achieve top positions ?
Ratish—I used to think that they
were born intelligent persons.
CSV—Achieving top position has
come as surprise to you or were you
confident of achieving it ?
Ratish—I was confident of
success but it was surprising when I
heard that I have got 6th rank in U.P.
CPMT.
CSV—What do you think is the
secret of your success ?
Ratish—Clear focus on target,
regular study, study with concentration
and regular revision are elements of
my success.
CSV—In how many attempts did
you get this success ?
Ratish—I took three attempts.
CSV—What were the short-
comings in your preparation for earlier
attempts ? How did you make up for
them this time ?
Ratish—I did not revise the
whole course and also I left some
topics which I thought were less
important.
Failure in earlier attempts made
me realise that all the topics are
important and we should revise them
all before examination. So I revised
the whole course twice.
CSV—From where did you get
the inspiration of choosing a medical
career ?
Ratish—My brother is also a
Doctor and also it was my childhood
dream.
CSV—From when did you start
the preparation for it ?
Ratish—After 12th class.
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 809
Selected in U.P. CPMT-2009 (Rank-6)
CSV—What planning did you
make for preparation ? Please tell
something in detail.
—CSV gives latest and
important points regarding pre-
medical tests of various medical
institutes. I have found it extre-
mely useful in my examination.
—Ratish Kumar Mishra
Ratish—My studies were mainly
based on text-books. I went through
all the books. Questions in PMT
examinations are mainly based on
concepts. So I mainly cleared my
concepts in every topic.
CSV—How much time did you
devote daily and regularly for Physics,
Chemistry, Zoology and Botany ?
Ratish—I used to study 8-10
hours daily. I devoted only two or
three subjects daily. For each subject
I gave 3-4 hours daily.
CSV—Out of the above four
subjects, to which subject did you give
more weightage and why ?
Ratish—I mainly gave weightage
to Biology because I find it hard to
learn so many of facts. I also gave
importance to Physics.
CSV—Did you make complete
study of all topics or of some selective
topics ?
Ratish—Yes, I made complete
study of all the topics.
—Ratish Kumar Mishra
CSV—How did you give final
touches to your preparation ?
Ratish—In Biology, I revised
those topics in which a lot of facts
have to be clearly understood and
remembered. In Physics, I went
through all the formulae and basic
concepts. In Chemistry, I revised
inorganic and organic portions.
CSV—Did you prepare notes ?
Ratish—Yes, I prepared notes.
Bio-Data
Name—Ratish Kumar Mishra
Father’s Name—Mr. Ram Anuj
Mishra
Mother’s Name—Mrs. Gayatri
Mishra
Educational Qualifications—
H.S./Std. X—86% (City Montessori
School Gomti Nagar, Lucknow), 2004.
Inter/Std XII—86% (City Montessori
School Gomti Nagar, Lucknow), 2006.
Special Achievements—
● CPMT—6th rank
● Selected in AMU PMT.
CSV—What was your attitude for
solving numerical questions ? What
weightage did you give them ?
Ratish—I did give them proper
weightage during my preparation,
while solving numericals I keenly
observed that what are the values
given and what is asked ? Then I
applied the formula or concept related
to it.
For that I had gone through the
derivation and concept used in
formula applied.
CSV—How much time is suffi-
cient for preparing for this examina-
tion ?
Ratish—For an average student
2 years.
CSV—From what level of edu-
cation should an aspirant begin pre-
paring for it ?
 Ratish—One should begin it from
class 11th.
CSV—What was your order of
preference for various branches for
which this test is held ?
Ratish—Only MBBS.
Personal Qualities
Hobbies—W a t c h i n g cricket,
playing football
Ideal Person—My brother, Dr.
Manoj Kumar Mishra
Strong Point—My determination
Weak Point—I early loose my
concentration
CSV—Please mention various
books in each subject and magazines
on which you based your preparation.
Ratish—Physics : Nootan
Physics by Kumar and Mittal
Chemistry : O. P. Tondon
Zoology : Ramesh Gupta and
NCERT books.
Botany : M. P. Kaushik and
NCERT books.
Bio : Modern ABC of biology.
Magazine : CSV magazine which really helpful in preparation of
contains all the above subjects and is CPMT.
highly useful. CSV—Please suggest in what
CSV—Did you take coaching in way CSV can be made more useful
your preparation ? for medical aspirants.
Ratish—Yes, I have joined New Ratish—They should give more
Light Coaching Institute, Lucknow model paper based on All India
Centre. I was very much impressed
pattern.
with the Director of New Light Dr. S.
P. Singh because his style of teach- CSV—Please mention your
ing of Bio is very good. position in the merit list as well as the
marks obtained in different subjects.
CSV—What help do the science
What was your aggregate percentage
magazines render in the preparations
for this examination ? of marks ?
Ratish—I got 6th rank in U.P.
Ratish—They give better know-
CPMT.
ledge in G.K. and important points
regarding various topics. Physics—49 marks
CSV—What will be your criterion Chemistry—47 marks
for selecting a magazine for these
Zoology—45 marks
examination ?
Botany—47 marks
Ratish—Which provides latest
information and model papers. Total—188 marks
CSV—What is your opinion about CSV—What books/magazines/
our Competition Science Vision ? How newspapers did you read for G.K.
much helpful and useful do you find preparations ?
it ? Ratish—CSV, Dainik Jagaran.
Ratish—It gives latest and impor-
tant points regarding PMT. I find it (Continued on Page 821 )

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Price : Rs. 299/-

UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA–2
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C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 810

 13. When object is placed at infinity longitudinal chromatic
Physics aberration is given by
➠ fR – fV = wfY
14. Work done in an adiabatic process is given by
1. What is dimensions of ‘conductance’ ?
R
1 ➠W= (T1 – T 2)
➠ [C] = [R] = [M– 1 L– 2 T3 A2] γ–1
2. When horizontal range of a projectile is n times the 15. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor filled partially
maximum height, then with some dielectric medium, is
4 ε0 A
➠ tan θ = n ➠ Cpd =
3. What are ‘field forces’ ?
d–t 1– [ ( )] 1
K
➠ These are the forces in which contact bet- 16. For what purpose are heavy water and cadmium rods
ween two objects is not necessary. Example : used in a nuclear reactor ?
Gravitational force between two bodies and ➠ Heavy water as moderator to slow down
electrostatic force between two charges. neutrons. Cadmium rods as controller to
4. When a particle moves with constant speed in a circle control the rate of fission
its velocity and acceleration both have 17. Impedance of L-C-R circuit is given by
➠ Constant magnitude but continuously
changing directions ➠ Z= R2 + (XL – XC)2
5. What is the principle of conservation of momentum ? (where X L = ω L = inductive reactance;
➠ If no external force acts on a system of two or 1
XC = = capacitive reactance)
more bodies, then the total momentum of the ωC
system remains constant 18. For pair-production it is essential that the energy of γ-
6. Change in momentum of projectile at the highest point photon must be at least
of its trajectory is ➠ 1·02 MeV (= 2 × 0·51 MeV)
➠ mv sin θ 19. What are the drawbacks of ‘liquid drop model’ ?
7. What is Dalton’s law of partial pressure ? ➠ (a) It cannot explain the existence of magic
➠ The pressure exerted by a mixture of several numbers
gases equals the sum of the pressures (b) It cannot explain why only certain ener-
exerted by each gas occupying the same gies of radiations are emitted by a
volume as that of the mixture. nucleus
8. The maximum speed with which a car can turn round (c) It does not explain magnetic moment of
a curve of radius r is given by nucleus
➠ vmax = μ rg 20. The relation between half life T1/2 and mean life τ of a
radioactive substance is
where μ is the coefficient of friction
9. What is equation of stationary wave : when the wave
is reflected from a free boundary ?
(
➠ T1/2 = 0·6931 τ T1/2 =
0·6931
λ
and τ =
1
λ )
πx
2π πt
2π
➠ y = – 2a cos . sin
λ T
Chemistry
10. The angle θ which a cyclist should make with the
vertical while taking a circular turn of radius r with
velocity v is given by 21. A substance which has some of the structure of
v2 solids and some of the freedom of motion associated
➠ tan θ = rg with liquids, is called
11. The relations between P, V and T in an adiabatic ➠ Liquid Crystal
process are 22. What is the IUPAC name and symbol of an element
➠ (a) PVγ = constant (b) TVγ – 1 = constant having atomic number 111 ?
(c) P1 – γ Tγ = constant ➠ Un-un-unium (Uuu)
12. The relation between pressure (P) and the kinetic 23. When mercury (Hg) was cooled below 4·1 K its
energy (E) of its molecules per unit volume is resistance to an electric current becomes zero. It was
2 first observed by
➠ P =3 E ➠ Heike Onne (1911)

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 811 / 3

24. What is the unit of measurement of nuclear dis-
tances ?
➠ Femtometre (1 fm = 10– 15 m)
25. The most direct and accurate means for determining
atomic and molecular weights is provided by
➠ Mass-spectrometer
26. Why are mercury (I) compounds diamagnetic, despite
the presence of an unpaired electron in Hg+ ?
➠ Due to formation of [Hg—Hg]2+
27. The process of reheating a quenched steel to relieve
internal stresses, is called
➠ Tempering
28. What is the rubeanic acid ?
➠ Dithio oxamide, NH2—C—C—NH2
|| ||
S S
29. Hydrolysis of an ester in the presence of a base is
termed as
➠ Saponification
30. What is the temperature known as, above which a gas
cannot be liquefied ?
➠ Critical temperature
31. The energy required to decompose an atomic
nucleus into its component protons and neutrons is
called
➠ Nuclear binding energy
32. Which fatty acid is the major constituent of glyceryl
esters present in castor oil ?
➠ Ricinoleic acid, C17H32 (OH) COOH
33. A reaction in which two substances react through an
exchange of their component ions, are called
➠ Metathesis reaction
34. What is the trade name of heavy medicinal liquid
paraffin, extensively used as a mulling agent in spec-
troscopy ?
➠ Nujol
35. The intermolecular forces resulting from attractions
between induced dipoles are known as
➠ London dispersion forces
36. What is the use of bromochlorodifluoromethane
(B.C.F.) ?
➠ Used in fire extinguishers
37. A solid whose molecular arrangement lack, a regular,
long-range pattern is called
➠ Amorphous solid
38. What is the name of sodium aluminium silicate con-
taining sulphur having a beautiful blue colour ?
➠ Lapis lazuli
39. The net positive charge experienced by an electron in
a many-electron atom, is called
➠ Effective nuclear charge
40. What is the IUPAC name of chloral hydrate ?
➠ 2, 2, 2-trichloro ethanediol
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 812
Zoology
41. What is called small calcareous granules found in the
inner ear of certain mammals ?
➠ Otolith
42. What is called the creation of mutation ?
➠ Mutagenesis
43. What is called the opening of the occipital bone of
skull through which the spinal cord passes ?
➠ Foramen magnum
44. How many membranes comprise the nuclear mem-
brane ?
➠ Two
45. Which anticoagulant is present in the saliva of leech ?
➠ Hirudin
46. What accepts the final electrons in electron transport
system ?
➠ Oxygen
47. Which type of mutation involves a change in nucleo-
tide and ultimately a change in a specific codon ?
➠ Point mutation
48. What was virtually absent in primitive atmosphere ?
➠ Oxygen
49. What is called the peculiar stage in Plasmodium
merozoites which appear like sepals and petals of a
flower ?
➠ Rosette stage
50. Which vector should be eradicated for the prevention
of African sleeping sickness ?
➠ Tse-tse fly
51. To which kind of disorder, the systemic lupus
erythematosus is associated ?
➠ Autoimmune disease
52. What is the unit of natural selection ?
➠ Individual
53. What is called a catalytically active complex formed
by an apoenzyme and a coenzyme ?
➠ Holoenzyme
54. What is called a movement response to air or water ?
➠ Rheotaxis
55. What is called an artery in mammals that arises from
an arch of the aorta and divides to form the right
carotid and right subclavian arteries ?
➠ Innominate artery
56. What is usually lost from bones during aging ?
➠ Calcium and phosphate
57. What is called a movement response to air or water
current in Amoeba ?
➠ Rheotaxis
58. What type of nutrition is found in Monocystis ?
➠ Saprozoic
59. Which enzyme is involved in light production in certain
insects ?
➠ Luciferase
60. In nearsightedness effect the image does not focus
on which part of eye ?
➠ Retina
 Botany New
Release
61. How many ATP molecules are formed per glucose
molecule by substrate level phosphorylation ?
➠ 4 ATP molecules

SALES/FINANCIAL
62. Which family is commonly called gourd family ?
➠ Cucurbitaceae
63. What term is used for a change in the permeability of
a cell’s plasma membrane that allows sodium ions to
diffuse rapidly into the cell’s interior ?
➠ Depolarization
64. What is called the process by which a cell secretes
EXECUTIVES
TEST
macromolecules by fusing a transport vesicle to the
plasma membrane ?
➠ Exocytosis
65. What does taxonomy deal with ?
➠ Naming of organisms By : Dr. Lal & Jain Code 1666 Price : Rs. 195/-
66. The resolving power of an electron microscope is how
much greater than the resolving power of a light
microscope ?
This book contains Hindi Edition
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67. What does phloem transport usually from the leaves
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➠ Organic nutrients
68. What type of energy was used by Miller-Urey experi- ☞ General Knowledge
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➠ Electric spark ● E-mail : publisher@upkar.in
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2 ● Website : www.upkar.in
69. What is the correct name of slow viruses ?
➠ Prion
70. In which group all unicellular plants and animals with Exam. Date
true nuclei are included ? 6 Sept., 2009
➠ Protista
71. To which family Atropa belladona belongs ?
➠ Solanaceae
72. What type of Saccharomyces, a fungus is ?
➠ Nonmycelial unicellular
73. What is the shape of microspore of Cycas ?
➠ Tetrahedral
74. What type of fruit dispersal is generally found in
(Including Previous Years’ Solved Papers)
Papaveraceae ?
➠ Censar mechanism of fruit dispersal
75. What is called a group of conjugated proteins in Main Features :
which one of the FAD or FMN is bound as prosthetic
group ?  Test of Reasoning Ability
➠ Flavin
 Test of English Language
76. What causes ‘early blight’ of potato ?
➠ A fungus, Alternaria solani  Test of Numerical Ability
77. Which process is inhibited by the drug streptomycin ?
➠ Prokaryotic translation  Officework Aptitude
78. What type of ovule is reported to have been found in
Pea ?
➠ Campylotropous By : Dr. Lal & Jain
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➠ Precambrian
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C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 813

1. Wave Motion (b) Wavelength (λ λ)—It is shortest distance between
It is defined as a disturbance that travels through the two points in the same phase.
medium due to repeated periodic motion of its particles (c) Time period (T)—Time taken to complete one
about their mean position, each preceding particle vibration is called time period.
handing over the disturbance to next. (d) Amplitude (A)—The maximum displacement of a
vibrating particle from mean position is called its
Points to Remember amplitude.
(i) Wave represents transfer of energy and not transfer of (e) Wave velocity (v )—The distance travelled by the
mass. wave in one second is defined as its velocity.
(ii) A wave which moves forward and thus, transfers energy Note—
along its direction of motion is called progressive wave (i) The velocity of the particles of the medium is
while a wave in which there is no transfer of energy and
different from the velocity of the wave.
which remains confined to a fixed space is called
stationary wave. (ii) Wave velocity = frequency × wavelength
(iii) Mechanical waves require some material media for their v=nλ
propagation as they require properties of inertia and
(iii) The relation v = n λ holds good for any type of
elasticity.
(iv) Electromagnetic waves like light waves can travel with-
wave motion-transverse or longitudinal
out medium. Thus, they can travel through vacuum. (iv) When a given wave passes from one medium to
(v) Sound waves are longitudinal mechanical waves and the other, its frequency does not change.
they can propagate in solids, liquids and gases. v 1 λ1
=
(vi) The audible frequency is from about 20 Hz to about v 2 λ2
20,000 Hz. A longitudinal mechanical wave whose
(f) Phase—The phase represents the state or condi-
frequency is above the audible range is called an ultra-
sonic wave and such wave whose frequency is below tion of a vibrating particle. After a distance λ, the particles
the audible range is called infrasonic wave. are in same phase. Also a particle comes to the same
(vii) Some waves like ripples on water surface are neither phase after completing one rotation or an angle of 2π
purely transverse nor purely longitudinal. radians. So λ path corresponds to 2π phase change.
2π
2. Two Types of Wave Motion Phase difference = × path difference
λ
(a) Transverse wave—(i) The particles of the
(g) Wave front—When a wave passes through a
medium vibrate at right angles to the direction of propa-
medium the surface that gives the continuous locus of all
gation of the wave.
points in the same phase of vibration at a particular
(ii) Crests and troughs are produced.
instant, is called the wavefront. The wavefront advances
(iii) It is possible in media which possess elasticity of
through the medium with the wave velocity. If the medium
shape or rigidity e.g. , solids or at best over the surface of
liquids. is homogeneous and source is a point, the wavefront is
(iv) It is because a liquid surface has property of spherical. For a linear source in a homogeneous medium,
surface tension which resists any deformation of shape. the wavefront is cylindrical. For the case of source being
(v) Transverse wave is not produced or possible in at infinity, the wavefront is plane.
gases. 4. Equations of a Plane Progressive Wave
( b ) Longitudinal wave—(i) The particles of the
medium vibrate along the direction of propagation of the In +x direction In – x direction
wave.
(ii) Compressions and rarefactions are produced.
(iii) The media must have elasticity of volume.
(a) y = a sin 2π ( )
t x
–
T λ
y = a sin 2π ( )
t x
+
T λ
(b) y = a sin (ωt – kx) y = a sin (ωt + kx)
(iv) Longitudinal waves are possible in all media i.e.,
solid, liquid and gas.
(v) It is because all these resist any change in
( )
(c) y = a sin ω t –
x
v (
y = a sin ωt +
x
v )
volume.
3. Characteristics of Wave Motion
(d) y = a sin 2πn ( ) t–
x
v
y = a sin 2πn ( )
t+
x
v
(e) y = a sin k (vt – x) y = a sin k (vt + x )
(a) Frequency (n )—The number of waves which
2π 2π
pass a point per unit time is called the frequency of the (f) y = a sin (vt – x) y = a sin (vt + x )
wave motion. λ λ

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 814

 2π where, T is absolute temperature of the gas, M is
where, ω = = 2πn
T its molecular weight and R is universal gas
k = 2π/λ constant.
λ k =
R
= Boltzmann constant
v = nλ= N
T
ω N = Avogadro number
= M
k
m = = Mass of one molecule
Note—The above equations represent only a simple N
plane progressive wave without attenuation (amplitude (ii) γ = Cp /Cv (ratio of specific heats)
gradually decreasing with distance). But in the case of
= 1·67 for monoatomic gas
propagation of actual wave through a medium, its
amplitude gradually diminishes due to resisting effect of = 1·40 for diatomic gas
viscous medium. Due to loss of energy, the amplitude = 1·33 for polyatomic gas
decreases exponentially with distance and the equation of 2
the attenuated plane progressive wave is given by (iii) γ = 1+
n
y = ae – αx sin ( ωt –
2π
λ
x ) where, n is degree of freedom of gas molecules
n = 3 for monoatomic gas
where, α is the attenuation constant. n = 5 for diatomic gas
5. Velocity of Longitudinal Waves in Elastic n = 6 for triatomic or polyatomic gas
Medium (iv) Velocity of longitudinal wave in
(a) Newton’s formula—Newton proved that when solid medium > liquid medium > gaseous medium
longitudinal waves (sound) move in elastic medium, the
velocity is given by 6. Effect of Physical Conditions on Velocity of
Sound
E
v= (a) Effect of pressure—With the change of pres-
d
sure, the velocity of sound in a gas remains unchanged,
where E is the modulus of elasticity of the medium and d that is, there is no effect of pressure on the velocity of
is its density. sound in a gas.
Note—Wave velocity in a medium is fixed. Wave
(b) Effect of temperature—Velocity of sound ∝ ⎯
√ T.
velocity is a material constant. It does not depend on
wavelength, frequency and intensity. Thus, the velocity of sound is directly proportional to
(b) For solids—Modulus of elasticity the square root of the absolute temperature. i.e.,

E = Young’s modulus of elasticity = Y vt Tt

=
v0 T0
Y
∴ v =
d 273 + t
=
(c) For liquids—Modulus of elasticity 273

∴
E = Bulk modulus of elasticity = B
B
or vt = v0 ( 1+
t
)
273
1/2

v =
d Note —For small value of t (t < < 273)
( d ) For gases—For a gaseous medium, Newton
assumed that the propagation of longitudinal wave is an
isothermal process (temperature remains constant). In
vt ≈ v0 (1+
t
2 × 273 )
this case, modulus of elasticity v t ≈ v 0 (1 + 0·00183t )
E = Pressure of the gas In air, v 0 = 332 m/s
= P
≈ 1100 ft/sec
P
∴ v = ∴ v t ≈ (332 + 0·61 t) m/s
d
Note : ≈ (1100 + 2t) ft/s
(i) The experimental results did not confirm to That is, velocity of sound increases by 0·61 m/s or 61
Newton’s assumption. Laplace corrected the cm/s or 2 ft/sec per degree celsius rise in temperature.
formula by arguing that sound waves travel (c) Effect of humidity—With the decrease in density
adiabatically. Hence, of the medium the velocity of sound increases. The moist
air is lighter than the dry air. Therefore, the velocity of
γP γRT γk T
v= = = sound in moist air is more than the velocity of sound in dry
d M m air.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 815

 Note :
Some Interesting Facts About Sound
1. There is pressure variation in longitudinal waves. But there (i) When wave travels uniformly in all directions
is no such pressure variation in the case of transverse from a small source (point source), the intensity
waves. varies inversely as the square of the distance,
2. Sound waves reflect and refract obeying the same laws as 1
I ∝ 2
followed by light but they do not suffer dispersion like light r
waves, when passed through a prism of suitable medium. or I 1 r1 2 = I 2 r2 2
This is due to fact that the velocity of sound in a medium is
same for all wavelengths. (ii) Threshold of audibility for intensity is 10 –12 W/m2
3. Sound waves are reflected like light waves when they 8. Unit of Sound Intensity
strike an obstacle like the wall of a building, rows of trees,
hillside etc. They also follow exactly the same laws of The absolute unit of intensity of sound is W/m2. But
reflection as followed by light waves. The audible wave- for practical considerations, the relative intensity or
length range varies from 0·0166 m to 16·6m, so for ref- intensity level is of much importance.
lection of sound waves, a comparatively large surface is
required, whereas light waves can be reflected from a very Intensity level is the ratio of given value (I) to the
small surface area as their wavelength is very small.
basic standard intensity (I0 = 10–12 W/m2). Thus, practical
unit for intensity level measurement is decibel.
4. Echo is produced by reflection of sound waves from an
extended reflector like a long wall or cliff and can be I
Intensity in decibel = 10 log 10
differentiated from the original sound. The distance of the I0
reflecting surface should be at least 33·2 metre away from where, I 0 = 10–12 W/m2
the source. I
5. Sound also exhibits the phenomenon of total internal Intensity in Bel = log10
I0
reflection as exhibited by light. This happens when sound
waves travelling in a medium in which they have less Intensity Level of Various Sounds
velocity, meet the surface of another medium in which
1. General level of noise 10 db
sound waves have larger velocity, at an angle more than
2. Soft music 40 db
critical angle.
3. Ordinary conversation 60–70 db
6. Sound travels longer distance at night than during day. 4. Busy traffic 7–85 db
7. The sound waves in the frequency range 20Hz—20,000 Hz 5. Alarm clock 80 db
are audible to human ear. Sound waves below 20 Hz are 6. Jet air port 115–120 db
called infrasonic waves while those above 20,000 Hz are 7. Landing area of air craft carrier 150–155 db
called ultrasonic waves. Ultrasonic waves are not audible
to human ear. These are produced naturally by bats and
9. Loudness
help it in avoiding collisions with obstacles while flying.
The intensity of sound refers to external or objective
8. Ultrasonic waves can be produced by Piezo electric
oscillator, magnetostriction oscillator and detected by
measurement, whereas loudness refers to internal or sub-
Kundt’s tube, sensitive flames, thermal detectors and jective aspect. The loudness of a sound is the magnitude
quartz crystal detectors. of the auditory sensation produced by sound.
9. The sound in a building or auditorium does not die The loudness of sound increases with intensity of
immediately after the source has ceased to produce it. It sound given by the psychological law known as Weber-
continues for sometime because of multiple reflections. Fechner law which is as
This persistence of audible sound after the source has I
L = K log 10 where K is a constant.
ceased to emit waves is called reverberation. I0
Sensitivity of ear
(d) Effect of wind velocity—The velocity of wind L = K log I (as I0 is constant)
effects the velocity of sound. If the wind blows in the dL K
=
direction of propagation of sound, the velocity of sound v dI I
will be replaced by ( v + ω) and if it blows in the opposite dL
is known as sensitivity of ear which decreases
direction, the velocity of sound v will be changed to (v – ω). dI
If the wind blows in any inclined direction, ω is to be with increase in the intensity of sound.
Unit—The unit of loudness is ‘Phon’.
replaced by its appropriate component.
10. Pitch
7. Intensity of Sound Waves
It is the characteristic, which differentiates the notes
Intensity of wave propagating in a medium is defined of same loudness and quality. It is an audio sensation
as the amount of energy transferred per unit area per unit which depends on frequency. Higher the frequency,
time in normal direction. It is given by higher is the pitch and more shrill is the sound. Sound of
1 ΔW lower frequency, hence, of lower pitch corresponds to dull
I = watt/m2 or grave sound. The voice of children and women are
A Δt
shrill due to high pitch, whereas voice of adult persons is
I = 2π2 ρa2 n2. v grave due to lower pitch.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 816

11. Quality or Timbre (b) Harmony—When two or more notes which pro-
duce concord are sounded simultaneously, the pleasing
The characteristic of sound which differentiates the effect is called harmony.
sounds of different instruments with the same pitch and (c) Melody—When two or more notes are sounded
loudness, is known as quality or timbre. It is also one after the other, the combined note producing the
subjective in character. pleasing effect is called melody.
(d) Musical Intervals—The ratio of the frequencies
12. Musical Scale between two notes, greater one taken as numerator and
A musical scale consists of a number of notes having smaller one taken as denominator is called as musical
a definite relation between one another regarding the interval. Its numerical value is always more than one. The
frequency of vibration. The lowest note of such a series is terms associated with musical interval are—
known as key note or tonic. Between a key note and its n2
(i) Unison : = 1
octave, human ear distinguishes a number of notes n1
having definite frequency. n2
(ii) Octave Tone : = 2
(a) Chord—When two or more notes are sounded n1
together, their combination is known as chord. If the n2 9
(iii) Major Tone : =
combination produces a pleasing effect to the ear, it is n1 8
called concord, and the pleasing effect is known as n2 10
(iv) Minor Tone : =
consonance. If the combination produces a displeasing n1 9
effect, it is called discord, and disagreeable effect is n2 16
(v) Semi Tone : =
known as dissonance. n1 15

SOME TYPICAL SOLVED EXAMPLES

Example 1. Hydrogen consists of diatomic

molecules. The molecular weight of hydrogen is M = 2
kg/k mol. Find the speed of sound in hydrogen at
27°° C. [
R = 8·314
J
mol K ]
Solution :

Example 3. The sound of a ship is received by the

under water detector of a petrol vessel 18 second
before it is heard through the air. How far away is the
ship ? Speed of sound in sea water is 1400 m/s and
that in air 330 m/s.
Solution :

Example 2. A tuning fork produces a sound of

wavelength 1 metre in air at 0°° C. What would be the
wavelength of sound produced by fork in air at 10°°C ?
Solution :

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 817


Example 4. A stone is dropped into a mine shaft
122·5 m deep. How much later will the impact be
heard ? (va = 330 m/s)
Solution :
Example 5. A man is driving at 72 km/hr on a
straight road heading towards a hill. He sounds the
horn and hears its echo 4 sec afterwards. At what
distance from the hill horn was sounded ? Assume
the speed of sound to be 340 m/s.
Solution :
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 818
Example 6. A man is driving on a straight road
running parallel to a hill at a constant speed of 72
km/hr. He sounds the horn and hears its echo after
4 sec. What is the distance between the road and the
hill ? (Speed of sound = 340 m/s)
Solution :
Example 7. What is the maximum angle of inci-
dence for a sound wave, on air-water interface so that
sound may be heard inside water ?
(Sound speed in air = 350 m/s, Sound speed in
water = 1400 m/s)
Solution :
Example 8. A loudspeaker produces intensity
level of 8 decibel above a certain reference level at a
particular point P, 40 metre from it. Find (a) intensity
level at point 30 metre from the loudspeaker. (b) the
intensity level at P, if the electrical power to the
loudspeaker is halved.
Solution : (a)
 OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. What happens when a sound (C) Equal to the amplitude surface of separation of the two
wave is reflected from the boun- (D) None of the above media ?
dary of a denser medium ? The (A) 15° (B) 30°
compression of the incident wave 6. The distance between two con-
(C) 45° (D) 60°
is returned as— secutive antinode is 0·5 m. The
(A) Crest distance travelled by the wave in 11. The pressure of air increases by
(B) Trough half the time period is— 100 mm of Hg and the tempe-
rature decreases by 1°C. What
(C) Compression (A) 0·25 m (B) 0·5 m
will be the change in the speed
(D) Rarefaction (C) 1 m (D) 2 m of sound in air ?
2. The frequency of a man’s voice 7. Velocity of sound in the atmos- (A) 61 mm/s (B) 61 cm/s
is 300 Hz. If the velocity of sound phere of a planet is 500 m/s. The (C) 61 m/s (D) None of these
waves is 336 m/s, the wave- minimum distance between the 12. The intensity of a wave reduces
length of the sound is— by 10% in passing through a
source of sound and the obstacle
(A) 330/336 m to hear echo should be— block. If it passes through two
(B) 300 × 336 m such blocks, the intensity of the
(A) 17 m (B) 20 m wave will be reduced to—
(C) 1·12 m
(C) 25 m (D) 50 m (A) 78% (B) 80%
(D) None of the above
(C) 81% (D) 89%
3. When a stone is dropped on the 8. The equation of a progressive
wave is represented by 13. A wave is given by the equation
surface of the still water, the
waves produced are—
(A) Transverse
x = A sin (kx – ωt ) ( )
y = A sin 2π f t –
x
λ
The velocity of the wave is given Its maximum particle velocity is
(B) Longitudinal by— four times the wave velocity,
(C) Stationary (A) kx (B) k /ω when λ is equal to—
(D) None of the above
(C) ωt (D) ω/k πA
(A) πA (B)
2
4. Sound waves in air differ from
9. The ratio of intensities of two πA πA
the electromagnetic waves in (C) (D)
waves is 1 : 16. The ratio of their 4 8
that they cannot be—
amplitude is—
(A) Reflected (B) Refracted 14. A sound wave of wavelength λ
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/2 travels towards an obstacle with
(C) Diffracted (D) Polarised
(C) 1/16 (D) 16/17 a speed c. The obstacle itself is
5. A transverse wave is passing moving in the opposite direction
through a medium. The maxi- 10. A sound wave is travelling in a
medium in which its velocity is v. with speed v . How many com-
mum speed of the vibrating parti- pressions will strike the obstacle
cle occurs when the displace- It is incident on the second
medium in which the velocity of in one second ?
ment of the particle from the (c + v) (c – v)
mean position is— the wave is 2v . What should be (A) (B)
the minimum angle of incidence λ λ
(A) Zero on the second medium, so that (c 2 – v 2 ) (c 2 – v 2 )
(C) (D)
(B) Half of the amplitude the wave fails to cross the λ c

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 819

15. A wave travelling along a stre-
tched string is given by
y = 3 cos π (100t – x) cm
Then its wavelength is—
(A) 3 cm (B) 4 cm
(C) 2 cm (D) 1 cm
16. Two harmonic motions are repre-
sented by the equations
π
(
y 1 = 10 sin 3πt +
4 )
y 2 = 5 (sin 3π t + 3 cos 3πt )
Their amplitudes are in the ratio–
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
17. A longitudinal wave is travelling
in a coiled spring with a velocity
of 2 m/s. The time period of the
oscillations is 0·5 sec. What is
the wavelength ?
(A) 2 m (B) 1 m
(C) 0·5 m (D) 0·25 m
18. The Laplace’s correction in the
expression for the velocity of
sound given by Newton is
needed because sound wave—
(A) Are longitudinal
(B) Propagate isothermally
(C) Propagate adiabatically
(D) Are of long wavelength
19. The velocity of sound in oxygen
at 30° is 330 m/s. Therefore, the
velocity of sound in helium at the
same temperature is—
(A) 330 m/s (B) 660 m/s
(C) 950 m/s (D) 1020 m/s
20. The loudness of sound depends
on—
(A) Frequency (B) Amplitude
(C) Speed (D) Wavelength
21. At NTP the velocity of sound in a
gas is 300 m/s. If the pressure of
the gas is made four times
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 820
without changing its temperature, fixed end. When this wave travels
the velocity of sound would be— back after reflection, a node is
(A) 150 m/s (B) 600 m/s formed at a distance of 10 cm
(C) 300 m/s (D) 1200 m/s from the fixed end of the string.
The speed of incident (and
22. In order to listen an echo of a reflected) wave is—
sound of very short duration, the
(A) 40 m/s (B) 20 m/s
minimum distance of the obs-
(C) 10 m/s (D) 5 m/s
tacle from the listener should
be— 28. A hospital uses an ultrasonic
(A) 1·7 m
(C) 170 m
(B) 17 m
(D) 11 m
scanner to locate tumour in a
tissue. The operating frequency
23. The noise of thunder is heard of the scanner is 4·2 MHz. The
6 sec after the flash is seen. The speed of sound in a tissue is 1·7
velocity of sound at 0°C is 332 km/sec. The wavelength of
sound in the tissue is close to—
m/sec. At the time of thundering,
(A) 4 × 10–4 m (B) 8 × 10–3 m
the temperature of air is 25°C.
The distance of thundering cloud (C) 4 × 10–3 m (D) 8 × 10–4 m
is—
29. Bel is unit of—
(A) 2082 m (B) 1992 m (A) Intensity
(C) 2500 m (D) None of these
(B) Pitch
24. The equation of motion of a (C) Loudness
particle is given as (D) None of these
d 2x dx
+ 0·2 + 36 x = 0 30. Phon is the unit of—
dt 2 dt
The period of oscillation will be (A) Intensity of sound
approximately— (B) Loudness of sound
(C) Quality of sound
(A) π / 3 sec (B) π /2 sec
(D) Noise
(C) π / 6 sec (D) π / 4 sec
25. Calculate the r.m.s. velocity of a 31. Reverberation in a hall is due
gas molecule at NTP if the to—
velocity of sound in that gas at (A) Interference of sound
NTP is 400 m/s—
(B) Production of beats
(Ratio of Cp and C v = 1·5)
(C) Reflection of sound
(A) 400 2 m/ s (B) 40 2 m/ s (D) Diffraction of sound
(C) 330 m/ s (D) 300 m/ s
32. The ratio between the frequency
26. The equation of motion of a of two sound notes is called—
particle is given by
(A) Octave (B) Pitch
y = a sin ωt + b cos ωt
(C) Intensity (D) Interval
The amplitude of motion is given
by— 33. If the pleasant effect is produced
(A) (a + b)2 (B) (a + b) by the two sounds made toge-
ther, the phenomenon is termed
(C) (a + b) (D) a2 + b2 as—
27. A wave of frequency 100 Hz is (A) Consonance (B) Conchord
sent along a string towards a (C) Dissonance (D) Dischord
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
 ●●●
(Continued from Page 810 )
CSV—Whom would you like to
give the credit for your success ?
Ratish—My parents and my
teachers and my brother who guided
me a lot.
CSV—Please tell us something
about your family.
Ratish—Father Mr. Ram Anuj
Mishra Chief Manager, SBI.
Mother Mrs. Gayatri Mishra
Housewife.
Brother Mr. Manoj Kumar Mishra
MBBS, doing M.S. from Indore.
Sister Miss Meenakshi Mishra
MBA, doing job in Mumbai.
CSV—What in your frank opinion
has been the biggest mistake in your
preparation for this test ?
Ratish—Revision of the weak
topics.
CSV—What message would you
like to give for our readers of CSV ?
Ratish—We should have a burn-
ing desire to reach the goal and
achieve success. For this we should
do hard work. Read standard books
and CSV magazine for success in
these tests. ●●●

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C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 821

 Many nuclides are unstable and these unstable nuclei
spontaneously change into other nuclides by radioactive
decay. The process of spontaneous disintegration of
heavy atomic nuclei like uranium, radium, etc. into other
nuclei by emission of corpuscular or electromagnetic
radiations is called radioactivity. The disintegration takes
place at constant rate and is unaffected by any physical or
chemical changes. Three features of radioactivity are
extraordinary in light of classical physics.
(a) When a nucleus undergoes alpha ( 2He 4++ ) or
Beta emission, its atomic number and mass number
change and it becomes nucleus of a different element.
(b) The energy liberated during a radioactive decay
comes from within the individual nuclei without external
excitation.
(c) Radioactive decay is a statistical process that
obeys the law of chance.
By studying the penetrating power of emitted radiation
Rutherford classified the radiation as α-rays and β-rays.
Paul Villard identified third rays as γ-rays, the highly
energetic electromagnetic rays. The transformation of one
nucleus in the other form is called nuclear transmuta-
tion. During γ-emission no transmutation takes place. It
has been found that there are only 272 stable nuclei of
naturally occurring elements (they are non-radioactive).
The rest are radioactive and unstable and called radio-
isotopes.
Radioactive Decay Law
After experimental studies Rutherford and Soddy
gave following laws :
(a) α and β-emission are usually but not invariably
accompanied by γ-emission. The newly transformed nuclei
are generally again radioactive and are led to successive
disintegrations till final stable product (Pb) is formed.
(b) The rate of radioactive disintegration is directly
proportional to number N of the active nuclei present in
the sample at any time.
If Nt be the number of active nuclides present in the
sample at any instant t, then experimentally, we have
d Nt
– ∝ Nt
dt
d Nt
⇒ = – λ Nt ,
dt
where λ is a constant of proportionality called disinte-
gration constant.
d Nt
⇒ = – λdt
Nt
⇒ loge Nt = – λt + A,
where, A is a constant of integration
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 822
When t = 0, Nt = N0 = Initial no. of nuclei present
⇒ loge N0 = A
∴ loge Nt = –λt + loge N0
⇒ Nt = N0e–λt Decay equation.
According to this law the number of active nuclides
decreases exponentially with time and Nt → 0 when t = ∞.
The experimental decay law was deduced by E. Von
Schweidler on the basis of law of chance rather than on
the basis of mathematical methodology. The probability p
for a nucleus to disintegrate in a time interval Δt, depends
on duration of time interval,
p ∝ Δt
⇒ p = λ· Δt,
where λ is the disintegration constant.
The probability that the given nucleus will not
disintegrate during the interval Δ t is 1 – p
= 1 – λ · Δt
The probability that this nucleus will not disintegrate
in a second time interval Δt is also 1 – λ · Δt. The
probability that the given nucleus will survive even after
both the intervals is (1 – λ·Δt)2. Therefore, for n such
intervals, the probability of survival is
n
(1 – λ·Δt)n = [ ( )]
1–λ
t
n
where t = n ·Δt
The probability that nucleus will survive after a time t
is
n
limn → ∞ ( 1 – λ· )
t
n
= e–λt
If N0 = Initial no. of nuclei present at t = 0
Nt
= Fraction of unchanged nuclei after a time
N0
t = n · Δt
No. of nuclei surviving after time t
=
No. of nuclei initially present at t = 0
– λt
= e
∴ Nt = N0 e–λt
λ is called disintegration or decay or radioactive or
transformation constant. It is independent of the exter-
nal condition and the age of the sample. It only depends
on the energy available for nuclear transformation and on
the characteristics of parent and daughter nuclei.
 Half-life—Half-value period (t 1/2) of radioactive Another unit used for activity is Rutherford (rd) with
nuclei is defined as the time after which half of the nuclei 1 rd = 106 disintegration per sec.
remain in its original state.
Radioactive Series : Displacement Law
N0
If Nt = then, Alpha emission from a parent nucleus of atomic
2
N0 number Z and mass number A transforms it into a
= N0 e–λt 1/2 daughter nucleus of atomic number (Z – 2) and mass
2
number (A – 4). The daughter nuclei, a new element, gets
1
⇒ e–λt 1/2 = its position two places lower in periodic table.
2
loge 2 2·303 log 2 ZX
A ⎯→ Y A –4
⇒ t 1/2 = = – α Z–2
λ λ
Similarly, a β-emission changes parent nucleus (Z, A)
0·693
= into a daughter of atomic number (Z + 1) and mass
λ number A. The new element advances along periodic
Average life—The decay of radioactive nuclei takes table by one place.
place in accordance with probabilistic law and as per this ZX
A ⎯→ Y A
– β Z +1
interpretation some nuclei may disintegrate immediately
while some may exist for infinitely large time. The average Daughter nucleus Y is an isobar of parent nucleus X.
These two laws are called displacement laws of Soddy
or mean life T of a radioactive nucleus is the average life
and Fajan. The daughter nuclide may also be radioactive
time of all the nuclei in the given sample and is defined as
and this gives rise to a radioactive series. There are three
the ratio of total lifetime of all nuclei to the total number of naturally occurring series showing successive transforma-
nuclei. tions.
Let us consider a sample containing N0 radioactive (a) Uranium series—The uranium series starts with
nuclei at time t = 0. The number of nuclei which decay 238
and finishes at 82Pb206 . The series is also called
92 U
between time t and t + dt is λNdt. The life of these nuclei (4n + 2) series because mass number of any nuclide of
is approximately t each. The sum of the lives of these d N series is given by A = 4n + 2, n being an integer.
nuclei is t λ Ndt. The sum of all the lives of all N nuclei that (b) Thorium series—It begins with 90Th 232 and ends
were active at t = 0 will be at 82Pb208 . It is also called 4 n-series.
∞ (c) Actinium series—It starts with 92U235 and ends
S = ∫ 0
t λNdt at 82Pb207 . It is also called (4 n + 3) series.
∞ (d) Neptunium series—This series has been
= λ N0 ∫ 0
te –λt dt observed after the discovery of nuclear fission and the
production of artificial transuranic element (Z > 92). It
⎡ e–λt ∞ ∞
e –λt ⎤ starts with Plutonium ( 94Pu241 ) and ends with Bismuth
= λ N0 ⎢ ( ) t – ∫ dt ⎥
⎢⎣ –λ 0 0 –λ ⎥⎦ (83Bi209 ). This is also known as (4n + 1) series.

∞
e –λt
= – λ N0 ( ) λ2 0
Alpha Decay
N0 The nuclear attractive force is a short-range force but
= coulombian repulsive forces between nucleons are of
λ
unlimited range. Nuclei with more than 210 nucleons are
Thus, average life of the nuclei is so large that short-range nuclear force cannot counter
S 1 balance the mutual repulsion between the protons.
t av = =
N0 λ
Alpha decay occurs in these nuclei as a means of
But half-life increasing their stability by reducing their size. Alpha
0·693 particle (2He 4) is emitted instead of individual proton due
t 1/2 =
λ to high binding energy of the alpha particle (~ – 27 MeV).
t 1/2 Therefore, on the emission of α-particle, the B. E. per
∴ t av =
0·693 nucleon increases and residual nucleus tends towards
It is evident that t av > t 1/2. greater stability.
dN ZX
A → Z–2YA–4 + 2He 4 + Q
The activity of a nucleus is defined as A =
dt where Q = The energy released in the process of α-
= λN and it is governed by statistical law. decay.
At = A0 e–λt Q = (mx – my – m He)c 2
The activity per unit mass of a sample is called its where, mx = Mass of parent nucleus ‘X’
specific activity. The activity is expressed in terms of my = Mass of daughter nucleus ‘Y’ and
curie (ci) with 1 ci = 3·7 × 101 0 disintegration per sec. m He = Mass of alpha particle

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 823

 K.E. of emitted alpha particle can be calculated on
the basis of conservation of energy and momentum and it
comes out to be
E= ( )
A–4
A
Q
The value of K.E. of α-particle is in the range of 4 – 9
MeV for various α-emitters, whereas the nucleus behaves
as a potential barrier containing an α-particle having
energy of the order of nearly 25 MeV. This fact cannot be
explained by classical theory. In 1928 Gamow, Condon
and Gurney explained it on the basis of quantum theory.
According to this theory α-particles do not exist as such
inside the nucleus but just at the time of emission, two
protons and neutrons combine to form an alpha particle.
The alpha particle moves within the nucleus with an
average velocity of 10 7 m/s and in a neucleus of size
10–14 m, α-particle takes about 10–21 sec to move across
a neucleus once. The frequency of alpha particle’s
occurrence at a point is 1021 times in a second. According
to quantum mechanics, even with insufficient K.E., the α-
particle has very finite and definite probability of its
crossing the barrier of higher energy. Since frequency of
attempts ( n ) by the alpha particle is very large, the
probability of its escaping the potential barrier, P = p xn,
becomes significant and it penetrates the barrier. This is
called tunnel effect. The α-particle has only one chance
out of 10 38 to come out of barrier in case of uranium. The
10 38
time required to come out is 21 – ~ 1017 sec – ~ 3 × 109
10
years. But in case of RaC, α-particle has one chance out
of 1017 to come out and this gives half life of 0·0001 sec.
The tunnel effect also gives explanation of great
difference in half-lives among the radioactive elements.
Properties of α -rays
1. These rays have been identified as helium nuclei.
2. The velocity of these particles ranges from
1·4 × 107 m/s to 2·05 × 10 7 m/s depending upon the radio-
active substances emitting them. Energy of α-particles
emitted from radioactive substances varies from 4·19 to
6·78 MeV.
3. They have least penetrating power among the
three rays emitted by radioactive samples because of
their massive mass. They can be stopped by aluminium
sheet of 0·02 mm thickness or by even paper sheet.
4. They have great ionising power and this is the
most important property of α-particles. The distance
through which an α-particle travels in a specified material
before stopping to ionise it is called its range or
ionisation path length, which depends on (a) Initial
energy of the α-particle (b) Ionisation potential of the gas
and (c) the chances of collision between the α-particles
and the gas particles, that is, on the nature and the
temperature and pressure of the gas.
Geiger showed through his experimental studies that
for monoenergetic α-particle of velocity v , the range R in
standard air is proportional to cube of velocity.
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 824
R ∝ v3
⇒ R = av 3 where a is a constant.
This is Geiger’s law.
1
E = mv 2
2
2E
⇒ v =
m
∴ R = av 3
3/2
= a· ( )
2E
m
⇒ R = b E3/2 where b is another constant.
An important relationship between R and λ (disinte-
gration constant) was experimentally discovered by
Geiger and Nuttal.
loge λ = A + B loge R
where A and B are constants having different values for
different radioactive series.
5. At normal pressure in air the range of α-particle, is
from 3 to 8 cm depending on the initial K.E. of the
particle.
6. These particles produce fluorescence in subs-
tances like zinc sulphide and barium platinocyanide.
7. These particles are deflected by electric and
magnetic fields.
8. They affect photographic plates.
9. They get scatterred while passing through a metal
foil.
10. They can produce artificial radioactivity in certain
elements and can also produce nuclear reactions.
Beta Decay
Beta decay is another process through which by
changing its composition nucleus becomes more stable.
Beta-decay has its puzzling aspect, the principles of
conservation of energy, linear momentum and angular
momentum are all apparently violated in beta decay. Both
positive and negative electrons are emitted spontane-
ously from radioactive nuclei. There is a third process of
electron capture, where the nucleus absorbs one of its
orbital electrons, also comes under β-decay. These
particles ejected from a radioactive source possess a
range of velocities and hence, a range of energies varying
from 0 to a maximum value characterised by nuclide.
The direction of emitted particle and recoiling nuclei
are never exactly opposite to each other as required by
conservation of linear momentum. The fundamental
particles electron, proton and neutron are spin half
particles.
In β-decay the mass number A of parent nuclei does
not change, only the atomic number Z changes by one
unit. In β–-decay Z changes to (Z + 1) and consequently N
decreases to (N – 1) since neutron is transformed into
proton
ZX
A → Z+1YA + –1e 0, [n → p + + e – ]
Energy released
Q = [Mn (A, Z) – Mn (A, Z+1) – me ] c 2
In β + decay Z decreases to (Z – 1) and N becomes
(N + 1) due to transformation of proton into a neutron.
A → Z–1YA + +1e 0 [ p + → n + β+ ]
ZX
The Q-value is given as
Q = [M(A, Z) – M(A, Z – 1) – 2m e ] c 2
In orbital electron capture, like β+ decay Z reduces to
Z – 1 as the process involves transformation of proton into
neutron.
ZX
A + – 1e
0 → Z–1YA [p ++ e – → n ]
The Q-value of the process is
Qe = [M(A, Z) – M(A, Z – 1)] c 2
When an atomic electron is captured, a vacancy is
created in the atomic shell and X-rays are produced
following into capture.
In 1927 Pauli proposed an hypothesis to make con-
servation principles valid in case of β-emission. He pro-
posed emission of a second new particle called neutrino
simultaneously during β-emission. His idea was deve-
loped into a consistent theory by Enrico Fermi. Many
properties were assigned to this new particle like being
electrically neutral; having zero rest mass, half integral
spin and being a carrier of energy. This new particle was
– 27
of two types—the neutrino (ν) and the antineutrino ( ν ).
7. They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
8. They can affect a photographic plate.
9. They can produce artificial radioactivity.
Gamma Decay
A nucleus can exist in states whose energies are
higher than that of ground state. Just like an atomic
energy state of orbital electron the nucleus also has
different energy states. An excited nucleus is denoted by
star after its symbol like 87
38
Sr* . Excited nucleus returns to
ground state by emitting photons whose energies
correspond to the energy differences between the various
initial and final states in the transition involved. The
emitted photons have their energies in the range of
several MeV and are called as Gamma (γ) rays.
The figure given below shows the beta decay of
27 to 27
12 Mg 13Al . The half-life of the decay is 9·5 min and
it may take place to either of the two excited states of
27 27
13 Al . The resulting 13 Al * nucleus then undergoes one
or two gamma decays to reach the ground state.
27
12 Mg
β
β
1·015 MeV
0·834 MeV
γ γ
13 Al

The real β-emission process can be expressed as

Sometimes it happens that the energy of emitted
–
n → p+ + e– + ν photon is absorbed by orbital electron and electron is
– emitted instead of photon. The phenomena is looked up
For example 1H
3 → 2He
3 + – 1e 0 + ν
as internal photoelectric effect or internal conversion.
and p+ → n + e+ + ν
Properties of γ -rays
For example 6C
11 → 5B
11 + 1e 0 + ν
1. γ-rays are electromagnetic waves and have velocity
The existence of neutrino particles was experimen-
tally established by F. Reines and C. L. Cowan in 1956. It equal to that of light.
could not be easily observed because it almost does not 2. They are highly penetrating and can penetrate
interact with matter. through several centimetre thick lead or iron block.

Properties of β -rays 3. They have got small ionising power.

1. They are found to be stream of electrons.
2. Their velocities vary from 33% to 99·8% of velocity of
light. Their average energy is only 2 to 3 MeV due to
their negligibly small masses.
3. They can easily pass through a few millimeter thick
aluminium sheet.
4. Their ionisation power is quite small as compared to
that of α-particle.
5. Their range in air is several metres.
6. They can produce fluorescence in material like Zinc
Sulphide and Barium platinocyanide.
4. They can produce fluorescence in substance like
willimite.
5. They can affect photographic plate.
6. They are not deflected by electric and magnetic
fields.
7. They knockout electrons from the surface on which
they fall.
8. They heat the substance on which they fall.
9. They produce simultaneous electron-positron pair.
γ → e– + e+
10. Hard γ-rays are used for medical purposes.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 825

 OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. A radioactive nucleus 92X235 (C) An α-particle and a β-particle 11. What is the respective number of
decays to 9 1Y231 . Which of the α and β particles emitted in the
(D) Two β-particles and a proton
following particles are emitted ? following radioactive decay ?
(A) One alpha and one neutron 6. A radioactive material decays by
90 X
200 ⎯⎯→ 80Y168
(B) Two deuterons and one posi- simultaneous emission of two
tron particles with respective half- (A) 6 and 8 (B) 8 and 8
(C) One alpha and one proton lives 1620 and 810 years. The (C) 6 and 6 (D) 8 and 6
(D) One proton and four neut- time (in years) after which one-
fourth of the material remains 12. The count rate of a Geiger-Muller
rons counter for the radiation of a
is—
2. N atoms of a radioactive element radioactive material of half-life of
(A) 1080 (B) 2430
emit n alpha particles per second. 30 minutes decreases to 5s –1
The half-life of the element is— (C) 3240 (D) 4860
after 2 hours. The initial count
n N 7. After two hours, one sixteenth of rate was—
(A) sec (B) sec
N n the starting amount of a certain
0·693N 0·693 n (A) 25 s–1 (B) 80 s–1
(C) sec (D) sec radioactive isotope remained
n N undecayed. The half-life of the (C) 625 s–1 (D) 20 s–1
3. The radioactivity of a sample is isotope is— 13. Unit of radioactivity is Rutherford.
R1 at a time T1 and R 2 at a time (A) 15 minute (B) 30 minute Its value is—
T2. If the half-life of the speci-
(C) 45 minute (D) 1 hour (A) 3·7 × 1010 disintegrations/sec
men is T, the number of atoms
that have disintegrated in time 8. An element used for radioactive (B) 3·7 × 106 disintegrations/sec
(T2 – T 1) is proportional to— carbon dating for more than 5600
years is— (C) 1·0 × 1010 disintegrations/sec
(A) (R1T1 – R 2T2
(B) (R1 – R 2) (A) C–14 (B) U–234 (D) 1·0 × 106 disintegrations/sec
(R1 – R 2) (C) U–238 (D) Po–94 14. The half-life of the isotope 11Na 24
(C)
T 9. A radioactive substance has a is 15 hours. How much time does
(D) (R1 – R 2)T half-life of 60 minutes. After 3 7
it take for th of a sample of this
4. The probability of a radioactive hours, the fraction of atoms that 8
atom to survive 5 times longer has decayed would be— isotope to decay ?
than its half value period is— (A) 12·5% (B) 87·5% (A) 75 hrs (B) 65 hrs
2 (C) 8·5% (D) 25·1%
(A) (B) 2 × 5 (C) 55 hrs (D) 45 hrs
5 10. A radioactive reaction is
(C) 2 –5 (D) 25 15. What is the mass of one curie of
U 238 → Pb 206 . How many
92 82 U234 ?
5. As a result of radioactive decay, α- and β-particles are emitted ?
238 is converted into 234 .
92 U 91 Pa (A) 3·7 × 1010 gm
(A) 10 α, 6 β
The particles emitted during this
(B) 4 protons, 8 neutrons (B) 2·348 × 1023 gm
decay are—
(A) A proton and a neutron (C) 6 electrons, 8 protons (C) 1·4370 × 10–11 gm
(B) A proton and two α-particles (D) 6 β, 8 α (D) 6·25 × 10–34 gm

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 826

 (C) μ2 sin θ2 = μ1 sin θ1
(D) None of these
13. Assuming earth to be sphere of
uniform density what is the value
of acceleration due to gravity at a
point 100 km below the earth
1. Planck’s constant has same 7. An apple gives 21 kJ energy to a surface ?
dimension as— boy. How much height he can
(Given R = 6380 × 10 3 m)
(A) Angular momentum climb by using this energy if his
efficiency is 28% ? (A) 3·10 m/s (B) 5·06 m/s 2
(B) Linear momentum
(Mass of boy 40 kg) (C) 7·64 m/s 2 (D) 9·66 m/s 2
(C) Force
(D) Energy (A) 22·5 m (B) 15 m 14. Which of the following cannot be
(C) 10 m (D) 5 m polarised ?
2. The rotational inertia of a collap-
8. The resistances of two bulbs of (A) Infra red light
sing star changes to one third its
initial value. The ratio of the new 200 W and 100 W of same vol- (B) Light from a sodium lamp
kinetic energy to the initial tage are R1 and R2. Then the (C) Sound waves
rotational kinetic energy is— R1 (D) RF signals
value of will be—
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 9 : 1 R2
15. A particle executing SHM has
(C) 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 9 1 1
(A) (B) amplitude 0·01 m and frequency
2 4
3. A bullet is fired from the gun with 60 Hz. The maximum accelera-
(C) 2 (D) 4 tion of the particle is—
a speed of 1000 m/s in order to
hit a target s = 100 m away. At 9. A 500 kg car takes around turn of (A) 60 π 2 m/s2
what height above the target radius 50 m with a speed of 36
km/hr. The centripetal force (B) 88 π 2 m/s2
should the gun be aimed ?
(The resistance of air is negligible acting on the car will be— (C) 140 π 2 m/s2
and g = 10 m/s2) (A) 1200 N (B) 1000 N (D) 144 π 2 m/s2
(A) 23 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 750 N (D) 250 N
16. In rising from the bottom of a
(C) 9 cm (D) 5 cm 10. The volume of a given mass of lake to the top the volume of a
4. The ionisation energy of an atom gas will be doubled at atmos- bubble triples. The approximate
is X, energy required to excite pheric pressure if the tempera- depth of the lake is—
the atom is Y and its total energy ture of the gas is changed from
(A) 3 m (B) 10 m
is Z. The arrangement of X, Y, Z 150°C to—
in ascending order of magnitude (C) 21 m (D) 40 m
(A) 423°C (B) 510°C
is— 17. A boy cools from 60°C to 50°C in
(C) 473°C (D) 573°C
(A) XYZ (B) YZX 10 minutes. If the room tempera-
(C) ZYX (D) ZXY 11. A car is moving at a speed of 72
ture is 25°C and assuming
km/hr. The diameter of its wheels
5. A boy of 50 kg is standing in a lift Newton’s law of cooling to hold
is 0·5 m. If the wheels are
moving down with an accelera- good, the temperature of the
stopped in 20 rotations applying
tion 9·8 m/s 2 . The apparent body at the end of the next 10
brakes, then angular retardation
weight of the boy is— minutes will be—
produced by the brake is—
50 (A) – 45·5 rad/s 2 (A) 45°C (B) 42·85°C
(A) N (B) 50 × 9·8 N
9·8 (B) – 33·5 rad/s 2 (C) 40°C (D) 38·5°C
(C) 50 N (D) Zero (C) – 29·5 rad/s 2
18. If half-life of 90Th 234 is 24 days,
6. What is the current flowing (D) – 25·5 rad/s 2
the amount of a 12 gram sample
across the switch S when it is 12. A ray of light goes obliquely from remaining after 96 days is—
closed ? water into glass. The angle of
(A) 1 gram (B) 0·75 gram
3Ω P 2Ω incidence in water is θ 1, the
(C) 1·6 gram (D) None of these
17V 5V angle of refraction in glass is θ2,
S 19. The efficiency of a Carnot engine
• • • the index of refraction of water is
operating with reservoir tempera-
μ1 and the index of refraction of
2Ω Q 3Ω ture of 100°C and – 23°C will
the glass is μ 2. Which of the
(A) 1 A from Q to P be—
following is a correct relation for
100 – 23 100 + 23
(B) 1 A from P to Q this case ? (A) (B)
373 373
(C) 2 A from P to Q (A) μ1 sin θ2 = μ2 sin θ1
100 + 23 100 – 23
(D) 12 A from Q to P (B) μ2 = sin θ1/sin θ2 (C) (D)
100 100

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 828

20. The figure represents the motion
of car A and B on straight
parallel tracks. Car B passes car
A at the instant car A starts from
24. The graph shows the maximum screen, the linear magnification
kinetic energy of the photo- of the image is found to be 2·5.
electrons ejected when photons The lens is now moved 30 cm
nearer the screen and a sharp
5

(K.E.) max ( 10–19 J )→

rest at t = 0 second. Which of the image is again formed on the
4 same screen placed at the same
following inferences from the
graph is/are incorrect ? 3 place. The focal length of the

×
●
2 lens is—
1 (A) 20 cm
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(B) 14·3 cm
(C) Data insufficient
Frequency (× 1014 Hz)
(D) None of these
of different frequencies strike a
29. The resistance of a galvano-
metal surface. The work function
of this metal is— meter is G = 6Ω. Maximum
current of 2 amp is measured by
(A) 8·25 eV
it. Then required resistance to
(B) 0·825 eV convert it into an ammeter read-
(C) Data insufficient ing up to 6A, will be—
(A) The acceleration of car A (D) None of these (A) 5Ω (B) 4Ω
during the interval from t = 0
to t = 60s is 1 ms–2 25. 700 pF capacitor is charged by (C) 3Ω (D) 2Ω
50V battery. Electrostatic energy
(B) The distance travelled by
is stored by it will be— 30. 1H
2 + 1H3 ⎯⎯→ 2He 4 + 0n1 + Q
car A in the interval between
t = 0 and t = 60 second is (A) 17·0 × 10– 8 J where Q is energy released. This
1800 m (B) 13·0 × 10– 9 J reaction is primarily an example
(C) After t = 0 the time taken by of—
(C) 8·75 × 10– 7 J
car A to catch upto car B is (A) Fission (B) Fusion
60 second (D) 6·7 × 10– 7 J
(C) α-decay (D) None of these
(D) None of these 26. For sodium D-lines d λ = 6Å.
31. A hot electric iron has a resis-
21. A metal coin is at the bottom of a Taking the mean wavelength of
tance of 80Ω and is used on a
beaker filled with a liquid of these lines 5893 Å, calculate the
wave number difference between 200 V source. The electrical
refractive index 4/3 to height of 6
them— energy spent, if it is used for 2 hr,
cm. To an observer looking from
will be—
above the surface of the liquid, (A) 17·3 per cm
coin will appear at a depth of— (A) 8000 Wh (B) 2000 Wh
(B) 1000 per cm
(A) 7·5 cm (B) 6·75 cm (C) 1000 Wh (D) 800 Wh
(C) 10–3 per cm
(C) 4·5 cm (D) 1·5 cm (D) None of these 32. How long a distance will a 2·00
kg ball starting from rest fall
22. What is shown on Y-axis in this 27. Four resistances of 100 ohm freely in 1·00 sec ?
graph for water ? each are connected in the form
(A) 9·81m (B) 4·90 m
Y of a square. The effective resis-
tance along the diagonal points P (C) 2·00 m (D) 32 m
R is— 33. An aeroplane having a wing
---------

Q space of 35 m flies due north

with the speed of 90 m/s. Given
R1 = 100 Ω R2 = 100 Ω B = 4 × 10– 5 tesla the potential
For water difference between the tips of the
P R
| | | |
| | | X wings will be—
–8 –4 0 4
8 12 16
R3 = 100 Ω R4 = 100 Ω (A) 0·013 V (B) 1·26 V
Temperature ( ° C) →
(C) 12·6 V (D) 0·126 V
S
(A) Volume (B) Density 34. Monochromatic light falls on a
(C) Depth (D) Specific heat (A) 100 Ω (B) 180 Ω metal surface that has a work
23. An astronomical telescope has (C) 220 Ω (D) 440 Ω function of 6·7 × 10 –19 joule.
two lenses of focal powers 0·5 D 28. Aluminous object and a screen Each photon has an energy of
and 20D. Then its magnifying are placed on an optical bench 8·0 × 10 –19 joule. (Planck’s cons-
power will be— and a converging lens is placed tant = 6·63 × 10–34 joule-sec. One
(A) 8 (B) 20 between them to throw a sharp electron volt = 1·6 × 10–19 joule).
(C) 30 (D) 40 image of the object on the Examine which of the following

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 829

 information regarding this pro- 40. In the A.C. series circuit shown, 45. The function of moderators in
blem is incorrect ? the rms voltage across C is 3V. nuclear reactor is to—
(A) The maximum kinetic energy The rms voltage across the (A) Decrease the speed of neu-
of the photoelectrons emit- resistor R in V is— trons
ted by the substance is 5V(rms) (B) Increase the speed of neu-
1·3 × 10–19 joule. ● ~● trons
(B) Energy of each photon is (C) Decrease the speed of elec-
5·0 eV R C trons
(C) Frequency of the photon is (D) Increase the speed of elec-
1·2 × 1015 Hz. 3V(rms) trons
(D) None of these (A) 1 (B) 2 46. The radioactive decay constant
35. The peak value of AC voltage on (C) 3 (D) 4 of a radioactive substance is
a 220 V mains is—
41. The ionisation potential of 0·6931 × 104 sec–1. What is its
(A) 240 2 V (B) 230 2 V hydrogen atom is 13·6 volt. In the half-life ?
(C) 220 2 V (D) 200 2 V lowest energy level, this atom is (A) 2 × 104 sec
ionised by absorbing a photon of (B) 1 × 10–4 sec
36. A small bar magnet is allowed to
800 A° . The kinetic energy of the
fall freely through a seamless (C) 1·44 × 104 sec
metal tube held vertical. During released electron will be—
(A) 15·51 eV (B) 2·91 eV (D) 2·88 × 104 sec
its fall its acceleration may be—
(A) Equal to g (C) 13·6 eV (D) 1·91 eV 47. The work function for aluminium
(B) Greater than g, even infinite 42. The mutual conductance of a surface is 4·2 eV. The cutoff
(C) Less than g, even zero triode is— wavelength for photoelectric
effect is—
(D) None of these ΔIp
(A) (B) ΔIp × ΔVg (A) 1000 A ° (B) 2000 A°
37. Two inductors each of induc- ΔVg
tance L are joined in parallel. (C) ΔIp /Δ I g (D) ΔIp × Δ I g °
(C) 2946 A °
(D) 4200 A
Their equivalent inductance will
be— 43. A nucleus X with mass number A 48. van der Waals’ critical coefficient
L and charge number Z, disinte- RTC
(A) Zero (B) is—
2 grates into one α-particle and PCVC
(C) L (D) 2L one β-particle. The resulting nuc- 8 3
(A) (B)
38. A box weighing 100 N is at rest lide R has atomic mass and 3 8
on a horizontal floor. The coeffi-
cient of static friction between the
atomic number, equal to—
(A) (A – Z) and (Z – 1)
(C) ()8
3
2
(D) None of these
box and the floor is 0·4. What is (B) (A – Z) and (Z – 2)
49. The wavelength associated with
the smallest force F exerted 30° (C) (A – 4) and (A – 2)
an electron accelerated through
north of east that can put the box (D) (A – 4) and (Z – 1) a potential difference of 100V is
to motion ? 44. The equivalent resistance bet- of the order of—
(A) 375 N (B) 3·75 N ween points A and D of the ° °
(A) 1·2 A (B) 10·5 A
(C) 0·375 N (D) 37·5 N circuit is—
°
(C) 100 A °
(D) 1000 A
39. The primary of a stepdown trans- 10 Ω 10 Ω 10 Ω
former used for ringing door bell ●D 50. An engine having an efficiency of
has 2000 turns of fine wire and 0·6 has an exhaust which is used
the secondary has 100 turns. 10 Ω 10 Ω to derive another engine with an
The transformer when connected efficiency of 0·4. The efficiency of
to 110 V AC source will deliver at A● the system of two engines as a
10 Ω 10 Ω 10 Ω
its secondary at a potential diffe- whole is—
rence of—
(A) 5·5 V (B) 11 V (A) 80 Ω (B) 60 Ω (A) 1·0 (B) 0·5
(C) 55 V (D) 220 V (C) 30 Ω (D) 40 Ω (C) 0·24 (D) 0·75

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 830

 immersed in water, find the
density of the body—
(A) 2·32 × 102 kg/m3
(B) 1·76 × 102 kg/m3
(C) 6·7 × 102 kg/m3
(D) 7·6 × 103 kg/m3
1. The rate of change of velocity of a 7. If retardation produced by air
13. A particle moves under the influ-
body falling from rest in a resist- resistance to the projectile is one
ence of a force F = cx from x = 0
ing medium is described by equa- tenth of acceleration due to to x = x 1 where c is a constant.
dv gravity, the time to reach the
tion = At – Bv. The dimensions The workdone in this process is—
dt maximum height—
1
for A and B are— (A) Increases by 9% (A) cx12 (B) cx12
2
(A) LT –3, T (B) LT, T–1 (B) Decreases by 9% (C) cx13 (D) Zero
(C) LT, T (D) LT –3, T–1 (C) Increases by 11%
14. Find the time period of a simple
2. The focal length of a convex lens (D) Decreases by 11%
pendulum at a place where g = 5
is 20 cm in air. Find the focal 8. A concave mirror of focal length m/s2, if it is a second’s pendulum
length of the lens when immer- 20 cm produces a three times at a place where g = 10 m/s2.
sed in water— magnified image. Find the posi- What is its effective length ?
(μg = 1·5, μw = 1·33) tions of the object— (A) 2 T1, 1·014 m
(A) 70 cm (B) 80 cm (A) 8 cm, 10 cm T1
(B) 10 cm, 12 cm (B) , 0·014 m
(C) 90 cm (D) 60 cm 2
(C) 26·67 cm, 13·33 cm (C) 2T 1, 2m
3. If the displacement of the particle
varies with time as x 1/2 = t + 7, (D) 15 cm, 17 cm T1
(D) , 4·1 m
then— 9. A satellite in force-free space 2
(A) Velocity of the particle is sweeps stationary interplanetary 15. A stone tied to a string of length L
inversely proportional to t dM is whirled in a vertical circle, with
dust at a rate = av, where M
(B) Velocity of the particle is dt the other end of the string at the
proportional to t is the mass and v is the velocity centre. At a certain instant of
of the satellite and a is a time, the stone is at its lowest
(C) Velocity of the particle is
constant. The deceleration of position and has a speed u. The
inversely proportional to t 1/2
the satellite is— magnitude of the change in its
(D) The particle moves with a 2av 2 av 2
(A) – (B) – velocity as it reaches a position
constant acceleration M M where the string is horizontal, is—
4. The two sources of luminous av 2
(C) – (D) –av 2 (A) u 2 – 2g L (B) 2g L
intensities 100 and 400 Cd are 2M
(C) u2 – gL (D) 2(u 2 – g L)
120 cm apart. Find the position 10. The surface tension of water is
of a screen where the illumi- 0·07 N/m. Find the weight of 16. A small block of mass m slides
nance becomes equal— water supported by surface along the frictionless loop. What
(A) 0·9 m, 1·2 m tension in a capillary tube with a is the resultant force it exerts at
(B) 1m, 2m radius of 0·1 mm— position Q ? At what height above
(A) 4·40 × 10–5 N the bottom of the loop should the
(C) 0·1 m, 0·5 m block be released so that the
(D) 0·4 m, 0·8 m (B) 44·0 × 10–5 N force it exerts against the track at
5. An arrow is shot in air. Its range is (C) 4·40 × 105 N the top of the loop is equal to its
weight ?
60 m and its time of flight is 3 s. (D) 75 × 10–2 N
If g = 10 ms–2 then the ux and
11. A sphere of mass 2 kg is moving
uy are given as—
on a frictionless horizontal table
(A) 20 ms –1, 25 ms –1 with velocity v . It strikes with a
(B) 20 ms –1, 15 ms –1 spring (force constant = 1Nm –1)
and compresses it by 4 metre. 5R
(C) 25 ms –1, 20 ms –1
The velocity v of the sphere is—
(D) 15 ms –1, 20 ms –1
(A) 4 ms–1 (B) 2 2 ms–1 Q
6. A ray of light is refracting from (C) 2 ms–1 (D) 2 ms–1 R
glass to water. Find the critical
(A) 80·6 mg , 4 R
angle in the glass medium— 12. A body of volume V is floating in
(B) 60·8 mg , 2R
(A) 50° (B) 62° 45′ water remaining partially immer-
2 (C) 8·06 mg , 3R
(C) 45° (D) 30° sed. If of the total volume is (D) 68·0 mg , R
3

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 834

17. The satellite is moving very close 23. The equation 28. If current in an electic bulb drops
to a planet of density ρ. The time → 2π 2π by 1%, then the power drop is—
period of the satellite is— ψ ( x ‚ t) = j sin vt cos x (A) 3% (B) 2%
λ λ
(C) 1% (D) 4%
3π represents—
⎛ 3π⎞
3/2
(A) (B) 29. In the network shown E1 = 3 volt,
ρG ⎝ ρG⎠ (A) Transverse progressive
E2 = 2 volt, E3 = 1 volt and R = r1
wave
= r2 = r3 = 1 ohm. The potential
3π
⎛ 3π ⎞
3/2 (B) Longitudinal progressive
(C) (D) difference between A and B is—
2ρG ⎝ 2ρG⎠ wave
(C) Longitudinal stationary wave
18. A block of mass 2 kg is on a
(D) Transverse stationary wave
horizontal plane. A force of 10N
is applied on the body at an 24. A torch bulb rated as 4·5 W, 1·5
angle 30° with the horizontal in V is connected as shown in the
figure. The e.m.f. of the cell (A) 1V (B) 2V
upward direction. If the body just
needed to make the bulb glow at (C) 3V (D) 4V
tends to move, calculate the
coefficient of limiting friction— full intensity is— 30. E.C.E. of silver is 1·118 × 10 –8
(A) 0·577 (B) 5·77 4.5 W, 1.5 V gm/coulomb. Its atomic weight is
(C) 7·57 (D) 0·005 108 and the Avogadro’s number
1Ω is 6·02 × 1023 per gm mole. The
19. A system is taken from state A to
charge on silver ion is—
state B along two different paths
1 and 2. The work done on the (A) 3·2 × 10–19 C
system along these two paths is (B) 6·4 × 10–19 C
W1 and W2 respectively. The heat E 2.67 Ω
(C) 4·8 × 10–19 C
absorbed by the system along (A) 4·5 V (B) 1·5 V
these two paths is Q1 and Q2 (C) 2·67 V (D) 13·5 V (D) 1·6 × 10–19 C
respectively. The internal energy 31. In the given bridge the value of X
at A and B is U A and U B respec- 25. The speed of sound in air at 15°C
and 76 cm of mercury is 340 for which the potential difference
tively— between the points B and D will
(A) W1 = W2 = UB – U A ms–1. The speed of sound in air
be zero is—
at 30°C and 75 cm of mercury will
(B) Q1 = Q2 = UA – U B B
be—
(C) Q1 + W 1 = Q2 + W2 = U A + UB
Ω
5

1
303

Ω
(D) Q1 + W 2 = Q2 + W 1 = U B – U A
Ω

(A) 340
5

288 1
1 e2 A Ω C
20. The dimensions of × are— 288
Ω
ε0 hc
2

(B) 340
X

303 Ω
2
5

(A) A2L–3T4M–1 (B) A–2T–4L3M (C) 340 2

Ω

D
(C) A0M0L0T0 (D) AT 2L–3M–1
2 × 75
(D) 340
21. The frequency of a vibrating body 76
situated in air—
26. Which amongst the following is (A) 5 Ω (B) 10 Ω
(A) Is the same as natural fre- the correct expression ?
quency (C) 15 Ω (D) 20 Ω
(A) Current density = Resistivity
(B) Is higher than its natural fre- 32. Quality factor for thermal neu-
× Electric field
quency trons is—
(B) Current density = Specific
(C) Is lower than its natural fre- (A) 3 (B) 10
resistance/electric field
quency (C) 20 (D) 1
(C) Current density = Specific
(D) Can have any value conductivity × Electric field 33. The e.m.f. developed in a thermo-
1
22. Which of the following character- (D) None of the above couple is given by E = αT + βT 2
istics is not associated with a 27. An electric dipole placed in a 2
crystalline solid ? where T is temperature of hot
uniform electric field will have junction, cold junction being at
(A) They are anisotropic minimum potential energy when 0°C. The thermoelectric power of
(B) They have uniform chemical the dipole moment is inclined to
the couple is—
composition the field at an angle—
β
(C) They have a sharp melting π (A) α + T (B) α + βT
(A) π (B) 2
point 2
(D) They are not bounded by flat 3π αT2 βT3 α
(C) Zero (D) (C) + (D)
surfaces 2 2 6 2β

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 835

34. Which of the following produces
suntan ?
(A) Infra-red rays
(B) X-rays
(C) Ultraviolet rays
(D) Gamma rays
35. A proton and an α-particle,
accelerated through the same
potential difference, enter a
region of uniform magnetic field
normally. If the radius of the
proton orbit is 10 cm that of the
α-orbit is—
(A) 10 cm (B) 10 2 cm
(C) 20 cm (D) 5 2 cm
36. Musical scales are made up of
groups of—
(A) 12 notes called semitones
(B) 12 notes called overtones
(C) 7 notes called bars
(D) 7 notes called treble
37. A thin magnet of magnetic
moment M is divided into two
equal parts by cutting it perpendi-
cular to its length. The new mag-
netic moment of each part is M′.
If the time period of each part is
T′ and the time period of original
magnet is T for oscillations in the
same magnetic field, then—
M T
(A) M′ = ‚ T′ =
2 2
M (A)
(B) M′ = ‚ T′ = T
2
(C) M′ = M‚ T′ = T
(D) M′ = M‚ T′ = 2T
38. In a cyclotron, the intensity of the
magnetic field is 1·5 T. Find the
time period of revolution of the
protons in the cyclotron—
(Mass of proton = 1·00782 u)
(A) 3·48 × 10–8 s
(B) 8·43 × 10–8 s
(C) 4·38 × 10–8 s
(D) 43·8 × 10–8 s
39. A conducting wire is moving
towards right in a magnetic field.
The direction of
induced current in
the wire is as
shown in the
figure. The direc-
tion of magnetic
field is—
(A) In the plane of the paper
pointing towards right
(B) In the plane of the paper
pointing towards left
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 836
(C) Perpendicular to the plane of the electron is 1·76 × 1011 C kg–1,
the paper and downwards the velocity acquired by the elec-
(D) Perpendicular to the plane of tron is—
the paper and upwards (A) 8·4 × 105 ms–1
40. A disc of radius R lying on X–Y (B) 8·4 × 106 ms–1
plane rotates with a uniform
(C) 4·2 × 105 ms–1
angular velocity ω about Z-axis.
(D) 4·2 × 106 ms–1
The disc is in a uniform magnetic
→ 46. Echelon effect relates with—
field of flux density B parallel to (A) Beats
Z-axis. Find the total emf (B) Echelon grating
between centre and rim, if A is (C) Acoustics of buildings
the area of the disc and R its
(D) Doppler’s effect
radius—
A2B 47. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain
(A) ABf (B) atom correspond to increasing
f
A AB values of energy, i. e ., E A < E B
(C) (D)
Bf f < E C . If λ1, λ2, λ3 are the wave-
41. The transmitting antenna of a lengths of radiations correspond-
radiostation is mounted vertically. ing to the transitions C to B, B to
At a point 10 km due north of the A and C to A respectively, which
transmitter the peak electric field of the following statement is
is 10–3 Vm–1. The magnitude of correct ?
the radiated magnetic field is— (A) λ3 = λ1 + λ2
(A) 3·33 × 10–10 T λ1 λ2
(B) λ3 =
(B) 3·33 × 10–12 T λ1 + λ2
(C) 10–3 T (C) λ1 + λ2 + λ3 = 0
(D) 3 × 105 T (D) λ32 = λ12 + λ22
42. A 50 Hz alternating current is 48. Half-life of radium is 1620 years.
flowing in a coil of inductance 7 If some amount of radium is
millihenry. What is the reactance stored for 6480 years, what frac-
of the coil ? What should be the tion of it remains undecayed ?
capacity of a capacitor in order 1 1
(B)
that electrical resonance takes 16 32
place at the frequency 50 Hz ? 1 1
(C) (D)
(A) 10 Ω, 2 × 103 f 8 4
(B) 5 Ω, 4·5 × 10 –3 f 49. The resistance of a germanium
(C) 2·198 Ω, 1·45 × 10–3 f junction diode whose V-I graph is
(D) 7 Ω, 5·41 × 10 –3 f shown in figure is (Vk = 0·3 V)—
43. The angle of a prism is 30°. The
rays incident at 60° at one refract-
ing face suffer a deviation of 30°.
The angle of emergence is—
(A) 0° (B) 30°
(C) 60° (D) 90°
44. Satellite based instruments in-
(A) 5 kΩ (B) 0·2 kΩ
clude—
(A) HST (The Hubble Space
Telescope-optical)
(C) 2·3 kΩ (D) ( )
10
2·3
kΩ
(B) COBE (The Cosmic Back-
50. Two electrons leave a radio-
ground Explorer-microwave) active sample in opposite direc-
(C) IRAS (The Infrared Astrono- tions, each having a speed 0·8 c
mical Satellite) with respect to the sample. Find
(D) All the above relative speed of one electron
45. An electron at rest is accelerated with respect to other—
through a potential difference of (A) 8·9 c (B) 0·089 c
200 V. If the specific charge of (C) 0·98 c (D) 9·8 c
Introduction
● Transition elements are the elements which occupy
their position between most electropositive s-block and
electronegative p-block elements in the long form of
periodic table.
● The transition elements are called so because their
properties lie between those of s-block and p -block
elements and make a bridge, i.e., a transition or
change between s- and p-blocks.
● The transition elements are also called d -block ele-
ments because the last or differentiating electron in
their atoms always enters in the d-orbitals of (n – 1) or
penultimate (last but one) shell.
● The transition element may thus be defined as an
element whose atom or ion in the ground state has
incomplete d-sub-shell, i.e., it contains 1 to 9 electrons.
Electronic Configuration and Position in Periodic
Table
● These elements have two outermost incomplete shells
with general electronic configuration (n – 1)d 1–10 n s 0–2
where n = outermost shell.
● There are four series of transition elements corres-
ponding to 3 d, 4d, 5d and 6d incomplete sub-shells.
● Following table represents the position of transition
elements in extended or long form of periodic table with
their atomic numbers and electronic configurations.
● Elements marked with asterisk (* ) have abnormal or
exceptional electronic configurations.
● The irregularities or exceptions in electronic configura-
tions of some elements like Cr, Cu, Ag, Au, Mo etc. are
explained on the basis of the concept that half-filled or
completely filled orbits are relatively more stable than
other d-orbit configurations.
● The explanation of irregularities found in configuration
of some other elements is rather difficult. This can,
however be achieved by other factors like :
(I) Nuclear-electronic attraction
(II) Shielding or screening effect
(III) Inter electronic repulsion and
(IV) Exchange energy forces
● The definition of transition elements excludes Zn, Cd
and Hg from transition elements as they do not contain
incomplete d-sub-shell. They do not show most of the
properties of transition elements to an appreciable limit
except a few. Hence they are treated as d-block ele-
ments and are called non-typical transition elements.
● The elements with atoms having three outermost
shells incomplete are called inner-transition ele-
ments. They are the elements of lanthanide series (58
to 71) and actinide series (90 to 103). Their electronic
configuration can be represented by a general elec-
tronic configuration as :
(n – 2) f 1 – 14 (n – 1)d 0 – 2 ns 2
Thus they are also known as f -block elements.

←⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ d -Block Elements ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→

or
(Transition Elements)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

I→ Sc Ti V Cr* Mn Fe Co Ni Cu *
Zn
3d 1 4s 2 3d 2 4s 2 3d 3 4s 2 3d 5 4s 1 3d 5 4s 2 3d 6 4s 2 3d 7 4s 2 3d 8 4s 2 3d 10 4s 1 3d 10 4s 2
39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
*
II→ Y Zr Nb Mo*
Tc Ru *
Rh
*
Pd* Ag* Cd
4d 1 5s 2 4d 2 5s 2 4d 4 5s 1 4d 5 5s 1 4d 5 3s 2 4d 7 5s 1 4d 8 5s 1 4d 10 5s 0 4d 10 5s 1 4d 10 5s 2
57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

III → La Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt * Au* Hg
5d 1 6s 2 5d 2 6s 2 5d 3 6s 2 5d 4 6s 2 5d 5 6s 2 5d 6 6s 2 5d 7 6s 2 5d 9 6s 1 5d 10 6s 1 5d 10 6s 2
89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112

IV → Ac Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt
6d 1 7s 2 — — — — — —

Note : Rf= Rutherfordium, Db = Dubnium, Sg = Seaborgium, Bh = Bohrium, Hs = Hassium, Mt = Meitnerium.

Elements with atomic numbers 110, 111 and 112 have also been discovered, making all the four series of elements complete
(each containing 10 elements).

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 842

Important Characteristics ● Because of variable oxidation state, metal can easily
(1) Metallic Nature combine with one of the reactants acquiring oxidation
state suitable to that reactant giving an intermediate
● All the transition elements are well characterised (unstable) which in turn reacts with second reagent to
metals having hcp , ccp or bcc lattices. form the products at a faster rate.
● The metallic properties like high thermal and electrical ● On account of free valencies present at the surface of
conductivity, lustre or brightness, malleability, ductility, metal, reacting molecules are adsorbed thereby
hardness etc. are ascribed to the metallic-bond increasing the concentration of reactants on the
present in them. surface. This facilitates the increase in the rate of reac-
● Metallic bond is caused due to the presence of a tion.
fewer number of electrons in the outermost energy
● Following is the summary of transition metal catalysts
level and also by presence of unpaired electrons
and their applications :
present in d -sub-shell. It is commonly observed that
greater the number of unpaired electrons in d -sub-shell ➟ V2O5 : In manufacture of H 2SO4
stronger is the metallic bonding and the harder is the by contact process.
metal e.g., Cr, Mo, W etc. Zn, Cd and Hg are soft as ➟ Co-Th alloy : In synthesis of petrol by
they do not have unpaired electrons. Fischer-Tropsch process.
(2) Oxidation States ➟ Finely divided Ni : In hydrogenation of oils
● Transition elements show variable oxidation states into fats.
but +2 and +3 oxidation states are commonly observed ➟ Spongy Pt : In manufacture of H 2SO4
in d-block elements. This is because of very little by contact process and in
energy difference between (n – 1) d and ns orbitals. manufacture of HNO3 from
Hence, the electrons from both energy levels can be NH3 by Ostwald process.
used for bond formation. ➟ Iron (Fe) : In the manufacture of NH 3
● The highest oxidation states of transition elements are by Haber process
found in their oxides and fluorides because oxygen Molybdenum (Mo) : Used as promoter in Haber
and fluorine have high electronegativity. The highest process.
oxidation known is + 8 in OsO4.
➟ Fe 2O3 : In manufacture of hydro-
● In general, transition elements form ionic bonds in
gen by Bosch process.
lower oxidation states (+ 2 and + 3). But high oxidation
states give covalent bonds. For example in KMnO 4 Cr2O3 : Used as a promoter in
and CrO42– where Mn and Cr are in + 7 and + 6 oxida- Bosch process.
tion states, all bonds between metal atom and oxygen ➟ TiCl4 with trialkyl Al : In Zeigler-Natta polymeri-
are covalent. sation of ethylene.
● The lower oxidation states (0 or +1) of transition ele- ➟ Adam’s catalyst : In hydrogenation of alkenes
ments are stabilised by ligands which can accept elec- (Pt/PtO)
trons from metal through pi (π) bonding. CO molecule ➟ Wilkinson’s catalyst : In homogeneous hydroge-
is one of such ligands. In nickel carbonyl [Ni (CO) 4], [Rh(Ph3P)3Cl] nation.
the oxidation of Ni is zero.
➟ Platinum (Pt) : To oxidise CO in automo-
● The relative stability of different oxidation states of
bile exhaust.
transition metals can be determined with the help
➟ Lindlar’s catalyst : Most effective catalyst for
of standard electrode potential data. For example E°
Pd-CaCO3 partially hydrogenation of triple
values for the couples Cr 3+/Cr2+ = – 0·41 and
Mn3+/Mn2+ = + 1·50 volts suggest that Cr2+ is unstable poisoned with lead bond to alkene stage.
and is oxidised to Cr3+ stable state whereas Mn3+ is acetate.
unstable and is reduced to stable Mn2+ state. ➟ Cram’s catalyst
Similarly Fe2+ ion is unstable in aerated water and is ❐ Pd-BaSO4 partially
oxidised to Fe 3+ and Cu+ is unstable in water and is
oxidised to Cu2+. poisoned with quino-
● It must be remembered that in gaseous state Cu+ ion line is by far better.
is more stable than Cu2+ ion due to stable, d 10 confi- ➟ CuCl2 : In manufacture of Cl2 by
guration of Cu + ion. Deacon’s process.
➟ ZnO + Cr2O3 : In manufacture of CH3OH
(3) Catalytic Properties
from synthesis gas
● Many transition metals and their compounds are used
(CO + H2)
as catalyst in many chemical reactions.
● On account of variable valency, they easily absorb or (4) Formation of Coloured Ions
emit a wide range of energy necessary for the reaction ● The colour of any substance is due to the property of
under question. substance to absorb light of certain wavelength in the

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 843 / 5

 region of visible light having wavelength range 4000- ● The colour of a transition metal ion is also affected by
7500 A° . Actually the transmitted light gives colour to the environment around it which in turn affects the
the substance as transmitted light has colour comple- magnitude of splitting of d-orbitals.
mentry to that absorbed. For example :
● CuSO 4.5 H 2O absorbs radiation corresponding to red Formula of Compound Colour
light, the Cu 2+ ion transmits radiation corresponding to [Co (NH3)6] Cl3 Orange
blue colour and hence Cu 2+ compounds are blue. [Co (NH3)5 H2O] Cl3 Rose
● Most of the transition metal compounds are coloured [Co (NH3)5 Cl] Cl2 Purple
both in solid state and in aqueous solution. This is due [Co (NH3)4 Cl2] Cl Green
to incompletely filled d-orbitals. [Co (NH3)3 Cl3] Blue Green
● When a transition metal forms a compound the CuSO 4.5H2O Blue
degenerate d-orbitals (all five d-orbitals having same CuSO 4 Colourless
energy) of metal ion splits in to two sets one (having [Cu (NH3)4] SO4 Blue
d xy, d yz and dzx called T2g orbitals) with lower energy K3 [Cu (CN)4] Colourless
and other (having dx 2 – y 2 and d z2 called eg orbitals)
(5) Magnetic Properties
with higher energy in octahedral field. This is called
crystal-field splitting. ● Solid substances are generally associated with mag-
● The colour of transition metal ion arises from excitation netic properties. Majority of them are either paramag-
netic or diamagnetic.
of electrons from d -orbitals of lower energy (T2 g) to
those of higher energy e g . The light radiations corre-
sponding to such small amount of energy which are Key Points
required for this d -d transition are available in visible ● In iron, cobalt and nickel, the magnetic moments
light. due to unpaired electron spins are aligned parallel
to the external magnetic field more efficiently
● The transition metals ions which have fully filled d-
resulting in an exceptionally strong reinforcement of
orbitals (d 10) are colourless. There is no vacant orbital
paramagnetism. These substances are, therefore,
to permit any electronic transition. known as ferromagnetic.
● The transition metal ions which have completely ● Paramagnetic substances lose their magnetism in
vacant d-orbitals ( d 0) are also colourless. absence of magnetic field. TiO, VO 2 and CuO are
● The colours of some important metal ions are summa- paramagnetic substances.
rised as— ● Ferromagnetic substances show permanent magne-
tism even in the absence of magnetic field. Some
Configuration No. of Colour of examples of ferromagnetic solids are : Iron, Cobalt,
Metal ion
in valency unpaired the ion Nickel and CrO2.
(Hydrated)
shell of ion electrons ● Ferromagnetism arises due to spontaneous align-
ment of magnetic moments of ions or atoms in the
Sc3+ 3d 0 0 Colourless
same direction.
Ti 4+ 3d 0 0 Colourless
↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ Ferromagnetism
Ti 3+ 3d 1 1 Purple Alignment of magnetic moments in opposite direc-
V3+ 3d 2 2 Green tion in a compensatory manner and resulting in a
V2+ 3d 3 3 Violet zero magnetic moment gives rise to antiferromag-
netism. Examples are : MnO, Mn2O3 and MnO2.
Cr3+ 3d 3 3 Violet
↑ ↓ ↑ ↓ ↑ ↓ Antiferromagnetism
Mn2+ 3d 5 5 Light pink
● The alignment of magnetic moments in opposite
Mn3+ 3d 4 4 Violet directions resulting in a net magnetic moment due to
Fe2+ 3d 6 4 Green unequal number of parallel and antiparallel align-
Fe3+ 3d 5 5 Yellow ments of the magnetic moments, gives rise to ferri-
magnetism. For example Fe3O 4 is a ferrimagnetic
Co2+ 3d 7 3 Pink substance.
Ni 2+ 3d 8 2 Green ↑ ↓ ↓ ↑ ↓ ↓ Ferrimagnetism
Cu2+ 3d 9 1 Blue
● Paramagnetism arises due to the presence of un-
Cu+ 3d 10 0 Colourless paired electrons in the (n – 1) d-orbitals. Paramagnetic
Zn2+ 3d 10 0 Colourless substances are attracted by the external magnetic
field. As the number of unpaired electrons increases
● Ag+, Au+, Cd2+ and Hg2+ have completely filled from 1 to 5 in d -orbitals of metal ions the magnetic
d-orbitals and hence they are also colourless. moment and hence paramagnetism also increases.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 844

● Diamagnetism arises when all electrons in metal ions ● Ferrous oxide (FeO) is well known non-stoichiometric
are paired. The magnetic effect of individual electrons compound and its composition varies between Fe0·84 O
is compensated in diamagnetic substances and as a to Fe0·94 O indicating that Fe and O atoms are not
result, the magnetic moment of such substances present in the ratio of 1 : 1. To indicate non-stoichio-
becomes zero. metry in a compound, its normal formula is written with
● Fe, Co and Ni possess very high paramagnetism and a bar over it like FeO .
they acquire permanent magnetic moment and are (8) Interstitial Compounds
known as ferromagnetic. Alnico, which is an alloy of
● Transition metals form a number of interstitial com-
Al, Ni, Co and Fe, is used to make permanent mag-
nets. pounds in which small atoms of non-metals such as H,
C, B, N, He etc. occupy empty spaces or interstitial
● The magnetic moment of any species depends upon
spaces in crystal lattices of metals. These new com-
the sum of orbital and spin motion contribution of each pounds are known as hydrides, carbides, borides,
unpaired electron present. In most of transition metal nitrides and helides respectively.
ions, the orbital contribution to the magnetic moment is
largely suppressed or quenched by electrostatic field ● Nature of bonding in these compounds is not fully
of other atoms, molecules or ions surrounding the understood but they are hard and rigid. The malleabi-
metal ions. Thus, the effective magnetic moment (μeff) lity and ductility of metals decrease while tenacity
is expressed as : increases due to formation of these compounds.
● Interstitial compounds are useful as hard materials
μeff = n (n + 2) BM (Bohr magnetons)
used in machine tool and drilling materials.
(n = No. of unpaired electrons)
eh (9) Alloy Formation
BM =
4πmc ● Transition elements are quite similar in atomic size and
hence atoms of one transition metal can easily take
(6) Complex Formation
the position of atoms of other metal in the crystal
● Transition metal ions form a large number of com- lattice. This gives rise to solid solution and smooth
plexes in which central metal ion is linked to number of alloy on cooling.
molecules or ions called ligands (electron donors). For
● Alloys are generally harder, have low melting points
example : [Co (NH3)6] Cl3, [Cu (NH3)4] SO4, K3 [Fe
(CN)6], K 4 [Fe (CN)6] etc. and are more resistant to corrosion than individual
metals.
● The tendency of transition metal ions to form com-
● Alloys containing mercury as one of the constituents
plexes is on account of two important factors.
are called amalgams. Iron (Fe) and platinum (Pt) do
(i) Transition metal cations have high nuclear charge not form amalgams.
and small size, i.e., charge/size ratio or charge
● Some worth remembering alloys are :
density is high. This facilitates the polarization of
ligands towards metal ions. ➟ Wood metal : Bi (50%), Pb (25%), Sn
(12·5%) and Cd (12·5%),
(ii) They have appropriate number of vacant d-orbitals
used in fuse plugs and auto-
in the outermost shell to accommodate the lone
matic sprinklers. It melts
pairs of electrons from the ligands.
even in boiling water.
● In the complexes the metal ion behaves as Lewis acid
➟ Yellow Brass : Cu (67%) and Zn (33%),
(electron pair acceptor) while ligands as Lewis bases
(electron pair donors). used in hardwares
➟ Sterling Silver : Ag (92·5%) and Cu (7·5%),
(7) Non-Stoichiometric Compounds
Tablewares
● Non-stoichiometric compounds are those in which
➟ Dental amalgam : Ag (70%), Sn (18%), Cu
chemical composition is not in conformity with ideal
(10%), Hg (2·0%) used in
chemical formula.
dental filling.
● The chemical compounds of transition metals with O,
➟ German Silver : An alloy of Cu, Zn and Ni,
S, Se, Te etc. are generally non-stoichiometric, i.e.,
used for utensils.
they have indefinite composition.
➟ Monel Metal : An alloy of Cu, Mn, Ni and
● The non-stoichiometry in these compounds is built up
due to two reasons mainly : Fe, used for making electro-
lytic vessel employed in
(i) Variable valency of transition metals. manufacture of fluorine by
(ii) Defects developed in the solid state. Moissan method.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 845

 Points to Remember
● Some transition metals form three kinds of oxides namely
mixed oxides , non-stoichiometric oxides and spinels.
➟ Mixed oxides : ZnFe 2O 4, CoMoO4 etc. (having diffe-
rent metals in different oxidation states
Fe3O4 (FeO.Fe2O3), Mn3O4 (2MnO.
MnO 2) having same metal with diffe-
rent oxidation states.
➟ Non-Stoichio- : Fe0·91O, Fe0·95O, in which metal-
metric oxides oxygen ratio is not whole number.
➟ Spinel : ZnFe 2 O 4 is a normal spinel in which
trivalent ion occupy octahedral holes
and divalent cation, tetrahedral holes
Fe (Fe2 ) O4 is an inverse spinel in
which dispositive ions are present in
the octahedral voids and tripositive
ions are distributed equally between
tetrahedral and octahedral voids.
● Fe, Co, Ni are called ferrous metals. Ru, Rh, Pd, Os, Ir and
Pt are known as platinum metals and Cu, Ag and Au are
known as coinage metals.
● Both Au and Pt are inert and are called noble metals, but
they are soluble in aqua-regia due to the formation of H
AuCl4 and H2PtCl6 respectively.
● A transition element with atomic number 43 was named as
Technetium (Tc). It was the first man made or synthetic
element. It is a radioactive metal.
● Cobalt (Co) is a crucial element in vitamin B-12 where its role
is to act as a catalyst.
● Iron (Fe) is a key element in the biological oxidation-reduction
processes using haemoglobin or myoglobin.
● Mo and Fe together with sulphur, form a reactive part of
nitrogenase, a biological catalyst to convert atmospheric
nitrogen into ammonia.
● Rhodium (Rh) and platinum are used in automobile catalytic
convertors.
● When transition metal ions are present in crystalline silicates
or alumina, the minerals become gems.
● The absorption of hydrogen by transition elements like Pt, Pd,
Ni etc. is called occlusion and it is due to interstitial hydride
formation.
● In aqueous solution Cu 2+ is more stable than Cu+ ion due to
extensive hydration of Cu2+ ion because it has higher charge
and smaller size, while in gaseous state Cu + is more stable
than Cu2+ because former has stable electronic configuration
( d10)
● Scandium (Sc) is the lightest and iridium (Ir) is the heaviest
transition element. Iridium sp.gr. 22·65, Osmium sp.gr.
22·61.
● Tungsten (W) has highest melting point (3407°C) and mer-
cury (Hg) has lowest melting point (– 38·87°C) among all the
transition elements.
● The symbol, Hg for mercury is derived from Greek word
hydrargyrum = water silver.
● Iron is the second most abundant metal in the earth crust
(4·7% by mass) after aluminium.
● When the magnetic moment of a transition metal cation is
entirely due to the spins of unpaired electrons, then
μ eff = 4S (S + 1) BM
(S = Total spin quantum number)
This equation is related to the number of unpaired electrons
( n ) as
μ eff = n (n + 2) BM
● A mixture of CuSO 4 and Ca(OH)2 is called Bordeaux mixture
and is used as a fungicide.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Transition metals— 4. Which is the incorrect statement (C) Two electrons in outermost
(A) Exhibit diamagnetism about d-block elements ? orbit
(B) Undergo inert pair effect (A) They have high melting and (D) Complete d-orbits
boiling points
(C) Do not form alloys 7. Which of the following transition
(B) They show catalytic potential
(D) Show variable oxidation metal ions is diamagnetic ?
states (C) They show variable valency
(A) Zn 2+ (B) Cu 2+
(D) They have atomic radii
2. Which of the following elements larger than s-block elements (C) Co 2+ (D) Ni2+
generally form coloured salts ?
5. Which of the following is a transi- 8. Which of the following metals is
(A) Metalloids
tion element ? lightest ?
(B) s -block elements
(A) Ni (B) Al (A) Zinc (B) Scandium
(C) p-block elements
(D) Elements between s- and p - (C) Sn (D) Po (C) Copper (D) Nickel
blocks 6. Zinc and cadmium do not show 9. Which of the following ions has
3. Which of the following is the variable valency like d block ele- highest value of magnetic
element of d-block ? ments due to— moment ?
(A) Calcium (B) Francium (A) Low melting point (A) Fe 3+ (B) Co 3+
(C) Cadmium (D) Radon (B) Softness (C) V3+ (D) Cr3+

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 846

10. Which one of the following transi- (C) ns electrons 30. The colour of transition metal
tion metal ions is coloured ? (D) ns + (n – 1) d electrons ions is attributed to—
(A) Sc 3+ (B) Zn 2+ 20. The number of d -electrons in (A) Exceptionally small size of
(C) Cu + (D) V4+ Fe 2+ ion is not equal to— cations
(A) p-electrons in neon (B) Absorption of ultraviolet rays
11. Which one of the following is the
non-typical transition element ? (B) s -electrons in Mg (C) Incompleted ( n – 1) d -sub-
(A) Cu (B) Ni (C) d-electrons in Fe atom shell
(C) Zn (D) Pt (D) p-electrons in Cl– ion (D) Absorption of infrared radia-
tions
12. Transition elements show vari- 21. Among the following outer confi-
31. Transition metals have high
able valency because they gurations of transition elements,
standard oxidation potential and
release electrons from— which one can show the highest
even then they are poor reducing
(A) ns and np orbits oxidation state ?
agents. This is due to—
(B) (n – 1) d orbit (A) 3d 3 4 s 2 (B) 3d 5 4 s 1
(A) High heat of vaporization
(C) (n – 1) d and ns orbitals (C) 3d 5 4 s 2 (D) 3d 6 4 s 2
(B) High ionization energy
(D) ns orbital 22. Which of the following transition
(C) Low heat of hydration
13. Which of the following transition elements does not form amal-
gam ? (D) All of these
metal cations has highest num-
ber of unpaired electrons ? (A) Silver (B) Gold 32. Transition elements have strong
(A) Fe 2+ (B) Co 2+ (C) Iron (D) Zinc tendency to form complex com-
(C) Ni 2+ (D) Mn2+ 23. Which is the ferrous alloy ? pounds. This is due to—
14. The metal which is not ferro- (A) Solder (B) Type metal (A) Small cationic size
magnetic is— (C) Invar (D) Magnalium (B) Large cationic charge
(A) Iron (B) Cobalt 24. Which transition metal is used as (C) Incomplete ( n – 1) d sub-
(C) Nickel (D) Manganese promoter in the manufacture of shell
15. Which of the following complex ammonia by Haber’s process ? (D) All of these
ions is expected to be paramag- (A) Fe (B) Os 33. The standard reduction potential
netic ? (C) Ni (D) Mo of transition elements is gene-
(A) [Zn (NH3)4] 2+ 25. A transition element has a confi- rally—
(B) [Ni (H2O)6] 2+ guration [Ar] 3d 4 in its + 3 oxida- (A) Positive
(C) [Ni (CO)4] tion state. The atomic number of (B) Negative
(D) [Co (NH3)6] 3+ the element is— (C) Zero
(A) 22 (B) 25
16. An alloy which does not contain (D) None of these
(C) 26 (D) 19
zinc (Zn) is— 34. Pt, Pd and Ir etc. are called noble
(A) German silver 26. Which one of the following pairs
metals because—
of ions contains same number of
(B) Gun metal (A) Alfred Nobel discovered
unpaired electrons ?
(C) Brass them
(A) Mn2+ and Fe 3+
(D) None of these (B) They are inert towards most
(B) Ni2+ and Mn 2+
17. The general electronic configura- of the common reagents
(C) Ni2+ and Co 2+
tion of transition elements is— (D) Ti3+ and Co 2+ (C) They are very shining
(A) (n – 1)d 1–5 (D) They are base metals
27. Which ion has the same number
(B) (n – 1)d 1–10 ns 1 of unpaired electrons as that of 35. The alloy which is commonly
(C) (n – 1) d 1–10 ns 0–2 V3+ ion ? used for making heating ele-
(D) None of these (A) Fe 3+ (B) Ni2+ ments is made of—
(C) Mn 2+ (D) Cr3+ (A) Duralumin (B) Brass
18. Which is the correct electronic
configuration of chromium atom 28. Which compound is both (C) Bronze (D) Nichrome
in ground energy state ? coloured and paramagnetic ? 36. Blue coloured solution is not
(A) 3d 4 4 s 2 (A) K3 [Cu (CN)4] obtained when—
(B) 3d 5 4 s 1 (B) K2Cr2O7 (A) Copper sulphate is dissolved
(C) 3d 6 4 s 0 (C) (NH4)2 (TiCl6) in NH4OH
(D) None of these (D) VOSO4 (B) Copper sulphate reacts with
19. The highest oxidation state 29. Which of the following elements K4 [Fe (CN)6]
achieved by a transition metal shows the highest oxidation (C) Ferric chloride reacts with
can be given by loss of— number ? sodium ferrocyanide
(A) (n – 1) d electrons (A) Cr (B) Mn (D) Anhydrous CuSO4 is dissol-
(B) (n + 1) d electrons (C) Os (D) Pt ved in water

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 847

37. Nichrome is an alloy of— 45. Which of the following sets is a added, the colour of solution
(A) Ni and Cr set of non-typical transition ele- becomes—
(B) Ni and Fe ments ? (A) Green (B) Sky blue
(C) Fe and Cr (A) Ba, Ca, Sr (C) Deep blue (D) Orange
(D) Ni, Fe and Cr (B) Zn, Cd, Hg 54. The tendency to form complexes
38. Automobile engine blocks are (C) Ge, Sn, Pb is maximum for—
made of— (D) As, Sb, Bi (A) Normal metals
(A) Wrought iron (B) Metals containing fully filled
46. An atom has electronic configu- d-orbitals
(B) Stainless steel ration,
(C) Metals having partially filled
(C) Cast iron 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 3 d 3 4 s 2 d-orbitals
(D) Ni and Cr alloy In which group it will be placed ? (D) Representative elements
39. Invar is an alloy of— (A) Fourth (B) Fifth 55. Which of the following is an
(A) Steel and chromium (C) Second (D) Third interstitial compound ?
(B) V and Mn 47. For the same transition metal (A) Solder
(C) W and Cr ion, the colour of its compounds (B) Brass
(D) Steel and Ni will depend upon— (C) Steel
(A) Temperature of reaction (D) None of these
40. Which one of the following is not
a transition metal complex by (B) Pressure of reaction 56. Which of the following transition
definition ? (C) Concentration of ligands metal ions will have a definite
(A) [Ni (H2O)6] 2+ (D) Nature of ligands value of magnetic moment ?
(B) [Fe F6] 3– 48. The oxidation state in Fe 3O4 is— (A) Sc 3+ (B) Ti3+
(C) [Zn (H2O)6] 2+ (C) Cu + (D) Zn 2+
(A) + 3 only
(D) [Mn (H2O)6] 2+ (B) + 2 only 57. From the aqueous solution of
CuSO 4, the metal which can be
41. Invar alloy is used in metre (C) + 2 and + 3 both
used to recover copper metal
scales. Its characteristic property 4 is—
(D) +
is— 3
(A) Na (B) Ag
(A) Resistance to corrosion 49. Colourless solutions of following (C) Hg (D) Fe
(B) Hardness and elasticity four different salts are placed in
58. Which of the following elements
(C) Small coefficient of expan- four different test tubes and a
is responsible for oxidation of
sion wire of copper is dipped in each H2O to O2 in biological proces-
(D) Magnetic nature one of these. Which solution will
ses ?
turn blue ?
42. The catalytic activity of transition (A) Iron
(A) KNO 3 (B) ZnSO 4
elements and their compounds is (B) Manganese
(C) AgNO 3 (D) Zn (NO3)2
ascribed to— (C) Copper
(A) Magnetic behaviour 50. The magnetic moment of a (D) Molybdenum
(B) Chemical reactivity transition metal ion is found to be 59. Nonstoichiometric compounds
(C) Multiple oxidation states and 5·92 BM. The number of un- are formed by—
complexing ability paired electrons present in it is—
(A) Nobel gases
(D) None of these (A) 2 (B) 3
(B) Transition elements
43. Which one of the following pairs (C) 4 (D) 5
(C) Alkaline earth elements
of ions has the same electronic 51. The complex ion trans- (D) None of these
configuration ? [Co(NH3)4 Cl2] + absorbs the red
60. Which of the following is diamag-
(A) Fe 3+ and Cr 3+ region of visible spectrum. The
netic ?
(B) Fe 3+ and Mn 2+ colour of the ion will be—
(A) Cu (B) Cu +
(C) Fe 3+ and Co 3+ (A) Red (B) Blue 2+
(C) Cu (D) All of these
(D) Sc 3+ and Cr 3+ (C) Green (D) Violet
61. Which of the following com-
44. Which one of the following spe- 52. Which of the following gem- pounds is diamagnetic and tetra-
cies has an atom with oxidation stones contains iron ? hedral ?
state of + 6 ? (A) Topaz (B) Ruby (A) [FeCl4] –
(A) MnO4– (C) Emerald (D) Sapphire (B) Ni (CO)4]
(B) CrO2Cl2 (C) [Ni (CN)4] 2–
53. An aqueous solution of CuSO 4
(C) [Cr (CN)6] 3– (D) None of these
is pale blue because of
(D) VOCl2 [Cu (H2O)4] 2+. When NH3(aq) is (Continued on Page 855 )

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 848

 + +
Introduction
Slow
● In nitrobenzene, nitro group (—NO2) is directly atta- (ii) NO2+ + ⎯⎯→ H
>–
ched to benzene ring and hence it is called a nitro- Benzene NO2
arene.
HSO –
● Nitrobenzene was first isolated by Mitscherlich in ⎯⎯⎯→
4
+ H2SO4
fast NO2
1834 and it is of great industrial importance and is put
Nitrobenzene
in the market as an artificial oil of bitter almonds under
Note : Slowest step involves the formation of ben-
the name of oil of mirabane.
zene carbocation (Phenonium or benzeno-
● The nitro group is isoelectronic with carboxylate anion nium ion) intermediate and this is the rate-
and is the resonance hybrid of two equivalent reso- determining step. This reaction takes place
nance structures at temperature below 60°C.
⊕ O ⊕ O
—N ←→ —N ● When temperature of the reaction is 100°C following
O O will be the main products :
Both N–O bonds in —NO2 are identical (bond length NO2 NO2
121 pm) and are intermediate between N—O and
N—
— O bond lengths. HNO + H SO
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
3 2 4
90°C NO2
● Since nitro group (—NO2) is isomeric with nitrite group
(—O—N — — O), nitro compounds are isomeric with Nitrobenzene m -dinitrobenzene

nitrites. NO2

Preparation Fuming HNO

⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
3
Oleum‚ 100° C NO2 NO2
Nitration : It is the most suitable direct method for
introducing nitro group (—NO2) into an aromatic nucleus. Sym-trinitrobenzene
(Poor yield)
Following are some noteworthy points regarding the nitra-
tion : Properties
● Nitration is a two step electrophilic substitution reac- ● Nitrobenzene is a lemon yellow oily liquid having smell
tion in which nitronium ion (NO 2+) is the attacking of bitter almonds.
electrophile on aromatic nucleus. ● Nitro compounds are highly polar. For example nitro-
● The nitrating agents commonly used are mixture of benzene has dipole moment of 4·0 D. Due to dipole-
HNO3 and H2 SO4, fuming nitric acid in acetic anhy- dipole interaction nitrobenzene has high boiling point,
dride, nitric acid in glacial acetic acid, nitronium fluo- 209°C.
ride, nitronium perchlorate etc.
● Reduction—It is one of the important properties of
● The relative reactivity of the aromatic compound being
nitrobenzene. The final product of reduction depends
nitrated, the position at which nitration is required etc.
upon nature of reducing agent as well as the pH of the
determine the choice of nitrating agent.
medium.
● The nitration of benzene to get nitrobenzene takes
(a) Catalytic reduction—Aniline is formed.
place as follows :
Ni or Pt
(i) HO—NO2 + 2H2SO4 H3O+ + 2HSO4– + NO2+ C6H5NO2 + 3 H2 ⎯⎯⎯→ C6H5NH2 + 2 H2O
(Nitronium ion) Aniline

Note : H2SO4 is stronger acid, gives proton to (b) Reduction in acidic medium—With Zn/HCl,
HNO3, a weaker acid acting as base. Fe/HCl, Sn/HCl etc., nitro group is reduced to
amino group.
H
| Sn/HCl or
C6H5NO2 + 6H ⎯⎯⎯→ C6H5NH2 + 2H2O
H—OSO 2OH + HO—NO2 → H—O—NO2 + –OSO2OH Fe/HCl
Acid Base ⊕ Base Aniline
Acid
↓ (c) Reduction in neutral medium—In neutral
H2O + NO2+ medium, i.e., with Zn and NH4Cl solution, phenyl
(Nitronium ion) hydroxylamine is formed.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 849

 C6H5NO2 + 2 Zn + 4 NH4Cl ⎯→ (e) Reduction with complex metal hydrides,
C6H5NHOH + 2 ZnCl2 + H2O + 4 NH3↑ LiAlH4—When nitrobenzene is reduced with
Phenyl hydroxylamine LiAlH4 in ether, azobenzene is the sole product.
LiAlH4
2 C6H5NO2 ⎯⎯⎯→ C6H5N —
— NC6H5
Key Points Ether
Azobenzene
● During the reduction in neutral medium it is believed (f) Electrolytic reduction—Following products are
that nitrosobenzene is first formed as an inter-
formed during electrolytic reduction of nitroben-
mediate, which then changes to phenyl hydroxyl-
zene in acidic medium.
amine.
+ 2H + 2H NH2
C6H5NO2 ⎯→ C6H5—N —
—O ⎯→ C6H5NHOH Electrolytic
– H 2O Nitrosobenzene reduction
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
● In neutral medium when H2 is passed in alcoholic Weakly acidic
medium
solution of nitrobenzene in presence of colloidal Aniline
palladium, aniline is obtained. NO2
● Aryl hydroxylamine is a reducing agent and gives
silver mirror when treated with Tollen’s reagent. →
This forms basis of Baker-Mulliken’s test for nitro
Nitro
group. benzene NHOH NH2
Electrolytic
reduction Rearrange
(d) Reduction in alkaline medium—In alkaline ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Strongly acidic
medium nitrobenzene undergoes bimolecular medium Phenyl
reduction. Different products are formed with hydroxylamine OH
different reducing agents.
p-amino phenol
O
↑ When electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene is
Na 3 A sO3 / NaOH
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ C6H5—N —
— N—C 6H5 carried out in alkaline medium, hydrazobenzene is
or glucose / NaOH first formed which undergoes an isomeric change
Azoxybenzene
[ 6H]
+ 3 H2O giving benzidine as final product.

Zn/Na O H, CH O H C6H5 —NH—NH—C6H5

C6H5NO2→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
3
C6H5—N —
— N—C 6H5 Hydrazobenzene
[ 8H] Azobenzene Rearrangement
+ 4 H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ H2N—C6H5 —C6H5 —NH2
Benzidine
Zn/NaO H
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ C6H5—NH— NH— C6H5 (g) Selective reduction—When more than one nitro
[10 H] groups are attached to aromatic nucleus, then
Hydrazobenzene
+ 4 H2O selective reduction of one of the – NO2 group can
be achieved without affecting another nitro group
Key Points by using very mild reducing agents like ammo-
nium sulphide (NH4)2S or sodium polysulphide
Mononuclear intermediate products such as nitroso- Na 2Sx .
benzene and phenyl hydroxylamine interact together to
produce bimolecular products such as azoxybenzene, NO2
azobenzene and hydrazobenzene.
+ 3 (NH4)2 S
[2H] NO2
(i) C6H5NO2 ⎯⎯→ C6H5N —
—O
– H 2O
Nitrosobenzene
[2H]
NH2
⎯→ C6H5NHOH
Phenyl hydroxylamine ⎯→ + 6 NH3 + 2 H2O + 3S
(ii) C 6H 5N —
—O C6H5—N → O NO2
+ ⎯→ || ● Electrophilic substitution reactions—Nitrobenzene
C6H5NHOH C6H5 N
Azoxybenzene can be nitrated, sulphonated and halogenated.
➠ Nitro group (—NO2) actually decreases electron
(iii) Azoxybenzene on further reduction gives azo-
benzene and hydrazobenzene
density at o- and p-position in benzene ring due to
attractive inductive effect, i.e., –I effect. Conse-
C6H5N → O [2H] C6H5—N [2H] C6H5—NH
|| ⎯⎯→ || ⎯→ |
quently, electron density becomes comparatively
C6H5—N – H 2O C6H5—N C6H5—NH high at m -position. Hence electrophilic substitu-
Azobenzene Hydrazobenzene tion takes place at m -position.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 850

 ➠ Various electrophilic substitution reactions are as : R R
NO2 NO2 NO2 C—H + ONOH ⎯⎯→ C—NO
HNO3 + R – H2O R
| |
H SO H2SO 4 NO2 NO2
←⎯⎯
2 4
⎯⎯→ 2°-nitro compound Pseudo nitrol (blue)
SO2OH Sulpho- Nitration NO2
nation 3° aliphatic nitro compounds do not react with
m -nitrosul- m -dinitro-
phonic acid benzene HNO2, hence remain colourless.

⎯⎯→
➠ Aromatic nitro compounds do not give such
Halogenation Cl2
reactions with nitrous acid.
(b) Primary and secondary aliphatic nitro compounds
NO2 are acidic and form salts with alkalies.
O OH
R—CH2—N → R—CH — —N (Tautomers)
Cl

→
O O
m -nitrochlorobenzene Pseudo acid form Aciform
➠ Due to the presence of nitro group, nitrobenzene Aciform reacts with alkali to give salt like
does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction, instead ONa
it is used as a solvent for many Friedel-Crafts reac- R—CH — —N

→
tions. O
● Distinction between aliphatic and aromatic nitro
➠ Aromatic nitro compounds do not give such
reactions.
compounds
(a) Primary and secondary aliphatic nitro compounds Uses of Nitrobenzene
on reacting with HNO 2 give nitrolic acids and ● It is used as a scenting material for many cheap
pseudonitroles respectively soaps.
H ● On account of its inertness it is used as a solvent for
| Friedel-Crafts reaction. It dissolves anhydrous AlCl3,
R—C—H + ONOH ⎯⎯→ R—C — — NOH
| – H2O | used as catalyst in this reaction.
NO2 NO2 ● Nitrobenzene penetrates leather well and hence used
1° Nitrocompound (Nitrolic acid) in making shoe polish.
⎯⎯→

● It is used as a starting material for many explosives

+ KOH – H2 O like trinitrobenzene.
● Nitrobenzene is used in manufacture of many impor-
R—C —
— NOK
| tant organic compounds like aniline, acetanilide, hydra-
NO2 zobenzene, benzidine a large number of azodyes and
(Red colour) sulpha drugs.

Points to Remember
● In presence of nitro groups, the reactivity of halogen increa- In case of acids
ses as : COOH COOH COOH
Cl Cl Cl Cl

NO 2 NO 2 < <
NO 2 NO 2
< < <
NO 2
NO 2 NO 2 NO 2 COOH
COOH
● The presence of nitro group increases the acidic nature of
phenols and carboxylic acids. The increasing order of acidic NO 2 NO 2
NO 2
nature is as : < <
In phenolic compounds NO 2
OH OH OH OH
● Due to the presence of nitro group on o- or p-position, α H of
NO 2 alkyl group gets activated and condensation of p -nitro-
< < <
NO 2 toluene with benzaldehyde takes place to give p- nitrostilbine.

NO 2
NO 2 CH3 + O —
— CH
OH OH
NO 2 NO 2 NO 2
< < C H ONa
⎯⎯⎯→
2 5
NO 2 — CH
CH — + H 2O
NO 2 NO 2 p-nitrostilbine

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 851

 Due to absence of – NO 2 group in toluene, the toluene does C6H5NHOH + NH3 + C4H 9ONO
not give condensation reaction with benzaldehyde. Dry n-butyl nitrite
● All the three dinitrobenzenes are known. Meta dinitroben- ⎯→ C6H5N (NO) ONH4 + C4H4OH
zene is obtained by direct nitration of benzene. Ortho and Amm. salt of N-nitrosophenyl-
para dinitrobenzenes are prepared by indirect methods. hydroxylamine
[Cupferron]
NO2 Caro’s acid NO2 HNO
➠ C6H5 ⎯⎯⎯→ C6H5 ⎯⎯⎯→ 3
Cupferron is originally used for the quantitative estimation of
NH 2 NO + H2O2
Cu and Fe (hence its name).
NO2
C6H5 ● Amatol—A mixture of TNT and NH 4NO3 is a blasting explo-
NO2 sive and is known as amatol. It is used in coal mines.
o- or p-dinitro-
benzene ● Amanol—It contain 47% Al (NO3)3 , 22% Al, 30% TNT and
NO 2 NO 2 1% charcoal. It is an outdoor blasting explosive.

NH2 ● The aryl nitro compounds like C 6H5NO 2 contain no α-hydro-

NaNO + HCl N = NC l
➠ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
2 gen hence they resemble tertiary aliphatic nitro compounds in
being not acidic in nature. Nitrobenzene does not tautomerise
o-nitroaniline like tertiary nitroalkanes.
NO 2 ● When two or more nitro groups are present on aromatic ring,
NO 2 they render adjacent hydrogen acidic due to powerful –I
HNO
⎯⎯→
2
effect. Hence 1, 3, 5-trinitrobenzene reacts with NaOH to form
Cu2O
an anion which is coloured.
o-dinitrobenzene
NO 2
Similarly, starting with p-nitroaniline, p-dinitrobenzene can be
prepared by the action of NaNO2 + HCl in presence of Cu2O. H— →⎯ NO 2
● Nitrobenzene, when heated with solid KOH, produces a NO 2 H
mixture of o- and p -nitrophenols and this is a nucleophilic
● Unlike nitration of benzene, nitration of alkanes does not
substitution reaction. occur easily, but occurs only with fuming HNO3 in vapour
● Artificial musks—Polynitro derivatives of benzene contain- phase at high temperature and pressure. Further, since HNO3
ing a tertiary butyl group, possess odour resembling musk is a strong oxidising agent, therefore, it also brings about
and are used in perfumery. rupture of C—C bonds giving a mixture of nitroalkanes.
CH3 CH3
● Since nitrobenzene and deutronitrobenzene undergo nitration
NO 2 NO 2 ( CH3) 3C NO 2 at the same rate, therefore, the second step involving
C (CH3)3 OCH3 cleavage of C—H bond is not a rate-determining step. In fact
the first step involving the attack of electrophile, NO 2+ ion on
NO 2 NO 2 benzene ring giving resonance stabilized carbocation is the
Toluene musk Musk ambrette rate-determining step of the reaction.
COCH3 ● Due to strong electron-withdrawing effect of two –NO 2 groups,
m -dinitrobenzene cannot be further nitrated to give 1, 3, 5
CH3 CH3
trinitrobenzene even if the mixture of fuming HNO 3 and
NO 2 NO 2 fuming H2SO4 is used.

C (C H3)3 ● A better method of preparing 1, 3, 5-trinitrobenzene is to

Musk ketone oxidise 2, 4, 6-trinitrotoluene and to decarboxylate the trinitro
benzoic acid with acetic acid solution.
● Phenyl nitromethane may be obtained by heating toluene with
dil. HNO3 in a sealed tube at 100°C.
CH3 COOH
C6H5CH3 + HNO3 ⎯→ C6H5 CH2NO2 + H2O
● Phenyl nitromethane behaves as true primary aliphatic nitro NO 2 NO 2 K Cr O NO 2 NO 2
compound; both the nitro and acinitro forms have been ⎯⎯⎯→
2 2 7

isolated.
Ph CH 2NO2 Ph CH = NO 2H NO 2 NO 2
Nitroform (liquid) Acinitroform (solid)
Acinitroform behaves as an acid and gives salt with alkali. NO 2 NO 2
● When nitrobenzene is reduced with Zn dust and aqueous – CO
⎯⎯⎯→
2
NH 4 Cl, phenyl hydroxylamine is formed. Phenylhydroxyl-
amine is used to prepare cupferron. NO 2

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Nitrobenzene can be prepared (B) Acid (A) The rate of nitration of ben-
from benzene by using a mixture (C) Reducing agent zene is almost the same at
of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4. that of hexaduetro benzene
In nitrating mixture HNO3 acts as (D) Catalyst
(B) The rate of nitration of
a/an— 2. Which one is the false state- toluene is greater than that
(A) Base ment ? of benzene

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 852

 (C) The rate of nitration of nitro- 8. The compound which is the most 15. Nitration of benzene with a mix-
benzene is greater than that reactive towards the electrophilic ture of conc. HNO3 and conc.
of pentadeutronitrobenzene nitration is— H2SO4 at 363 K gives—
(D) Nitration is an electrophilic (A) Benzene (A) Nitrobenzene
substitution reaction (B) Nitrobenzene (B) m-dinitrobenzene
3. The treatment of nitrobenzene (C) Benzoic acid (C) p-dinitrobenzene
with acetyl chloride in the (D) Aminobenzene (D) Sym-trinitrobenzene
presence of anhydrous AlCl 3
9. In nitrating mixture, conc. H 2SO4 16. For selective reduction of m-dini-
gives—
acts as— trobenzene to m-nitroaniline, the
(A) 2-nitroacetophenone
(A) A dehydrating agent reducing agent used is—
(B) 3-nitroacetophenone
(B) A sulphonating agent (A) Sn + HCl
(C) 4-nitroacetophenone
(C) A solvent (B) Alkaline solution of glucose
(D) None of these
(D) A proton donor (C) (NH4)2 S
4. The compound ‘A’ on treatment (D) NH4Cl(aq) + Zn
with HNO3 in presence of H2SO4 10. Which compound is not used as
gives a compound ‘B’ which an explosive ? 17. Aniline can be obtained by reduc-
is subsequently reduced with tion of nitrobenzene with—
(A) Trinitrobenzene
Sn/HCl to give aniline. The com- (A) Fe/HCl
(B) Trinitrotoluene
pound ‘A’ is— (B) SnCl 2/HCl
(A) Acetamide (B) Toluene (C) Trinitrophenol
(C) Electrolytic reduction under
(C) Benzene (D) Ethane (D) Nitrobenzene weakly acidic conditions
5. The reaction 11. The nitro (– NO 2) group attached (D) All of these
to a benzene ring is—
NO2 18. The reduction of nitrobenzene
(A) Ortho directing with LiAlH4 gives—
Δ (B) Para directing (A) Aniline
+ KOH (solid) ⎯→
(C) Meta directing (B) Phenyl hydroxylamine
NO2 (D) Activating (C) Nitrosobenzene
NO2
12. When nitrobenzene is reduced (D) Azobenzene
OH with zinc dust and aqueous 19. The nitration of benzene with
+
NH4Cl, the final product will be— conc. HNO 3 + conc. H 2SO4 at
(A) Aniline 333 K gives—
OH
(B) Benzene (A) 1, 3-dinitrobenzene
is an example of—
(C) Phenylhydroxylamine (B) Nitrobenzene
(A) Electrophilic substitution
(D) Azoxybenzene (C) 1, 3, 5-trinitrobenzene
reaction
13. When nitrobenzene is treated (D) Nitrosobenzene
(B) Nucleophilic substitution
reaction with aqueous NH4Cl solution in 20. Electrolytic reduction of nitroben-
(C) Free radical substitution presence of Zn, the product zene in strongly acidic solution
reaction obtained reduces Tollen’s rea- gives—
gent to form a silver mirror. This (A) Aniline
(D) Electrophilic addition reac-
makes a basis for Baker-Mulliken
tion (B) p-aminophenol
test for—
6. Which of the following com- (A) Hydroxy group (C) Phenyl hydroxylamine
pounds can tautomerise ? (B) Amino group (D) p-hydroxyaniline
(A) Nitrobenzene (C) Nitro group 21. Which of the following is the
(B) Phenylnitromethane (D) None of these strongest acid ?
(C) m-dinitrobenzene 14. In the reaction (A) m-nitrophenol
(D) Tertiary nitroalkane NO2 X (B) m-nitrobenzoic acid
7. In the nitration of benzene with (C) p-nitrobenzoic acid
Sn + HCl
conc. HNO3 + conc. H2 SO4, the ⎯⎯⎯→ (D) Benzoic acid
active species involved is known 22. Which reaction takes place when
as— ‘X’ is— a mixture of conc. HNO 3 and
(A) Nitrite ion (A) – Cl group H2SO4 reacts with benzene at
(B) Nitrate ion (B) – NH2 group about 323 K ?
(C) Nitrosonium ion (C) – NH3+ Cl– (A) Dehydration
(D) None of these (D) – SnCl2 group (B) Sulphonation

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 853

 (C) Nitration (B) Chlorobenzene 36. The correct order of reactivity
(D) None of these (C) Nitrobenzene towards an electrophile among
following compounds
23. Which of the following will be the (D) None of these
most reactive towards the nitra- OCH3 NO2
30. The nucleophilic substitution
tion ? reaction is the most easier reac-
(A) Benzene tion in—
(B) Nitrobenzene (A) Benzene (1) (2) (3)
(C) Toluene (B) Toluene is as—
(D) Chlorobenzene (C) Nitrobenzene
(A) 2 > 3 > 1 (B) 3 > 1 > 2
24. The strongest acid among the (D) Chlorobenzene
(C) 1 > 2 > 3 (D) 1 = 2 > 3
following aromatic compounds
31. Nitrobenzene generally finds
is— 37. The major product of nitration of
application in preparation of—
(A) Orthonitrophenol benzoic acid will be—
(A) Aniline
(B) Paranitrophenol (A) 2, 4-dinitrobenzoic acid
(B) Floor polishes (B) 2-nitrobenzoic acid
(C) Metanitrophenol
(C) Shoe polishes (C) 4-nitrobenzoic acid
(D) Parachlorophenol
(D) All of these (D) 3-nitrobenzoic acid
25. When benzene is treated with
conc. HNO3 at room tempera- 32. Which of the following com- 38. Among the following compounds
ture, what will happen ? pounds is the most steam vola-
OH OH
(A) Benzene will be oxidised to tile ?
CO2 and H 2O (A) Paranitrophenol
, ,
(B) Dinitrobenzene will be obtai- (B) Orthonitrophenol
ned (C) Metanitrophenol
(C) Solution will become dark CH3
(D) Phenol
red (I) (II)
(D) None of the above is correct 33. The major product of reaction
OH OH
between m -dinitrobenzene and
26. In the reaction sequence (NH4)2S is—
Zn‚ distillation
Phenol ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ X NH2
,
conc. HNO3 + H2SO 4 Zn
NO2
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Y ⎯⎯→ Z
NaOH NO2
(A)
The products X, Y and Z are; NH2 (III) (IV)
respectively—
NH2 which are the most and the least
(A) Benzene, nitrobenzene and
acidic respectively ?
hydrazobenzene
(B) Toluene, m-nitrobenzene (B) (A) II and IV (B) IV and II
NO2 (C) I and II (D) III and IV
and toluidine
(C) Benzene, dinitrobenzene NH2 39. Which reaction cannot be given
and m-nitroaniline by aromatic nitro compounds ?
(D) Benzene, nitrobenzene and (C)
NO2 (A) Reduction
aniline HS
(B) Electrophilic substitution
27. Benzene on reacting with a mix- NH2
ture of conc. HNO 3 and H2 SO4 (C) Nucleophilic substitution
followed by addition of Cl2/FeCl3 (D) (D) Friedel-Crafts reaction
in the reaction mixture, gives— HS NH2
40. In the reaction sequence
(A) 3-chloro-1-nitrobenzene H /Pt
34. Which of the following reagents Nitrobenzene ⎯⎯→
2
A
(B) 2-chloro-1-nitrobenzene
converts nitrobenzene into N- CH 3COCl HNO3
(C) 4-chloro-1-nitrobenzene phenyl hydroxylamine ? ⎯⎯⎯→ B ⎯⎯→ C
(D) Both (B) and (C) +
H /H2O HBF4
(A) LiAlH4 (B) SnCl 2/HCl ⎯⎯→ D ⎯⎯→ E
28. Which of the following is the NaNO2
(C) Zn/NH4Cl (D) Zn/NaOH
NaNO2
most powerful meta directing ⎯⎯⎯→ F
group ? 35. Nitrobenzene combines with Cu
(A) – COOH (B) – SO 3H hydrogen in presence of platinum
the product F is—
(C) – CHO (D) – NO2 to give—
(A) Azobenzene (A) m-dinitrobenzene
29. The most suitable starting mate- (B) Para dinitrobenzene
rial for preparation of m -chloro- (B) Benzene
nitrobenzene is— (C) Aminobenzene (C) Ortho dinitrobenzene
(A) Benzene (D) Phenyl hydroxylamine (D) Both (B) and (C)

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 854

41. The oil of mirabane is common 47. Which of the following com- (Continued from Page 848 )
name of— pounds will have the highest 62. Which of the following com-
(A) Methyl salicylate dipole moment ? pounds is not coloured ?
(B) Nitrobenzene (A) Na 2 [Cd Cl4]
(A) NO2
(C) Phenyl nitromethane (B) Na 2 [CuCl4]
(D) m-dinitrobenzene NO2 (C) K3 [Fe (CN)6]
42. In the reaction sequence (D) K4 [Fe(CN)6]
conc. HNO (B) OH
C6H6 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
3
A 63. The number of unpaired d-elec-
conc. H2SO 4‚ 363 K trons in [Cr (H2O)6] 3+ ion is—
(NH4) 2 S
⎯⎯⎯→ B NO2 (A) 2 (B) 3
A and B are respectively— (C) 4 (D) Zero
(C) OH
(A) Nitrobenzene and aniline 64. The ionic radius of chromium will
(B) m-dinitrobenzene and be smallest in—
(D) NO2 OH (A) CrCl2 (B) CrCl3
m-phenylene diamine
(C) m-dinitrobenzene and (C) CrO2 (D) K2CrO4
m-nitroaniline 48. Which of the following reducing
65. Which forms interstitial com-
agents produces nitrosobenzene
(D) p-dinitrobenzene and pounds ?
as a final product on reacting
p-nitroaniline (A) Fe (B) Co
with nitrobenzene ?
43. Hydrazobenzene is formed when (A) Metal and acid (C) Ni (D) All of these
nitrobenzene is reduced with—
(B) Zn/NH4Cl(aq) ANSWERS
(A) Zn/HCl
(C) Na 3AsO 3/NaOH
(B) Zn/NaOH–CH3OH
(D) None of these
(C) Zn/NaOH
(D) Zn/NH4Cl 49. Which of the following products
is formed when nitrobenzene is
44. During the reduction of nitroben- reduced with Zn in the presence
zene, which one of the following of alcoholic caustic potash ?
may be an intermediate pro-
(A) NH2—NH2
duct ?
(A) C6H5NH–NHC6H5 (B) C6H5 NH—NHC6H5
(B) C6H5N — — N–C6H5 (C) NH2OH
(C) C6H5 N —
—O (D) C6H5 —N —
— N—C6H5
O 50. Primary aliphatic nitro com-
↑
pounds on reacting with nitrous
(D) C6H5 N —
— N—C6H5
acid give nitrolic acids and nitro-
45. In the reaction sequence, benzene under similar conditions
Zn/HCl gives—
C6H5NO2 ⎯⎯→ A ●●●
NaNO2/HCl
H2O/H3PO 2
(A) Phenol
⎯⎯⎯⎯→ B ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ C (B) m-dinitrobenzene Just
product C is— Released
(C) p-dinitrobenzene
(A) Benzoic acid (D) None of these
(B) Benzene
(C) Phenol ANSWERS
(D) Chlorobenzene
46. In the following sequence of
reactions
Sn/HCl By : Dr. Vijay Agarwal
C6H5NO2 ⎯⎯⎯→ A
Translated by : Nidhi Sahni
C H COCl
⎯⎯⎯⎯→
6 5
B + HCl Code No. 1647 Price : Rs. 90/-
the product B is— HINDI EDITION
(A) Azobenzene
Code No. 215 Rs. 110/-
(B) Hydrazobenzene
(C) Benzanilide
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
● E-mail : publisher@upkar.in ● Website : www.upkar.in
(D) Acetanilide ●●●

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 855

 15. 4·5 mole each of H2 and I 2 are
heated in a sealed ten litre
vessel. At equilibrium 3 mole of
HI were found. The equilibrium
constant for
H2 + I 2 2HI
1. The radius of the nucleus is 8. A mixture of camphor and ben- is—
related to the mass number A zoic acid can be easily separated (A) 1 (B) 10
by— by— (C) 5 (D) 0·33
(A) R = R0A1/2 (B) R = R0A (A) Sublimation
16. Ethyl bromide can be converted
(C) R = R0A2 (D) R = R0A1/3 (B) Extraction with solvent into ethyl alcohol by—
where R0 = 10–13 cm. (C) Fractional crystallisation (A) Heating with dil. hydrochloric
2. The correct ground state confi- (D) Chemical method acid and Zn
guration of chromium atom 9. Silver chloride dissolves in (B) Boiling with an alcoholic
(At. No. = 24) is— excess of NH4OH. The cation solution of KOH
(A) [Ar] 3 d 5 4 s 1 present in this solution is— (C) The action of moist silver
(A) Ag+ oxide
(B) [Ar] 3 d 4 4 s 2
(D) Refluxing methanol
(C) [Ar] 3 d 6 4 s 0 (B) [Ag(NH3)2] +
(C) [Ag(NH3)4] + 17. Mortar is a mixture of—
(D) [Ar] 4 d 5 4 s 1
(D) [Ag(NH3)6] + (A) Plaster of paris + Silica
3. Which of the following species (B) Slaked lime +
has the highest ionisation 10. The IUPAC name for Plaster of paris + H2O
energy ? OHC—CH2—COOH—
(C) CaCO3 + Silica + H 2O
(A) Li+ (B) Mg+ (A) Prop-1-al-3-oic acid
+
(D) Slaked lime + Silica + H2O
(C) Al (D) Ne (B) Prop-3-al-1-oic acid
14 18. Chlorination of toluene in pre-
4. The C in upper atmosphere is (C) 2-formylethanoic acid
6 sence of light and heat followed
generated by true nuclear reac- (D) 2-carboxy ethanal by treatment with aqueous NaOH
tion— gives—
11. Be2+ is isoelectronic with—
14
(A) N + 11H → 146C + 0
e + 11H (A) o-cresol
7 +1 (A) Mg2+ (B) Na +
14 (C) Li+ (D) H+ (B) p-cresol
(B) 7
N → 146C + 0
+1
e
(C) 2, 4-dihydroxytoluene
14 12. Resonance structure of molecule
(C) N + 10n → 146C + 11H (D) Benzoic acid
7 does not have—
(D) 14
N + 11H → 116C + 42He (A) Identical arrangement of 19. The number of moles of AgCl
7
atoms precipitated when excess of
5. As per the modern periodic law (B) Nearly the same energy con- AgNO 3 is added to one mole of
the physical and chemical pro- tent [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl is—
perties of elements are periodic (C) Same number of paired (A) Zero (B) 1·0
function of their— electrons (C) 2·0 (D) 3·0
(A) Atomic volume (D) Identical bonding 20. 23 g of Na will react with methyl
(B) Electronic configuration 13. The cell reaction of a cell is alcohol to give—
Mg(s) + Cu2+(aq) → (A) One mole of oxygen
(C) Atomic weight
(B) One mole of hydrogen
(D) Atomic size Cu (s) + Mg2+(aq)
1
If the standard reduction poten- (C) mole of hydrogen
6. How many kinds of space lattices 2
are possible in a crystal ? tials of Mg and Cu are – 2·37 and (D) None of these
+ 0·34 V respectively. The EMF
(A) 23 (B) 7 of the cell is— 21. A mixture contains four solid
(C) 30 (D) 14 organic compounds A, B, C and
(A) + 2·03 V (B) – 2·03 V D. On heating only C changes
7. The pH of a solution is increased (C) + 2·71 V (D) – 2·71 V from solid to vapour state. C can
from 3 to 6. Its H + ion concentra- be separated from rest in the
tion will be— 14. A mixture of ethyl iodide and n-
mixture by—
propyl iodide is subjected to
(A) Reduced to half Wurtz reaction. The hydrocarbon (A) Distillation
(B) Doubled that will not be formed is— (B) Sublimation
(C) Reduced by 1000 times (A) n-butane (B) n-propane (C) Fractional distillation
(D) Increased by 1000 times (C) n-pentane (D) n-hexane (D) Crystallisation

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 856

22. The compound which gives silver 31. C2H5CHO and (CH3)2CO can be 38. What quantity of ammonium sul-
mirror with Tollen’s reagent is— distinguished by testing with— phate is necessary for the produc-
(A) Glucose (A) Phenyl hydrazine tion of ammonia gas sufficient to
(B) Acetaldehyde (B) Hydroxylamine neutralise a solution containing
292 g of HCl—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Fehling solution
[(NH4)2SO4 = 132·0, HCl = 36·5,
(D) None of these (D) Sodium bisulphite
NH3 = 17]
23. The homologue of ethyne is— 32. Which of the following reactions
(A) 272 g (B) 408 g
(A) C2H4 (B) C2H6 depicts the oxidising behaviour of
H2O2 ? (C) 528 g (D) 1056 g
(C) C3H8 (D) C3H6
(A) 2 MnO4– + 6 H+ + 5 H2O2 → 39. The ability of an ion to bring
24. Under Wolf-Kishner reduction
2 Mn2 + + 8 H2O + 5 O2 about coagulation of a given
conditions, the conversion which
colloid depends upon—
may be brought about is— (B) O3 + H2O2 → 2 O2 + H2O
(A) Benzaldehyde into benzyl (A) Its size
(C) 2 Fe2 + + 2H+ + H2O2 →
alcohol (B) Sign of its charge alone
2 Fe3 + + 2 H2O
(B) Cyclohexanol into cyclohexa- (C) Magnitude of its charge
none (D) Ag2O + H2O2 →
(D) Both magnitude and sign of
(C) Cyclohexanone into cyclo- 2 Ag + H2O + O2 its charge
hexanol
33. Silica is soluble in— 40. Solubility of salt M2X3 is x g mole
(D) Benzophenone into diphenyl
(A) HCl (B) HNO3 litre– 1. The solubility product of
methane
(C) H2SO4 (D) HF the salt will be—
25. By which of the following reac-
tions can one get N-methyl aniline 34. Nitrogen is produced by heat- (A) x 2 (B) 16 x 2
from aniline ? ing— (C) 96 x 5 (D) 108 x 5
(A) Alkylation (A) HNO3
41. The compound obtained by hea-
(B) Acetylation (B) NH4Cl
ting a mixture of a primary amine
(C) Benzoylation (C) NH4NO3 and chloroform with ethanoic
(D) Bromination (D) NH4Cl + NaNO2 potassium hydroxide (KOH) is—
26. Which of the following pairs has 35. The IUPAC name of : (A) An alkyl isocyanide
both members from the same CH3—C — — C—– CH—CH2—C —
—
— CH (B) An alkyl halide
period of the periodic table ? | | |
(C) An amide
(A) Na – Ca (B) Na – Cl Cl CH3 C2H5
(C) Ca – Cl (D) Cl – Br (D) An amide and nitro com-
is—
pound
27. When an alkyl halide reacts with (A) 6-chloro-4-ethyl-5-methyl-
an alkoxide the product is— hept-5en-1-yne 42. In a reaction A → B, the rate of
(A) Hydrocarbon reaction, increases two times, on
(B) 6-chloro-4-ethyl-5-methyl-
(B) Unsaturated hydrocarbon increasing the concentration of
hept-1-yn-5-ene reactants four times. The order of
(C) Ether
(D) Alcohol (C) 2-chloro-4-ethyl-3-methyl- the reaction is—
28. If the ionisation potential for hept-2-en-6-yne (A) 0 (B) 1/2
hydrogen atom is 13·6 eV then (D) 2-chloro-4-ethyl-3-methyl- (C) 2 (D) 4
the ionisation potential for He+ hept-6-yn-2-ene 43. The function of enzymes in the
ion should be—
36. The average K. E. of an ideal gas living system is to—
(A) 27·2 eV (B) 54·4 eV
per molecule in SI unit at 25°C (A) Transport oxygen
(C) 6·8 eV (D) 13·6 eV
will be— (B) Provide immunity
29. Acetaldehyde when treated with
dilute NaOH gives— (A) 61·7 × 10– 21 J (C) Catalyse biochemical reac-
tions
(A) CH3CH2OH (B) 6·17 × 10– 21 J
(B) CH3COOH (D) Provide energy
(C) 6·17 × 10– 20 J
(C) CH3CH —CH2—CHO 44. Heat of neutralisation of strong
| (D) 7·16 × 10– 20 J acid and strong base is constant
OH
37. Gammexane is— and is equal to—
(D) H3C—CH3
(A) DDT (A) 13·7 k cal
30. In aqueous solution H2 will not
reduce— (B) Benzene hexachloride (B) 57 kJ
(A) Fe 3 + (B) Cu 2 + (C) Chloral (C) 5·7 × 104 J
(C) Ag+ (D) Zn 2 + (D) Hexachloro ethane (D) All of the above

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 857

45. 92 U + 0n1 ⎯→ Fission pro-
235 47. Which one of the following is 49. Number of water molecules in
ducts + Neutron + 3·20 × 10–11 J. used to make ‘non stick’ cook- Mohr’s salt is—
The energy released, when 1 ware ? (A) 7 (B) 6
gram of 92U235 finally undergoes (A) PVC
(C) 5 (D) 8
fission is— (B) Polystyrene
(A) 12·75 × 108 kJ (C) Polyethylene lerephthalate 50. In the titration between oxalic
(B) 18·60 × 109 kJ (D) Polytetrafluoroethene acid and acidified potassium per-
(C) 8·21 × 105 kJ manganate, the manganous salt
48. If 0·01 M solution of an electro-
formed catalyse the reaction.
(D) 6·55 × 106 kJ lyte has a resistance of 40 ohm
in a cell having a cell constant of This manganous salt is—
46. The number of electrons required
to deposite 1 gram atom of Al (At. 0·4 cm – 1 then its molar conduc- (A) A promotor
wt. = 27) from a solution of AlCl 3 tance in ohm– 1 cm2 mole– 1 will (B) A positive catalyst
will be— be—
(A) 104 (B) 103 (C) An autocatalyst
(A) 1N (B) 2N
(C) 10 2 (D) 10 (D) None of the above
(C) 3N (D) 4N

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 858

 14. The first emission line of hydro-
gen atomic spectrum in the
Balmer series appears is—
(R = Rydberg constant)
5 3
(A) R cm–1 (B) R cm–1
36 4
1. In a radioactive decay— 8. Liquid benzene burns in oxygen 7 9
(C) R cm–1 (D) R cm–1
(A) α then β and then γ emitted according to 144 400
(B) α or β and then γ emitted 2C 6H6 (l) + 15O2 (g) → 15. Which property cannot be
(C) α and β and γ emitted explained by wave theory of light/
12CO 2 (g) + 6H2O(g)
radiation ?
simultaneously
How many litres of oxygen are (A) Diffraction
(D) α and β emitted simul-
required to complete combustion (B) Interference
taneously
of 39 g of liquid benzene ? (C) Polarisation
2. 10·6 grams of a substance of (D) Photoelectric effect
molecular weight 106 was dissol- (A) 11·2 (B) 22·4
ved in 100 ml. 10 ml of this 16. A gas decolourises bromine in
(C) 42 (D) 84
solution was pipetted out into a CCl4 and forms a precipitate with
1000 ml flask and made upto the PV ammoniacal silver nitrate. The
9. What is the value of for 1
mark with distilled water. The T gas is—
molarity of resulting solution is— mole of gas ? (A) C2H2 (B) C2H4
(A) 1·0 M (B) 10–2 M (A) 4·2 × 107 cal/K (C) C2H6 (D) CH4
(C) 10–3 M (D) 10–4 M (B) 4·2 cal/K 17. The pH of a solution of concen-
3. Equation for a real gas is tration few less than 1N NaOH—
(C) 8·31 cal/K
(A) Between 13 and 14
( a
)
P + 2 (V – b) = RT
V
(D) 2 cal/K (B) Between 12 and 13
P-pressure, V-volume, a, b and 10. Reaction of benzene with alkyl (C) Between 0 and 1
R-constants dimensional formula halide in the presence of AlCl3 is (D) Between 1 and 2
of a is— called— 18. The element which can displace
(A) L6 (B) M1L–1T–2 (A) Friedel-Crafts reaction three other halogens from their
1
(C) M L T5 –2 (D) L3 compounds is—
(B) Wurtz reaction
(A) Cl (B) F
4. One mole of argon gas will have (C) Williamson’s synthesis
least density at— (C) Br (D) I
(A) S.T.P. (D) Bayer’s reaction 19. The geometry of the hybrid
(B) 0°C, 2 atm 11. Experimental verification of orbital, which contains 20% s -
matter waves was done by— character is—
(C) 273°C, 2 atm
(A) Octahedral
(D) 273°C, 1 atm (A) de Broglie
(B) Tetrahedral
5. Which quantity remains constant (B) Rutherford (C) Trigonal bipyramidal
in adiabatic process ? (C) Bohr (D) Square planar
(A) Work (D) Davisson and Germer 20. Cassiterite is concentrated by—
(B) Heat (A) Levigation
12. The effective atomic number of
(C) Temperature (B) Electromagnetic separation
Cr in [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is—
(D) All of these (C) Floatation
(A) 35 (B) 36 (D) Liquefaction
6. How many litres of CO 2 at STP
will be formed when 100 ml (C) 27 (D) 33 21. In the reaction of CH2 = CH 2 and
0·1 M H2SO4 reacts with excess 13. For the reaction : HBr initial addition occurs of—
of Na 2CO3 ? 2 (A) Indefinite
1 H + 21 H → 24 He + B + Energy
(A) 22·4 litre (B) 2·24 litre (B) H+ + Br– both at one time
(C) 0·224 litre (D) 5·6 litre What is the required condition ? (C) H+
(A) High temperature and (D) Br–
7. If the number of molecules of
hydrogen is double to that of pressure 22. Which one of the following reac-
oxygen, at the same temperature (B) High temperature and low tions is an example for calcina-
the ratio of their average K.E. pressure tion process ?
per molecule is— (C) Low temperature and high (A) 2Ag + 2HCl + (O) →
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 3 pressure 2AgCl + H2O
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 4 (D) High temperature only (B) 2Zn + O2 → 2ZnO

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 861

 (C) 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2 31. How much volume of 0·4M NaOH 39. 5SO32– + 2MnO4– + 6H+
(D) MgCO3 → MgO + CO2 is required to neutralise comp- → 5SO42– + 2Mn2+ + 2H2O.
letely 200 ml 0·5 M H 2SO4
23. 0·1M CH 3COOH is 1·3% ionised. The oxidation number of Mn
solution ?
The dissociation constant of it changes from—
(A) 600 ml (B) 300 ml (A) + 14 to + 4 (B) + 6 to + 2
will be—
(C) 500 ml (D) 200 ml (C) – 7 to – 2 (D) + 7 to + 2
(A) 1·69 × 10–5
32. Among the following compound 40. In a reaction
(B) 1·69 × 10–6 which have more than one type Hypochlorous
— 2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
CH2—CH M
(C) 1·69 × 10–4 of hybridisation for carbon acid
(D) None of these atom ? R CH2OH
(i) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH3 ⎯→ |
24. In Wurtz reaction the reagent CH2OH
(ii) H3C—CH — — CH—CH3
used is— M = Molecule, R = Reagent
(A) Na —
(iii) H2C — CH—C —— CH
— M and R are—
(B) Na/liq. NH3 (iv) H—C — — C—H
— (A) CH3CH2Cl and NaOH
(C) Na/dry ether (A) (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) (B) CH2Cl—CH2OH and aq.
(D) Na/dry alcohol (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (iv) NaHCO3
(C) CH3CH2OH and HCl
25. When ethanamide is heated with 33. One compound reacts with
NaOH and Br 2 the compound chloroform in presence of KOH (D) CH2— CH2 and heat
formed is— and produces a bad smell O
(A) CH3CONH2 (B) C2H5NC (nauseating odour) compound. 41. Formic acid and acetic acid may
(C) CH3CH2NH2 (D) CH3NH2 The compound formed is— be distinguished by the reaction
(A) CH3CH2NH2 (B) C6H5CN with—
26. Compound A reacts with PCl5 to
(C) CH3CH2NC (D) C2H5CN (A) Sodium
get B which on treatment with (B) 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine
KCN followed by hydrolysis gave 34. The IUPAC name of K3[Fe(CN)6]
(C) Litmus paper
propionic acid. What are A and B (A) Potassium ferrocyanide(II) (D) Tollen’s reagent
respectively ? (B) Potassium hexaferrocyanate 42. Which of the following is redox
(A) C3H8 and C 3H7Cl (III) reaction ?
(B) C2H6 and C 2H5Cl (C) Potassium ferrohexacyanate (A) H2SO4 with NaOH
(C) C2H5Cl and C2H5Cl2 (II) (B) In atmosphere, O3 from O2
(D) C2H5OH and C2H5Cl (D) Potassium hexacyanoferrate by lightning
(III) (C) Nitrogen oxides from nitro-
27. Brass in an alloy of—
gen and oxygen by lightning
(A) Cu + Zn + Fe 35. A + NaOH → CH3OH + HCOONa (D) Evaporation of water
(B) Cu + Zn + Ni in the reaction compound A is—
43. The number of coordinate bond
(C) Cu + Zn + Sn (A) HCN (B) HCHO in a molecule of H2SO4—
(D) Cu + Zn (C) CH3CN (D) CH3Cl (A) 4 (B) 3
28. The reagent used for converting 36. The product D of the reaction (C) 2 (D) 1
ethanoic acid to ethanol is— KCN H 2O 44. Which of the following 0·1 m
(A) LiAlH4 (B) BH 3 CH3Cl ⎯→ (A) ⎯→ (B) aqueous solutions will have the
(C) PCl3 (D) K2Cr2O7/H+ NH 3 Δ lowest f.p. ?
⎯→ (C) → (D) (A) Al2(SO4)3 (B) C5H10O5
29. The rate constant of forward
is— (C) KI (D) C12H22O11
reaction is 2·38 × 10– 4 and the
(A) CH3CH2NH2 (B) CH3CN 45. Carnallite is—
rate constant of backward
(C) HCONH2 (D) CH3CONH2 (A) KCl
reaction is 4·76 × 10 –5. The
37. Metal which does not react with (B) Li Al(SiO3)2
equilibrium constant for the reac-
tion will be— aqueous solution of copper (C) MgCl2·6H2O
sulphate is— (D) KCl·MgCl2·6H2O
(A) 5 (B) 5 × 10–2
(A) Pb (B) Ag 46. The lanthanide contraction is res-
(C) 2 × 10–4 (D) None of these ponsible for the fact that—
(C) Zn (D) Fe
30. If the equilibrium constant for the (A) Zr and Y have about the
reaction 2AB A2 + B2 is 49. 38. Who developed long form of same radius
periodic table ? (B) Zr and Nb have similar
What is the value of equilibrium oxidation state
1 1 (A) Lothar Mayer
constant for AB A + B ? (C) Zr and Hf have about the
2 2 2 2 (B) Niels Bohr same radius
(A) 49 (B) 2401 (C) Mendeleef (D) Zr and Zn have the same
(C) 7 (D) 0·02 (D) Moseley oxidation state

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 862

47. Which of the following halides is 48. Philosopher’s wool when heated (A) ZnSO 4 (B) CuSO 4
least stable and has doubtful with BaO at 1100°C gives a com- (C) NiSO4 (D) FeSO 4
existence ? pound. Identify the compound—
50. The poisonous gas that comes
(A) CI4 (A) BaZnO 2 (B) Ba + ZnO2
out with petrol burning in a car
(B) SnI4 (C) BaCdO 2 (D) BaO2 + Zn is—
(C) GeI4 49. Iodine is liberated from KI (A) CH4 (B) C2H6
(D) PbI4 solution when treated with— (C) CO2 (D) CO

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 863

Introduction ● On either side of the foramen magnum are two small
● The adult human skeleton consists of 206 bones linked bony projections that rests on the first vertebra (atlas)
and support the entire skull while permiting a nodding
in a specific order. Many of these bones are joined in
motion of head. These projections are called occipital
ways that permit movement.
condyles.
● The growth of skeletons begins during early develop-
● The articulation of atlas vertebra with occipital con-
ment and continue until about age of 20 years.
dyles forms a hinge joint.
● Like all other organ systems of body, bones undergo
alterations during the entire life span, from infancy to Facial Bones
old age.
● The facial bones make up the front of the skull and lies
● The various parts of the skeleton are so articulated
under the anterier part of the cranium. It is composed
that they can absorb the tremendous shocks gene-
of 14 bones. These include nasals (2), maxillae (2),
rated in locomotion.
palatines (2), zygomatic or cheek bones (2), lacrymals
Skeletal System (2), inferior nasal conchae (2), vomer (1) and mandible
● Human skeleton can be divided into two parts : the (1).
Axial skeleton and the Appendicular skeleton. Cranial bones
Suture
Axial Skeleton Frontal
bone
● Axial skeleton occupies the longitudinal central axis of
Parietal
the body and includes–skull, vertebral column, ster- bone
Facial bones
num and ribs. Sphenoid
bone
Skull Nasal
Occipital bone
bone
● Skull is present in the head. It consists of two main Zygomatic
Temporal bone
regions–Cranium and Face. bone Maxilla
Opening to
Cranium ear canal Mandible

● Cranium is large, hollow, rounded part of the skull. Its

cavity is termed cranial cavity. It encloses the brain,
hence called brain box.
● The cranium is formed of 8–flattened bones. These
include frontal (1), parietals (2), occipetal (1), tempo-
rals (2), sphenoid (1) and ethmoid (1).
● The cranial bones fit together by wavy and immovable
boundaries called sutures. The sutures help dissipate
the shock of blow to the head.
● The frontal bone forms the entire front portion of the
skull, including the forehead. Just posterior to this are
two parietal bones that constitute the upper left and
right sides of the skull.
● Below the parietals are two temporal bones that form
the lower left and right sides of the skull. Each tempo-
ral bone has an external opening leading into the ear
canal through which sound waves pass on their way to
eardrum.
● Attached to the frontal, parietal and temporal bones, is
the sphenoid bone. This sphenoid is centrally located
within the skull and helps connect many of the cranial
and facial bones.
● The occipital bone forms the back and base of the
skull, and its lower portion has a large opening, the
foramen magnum. Through this opening, the spinal
cord enters the skull and connects with the brain.
● The two maxillae bone are situated on either side of
the nose and help to form the orbits of the eyes and
the upper part of the mouth. They also contain the
sockets that secure the upper teeth.
● The hard palate is formed by the two palatine bones.
● Between the maxillary bones, at the level of eyes, are
the two short narrow nasal bones. These bones form
only the upper bridge of the nose. The maxillae bones
and the nasal bones partially define a space called the
nasal cavity.
● One of the defining features of face is provided by the
two zygomatic bones. These bones join with narrow
projections from the two temporal bones, and together
they provide the bony structure that makes up the
cheeks.
● Another defining feature of the face is provided by the
lower jaw and mandible.
● Mandible is a single U-shaped bone, hinged with the
temporal bone of the cranium and contains sockets for
the lower teeth.
Sinuses and Spaces
● Several of the cranial and facial bones have air spaces
within them. These spaces are called sinuses. Each

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 866

 sinus is lined with a mucus-secreting epithelium and is
connected to the nasal cavity by small tubes through
which mucus normally drains.
● During a sinus infection, the inflammed epithelium
swells, thus preventing the tube from draining properly.
A sinus headache results from pressure caused by
fluid accumulation in the sinuses.
Axial Skeleton
● Vertebral column is also called backbone. It is cur-
ved, vertical rod the mid-dorsal line of the neck and
trunk.
● Vertebral column consists of 26 vertebrae in adults (33
in infants), while in sacral region 5 vertebrae fuse
together to form a sacrum and in caudal region 4
vertebral fuse together to form a coccyx.
● A single spinal bone is called vertebra. This series of
interacting bones extend from the skull to the pelvis.
● Together these bones have three major functions :
1. Provide flexible support for the head and trunk.
2. Protect the delicate spinal cord.
3. Permit the passage of spinal nerves to and from
the spinal cord.
thoracic vertebra here.
Cervical vertebrae (7)
Thoracic vertebrae (12)
Lumbar vertebrae (5)
Sacrum
(5 fused vertebrae)
Coccyx
(4 fused vertebrae)
Fig. : The vertebral column and features of an individual vertebra.
● The vertebral column is not straight, but is instead
curved. The curvatures are due to the different struc-
ture of each vertebra and the support given by the
attached ligaments and muscles.
● Together these structures give the entire column
strength and flexibility. This is an example of the inte-
grated functioning of the skeletal and muscular
system.
● Structurally the vertebral column can be divided into
the following five regions :
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 867
1. Cervical vertebrae—There are 7 cervical verte-
brae and are present in neck region. The first
cervical vertebra is called atlas. It is almost ring-
like and provides up an down or nodding move-
ment to the skull on it.
The second cervical vertebra is termed axis and its
centrum bears an odontoid process. The cervical
vertebrae allow widest range of motion to head to
turn in many directions. These have apertures,
called foramina transversaria in their transverse
processes.
These foramina form a channel for the vertebral
artery to pass through the brain.
2. Thoracic vertebrae—These are 12 in number and
are present in the upper back region. They are
modified to provide articulation to the ribs at special
facets on the centrum.
3. Lumbar vertebrae—These are 5 in number and
are located in the abdominal region. They have
large neural spine and transverse processes.
4. Sacral vertebrae—These are 5 in number and are
placed in pelvis. They fuse in childhood to form a
single bone, sacrum in adults.
Process can be seen and felt as one of a
series of bumps along the middle of the back.
Ribs attach to
Canal contains and
protects spinal cord.
Intervertebral disk made of
cartilage absorbs shocks and
permits limited movement.
Body of vertebra
Notch through which spinal
nerves pass to and from
the spinal cord.
Spinal cord in vertebral canal
5. Coccygeal vertebrae—These are four in number
and occur in the vestigial tail. They are very small,
rudimentary and fused to form a curved triangular
bone, the coccyx or tail bone.
Curvature
● A notable feature in the vertebral column of human
beings is the formation of four curves : cervical,
thoracic, lumbar and sacral.
● The cervical and lumbar curves are directed forward;
thoracic and sacral curves backward. Because of
 Spinal cord
Intervertebral
disk
Spinal nerve Ruptured material
pressing against
spinal cord and
nerve

Vertebrae

Normal disk Slipped disk

Fig. : A slipped disk pressing against the spinal cord and spinal nerve.

these curves, the centre of gravity of body is near the Clavicle

heels. This helps to maintain balance and makes walk-
ing erect on two legs much easier.
● Although the vertebrae from different regions of the Pectoral girdle
column differ from one another, they all share two
Head of humerus Scapula
features :
1. A bony canal for the spinal cord.
2. A notch on each side that forms an opening which
permits nerves to pass through the vertebral
column to and from the spinal cord.
Humerus
● Adjacent vertebrae are separated from each other by a
pad of fibrocartilage known as intervertebral disks.
These disks act as cushions, protecting the vertebrae
from the shocks associated with activities such as
walking, running and jumping.
● A common cause of severe back pain occurs when an
intervertebral disk ruptures and presses against the
spinal cord or against nerves that enter and leave the
Ulna
spinal cord through the notch in the vertebra. This
condition is referred to as slipped disk.
Radius
Ribs
● The ribs are curved bars, which movably articulate with
the thoracic vertebrae at the back and unite with the
sternum in front, forming a protective cage for some
internal organs. The interior of this cage is called Carpals (8)
thoracic cavity, and houses heart and lungs. Metacarpals
● There are 12 pairs of ribs. The upper 7 pairs of ribs are
attached in front directly to the sternum. These are
called true ribs. Phalanges (14)
● The next three pairs of ribs are joined to the sternum
above each other, and termed false ribs.
● The lower two pairs of ribs are free in front (not joined Fig. : Anterior view of the right pectoral girdle and arm
with sternum) and are called floating ribs. and hand bones.

Sternum (Breast Bone)
● The sternum is a long narrow, flat vertical bone in the
middle of the front wall of the chest. It is shaped like a
dagger with a handle called manubrium, a blade ter-
med body, and a tip known as Xiphoid process. True
ribs are attached to its sides.
● Clavicles articulate with its upper end.
Appendicular Skeleton
● The appendicular skeleton is the second division of the
human skeleton. It includes two supportive frames
called pectoral and pelvic girdles on each side and
their attached arms and legs. Each girdle is a suppor-
tive bony structure.
Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle
● The pectoral girdle forms the bony portion of each
shoulder and consists of right and left scapulas and
clavicles.
● The scapula is a large, flat, triangular bone placed at
the back of the shoulder. It has a shallow concavity

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 868

 (glenoid cavity) at its lateral angle, for the articulation Vertebra
of the head of humerus.
● The clavicle is also known as the collar bone. It is
Coxal bone
curved bone that joins with scapula and acts as a
brace helping to hold the scapula in position.
● Pectoral girdle is actually stabilized and secured to the Sacrum
rib cage by a group of muscles. This arrangement Coccyx
allows a considerable range of movements in the
entire upper appendicular skeleton. Pubic
symphysis :
Arm Bones a disk of
cartilage joining
● The uppermost bone of the arm is called humerus. Its the coxal bones
upper end fits into the socket on the scapula. This
attachment (joint) is stabilized by muscles and tendons
provides a wide range of movement. Femur
● The lower part of the humerus joins with two bones of
the lower arm, ulna and radius, forming elbow.
● The lower end of the ulna and radius is attached to a
group of bones called carpal bones that form the
wrist.
● The palm of the hand contains the metacarpal bones.
The fingers or phalanges consist of bones that join
with the metacarpal bones.
Patella
● In the hand, there are 8 carpels in the wrist, 5 meta-
carpals in the palm and 14 phalanges in the fingers.

Pelvic Girdle Tibia

● The pelvic girdle consists of two large bones called the
Coxal bones, commonly known as the hipbone.
● Linked together by cartilage in the front (the pubic
Fibula
symphysis), the two hipbones also join with the verte-
bral column in back, forming a ring-like structure called
the pelvis.
● The pelvis of adult males and females differ somewhat
in shape and size. The female pelvis is wider and
provides a large opening for the passage of the infant’s
head during birth.
● Pelvic girdle is located in the lower part of the trunk. It
consists of 3 bones : upper ilium, lower ischium and Tarsals (8)
inner pubis, fused to formed a stout hipbone, the
innominate. Metatarsals (5)
● The hipbone has at the middle of its lateral surface a
deep cup-shaped hollow, the acetabulum, where the Phalanges (14)
head of femur articulates. Below the acetabulum, the
hipbone has a large oval gap, the obturator foramen. Fig. : Anterior view of the pelvic girdle with left leg
and foot bones.
Leg Bones
● The tibia and fibula join with a number of small tarsal
● The upper leg bone is called femur or thighbone. Its bones to form the ankle. The tarsal and metatarsal
upper end is formed into a ball-shaped unit that fits into bones along with the phalanges of the toes, form the
a well-defined socket of a coxal bone. foot. In each leg, there are 7 tarsals in the ankle, 5
● This ball-and-socket arrangement results in a stable metatarsals in the sole and 14 phalanges in the toes.
load-bearing joint, that is capable of a great range of ● All the bones of the legs are more massive than the
movement. bones of the arms.
● At the knee, the lower end of the femur meets two
bones of the lower leg : the larger tibia and the smaller Joints
fibula. The knee joint forms where the femur joins ● Where two or more bones join together, a joint or
directly with the tibia. articulation is formed. All body movements occur at
● Infront of each knee-joint is a small triangular bone, the joints.
patella or kneecap, which protects the knee-joint and ● Many joints are held together and stabilized by bands
acts as a pulley for the upper thigh muscles. of fibrous connective, called ligaments. Often the

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 869

 opposed surfaces of the bones move upon each other
at the joint.
● There are 3 main types of joints : fibrous or immov-
able, slightly movable and synovial or freely mov-
able.
● Fibrous or immovable joints—The bones of the skull
join together in a tight-fitting interlocking joint called
suture. This immovable joint provides stability to the
skull.
● In a newborn infant, the bones of the skull are still
developing and there are relatively wide spaces bet-
ween them. These spaces contain tough sheets of
connective tissue that connect the bones and are
called fontanels.
● Fontanels allow a certain amount of ‘give’ in the skull
as it passes through the mother’s pelvic opening dur-
ing birth and they also permit brain growth.
● After birth, as the infant grows, the connective tissue
sheet is replaced by bone, forming the sutures found
between adult cranial bones.
● Cartilaginous or slightly movable joints—The
slightly movable joints are found between the centra of
vertebra, between the hipbones (pubic symphysis) and
between sternum and ribs. Such joints provide firm
support but allow a degree of flexibility.
● Synovial or freely movable joints—Many joints that
permit movement between adjoining bones are called
synovial joints and are found at the shoulder, elbow,
wrist, hip, knee, phalanges and jaw.
● Synovial joints have four common characteristics :
1. They have a joint cavity between the articulating
bones.
2. Cartilage covers the articulating ends of bones.
3. A fibrous connective tissue forms a capsule that
encompasses the entire joint.
4. A delicate tissue membrane called the synovial
membrane lines the inside of this capsule and
secretes synovial fluid. Synovial fluid coals the
inner surfaces and reducing friction.
● Synovial joints are of six types :
1. Ball-and-socket joint—One bone forms a ball-like
head that fits into a socket formed by the other
bone. The bone with a head can move nearly in all
directions. Shoulder joint and hip joint are of this
type.
2. Hinge joint—This joint allows movement in one
plane only. The knee joint, elbow joint, ankle
joint and joints between the phalanges are of
this type.
3. Angular, ellipsoid or condyloid joint—This
allows movement in two directions, that is side to
side and backforth. A oval condyle of one bone fits
into an elliptical concavity of the other. Wrist and
metacarpophalangial joints are of this type.
4. Gliding joint—This joint permits sliding move-
ments of two bones over each other. The joints bet-
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 870
ween zygapophyses and of the vertebrae, bet-
ween the carpals in the wrist, tarsals in the
ankle and between sternum and clavicles are of
this type.
5. Pivot joint—This joint allows only a rotary move-
ment of one bone on the other which remains
stationary. The joint between the atlas and axis
vertebra in humans is of this type. It enables the
head to turn from side to side. The upper ends of
radius and ulna articulate with each other by a
pivot joint.
6. Saddle joint—This joint resembles the ball-and-
socket joint but both ball and socket are poorly
developed. The joint between metacarpal of the
human thumb and the corresponding carpal is of
this type. It enables the thumb to move in many
directions.
Bone
Joint
capsule
Synovial
membrane
(produces
synovial
fluid, which
reduces
friction)
Joint
cavity
Cartilage
Bone
Fig. : Anatomic structures characteristic of
synovial joints.
Disorders
● Osteoporosis—This disorder results from the loss of
calcium and phosphate from the bone matrix.
Throughout life, bone is continuously deposited and
removed by osteoblasts and osteoclasts respectively.
● In osteoporosis, osteoblast activity is decreased and
the bone is deposited more slowly than it is removed
by osteoclasts.
● Osteoporosis, primarily affects post-menopausal
women. After menopause, there is decline in woman’s
production of the female sex hormone-estrogen, one
function of which is the stimulation of osteoblast acti-
vity. As a result, the skeleton is weakened and bone
fractures can occur even with normal activity.
● Osteoarthritis—This is an inflammation of the large
weight-bearing joints. It is believed that osteoarthritis
results from the gradual wearing of the surface carti-
lage of a joint. As the cartilage is worn, the underlying
 bone is exposed and may thicken, reducing the space
within the joint capsule. This can restrict movement
and cause pain.
● Although osteoarthritis often accompanies normal
ageing, its onset and severity can be accelerated by
injury, infection and misuse of a joint.
● Rheumatoid arthritis—Rheumatoid arthritis is a
degenerative disease of the joints that occur with
equal frequency in men and women. It is more serious
and debilitating than osteoarthritis. The symptoms are
swollen, painful and stiff joints. These symptoms can
occur at any stage, even in young children, although
they usually develop later in life.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Human cranium is made up of— (B) Ilium (C) Pectoral girdle
(A) 8 bones (B) 10 bones (C) Sternum (D) Vertebral column
(C) 12 bones (D) 14 bones (D) Acetabulum 9. Human vertebral column
2. Knee and elbow joint is— 6. Synovial fluid is found in— shows—
(A) Gliding (B) Pivot (A) Intercellular spaces (A) Cervical curvature
(C) Hinge (D) Condyloid
(B) Around the brain (B) Thoracic curvature
3. Acetabulum forms— (C) Internal ear (C) Lumbar and sacral curvature
(A) Shoulder joint (D) Freely movable joints
(B) Hip joint (D) All the above
(C) Elbow joint 7. Which of the following is an un-
10. Total number of bones in the
(D) None of the above paired bone ?
hind limb of human is—
(A) Pre-maxilla
4. Number of floating ribs in human (A) 14 (B) 21
body is— (B) Pro-otics
(C) Sphenethmoid (C) 24 (D) 30
(A) 3 pairs (B) 1 pair
(C) 2 pairs (D) 4 pairs (D) Pterygoid
ANSWERS
5. Which of the following compo- 8. In humans, the coccygeal bone
nent is a part of the pectoral is found in—
girdle ? (A) Skull
(A) Glenoid cavity (B) Pelvic girdle ●●●

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Introduction
● Sexually transmitted diseases (STD) are infectious
diseases that are passed between humans during
unprotected vaginal, anal and oral sexual contact.
● Generally STD diseases are acquired as a result of
sexual intercourse with an infected individual.
● If STD diseases are not treated, they endanger
general health and fertility and may be life-
threatening. Some are even incurable.
● The infectious agents responsible for STDs are
bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa and arthropods.
● Women, however may not show symptoms until the
infection has spread to the cervix, uterus and uterine
tubes. Without proper diagnosis and treatment,
women are particularly vulnerable to Pelvic Inflam-
matory Disease (PID) which can cause sterility.
● PID is an ascending infection from the vagina or
cervix to the uterus, fallopian tubes and broad liga-
ments. Infection may be caused by sexual inter-
course with a man having urethritis.
● Chlamydiosis also causes cervical ulceration which
increase the risk of acquiring AIDS.

Some Sexually Transmitted Diseases

Disease Cause Symptoms Effects on Foetus Treatment Complications

Acquired Immune Human immuno- Fever, weakness, infections, Exposure to AIDS Drugs to treat or Dementia and
Deficiency Syn- deficiency virus cancer virus and other delay symptoms; death
drome (AIDS) (HIV) infections no cure

Chlamydia Chlamydia Painful urination and inter- Premature birth, Antibiotics Pelvic inflamma-
bacteria course, mucus discharge from blindness, tory disease, infer-
penis or vagina pneumonia tility, arthritis, eco-
topic pregnancy

Genital herpes Herpes simplex Genital sores, fever Brain damage, Antiviral drug Increased risk of
virus type I or II stillbirth (acyclovir) cervical cancer

Genital warts Human Warts on genitals None known Chemical or sur- Increased risk of
papilloma virus gical removal cervical cancer

Gonorrhea Neisseria In women, usually none; in Blindness, stillbirth Antibiotics Arthritis, rash, in-
gonorrheae men, painful urination fertility, pelvic in-
bacteria flammatory dis-
ease

Syphilis Treponema Initial chances sore usually on Miscarriage, Antibiotics Death

pallidum genitals or mouth; rash 6 prematurity, birth
bacteria months later; several years defects, stillbirth
with no symptoms as infection
spreads; finally damage to
heart, liver nerves, brain
Hepatitis B Hepatitis B virus Fatigue, persistent low-grade Low birth weight Rest, alpha inter- Cirrhosis, liver
fever, jaundice (yellowing feron cancer
skin), rash, abdominal pain

STDs Caused by Bacteria ● If a baby comes in contact with Chlamydia during

● Among the more common bacterial STDs are
Chlamydiosis, Gonorrhea and Syphilis.
Chlamydiosis
● Chlamydiosis is caused by the bacterium—Chlamydia
trachomatis . It is the most rapidly increasing STD and
the common cause is nongonococcal urethritis (NGU).
● In men, there may be a thick pus-like discharge from
the penis and painful urination.
birth, inflammation of the eyes or pneumonia can
result.
● Reiter’s syndrome is associated with urethritis,
arthritis and conjunctivitis. Urethritis occurs in young
men and the causative organism is Chlamydia.
Gonorrhea
● Gonorrhea is caused by the bacterial pathogen,
Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The symptoms of gonorrhea
are often more obvious in males than females.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 872

● In women, infection of the vagina or uterus may go
unnoticed and eventually spread through the uterine
tubes to the lower part of the abdominal cavity
resulting in PID and possible sterility or infertility.
● In infection, Neisseria gonorrhoeae colonizes the
epithelium of mucous membranes in the human
genital tract, pharynx or rectum.
● Gonococcal infection during pregnancy is a risk factor
for premature delivery and the transmission of the
infection to the neonate in the form of Ophthalmia
neonatorum during passage of the birth canal or in
the post partum period and may cause blindness in
an infant.
Syphilis
● Syphilis is a subacute and chronic infectious disease
of humans caused by Treponema pallidum, a
spirochete bacterium. It is transmitted principally by
sexual intercourse.
● After infection, the untreated disease progresses
slowly through several distinct stages, thus, the
disease evolves in a stepwise manner. After several
weeks of incubation, a hard dry sore called a
chancre appears at the site of infection and marks
the beginning of the primary stage. The primary
lesion is most often located on the genitalia.
● The bacteria are soon widely disseminated by the
lymphatics and blood, giving rise to generalized
lesions, characteristic of the secondary stage of the
disease.
● Most prominent in this stage are treponema-
containing lesions of the skin and mucous
membranes of the lips, mouth and genitalia.
● During tertiary stage of syphilis, the bacteria spread
to internal organs and systems, damaging the heart
and injuring the brain. This can lead to paralysis and
mental instability.
● Large disfiguring sores called gummas may appear
on the skin in this stage. The organism can cross the
placenta of an infected mother and may transmitted
to a newborn during birth. A solution of silver nitrate is
washed into the eyes of newborns as a precaution
against both syphilis and gonorrhea infections.
STDs Caused by Viruses
● There are four major STDs caused by viruses,
Genital Herpes, Genital warts, AIDS and Hepatitis-B.
Genital Herpes
● The are two types of herpes simplex virus, differing
both antigenically and biologically—an oral type
(type 1) and a genital type (type 2).
● Genital herpes infections are commonly spread by
sexual intercourse with someone who has open
sores.
● The primary symptoms of genital herpes are
periodically recurring watery blisters on the genitals.
Nearly all body regions, including the mouth and
hands can become infected if contacted by broken
blisters.
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 873
● Between episodes of blisters, the virus lies dormant
in spinal nerve cells. Before an outbreak, the virus
descends through sensory neurons to reach the skin
surface.
● Release of virus and repeated outbreaks of blisters
can be triggered by stress, menstruation, nutritional
changes and exposure to sunlight.
● A present time, herpes infections cannot be
completely cured. The drug Acyclovir, however,
inhibits new sores, decreases healing time and
shortens the time during which a sore ‘sheds’ live
viruses.
Genital Warts
● Genital warts are caused by the Human Papilloma
Virus (HPV). The warts vary in appearance from tiny
bumps to large, spreading masses which can appear
on the penis, the labia, around the anus, in the vagina
and on the cervix.
● The disease spreads through sexual contact with
warts on the genitalia of an infected person.
● HPVs are now associated with cancer of the cervix,
as well as tumours of the vulva, the vagina, the anus
and the penis.
AIDS
● AIDS is a disorder of cell mediated immune system of
the body. AIDS stands for Acquired Immune Defi-
ciency Syndrome. The organism that causes AIDS
is a virus called Human Immunodeficiency Virus
(HIV).
● AIDS was first noticed in USA homosexuals in 1981.
Virus of AIDS was isolated and identified by Prof. Luc
Montagnier in France in 1983 and almost the same
time by Prof. Robert Gallo in USA.
● AIDS infections were detected in India for the first
time is prostitutes of Chennai in 1986.
● HIV is a fragile virus. It requires moist conditions for
transmission.
● AIDS is considered a sexually transmitted disease
because HIV can be transmitted during sexual
intercourse.
● HIV appears to be transmitted easily in blood, semen,
vaginal fluids and the breast milk of infected mothers.
● HIV belongs to a group of viruses known as
retroviruses that use RNA as their hereditary
material.
● The RNA is wrapped in a protein coat and surrounded
by an envelope derived from the plasma membrane
of the host cell. Accompanying the RNA is an enzyme
called reverse transcriptase that permits the viral
nucleic acid to integrate into the host cell’s DNA,
where it may hide for years.
● Initially, HIV attacks helper T-cells (T 4 lymphocytes).
The virus attaches to CD4 receptors of helper T-cells
and sends in its RNA.
● The viral enzyme reverse transcriptase, then catalyzes
construction of a DNA strand complementary to the
 viral RNA. The initial constructed viral DNA strand
replicates to form DNA double helix which enters the
T-cell nucleus.
Protein coat of the virus
RNA
the hereditary
material
The envelope
is derived from
plasma mem-
brane of human
host cell.
Reverse trans-
criptase
Protein that attaches
virus to cell.
Fig. : The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
● The infected T-cells no longer release cytokines or
stimulate B-cells to manufacture antibodies in the
body. The infected T-cells burst to unlease many new
HIV particles.
● In some infected cells, instead of reproducing RNA
viruses and killing the host cells, the viral RNA is
copied as DNA which is integrated into the host cell’s
DNA. In this integrated form, the coded information of
the viral nucleic acid is reproduced every time the cell
reproduces and spreading potential sources of the
virus throughout the body.
● In its integrated form, the virus may remain inactive
upto 15 years. However, during the second phase, it
appears that infected cells are steadily destroyed.
● With the loss of cells, the body’s immune defences
are weakened and HIV infected people become more
susceptible to other opportunistic infections as well as
certain kinds of cancer (Kaposi’s Sarcoma). It is
these complications due to HIV that end up killing
most HIV infected people.
and a third phase in which T-cells counts are so low
that they cannot protect a person from opportunistic
infections. Strictly speaking AIDS refers only to the
third phase.
● During the first phase, which may last about a year,
the individual is an asymptomatic carrier.
● Initially HIV infects white blood cells : helper T-cells
and macrophages. The number of helper T-cells
declines initially but rebounds as antibodies are
produced against the virus.
● The presence of antibodies in a blood sample is
currently the primary means of identifying HIV
infection. When these antibodies against HIV are
present in the blood sample, the person is said to be
HIV positive (HIV +).
● Unfortunately, these antibodies are not effective
defences, because the virus can hide inside cell. The
individual even at this stage can pass on the infection
yet there are no symptoms.
● The second phase in often called AIDS Related
Complex (ARC). Its symptoms are swollen
lymphnodes, fever, sweating at night and weight loss.
● ARC is also known as prodromal AIDS. This phase
may last six to eight years. Infections like thrush
(white sores on the tongue and in mouth).
● During this phase of HIV infection, there is a steady
decline in the number of T-cells and an increasing
vulnerability to opportunistic infections.
● In a normal healthy adult, there are about 800 or
more helper T-cells per cubic millimeter of blood.
During this final phase, the number of helper T-cells
drop below 200 per cubic millimeter and the person is
officially diagnosed as full-blown AIDS patient.
● As infections become more frequent and spread
throughout the body. AIDS patients require frequent
hospitalization. Complications from multiple infections
eventually overwhelm the body and death follows.

Opportunistic Infections Associated with HIV Infection (Phases 2 and 3)

Disease Microbial Agent Symptoms
P. carinii pneumonia Pneumocystis carinii (protozoan) Pneumonia, difficult breathing, suffocation
Toxoplasmosis Toxoplasma gondii (protozoan) Fatigue, brain lesions, seizures, cerebral swelling
Cryptosporidiosis Cryptosporidium coccidi (protozoan) Extreme diarrhea, dehydration, shock
Cryptococcosis Cryptococcus neoformans (fungus) Pneumonia, piercing headaches, paralysis (meningitis)
Candidiasis Candida albicans (fungus) White oral patches of fungus, erosion of esophagus
Histoplasmosis Histoplasma capsulatum (fungus) Pneumonia, lesions of visceral organs, paralysis
Cytomegalovirus disease Cytomegalovirus (virus) Pneumonia, liver and kidney disease, impaired vision
Herpes simplex Herpes simplex virus (virus) Body sores and blisters
Tuberculosis Mycobacterium tuberculosis (bacterium) Lesions of lung, difficult breathing, lesions of visceral organs

The Clinical Picture of AIDS ● Conventional treatment for HIV/AIDS is difficult

● The course of HIV infection can be divided into three
phases.
● An initial period after infection, a second period
during which the number of T-cells steadily declines
because of three characteristics of the disease :
1. The dormancy exhibited by HIV.
2. The variety of cells it can infect.
3. The multiple opportunistic infections that are
possible.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 874

● At present there are very few drugs that can act
directly on the replication of the virus. One such drug
is AZT (Retrovir).
● Prophylaxis—People should be educated about
AIDS. Every year, December 1st is recalled as the
World AIDS Day.
● AZT interferes with the making of viral DNA by the
HIV enzyme reverse transcriptase. However, it does
not interfere with the replication of Human DNA, since
human cells utilize a different enzyme, DNA
polymerase.
● Unfortunately, AZT has serious side effects and may
not be as effective in prolonging patient life as once
believed.
● Newer drugs, such as d d l and d d c also inhibit
reverse transcriptase. When used with AZT, ddl and
ddc may prolong life better than AZT alone.
Hepatitis B
● Hepatitis B is caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV).
HBV is transmitted by blood, body fluids and sexual
contact in the same fashion as HIV. However, it is
less fragile and 100 times more contagious than HIV,
and can withstand environmental exposure.
Varieties of Hepatitis Viruses
● Hepatitis A virus (HAV) is known as ‘infectious hepatitis’.
● Hepatitis B virus (HBV) is known as ‘serum hepatitis’,
causing a parenterally transmitted disease that may
become chronic.
● Hepatitis C virus (HCV), also called non–A, non–B
hepatitis virus involved in transfusion-related hepatitis.
● Hepatitis D virus also called Hepatitis Delta Virus (HDV).
HDV is a defective virus for which HBV is the helper.
● Hepatitis E virus (HEV) is an enterically transmitted, water
horne infection. A characteristic feature of the HEV
infection is the high mortality rate among pregnant
women.
● HBV multiplies in the liver and bone marrow. The
symptoms of infection include fatigue, nausea,
abdominal pain, arthritis and yellowing of the skin
(jaundice) caused by liver damage. The infection can
be fatal by itself or can lead to cirrhosis of the liver.
● Hepatitis associated antigen—The original term
applied to the Australian antigen. It is now called
hepatitis B surface antigen (HBS Ag). Its discovery
made possible the differentiation of hepatitis B from
other forms of viral hepatitis.
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Chlamydiosis is caused by— 2. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
(A) Bacteria (PID) is related with—
(A) Chlamydiosis
(B) Virus
(B) Gonorrhea
(C) Fungus (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Protozoa (D) None of these
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 875
● Unlike most STDs, there is a vaccine against HBV
and people can be immunized against hepatitis B.
● Hepatitis B virus vaccine is prepared directly from
blood. This vaccine is made by a process, not
dependent upon use of human plasma, thus it would
be free of AIDS virus.
● HBV vaccine (globulins) produces passive immunity
in humans.
STDs caused by Fungi, Protozoa and Arthropods
● In addition to bacteria and viruses, STDs are also
caused by yeasts (a form of fungi), single-cell
eukaryotes (protozoa) and lice (arthropods).
Vaginal Yeast Infections
● Vaginal Candidiasis is caused by infection of yeast,
Candida albicans. This yeast is part of normal flora
and is found in mouth, colon and vagina, where its
growth is normally limited by competition from other
organisms of the normal flora and the body’s immune
defences.
● If these factors are disrupted, the yeast population
may grow out of control.
● Women with candidiasis, experience painful
inflammation of the vagina, often with a thick cheesy
discharge.
● Men may develop a painful inflammation of the
urethra through sexual contact with an infected
woman.
● Trichomoniasis is caused by a single-celled
protozoa, Trichomonas vaginalis. It inhibits vagina of
women and causes trichomoniasis (vaginitis).
● This disease is characterized by inflammation,
burning sensation, itching and frothy vaginal
discharge.
● Transmission is always through sexual intercourse by
male members who act as intermediaries.
● In men, there are often no symptoms, but occasio-
nally the disease spreads to the seminal vesicles and
prostate gland and causes painful swelling.
● Pubic Lice—Pubic lice infestations of the pubic hairs
is due to parasitic louse, Phthirus pubis. Adult lice
grip on the pubic hairs with their claws and pierce the
skin with their mouth parts to draw meal of blood.
● The human host may experience painful itching and
reddened patches on skin. Female lice lay eggs near
the base of pubic hairs and the young hatch within a
few days to expand the infestation. The lice are
passed between humans by intimate sexual contacts.
3. Treponema pallidum causes—
(A) Gonorrhea
(B) Syphilis
(C) Genital herpes
(D) Genital warts
(Continued on Page 889 )
 (C) Oxidation-reduction reaction
(D) Phosphorylation of flavopro-
teins
16. In monotremes both sexes
secrete milk, this condition is
called—
1. Which of the following is retro- 9. Which of these deals with the (A) Gynaecomastism
peritoneal ? organisms and geological envi- (B) Gomphosis
(A) Lungs (B) Kidneys ronments of the past ?
(C) Gynandromorphism
(C) Spleen (D) Testes (A) Palaeozoology
(D) Gynocious
(B) Palaeoecology
2. A pair of bones of the upper jaw
(C) Synecology 17. Lysosomal storage disorder is—
that form the points of articulation
with the lower jaw, in amphibians, (D) All the above (A) Tay-Sachs disease
reptiles and birds, is— 10. A typical vertebra has a solid (B) Pompe disease
(A) Squamosal (B) Quadrate central part known as— (C) Hurler disease
(C) Maxilla (D) Sphenoid (A) Neural spine (D) All the above
3. Which of the following is the (B) Centrum 18. What is the benefit of using
autoimmune disorder ? (C) Neural arch retrovirus as a vector in gene
(A) Haemolytic anaemia (D) None of the above therapy ?
(B) Myasthenia gravis 11. Some chromosomes are distin- (A) It is not able to enter cells
(C) Glomerulonephritis guished by blob-like ends (B) It incorporates the foreign
(D) All the above called— gene into the host chromo-
(A) Heterochromatin some
4. Bilharziasis is a parasitic disease
(B) Euchromatin (C) It eliminates a lot of neces-
caused by—
sary steps
(A) Schistosoma (C) Satellites
(D) Both (B) and (C) are correct
(B) Taenia Solium (D) Centromeres
(C) Fasciola hapatica 19. Allopatric but not sympatric spe-
12. Inheritance of ABO blood groups ciation requires—
(D) Enterobius vermicularis illustrates—
(A) Reproductive isolation
5. Oligopeptide hormone secreted (A) Polyploidy
(B) Geographic isolation
by pars nervosa of pituitary gland (B) Incomplete dominance (C) Prior hybridization
of birds and mammals is—
(C) Multiple allelism (D) Spontaneous differences in
(A) Pitocin (B) Oxytocin
(D) None of the above males and females
(C) Vasopressin (D) Melanin
13. When genetic material is ex- 20. Elephant tusks are—
6. The penetration of sperm into
changed via cytoplasm, between (A) Canine (B) Molar
ovum is helped by an enzyme—
two prokaryotes, it is called— (C) Incisor (D) Pre-molar
(A) Luciferase
(A) Conjugation
(B) Zymase 21. Fossil of ‘Lucy’ was a member
(B) Transduction of—
(C) Lactase
(C) Transformation (A) Homo erectus
(D) Hyaluronidase (D) Restricted transduction (B) Homo habilis
7. Which of the following cell 14. Which of the following monkey (C) Australopithecus afarensis
organelle is semi-autonomous ? has a prehansile tail ? (D) Australopithecus robusta
(A) Lysosome (A) Rhesus monkey (Macaca
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum 22. Heart-beat originates from—
mulatta)
(C) Chloroplast (A) Pacemaker
(B) Spider monkey (Ateles
(D) All the above paniscus) (B) Cardiac muscles
(C) Bormet macaquce (Macaca (C) Aorta
8. Gorilla like man with large head
radiata) (D) Right ventricle
and hands and protruding jaws is
produced due to— (D) All of the above 23. The protein which maintains the
(A) Oversecretion of thyroxin 15. In mitochondria, the cristae act muscular storage of oxygen is—
(B) Oversecretion of growth hor- as site of— (A) Myosin
mone (A) Breakdown of macromole- (B) Myoglobin
(C) Excess of vitamin ‘C’ in diet cules (C) Actomyosin
(D) Excessive secretion of TSH (B) Protein synthesis (D) All the above

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 876

24. Photochemical smog contains
two air pollutants—
(A) Nitrogen oxides (NOx) and
hydrocarbons (HC)
(B) Carbon monoxide and acids
(C) Water, carbon monoxide and
hydrocarbons
(D) All of the above
25. Ganglioside is found in—
(A) Nerve
(B) Smooth muscles
(C) Cardiac muscles
(D) Liver cells
26. Acid diposition causes—
(A) Lakes and forests to die
(B) Acid indigestion in humans
(C) The green house effect to
lessen
(D) All of these are correct
27. Chemiosmotic phosphorylation is
dependent upon—
(A) A diffusion of water across a
differentially permeable
membrane
(B) An outside supply of phos-
phate and other chemicals
(C) The establishment of an
electrochemical hydrogen
(H+) gradient
(D) The ability of ADP to join
with P even in the absence
of a supply of energy
28. Axis vertebra can be identified
by—
(A) Olecranon process
(B) Odontoid process
(C) Sigmoid notch
(D) Centrum
29. In children, the bones are more
flexible because their bones
have—
(A) Large quantity of salts and
little organic substances
(B) Large quantity of organic
substances and little salts
(C) Well developed Haversian
system
(D) Large number of osteoblasts
30. Mushroom glands are found in—
(A) Leech (B) Mosquito
(C) Snail (D) Cockroach
31. Enzyme which removes nucleo-
tides one by one from the end of
a polynucleotide chain is—
(A) Kinase
(B) Endonuclease
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 877
(C) Exonuclease 40. Rhinoceros horns are composed
(D) Polymerase of—
(A) Bone (B) Cartilage
32. To make a karyotype, chromoso-
mes are photographed during— (C) Chitin (D) Keratin
(A) Fertilization (B) Meiosis 41. Which of these is tissue mem-
(C) Mitosis (D) Interphase brane ?
33. In which of the following (A) Serous membrane
mammals do the ducts of the (B) Cutaneous membrane
excretory system and genital (C) Mucous membrane
tract have a common opening ? (D) All the above
(A) Porcupine (B) Pangolin
42. A horizontal bony palate present
(C) Hedgehog (D) Echidna between buccal and nasal cavi-
34. An interaction between nonallelic ties of mammals is formed by—
gene in which an allele at one (A) Premaxillae, maxillae and
locus prevents expression of an palatines
allele at another locus, but not (B) Squamosal and dentary
vice versa, is called— (C) Maxillae and squamosal
(A) Collaboration (D) Quadrate and palatines
(B) Complementation
43. Which of the following pair is
(C) Epistasis
correctly matched ?
(D) Modification
(A) Excessive perspiration—
35. Cerebral malaria is caused by— Xeric adaptation
(A) Plasmodium falciparum (B) Parasitism—Intraspecific
(B) Plasmodium malariae relationship
(C) Plasmodium ovale (C) Uricotelism—Aquatic habitat
(D) Plasmodium vivax (D) Streamlined body—Aquatic
adaptation
36. A fruitfly is heterozygous for sex-
linked genes, when mated with 44. Hamburger shift is also called—
normal female fruitfly, the males (A) Hydrogen shift
specific chromosomes will enter (B) HCO3 shift
egg cell in the proportion—
(C) Chloride shift
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
(D) Sodium shift
(C) 3 : 1 (D) 7 : 1
45. Which of the following is the
37. All eukaryotic genes contain two largest protozoan parasite of
kinds of base sequences, which humans ?
of these plays role in protein
synthesis ? (A) Balantidium coli
(B) Escherichia coli
(A) Exons
(C) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Introns
(D) None of these
(C) Both (A) and (B)
46. How many kinds of cytochrome
(D) None of these
are involved in the electron
38. Epidermis found in Ascaris is— transport chain ?
(A) Coenocytic (A) Two (B) Four
(B) Syncytial (C) Five (D) Six
(C) Both (A) and (B) 47. In the brain, cerebrospinal fluid is
(D) None of the above present—
(A) Between dura mater and pia-
39. Which type of cartilage is found mater
in humans external ear (Pinna) ?
(B) Between dura mater and
(A) Hyaline cartilage arachnoid
(B) Fibrocartilage (C) Between arachnoid and pia-
(C) Elastic cartilage mater
(D) None of these (D) None of these
48. Which type of cancer is deve-
loped in connective tissues and
spleen ?
(A) Leukaemia (B) Lymphoma
(C) Sarcoma (D) Carcinoma
49. Bjerrum’s sign is associated
with—
(A) Glaucoma
(B) Astigmatism
(C) Metropia
(D) Hypermetropia
50. The type of immunoglobin pre-
sent in the colostrum secreted
from mammary gland is—
(A) Ig D (B) Ig E
(C) Ig G (D) Ig M

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 878

 17. Which of the following is retroperi-
toneal ?
(A) Kidneys (B) Spleen
(C) Testes (D) Lungs
18. Which developmental structure in
mammalian embryo is regarded
1. Which of the following acts as 9. Which of the following is breast- as phyletic ?
‘thermostat’ in human body ? bone ? (A) Gill pouches (B) Lungs
(A) Pons (A) Clavicle (B) Sternum (C) Heart (D) Kidneys
(B) Medulla oblongata (C) Scapula (D) Patella 19. Hepatitis caused by Leptospira
(C) Cerebellum sps. is known as—
10. Bones enlarge by—
(D) Hypothalamus (A) Wilson’s disease
(A) Auxentic growth
2. Which of the following is the only (B) Multiplicative growth (B) Black-water disease
amino acid metabolized by the (C) Weil’s disease
(C) Accretionary growth
brain ? (D) None of these
(D) Appositional growth
(A) Alanine 20. ‘Tree line’ is a biological indicator
11. The lytic enzyme present in of environmental conditions.
(B) Glutamic acid
human semen is— ‘Tree line’ is—
(C) Histidine
(A) Androgenase (A) Line of similar trees in a
(D) Glutanine
(B) Estrogenase forest
3. Whcih of the following is related (C) Hyaluronidase (B) Last line of trees beyond
with the disorder ‘River blind- which no trees occur
(D) Ligase
ness’ ? (C) A line of trees of uniform
(A) Elephantiasis 12. Muscles associated with hair
height and productivity
(B) Onchocerciasis roots and responsible for goose-
flesh (erection of body hairs) (D) Trees growing in shade that
(C) Trypanosomiasis survive acid rain
are—
(D) None of these
(A) Smooth muscles 21. Striped muscles are—
4. Melanin pigments give black (B) Antagonistic muscles (A) Syncytial
colour to which part of brain ? (C) Striated muscles (B) Uninucleate
(A) Substantia nigra (D) None of these (C) Binucleate
(B) Substantia grisea (D) None of these
13. The effect of genetic drift is more
(C) Substantia gelatinosa pronounced in— 22. Accumulation of free radicals in
(D) Substantia propria (A) Fast reproducing popula- body can cause—
5. Which only amino acid is meta- tions (A) Cancer
bolized by brain ? (B) Small isolated populations (B) Hardening of the arteries
(A) Alanine (C) Large mixed populations (C) Cataracts
(B) Glutamine (D) Migrating populations (D) All the above
(C) Glutamic acid 14. In humans, corpora quadrigemina 23. In which chromosome number the
(D) Histidine is found in— banding pattern of chimpanzee
and humans are almost similar ?
6. Which tumour is capsulated ? (A) Prosencephalon
(A) 4 and 6 (B) 3 and 6
(A) Benign (B) Mesencephalon
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 3 and 5
(B) Malignant (C) Rhombencephalon
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these 24. Which of the following division of
Peripheral Nervous system is
(D) None of these 15. A notochord is found at the often called ‘Voluntary Nervous
7. Which human teeth are called embryonic stage in— System’ ?
‘eyeteeth’ ? (A) All chordates (A) Somatic
(A) Incisors (B) Canines (B) Some chordates (B) Autonomic
(C) Premolars (D) Molars (C) Some vertebrates (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) All land animals (D) None of these
8. New systematics based on gene-
tic interrelationship is— 16. Clisere is related with— 25. Motor or sensory neurons
(A) Cytotaxonomy (A) Serial community enclosed by a sheath of connec-
(B) Numerical taxonomy (B) Xerosere community tive tissue, called—
(C) Experimental taxonomy (C) Climax community (A) Perineurium
(D) Chemotaxonomy (D) Pioneer community (B) Neurilemma

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 879

 (C) Endoneurium 33. The fossil of hominid found in 43. The hardest substance in human
(D) None of these Shivalik hills of India, is— body is—
(A) Ramapithecus (A) Keratin (B) Dentine
26. An exergonic reaction is—
(B) Sinanthropus (C) Enamel (D) Chondrin
(A) A spontaneous reaction in
(C) Australopithecus 44. Ionic bonds are formed bet-
which energy is given off
(D) Pithecanthropus ween—
(B) An uphill reaction requiring
input of energy 34. Typhus is a— (A) Similar charged ions
(C) An oxidation reaction (A) Louse-borne disease (B) Opposite charged ions
(B) Mosquito-borne disease (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) An anaerobic reaction
(C) Housefly-borne disease (D) None of these
27. Method of coelom formation
(D) Water-borne disease 45. The body cavity of Hirudo is filled
within pouches of mesoderm is
by—
called— 35. Parapatric speciation is called—
(A) Connective tissues
(A) Pseudocoely (A) Demes (B) Cline (B) Botyroidal tissues
(B) Schizocoely (C) Clisere (D) None of these (C) Parenchymal tissues
(C) Enterocoely (D) Coelomic fluid
36. Paneth cells are found in—
(D) None of these (A) Spleen 46. Which of the following techno-
logy is used to get cross-
28. The internal mechanism by (B) Pancreas
sectional views of body parts ?
which a biological rhythm is (C) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (A) Computerized tomography
maintained in the absence of (D) Brain (B) Position emission tomogra-
appropriate environmental stimuli
37. Helicotrema is the opening of— phy
is termed as—
(A) Uriniferous tubule (C) Magnetic resonance imaging
(A) Circardian rhythm (D) None of these
(B) Cochlear canal
(B) Sleep movement
(C) Urethra 47. Atrial natriuretic factor is associ-
(C) Biological clock ated with—
(D) Ureter
(D) None of these (A) Pancreas
38. Brushfield’s spots are associated
29. A metastatic cancerous tumour is (B) Heart
with—
termed ‘sarcoma’ if the disorder is (C) Alimentary canal
(A) Down’s syndrome
in— (D) All the above
(B) Turner’s syndrome
(A) Immune system 48. Athlete’s foot is caused by—
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(B) Epithelial cells (A) Aspergillus fumigatus
(D) None of these
(C) Fibroblasts (B) Trichophyton
(D) Circulatory system 39. Olecranon process is associated
with— (C) Histoplasma capsulatum
30. The arrangement of numerous (A) Humerus (B) Femur (D) Candida albicans
setae in a ring in each segment
(C) Ulna (D) Ribs 49. Auerbach’s plexus is found in—
of Pheretima is known as—
40. Basket cells are found in— (A) Stomach
(A) Lumbricine
(A) Cerebrum (B) Intestine
(B) Oligochaetine
(B) Cerebellum (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Otochaetine
(C) Hypothalamus (D) None of these
(D) Perichaetine
(D) Medulla oblongata 50. Milkman’s syndrome is—
31. The most striking example of
point mutation is found in the 41. The egg of frog is— (A) Failure of reabsorption of
disease, called— phosphate by renal tubules
(A) Telolecithal
(A) Thalassemia (B) Failure of absorption of lac-
(B) Microlecithal
tose
(B) Down’s syndrome (C) Alecithal
(C) Failure of absorption of
(C) Sickle-cell anaemia (D) Centrolecithal amino acids
(D) Night-blindness
42. The memories of the sights, (D) None of these
32. Poisonous fangs of cobra, krait sounds, tastes and odours of the
and coral snakes are— past experiences, is stored in— ANSWERS WITH HINTS
(A) Solenoglyphous (A) Cerebrum
(B) Proteroglyphous (B) Cerebellum
(C) Opisthoglypous (C) Pons
(D) None of these (D) Hypothalamus

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 880

 15. Which of the following hormone
stimulates metabolism and
growth ?
(A) Somatotropin
(B) Thyrotropin
(C) Gonadotropin
1. X-disease is associated with— 8. Which of the following is an (D) Prolactin
(A) Aflatoxicosis inborn metabolic error ?
16. Which of the following endocrine
(B) Amoebiosis (A) Hartnup disease gland stores its hormonal secre-
(C) Sleeping sickness (B) Galactosemia tions before discharging into the
(D) Leishmaniasis (C) Tyrosinemia blood ?
2. A product may bind to the (D) Cystinosis (A) Pancreas (B) Adrenal
regulatory enzyme’s active site, (C) Testis (D) Thyroid
9. Who introduced the term ‘phylum’
preventing it from binding subs- 17. Which of the following is an
in taxonomy ?
trate and temporarily shutting inactive enzyme precursor ?
down the metabolic pathway. (A) Cuvier (B) Huxley
(A) Polyglycoids
This is called— (C) John Ray (D) Aristotle (B) Cholenzymes
(A) Negative feedback (C) Activases
10. Which of the following metabolic
(B) Competitive inhibition (D) Zymogens
disease occurs only in males ?
(C) Allosteric inhibition
(A) Fabry’s disease 18. A disease caused by eating fish
(D) Non-competitive inhibition
(B) Gaucher’s disease contaminated with mercury, is
3. Which of these, is essential for called—
normal excitability of cardiac (C) Lesch-Nyhan disease
(A) Bright’s disease
muscle ? (D) Hunter’s disease (B) Minimata disease
(A) Potassium ions (C) Osteosclerosis
11. Recessive genes in both parents
(B) Calcium ions are responsible for— (D) Hashimoto’s disease
(C) Magnesium ions
(A) Congenital diseases 19. Convulsions in infants is caused
(D) All of these
(B) Communicable diseases due to deficiency of—
4. Which one of the following is (A) Iodine (B) Vitamin D
correctly matches a sexually (C) Non-communicable disea-
ses (C) Vitamin B 6 (D) Vitamin C
transmitted disease with its
pathogen ? (D) Deficiency diseases 20. There are special proteins that
(A) Urethritis—Bacillus anthracis help to unwind DNA double helix
12. Nicotine acts as a stimulant and in front of the replication fork.
(B) Soft sore—Bacillus brevis mimics the effect of— These proteins are—
(C) Syphlis— Treponema palli-
(A) Thyroxine (A) DNA gyrase
dium
(B) Acetylcholine (B) DNA polymerase
(D) Gonorrhoea—Entamoeba
histolytica (C) Testosterone (C) DNA ligase
(D) DNA topoisomerase
5. Archipallium is associated with— (D) Dopamine
(A) Cerebrum 21. The final hormonal stimulus lead-
13. Notochord is usually regarded ing to ovulation in humans is pro-
(B) Cerebellum as— vided by—
(C) Medulla oblongata (A) Mesodermal (A) Estrogen
(D) Spinal cord
(B) Ectodermal (B) Progesterone
6. Phylogenetic classification is one (C) Follicle stimulating hormone
(C) Endodermal
which is based on— (D) Luteinizing hormone
(A) Habits (D) Blastodermal
(B) Common evolutionary des- 22. The tissue having least power of
14. Interaction between non-allelic
cent regeneration is—
genetic elements or their pro-
(C) Overall similarities ducts, sometimes restricted to (A) Epidermis of skin
(D) Utilitarian system cases in which one element supp- (B) Endothelium of blood vessels
resses expression of another, is (C) Skeletal tissue of long bones
7. Bilharziasis is a parasitic disease,
known— (D) Nervous tissue of brain
caused by—
(A) Schistosoma (A) Epistatis
23. Stored energy from protein is
(B) Taenia solium (B) Episome released during—
(C) Fasciola hepatica (C) Epipelon (A) Catabolism
(D) Enterobius vermicularis (D) None of the above (B) Anabolism

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 882

 (C) Both (A) and (B) 33. Heart murmur produced in 43. In DNA, which of the following is
(D) None of these aneurysms is called— double-ringed molecule ?
(A) Bruit (A) Adenine
24. Osteoclasts are associated with—
(B) Hemic murmur (B) Guanine
(A) Bone formation
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Thymine
(B) Basal lamina secretion
(D) None of these (D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Break down of bone matrix
(D) Muscle regeneration 34. The term ‘Humulin’ is used for— 44. Coelom in vertebrates is lined
(A) Human insulin by—
25. Which of these is called tissue
(B) Isoenzyme (A) Ectoderm (B) Endoderm
membrane ?
(C) Hydrolytic enzyme (C) Mesoderm (D) All of these
(A) Serous membranes
(B) Cutaneous membranes (D) Powerful antibiotic 45. Which type of brain wave pattern
(C) Mucous membranes 35. Tyson’s glands are present on— is observed in people solving
mathematical problems ?
(D) All of these (A) Neck of penis
(A) Beta waves
26. Filum terminale is a part of— (B) Inner surface of prepuce
(B) Alpha waves
(A) Olfactory lobes (C) Opening of anus
(C) Theta waves
(B) Cerebellum (D) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Delta waves
(C) Spinal cord 36. Rickettsiae form a group of—
(D) Infundibulum 46. The first hormone artificially pro-
(A) Fungi
duced by culturing bacteria, is—
27. The pyramid of number in a (B) Viruses
grassland ecosystem is— (A) Insulin
(C) Bacterium-like prokaryotes
(A) Upright (B) Linear (B) Thyroxin
(D) None of the above
(C) Inverted (D) None of these (C) Testosterone
37. Failure of an organ or part to (D) Adrenalin
28. Loss of relative biological equili-
develop or grow is called—
brium is due to— 47. Pathogenic Candida which infects
(A) Pollution (A) Agenesia (agenesis)
humans is a—
(B) Radiation (B) Agenitalism
(A) Protozoan (B) Bacteria
(C) High temperature (C) Ageism
(C) Virus (D) Yeast
(D) Low temperature (D) Agerasia
48. What is common among silver
29. What is the function of porphyrin 38. In a biotic community, the primary fish, crab, honey bee and prawn?
in earthworm ? consumers are—
(A) Poison gland
(A) To protect against harmful (A) Carnivores (B) Omnivores
(B) Compound eye
germs (C) Detrivores (D) Herbivores
(B) To help in respiration (C) Metamorphosis
39. Adie’s syndrome is related with—
(C) To help in excretion (D) All the above
(A) Eye (B) Brain
(D) To protect against harmful (C) Skin (D) Liver 49. Which of the following prevents
ultraviolet rays the mother’s immune response
40. The ventilation movement of the to the developing embryo ?
30. Who proposed the ‘signal hypo- lungs for respiration in mammals,
(A) Trophoblast
thesis’ meant for the biosynthesis are governed by—
of secretory type of proteins ? (B) Blastocyst
(A) Diaphragm
(C) Umblical vein
(A) Baltimore (B) Costal muscles
(D) Umblical artery
(B) Camillo Golgi (C) Intercostal muscles
(C) Blobel and Sabatini (D) All the above 50. In which of the following animal,
all the three important chordate
(D) Sheeler and Bianchi 41. Fat, cholesterol and fat-soluble characters exist throughout life ?
31. Olfactory organ of a snake is— vitamins in blood are transported
(A) Amphioxus
by—
(A) Jacobson’s organ (B) Mammals
(A) Alpha globulins
(B) Johnston’s organ (C) Amphibians
(B) Beta globulins
(C) Organ of Bojanus (C) Gamma globulins (D) All the above
(D) None of the above (D) Both (A) and (B)
32. Pancreozymin is secreted by— ANSWERS WITH HINTS
42. When one molecule of ATP is
(A) Pancreas disintegrated, the amount of
(B) Intestine energy liberated is—
(C) Adrenal cortex (A) 7 k cal (B) 4·5 k cal
(D) Pituitary (C) 8 k cal (D) 38 k cal

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 883

Introduction
The leaves, stems and roots of a plant all consist of
the same meristematic, dermal, ground and vascular
tissues. Yet plants show a wide variety of forms—from a
prickly cactus to a lush vine to the majestic sunflower
(Helianthus annuus). Natural selection sculpted different
arrangements of plant tissues for better adaptations to
particular environment. A stem is the central axis of
shoot, leaves are extremely diverse photosynthetic
organs and roots anchor plants and absorb, transport and
store nutrients.
blade
Leaf
petiole
Stem
Internode
Nodes
Fig. : Organization of plant body. Roots, stems and leaves
are vegetative organs.
Leaves
Leaves are the primary photosynthetic organs of
most of the plants. These are the most diverse plant
organs and may be classified on the basis of blade struc-
ture, attachment pattern, organization around nodes and
venation. American elm may have several million leaves,
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 885
while a desert plant called Welwitschia mirabilis produces
only two leaves during its entire lifetime.
Leaves are classified according to their basic forms
as well as their arrangements on stems. Most of the
leaves consist of flattened blade and supporting, stalklike
petiole. There are four basic kinds of leaves. Simple
leaves have flat, undivided blades, compound leaves
are divided into leaflets; pinnate leaflets are paired along
a central line; and palmate leaves are all attached to one
point at the top of the petiole.
Leaves may be arranged in different patterns on
stems. Plants with one leaf per node have alternate or
spiral arrangements. Plants with two leaves per node
have opposite arrangements and plants with three or
more leaves per node have whorled arrangements. No
wonder such a variety of leaves exist with so many
variable features.
Specialized Functions of Leaves
In addition to performing photosynthesis, leaves pro-
vide support, protection and nutrient procurement and sto-
rage with the following specializations—
(i) Storage leaves—These are fleshy and store food,
e.g., onion (Allium cepa).
(ii) Spines—Spines of plant such as cacti are leaves
modified to protect the plant from predators.
(iii) Bracts—Bracts are floral leaves that protect
developing flowers. They may be colourful in certain
plants. e.g., Poinsettia .
(iv) Tendrils—These are modified leaves that wrap
around nearby objects to support climbing plants.
(v) Insect trapping leaves—Insect-trapping leaves
are found in about 200 species of carnivorous plants and
are adapted for attracting, capturing and digesting prey.
Some leaves have sticky flypaper surfaces, whereas
others form water-filled chambers that insects drawn in.
The trigger hairs of a venus flytrap respond to a visiting
insect’s movement by stimulating the two leaves to snap
together. The insect is then trapped as the leaves secrete
digestive enzymes that destroy it.
Anatomical Features of Leaves
Leaf epidermis consists of tightly packed transparent
cells. The epidermis is usually non-photosynthetic and
contains many stomata. Although plants have stomata for
gaseous exchange, they also lose large amounts of water
through them during transpiration.
Vascular tissues in leaves occur in strands called
veins. Leaf veins are often associated with thick-celled
sclerenchyma fibres for support. Also, a layer of paren-
chyma cells surrounds and supports leaf veins. Most of
the dicots have netted veins, while monocots have
usually parallel veins. Vein endings are the blind ends of
minor veins, where water and solutes move into and out
of veins. Xylem is present on the upper side of a vein and
phloem on the lower side.
Cuticle
Upper
epidermis
Palisade
mesophyII
Spongy
mesophyII
Lower
epidermis
Air
space
Chloroplasts
Stomata
Fig. : A leaf in cross section. The mesophyll areas contain different kinds of parenchyma cells.
Mesophyll, which is made up of parenchymatous
cells, is the leaf’s ground tissue. Some cells are chloren-
chymatous that produce sugars through photosynthesis.
Horizontally oriented leaves have two types of chloren-
chyma. The long columnar cells along the upper side of a
leaf, the palisade mesophyll cells, are specialized for
light absorption. Irregularly shaped chlorenchyma cells
separated by large intercellular spaces are called spongy
mesophyll cells found below the palisade layer. These
cells are specialized for gaseous exchange.
Stem
The central axis of a shoot system is the stem. The
stem of flowering plants produces leaves and if upright as
most are, supports, leaves in such a way that each one is
exposed to as much sunlight as possible. A node occurs
where leaves are attached to the stem and an internode
is the region between the nodes. The presence of nodes
and internodes is used to identify a stem even if it
happens to be an underground one. Food and water is
carried through the stems of plants.
Stem elongation normally occurs in the internodal
regions. However, some plants have stems called
rosettes that do not elongate. Rosettes have short inter-
nodes and overlapping leaves. For example, a banana
tree is a rosette as its trunk is made up of large and tightly
packed leaves.
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 886
Anatomically, surrounding the stem from outside is a
transparent, unicellular layer called epidermis. It posses-
ses stomata but fewer than the epidermis of a leaf. The
Blade Petiole
Cross-section
Xylem
Vascular
bundle
(vein)
Phloem
epidermis of stem may also possess protective tri-
chomes. Trichomes have been put into a number of
groups on the basis of their morphological characters.
Hairs constitute a very common type of trichome. The
wall of trichome is commonly of cellulose (a polymer of B
glucose) covered by cuticle.
The ground tissue that fills the area between epider-
mis and vascular tissue in a stem is called the cortex.
Some cortical cells are photosynthetic and store starch. In
plants that have concentric cylinders of xylem and
phloem, the ground storage tissue in the centre of the
stem is called pith. The pith stores the products of photo-
synthesis.
The vascular tissue system differentiates from the
procambial strands and is organised into vascular
bundles that branch into leaves at the nodes. Phloem
(the food-conducting vascular element) occurs towards
the outside of the bundle, whereas xylem (water-conduct-
ing vascular element) is found towards the inside of vas-
cular bundle.
Vascular bundles are arranged differently in different
types of plants. Familiar flowering plants are divided into
two classes—monocotyledons and dicotyledons of
which the former possesses one cotyledon and the latter
two cotyledons. Monocots such as corn have vascular
bundles scattered throughout their ground tissue, whereas
dicots such as sunflowers have a single ring of vascular
bundles. In contrast to flowering plants, pines have an
outer cylinder of phloem surrounding an inner cylinder of
xylem. A thin layer of primary meristem, called vascular
cambium, is present in between xylem and phloem. In
dicots and pines, this layer becomes lateral meristem.
Stem support leaves, produce and store food and
transport food and water between roots and leaves.
Stems may provide food for other species.
Many plants modify their stems for special functions
such as climbing, storage, protection and reproduction,
including the following structures :
(i) Tubers—These are swollen regions of stems that
store nutrients. Irish potatoes are tubers produced on
burrowing stolons. When potato is grown from eye buds,
after the plant is rooted to the soil, the lower part of its
stem is covered by earth. Axillary or adventitious
branches grow from this underground part of the stem.
(ii) Tendrils—Tendrils are shoots that support plants
by coiling around objects, sometimes attaching by their
adhesive tips. The stem tendrils of green bean plants
readily entwine around the posts a helpful gardener nuts
in the ground.
(iii) Thorns—These are often modified stems for
protection.
(iv) Succulent stems—Succulent stems of certain
plants (e.g., cacti) are fleshy and store large amount of
water.
(v) Stolons—Stolons or runners are stems that grow
along the soil surface. New plants are formed from their
nodes. Strawberry plants develop stolons after flowering
and several plants can arise from the original one.
Root
Roots have various adaptations and associations to
enhance their ability to anchor a plant, absorb water and
minerals, and store the products of photosynthesis.
Fig. : (i) Development of the Tap root System in dicots. (A) Germinating dicot seed with growing radicle. (B) Tap root
system developed out of a radicle. Fig. (ii) : Development of the Adventitious Fibrous Root System in monocots.
(A) Rice seedling showing radicle roots, seminal roots, adventitious fibrous roots and mesocotyl. (B) Rice plant
with extensive fibrous root system.
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 887
Although plants are immobile, they engage in a great deal
of biological activity, especially undergound. Roots are so
indispensable to plant growth and photosynthesis that
annual root production often consumes more than that of
a plant’s energy and may account for a substantial portion
of its body. They absorb oxygen from between soil parti-
cles; roots pushing through firmly packed soil may die for
lack of oxygen.
The radicle is the first root emerging from a seed. In
a taproot system, the radicle emerges to form a major root
that persists throughout the life of the plant. Tap roots
grow fast and deep, maximizing support and enabling a
plant to use materials located deep in the soil. The radicle
is ephemeral (short-lived) in a fibrous root system.
Adventitious roots, which form on stems or leaves,
replace the radicle. The result is an extensive system of
similarly-sized-roots. Fibrous root systems are relatively
shallow. They rapidly absorb materials near the soil sur-
face and prevent soil erosion. Most of the monocots form
fibrous root systems.
Rapidly growing roots lose as many as 10,000 cells
per day as they push through the soil. The root cap that
covers the tip of the root, protects and replaces cells. A
root cap’s meristem continually pushes cells forward. The
root cap also produces mucilage, a slimy substance that
protects root tip from desiccation. A cluster of seemingly
inactive cells called the quiescent centre is found just
behind the root cap. This region functions as a reservoir,
replacing damaged cells in the adjacent meristem. The
rest of the root, the portion above the tip, anchors the
plant in the ground. The region immediately behind the
root cap is called the subapical region. It is loosely
divided into three zones viz., zone of cellular division,
zone of cellular elongation and the zone of cellular
maturation.
 The zone of cellular division is meristematic. The
cells in this region, which surrounds the quiescent centre,
divides as rapidly as 12 to 36 hours. The zone of cellular
elongation lies behind the zones of cellular division.
Maturation and differentiation of cells occur in the
zone of cellular maturation. This is also called the root
hair zone, because here many tiny root hairs develop
from epidermal cell. Root hairs are plentiful and they
greatly increase the surface area available for absorbing
water.
The epidermis surrounds the entire root except the
root cap. Root epidermal cells either lack or have a thin
cuticle and are thus well adapted for absorbing water and
minerals. The root epidermis surrounds the entire cortex,
which consists of three layers—hypodermis, storage
parenchyma and endodermis.
The hypodermis is the outermost protective layer.
These cells form a vast collecting system that absorbs
water and minerals moving through the epidermis and
Zone of
maturation
Zone of
elongation
Zone of
cell division
Fig. : Dicot root tip : The root tip is divided into four zones, best seen in a longitudinal section such as this. The vascular
cylinder of a dicot root contains the vascular tissue. Xylem is typically star shaped and phloem lies between the
points of the star.
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 888
stores the nutrient for further growth. The innermost ring
of cortex is called endodermis.
The endodermis consists of a single layer of closely
packed living cells. Endodermal cells are characterised by
the presence of casparian strips in their radial and trans-
verse walls, which contain suberin, a waxy and water-
proof material. The endodermis can regulate the move-
ment of nutrients and water into and out of the central
vascular tissue of the root.
The pericycle which occurs beneath the endodermis,
constitutes the outer boundary of the primary vascular
cylinder of roots. In roots, the pericycle functions as the
site of origin of lateral roots. The root’s vascular tissues
are interior to the pericycle, where bundles of xylem
alternate with the bundles of phloem. In order for water to
reach the xylem, it must pass through the root.
Special Functions of Roots
(i) Adventitious roots that develop and grow in the
air called aerial roots. They are important modifications
Endodermis
Pericycle
Phloem
Xylem
Cortex
Epidermis
Root hair
Vascular
cylinder
Root cap
for mangroves, trees that typically grow in low oxygen
environments. Orchids and mistletoe are two familiar
plants that possess aerial roots.
(ii) Many roots form mutualistic associations called
mycorrhizae with beneficial fungi. The fungi absorb
nutrients from the soil, whereas the host plants provide
the fungi with vitamins or other needed substances.
1. Between the bark and the wood
in a woody stem, there is a layer
of meristem called—
(A) Apical meristem
(B) Cork cambium
(C) The zone of cell division
(D) Vascular cambium
2. The Casparian strip is found—
(A) Within the secondary wall of
parenchyma cells
(B) Between all epidermal cells
(C) On four sides of endodermal
cells
(D) Between xylem and phloem
cells
3. A leaf usually consists of—
(A) Blade
(B) Petiole
(C) Both (A) and (B)
10. Which part of a leaf carries on
(D) None of the above
4. Mesophyll containing irregular
cells bounded by air spaces is
termed—
(A) Spongy mesophyll
(B) Palisade mesophyll
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Petiole
5. Root hairs are found in the zone
of—
(A) Elongation
(B) Maturation
(C) Cell division
(D) All of the above
6. A flowering plant has three
vegetative organs. Which of the
following vegetation organs
anchors a plant, absorbs water
and store the products of photo-
synthesis ?
(A) Leaves
(B) Roots
(C) Stems
(D) None of the above
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 889
(iii) Storage is a familiar root specialization. Carrot
and beet roots store starch, desert plant roots store large
amounts of water and sweet potato roots sugar.
(iv) Pneumatophores are specialized roots that
develop in plants growing in oxygen-poor environments
(salty marshes). Some branches of taproot grow vertically
towards the air (negative geotropism) allowing oxygen to
diffuse into the plant body.
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
7. Plants with one leaf per node (C) Arbovirus
have— (D) None of the above
(A) Spiral arrangement
(B) Alternate arrangement 7. HIV has a protein coat and a
genetic material which is—
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Single stranded DNA
(D) None of the above
8. Flowering plants are divided into (B) Single stranded RNA
dicots and monocots according (C) Double stranded DNA
to the— (D) Double stranded RNA
(A) Number of floral parts
(B) Number of cotyledons in the 8. AIDS was first reported in—
seed (A) Russia (B) Germany
(C) Arrangement of vascular (C) USA (D) China
tissues
(D) All of the above 9. For which of the following
9. Which of the following parts of disease, there is preventive
vaccine ?
plant body are fleshy and store
(A) AIDS (B) Hepatitis B
large amounts of water in cacti ?
(A) Tubers (C) Syphilis (D) Gonorrhea
(B) Stolons 10. Disease vaginitis is caused by—
(C) Thorns
(A) Candida albicans
(D) Succulent stems
(B) Trichomonas vaginalis
(C) Phthirus pubis
most of the photosynthesis of a
plant ? (D) Chlamydia
(A) Epidermal layer
ANSWERS
(B) Guard cells
(C) Mesophyll
(D) None of the above
●●●
ANSWERS
(Continued from Page 884 )
●●●
(Continued from Page 875 )
4. Large sores called gummas are
associated with—
(A) First stage of Syphilis
(B) Second stage of Syphilis
(C) Third stage of Syphilis
(D) All stages of Syphilis
5. Drug Acyclovir is used for the
treatment of—
(A) Herpes (B) Gonorrhea
(C) AIDS (D) Genital warts
6. HIV belongs to a group of virus
known as—
(A) Retrovirus
(B) Papilloma virus ●●●
Introduction
● Fats or lipids are best described as a diverse groups of
organic compounds found in plants, animals and micro-
organisms.
● Fats and certain other compounds, more or less
densely closely related, are often called lipids.
● Lipids made by cells are important not only because
they serve as an energy source but also because they
form the structural components.
● Fats are produced in all actively metabolising plant
cells and serve a number of indispensable roles in
plants, particularly as reserve food substances.
● Fats, such as olive oil, contain a mixture of fatty subs-
tances called triglycerides.
● The proportion of the lipids in food-stuffs varies from
0·2% in white potatoes to 70% in some nut kernels.
● Characteristically, they are greasy to touch and in-
soluble in water but soluble in ether, alcohol, acetone
and other organic solvents.
Simple Classification of Lipids in Plants
1. Simple Lipids :
● Simple lipids are esters of fatty acids with alcohol.
These are of following types :
(a) Fats :
● Fats are esters of fatty acids with glycerol, i.e., fatty
acids are esterified with glycerol to form triglyceri-
des.
● These are true fats and are indispensable as reserve
food material and as a source of energy in living cells.
(b) Waxes :
● Waxes are esters of higher aliphatic acids with long
chain of alcohol other than glycerols.
● These are important components of cuticle of epider-
mal cell walls.
● Waxes have been isolated from the outer layer of
bacteria, leaves, roots, stems, fruits and flowers of
plants.
● Waxes are solid at 20° C; crystalline; melt above 40 ° C
without decomposition; have consistency and solubility
properties that strongly depend upon temperature.
● Candelilla wax is obtained from a coating on stem of
Euphorbia antisyphilitica, a leafless desert shrub.
● Carnauba wax is extracted from an exudate on the
leaves of the carnauba palm. (Copernicia prunifera).
2. Compound Lipids :
● Compound lipids are esters of fatty acids containing
groups in addition to alcohol and fatty acid radicals. It
may be of the following types—
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 890
(a) Phospholipids :
● Phospholipids are lipids containing a phosphate group.
● The commonest type is formed when one of the
—OH groups of glycerol combines with phosphoric
acid instead of a fatty acid. The other two groups
combine with fatty acids as in the formation of a
triglyceride.
● Lecithin, the best known among phospholipids in plant
cells, is an essential structural material for living cell
membrane, where it maintains continuity between the
water and lipid phases inside and outside the cell. The
function of certain enzymes depend upon their attach-
ment to lipids such as lecithin.
(b) Galactolipids :
● Galactolipids are major lipid constituent of green leaf
tissue of plants.
● Monogalactosyl diglyceride and diglactosyl diglyceride
are commonly occurring galactolipids in chloroplasts.
Fatty Acids
● The fatty acids of naturally occurring lipids have even
number of carbon (C) atoms because they are
synthesized from acetyl groups, each of which con-
tains two carbon (2-C) atoms.
● Two typical fatty acids are palmitic and oleic fatty
acids.
● Fatty acids with 16 (palmitic acid) and 18 (stearic acid)
carbon atoms are most commonly found in nature.
Saturated Fatty Acids
● Fatty acids and lipids lacking double bonds (C —
— C)
are said to be saturated.
● Typical naturally occurring saturated fatty acids are
chainlike (Non-branched) compound with an even
number of carbon atoms.
● Several important short chain fatty acids including
butyric acid (4C-atoms), caproic acid (6C-atoms),
octanoic acid (8C-atoms) and decanoic acid (10C-
atoms), are present in palm oil.
Major Saturated Plant Fatty Acids
Common Name Number of C-atoms
Behenic acid 22
Arachidic acid 20
Stearic acid 18
Palmitic acid 16
Myristic acid 14
Lauric acid 12
Unsaturated Fatty Acids
● Fatty acids sometimes containing one or more double
bonds (C —
— C), such as oleic acid, are said to be
unsaturated.
● Fatty acids with one double bond are called mono-
unsaturated fatty acids, those with two or more double
bonds are called polyunsaturated ones.
● Monounsaturated fatty acid comprises the largest
group of unsaturated fatty acids.
● Unsaturated fatty acids melt at much lower tem-
peratures than saturated fatty acids. Oleic acid, for
example, is the chief constituent of olive oil and is
liquid at normal temperature (melting point 13·4 ° C).
Major Unsaturated Fatty Acids of Plant
Common Name No. of C-atoms
Palmitic acid 16
Oleic acid 18
Linoleic acid 18
α-Linoleic acid 18
Erucic acid 22
Distribution of Fats in Plants
● Fats are widely distributed throughout the plant
kingdom.
● Fats are especially found in abundance in reproductive
tissue (e.g., seeds and fruits) of certain higher plants
where they form important reserve food material, such
as in the cotyledons of sunflower, rape (Brassica
napus ) peanuts (Arachis hypogaea) almonds (Prunus
amygdalus ) and mesocarp of avocado pear (Persea
americana).
● Carnauba wax is found in the leaves of carnauba
palm (Cropernicia prunifera).
● Certain cereal seeds, such as wheat and barley
(Hordeum distichon) which store starch as chief
reserve food in their endosperm, have rich fat content
in their aleurone cell layers.
Breakdown of Fatty Acids
1. α-oxidation :
● The long chain of fatty acid with the help of α-
oxidation is broken down until it is reduced to 12-
carbon atoms.
● Fatty acids with less than 13C-atoms are not
affected by this process.
α-oxidation occurs in the following sequential
reactions (steps)—
(i) The fatty acid, in presence of enzyme fatty acid
peroxidase and hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), is
oxidatively decarboxylated to form an aldehyde.
In this step, CO2 comes from carboxylic group
and oxidation occurs at α-carbon atom which is
converted to an aldehyde group.
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 891
(ii) The aldehyde, in presence of enzyme fatty
aldehyde dehydrogenase, is further oxidised to
form the new fatty acid containing one less
carbon atom than in the original fatty acid.
NAD+ is reduced in this reaction. The new fatty
acid is oxidised again and again till it reduced to
12C-atoms.
Aldehyde dehydrogenase
Aldehyde ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ New fatty acid
NAD + H2O + NADH + H+
2. β-oxidation :
● β-oxidation is the principal method of fatty acid
degradation in plants.
● This process occurs in mitochondria (and also in
glyoxysomes) and involves successive removal of
2C in the form of acetyl CoA molecule from the
carboxyl end of fatty acid.
● Because β-carbon (i.e., carbon atom number 3) of
the fatty acid is oxidised, it is called β-oxidation
which involves the following sequential reactions—
(i) The first reaction involves the activation of fatty
acid in presence of an enzyme thiokinase and
ATP. CoASH is consumed and CoA-derivative
of fatty acid is produced.
Thiokinase
Fatty acid + CoASH ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Fatty acid CoA
ATP + Mg2+ + AMP + PPi
The AMP (Adenosine monophosphate), thus
produced, reacts with another ATP molecule to
form 2 molecules of ADP in presence of enzyme
adenylate kinase .
Adenylate kinase
AMP + ATP 2ADP
(ii) In this reaction, two H-atoms are removed
between α- and β-carbons, as a result, α, β-
unsaturated fatty acyl CoA is formed in
presence of FAD-containing enzyme acyl-CoA
dehydrogenase.
(iii) This stage of reaction involves the addition of a
water molecule across the double bond to form
corresponding β-hydroxyacyl-CoA in presence
of enzyme enol hydrase .
(iv) β-hydroxyacyl-CoA is dehydrogenated in
presence of enzyme NAD-specific β-hydroxy-
acyl-CoA dehydrogenase. Two H-atoms are
removed from the β-carbon atom (β-oxidation)
which now bears a carbonyl function and β-keto
fatty acyl-CoA is formed.
(v) The final stage involves the thioclastic cleavage
of β-keto fatty acyl-CoA in presence of enzyme
β-keto acyl thiolase to form active 2-C unit
acetyl-CoA and a fatty acyl-CoA molecule.
The fatty acyl-CoA, so produced, reenters the
β-oxidation losing further 2C units. The
sequence continues until whole molecule is
degraded.

Should be Known
● Each turn of β-oxidation generates 5 ATPs.
However, in the first turn there is a consumption of
2ATPs in the reaction of step (i) and hence, in this
turn there isa net gain of only 3 ATPs.
● Each turn of β -oxidation generates one FADH2
[reaction number (ii)].
● A huge amount of energy is generated in the form of
ATP by mitochondrial oxidation of fatty acids
through β-oxidation and TCA cycle (Tricarboxylic
acid cycle). For example, one molecule of palmitic
acid (16C-atoms) on complete oxidation produces
129 ATP molecules.
● In the last turn of β-oxidation, spiral, two acetyl-CoA
molecules are produced.
● The oxidation of long chain fatty acids to acetyl-CoA
is a central energy yielding pathway in animals,
many protists and some bacteria.
● Although most naturally occurring lipids contain fatty
acids with an even number of carbon atoms, fatty
acids with an odd number of carbons are found in
significant amounts in the lipids of many plants and
some marine organisms.
Fatty Acids Biosynthesis
● When fatty acid oxidation was found to occur by
oxidative removal of successive two-carbon (acetyl-
CoA) units, biochemists thought that the biosynthesis
of fatty acids might proceed by simple reversal of the
same enzymatic steps used in their oxidation.
However, fatty acid biosynthesis and breakdown occur
by different pathways, are catalysed by different sets
of enzymes, and take place in different parts of the
cell. Moreover, a three-carbon intermediate, malonyl-
CoA, participates in the biosynthesis of fatty acids but
not in their breakdown.
● Long chain fatty acids are synthesized in plants from
active two-carbon units, the acetyl-CoA.
● Synthesis of fatty acids from acetyl-CoA occurs in
sequential steps and takes place in the cytosol at the
endoplasmic reticulum. In each step the fatty acid
chain is increased by 2C-atoms. Each step involves
the following two reactions—
(i) In the first reaction, acetyl-CoA combines with CO 2
in presence of an enzyme acetyl-CoA carboxylase to form
malonyl-CoA. Mn 2+ and biotin are required as cofactors,
while ATP provides energy during this reaction.
Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase
Acetyl-CoA + CO2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Malonyl-CoA
ATP + Mn2+ + Biotin + ADP + Pi
(ii) Malonyl-CoA reacts with another molecule of
acetyl-CoA to form butyryl-CoA (Coenzyme-A derivative
of butyric acid). This reaction occurs in presence of
enzyme fatty acid synthetase and coenzyme NADPH2.
Fatty acid synthetase
Malonyl-CoA + Acetyl-CoA ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
2NAPH 2
Butyryl-CoA + CO2 + H2O + 2NADP
Butyryl-CoA, in the next step, reacts with malonyl-
CoA to form CoA-derivative of fatty acid containing six
carbon atoms. This process is repeated till coenzyme-A
derivative of long chain fatty acid (which may contain upto
18 carbon atoms) is formed.
The reaction (ii) described above summarises a
number of reactions, involved in the synthesis of fatty acid
from acetyl-CoA and malonyl-CoA, which can be grouped
in the following heads—
(a) Initiation reaction—In this case acetyl-CoA
transfers acetyl group to one of the – SH group of
multienzyme complex, i.e., fatty acid synthetase.
(b) Elongation and termination reaction—When
fatty acid residue has attained the desired length, the
chain elongation stops and the cycle is not repeated. The
acyl group instead of being transferred to the —SH of the
enzyme is transferred to —SH group of Coenzyme-A
(CoASH). Thus, CoA derivative of fatty acid is produced.
Small amount of longer fatty acids, such as stearate
(18 : 0) are also formed. In certain plants (e.g., coconut
and palm) chain termination occurs earlier, upto 90% of
the fatty acids in the oils of these plants are between 8
and 14 carbons long.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. In which of the following organic (C) Lignoceric acid 4. Fatty acid molecules containing
or inorganic compounds, lipids one or more double bonds
(D) All of the above
are soluble ? (—HC —— CH—) are called—
(A) Alcohol 3. In the photosynthetic cells of (A) Stearic acid
(B) Water plants, fatty acid synthesis (B) Saturated fatty acids
occurs— (C) Unsaturated fatty acids
(C) Ether
(D) In alcohol and ether (A) In the cytosol (D) Both (B) and (C)
(B) In the chloroplast stroma 5. The energy in fatty acid molecule
2. Which of the following is/are
(C) On the inner membrane of is transferred into ATP by a
saturated fatty acid(s) ?
process known as—
(A) Palmitic acid mitochondria
(A) Reduction of fatty acid
(B) Myristic acid (D) In all of the above (Continued on Page 895 )

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 892

Introduction
The chemicals found in living organisms are derived
originally from the abiotic components of ecosystems,
such as soil, water and air, to which they eventually return
by way of decomposition of the waste products or dead
bodies of organisms. Bacteria and fungi bring about
decomposition, obtaining energy from the waste products
and dead organisms in the process. Thus a constant
cycling of the chemical materials needed by living orga-
nisms occurs within an ecosystem. Since both living and
non-living parts of ecosystem are involved in these chemi-
cal cycles they are called biogeochemical cycles.
Components of Biogeochemical Cycles
For each element the cycling process involves the
following components—
● A reservoir—That portion of the earth that acts as a
storehouse for the element.
● An exchange pool—That portion of the environment
from which the producers take their nutrients.
● Biotic community—Through which chemicals move
along food chains to and from the exchange pool.
Water (Hydrologic) Cycle
Water cycle is important because water is an
essential constituent of all living beings. Water covers
much of the earth’s surface, primarily as ocean, but also
as rivers, streams, ponds, lakes, groundwater, etc. It is
water’s unique ability to be present in all three states of
matter—solid (ice), liquid and gas (vapours)—that allows
it to efficiently cycle from the earth’s surface to the
atmosphere and back again.
77 84
Evaporation
Precipitation
from ocean Transpiration
into ocean
Ocean
SSuurrfa
7
Ground water
Figures in diagram based on Total water
mean annual global
precipitation of 100 units
Oceans 97%
Fresh water 3%
Fig. : The hydrological cycle and water storage.
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 893
The sun’s energy heats the surface of a body of
water, causing evaporation. The water vapour then rises
with the warmed air and forms clouds in the atmosphere.
When air currents move these clouds over land or over
cold water the vapour condenses, forming water droplets.
Depending on the temperature and atmospheric pressure,
the droplets fall back to earth as rain, snow, fog, hail, or
sleet. Some precipitation falls back into the oceans, but
most of it falls on land, where it is soaked into the ground
and porous rock to become groundwater.
Plants absorb some groundwater, use it, and release
some of it from their leaves in the process of transpiration,
recycling it to the atmosphere. Water in the ground and
porous rocks creates an aquifer and water table, which
consists of water trapped between the surface and
impervious rocks. This underground water moves to wells
and springs and becomes available to many species use.
Spring water may evaporate or form streams which
eventually return to the ocean, perpetuating the cycle.
Carbon Cycle
The main carbon store is the estimated 75 million
billion tonnes in the earth’s rocks. A further 5000 billion
tonnes are found in fossil fuel reservoirs : coal, gas, oil
and peat and about 150 billion tonnes are held in the
uppermost ocean bed sediments. They represent the
main carbon reservoirs, however, these carbon sources
are not normally available to living organisms.
The main carbon source for living organisms is CO 2
present in the atmosphere or dissolved in surface waters.
In photosynthesis green plants, algae and blue-green
bacteria convert CO 2 to simple carbohydrates, the build-
ing blocks for all other organic molecules. This conversion
of CO 2 in photosynthesis and the counterbalancing
7
16
(Evapotranspiration) 23 Precipitation
Evaporation over land
from land, ice
lakes and
rivers
faccee rruunn--ooffff ttoo oocceeaann
Soil
Bedrock
Fresh water
Ice sheets and glaciers 75%
Ground water 25% } to nearest whole %
Lakes 0.3%
Soil moisture 0.06%
Atmosphere 0.035%
Rivers 0.03%
release of CO2 in respiration, is an important mechanism on climate. The balance is also affected by human acti-
helping to maintain the balance of the natural carbon vities, notably by changing land-use as in deforestation or
cycle. However, not all CO2 fixed is returned to the atmos- reforestation, using of fossil fuels and in cement manufac-
phere by respiration. turing.
In oceans, the main removal mechanisms taking CO 2 Phosphorus Cycle
from the atmosphere are photosynthesis and dissolving in The weathering of rocks on land makes phosphate
surface waters. Much of this CO2 is quickly released back
ions available to plants which take it up from the soil.
into the atmosphere, either directly from the water or by Some of this phosphate (PO 4= and HPO4= ) run off into
respiration. However, as in terrestrial ecosystems, some aquatic ecosystems where algae take phosphate up from
CO2 is locked away for a longer time, such as when cool
the water before it becomes trapped in sediments. Phos-
surface waters sink below warmer currents, or when phate in sediments become available only when a geolo-
marine organisms form carbonate shells. gical upheaval exposes sedimentary rocks to weathering
60
Atmosphere once more. Phosphorus does not enter the atmosphere,
750
io
n therefore, the phosphorus cycle is called a sedimentary
ct 1.4 .66
du 6 11.
pr
o cycle.
y e
ar on us 90
90 5.5
ir m rati nd
p i l a Humans Influence the Phosphorus Cycle
et sp g
l n re in
● Phosphorus is a vital component of genetic material, ATP
ba nd a ng Fossil fuels and
lo a h
G C cement production and the phospholipids of membranes.
5

Vegetation 610 ● Human beings boost the supply of phosphate by mining

0.

soils and detritus 1580

2190 phosphate ores for fertilizer production, animal feed sup-
plements and detergents.
92 ● Phosphate ore is slightly radioactive and, therefore, mining
Surface ocean phosphate poses a health threat to all organisms even
1020
10 those that do the mining. Also, only a portion of this land
50 0
40 has been properly reclaimed and the rest is subject to
Marine biota severe soil erosion.
91
3 4 .6 ● Run-off of animals wastes from livestock feedlots and
6 commercial fertilizers from cropland as well as discharge
Intermediate and
DOC
6
deep ocean of untreated and treated municipal sewage can all add
< 700 38100 excess phosphate to nearby waters. Then an excess
0.2 growth of algae, called an algal bloom, may result.
Surface sediment
150 Nitrogen Cycle
Fig. : Global carbon reservoirs and flows at the present Nitrogen makes about 78% of the atmosphere by
day. Units are 109 tonnes of carbon for reservoir volume, yet nitrogen deficiency commonly limits plant
sizes and 109 tonnes of carbon per year for flows. growth. Plants cannot incorporate nitrogen into organic
In practice rates of carbon exchange between the compounds and, therefore, depend upon various types of
active cycling pools can vary from year to year depending bacteria to make nitrogen available to them.

Fig. : Nitrogen cycle. 78% by volume of the atmosphere is nitrogen. This is the main nitrogen reservoir.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 894

 Nitrifying bacteria convert ammonia from dead
organisms to nitrites (NO2). Then other nitrifying bacteria
convert nitrite to nitrates (NO3), compounds that plant can
use and then pass on to animals. Finally, nitrogen returns
to the atmosphere when denitrifying bacteria convert
ammonia, nitrites and nitrates to nitrogen gas.
The enzyme nitrogenase enables nitrogen-fixing
bacteria to convert nitrogen to nitrogen-containing
compounds. Because oxygen inactivates this enzyme,
nitrogen-fixing microbes are typically anaerobic. For
example Rhizobium bacteria live in nodules on the roots
of legumes such as beans, peas and clover. Humans
contribute to the cycle by using nitrogen to produce nitrate
for fertilizers.
Biogeochemical cycles involve elements essential to
life. The nonessential elements pass back and forth
between organisms and environment and many of them
are involved in the general sedimentary cycle.
Worth-Remembering
● Biogeochemical cycles show the more or less circular
paths of chemical elements passing back and forth bet-
ween organisms and environment.
● The rate at which vital elements become available to bio-
logical components of the ecosystem is more important in
determining primary and secondary productivity than
flow of solar energy.
● If an essential element or compound is in short supply in
terms of potential growth, the substance may be said to be
a limiting factor.
● The productivity of an entire ecosystem is sometimes limi-
ted by one material available in least amount in terms of
need. Thus water limits the desert ecosystem and nitro-
gen or phosphorus often limits ocean ecosystems.
● From the standpoint of the biosphere as a whole, biogeo-
chemical cycles fall into two groups—the gaseous type
cycles, as illustrated by nitrogen cycle; and the sedimen-
tary type cycle involving movement of the more earthbound
elements.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following contri- (C) Aquifers 6. Lipids or fats are a diverse group
butes to the carbon cycle ? (D) All of the above of organic compounds found in—
(A) Photosynthesis 6. Which of the following processes (A) Micro-organisms
(B) Fossil fuel combustion maintain(s) the stable water (B) Plants
(C) Respiration balance on the earth ? (C) Animals
(D) All of the above (A) Evaporation (D) All of the above
2. Since the pathway by which (B) Precipitation
chemicals circulate through eco- (C) Surface run off 7. Triglycerides are sometimes
systems involve both living and (D) All of the above called—
nonliving areas, they are known 7. Nitrification is the production of— (A) Enzymes
as— (B) Cofactors
(A) Nitrates (B) Nitrites
(A) Biogeochemical cycle (C) Nature’s storehouse of
(C) Nitrogen (D) Ammonium
(B) Nutrient cycle energy
(C) Ecosystem 8. In the phosphorus cycle, weathe-
(D) All of the above
(D) Autecology ring makes phosphate available
to— 8. Palmitoleic fatty acid is obtained
3. For each element or chemical, from—
(A) Consumers directly
the biogeochemical cycling pro-
(B) Producers (A) Pine oil
cess involves—
(C) Reservoirs (B) Olive oil
(A) A reservoir
(D) None of the above (C) Marine algae
(B) An exchange pool
(C) Biotic community 9. The main nitrogen reservoir in (D) Marine algae and pine oil
(D) All of the above the biosphere is the— 9. Which one of the following is a
(A) Organisms (B) Atmosphere
4. How do plants contribute to the polyunsaturated fatty acid ?
(C) Rocks (D) Ocean
carbon cycle ? (A) Erucic acid
10. Phosphorus cycles in the form (B) Linoleic acid
(A) When they photosynthesize,
of—
they consume CO 2 from the (C) Oleic acid
(A) PO43– (B) HPO 3–
atmosphere (D) All of the above
(C) P2 (a gas) (D) All of these
(B) When they respire, they
release CO2 into the atmos- 10. How many fatty acids are found
ANSWERS in each molecule of triglyceride ?
phere
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct (A) Three (B) Four
(D) They do not contribute to the (C) One (D) Six
●●●
carbon cycle
(Continued from Page 892 ) ANSWERS
5. During water cycle, water falls on
land enters the— (B) β-oxidation
(A) Ground water (C) α-oxidation
(B) Surface water (D) Both (A) and (B) ●●●

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 895


1. Two quite distinct designs of
cells are recognised. One, the
prokaryotic plan, is found in—
(A) True algae
(B) All bacteria
(C) Blue-green algae
(D) Both (B) and (C)
2. Electron transport systems—
(A) Are involved in the produc-
tion of ATP
(B) Are found in both mitochon-
dria and chloroplasts
(C) Release energy as electrons
are transferred
(D) All of the above are correct
3. Marine algae flourished well
during the period—
(A) Ordovician (B) Devonian
(C) Permian (D) Triassic
4. Massive trees in cold climates
survive the physical drought of
winter by having—
(A) No leaves at all
(B) Xeromorphic leaves
(C) Hydromorphic leaves
(D) None of the above
5. The kigndoms–Monera, Protista,
Fungi, Plantae and Animalia are
distinguished on the basis of—
(A) Type of reproduction
(B) Type of cell
(C) Type of nutrition
(D) All of the above
6. In a section through a leaf of
maize both upper and lower
epidermal layers are—
(A) Biseriate
(B) Uniseriate
(C) Multiseriate
(D) All of the above
7. Match Column A (Common
name) with Column B (Botanical
name) and select the correct
answer from the choice given
below—
Column A (Common Name)
(a) Black gram (Urd)
(b) Green gram (Moong)
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 896
(C) Mechanical support
(D) All of the above
13. Treeless terrestrial biome of cold
climates is—
(A) Taiga (B) Savana
(C) Tundra (D) Plankton
(c) Lentil (Masur)
14. Just behind the root cap is a
(d) Broad bean (Bakla) cluster of seemingly inactive cells
Column B (Botanical Name) called the—
(A) Quiescent centre
1. Phaseolus mungo
(B) Central core
2. Lens culinaris
(C) Dehiscent zone
3. Vicia faba
(D) Indehiscent zone
4. Phaseolus aureus
(a) (b) (c) (d) 15. A phenotypic effect dependent
on a change in position on the
(A) 1 4 2 3
chromosome of a gene or group
(B) 1 3 2 4 of genes is termed as—
(C) 4 3 2 1 (A) Segregation
(D) 4 2 3 1 (B) Recombination
8. In many cells the regulation of (C) Position effect
microtubule assembly is under (D) Variation
the control of the microtubule
16. In the conversion of pyruvic acid
organizing centre, called the—
to acetyl-coenzyme A, pyruvic
(A) Plasma membrane acid is—
(B) Nucleus (A) Broken into carbon frag-
(C) Plasmodesmata ments
(D) Centrosome (B) Isomerized
(C) Oxidized
9. Field capacity is—
(D) Reduced
(A) Higher for sandy soils than
clay soils 17. Which of the following enzymes
recognizes particularly common
(B) The amount of water in soil
DNA lesions ?
available to plants
(A) DNA polymerase
(C) The same as permanent
(B) DNA glycolysase
wilting point
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) The amount of water left in
the soil after drainage (D) Nitrate reductase
18. The maintenance and growth of
10. Who among the following intro- plant cells, tissues and organs on
duced the term ‘pure line’ for the a suitable culture medium in vitro
first time ? is termed—
(A) Swamminathan (A) Tissue culture
(B) Johannsen (B) Explant
(C) Borlaug (C) Centrifugation
(D) Blakeslee (D) Regeneration
11. The conversion of nitrate to 19. The factors that govern the
nitrous oxide and nitrogen gas is hydrology of arid regions are—
termed as— (A) Climatic
(A) Nitrogen fixation (B) Topographic
(B) Denitrification (C) Geologic
(C) Nitrification (D) All of the above
(D) None of the above 20. How many ascospores are con-
tained in a single ascus in ascus-
12. Xylem in higher plants is instru-
mental for— fungi ?
(A) Conduction of water (A) 1 or 2 (B) 2 or 3
(B) Conduction of solutes (C) 3 or 4 (D) 4 or 8
21. Raphides are needle-like crystals
of calcium oxalate which are
specially found in—
(A) Pistia (B) Rose
(C) Asparagus (D) Dahlia
22. Which of the following would you
not expect to be a biotechnology
product ?
(A) DNA probe
(B) Steroid hormone
(C) Modified enzyme
(D) Protein hormone
23. Who proposed the ‘signal hypo-
thesis’ meant for the bio-
synthesis of secretory type
of proteins ?
(A) Baltimore
(B) Blobel and Sabatini
(C) Camillo Golgi
(D) Sheeler and Bianchi
24. In thallophyta, the thallus gene-
rally consists of—
(A) Single cell
(B) Filament of cells
(C) Interwining filaments
(D) All of the above
25. The method most frequently
used to determine the molecular
weight of proteins is—
(A) Classical chemistry
(B) X-ray diffraction
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Ultracentrifugation
26. The edible part of peach fruit is—
(A) Endocarp
(B) Fleshy thalamus
(C) Epicarp and mesocarp
(D) Fleshy aril
27. Which of the following is grouped
under phanerogams ?
(A) Pteridophytes
(B) Gymnosperms
(C) Angiosperms
(D) Both (B) and (C)
28. Hymenopterous flowers are polli-
nated by—
(A) Bees
(B) Wasps
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Air and water
29. Pinguicula is commonly known
as—
(A) Sundew
(B) Butterwort
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 897
(C) Venus fly-trap 37. T. Schwann and M. Schleiden
(D) Bird’s nest orchid were—
(A) Two English biologists
30. A molecule that binds to a
(B) Two German biologists
repressor, allowing the repressor
to bind to an operator in a (C) Two Austrian biologists
repressible operon is termed— (D) Two Dutch biologists
(A) Promoter 38. Autumn wood can be distin-
(B) Operator guished from spring wood by—
(C) Corepressor (A) Red colour of xylem
(D) None of the above (B) Presence of cambium
(C) Narrow vessels and
31. During photosynthesis energy
capturing reactions and synthe- tracheids
sis reactions occur respectively (D) Broad vessels and tracheids
in—
39. In protein synthesis, translation
(A) Thylakoids and stroma requires—
(B) Stroma and thylakoids
(A) Initiation of translation
(C) Both occur in stroma (B) Chain elongation
(D) Both occur in thylakoids (C) Chain termination
32. The study of how plants obtain (D) All of the above
mineral elements, either through
40. Forest destruction leads to—
water, air or soil, and utilize them
(A) Loss of medicinal plant
for their growth and development,
is called the— (B) Loss of carbon dioxide sink
(C) Loss of biodiversity
(A) Mineral nutrition
(B) Autotrophism (D) All of the above
(C) Heterotrophism 41. A terminal bud contains—
(D) Assimilation (A) Nodes only
33. According to their mode of nutri- (B) Internodes only
tion, the fungi are classified (C) Leaf primordia
into— (D) All of the above
(A) One category
42. Britten and Davidson are associ-
(B) Two categories
ated with—
(C) Four categories
(A) Phototropism invention
(D) Six categories
(B) Eukaryotic cell structure
34. Who among the following scien- (C) Eukaryotic gene regulation
tists pointed out that the plants
(D) Genetic engineering in trans-
obtain a part of their nutrition
genic plants
from the air and also suggested
that sunlight may play a role in 43. Deoxytosine monophosphate is
it ? a nucleotide of—
(A) Ingenhousz (B) Mayer (A) RNA
(C) Sachs (D) Hales (B) DNA
35. The energy derived from enzyme (C) Both RNA and DNA
substrate interaction is called— (D) None of the above
(A) Constant energy 44. Caryophyllaceous corolla is found
(B) Variable energy in—
(C) Binding energy (A) Dianthus
(D) Activation energy (B) Campestris
36. Oxygen evolved during photo- (C) Rose
synthesis comes from— (D) All of the above
(A) Photolysis of water (H 2O) 45. Which of the following is a living
(B) Soil atmosphere mechanical tissue ?
(C) CO2 (A) Chlorenchyma
(D) All of the above (B) Collenchyma
 (C) Sclerenchyma
(D) Parenchyma
46. In coconut, the dispersal is due to
fibrous—
(A) Epicarp
(B) Mesocarp
(C) Curved hooks
(D) Endocarp
47. When a fungus is able to pass its
complete life cycle on one host it
is called—
(A) Autoecious
(B) Heterosporous
(C) Heterothallism
(D) Heteroecious
48. The leucoplasts are—
(A) Green plastids
(B) Red plastids
(C) Colourless plastids
(D) Any type of colours (pig-
ments)
49. During which stage of lytic cycle,
viral DNA and capsids are
assembled to produce several
hundred viral particles ?
(A) Biosynthesis (B) Maturation
(C) Penetration (D) Attachment
50. The sulphur-containing amino
acids are—
(A) Methionine and tyrosine
(B) Cysteine and glycine
(C) Glycine and tyrosine
(D) Methionine and cysteine

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

(Continued on Page 908 )

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 898

 14. The multilayered dermatogen in
root apex forming the root cap is
called—
(A) Histogen (B) Periblem
(C) Protoderm (D) Calyptrogen
15. Plants, such as clover and
1. Match Column A (Botanical 6. The world’s fastest-growing tree beans, that have nitrogen fixing
name of certain insectivorous is— bacteria in their roots are in
plants) with Column B (Common (A) Sequoiadendron giganteum which of the following families ?
names) then select the correct (B) Eucalyptus deglupta (A) Asteraceae
answer from the options given
(C) Corypha umbraculifera (B) Leguminosae
below—
(D) Albizzia falcata (C) Solanaceae
Column A
7. In which of the following plants (D) None of the above
(a) Drosera
(b) Dionoea the whole leaf is modified into 16. A cell-coded protein, that is for-
tendril ? med in response to viral infec-
(c) Utricularia
(A) Lathyrus tion, is—
(d) Nepenthes
(B) Pisum (A) Antibody (B) Antigen
Column B (C) Histogen (D) Interferon
(C) Both (A) and (B)
1. Pitcher plant 17. Some chromosomes are distin-
(D) Gloriosa
2. Sundew guished by blob-like ends
8. Restorer gene for fertility is pre-
3. Bladerwort called—
sent in—
4. Venus’ fly-trap (A) Euchromatin
(A) Nucleus (B) Ribosomes
(a) (b) (c) (d) (B) Heterochromatin
(C) ER (D) Polyribosomes (C) Centromeres
(A) 2 4 3 1
9. Unity of life is explained easily (D) Satellites
(B) 2 3 4 1 by— 18. Which of the following state-
(C) 3 4 2 1 (A) Ecosystem ments is/are correct regarding
(D) 4 3 2 1 (B) Eutrophication restriction fragment length poly-
2. Genes not located within the morphisms ?
(C) Mutation
nucleus are almost always found (A) They can be subjected to
(D) Descent from a common get electrophoresis
in the— ancestor
(B) They identify individuals
(A) Cytosol
10. Bacteria do not possess— genetically
(B) Cell membranes (C) They are the basis for DNA
(A) Mitochondria
(C) Cytoskeleton fingerprints
(B) Plasma membrane
(D) Both (B) and (C) (D) All of the above
(C) Cell wall
3. Which of the following elements 19. Microsomes are generally pro-
(D) All of the above duced from—
are essential for photolysis of
water ? 11. Carnauba wax is found in— (A) Golgi apparatus
(A) Ca and Cl (A) Prunus amygladus (B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Brassica napus (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Mg and P
(D) None of the above
(C) Mn and Cl (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above 20. Special proteins that help to un-
(D) Zn and Iodine wind DNA double helix in front of
12. Small dry one-seeded fruit deve- the replication fork, are called—
4. In an upright pyramid of biomass,
loping from superior monocarpe- (A) DNA ligase
the herbivores generally occupy
llary ovary with the pericarp
the position— (B) DNA topoisomerase
fused with seed coat is called—
(A) First (B) Second (C) DNA polymerase
(A) Caryopsis (B) Nut
(C) Third (D) Fourth (D) None of the above
(C) Cypsela (D) Achene
5. Fleshy adventitious roots are 21. In plants, bacteria and fungi, the
13. ‘Floridian starch’ is the reserve proton pump in cells creates a
found in— food material of— negative membrane potential by
(A) Onion and potato (A) Claviceps transporting which ion from the
(B) Turnip and wheat (B) Cyanobacteria cytoplasm to extracellular fluid ?
(C) Sweet potato and Dahlia (C) Volvox (A) Na + (B) Ca 2+
(C) K + (D) H+
(D) Carrot and radish (D) None of the above

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 899

22. Enzymes which catalyse reac- 29. Greenhouse effect is chiefly due (C) Inorganic gases, nucleo-
tions involving electron transfer to— tides, nucleic acids, genes
are called— (A) NO2 (B) CO2 (D) Both (B) and (C)
(A) Ligases (C) CO (D) FeS 2 37. The unit to measure the distance
(B) Transferases 30. The bending of the stem tip in chromosome is—
(C) Hydrolases towards the unilateral light is (A) Nanometer
(D) Oxidoreductases because— (B) Cm
(A) Higher concentration of (C) Mm
23. The determination of climatic
auxin on the shaded side (D) Centimorgan
conditions of the geological past
by study of the fossils is called— (B) Gibberellins get destroyed 38. Which of the following structures
(C) Translocation of gibberellin of bacteria is associated with
(A) Sedimentology
cannot occur DNA transfer during sexual
(B) Palaeontology (D) Plant cannot synthesize reproduction ?
(C) Palaeoecology gibberellin (A) Sex pili
(D) None of the above 31. The term oenology is applied for (B) Capsule
the study of— (C) Mesosome
24. Enzymes with two sites are
called— (A) Drugs (B) Olefins (D) None of the above
(C) Fermentation (D) Wines 39. The chemical fertilizer required
(A) Conjugate
32. Which one of the following alter- for better rhizobial nitrogen fixa-
(B) Allosteric
natives represents the gameto- tion is—
(C) Holoenzyme phytic phase in Pinus ? (A) Ca (B) Na
(D) Apoenzyme (A) Zygote (C) K (D) P
25. Honey, that has a high concen- (B) Male and female cones 40. Which of the following is a free
tration of sugar, does not decay (C) Pinus plant living nitrogen-fixing organism ?
because— (D) Microspores and megas- (A) Rhizobium
pores
(A) Bacteria in honey are totally (B) Thiobacillus
deprived of oxygen 33. Crossing-over is an exchange of (C) Nitrosomonas
(B) It contains natural antioxi- genetic material between—
(D) Azotobacter
dant that prevents bacterial (A) Non-sister chromatids of bi-
valent during meiosis-II 41. For each molecule of glucose
attack
(B) Sister chromatids of a biva- respired, tricarboxylic acid cycle
(C) Bacteria do not survive in must rotate—
an active state in a solution lent during meiosis-I
(C) Non-sister chromatids of bi- (A) Five times
of high osmotic strength, as
water is drawn out from valent during meiosis-I (B) Three times
bacteria (D) Sister chromatids of biva- (C) Two times
(D) Honey is viscous lents during both meiosis-I (D) Six times as glucose is a 6-
and-II carbon compound
26. Which of the following is/are
grouped under archaebacteria ? 34. According to the ‘Unit membrane 42. Nitrogen base that pairs with
model’, the thickness of the cell adenine (A) in RNA is—
(A) Methanogenic bacteria
membrane is about—
(B) Extreme halophiles (A) Cytosine (C)
(A) 1 nm (B) 7·5 nm
(C) Thermoacidophiles (B) Uracil (U)
(C) 150 nm (D) 200 nm
(D) All of the above (C) Thymine (T)
35. In which of the following plants (D) Guanine (G)
27. During ATP synthesis electrons the amphivasal vascular bundles
pass through— are reported ? 43. Against which foreign organism
(A) Cytochrome (antigen), antibiotic is effective ?
(A) Salvia
(B) CO2 (A) Fungal infection
(B) Dracaena
(C) O2 (B) Virus
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Phytochrome (C) Protozoan infection
(D) Mangifera
(D) Bacterial infection
28. Which of the following RNAs has 36. Which of these give a possible
the highest molecular weight ? sequence of organic chemicals 44. Aerenchyma is the characteristic
(A) m-RNA prior to the protocell ? of—
(B) r-RNA (A) Water, salts, protein, oxygen (A) All xerophytes
(C) t -RNA (B) Inorganic gases, amino (B) Lithophyte
(D) All have the same molecular acids, polypeptide, micro- (C) Sciophyte
weight sphere (D) Hydrophytes

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 900

45. The points at which crossing-
over have taken place between
homologous chromosomes are
called—
(A) Synaptonemal complex
(B) Centromere
(C) Chiasmata
(D) Protein axes
46. Who proposed the ‘copy choice’
theory of crossing over ?
(A) Morgan
(B) Bateson and Punnett
(C) Belling
(D) Schwanson
47. Directional selection favours—
(A) One extreme form over the
other extreme form and over
intermediate forms of a trait
(B) Both extreme forms of a trait
(C) Environmental differences
(D) Intermediate forms of a trait
48. Convulsive and hallucinogenic
ergotism are caused by—
(A) Fungus (B) Virus
(C) Bacterium (D) PPLO
49. The electron transport system is
sometimes called a cytochrome
system in—
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Chloroplasts
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Nucleus
50. ‘Corn smut’ disease is caused
by—
(A) Mycoplasma (B) Bacteria
(C) Virus (D) Fungi

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

●●●

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 901

 In each of the following ques- 5. Assertion (A) : Ammeter is CHEMISTRY
tions, a statement of Assertion (A) always connected in parallel with
is given and a corresponding state- a branch in which the current is to 11. Assertion (A) : The energy of an
ment of Reason (R) is given just be measured. electron is mainly determined by
below it. Of the statements, mark the value of its principal quantum
Reason (R) : Voltmeter is con-
the correct answer as— number.
nected in series with the resis-
(A) If both A and R are true Reason (R) : The principal quan-
tance across which voltage drop
and R is the correct expla- tum number, n is a measure of
is to be measured.
nation of A the most probable distance of
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) finding the electron around the
(B) If both A and R are true but
R is not the correct expla- 6. Assertion (A) : An electron nucleus.
nation of A moves from rest from a point at (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(C) If A is true but R is false which potential is 10V to another 12. Assertion (A) : — [ CH2—CH
(D) If both A and R are false point at which potential is 30V. (C6H5 —
] n is an important co-
(E) If A is false but R is true Its K.E. at the second point will polymer and it is also known as
be 3·2 × 10– 18 J. condensation polymer.
PHYSICS Reason (R) : Reason (R) : If a mixture of more
than one monomeric species is
1. Assertion (A) : The ratio Cp /Cv K. E. = W = e (V2 – V1)
allowed to polymerise, a co-
for a diatomic gas is more than = 1·6 × 10– 19 (30 – 10) polymer is formed.
that for a monoatomic gas. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
= 3·2 × 10– 18 J
Reason (R) : The molecules of a 13. Assertion (A) : Fluorine atom has
monoatomic gas have more (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
capacity to oxidise other elements
degrees of freedom than those of 7. Assertion (A) : If a conducting to their highest oxidation state.
a diatomic gas. medium is placed between two Reason (R) : Fluoride ion has a
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) charges, then the electrical force small size and on account of the
between them becomes zero. same, it is rather difficult to oxidise
2. Assertion (A) : When
fluoride ion to fluorine atom.
→ → → → Reason (R) : The dielectric cons-
| P + Q | = | P – Q |, tant for conductors is infinite. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
→ 14. Assertion (A) : There is only one
then P must be perpendicular to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
→ atom per unit cell in a primitive
Q. 8. Assertion (A) : Polarising angle cubic unit cell of a crystal lattice.
Reason (R) : The relation will (ip) and critical angle ( c ) are Reason (R) : In a simple cubic
→ related as tan ip = cosec C. structure of a lattice, there are
hold even when Q is a null
vector. 1 eight corner atoms which are
Reason (R) : μ = = tan ip
sin C shared between eight units.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
3. Assertion (A) : When two elec- 15. Assertion (A) : Phenoxide ion is
trons are brought close to each 9. Assertion (A) : Pascal’s law is
a stronger base as compared to
other, the electrical potential the working principle of a hydraulic
ethoxide ion.
energy increases. lift.
Reason (R) : Phenol is a stronger
Reason (R) : Work must be done Reason (R) : Thrust generated is acid in comparison of ethanol.
against electrical force of repul- equal to pressure × area. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
sion between them. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 16. Assertion (A) : At a freezing
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) point of a solvent, the solid and
10. Assertion (A) : A reversible en-
4. Assertion (A) : The value of liquid are in equilibrium and it is
gine working between 127°C and
Acceleration due to gravity at a possible only if they have same
227°C cannot have efficiency vapour pressure.
1
height h = R will be th of the more than 20%. Reason (R) : A solution will
4
value of g on the surface of earth. Reason (R) : Under ideal condi- freeze when its vapour pressure
tions equals the vapour pressure of
Reason (R) : It follows from
pure solid solvent and for this it is
T2
g′ = g 1 – ( ) 2h
R
n = 1–
T1
necessary to lower the tempera-
ture of the solution.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 902

17. Assertion (A) : A triester of Reason (R) : The all-or-none law 30. Assertion (A) : The hormone
glycerol with a higher fatty acid states that a muscle cell contracts aldosterone is secreted by adrenal
gives a solid mass having a maximally or not at all. cortex after the low sodium ion of
greasy touch on boiling with (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) the blood and this causes the
aqueous NaOH. kidneys to release renin.
24. Assertion (A) : Two pairs of
Reason (R) : Glycerol, a trihydric Reason (R) : The presence of
factors are located in two pairs of
alcohol, is formed when its triester renin leads to the formation of
homologous chromosomes in
is hydrolysed with aqueous angiotensin II, which causes the
dihybrid cross.
NaOH. adrenal cortex to release aldos-
Reason (R) : Two pairs of factors terone.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) are present in each homologous
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
18. Assertion (A) : The detergent pair of chromosome.
molecules associated with highly (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) BOTANY
branched hydrocarbon chain as
25. Assertion (A) : In the dairy
tail are a source of water pollu- 31. Assertion (A) : There are two
industry, thermoduric bacteria are
tion. principal translocatory systems in
regarded as those which do not
Reason (R) : The hydrocarbon the vascular bundles of plants.
survive pasteurization.
side chain stops bacteria from Reason (R) : The xylem vessels
Reason (R) : Microorganisms of
attacking and breaking the are lignified, thick-walled dead
this category are not extremely
chains. cells, whereas the tube cells are
troublesome from the stand point
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) thin-walled and living cells.
of producing raw milk.
19. Assertion (A) : The equivalent (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
mass of nitrogen (N2) in the reac- 32. Assertion (A) : Intercellular
26. Assertion (A) : Arousal is general
tion, N2 → NH3 will be 28/3. spaces usually are found among
causal factor invoked to account
Reason (R) : The oxidation num- meristematic cells.
for the fact that animals a variably
ber of nitrogen atom changes from alert and responsive to potential Reason (R) : In meristematic
0 to – 3. stimuli. cells, the cells may be rounded—
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) or polygonal in shape.
Reason (R) : Physiological pro-
20. Assertion (A) : 2-acetoxy ben- cesses which facilitate certain (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
zoic acid is a most commonly behaviours, include hormone 33. Assertion (A) : Horsetails resem-
used tranquilizer. release and endogenous ble horse’s tails.
Reason (R) : Tranquilizers form rhythms. Both may then be said
Reason (R) : A rhizome produces
an important category of the to be arousal mechanism or to
aerial stems that stand about 1 to
psychotherapeutic drugs. affect motivation.
1·5 metres.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
27. Assertion (A) : Plasmids are 34. Assertion (A) : The innermost
ZOOLOGY extra-chromosomal single- distinct layer of cortex is termed
stranded DNA. as endodermis.
21. Assertion (A) : The nature of the
skeleton is an important charac- Reason (R) : Only eukaryotic Reason (R) : The cells of endo-
teristic in sponge taxonomy. multicellular cells possess plas- dermis are non-living and charac-
mids. terised by the presence of
Reason (R) : Sponges are sup-
ported by a skeleton that may (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) casparian strips.
consist of microscopic needle-like 28. Assertion (A) : Infection of AIDS (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
spikes called spicules, which take destroys body’s capacity to fight
on a variety of shapes. 35. Assertion (A) : Germination in
foreign agents of infections. jack-fruit is hypogynous type.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Reason (R) : The HIV virus Reason (R) : When the epicotyl
22. Assertion (A) : Cartilage (protein infects and eventually kills helper grows first only the plumule is
matrix) and bone (calcium matrix) T-cells of the body’s immune pushed out of the soil while the
are rigid connective tissue. system. cotyledonary node and all other
Reason (R) : Blood is connective (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) parts remain under the soil. This
tissue in which plasma is the is hypogeal germination.
29. Assertion (A) : Evolution by
matrix. natural selection does not require (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) variation. 36. Assertion (A) : Stomata usually
23. Assertion (A) : A threshold Reason (R) : Because many of open in the light and close in
stimulus is the minimum stimulus the differences are heritable darkness.
needed to stimulate a muscle cell genetic differences. Reason (R) : Light affects trans-
to contract. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) piration because it is directly

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 903

 involved in opening and closing 38. Assertion (A) : The sieve tube Reason (R) : Hydrogen ion gra-
of stomata. elements of phloem are not dient are not established across
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) arranged end to end. the membrane.
Reason (R) : Each element is (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
37. Assertion (A) : In mycorrhizae,
the fungal tissue which surround joined to the next by a sieve 40. Assertion (A) : All the various
the plant root is known as fungal plate. genes of a population make up its
sheath. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) gene pool.
Reason (R) : The Hardy-
Reason (R) : Fungi usually have 39. Assertion (A) : Energy for ATP Weinberg equilibrium is a cons-
chitin-containing cell walls. synthesis is not derived from a tancy of gene pool.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) hydrogen ion gradient. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

(Continued on Page 908 )

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 904

 temperatures T1 and T2 is shown in the figure. The
Physics temperature T 2 is greater than T1.

1. When a silicon semiconductor is doped with a boron T2

atom, it behaves as P-type semiconductor. ↑ T1
—T/F Ia
2. The difference between the length of a certain brass
rod and that of a steel rod is claimed to be constant at
all temperatures. Va ⎯→
—T/F
—T/F
3. By applying magnetic field γ-rays can be deviated. 15. Green glass when heated to high temperature emits
—T/F red light.
4. The efficiency of a Carnot engine is given by —T/F

(
η = 1–
Q2
Q1 ) ( )
= 1–
T2
T1 Chemistry
—T/F
16. The decreasing order of electron affinity of F, Cl, Br is
5. If an ideal gas expands adiabatically, it does positive
F > Cl > Br
work and its internal energy decreases.
—T/F
—T/F
17. Squashes are ‘stored in bottles after adding’ sodium
6. The root mean square speeds of the molecules of metabisulphite.
different ideal gases, maintained at the same
temperature are the same. —T/F

—T/F 18. Photobromination of 2-methyl propane gives a

mixture of 1-bromo-2-methyl propane and 2-bromo-2-
7. Sun radiation is warm because it contains ultraviolet methyl propane in the ratio 9 : 1.
rays.
—T/F
—T/F
19. Ferrous sulphate (FeSO4.7 H2O) is known as blue
8. Two rods A and B are of equal length. Each rod has vitriol or Mohr’s salt.
its ends at temperature T1 and T2. Then rate of flow
of heat through the rods A and B is equal. —T/F

—T/F 20. The tendency of catenation is much higher in case of

9. Kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from any
surface varies linearly with the frequency of the light
incident on the surface.
—T/F
10. The focal length of a lens is the same for lights of all
colours.
—T/F
11. When electric current flows through a metallic wire,
electric charge flows through the wire at a speed of
the order of a few millimeters per second.
—T/F
12. A converging lens in one medium can be diverging in
another medium.
—T/F
13. Emission of β-particle from a radioactive atom
changes its atomic number.
—T/F
14. For a diode the variation of its anode current (Ia) with
the anode voltage (Va) at two different cathode
carbon than silicon.
—T/F
21. The green colour of chromic hydroxide becomes
yellow on reacting with NaOH in presence of H2O2.
—T/F
22. The enol form of CH 3COCH2COCH3 is stabilized
through intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
—T/F
23. Homologues can never be isomeric.
—T/F
24. The formula of deep red gas formed on warming
potassium dichromate with KCl in conc. H2SO4 is
H2Cr2O7.HCl.
—T/F
25. Formic acid is weaker acid as compared to acetic
acid.
—T/F
26. The major role of fluorspar (CaF2) which is added in
small quantities in electrolytic reduction of alumina

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 905

 dissolved in fused cryolite is to lower the temperature 43. Tissue membranes include serous (closed cavities),
of the melt. mucous (open passage ways), cutaneous (body sur-
—T/F face) and synovial (joint cavities) membranes.
27. F—F bond is less stronger than Cl—Cl bond. —T/F
—T/F 44. Epitope is an antibody determinant.
28. Caesium (Cs) is an important material used in solar —T/F
cells. 45. First-degree burns are limited to the epidermis and
—T/F second-degree burns injure the epidermis, dermis
29. Carbon atom in – CHO group is sp3 hybridised. and penetrate to the hypodermis and below.
—T/F —T/F
3+
30. The aqueous solution ferric ion (Fe(aq) ) is fairly basic
because it acts as a source of hydroxide ions (OH –). Botany
—T/F
46. In the year 1928-29 the Dutch plant physiologist Went
finally proved the existence of a chemical transmitter.
Zoology —T/F
47. ‘Lock and Key’ hypothesis can be misleading when
31. The hippocampus of human brain consolidates short-
applied to the question of enzymatic catalysis.
term memories into long-term memories.
—T/F
—T/F
48. A mycorrhiza is a mutualistic association between
32. The parathyroid glands release parathyroid hormone
green algae and fungi.
which decreases calcium levels in blood.
—T/F
—T/F
49. Eolian landforms are topographic features generated
33. Encephalins and endorphins are natural painkillers.
by the wind.
—T/F
—T/F
34. Genetic drift is random change in the gene pool of
50. The fruit of cereals is mostly referred to as caryopsis.
small populations resulting from death, migration, or
—T/F
isolation.
51. The family of Leguminosae is divided into three sub-
—T/F families on the basis of calyx and gynoecium
35. Genes coding for proteins are regulatory genes, and arrangements.
genes controlling regulatory genes are structural —T/F
genes. 52. The point of contact where crossing over occurs is
—T/F called a chiasma.
36. Individuals affected by Klinefelter's syndrome are —T/F
males only. 53. Ca and Mg are microelements because they are
—T/F required only in extreme small quantities by plants.
—T/F
37. Polygenic inheritance occurs when several separate
54. A cover providing protection to root cap is called
genes control a single phenotypic trait.
tunica.
—T/F —T/F
38. Human karyotype can be best prepared at metaphase 55. Chemiosmotic theory does not provide the intellectual
stage of cell division. framework for understanding many biological energy
—T/F transductions.
39. The phenotype includes traits which can be obser- —T/F
ved, measured, or analyzed. The genotype includes 56. In eukaryotes nucleus stores genetic information.
the genes for the traits of the phenotype. —T/F
—T/F 57. Germplasm protection at a very low temperature is
known as cryopreservation.
40. Prosmian is a group of primates that includes apes
and humans. —T/F
58. A normal human karyotype shows 22 pairs of
—T/F
autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes.
41. Connective tissues bind organs together, support and —T/F
insulate the body, and store energy. 59. The plasma membrane is followed by the colloidal
—T/F fluid of called endoplasm.
42. A conserved DNA sequence of 180 base pairs —T/F
encodes a protein domain in many proteins. 60. The lytic cycle is not divided into any stages.
—T/F —T/F

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 906

 Physics
Q. Why does the glow of lamps
becomes weaker when a heavy-
current appliance is switched on in
the house ?
☞ The connection of heavy
current appliance decreases the total
resistance of the system in the room
as it is connected is parallel. Hence
current increases, thereby increasing
the voltage drop across the lines and
hence p.d. of line decreases.
Q. What is ‘Thomson effect’ ?
☞ The absorption or evolution of
heat along the length of a conductor
when current is passed through it
whose one end is hot and the other is
cold is known as ‘Thomson effect’.
Thomson effect for lead is zero and it
is positive for the metals below lead
and negative for metals above lead in
Seebeck series. The amount of heat
energy absorbed or evolved per
second between two points of a con-
ductor having a unit temperature
difference when a unit current is
passed is known as Thomson coeffi-
cient for the material of the conductor.
This is denoted by σ.
Heat energy evolved or absorbed
σ = (Charge flowing) (Temp. difference)
Q. What is the principle of
spin-dry cycle in an automatic
washing machine ?
☞ In spin-dry cycle, the wet cloth
is made to revolve rapidly about an
axis and the water particles fly-off the
cloth tangentially. This causes quick
drying.
Q. What is ‘Photon flux’ ?
☞ The number of photons cross-
ing unit area normally per sec is
called photon-flux and is given by
charge is called ‘Mechanical force or
Electrostatic pressure’.
σ2
dF 1
= = ε . E2
d S 2ε0 2 0
Q. Why don’t we consider the
drift velocity of positive ions ?
☞ The positive ions in a conduc-
tor also experience a force in the pre-
sence of an electric field. Since the
positive ions are heavy and tightly
bound in the metal they are hardly
able to move making the drift velocity
of the positive ions negligibly small.
Q. What are polycrystals ?
☞ A polycrystals is an aggregate
of monocrystals joined together. A
monocrystal is very small and its
features cannot be seen with the
naked eye.
Q. What is the nature of force
between two parallel current-carry-
ing conductors ?
☞ When the currents in the wires
are in the same direction, the forces
between them are attractive.
If the current are in opposite
directions, the two wires repel each
other. Force per unit length of the
wires is given by
F μ0I 1I 2
= curvature of common interface, by
l 2πa
Q. A metal sphere is held fixed
on a smooth horizontal insulated
plate and another metal sphere is
placed some distance away. If the
Q. Why God has gifted us two
eyes instead of one ?
☞ Our right eye sees more of the
right side of the object and the left eye
sees more of the left side of the
object. The impressions gathered by
the two eyes fuse into one impression
in the brain. So, we have a proper
idea of the solidity of the object being
viewed. Moreover, the two eyes help
us to properly estimate the distance of
the object.
Q. Why the light of a motor car
becomes slightly dim when the car
is started ?
☞ Initially, the starter draws a
high current from the battery. This
causes a large voltage drop across
the internal resistance of the battery.
Consequently, the potential difference
across the terminals of the battery is
reduced, thereby making lights dim.
Q. A plane glass plate is con-
structed by combining a plano-
convex lens and a plano-concave
lens of different materials as shown
in figure. Will it act as a lens ? If so
what will be its focal length and
nature ?
☞ As μC and μD are refractive
indices of convergent and divergent
lens respectively and R the radius of
lens makers formula
μD
R
μC
1
fC
= (μC – 1) [ 1
–
∞ –R
1
]
(μC – 1)
= …(1)
R

Photon flux =
Energy-flux
Photon-energy
fixed sphere is given a charge, how
will the other sphere react ?
and
1
fD
= (μD – 1) [ 1
–
–R ∞
1
]
☞ When the fixed sphere is given – (μ D – 1)
I = …(2)
= a charge, it induces opposite charge R
E
on the nearer end of the other sphere Now as the lenses are in contact
Q. What is ‘Electrostatic pres- and similar charge on its further end. 1 1 1
sure’ ? = +
The net force is attractive in nature. F fC fD
☞ Force per unit area on the So, the free sphere will be accelerated (μC – μD)
surface of a conductor due to its own towards the fixed sphere. =
R

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 909

 R ☞ The
i.e., F =
(μC – μD)
As μC ≠ μD, the system will act as
a lens. The system will behave as
convergent lens if μC > μD (as its focal
length will be positive) and as diver-
gent lens if μC < μD (as F will be nega-
tive).
Q. Why is the element of a
heater very hot while the wires
carrying the same current are not ?
Explain.
☞ As element of heater is in
series with the current carrying wires,
current is same for both. Now as :
P = I 2R
i.e., P ∝ R [as I is same]
and as R H >> R W , PH >> PW i.e.,
heater will dissipate more power than
wires and so will be much hotter.
Q. Two identical co-axial circu-
lar loops carry equal currents circu-
lating in the same direction. What
will happen to the current in each
loop if the loop’s approach each
other.
☞ As the field at an axial point
due to a current carrying coil is given
by
μ0 2πNIR2
B = 2 2 3/2
4π (R + x )
So the coil approach each other the
flux linked with each coil increases.
So in accordance with Lenz’s law a
current will be induced in each coil
which will try to decrease the flux, i.e.,
the induced current in each coils will
be opposite to initial current. So, the
current in each coil will decrease as
the coil approach each other.
X structure shows some formal similari-
I I
C1 C2
(A)
Y B3N3H6 + 3 HCl → B3N3H9Cl3
I' I'
C1 C2
(B)
Chemistry
Q. What is the difference bet-
ween Daltonide and Bertholide
compounds ?
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 910
stoichiometric com-
pounds, where the number of diffe-
rent types of atoms or ions are pre-
sent exactly in the ratio indicated by
their chemical formula are called
Daltonide compounds. The non-
stoichiometric compounds where the
chemical composition of a compound
is variable or not constant, are known
as Bertholide compound.
Q. What is isoelectronic princi-
ple ?
☞ Isoelectronic species are
those which have same number of
electrons. Such species have similar
structure. This may be extended
to species with the same number
of valence electrons. Thus BF4–,
CH4, NH4+ are all tetrahedral, CO32–,
NO3– and SO3 are all planar tri-
angular and CO2, N 3– and NO2+ are
all linear.
Q. Why a catalyst is generally
needed when an organic com-
pound is reduced with hydrogen ?
☞ The lack of reactivity of hydro-
gen is related to the strength of H—H
bond. An essential step in H2 reacting
with another compound is breaking of
H—H bond to produce atoms of
hydrogen. This requires 435·9 kJ
mol – 1, and there is high activation
energy to such reactions. Hence most
of reactions of hydrogen involve
heterogeneous catalysis where cata-
lyst first react with H2 and either
breaks or weakens the H—H bond
and thus lowers the activation energy.
Q. What is inorganic benzene ?
☞ Borazine, B3N3H6 is called
inorganic benzene because its
ties with benzene, with delocalized
electrons and aromatic nature. The
physical properties are also almost
similar. Borazine is comparatively
more reactive than benzene and
addition reactions occur quite readily
H H
| |
B B
– H
+ +
N —H N —H
H —N H —N
| | ←→ | ||
H —B B—H H —B– B—H
+ –
N N
| |
H H
1444444424444443
Borazine
Q. Why carbon disulphide
(CS2) is stored in dark coloured
bottles ?
☞ CS2 is a colourless liquid, b.p.
46°C. It has a very low flash point
(30°C). Sunlight changes CS2 to CS
and that is why it is stored in dark
coloured bottles. CS is, unlike CO
very reactive even at the liquid air
temperature.
Q. What are the uses of soluble
glass ?
☞ Sodium or potassium silicates
[Na4SiO4, (Na2SiO3)n etc.] are called
soluble silicates as these are soluble
in water. They are used in liquid
detergents to keep the pH high, so
that grease and fat can be dissolved
by forming a soap. Sodium silicate is
also used as an adhesive, in
asbestos roof tiles, in fireproof paint
and putty and in making silica gel.
Q. Which salts are responsible
for blue baby syndrome ?
☞ There is a grave and growing
concern that nitrates are harmful in
drinking water. They cause a disease
in babies called methaemoglobinae-
mia, which reduces the amount of
oxygen in the baby’s blood. In
extreme forms this causes the blue
baby syndrome. There is also con-
cern that nitrates could be linked with
stomach cancer.
Q. trans-2-butene is more sta-
ble than cis-2-butene which in turn
is more stable than 1-butene,
why ?
☞ This order of stability can be
explained in terms of steric effect
and hyperconjugation . In 1-butene
(CH3—CH2CH == CH2) the steric
repulsion is practically absent. In
2-butenes, the two methyl groups
CH3 CH3
in cis-isomer C——C
H H
being closer together than in trans-
CH3 H
isomer C——C expe-
CH3
rience greater repulsion and conse-
quently the cis-form is under greater
strain than trans form. The steric
effect destabilises a molecule. This
trans -2-butene is more stable than
cis-2-butene.
On the other hand hyperconjuga-
tion stabilises the molecule and is
smallest in 1-butene but much larger
in 2-butenes. Since hyperconjugation
has greater stabilising effect than
steric destabilising effect, 1-butene is
the least stable. The order of stability
is as :
trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene
> 1-butene
Q. How is the partial pressure
of a gas in a mixture of two gases
is related with mole-fraction ?
☞ If P(N2) is the partial pressure
of N 2 in a mixture of N2 and SO2, then
RT
P(N2) = n(N2) .
V
(n(N2) = No. of moles of N 2)
RT
Pmixture = (n(N2) + n(SO2)) .
V perching. These are examples of
Dividing we get
PN2 n(N2)
= =χ
Pmixture n(N2) + n(SO2) (N2)
(χ(N2) = mole fraction of N 2)
or P(N2) = χ(N2) × Pmixture
Thus partial pressure of N2 in the
given mixture is the product of its mole
fraction and total pressure of mixture.
Q. What is the difference
between isolated and closed
systems ?
☞ A system is said to be isolated
if it cannot exchange matter and
energy with surroundings. However,
there is no perfectly isolated system,
but a system which is thermally well
insulated is said to be isolated. For
example coffee in a stoppered
thermos flask is isolated system.
A system is said to be closed if it
can exchange energy (heat or work)
but not the matter. Coffee in a closed
steel vessel is an example of closed
system because energy can be
gained or lost through steel walls but
not the matter.
Q. Why do detergent molecules
having branched chain hydro-
carbon tail cause pollution ?
☞ The detergent molecules asso-
ciated with branched hydrocarbon tail
are a source of pollution. The hydro-
carbon side chain stops bacteria from
attacking and breaking the chains.
This results in low degradation of
detergent molecules leading to their
accummulation. These days the
amount of branching is kept to a mini-
mum. Unbranched chains are more
prone to attack by bacteria so the
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 911
detergents are more easily biode-
graded and pollution is prevented.
Q. Which inorganic com-
pounds of sulphur are used as
antioxidants in food preservation ?
☞ The compounds which retards
the action of oxygen on food are gene-
rally known as antioxidants. They also
reduce the formation of free radicals.
Sulphur dioxide and sulphite are use-
ful antioxidants for wines, bears, sugar
syrups and cut peeled or dried fruits
and vegetables.
Q. Who did open the door to a
wonderful natural healer ?
☞ Alexander Fleming did
pioneering work in bacteriology. He
discovered natural bodily secretions,
which could combat harmful microbes.
He discovered a chemical substance,
called penicillin which could destroy
certain microbes in the body. Thus
Fleming opened the door to a wonder-
ful natural healer. In 1945, he
received Nobel prize for discovery of
penicillin.
Q. What is the adrenaline ?
☞ It is a hormone having follow-
ing structure :
OH
| cent to it. The myosin heads have
HO C— H
|
HO
CH2NHCH 3
This hormone is released into the
blood stream when an animal senses
danger. It causes an increase in blood
pressure and a widening of passages
of the lungs. All these effects prepare
the animal to fight or to flee.
Zoology
Q. How bone grows ?
☞ Bones elongate by apposi-
tional growth at the epiphyseal plates
under hormonal control (e.g., growth
hormone). New cartilage cells are
generated on the epiphyseal side of
the plate and the older cartilage cells
are destroyed and replaced by bone
on the shaft side of the plate (thus
plate has a constant thickness but the
length of the shaft increases). Growth
in diameter occurs when osteoblasts
from the periosteum add new bone to
the outer surface of the bone while
osteoclasts erode bone material
inside the shaft and so enlarge the
marrow cavity.
Q. What is Mosaic Evolution ?
☞ A species might be thought of
a mosaic of different molecules and
structures that have evolved at diffe-
rent rates. Some molecules or struc-
tures are conserved in evolution,
while others change more rapidly.
The basic design of a bird provides a
simple example. All birds are easily
recognizable as because of highly
conserved structures, such as fea-
thers, bills and a certain body form.
Particular parts of birds, however, are
less conservative and have a higher
rate of change. Wings have been
modified for hovering, soaring and
swimming. Similarly, legs have been
modified for wading, swimming and
mosaic evolution.
Q. What is muscle sliding fila-
ment model ?
☞ When a striped muscle con-
tracts, the filament (which do not
change length) slide past each other.
In each sarcomere, the many globular
myosin heads which project laterally
along each end of the heavy myosin
filament attach to the actin filament
and change conformation. The myo-
sin pulls at the actin filaments adja-
been energetically charged, adopting
a conformation in which they can bind
to actin. This binding elicits the con-
formational change that provides the
force for filament sliding and exposes
an ATP-binding site. ATP binding
causes an allosteric (shape) change
that promotes detachment of the
head from actin. Dephosphorylation
of ATP provides the energy to re-
establish the actin binding; thus the
process is repeated many times
(each using on ATP molecule) and
the myosin pulls along the actin fila-
ment in a ratchet fashion. Since the
ends of each myosin filament pull in
opposite directions, towards the
sarcomere centre, the myosin pulls
the two actin regions closer and with
them the Z lines, thus whole muscle
contracts.
Q. What is Food Chain and
Food Web ?
☞ All trophic levels in an eco-
system are connected by transfer of
food or energy. The transfer of energy
from one trophic level (e.g., producers)
to the next trophic level (e.g., con-
sumers) is called food chain. Two
types of food chains can be distin-
guished in all ecosystems, grazing
food chain and detritus food chain.
Grazing food chain extends from pro-
ducers through herbivores to carni-
vores. Cattle grazing in grasslands,
deer browsing in forest, and insects
feeding on crops and trees, are most
common biotic constituents of the
grazing food chain detritus food chain
begins with dead organic matter and
passes through detritus-feeding orga-
nisms in soil to organisms feeder on
detritus-feeders. A much larger frac-
tion of energy flows through the
detritus food chain. Different food
chains are often interconnected, e.g.,
a specific herbivore of one food chain
may serve as food of carnivores of
several other food chains. Such inter-
connected matrix of food chains is
called food web.
Q. What is Mimicry ?
☞ Two species resemble each
other closely, one species is called the
mimic, is palatable to its predators,
but resembles another species, called
the model, which is distasteful to the
predator. In Batesian mimicry, the
mimic is defenseless, but has antipre-
datory marks like the model which has
a defense against predators; hence,
the mimic is able to protect itself from
the attack of the predator. Similarly,
the monarch butterfly (containing
poison, toxic to predator) is mimicked
by the viceroy butterfly (containing no
poison). Mullerian mimicry is the
process when the mimic shares the
same defensive mechanism as the
model.
Q. What is called the throne of
Immunity ?
☞ Thymus gland plays a key role
in immunity and is also called ‘the
throne of immunity’ or training school
of T-lymphocytes. Hormones pro-
duced by the thymus gland is called
thymosin. Thymosin released in the
blood stream has a stimulating effect
on the entire immune system. It pro-
motes proliferation and maturation of
T-lymphocytes. If one gets severe
dose of radiation, enough to knock out
immune system, thymosin might be
life-saver, stimulating the spleen and
other organs that had shut down to
get back into production. Thymosin
production decreases with advancing
age and entirely ceases by about 50
years.
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 912
Botany
Q. What do you mean by proto-
gyny ?
☞ Protogyny is a condition in
hermaphrodite or dioecious animals
and plants in which the female repro-
ductive structures mature before the
male structures. It is of rare occur-
rence. Botanically, protogyny occurs
in some plant species in which the
female part stigma develops, withers
and dies before male part anthers
mature.
Q. What do you mean by pri-
mary vascular system of plant ?
☞ The arrangement of conduct-
ing elements which serve for two-way
transportation of substances between
different parts of a plant is known as
primary vascular system. The con-
ducting elements are of two principal
types : xylem and phloem.
Xylem is mainly responsible for
the conduction of water together with
dissolved inorganic substances up-
ward from the roots to the other
organs. Phloem is mainly responsible
for the conduction of food materials
(assimilates), a flow which may take
place in either direction. In the shoot
region of the plant, xylem and phloem
are usually associated into vascular
bundles. In the root, however, they
usually alternate with one another on
different radii.
Q. What do you mean by meri-
stems based on plane of division ?
☞ Meristematic tissue, com-
monly called meristem, is composed
of cells which are immature, not fully
differentiated ones, and which pos-
sess the power of cell division.
Meristems on the basis of planes
of divisions are of three types : mass
meristem, rib meristem and plate
meristem.
Mass meristem grows by divid-
ing in all planes, so that the bodies
formed are either isodiametric or
have no definite shape. The rib meri-
stem divides anticlinally to the long
axis and gives rise to the longitudinal
files or rows of cells. The plate meri-
stem divides chiefly anticlinally into
two planes, so that new cells are
formed out number of layers does not
increase.
Q. What do you mean by
coralline algae ? What are their
important characteristics ?
☞ Coralline algae, comprising
about 40 genera and 500 species, are
exclusively marine, although some
species can tolerate a reduction in
salinity to 13 parts per thousand.
Some species thrive only where light
is intense, as at the crest of a coral
reef, while others grow only in shaded
habitats or in deep water.
Coralline algae are ecologically
important. They are divisible into two
groups on the basis of the presence or
absence of uncalcified, moderately
flexible joints (genicula) between calci-
fied segments (intergenicula). The
ecosystem in which coralline algae
are most important is the coral reef,
where they are primary producers,
adding carbon to the ecosystem,
adding new material to the reefs, and
cementing together other calcareous
organisms. They have been arranged
in similar activities through the millen-
nia with modern genera recognizable
in limestones at least as old as 150
million years. The most simple non-
articulated coralline algae are indivi-
dual crusts of varying extent and thick-
ness (20 cm thick). Most species
require constant emersion.
Q. What is sewage disposal ?
☞ Sewage is the waste water
reaching the sewer after use; hence it
is related in quantity and in flow fluc-
tuation to water use. The discharge of
waste waters into surface-water or
ground water courses, which consti-
tute the natural drainage of an area
is known as sewage disposal.
Most waste waters contain offen-
sive and potentially dangerous subs-
tances, which can use pollution and
contamination of the receiving water
bodies. Contamination is defined as
the impairment of water quality to a
degree that create a hazard to public
health. Pollution refers to the adverse
effects on water quality that interfere
with its proper and beneficial use. The
principal sources of pollution are
domestic sewage and industrial
wastes.
The water-quality criteria deal
with the physio-chemical and biologi-
cal parameters of pollution. The most
common standards are concerned
with physical appearance, odour pro-
duction, dissolved-oxygen concentra-
tion, pathogenic contamination, and
potentially toxic or harmful chemicals.
●●●
1. Which of the following Article of
Indian Constitution propounds
Equality before Law ?
(A) Article 15 (B) Article 13
(C) Article 14 (D) Article 12
2. Which of the Articles of the
Constitution of India enshrines
protection against arrest and
detention in certain cases ?
(A) Article 22 (B) Article 23
(C) Article 25 (D) Article 26
3. Ozone layer lies in—
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Exosphere
(D) None of the above
4. Which Article of Indian Consti-
tution says that “no tax shall be
levied or collected except by
authority of law” ?
(A) Article 265 (B) Article 266
(C) Article 268 (D) Article 270
5. Chemically Vitamin C is—
(A) Riboflavin (B) Thiamin
(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Niacin
6. Which of the following vitamins is
not fat-soluble ?
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin E
7. The poem ‘Pagri Sambhal O
Jatta’ which infused patriotic
fervour in Punjab during freedom
struggle was written by—
(A) Banke Dayal
(B) Lala Lajpat Roy
(C) Sardar Ajit Singh
(D) Ghulam Kader
8. ‘India’s First War of Indepen-
dence’ is the book written by—
(A) Bhupendranath Dutt
(B) Ganesh Savarkar
(C) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(D) Lala Hardayal
9. The Gadar Party was set up in—
(A) 1913 (B) 1915
(C) 1914 (D) 1912
10. Kaiga Atomic Power Plant is
situated in—
(A) Karnataka
(B) Maharashtra
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 913
(C) Uttar Pradesh 17. The first weekly Bengali news-
(D) Tamil Nadu paper ‘Samachar Darpan’ was
published by—
11. The maximum number of mem- (A) Harish Chandra Mukherjee
bers that the Legislative Assem- (B) Dinabandhu Mitra
bly of a State in India can have, (C) Marshman
is— (D) Vidyasagar
(A) 400 (B) 450
18. Where is the headquarters of
(C) 500 (D) 550 Asian Development Bank situ-
12. Bank rate is the rate at which the ated at ?
Reserve Bank of India provides (A) Jakarta (B) Manila
loans to— (C) Singapore (D) Bangkok
(A) Public Sector Undertakings 19. Who was responsible for the
(B) Scheduled Commercial introduction of the Vernacular
Banks Press Act of 1878 ?
(C) Private Corporate Sector (A) Lord Mayo
(D) Non-Banking Financial Insti- (B) Lord Lytton
tutions (C) Lord Rippon
(D) Lord Curzon
13. Who of the following founded the
East India Association ? 20. Gandhiji started Civil Disobe-
(A) C. R. Das dience Movement in—
(A) 1930 (B) 1931
(B) Dadabhai Noroji
(C) 1933 (D) 1942
(C) Devendra Nath Tagore
21. As per 2001 census of India, the
(D) V. D. Savarkar
total number of million cities in
14. Tipu Sultan died fighting the the country is—
English forces under— (A) 25 (B) 30
(A) Lord Cornwallis (C) 35 (D) 40
(B) Lord Wellesley 22. The country with the largest of
(C) Lord Dalhousie petroleum reserves in the world
(D) Lord Hastings is—
(A) Iran (B) Iraq
15. The battle of Wandiwash was
(C) Saudi Arabia (D) Russia
fought between—
(A) Marathas and Portuguese 23. The three leading petroleum pro-
ducing countries in correct
(B) The English and the French
descending order are—
(C) The English and the Por- (A) Saudi Arabia, U.S.A. and
tuguese Russia
(D) The Marathas and the (B) U.S.A., Saudi Arabia and
English Iran
16. Golden Quadrilateral Project is— (C) Saudi Arabia, U.S.A. and
Iran
(A) Conversion of meter gauge
(D) U.S.A., Saudi Arabia and
into broad gauge
Mexico
(B) Construction of four lane
highways joining four metro- 24. The largest producer of silver in
the world is—
polis of India
(A) Canada (B) Mexico
(C) Joining of four important
(C) U.S.A. (D) Australia
rivers of North India and
South-India 25. The largest exporter of fish in the
(D) Joining of four important world is—
cities of India with air trans- (A) Norway (B) U.K.
port (C) Canada (D) Japan
26. Which one of the following States 36. How many departments are there
has the highest percentage of in the Ministry of Home Affairs ?
Scheduled Caste population ? (A) 6 (B) 7
(A) Tamil Nadu (C) 5 (D) 4
(B) Punjab
37. In India the smallest million city
(C) Rajasthan
is—
(D) West Bengal
(A) Allahabad (B) Amritsar
27. The Indian National Congress
(C) Faridabad (D) Rajkot
was founded by—
(A) Lala Lajpat Roy 38. National Authority Chemical
(B) Lord Dufferin Weapons Convention (CWC) has
(C) Lord Ripon been set up under the adminis-
(D) Allen Octavian Hume trative control of—
28. Annie Besant arrived in India in— (A) Prime Minister’s Office
(A) 1893 (B) 1895 (B) Cabinet Secretariat
(C) 1890 (D) 1904 (C) Central Secretariat
29. In which state are the Mahadeo (D) Home Ministry
hills located ?
(A) Bihar 39. According to 2001 census, the
least urbanised State of India is—
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh (A) Assam
(D) Chhattisgarh (B) Bihar
30. From economic point of view the (C) Himachal Pradesh
most important rocks of India (D) Sikkim
are—
40. In which one of the following
(A) Dharwar (B) Gondwana
crops does Madhya Pradesh
(C) Vindhyan (D) Cuddappah
stand first in India in area and
31. To which of the following did production ?
Aurangzeb give title Deen (A) Cotton (B) Millet
Panah ?
(C) Sugarcane (D) Soyabean
(A) Mohammad Azam
(B) Azam
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
(C) Kam Bakhash
(D) None of the above
32. Nadir Shah invaded India in—
(A) 1740 (B) 1739
(C) 1745 (D) 1746
33. During which of the following
Mughal Emperor’s rule was the
third battle of Panipat fought ?
(A) Alamgir II
(B) Bahadur Shah II
(C) Akbar Shah II
(D) Shah Alam II
34. During 1707 to 1759, in a span of
just five decades how many
Mughal Emperors had ascended
the throne ?
(A) Eight (B) Nine
(C) Seven (D) Six
35. The Atmiya Sabha was founded
by—
(A) Swami Vivekanand
(B) Raja Rammohan Roy
(C) Swami Dayanand
(D) Ramakrishna Paramhansa ●●●

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 914

1. What is the order of energy of (C) (A) is true but (R) is wrong 11. The effect of temperature among
the X-ray photon ? (D) (A) is wrong but (R) is right various bacteria is best under-
(A) 1 keV (B) 10 keV stood by considering its effect
5. A wave is represented by on—
(C) 100 keV (D) 1 MeV
2. Three uncharged capacitors of
capacitances C 1, C 2 and C3 are
y = 0·4 cos ( )
8t –
x
2
(A) Cell wall
(C) Ribosome
(B) Enzymes
(D) Lysosome
where x and y are in metres and
connected as shown in figure to
t in seconds. The frequency of 12. Which of the following is/are
one-another and to points A, B
the wave is— mounting medium (media) for
and D at potentials VA , VB and
4 8 slide preparation in botany
V D . Then the potential at O will (A) sec –1 (B) sec –1
be— π π anatomy ?
π π
A (C) sec –1 (D) sec –1 (A) Glycerine 10%
4 8
(B) Glycerine jelly
6. The rate expression for a
C1 (C) Both (A) and (B)
gaseous reaction
2A + B → C, is the rate = k [A]2 (D) None of the above
O
[B]1/2
C2 13. The chlorophycean characteris-
C3 when the volume of container is
tics include—
1
suddenly reduced to th, rate of (A) Presence of chlorophyll
4
B D
reaction will increase— within chloroplasts
VA + VB + VC (A) 32 times (B) 8 times (B) Pyrenoids present within
(A)
C1 + C 2 + C 3 (C) 4 times (D) 16 times chloroplasts
VA C1 + VBC2 + VDC3 (C) Photosynthetic food product
(B) 7. Which of the following is
C1 + C 2 + C 3 is starch
commonly known as ‘oil of
VA VB + VBVD + VDVA vitriol’ ?
(C) (D) All of the above
C1 + C 2 + C 3 (A) H2S2O7 (B) H2SO4
VA VB VD 14. The characteristic by which a
(D) (C) H2S2O6 (D) H2S2O3Mg
C1C2 + C2C3 + C3C1 gene is made able to yield a
8. Allylcyanide contains σ and π phenotypic character is called—
3. Two bodies are projected up-
bonds— (A) Gene library
wards with same initial velocity of
98 ms–1 after an interval of 4 sec. (A) 3σ and 4π bonds (B) Gene expression
At what time after the launch of (B) 5σ and 7π bonds (C) Gene manipulation
first body will they meet ?
(C) 9σ and 3π bonds (D) Gene pool
(A) 12 sec (B) 14 sec
(C) 15 sec (D) 10 sec (D) 9σ and 9π bonds 15. Investigators perform a dihybrid
9. The fact about digitoxose is/are— cross between two hetero-
4. Assertion (A) : If
(A) Its formula is C6H12O4 zygotes and get about a 3 : 1
→ → → ratio among the offspring. The
A + B + C = 0, (B) The 2-deoxy sugar present
reason must be due to—
→ → → → → → in several of the cardiac
then A × B = B × C = C × A glycosides of digitalis (A) Linked genes
Reason (R) : The vector sum of (C) Its formula is C3H8O3 (B) Epistatic genes
three vectors can never be zero. (D) Both (A) and (B) (C) Pleiotrophic genes
Choose the correct answer from
10. Isomers differing in their con- (D) Polygenes
the following—
figuration at a chiral atom are
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct termed as— 16. Fishes have—
and (R) is the correct expla- (A) Vertebrae
(A) Enantiomers
nation of (A)
(B) Potentiomers (B) Spinal cord
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct
but (R) is the correct expla- (C) Chargers (C) Skull and bone
nation of (A) (D) Decomers (D) All of the above

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 916

17. Change in vision of elderly persons, by which they go
back to the sight of their youth, is termed as—
(A) Giardiasis (B) Gerontopia
(C) Ghost corpuscle (D) Night blindness
18. Which type of endoplasmic reticulum lacks ribosomes
and is involved in the synthesis of steroid hormone ?
(A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Tough endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Solution to Quiz No. 136
(D) All of the above
Competition Science Vision
19. Development on land requires that the—
Last date for sending 28th September, 2009
(A) Skin should be wet
(B) All integuments should be dried Name Mr./Miss/Mrs. ...........................….........................
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct Full Address ...................................…..........................
(D) Embryo be protected from desiccation .............................................................…………………
20. Chicken development can be used to model the ............................................................…………………
development of—
State .......................Pin Code No.
(A) Birds
(B) Reptiles
Age.................. Academic Qualification........................
(C) Both (A) and (B)
Competition examination for which preparing
(D) None of the above
....................................................................................
●●●
I have read and understood the rules of quiz con-
Rules for taking part in Quiz Contest test of Competition Science Vision issued by Pratiyogita
of Competition Science Vision Darpan and agree to abide by them.
...................................
1. All students or those appearing in competitive (Signature)
examinations can take part in this contest.
2. Candidates taking part in quiz contest will necessarily RESULT
have to send their entries by a fixed date. Entries are
to be sent by ordinary post. Please mark your
No. of questions attempted..........................................
envelope 'Quiz–Competition Science Vision' on No. of correct answers.................................................
the top left hand side.
No. of wrong answers...................................................
3. Answers given only on the form of the magazine will
be admissible. Marks obtained.............................................................
4. In the form there are four squares against each
question number. Contestants should put a cross (×) ANSWER FORM
in the square for the answer they think is correct.
Q. No. A B C D Q. No. A B C D
Giving more than one answer to a question will
disqualify it. 1. 11.
5. Contestants should essentially write the number of 2. 12.
questions they have solved.
3. 13.
6. Marks will be deducted for wrong answers.
7. The candidate sending the maximum number of 4. 14.
correct answers will be given Rs. 600 as first prize. 5. 15.
Next two candidates after that will get Rs. 400 and
Rs. 300 as second and third prize respectively. If 6. 16.
there are more than one candidate eligible for a 7. 17.
prize, the amount will be equally distributed among
8. 18.
them.
8. The decision of the editor will be final and binding in 9. 19.
all cases, and will not be a matter for consideration 10. 20.
of any court.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 917

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 According to the rules of the CSV
Quiz, all entry forms were examined.
As a result, the following participants
have qualified for various prizes. CSV
sends them greetings and good
wishes for their bright future. It also
places on record its appreciation for
their inquisitive nature and expresses
obligation for their co-operation.
PRIZE WINNERS
First Prize
Krishan Kumar Rajbhar
B-57, N.C.L. Khadia,
Shaktinagar, Sonebhadra
U.P.–231 222
Second Prize
Vishal Tiwari
III-B-231
Vidyut Vihar Colony
Shaktinagar, Sonebhadra
U.P.–231 222
Third Prize
Vivek Shukla
C/o Sanjay Mishra
782, Mutthiganj (Rani Betiya Ka
Ahata), Allahabad
U.P.–211 003

Useful for Various Competitive Exams.

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C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 919

 Directions—(Q. 1–5) These
questions are based on the following
letter/number/symbol arrangement.
Study it carefully and answer the
questions.
H8B4#9%E1D★ 6@A$
F©3J7LI2KTU5
1. Which of the following is the third
to the right of fifteenth from the
right end of the arrangement ?
(A) ★ (B) A
(C) @ (D) F
(E) None of these
2. How many such numbers are
there in the given arrangement,
each of which is immediately pre-
ceded by a symbol and also
immediately followed by a
letter ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) Four
3. How many such symbols are
there in the given arrangement
each of which is immediately
preceded by a number and also
immediately followed by a
vowel ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
4. If all the numbers are deleted
from the given arrangement,
which of the following will be
fifteenth from the left end ?
(A) L (B) %
(C) # (D) F
(E) None of these
5. Four of the following five are
alike based upon their position in
the given arrangement. Which is
the one that does not belong to
that group ?
(A) KIT (B) $@F
(C) 94% (D) J©7
(E) E%D
Directions—(Q. 6–10) In each of
these questions a group of letters is
given followed by four combinations
of number/symbol lettered (A), (B),
(C) and (D). Letters are to be coded
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 920
as per the scheme and conditions another 6 km and stop. How far
given below. You have to find out the are the two friends from each
serial letter of the combination, which other when the two finally stop ?
represents the letter group. Serial (A) 6 km (B) 12 km
letter of that combination is your (C) 4 km (D) 10 km
answer. If none of the combinations is
(E) None of these
correct, your answer is (E) i.e., ‘None
of these’. 12. How many meaningful English
Letters : words can be formed with the
IBDHLPA RF KEC M UT letters WLFO using each letter
only once in each word ?
Number/Symbol Code :
4$3@ 1 7 % 6 © 2 9 # 8 5 ★ (A) None (B) One
Conditions : (C) Two (D) Three
(i) If the first letter is a vowel (E) More than three
and the last a consonant, 13. What should come next in the
the codes for the first and following letter series ?
the last letters are to be cabacababcababccab
interchanged. abcdcab
(ii) If both first and the last (A) b (B) c
letters are vowels, both are
(C) d (D) e
to be coded as ‘δ’
(E) None of these
(iii) If the first letter is a conso-
14. How many such digits are there
nant and the last a vowel,
both are to be coded as the in the number 924715368 each of
code for the consonant. which is as far away from the
6. KTHCLI beginning of the number as when
the digits are arranged in ascend-
(A) 4★@#12 (B) 2★@#14
ing order within the number ?
(C) 2★@#12 (D) 4★@#14
(A) None (B) One
(E) None of these
(C) Two (D) Three
7. CMKRAH (E) Four
(A) #862%@ (B) #82%6@
15. Nandan correctly remembers
(C) #8%26@ (D) #2%6@8 that Ritu’s birthday is before
(E) None of these Saturday while after Tuesday.
Geeta correctly remembers that
8. ATPRDE
Ritu’s birthday is after Monday
(A) %★7639 (B) 9★763%
but before Friday. On which of
(C) %★763% (D) δ★ 763δ the following days does Ritu’s
(E) None of these birthday definitely falls ?
9. URBMDL (A) Wednesday
(A) 16$835 (B) 56$831 (B) Thursday
(C) 56$835 (D) 16$831 (C) Friday
(E) None of these
(D) Wednesday or Thursday
10. FHBCIU (E) Cannot be determined
(A) 5@$#4© (B) ©@$#4©
(C) 5@$#45 (D) 5@#$45 16. Four of the following five are alike
in a certain way and so form a
(E) None of these
group. Which is the one that does
11. Two friends start from a com- not belong to that group ?
mon point P. One drives 6 km (A) Defend (B) Ambush
towards North and the other
drives 6 km towards East, after (C) Attack (D) Invade
which both take a left turn, drive (E) Raid
17. How many such pairs of letters (iv) If an odd number is follo- and IT. Not more than two work in the
are there in the word CREATIVE wed by a prime odd num- same department. Each of them
each of which has as many letters ber, the first number is to be works in different organization which
between them in the word as divided by the second are P, Q, R, S, T, W and Z not
there are in the English alpha- number. necessarily in this order. A who does
bet ? (v) If an odd number is followed not work for organization P works in
(A) None (B) One by an even number, the Marketing Department like C. E
(C) Two (D) Three second one is to be sub- works for organization W and does
(E) More than three tracted from the first one. not work in Finance Department B
21. 32 13 5 works for organization T and works
18. Each of the vowels in the word in the same Department as D. Only F
15 12 15
POLYTECHNIC is substituted by works in HR Department. None in
the letter preceding it in the Which of the following will be the
answer if the resultants of the Marketing or IT department works for
English alphabetical series, and organization R. C works for organiza-
each consonant is substituted by two rows are added ?
tion S. The one who works for organi-
the letter following it. Which of (A) 45 (B) 54
zation Z works for the Finance
the following will be sixth letter (C) 36 (D) 18
Department.
from the right end if all the (E) None of these
26. Which of the following combina-
vowels are deleted in the new 22. 67 12 11 tions is correct ?
arrangement so formed ? 20 x 14 (A) C – S – Finance
(A) Z (B) D If x is the resultant of the first (B) E – T – IT
(C) P (D) H row, what will be resultant of the (C) A – R–Marketing
(E) None of these second row ? (D) F – Q – HR
19. In a certain code if NAME is (A) 16 (B) 5 (E) None of these
coded as 4692 and MINT is (C) 11 (D) 6
coded as 9745. How is MITE in 27. Which of the following works in
(E) None of these
that language ? IT Department ?
23. 12 36 31 (A) G
(A) 9726 (B) 9762
(C) 9752 (D) 9572 x 11 15 (B) D
(E) None of these If x is the resultant of the first (C) B
row, what will be the resultant of (D) Data inadequate
20. In a certain code HIGHWAY is the second row ? (E) None of these
written as HJIHZBX. How is (A) 5 (B) 10
SYMBOLS written in that code ? 28. Who works for organization R ?
(C) 45 (D) 75
(A) NZTBTMP (A) A (B) F
(E) None of these
(B) SZTBMPT (C) G (D) Z
(C) NZTCTMP 24. 27 18 3
(E) None of these
(D) NZTCMTP 21 x 9
If x is the resultant of the first row, 29. Which of the following pairs
(E) None of these works in Finance Department ?
what will be the resultant of the
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each second row ? (A) A, B (B) E, G
of the questions, two row; of numbers (C) F, D (D) D, B
(A) 63 (B) 36
are given. The resultant number in
(C) 3 (D) 16 (E) None of these
each row is to be worked out sepa-
rately based on the following rules (E) None of these 30. For which of the following
and the question below the rows of 25. 35 7 2 organizations does D work ?
numbers are to be answered. The (A) P (B) Q
12 16 x
operation of numbers progresses (C) Z (D) R
from left to right. If x is the resultant of the first
row, what will be the answer if (E) None of these
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed the resultant of the two rows are Directions—(Q. 31–35) Read
by another composite odd multiplied ? the following information carefully and
number, they are to be (A) 7 (B) 10 answer the questions, which follow—
multiplied. (C) 24 (D) 21 (i) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is father of
(ii) If an even number is (E) None of these Q’.
followed by an odd number, (ii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is sister of
they are to be added. Directions—(Q. 26–30) Study
Q’.
(iii) If an even number is follo- the following information carefully and
answer the given questions. (iii)‘P × Q’ means ‘P is brother
wed by a number which is a
perfect square, the even Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F of Q’.
number is to be subtracted and G work in four different depart- (iv) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is mother
from the perfect square. ments i.e., Marketing. Finance HR of Q’.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 921

31. In the expression ‘A ÷ B – C + D’
how is C related to A ?
(A) Granddaughter
(B) Grandfather
(C) Grandson
(D) Either (A) or (C)
(E) None of these
32. In the expression ‘A + B × C ÷ D’
how is D related to A ?
(A) Son (B) Grandson
(C) Aunt (D) Nephew
(E) None of these
33. In the expression A × B ÷ C – D’.
How is C related to A ?
(A) Uncle (B) Nephew
(C) Niece (D) Aunt
(E) None of these
34. Which of the following means ‘A
is grandmother of D’ ?
(A) A ÷ B + C ÷ D
(B) A – B + C ÷ D
(C) A + B ÷ C × D
(D) A + B × C – D
(E) None of these
35. In the expression ‘A + B – C × D’
how is C related to A ?
(A) Aunt (B) Niece
(C) Father (D) Nephew
(E) None of these

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 922