CRIMINAL LAW & JURISPUDENCE

1. The following are crimes against property except one.

a) arson

b) possession of picklocks

c) libel

d) malicious mischief

2. The following are to be taken in consideration if there is inexcusable lack of precaution

on the part of the offender except one.
a) employment or occupation

b) degree of education

c) persons, time and place

d) degree of physical conditions

3. It is the breach of allegiance to a government committed by a person who owes

allegiance to it.
a) misprision of treason

b) espionage

c) duel

d) treason

4. It means an extremely vicious or deeply insulting act.

a) cruelty

b) ignominy

c) scoffing

d) outraging

5. It is committed by a man who has sexual intercourse under scandalous circumstances.

a)pre-mature marriage

b) adultery

c) concubinage

d) disloyalty

6. It is the unlawful extortion of money by threats of accusation or exposure.

a) other light threats b)libel

c) blackmail

d) defamation

7. It is the means, methods or forms of attack consciously adopted by the offender to

insure the consummation of the crime.
a) alevosia

b) cuadrilla

c) delitos

d) evident premeditation

8. It is the deliberately augmenting the suffering of the victim which is not necessary in the
commission of the crime.

a) ignominy

b) cruelty

c) scoffing

d) outraging

9. It means to jeer, and implies a showing of irreverence.

a) scoffing

b) ignominy

c) pompous

d) outraging

10. The following are the requisites of a valid marriage except one.
a) authority of the solemnizing officer
b) legal capacity of the contracting parties who must be of the same sex
c) a valid marriage license
d) marriage ceremony
11. The following cannot be prosecuted de oficio except one.
a) rape

b) seduction

c) acts of lasciviousness

d) adultery

12. The following are the crimes against the civil status except one.
a) bigamy

b) premature marriages

c) abandoning a minor

d) simulation of birth

13. It is the doctrine which states that the contributory negligence of the party injured will not
defeat the action if it be shown that the accused might, in the exercise of reasonable
care and prudence, have avoided the consequences of the negligence of the injured
party.
a) right of pre-emption

b) fortuitous event

c) last clear chance

d) emergency

rule

14. It is a question where the validity of the second marriage is a liability for bigamy.
a) negative pregnant b) political question
d) prejudicial question

c) judicial question

15. The following are crimes against the fundamental law of the State except one.
a) arbitrary detention b) violation of domicile

c) illegal detention

d) delaying release

16. In the following cases, a person who committed parricide is not punishable with reclusion
perpetua to death except one.
a) committed thru negligence

b) committed under exceptional circumstances

c) committed by mistake

d) committed without intent

17. It is the unlawful killing of a person which is not parricide or infanticide provided
qualifying aggravating circumstances are present.
a) homicide

b) abortion

c) murder

d) parricide by mistake

18. The following are the requisites of evident premeditation except one.
a) any act manifestly indicating that the culprit has clung to its determination
b) a sufficient lapse of time between the determination and the execution
c) a sudden and an unexpected attack to ensure the consummation of the crime
d) the time when the offender determined to commit the crime

19. If a person shoots at another with any firearm to cause danger in a public place, what
crime is committed?
a) discharge of firearm

b) alarm

c) grave threat

d) light coercion

20. It s the unlawful killing a person without qualifying circumstances.

a) homicide

b) infanticide

c) abortion

d) murder

21. If a person kills another by poison, what crime is committed?

a) homicide

b) infanticide

c) parricide

d) murder

22. It is the penalty that has a duration of 6 months and 1 day to 6 years.
a) reclusion temporal b) arresto menor

c) prision mayor

d) prision correccional

23. It consists of acts which are offensive to decency and good customs which having been
committed publicly, have given rise to public scandal to persons who have accidentally
witnessed the same.
a) grave scandal

b) indecency

c) vagrancy

d) prostitution

24. It is the performance of some act which ought not to be done.

a) malfeasance

b) non-feasance

c) dereliction of duty d) misfeasance

25. It is the omission of some acts which ought to be performed.

a) ) malfeasance

b) non-feasance

c) dereliction of duty d) misfeasance

26. B gave Inspector XYZ a gift of considerable amount which the latter received in
exchange for the issuance of a fake Police Investigation Report, what crime did
Inspector XYZ commit?
a) direct bribery

b) indirect bribery

c) corruption of public officials

d) dereliction of duty

27. It is a building or structure exclusively used for rest and comfort.

a) home

b) condominium unit

c) hotel

d) dwelling

28. A quack doctor who treated a sick man resulting to the latters death, what crime was
committed?
a) frustrated homicide
b) murder
c) reckless imprudence resulting to homicide
d) reckless imprudence resulting to murder

29. The following are the subject of forgery except one.

a) treasury note

b) affidavit

c) securities payable to bearer

d) certificates

30. If a person points a gun to pregnant woman, at the same time telling her that he will her,
and because of fright she absorbs, she suffer an abortion, what crime is committed.
a) intentional abortion

b) grave threats

c) unintentional abortion

d)

threat

31. It means the lopping or clipping off some part of the body.
a) castration

b) mutilation

c) assaulting

d) beating

32. The following are the acts of committing falsification except one.
a) imitating handwriting

b) altering true date

c) making untruthful statements

d) giving a treasury note which appears a genuine document

33. Jose executed a false affidavit, what crime was committed?

a) libel

b) falsification c) perjury

34. It is the death of a person

d) false testimony

brought by a lawful act performed with proper care and skill,

and without homicidal intent.

a) frustrated homicide b) accidental homicide

c) impossible crime

d) imprudence

35. It is a communication by means of letters.

a) telegram

b) confidential

c) correspondence

d) privilege communication

36. It is the practice of putting to death a person suffering from some incurable disease.
a) giving assistance to suicide

b) suicide

c) euthanasia

d) murder

37. It is a crime committed by more than three armed persons who form a band of robbers
for the purpose of committing robbery in a highway to be attained by means of force and
violence.
a) brigands

b) brigandage c) robbery

d) kidnapping with ransom

38. The following are liable for seduction except one.

a) spouse

b) domestic

c) teacher

d) brother

39. The following are the acts penalizing white slave trade except one.
a) promoting prostitution

b) profiting by prostitution

c) enlisting the services of women for prostitution

d) engaging in the business of prostitution

40. It is the taking away of a woman from her house or place where she may be for the
purpose of carrying her to another place with intent to marry or to corrupt her.
a) kidnapping

b) seduction

c) illegal detention

d) abduction

41. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a
judge and directed to a peace officer, commanding him to search for personal properties
and bring it before the judge.
a) search

b) arrest

c) search warrant

d) warrant of arrest

42. H seduced Ws daughter because H refused to marry her. W threatened H with death,
unless H would marry her daughter, what crime did W commit?
a) light threat

b) blackmail

c) grave threat

d) grave coercion

43. It is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the
commission of an offense.
a) search

b) arrest

c) search warrant

d) warrant of arrest

44. The following are the subject of a search warrant except one.
a) subject of the offense

b) stolen private properties

c) fruits of the offense

d) used or intended to be used in the commission of an offense

45. The following are justifying circumstances except one.

a) defense of relatives

b) accident

c) fulfillment of a duty

d) obedience of an order

46. The following are the causes which may produce the legal dissolution of the first
marriage except one.
a) judicial declaration of presumptive death
b) death of one of the contracting parties
c) judicial declaration annulling a void marriage
d) judicial declaration annulling a voidable marriage

47. It is the taking of a personal property belonging to another with intent to gain, by means
of violence against or intimidation of any person, or using force upon things.
a) piracy

b) theft

c) robbery

d) qualified theft

48. The following are the civil liability of persons guilty of crimes against chastity except one.
a) to support the offspring
b) to indemnify the offended woman
c) to marry the offended woman
d) to acknowledge the offspring

49. The following are false keys except one.

a) genuine keys stolen from the owner

b) picklocks or similar tools

c) genuine key entrusted by the owner to the offender

d) any keys other than those by the owner for use in the lock forcibly opened by the
offender

50. The following are crimes against the civil status except one.
a) bigamy

b) premature marriages

c) libel

d) simulation of birth

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

1. The act that provides the National Police Commission to conduct Police
examination is;
a. RA 2260
c. RA 6040
b. RA 4864
d. RA 6141
2. The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Director General of
the PNP is;
a. 4 years
c. 6 years
b. 5 years
d. 7 years
3. In the Attrition System of the PNP, the maximum tenure of
Director is ;
a. 4 years
c. 6 years
b. 5 years
d. 9 years

the PNP Regional

4. The end product resulting from evaluation analysis, integration and

interpretation of information is called
a. Police Intelligence
c. Intelligence
b. Military Intelligence
d. Undercover Intelligence
5. The Law that provides for the Reform and Reorganization of the Philippine
National Police.
a. RA 6975
c. RA 8551
b. RA 4864
d. RA 6141
6. What should be conducted in order to determine whether a case falls under
the jurisdiction of the regional Trial Court?
a. Inquest proceeding
c. Preliminary conference
b. Preliminary investigation
d. Search and Seizure

a.
b.
c.
d.

7. When does the court acquire jurisdiction over a case filed by the law
enforcement agencies?
the moment the case is filed with the fiscal office
the moment that it is filed with the court
the moment that the trial or the case begins
the moment that the parties presents their evidence
8. In the conduct of custodial investigation, one of the rights provided for
by law is the protection against self-incrimination and right is found on
the grounds of ;
a. public policy and morality
c. humanity and conscience
b. public policy and humanity

d. humanity kindness

9. What rule or doctrine in criminal jurisprudence requires mandatory preinterrogation warnings concerning self-incrimination and the right to
counsel of the suspect?
a. Doctrine of the First of the Poisonous Tree
b. Doctrine on the Presumption of Innocence
c. Due Process Law
d. Miranda Doctrine

10.

Miranda Law is a law that is applied to every citizen. This is otherwise

known also as;
a. RA 6975
c. The Philippine 1987
Constitution
b. RA 8551
d. RA 7438

11.

What is the Latin term for criminal intent?

a. Mens Rea
c. Magna Culpa
b. Inflagrante Deleto
d. Gamacta

12.

In simple sense, it is an act of deciding in advance on what is to be

done and how it is to be accomplished; it is in essence, preparations for
action.

a. operations
b. planning

c. management
d. administration

13. A standard operating procedures that is intended to be used in all

situations of all kinds, and shall be outlines as a guide to officers and
men in the field.

a. Headquarters procedures
procedures
b. Field procedures

c. special operating

d. characteristics of plans

14. A standard operating procedures, that is includes the procedures and the
duties of dispatcher, jailer, matron and other personnel concerned which
may be reflected in the duty manual.

a. Headquarters procedures
procedures
b. Field procedures

c. special operating
d. operational plans

15. A type of plans, that considers plans for the operations of special
divisions like, patrol, traffic, vice, and juvenile delinquency control.

a. Policies or procedures
b. Operational plans

c. tactical plans
d. extra-office plans

16. A type of plan that includes those procedures for coping with specific
situations at known locations, such plans for dealing
with an attack
against building with alarm systems and an attack against. Headquarters of
the PNP.
a. tactical plans
c. management plans
b. Extra-office plans
d. operational plans

17. A plan that includes the mapping out in advance all operations involved in
the organization, management of personnel and material and in the
procurement and disbursement of money, etc.

a. management of plans
b. extra-office plans

c. operational plans
d. characteristics of plans

18.

A step in planning, that calls for identification of the problem,

understanding both records and its possible solution; a situation must exit
for which something must and can be done.
a. collecting all pertinent facts
c. analyzing the facts
b. clarifying the problems
d. developing alternative
plans

19. A steps in planning, that states that no attempt shall be made to develop
a plan until all facts relating to it have been gathered.
a. collecting all pertinent facts
c. developing alternative
plans
b. analyzing the facts
d. selecting the most appropriate
alternative
20. Of the following steps in planning, one which after all the data have been
gathered, a careful study and evaluation shall be made; this provides the
basis from which a plan or plans are evolved.
a. developing alternative plans c. selecting the most appropriate
alternative
b. developing the facts
d. selling the plan
21. One of the steps in planning, where a careful consideration of
usually leads to
the selection of a best alternative proposals.
a. analyzing the facts
b. selecting the most appropriate alternative
c. selling the plan
d. arranging for the execution of the plan.

facts

22. One step in planning, that is necessary in order to know whether a correct
alternative was chosen, whether or not the plan is correct, which phase was
poorly implemented, and whether additional planning may be necessary.
a. evaluating the effectiveness of the plan
b. arranging for the execution of the plan
c. selecting the most appropriate alternative
d. selling the plan
23.What activity requires the duty of a superior officer of any unit of the
Philippine National Police and its units subordinates to establish rapport
or good relationship
with other law enforcement agencies of the
government?
a. Police Executive Training
c. Business like Activity
b. Coordination and Cooperation
d. Socialization
24.

The division that shall accomplish the primary responsibility of

safeguarding the community through protection of persons and property, the
suppression of criminal activities, the apprehension of criminals, the
enforcement of laws and ordinances and regulations of conduct, and
performing necessary services and inspections is;
a. Traffic Division
c. Theft and Robbery Division
b. Patrol Force
d. Juvenile Delinquency Control
Division

25. The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with accidents that
involve one or both of the elements namely;
a. motor vehicles and traffic way
c. motor vehicle and victim
b. victim and traffic way
d. victim and traffic unit
26. One of the following statements that best indicates the main purpose of
traffic law enforcement is;
a. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
b. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
c. control the speed limited in densely populated areas
d. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic

27.

It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen

automobile license plates. The best reason for this practice is to;
a. permit the promote issuance of new plate
b. prevent cards from being stolen
c. keep record of all outstanding license plate in use
d. Detain any person found using or attempting to use any of these plates.

28. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to;

a. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than as causes
b. consider violation as primary causes and any other factors as secondary
causes
c. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior to the accident
as a cause
d. look for the key event that cause the accident
29. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is
a. selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement
b. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
c. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
d. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive measure for
future violation
30.

In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the following

evidence will show how the accident happened?
a. hole on the road pavement
b. the driver under the influence of liquor
c. point of impact
d. vehicle has break failure

34.A system of coordinated activities, group of people,

leadership and cooperation towards a goal is called:

a. Formal Organizations
Organizations
c. Administration

authority

b.
d.

and

Informal
All

of

the

above

35. An indefinite and unstructured organization that has no definite

subdivision and comprised of unconscious group feelings, passions
and activities of individuals is referred to as:

a. Formal Organizations
Organizations
c. Administration
36. The structured group of
achieving police goals and
called:

b.

Informal

d. None of the above

trained personnel
objectives of an

that deals with

organization
is

a. Police Management

b. Police Organization

c. Organizational Structure

d.

Police

Administration

37. The study of the processes and conditions of the Law Enforcement
pillar that is also called police in action:
a. Police Management
b. Police Organization
c. Organizational Structure
d. Police Administration
38. The ability of police administrators in winning support for
departmental programs from people with in the department as well as
the citizens is called:
a. Community relation
b. Police Leadership
c. Police planning

d. Community Policing

39. The performance of task that deals with commensurate authority to

fulfill the responsibility is known as:
a. Policy formulation
b. Supervision
c. Direction
d. Execution
40. The extent to which an authority is concentrated or dispersed is
called:
a Unity of Direction
b. Centralization
c Scalar of Chain
d. Unity of Command
41. The principle of organization suggesting that communication should
ordinarily go upward and downward through establish channels in the
hierarchy is;
a. Chain of Command
b. Unity of Command
c. Span of Control
d. Delegation of Authority
42. The
force
a.
c.

principle of organization that results from the division of

into separate units to perform individual task is called:
Specialization
b. Chain of Command
Organizational Structure
d. All of the above

43. The section or territorial division of a large city

comprises of designated districts is referred as:
a. District
b. Section
c. Unit
d. Area

which

44. The staff specialist or unit in line organization that provides

service knowledge is known as:
a. Line and Staff Organization
b. Functional Organization
c. Line Organization
d. Structural Organization
45. A type of organizational structure in which quick decisions are
made because of direct line authority and discipline is easily
administered is called:
a. Line and Staff Organization
b. Functional Organization
c. Line Organization
d.Functional
and
Staff
Organization
46. A personnel of the police department who has taken oath of office
and possess the power to arrest is called:
a. Arresting officer
b. Commanding Officer
c. Sworn Officer
d. Superior Officer
47. The
force
a.
c.

nature of task primarily performed according to organized

is called delegation of task according to:
Place of Work
b. Time Frame
Level of Authority
d. Function

48. The placement of subordinate into the position for which their
capabilities best fit them is referred to as:
a. Staffing
b. Organizing
c. Directing
d. Planning
49. The structural changes to be made when need arise to provide a
more effective medium of work that can be performed and distributed
is called:
a. Staffing
b. Directing
c. Organizing
d. Planning
50. The nature of service in which an employee shall receive order
from only one superior is called:
a. Scalar Chain
b. Unity of Command
c. Chain of Command

d. Unity of Direction

CRIMINALSITICS
1.

There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most skilful Class

of forgery.
a.

simulated or copied forgery

b.

simple forgery

c.

traced forgery

d.

carbon tracing

2.
Condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is adequate
and proper,
should contain a cross section of the material from known sources.

3.

4.

a.

disguised document

b.

questioned document

c.

standard document

d.

requested document

Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which is of known origin.

a.

letters

c.

exemplars

c.

6.

d.

samples

documents

A document which is being questioned because of its origin, its contents

or the circumstances or the stories of its production.
a.

5.

b.

disputed document
requested document

b.

standard document
d.

questioned document

The art of beautiful writing.

a.

drafting

b.

calligraphy

c.

art appreciation

d.

gothic

Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is established.

a.
c.

certificate
warrant

b.

subpoena

d.

document

7.

8.

9.

A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward flow of the

innermost sufficient recurve is towards the thumb of radius bone of the
hand of origin.
a.

ulnar loop

b.

tented arch

c.

accidental whorl

d.

radial loop

The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches.

a.

ridge

b.

island

c.

delta

d.

bifurcation

The point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center

divergence of the type lines.
a.

divergence

b.

island

c.

delta

d.

bifurcation

of the

10.
The following are considerations used for the identification of a loop
except one:
a.
c.
looping bridge
11.

12.

a delta

b.

a sufficient recurve

d.

a core
a ridge count across a

The process of recording fingerprint through the use of fingerprint ink.

a.

pathology

b.

fingerprinting

c.

dactyloscopy

d.

printing press

The fingerprint method of identification.

a.

pathology

b.

fingerprinting

c.

dactyloscopy

d.

printing press

13.
Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel, diverge and surround the
pattern area.

14.
ridges.

a.

ridges

c.

type line

b.

delta
d.

bifurcation

A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores, deltas and
a.

type line

c.

pattern area

15.
Fingerprints left
are not clearly visible.
a.

b.
d.

bifurcation

forrow

on various surfaces at the crime scene which

plane impressions

b.

visible fingerprints

c.

rolled impressions

16.
The impressions
various surfaces.

left

by

d.

the

patterns

latent fingerprints
of

ridges

and

a.

kiss marks

b.

finger rolls

c.

thumb marks

d.

fingerprints

depressions

on

17.
Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint
pattern?
a.

arch

b.

accidental

c.

loop

d.

whorl

18.
The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity between
two points.
a.

eighteen

c.

twelve

b.
d.

fifteen

nine

19.
A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals
around core axes.

20.

a.

whorl

b.

c.

central pocket loop

double loop
d.

accidental

A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of

the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side where the
ridge has entered.
a.

loop

b.

radial loop

c.

ulnar loop

d.

tented arch

21.
A person allowed to give an opinion or conclusion on a given scientific
evidence.

22.

a.

interrogator

b.

expert witness

c.

prosecutor

d.

judge

The application of scientific knowledge and techniques in the detection

of crime and apprehension of criminals.

a.
Administration

Law Enforcement Administration

c.
Criminalistics

Criminal Psychology

23.

24.

concave lens

c.

negative lens

The normal developing time

Forensic
d.

Lens that is characterized by a thicker

a.

b.

b.

center

and thinner sides.

convex lens
d.

positive lens

of a paper or film.

25.

a.

30-60 minutes

c.

5-10 minutes

b.
d.

20-30

minutes

1- 2 minutes

This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter

for a predetermined time interval.

through the lens

a.

holder of sensitised material

b.

view finder

c.

shutter

d.

view finder

26.
A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal
material.

27.

28.

a.

telephoto lens

c.

normal lens

b.
d.

31.

32.

long lens

wide angle lens

Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.

a.

Potassium Bromide

c.

Sodium Sulfite

b.

Sodium Carbonate
d.

Hydroquinone

A part of a camera used in focusing the light from the subject

a.

view finder

c.

shutter

b.

lens
d.

29.
A component of the polygraph instrument
the subject.

30.

of its negative

light tight box

which records the breathing of

a.

cardiosphygmograph

b.

pneumograph

c.

galvanograph

d.

kymograph

A component of the polygraph instrument which records the blood pressure

and the pulse rate of the subject.
a.

cardiosphygmograph

b.

pneumograph

c.

galvanograph

d.

kymograph

A component of the polygraph instrument which is a motor that drives or

pulls the chart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at the rate
of 6 or 12 inches per minute.
a.

cardiosphygmograph

b.

pneumograph

c.

galvanograph

d.

kymograph

The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of

the questions in a polygraph test except one.
a.
b.

Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the subject

can easily understand.
Questions must be answerable by yes or no.

33.
of

34.

35.

38.

39.

40,

41.

Questions must be as short as possible.

d.

Questions must all be in the form of accusations

In polygraph examination, the term examination means a detection

a.

forgery

b.

emotion

c.

the mind

d.

deception

It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which appears

to go beyond a persons defensive power.
a.

fear

c.

response

b.

stimuli
d.

reaction

The primary purpose of pre-test interview.

36.
The
question.

37.

c.

a. Prepare subject for polygraph test

b. Obtain confession
c. Make the subject calm
d. Explain the polygraph test procedures
deviation from normal tracing of the subject

in

a.

positive response

b.

specific response

c.

normal response

d.

reaction

the

relevant

The study of the effect of the impact of a projectile on the target.

a.

Terminal Ballistics

b.

Internal Ballistics

c.

External Ballistics

d.

Forensic Ballistics

The unstable rotating motion of the bullet.

a.

Trajectory

c.

Velocity

b.

yaw
d.

gyroscopic action

The part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws the shell or

cartridge from the chamber.
a.

extractor

b.

ejector

c.

striker

d.

trigger

The pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.

a.

yaw

c.

velocity

b.

range
d.

trajectory

This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after
striking a resistant surface.
a.

misfire

b.

mushroom

c.

ricochet

d.

key hole shot

42.

A type of primer with two vents or flash holes.

a.

Bordan primer

b.

Berdan Primer

c.

Baterry Primer

d.

Boxer Primer

43.
This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the
bore.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

a.

swaging

b.

ogive

c.

rifling

d.

breaching

It refers to the unstable rotating motion of the bullet.

a.

trajectory

b.

yaw

c.

velocity

d.

gyproscopic action

It is the measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.

a.

calibre

c.

gauge

a.

Hans Gross

c.

Albert Osborne

rifling

b.

Charles Waite
d.

Calvin Goddard

A document in which some issues have been raised or is under scrutiny.

a.

Void Document

c.

Forged Document

b.
d.

The following are characteristics of

c.
d.
e.

50.

c.

mean diameter

He is known as the Father of Ballistics.

a.

49.

b.

Illegal Document

Questioned Document

forgery

except one:

Presence of Natural Variation

Multiple Pen Lifts
Show bad quality of ink lines
Patchwork Appearance

Standards which are prepared upon the request of the investigator and
for the purpose of comparison with the questioned document.
a.

relative standards

b.

collected standards

c.

extended standards

d.

requested standards

Any stroke which goes back over

another writing stroke.

a.

natural variation

b.

rhythm

c.

retracing

d.

shading

CRIME DETECTION & INVESTIGATION

1. A criminal investigator who is discreetly listening to the conversation of the subjects

while the former is seated on a table near the formers table is applying:
A. eavesdropping
C. discreet listening
B. bugging
D. wiretapping
2. The word investigation is taken from the Latin word investigare which means to:
A. determine
C. solve
E. All of these
B. prove
D. trace
3. The person who popularized the employment of a thief to catch a thief was:
A. William Henry Talbot
C. Thomas Byrnes
B. Charles Dickens
D. Jonathan Wild
4. Which of the following best describes corpus delicti:
A. the body of the victim in case of homicide or murder.
B. essential parts of the body of the crime or the body of the crime itself.
C. the recovered stolen properties in case of theft or robbery.
D. any recovered weapon, either firearm or bladed weapon.
5. All but one govern Criminal Investigation as an art:
A. Intuition
D. Rigid Rules
B. Chance or luck
E. None of these
C. Felicity of Inspiration
6. What type of reasoning is used in reconstruction of the crime whereby the detective
assumes a theory based on collected information?
A. Deduction
D. Inductive approach
B. Logical reasoning
E. None of these
C. Positive approach
7. The following are authorized to issue a valid search warrant, except
A. Appellate Judge
D. Presiding Judge of MCTC
B. Chief Prosecutor
E. None of these
C. RTC Judge
8. Physical evidence which identify the criminal by means of clues, personal properties
or the characteristics pattern of procedure deduced from the arrangement of objects
at the crime scene is referred to as:

A. Circumstantial evidence
B. Associative evidence

C. Modus operandi
D. Corpus Delicti

9. If the purpose of the informer in giving information to the police is merely to gain a
pecuniary material, then his motive is
A. Remuneration
C. Repentance of sins
B. Revenge
D. Vanity
10. Which of these is a statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his criminal
guilt?
A. Admission
C. Confession
B. Acknowledgement
D. Deposition
11. The New York Chief of Detectives who introduce the Modus Operandi system in
the field of Criminal Investigation was:
A. Thomas Byrnes
C. Sir Richard Henry
B. Sir Francis Galton
D. Dr. Paul Kirk
12. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as:
A. Heel
C. Butt
E. None of these
B. Bed ladder
D. Fly ladder
13. What is the simpler method of computing the distance between the heel of the
ladder and the building?
A. Divide the length of ladder by 4 and add 2
B. Divide the length of the ladder by 4
C. Divide the ladder by 5 and add 2
D. Divide the ladder by 6 and add 2.
14. Which of the following restricts the spread of the fire to the point of origin or at least
to the area involved?
A. Extinguishments
C. Suppression
B. Confinement
D. Control
15. The technique used in clearing a building of smoke and with the use of smoke
ejector is:
A. Smoke ejector
C. Forced ventilation
B. Horizontal ventilation
D. Vertical ventilation
16. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point of the roof is referred to
as:
A. Vertical ventilation
C. Cross ventilation
B. Forced ventilation
D. Combination of cross horizontal
17. Which of the following occurs when a room is heated enough that flame sweep over
the entire surface?
A. Backdraft
C. Flashover
B. Oxidation
D. Combustion
C. All of these
18. Who was the French Chemist who proved in 1777 that burning is the result of rapid
combination of oxygen with other substance?
A. Antoine Lavoisier
C. Thomas Alva Edison

B. John Walker
D. Gabriel Daniel Fahrenheit
19. The piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety device in an
electrical system is called
A. Jumper
C. damper
E. wiring
B. explosive
D. metal piece
20. The sudden burning of accumulated radical gases resulting to the production of a
fireball is called:
A. Flash fire
C. bite back
E. explosion
B. back draft
D. flashover
21. A blue flame is an example of
A. Flames
C. luminous
E. laminar
B. non-luminous
D. diffusion
22. Which one of the following items enumerated below is a good indicator of the
intensity of the fire and an important factor in determining incendiarism?
A. Size of fire
C. smoke marks
E. color of flame
B. Direction of travel
D. color of smoke
23. The presence of chlorine is indicated by
A. Black smoke
C. biting smoke
B. reddish smoke
D. white smoke
24. What is the lowest temperature of a liquid in an open container at which vapors are
evolved fast enough to support continuous combustion?
A. Boiling point
C. vapour pressure E. velocity
B. flashpoint
D. fire point
25. Spontaneous heating is an example of what kind of reaction?
A. Exothermic reactions
D. Flame
B. endothermic reaction
E. kindling point
C. oxidation
26. A person who burns a building and pretends to discover it or turn the alarm or make
some works to appear as the center of attraction is a form of pyromania called
A. Alcoholics and addicts
D. Abnormal youth
B. sexual perverts
E. Hero types.
C. pyromania
27. The rising movement of heat, which is also deemed as the normal behavior of fire is
called:
A. Thermodynamics
C. Thermal imbalance
E. thermal balance
B. fire behavior
D. wavering
28. What is the law amending the law on arson?
A. PD No. 1613 B. RA 6975
C. RA 1813
D. RA 8551
29. If the offender had tried to burn the premises by gathering jute sacks laying this
inside the room. He lighted these, and as soon as the jute sacks began to burn, he
ran away. The occupants of the room put out the fire, what crime is committed?
A. Attempted stage
D. none of the above
B. frustrated arson
E. any of the above
C. consummated
30. What is the act that when performed will neutralize a fire hazard?

A. Offense
C. incendiary act
E. accident
B. abatement
D. delinquent act
31. DNA stands for:
A. DEOXYREBONUCLEIC ACID
C. DEOXIRIBONOCLIEC ACID
B. DEOXYRIBUNOCLIEC ACID
D. DEOXYRIBONUCLEIC ACID
32. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; however examination of lungs and
blood showed no abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be your
interpretation under such circumstance?
A. The person died because of the burning
B. The person died of asphyxia
C. The person was killed before it was burned
D. The person died not of fire but because of suffocation
E. The person died because of the autops
33. The official inquiries made by the police on the facts and circumstance surrounding
the death of a person that is expected to be unlawful is referred to as
A. official investigation D. homicide investigation
B. death investigation
E. post-mortem investigation
C. murder investigation
34. Legally, in order to establish a case of arson
A. The fire must have been started by the suspect with his own hand.
B. The property does not belong to the suspect of the crime.
C. The evidence of incendiarism must be direct and positive, not circumstantial.
D. The presumption that the fire was accidental in origin must be overcome.
35. In arson case, it is necessary to introduce evidence to prove all but one of the
following is not necessary to prove
A. That the fire actually occurred at a specified time and within the jurisdiction of the
court.
B. That the building was burned by a criminal design and by a person who is
criminally responsible.
C. That the fire was applied by the hand of the defendant of the case.
D. None of the above is applicable.
36. The different changes that take place in the body after death are referred to as
D. pos-mortem rigidity
A. post-mortem signs
E. post-mortem flaccidity
B. post-mortem changes
C. none of these
37. The part of the body most affected to by heavy drinking are:
A. digestive system and nervous system
B. brain and veins of the body
C. the lungs and heart
D. None of the above
38. The stage of alcohol addition where there is the loss of control becomes more
complete is known as:

39.
40.

41.

42.

A. slight inebriation
D. trouble on the road
B. crucial phase
E. alcoholic
C. slight ineberation
Which alcohol is also known as wood alcohol?
A. ethyl
B. methanol C. grain D. ethanol E. A or C
A kind of beverage which are fermented from fruits such as grapes and contain from
8% to 12% when fortified by adding alcohol is called
A. tapey
C. basi
E. whisky
B. wine
D. gold eagle
These are also known as the selective prostitute. These are called
A. professional
D. call girl
B. pick-up girls
E. occasional
C. street girls
The annual crime prevention week is celebrated every 1 st week of
A. August
C. July
E. June
B. April
D. September

43. The state of psychic a physical dependence or both an dangerous drugs arising in a
person following the use of drugs on periodic or continuos basis is known as
A. physical dependence
C. drug dependence
B. physical sickness
D. psychological dependence
44. The physical characteristics brought about by the repeated use of drugs having the
tendency to increase the dosage is called
A. convulsion
C. delirium
B. tolerance
D. over dose
45. Generally, the drugs that produces a relaxing state without impairment of high
facilities or the inducement of sleep are known as
A. barbiturates
C. tranquilizers
E. None of these
B. stimulants
D. narcotics
46. What is the first natural stimulant discovered?
A. nicotine
C. caffeine
B. ephedrine
D. epinephrine
47. What is the term used to describe the intoxicating effect of a drug in the lingo of the
drug users?
A. Stoned
B. Rush
C. High
D. Trip
48. What is the method of introduction of drugs into the deeper layer of the skin by
means of special electric current?
A. Topical method
C. Injection method
B. Iontophoresis
D. Oral method
49. Among the following, who was the German pharmacist who discovered the morphine drug?
A. Allan Heithfield
C. Troy Mcweigh
B. Freidrich Serturner
D. Alder Wright
C. None of these
50. What is the chemical name of the Heroin drug?
A. Amphetamine Sulfate
C. Diacetylmorphine
B. Acetonyl Dioxide
D. Methamphetamine

SOCIOLOGY OF CRIMES & ETHICS

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.
7.

8.

9.

What is the compulsory process to insure the attendance of

witnesses and presentation of evidence before the court?
A. Summons
C. Affidavit
B. Subpoena
D. Writ of Execution
Juvenile delinquency is not directly caused by poverty as claimed
by the conditions created by poverty like slums, bad environment,
broaden homes, drugs, etc. to prevent delinquency, the best solution
would be
A. Eliminate the causes
C. Beef up the police force
B. Arrest the offenders
D. Abolish poverty
Lack of Education is a factor in juvenile delinquency and is also
caused by poverty which creates other conditions that breed
delinquency like poor housing, bad neighborhood, etc. Education is a
part of what kind of environment?
A. psycho social
C. economic
B. political
D. military
Policeman cannot jail a drug dependent, addict or user. The
rationale behind this is that these users are victims of the drug
scourge and are not criminal person except the peddles or sellers.
These violations have to be turned over to
A. Reformatory
C. half-way homes
B. barangay center
D. rehabilitation centers
How many absences of the parents or guardians before a child can be
considered an abandoned child?
A. 3 absences
C. 10 absences
E. Neither
B. 15 absences
D. 20 absences
When the state become the father, this is termed as
A. parents protector
C. parens curue
B. prebona parentis
D. parents patriae
A legally emancipated minor aged seventeen, accused and convicted
of homicide is referred to as
A. Criminal
C. Juvenile offender
B. Juvenile delinquent
D. youthful offender
Which of these pertains to a family with in Laws and relatives in
the first degree?
A. nuclear family
C. broken family
B. normal family
D. extended family
Which of the following does not belong to status offenses?

A. Prostitution
C. Begging
B. drug addiction
D. drug pushing
10. What is the difference between the crime of murder and homicide?
A. revenge
C. premeditation
B. victim is dead
D. insanity
11. Eric Pecson committed a theft as he said his family needs food and
he cannot find a job. What factor is he citing?
A. socio-political
D. socio-economic
B. political military
E. cultural and traditional
C. All of these
12. Piolo Askal killed Mario Bangkay as the latter murdered his
father. What was the motive of the former?
A. nationalism
C. jealousy
E. patriotism
B. remuneration
D. revenge
13. Which of the following pertains to the planned used of
communication techniques designed to effect the fine/s emotion of a
given target group on certain issues?
A. Opinion
C. Rumors
E. all of these
B. Propaganda
D. Information
14. What is the Uncontrollable impulse of a person to burn anything without
motivation?
A. Kleptomaniac
C. Arsonist
E. B and D
B. Pyromania
D. Fire Addicts

15. What is the collective term for mental disorders that begin at or shortly
after puberty and usually lead to general failure of the mental faculties,
with the corresponding physiological impairment?
A. Delirium
C. Demetia Praecox
E. None of these
B. Demaphobia
D. Delusion
16. Peter, a German national obtains sexual gratification from various forms
of sexual intimacies with the young. He is considered as
A. Sex maniac
C. Pedophilia
E. Child-like
B. Masochism
D. Homosexual
17. What is the type of multiple murder which kills at two or more locations
with almost no time to break between murders?
A. Mass murders
C. Attempted murder
B. Serial murder
D. Spree murder

18. What is the symptom if a person shows his intention to commit

suicide and threat others?
A. crime commission
D. homicidal threat
B. violent discharge
E. fantasy of violence
C. B and A
19. Mrs. Enriquez buys only the nearly spoiled foods for her children
despite that she could afford to buy nutritious foods. What abuse
does Mrs. Enriquez show?
A. physical abuse
C. A or B
E. sexual neglect
B. physical neglect
D. emotional abuse
20. When an individual member of the family becomes disorganized thus
affecting others, there is
A. individual crisis
C. A or B
E. adolescent crisis

B. physical crisis
D. family crisis
21. Which of the following is not a common sign of moral disturbances?
A. thrill seeking behavior
C. failure to alter behavior
B. pathological lying
D. dramatic attention seeking
22. When an individual experience tension and anxiety increases making
him/her helpless, there is
A. crisis
C. frustration
E. All of these
B. conflict
D. hallucination
23. Among the following, who is the most vulnerable group to abuse and
threats?
A. police
C. parents
E. B and D
B. children
D. animals
24. Which of the following best defines the term Costa Nostra?
A.one thing
D. two things
B.crime confederation
E. none of these
C.organized syndicate

25. What is the strict code of conduct that governs the organized crime
group behavior?
A.Omerta
C. Camorra
E. Secret code
B.Mob
D. Tamero
26. Which of these is not one of the characteristics of an organized
crime group?
A. Economic gain is the primary goal.
B. Economic gain is achieved through illegal means
C. Employs predatory tactics such as intimidation, violence and
corruption.
D. Organized crimes include terrorist dedicated to political change.
E. None of these
27. Who defined White-collar crime as a criminal act committed by a
person of respectability and high social status in the course of his
or her occupation?
A. E. Sutherland
C. R. Quinney
E. None of these
B. E. Durkheim
D. C. Darwin

28. Which of the following best explains the phrase, carnal

knowledge of a woman against her will?
A. sexual abuse
C. Sexual assault
E. None of these
B. Homosexuality
D. A and C
29. What is the type of violent offender who live in culture in
which violence is an acceptable problem mechanism?
A. Culturally Violent Offender
B. Criminally Violent Offender
C. Pathological Violent Offender
D. Situational Violent Offender
E. None of these
30. Paul likes to buy stolen cellular phones. His act is

A. Fencing
C. Forgery
E. Accessory to
theft
B. Larceny
D. None of these
31. What is the act of bartering of sex favor for monetary
consideration, either gift or cash, without emotional
attachment between partners?
A. Pornography
C. Prostitution
E. Sex for hire
B. Homosexuality D. all of these
32. In the Organized crime world, who bribes, buys, intimidates and
negotiates into a relationship with the police or public official?
A. Enforcer
C. Reporter
E. Instigator
B. Corrupter
D. Corruptee
33. For an effective or successful PCR program A. each community must be studied carefully in its many social,
economic and cultural aspects.
B. no study is needed as the PCR package applies to all
C. the community is secondary to police objectives
D. as long as there is cash, OK is the word
E. All of these
34. A police unit performing its job efficiency and effectively will
A. require minimal PCR program
B. require more intense program
C. require off and on program
D. need no program at all
E. none of these
35. The best PCR a police officer can do to the community is
A. harass the people
D. perform his job well
B. dress well
E. none of these
C. run after crooks

36. Which of the following is not one of the duties of a public

relation officer?
A. He shall issue press releases, which are of public concern.
B. He shall plan and carry out programs.
C. He shall evaluate public opinion with respect to the policies of
police station.
D. He shall inform the rights of a person under investigation.
37. What is the planned used of public or mass communication for the
public purpose?
A. television
C. courtesy
E. All of these
B. propaganda
D. information
38. IDEAL is synonymous to:
A. perfection
D. intelligent
B. courteous
E. A and B
C. All of these

39. What is the program designed to harmony and mutual support between
the police and the community?
A. Public Information
D. Civic Action
B. Public Relation
E. Psychological
C. A and B
40. Which of the following is not a principle of police community
relation?
A. public support must be maintained
B. public resentment must be encouraged
C. public goodwill must be developed
D. none of these
41. Which of the following is the basic political unit of the Filipino
nation that implements the policies of the national and local
government?
A. family
C. society
E. A and A
B. community
D. barangay
42. What is the formal act or a set of formal acts established by
custom or authority as proper to special occasion in the PNP?
A. custom
D. tradition
B. courtesy
E. ceremony
C. D and E
43. Which of these has the same meaning as Pariah complex?
A. social gathering
D. social understanding
B. social behavior
E. social outcast
C. None of these

44. An old woman approached PO3 Gomez asking the police officer to run after
an unidentified young man who allegedly snatched her mobile phone. PO3
Gomez declined claiming that the man was already a block away from them and
besides the police officer alleged that he is rushing home for an urgent
matter at home. The officers refusal to help the old woman is an example
of
A. nonfeasance C. malfeasance
E. None of these
B. misfeasance D. misconduct

45. One of the Canons of Police Ethics is the observance of the

Primordial Police Responsibility which is the prevention of crime.
Canon means
A. conduct
C. guideline
E. rules
B. standard
D. none of these

46. Among the following Core Values of the Philippine National Police, which
is the most supreme?
A. Love of God.
B. Respect for authority.
C. Respect for women
D. Respect for sanctity of marriage.
E. Stewardship over material things.
47. P/Supt. Calderon went to Criminal Justice College and punched Prof. Ramos
in the stomach after berating the professor for scolding the police
officials son who is a Criminology student. P/Supt. Calderons act should
be condemned because it is an act
A. of irregularity in the performance of duty
B. of incompetence
C. of misconduct
D. of malfeasance
E. B and C are correct

48. Which of the following aims to address the flaws on the human
resources development system of the PNP?
A. Career Management the Key in Professionalism
B. Police Management Leadership
C. Observance of Delicadeza
D. Equality in the Service
E. Political Patronage
49. Police Officers are duty bound to observe the constitutional rights
of every citizen. Among those rights, which is the topmost
priority?
A. right of life
D. right to liberty
B. right in property

E. right of freedom of speech

C. suspects rights
50. Every PNP officer shall observe Commitment to Democracy which
includes
A. emphasis on Public office is a public trust
B. upholding public interest over and above personal interest.
C. proper use and disposal of government properties
D. providing service to everyone without discrimination
E. All of these

CORRECTIONAL ADMINISRATION

1. The __________________century may be considered as the period of transition

from corporal punishment to important.
a. 16th
c. 15th
th
b. 17
d. 18th
2. Is a suffering inflicted to an individual for having been committed an offense?
a. Sentence
c. Retribution
b. Penalty
d. Punishment
3. This law provides that life sentence shall automatically be reduced to 30 years.
a. PD 603
c. RA 2489
b. EO 343
d. all of these
4. Punishing a criminal to serve as example to others is a theory of
________________.
a. Self defense
c. Social defense
b. Exemplarity
d. Equality
5. Probation may not be revoked unless.
a. A hearing is held
c. Notice is given
b. All of these
d. violation is alleged
6. _____________of prisoners are aimed to prevent moral or physical
contamination of one group by another and to prevent unnecessary custodial
risk.
a. Classification
c. none of these
b. Imprisonment
d. Segregation
7. The type of working detention prisoner who is not entitled to full time service of
sentence.
a. Recidivist
c. lazy prisoners
b. Sexual deviates
d. homosexuals
8. Purpose of commutation, Except:
a. To save the life of a person sentenced to death
b. None of these
c. To extend parole in cases where the parole law does not apply
d. to break the rigidity of the law

9. the period of deducted sentence granted to a prisoner who escaped on the

occasion of disorder rising from conflagration, earthquake or catastrophe where
he voluntarily surrendered within 48 hours following the issuance of a
proclamation announcing the termination of such disorder.
a. 2/5 period of sentence
c. 1/3 period of sentence
b. period of sentence
d. 1/5 period of sentence
10. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be the:
a. Provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent offender which
might be less probable if he were serve a prison sentence
b. Prevent the commission of offenses
c. All of these
d. Promotes the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by
providing him with individualized treatment
11. The most common problem of the national prison is
a. Excessive number of escapes
b. Disagreement about their mess
c. Overcrowding
d. Lack of adequate funding
12. In case of conflicting orders, the order one given by the ________________ shall
be obeyed.
a. Highest in rank
c. immediate superior
b. Commanding officer
d. higher officer
13. No body can assume the suffering for a crime committed by other.
a. Justice
c. Personal
b. Legal
d. Certain
14. These are the factors considered in diversification, except:
a. Age of offenders
c. mother of offenders
b. Sex of offenders
d. medical of offenders
15. Article 70 of the Revised Penal Code provides that in applying its provisions, the
duration of service of sentence of a life termer should be:
a. 30 years
c. 40 years
b. 20 years
d. 15 years
16. When shall probation order tale effect?
a. Three days after issuance
b. Three days prior issuance
c. Upon its issuance
d. 72 hours after issuance
17. Formerly, pardon was applied to a member of the ___________who committed
crimes and occasionally to those convicted of offenses against the Royal power.
a. Royal family
c. Rebellous family
b. Mendicant family
d. Indicent family
18. This branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu, makes foodstuff
purchases, prepares and cooks the foods and serves it to the inmates. It
maintains a record of daily purchases and consumption and submits a daily
report to the Warden.

a. General Service Branch

b. Budget and Finance Branch
c. Mittimus computing Branch
d. Mess Service Braanch
19. Under article VII, Section 10, paragraph (B) of the Philippine Constitution,
pardoning power is vest with the:
a. DOJ
c. Judiciary
b. Chief Executive
d. Legislative
20. It is a justification for punishment which claims that certain things can be done
after the person has served his sentence, will not want to commit another crime.
a. Incapacitation
c. Deterrence
b. Rehabilitation
d. Retribution
21. It is a procedure by which prisoners are selected for release on the basis of
individual response to the correctional and rehabilitation programs within the
institution by which they are provided with necessary controls and guidance as
they serve the remainder of their sentence within the free community.
a. Pardon
c. Amnesty
b. Parole
d. Conditional pardon
22. It is a temporary stay of execution of sentence.
a. Reprieve
c. Pardon
b. Commutation
d. Amnesty
23. It is a punishment and penitence model of prison built in 1820s mere
communication among the prisoners was next impossible, prisoners were
individually isolated
a. Mark System
c. Reformatory
b. Auburn System
d. Pennsylvania
24. Parole is not a matter of _______________________.
a. Privilege
c. right
b. Graces
d. requirement
25. It was built in1704 by Pope Clement XI for incorrigible boys and youths under 20.
a. Hospice of San Michelle
c. Irish System
b. Maison de force
d. Auburn Sytem
26. This group consists of chronic troublemaker but not as dangerous as the super
security prisoners. They are not allowed to work outside the institution
a. Maximum Security prisoner
b. Minimum Security prisoner
c. Super Security prisoner
d. Medium Security prisoner
27. Parole is granted by the
a. President
c. Director of Prison
b. BPP
d. Court
28. It is the factor used mostly for the diversification of correctional institution.
a. Degree of custody
c. age
b. Sex
d. medical or mental condition
29. A person who is sentence to serve imprisonment for not more than six months.

a. Insular prisoner
c. City prisoner
b. Provincial prisoner
d. Municipal prisoner
30. The foregoing are form of executive clemency, except:
a. Commutation
c. Furlough
b. Reprieve
d. Probation
31. What is the color of the uniform of minimum security prisoners?
a. Brown
c. Orange
b. Blue
d. Black and white stripe
32. Inmates who commit suicide are considered as in any of the following:
a. Liability of the jail administration
b. No liability because inmate is insane
c. Liability of the sentencing court
d. Liability of the inmates himself
33. Probation proceeds on the theory that the best way to pursue this goal is to orient
the criminal sanction toward the _______________in sentencing.
a. Community setting
c. none of these
b. Individual setting
d. prison setting
34. Amnesty is granted by whom?
a. Commission on human right
b. Chief Executive
c. Legislative
d. Judiciary
35. He opened Borstal prisons, considered that best reformatory institution for young
offenders.
a. Macanochie
c. Sir Walter Crofton
b. Z.B. Brokway
d. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
36. It is one of the earliest devise for softening brutal severity of punishment through
a compromise with the church.
a. Parole
c. Benefit of Clergy
b. Public Humiliation
d. Amnesty
37. A recipient of absolute pardon is ______________ from civil liability imposed
upon him by the sentence.
a. partially exempted
c. exempted
b. conditionally exempted
d. not exempted
38. The Republic Act that fully deducts the period of the offenders preventive
detention from the sentence imposed by the courts.
a. RA 6036
c. RA 7371
b. RA 7137
d. RA 6127
39. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less serious one
or a longer term to a shorter term.
a. Amnesty
c. Commutation
b. Reprieve
d. None of these
40. _________________is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to as a
matter of right.

a. Pardon
c. Parole
b. Probation
d. Nota
41. These are the group of prisoners who may be allowed to work outside the fence
of the institution under guard escorts. Generally they are employed as
agricultural workers.
a. Medium Security Prisoner
b. minimum Security Prisoner
c. maximum Security Prisoner
d. Super Security Prisoner
42. Upon the assumption of the IPPCs work, the united Nation preferred to identify
its
activities
and
programs
under
the
broader
concept
of
______________________.
a. Social justice
c. social offense
b. Social defense
d. juvenile justice
43. Aside from the court, these are other authorities who can commit a person to jail,
Except:
a. Board of indeterminate sentence
b. None of these
c. Deportation board
d. Police authorities
44. In probation systems philosophy and concept, it is stated that the individual has
the ability to __________and to modify his anti-social behavior with the right kind
of help.
a. Challenge
c. None of these
b. Change
d. Aggravate his behavior
45. Can a probationer pursue a prescribed secular study or vocational training while
on probation?
a. Neither
c. none of these
b. No
d. Yes
46. What was the first Probation Law in the Philippines?
a. PD603
c. None of these
b. PD 968
d. RA 4221
47. All person in custody shall, before final conviction be entitled to bail as matter of
___________.
a. Preference
c. Right
b. Privilege
d. Choice
48. It is one which will relieve inmates feeling of insecurity about his situation; it is
likewise essential in effecting changes which affect the masses or inmate
population.
a. Good communication
c. food and dormitory
b. Conjugal leave
d. all of these
49. The bureau of Corrections is under the
a. DSWD
c. DOJ
b. DILG
d. DOH
50. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three years is a-

a.
b.
c.
d.

Municipal prisoner
Detention prisoner
National prisoner
City prisoner