1. On-condition maintenance of reciprocating engine D. All of the above are correct.

is covered under
A. CAR series D part I. 9. S.S.I. Are
B. aircraft rule 70. A. solid structure items.
C. aircraft rule 72. B. structuallly significant instruction.
D. CAR series D part III. C. significant service instruction.
D. structural significant item.
2. Aircraft maintenance programme and their approval
are covered under 10. S.S.I are
A. IAF 60(2). A. structural assembly.
B. IAR 62. B. structural assembly which is judge significant
C. CAR series D part II. because of the reduction in aircraft residual strength.
D. Both a and c are correct. C. damage tolerant item.
D. None of the above.
3. Alert value means
A. maximum reliability index. 11. On-condition maintenance implies the philosophy
B. minimum reliability index. A. of fit and forget it.
C. maximum deviation from the normal operating B. of fit until failure.
limit but within the allowable operating range. C. a and b are correct.
D. None of the above. D. None of the above.

4. When the operator is in the alert area the RAO will 12. Condition monitoring implies the philosophy
A. monitor the corrective programmes closely to A. of fit and forget it.
determine their effectiveness and indicate the B. of fit until failure.
necessity of the amendment. C. Both a and b are correct.
B. keep the DGCA informed of the progress and D. None of the above.
effectiveness of the corrective programme.
C. inform the manufacturer of the aircraft for taking 13. Substantial damage means
corrective action. A. any damage beyond repair.
D. Both a and b is correct. B. any damage which necessitate the replacement of
any component.
5. Reliability is a function of C. any damage necessitating the replacement or
A. maintenance. extensive repair of any major component.
B. basic design. D. any damage beyond economical repair.
C. personal training.
D. All of the above. 14. Approved maintenance process is monitored by
A. hard time maintenance.
6. IAR 60 (2) authorise DGCA to B. on-condition maintenance.
A. specify the standard of balloons maintenance. C. Both a and b are correct.
B. specify the standard of glider maintenance. D. aircraft mechanical delay & PDR.
C. specify the standard of aircraft maintenance.
D. None of the above. 15. The continuing capability of the aircraft to
perform in a satisfactory manner the flight operation
7. Restoring an aircraft unit to it original design for which it was designed is termed as
performance level after replacing/re-working parts to A. maintenance.
a given standard is termed as B. condition monitoring.
A. maintenance. C. airworthiness.
B. overhaul. D. on-condition.
C. top overhaul.
D. None of the above. 16. Hard time maintenance is carried out at
A. calendar time.
8. An item is judge damage-tolerant B. no. of cycles.
A. if structural element or assembly is judged C. no. of landing.
significant because of reduction in aircraft residual D. any one of the above is correct.
strength or loss of structural function.
B. if it can sustain damage & the remaining structure 17. In an approved maintenance process, pilot report
can withstand reasonable load or excessive structural is computed as
deformation when the damage is detected. A. rate per 1000 hrs of operation/per 100 departures.
C. a and b are correct. B. rate per 100 hrs of operation/per 100 departures.
1
C. rater per 1000 hrs of operation/per 500 departures. 26. The average fuel and oil consumption of engine
D. any one of the above is correct. will be recorded
A. after post overhaul test of the engine.
18. S.S.I.D contains B. after the partial/top overhaul or repair of the engine
A. significant structural item, method of inspection followed by a test run/test flight, as applicable.
and required corrective action. C. at periods approved as per the approved
B. supplemental structural inspection document. maintenance schedule.
C. approved programme to be included in a.c. manual. D. All the above are correct.
D. None of the above.
27. The daily upliftment of fuel and oil consumption
19. Every operator shall maintain a continuous record in aircraft fuel and oil register is signed by
of the engine parameter in a A. lincensed AME.
A. tabulated form. B. QCM.
B. graphical form. C. Dy QCM.
C. graphical form if feasible or tabulated form. D. any authorised person.
D. graphical & tabulated form.
28. The reliability of engines fitted to aircraft is
20. The engine parameters are recorded under measured in terms of
stabilized condition A. the number and nature of all in flight shut down in
A. during take off. relation to number of engine flight hours.
B. during landing. B. the number and nature of all flameouts in relation
C. during ground rein. to number of airframe flight hours.
D. during cruise level flying. C. the number and nature of all in-flight shut down in
relation to number of airframe hours.
21. The life record of all the engine acessories is D. the number and nature of all in flight shut down in
available in relation to propeller flight hours.
A. T.B.O charts.
B. J.L.B. 29. If the operator's reliability index is above the alert
C. Engine log book. value, he will
D. O/H procedure sheet. A. submit a corrective programme to the DGCA by
the 25th day of the month.
22. Every engine parameter has an alert value which B. submit a corrective programme to the DGCA by
is fixed by the 10th day of the month.
A. operator. C. submit a corrective programme to the RAO by the
B. DGCA. 25th day of the month.
C. RAO. D. submit a corrective programme to the RAO by the
D. operator in consultation with RAO. 10th day of the month.

23. Engine overhaul records are preserved for a period 30. Reliability index is
of A. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100
A. one year. hours of engine operation on that particular type of
B. two years. airframe and engine combination.
C. five years. B. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 1000
D. ten years. hours of engine operation on that particular type of
airframe and engine combination.
24. Alert values are C. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100
A. reference values only. hours of engine operation on that particular type of
B. accepting limits only. airframe.
C. both a and b are correct. D. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100
D. None of the above. hours of engine operation on that particular type of
engine.
25. The average fuel and oil consumption of engine
will be recorded 31. Reliability monitoring unit for its functioning will
A. in the engine log log book. gather information from
B. in the aircraft log book. A. un-schedule maintenance & schedule maintenance.
C. by an AME. B. un-schedule removals.
D. both a and b are correct. C. sampling inspection.
D. All the above are correct.

2
32. Alert value is numerically equal to A. category 'B'.
A. 'Mean value' plus "standard deviation". B. category 'C'.
B. 'Mean value' plus "two standard deviation". C. category 'D'.
C. 'Mean value' plus "mode value". D. category 'E'.
D. 'Mode value' plus "two standard deviation".
42. A firm approved in carrying out FTD of Avionics
33. The requirements to CAR are applicable to all sets is approved in
A. schedule airlines. A. category 'A'.
B. private airlines. B. category 'E'.
C. air taxi operator. C. category 'D'.
D. All are correct. D. category 'C'.

34. Alert notice is issued by 43. A firm approved in carrying out non-destructure
A. the DGCA. test of aircraft approved
B. the RAO. A. category 'A'.
C. the QCM. B. category 'B'.
D. the RMU. C. category 'D'.
D. category 'E'.
35. A person of issue of ATPL shall have
A. 1500 flight hours with 500 hours as PIC. 44. An organisation approved in carrying out
B. 2000 flight hours with 500 hours as PIC. propeller overhaul is approved in
C. 1500 flight hours with 1000 hours as PIC. A. category 'C'.
D. 3000 flight hours with 1000 hours as PIC. B. category 'B'.
C. category 'D'.
36. Validity of ATPL of pilot below 25 years of age is D. category 'E'.
A. 06 months.
B. 12 months. 45. Firms approvedin category 'E'
C. 18 months. A. can carry out maintenance of aircraft.
D. 24 months. B. can carry out manufacture of aircraft.
C. can carry out training of aircraft personel.
37. Alert Notice will be issued by the R.M.U. D. can carry out distribution of fuels.
A. to all concerned persons of the organisation.
B. in duplicate to the RAO. 46. A firm carrying out chemical analysis physical test
C. in duplicate to the RAO on 25th of every month. and metallurgical tests is approved in
D. Both a and c are correct. A. category 'E'.
B. category 'D'.
38. Organisation approved for manufacture of aircraft C. category "E & D'.
is approved in D. All these are correct.
A. category 'A'.
B. category 'C'. 47. One copy of all documents used in the system of
C. category 'B'. quality control in respect of activities performed
D. None of the above. including all incoming certification is preserved for a
minimum period of
39. A firm doing processing of aircraft components by A. one year.
electroplating, anodic treatment, metal spraying, heat B. two years.
treatment, etc. is approved in C. five years.
A. category 'A'. D. ten years.
B. category 'B'.
C. category 'D'. 48. Release and rejection notes are preserved for a
D. category 'F'. period of
A. six months.
40. A firm approved in category 'A' B. one year.
A. carries out maintenance of aircraft. C. two years.
B. carries out manufacture of aircraft. D. five years.
C. carries out storage & distribution. 49. Release notes are distributed as follows
D. carries out manufacture storage & distribution. A. 1st copy to consignee, 2nd copy to organisation
records.
41. A firm approved in carrying out C of A aircraft is B. 1st copy to organisation records, 2nd copy to
approved in consignee.
3
C. 1st copy to supplier, 2nd copy to RAO. A. an organisation engaged in the manufacture of
D. 1st copy to RAO, 2nd copy to supplier. airframe, engine, aircraft components or items of
equipment to approved specifications and drawings.
50. First copy of 'Rejection note' is issued to B. an organisation engaged in the manufacture of
A. organisation records. aircraft.
B. supplier. C. an organisation engaged in the maintenance of
C. consignee. aircraft.
D. RAO. D. All the above are correct.

51. 'Release notes' is signed by
A. a person approved by DGCA.
B. a person approved by RAO.
C. a person named in terms of approval.
D. Both a and c are correct.
52. Certificate of approval is cancelled by
A. DGCA.
B. RAO/DAI.
C. Director of Airsafety.
D. Both b and c are correct.
53. To get type approval for an aircraft component
equipment including instruments, one should submit
the following
A. maintenance manual.
B. detailed drawing.
C. type instruction & type service manual.
D. All of the above.
54. Which of the following statement is false?
A. in case any conponent or equipment fitted on
aircraft is due for replacement earlier than the validity
of flight release certificate issued by AME, the FRC
automatically ceases to be valid the item or
component is not removed in a stipulated time.
B. FRC is invalid if aircraft suffers any major damage.
C. The validity of FRC is 12 hrs of operation of four
days, whichever is earlier.
D. The pilot can certify pre-flight inspection schedule
in respect of an aircraft engaged in non-schedule
operation provided he is approved by DGCA.
55. Approved maintenance organisation, maintaining
private aircraft may reflect the arrangement in their
A. Maintenance system manual.
B. Quality Control manual.
C. Operation manual.
D. Engineering Organisation manual.
56. As per CAR series E part I, storing and
distribution of previously certified aircraft goods by a
firm is approved in
A. category 'C'.
B. category 'D'.
C. category 'A'.
D. category 'F'.
57. Manufacturer means
4
58. Type certificate means a certificate issued
A. to an organisation engaged in the manufacture of
particular 'type of aircraft'.
B. to a particular type of aircraft or for a series of
aircraft.
C. by RAO to signify the design of a type of aircraft,
aircraft component or item of equipment.
D. by DGCA to signify the design of a type of
aircraft, aircraft component or item of equipment.
59. An organisation engaged in manufacture of
aircraft component issues
A. certificate of maintenance.
B. certificate of airworthiness.
C. certificate of approval.
D. certificate of manufacture.
60. An organisation desiring approval in category 'B'
for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA
A. ten specimens of 8"x2"x16swg.
B. twelve specimens of 8"x2"x16swg.
C. ten specimens of 6"x2"x16swg.
D. twelve specimens of 6"x2"x16swg.
61. 'Aircraft goods' means
A. any part of the soundness and correct functioning
of which is essential to the continued airworthiness or
safety of the aircraft.
B. aircraft components and items of equipment.
C. aircraft components or materials, including paints,
dopes, thinner, fuel lubricant and special petroleum
products intended in use in civil aircraft.
D. Both a & b are correct.
62. Certificate of approval
A. is a document issued by an approved organisation
and defines the scope of organisation.
B. is a document issued by an organisation to state its
approval in category viz, 'A', 'B' etc.
C. is a document issued by DGCA to an approved
organisation and giving the scope of approval.
D. Both a & b are correct.
63. A document accompanying the sale of aircraft
components, spares, materials and goods and
certifying that the same were obtained from an
approved source after manufacture /repair /overhaul is
called
A. sale certificate.
B. release certificate.
C. release note.
D. None of the above.
64. Rejection note is a document
A. issued by DGCA to an approved organisation to
cover the return of aircraft component received under
incoming certificate.
B. issued by an approved organisation for purpose of
advising the details of rejection of certified aircraft
goods which fail to meet applicable requirements.
C. issued by RAO to cover the return of any aircraft
component received under incoming release note.
D. Both a & c are correct.
65. All AME's should be medically checked up by at
least MBBS doctor once
A. in a year.
B. in two years.
C. in six years.
D. in five years.
66. An organisation seeking approval in any of the
categories A to G should
A. apply to RAO in duplicate.
B. apply to DGCA in duplicate.
C. apply to DGCA in duplicate along with the
enclosures.
D. apply to RAO in duplicate along with the
enclosures.
67. An organisation seeking approval will normally
submit
A. two different types of manual.
B. three different types of manual.
C. three different types of manual in three sets.
D. None of the above.
68. Three different manuals required for approval of
an organisation are
A. Q.C. manual, M S Manual, Structural Repair
manual.
B. Q.C. manual, Structural Repair manual, Engine
Overhaul manual.
C. Q.C. manual, Engine Overhaul manual M S
manual.
D. Q.C. manual, M S manual, Engineering
Organisation manual.
69. Engineering Organisation manual is
A. approved by DGCA.
B. approved by RAO.
C. organisational set-up (organisation tree) of the firm
with particular reference to the duties and
responsibilities of the various major units of
engineering facility like production, quality control
D. approved by operator.
70. Quality Control manual is approved by
A. DGCA.
5
B. RAO.
C. DGCA in consultation with RAO.
D. Director Aeronautical Inspection.
71. Maintenance System manual is approved by:
A. DGCA.
B. DGCA in consultation with RAO.
C. Controller of Airworthiness.
D. RAO in consultation with DGCA.
72. The manner of preparing inspection schedule and
assigning periodicity wherever applicable in respect
of periodic maintenance of aircraft component is
contained in
A. Engineering Organisation manual.
B. Q.C. manual.
C. M.S. manual.
D. None of the above.
73. Procedure for release of aircraft by 'maintenance'
to 'operation' is contained in
A. Q.C.manual.
B. M.S. manual.
C. Engineering Organisation manual.
D. Both a and b are correct.
74. As per rule 52 of IAR minimum mandatory
instruments and equipments required for having single
engine are
A. altimeter, ASI, RPM indicator.
B. altimetr, ASI, watch.
C. altimeter, ASI, fire extinguisher.
D. altimeter, ASI.
75. Installation of FDR is a must for
issue/renewal/validity of C of A on
A. all turbine engined aircraft.
B. all aircraft above 15000 kg.
C. all turbine engined aircraft with AUW of 5700 kg
and above.
D. all turbine engined aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg
and above.
76. A sensitive altimeter and electrical power failure
indicator is a must on aircraft
A. with AUW above 15000 kg and flying in IFR.
B. manufactured after 30th June 1978.
C. intended to cruising above 30000 feet.
D. on international flight over international waters.
77. The installation of CVR is mandatory on all
Indian registered aircraft with
A. piston engines having AUW below 5700 kg.
B. turbine engine having AUW of 5700 kg or above.
C. as in (b) having AUW of 15000 kg or above.
D. None is correct.
78. Certification of AME 'R' for flight release on
private aircraft may not necessary if ground facilities
are not available the certification may be deferred to
A. inspection associated with next flight certification.
B. next 100 hours schedule.
C. align with any schedule within 50 hours.
D. Any one of the above.
79. Mechanical stream means the trades of
A. airframe and engines.
B. machine and engines.
C. instruments and autopilots.
D. None is correct.
80. Avionic stream means the trades of
A. radido communication and navigation system.
B. electrical and instruments system.
C. autopilots and radar systems.
D. All are correct.
81. Concurrent experience means
A. experience acquired simultaneously in two or more
allied categories of the same stream.
B. experience acquired simultaneously in two or more
allied categories of different streams.
C. experience acquired simultaneously on engine and
instruments system.
D. Both b and c are correct.
87. An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A'
(HA) on an aircraft of similar construction will have
to show on additional experience of
A. 12 months with 3 months recent experience.
B. 24 months with 6 months recent experience.
C. 6 months with 3 months recent experience.
D. 6 months.
88. An applicant applying for licence on helicopter of
AUW below 3000 kg will have to show a total
aeronautical experience of four years both on airframe
and engine simultaneously out of which
A. 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied
with 3 month recent experience.
B. 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied
with 6 month recent experience.
C. 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied
with 12 month recent experience.
D. 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied
with 6 month recent experience.
89. AME licence in category 'B' is given to helicopter
A. with AUW below 5700 kg.
B. with AUW below 15000 kg.
C. with AUW below 3000 kg.
D. with AUW below 2000 kg.

82. Recent experience means experience acquired in 90. Person having valid AME licence covering
the preceding aircraft below 5700 kg and desirous of having an
A. 24 months. extension of glider will have to show a recent
B. 12 months. experience of
C. 6 months. A. 12 months on particular type of glider.
D. 3 months. B. 6 months on particular type of glider.
C. 3 months on particular type of glider.
83. AME licence in category 'A' is equivalent to D. 1 month on particular type of glider.
A. ICAO type I licence.
B. ICAO type II licence. 91. AME licence is category 'D' is issued for all piston
C. ICAO type III lincece. engines
D. ICAO type IV licence. A. below 500 BHP.
B. below 450 BHP.
84. AME licence in category 'D' is equivalent to C. below 300 BHP.
A. ICAO type I licence. D. below 250 BHP.
B. ICAO type II licence.
C. ICAO type III licence. 92. For an extension on turbine engine in category 'C'
D. ICAO type IV licence. the candidate should have
A. 12 months experience on type on which 6 months
85. Paper IV of AME licence exam is related to should be recent experience.
specific type of B. 12 months experience on type on which 3 months
A. aircraft. should be recent experience.
B. engine. C. 24 months experience on type on which 12 months
C. electrical equipment. should be recent experience.
D. All are correct. D. 24 months experience on type on which 6 months
should be recent experience.
86. An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A'
(LA) on aircraft of similar construction will have to 93. For issue of licence in category 'V' the candidate
show an additional experience of must possess
A. three months. A. a valid RTR (Aero) licence issued by Ministry of
B. six months. Communications at the time of oral-cum-practical
C. twelve months. test.
D. None is correct. B. a licence in category E,I and R.
6
C. BAMEC in category ES, IS, RN and have
undergone an approved training course on integrated
avionics system.
D. All are correct.
94. Licence in category 'X' is issued for
A. overhaul of V.P. propeller.
B. overhaul of radio equipment.
C. overhaul of electrical system installed on light
aircraft.
D. Both a and b are correct.
95. An applicant may be allowed to appear for paper
I, II and III of AME licence examination after he/she
has acquired at least
A. 2 years of aeronautical engineering experience.
B. 3 years of aeronautical engineering experience.
C. 3 years of aeronautical engineering experience in
relevant category.
D. 2 years of aeronautical engineering experience in
relevant category.
96. The licence in category R pertaining to heavy
aircraft will be endorsed as
A. valid for communication/navigation/radar system
installed on the under mentioned aircraft.
B. HF, VHF, ADF, VOR, ILS, VLF/Omega, DME
weather radar etc. on particular type of aircraft.
C. 'valid for heavy aircraft'.
D. Both a and b are correct.
97. Airborne communication system includes
A. VHF, HF, CVR, FDR, audio equipment.
B. VHF, HF, VLF/omega ADF, audio equipment.
C. VHF, HF, CVR, audio equipment.
D. VHF, HF, VOR, ILS audio equipment.
98. Airborne navigation system includes
A. ADF, VOR, ILS, VLF/OMEGA and CW hyperblic
equipment.
B. ADF, VHF, HF, FDR, VLF/omega and CW
hyperbolic equipment.
C. WX Radar, DME, Radio altimeter, ATC
transponder.
D. WX Radar, VOR/DME, ILS, Radio altimeter, ATC
transponder.
99. Airborne radar system includes
A. ADF, WX Radar, VOR/ILS, ATC transponder.
B. ADF, VOR, Radar, VOR/ILS ATC transponder
HF.
C. WX Radar, DME, Radio Altimeter, ATC
transponder.
D. WX Radar, DME, ATC transponder.
100. CAR are issued by DGCA
A. to amplify any specific aircraft rule for the
understanding of the operator.
7
B. as a statutory requirement, non-compliance of
which is a violation.
C. to meet the technological developments and
changes in maintenance concept on sophisticated new
generation aircraft.
D. All above are correct.
101. The purpose of itnroduction of CAR series C is
A. to stipulate the requirement of recording, reporting,
investigation, rectification and analysis of defect.
B. to raise in general the safety consciousness of the
operator quality control organisation.
C. to indicate an analytical approach to reliability
monitoring during maintenance to insure safety of
operation and timely preventive maintenance
measures.
D. to introduce a procedure by which operator
maintenance standard can be monitored from a
distance.
102. All major defects experienced by an organisation
engaged in maintenance/major maintenance
A. should only be reported to DGCA in the manner
specified in the CAR.
B. may also be reported to the manufacturer of the
aircraft / aircraft componentsw for seeking advice to
prevent recurrence of defects.
C. It is necessary for an operator to apprise the
manufacturer of major defects to undertake
continuous assessment of structural integrity.
D. Both b & c are correct.
103. Reliability programme followed by the quality
control organisation of a schedule operator is aimed at
A. identifying potential problems.
B. optium utilisation of aircraft.
C. achieving operational economy.
D. keeping in force with present day technology.
104. An "item of equipment" means
A. functionally significant item on aircraft.
B. an essential unit on aircraft for safety of aircraft or
its components.
C. it is a self contained unit.
D. a combination of all.
105. The content/scope/frequency of preventive
maintenance can be revised
A. only when maker so desires.
B. only when DGCA so desires.
C. only when justification based on operator's
experience is acceptable to DGCA.
D. only after incorporation of a major modification.
106. A critical I.F.S.D means
A. engine failure in air beyond pilot's control.
B. any IFSD associated with training flights/test
flights.
C. a "shut down" affected by pilot on observing 113. In determining the proven 'service life' of an
abnormal indication. aircraft or any of its component might be the factor
D. Both b & c are correct. that will be kept in view will be the
A. area of operation, manufacturer recommendation
107. According to CAR series D part II "condition and applicant's own service experience on similar type
monitoring" component means of components.
A. that contains those units and system which may be B. number of landings effecting on flight sector I.e.
operating for a limited period. shorthaul and longhaul operation.
B. either approved by DGCA or the QCM of the C. other operator service experience of similar
organisation. equipment.
C. that contains those units and system which may be D. All are correct.
inoperative in service for a limited period without
affecting the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft. 114. The periodical inspection schedules are prepared
D. a configuration deviation list (CDL) in respect of by the QCM of the firm and is submitted for approval.
transport category aircraft. This is not applicable in case of
A. non-schedule operators.
108. In the event of any damage caused to the aircraft B. private operators.
while taxying by an authorised individual it should be C. gliding clubs.
promptly intimated to D. schedule operators.
A. owner/operator of the aircraft.
B. International Airport authority of India. 115. The application form for change of ownership of
C. concerned regional/sub regional inspection office. aircraft is
D. Both a & c are correct. A. CA 23.
B. CA 28.
109. Aircraft certificated in aerobatic category may be C. CA 27.
used for D. CA 98.
A. research or experimental purpose.
B. racing aircraft. 116. With effect from 1st Jan 80 passenger safety
C. carrying passengers/mails/goods or for imparting information briefing card should be provided at every
training. passenger seat by
D. normal category after obtaining permission from A. schedule operator.
DGCA. B. non-schedule operator.
C. state aircraft.
110. While operating an agricultural aircraft the D. All the above are correct.
minimum requirement for preflight inspection
A. must be carried before each flight. 117. Deficiency list is to be approved by DGCA. This
B. may be carried out once before the first flight of is applicable to
the day unless the aircraft is suspected to have A. schedule operator.
suffered from any defect or damage. B. non-schedule operator.
C. need not be carried out if the flight release C. private operator.
certificate is valid. D. Both a & b are correct.
D. None of the above is correcty.
118. Alert value means maximum deviation from the
111. If the defects observed in the aircraft other than normal operating limit but within the allowable
public transport aircraft at places other than normal operating range which will not cause malfunction to
base they may be recorded in the an extent where aircraft safety is in jeopardy. This is
A. defect register which must be carried on board. applicable to
B. loose sheet for ultimate transferring to defect A. all aircraft engines.
register kept at normal base. B. piston engines only.
C. JLB for ultimate transferring to defect register. C. turbine engines only.
D. All the above are correct. D. small aircraft engine operator only.

112. As per CAR series 'C' part I the records 119. The formal for maintenance of records of fuel
associated with the defects and their rectification shall and oil uplift and consumption in respect of light
be preserved for a period of aircraft engine is given in
A. one year. A. advisory circular no. 4 of 1976.
B. six months. B. CAR series D part V.
C. two years. C. not given anywhere. The operator has to make for
D. Not required to be preserved. himself and get it approved by DGCA.
8
D. AME notice no. 1 of 1970.
120. The grant of approval to an organisation in any
category will depend upon
A. the request of the applicant.
B. capability/capacity to perform the work.
C. qualification of QCM/Dy QCM and other technical
staff.
D. All the above are correct.
121. How you will know the mandatory modification
status of your aircraft?
A. From the pink page of relevant log book.
B. From the green page of log book.
C. From the white page of log book.
D. From the manufacturer.
122. All aircraft registered in India must have
A. fire extinguisher and defuelling means.
B. fire extinguisher and first aid Kit, contents of
which, has been certified by an AME.
C. play-card indicating up-to what estent smoking is
allowed.
D. Both b & c are correct.
123. As per IAR on aircraft involved in an accident
which has major defect
A. aircraft engine caught fire during refuelling on the
departure day.
B. a passenger is badly injured during time of take off.
C. under-carriage accidentally retracts during a major
inspection.
D. All the above are correct.
124. Mark the correct statement
A. MEL does not include flying controls, complete
engine and landing gears.
B. MEL may not include items like galley equipment
entertainment systems, passengers, convenience
equipment which do not effect the airworthiness of
the aircraft.
C. not withstanding the MEL, AME need not to
certify the aircraft for flight release or a pilot need not
to accept the aircraft for flight if it is feared that it is
unsafe to do so.
D. All are correct.
125. Scope of approval of an organisation depends on
A. the capacity of the firm to undertake the job.
B. the equipment available and technical literature.
C. suitable & QCM & Dy QCM.
D. All the above are correct.
126. Only one of the following need not have the
approval of the maintenance organisation
A. private owner of aircraft.
B. non-schedule operator.
C. schedule operator.
D. aircraft owned by state govts.
9
127. The maintenance schedule of an aircraft
organisation is approved by the
A. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation.
B. Quality Control Manager of only Indian Airlines
and Air India.
C. Controller or Director of Airworthiness of the
region.
D. Only b & c are correct.
128. The dailyreview board meeting is obligatory on
the part of schedule operator
A. to examine the nature of defect experience on the
previous day.
B. to satisfy if rectification action are adequate.
C. to decide action on defects of repetitive nature.
D. to discuss analysis and decide action on defects in
co-operation with AID.
129. If during an investigation the cause of the defects
is attributed to wilful negligence of the aircraft
maintenance engineer
A. the person concerned is suspended by the QCM
immediately.
B. the offender is issued show-cause notice.
C. the Quality Control Manager should be taken in
consultation with the DGCA to avoid duplication of
penal action.
D. action by QCM should not be taken in consultation
with the DGCA to avoid duplication of penal action.
130. All major defects experienced by an organisation
during maintenance should be reported to DGCA
A. in the manner specified in CAR.
B. should also be reported to the manufacturer of the
aircraft component for seeking advise on prevention
of recurrence of similar defects.
C. or it is necessary for an operator to apprise the
manufacturer of only structural defects.
D. Both a & b are correct.
131. For effective monitoring of aircraft and engine
system for functioning in flight, the crew member
should record all necessary parameter readings
A. once during each sector of flight.
B. only under stabilised cruise condition.
C. during climbing phase soon after take off.
D. only under emergency condition of flight.
132. On public transport aircraft the defects reported
by the pilot are recorded in
A. jib column II.
B. flight report book and the aircraft can only be
released for further flight when duly rectified by the
AME.
C. flight report book only when the nature of the
defect is major.
D. defect register maintained by the Quality Control
Manager to ensure corrective action.
133. Analytical study of in-flight instrument reading
of engine parameters (EGT/EPR/TAS/N1/N2) is
intended to
A. evaluate alert values.
B. detect in-service deterioration.
C. establish aerodynamic cleanliness.
D. determine reliability index.
134. An alert notice in the event of system reliability
exceeding alert value is issued by
A. manufacturer.
B. the DGCA.
C. the RMU.
D. the QCM.
135. Reliability programme followed by the quality
control organisation of a schedule operator is aimed at
A. optimum utilisation of aircraft.
B. achieving operational economy.
C. identifying potential areas.
D. keeping in pace with present day technology.
136. Aircraft noise level requirements
A. are applicable to supersonic aircraft.
B. relate to restriction only in the vicinity of airports.
C. may be exempted by DGCA for any aircraft or
class of aircrafts.
D. should have been complied with an aircraft before
21.12.85.
137. The circumstances under which an aircraft may
be released with GPWS as unserviceable will be spelt
out in
A. M E L.
B. C D L.
C. Flight Manual.
D. M S manual.
138. Maintenance procedure for GPWS will be
included in
A. Quality Control Manual.
B. Maintenance System Manual.
C. Flight Manual.
D. appropriate maintenance schedule.
139. The contents of scope and frequency of
preventive maintenance can be revised
A. only when makers so desire.
B. only when DGCA so desires.
C. only when justification based on operator's
experience is acceptable to DGCA.
D. only after the incorporation of a major
modifications.
140. A major defect investigation
A. should not be done in haste.
B. should be done with speed for timely
preventive/curative action.
C. to pin-point the cause is more important.
10
D. any one of the above.
141. The purpose behind recording of defects and
inflight instrument reading is to achieve
A. smooth functioning of the reliability and statistical
quality control system.
B. effective monitoring.
C. timely corrective action.
D. All of the above.
142. When an aircraft registered outside India is in
Indian territory sustains major damage or a major
defect is found
A. DGCA may prohibit the aircraft from flying.
B. DGCA should not prohibit the aircraft from flying
without concurrence of the appropriate authority of
the country of registration of the aircraft.
C. instead of prohibiting the aircraft from flying
DGCA informs the fact to the country of registration
and allows the aircraft to fly.
D. None of the above is correct.
143. Critical shut-down are those
A. which cause aircraft structural damage, generate
projection or fires adversely effecting the
controllability of aircraft.
B. shut down for test or training.
C. those which cannot be put down or feathered.
D. Both a and c are correct.
144. A current list of all in-flight shut down rate,
engine hours flown and reliability index is submitted
in a consolidated manner to the RAO
A. by the 15th of each month.
B. by the end of each month.
C. by the tenth of each month.
D. None of the above.
145. When a new issue of any CAR parts becomes
effective
A. the earlier parts stand cancelled.
B. the earlier issued stands cancelled.
C. the earlier issue of that particular CAR part stands
cancelled.
D. the earlier series stand cancelled.
146. At present one copy of each CAR is supplied free
to
A. all AME's.
B. all pilots.
C. all owners/operators of the aircraft.
D. All the above.
147. Reflection of the requirements of the CAR in the
quality control-cum-maintenance system manual is
the responsibility of the
A. operator/owner.
B. head of the organisation.
C. AME.
D. QCM.
148. When minor changes are made to a CAR part
A. a new issue is issued.
B. a new part is issued.
C. an amendment is issued.
D. new series are issued.
149. Whenever a new issue of a CAR part is issued it
is given
A. an issue number.
B. a part no.
C. issue number along with the date of issue.
D. issue number along with the date of issue & date of
effectively.
150. The certification to the effect that any servicing,
modification, repair, inspection have been carried out
in accordance with airworthiness requirements of the
DGCA is called
A. certificate of maintenance.
B. certificate of flight release.
C. certificate of maintenance review.
D. release note.
151. Public transport aircraft can
A. undertake aircraft work.
B. also be a private aircraft.
C. carry passengers but not cargo.
D. carry persons or cargo for renumeration.
152. Flight time as per aircraft rules means
A. the moment aircraft first moves under its own
power for taking off until it comes to rest at the end of
the flight.
B. synonymous to the term "block to block".
C. synonymous to term "chock to chock".
D. All the above are correct.
153. Contracting state as per aircraft rules means any
state
A. that has signed a bilateral agreement with another
state.
B. contracted for a particular condition for carrying
passengers.
C. which is for the time-being a party to the
convention of the ICAO.
D. which is for the time-being a party to the IATA.
154. Flight manual is a manual
A. associated with the C of A.
B. associated with the C of R.
C. associated with the FRC.
D. which need not be carried on board.
155. During refuelling of aircraft
A. aircraft radio and electrical, radar switches may
remain 'ON'.
11
B. steady parking light and such switches may be
operated.
C. no special precautions are necessary for ground
power supply.
D. the ground power unit, tractor and similar
equipment shall be located outside the defined
"danger zone".
156. The form used for applications for approcal of
firm in any of the categories mentioned in the CAR
series E part I is
A. CA 180.
B. CA 182.
C. CA 28.
D. CA 23.
157. Mark the correct statement
A. A normal category aircraft can be used for only
manoeuvre which is suitable for normal category.
B. Aerial work aircraft can be used for private and
agricultural spraying.
C. Aerobatic category can be used for all categories.
D. None of the above.
158. On an India registered aircraft a mandatory
modification is to be carried in a non-contracting
state. The following can carry the modification:
A. An approved person of the non-contracting state.
B. A person having qualification recognised by
DGCA.
C. An approved person of contracting state.
D. All of the above.
159. The following documents have to be carried by
all aircraft on all flights:
A. C of A, C of R cockpit and emergency check-list.
B. FRC, JLB.
C. Route guide.
D. Both a & b are correct.
160. For taxying an aircraft, a person having AME cat
'C' licence should possess the following:
A. RT licence if required.
B. Qualified to use radio communications.
C. A person should know layout of aerodrome.
D. a, b & care correct.
161. To get a type approval for an aircraft component
equipment including instruments should contain the
following:
A. Maintenance manual.
B. Detailed drawings.
C. Types instructions and typed service manual.
D. All the above.
162. Disposable load is
A. Fuel that can be thrown out of the aircraft during
emergency conditions.
B. All persons and their belongings.
C. Empty load and variable load.
D. Fuel and oil which is unusable.
163. Engine power check on ground is done on
helicopter by
A. an AME having vast experience.
B. an AME having licence on that engine.
C. flight crew.
D. All the above.
164. An aicraft which is flying in the vicinity of an
aerodrome and coming back without landing at any
other place, should carry the following document (I) C
of A (II) C of R (III) Cockpit & Emergency check-list
(IV) FRC (V) MEL (VI) Route Guide (VII) Pilot
Crew Licences (VIII) Flight Manual if applicable.
A. 1,2,3,4.
B. 2,6,7,3.
C. 4,5,8,3.
D. All the above.
165. The installation of flight data recorder is
mandatory on all Indian registered aircraft having
A. turbine engines & permissible AUW of 5700 kg or
above.
B. piston engine and permissible AUW of 5700 kg or
above.
C. any type of engine and permissible AUW 5700 kg
or above.
D. as in (a) but permissible AUW of 15000 kg or
above.
166. A Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is a
document
A. which contains those units and systems which may
remain inoperative in service for a limited period.
B. approved by the DGCA.
C. which contains those units and systems which may
be inoperative in service for a limited period without
effecting safety and airworthiness of the airc.
D. Both (b) & (c) are correct.
167. The quanitity of unusable fuel is required to be
determined if not available in the flight manual before
A. C of A renewal.
B. type certifcation of aircraft.
C. complete overhaul of the aircraft.
D. no. (a) above, as specified in operation manual.
168. Approved maintenance organisation maintaining
private aircraft may reflect this arrangement in their
A. maintenance system manual.
B. quality control manual.
C. operation manual.
D. engineering organisation manual.
169. For information regarding name and address of
the owner of the aircraft the document referred to is
A. C of A.
12
B. C of R.
C. type certificate.
D. log book.
170. Certificate of flight release shall be preserved for
a period of
A. one year from the date of issue.
B. six months from the date of issue.
C. six months from the date of expiry.
D. None of the above is correct.
171. An aircraft for agricultural operation is required
to be imported into India. The minimum standard of
manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be
A. as laid down in CAA -B CAR secs 'K' & 'D'.
B. as laid down in FAA -FAR pts 23 & 25.
C. as laid down by australian govt. for agricultural
aircraft.
D. Both (a) & (b) are correct.
172. The two preventive maintenance processes are
known as
A. hard time & condition monitoring.
B. hard time & conditioning.
C. on-condition & condition monitoring.
D. on-condition & hard time.
173. The minimum conditions to be complied with
under aircraft rules, before any aircraft is allowed to
be flown are:
A. the aircraft has been maintained as per stipulated
maintenance schedules by the DGCA.
B. Maintenance has been carried out by appropriately
licensed/authorised/approved person.
C. Maintenance carried out has been certified by
appropriately licensed/authorised/approved person in
the specified period.
D. Aqll are correct.
174. One of the following conditions does not result
in automatic suspension of C of A
A. Whenever an aircraft develops a defect which
effects primary structure.
B. Whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing.
C. Approved inspection schedules are not completed
when due.
D. Whenever "lifted" components are not removed at
their stipulated T.B.S.'s.
175. Certification of airworthiness of aircraft shows
that it is valid for normal category sub-division
"Private Aircraft". This aircraft can be used for
A. experimental purposes.
B. aerial works.
C. aerobatic purposes.
D. flying executives to their factory without any
remuneration.
176. A public transport aircraft is categorised in
"Normal category" sub-division a) passenger. Can it
execute any steep turns?
A. No.
B. Yes.
C. Limited bank if specified in flight manual.
D. Angle of bank should not exceed 60 degree due to
increase in G-forces.
177. A manual associated with C of A containing
limitation within which the aircraft is considered to be
airworthy is called
A. operating manual.
B. Q C manual.
C. maintenance system manual.
D. flight manual.
178. 'cockpit check-list' and 'Emergency check-list'
are applicable as per rules on which of the following
category/classification of aircraft.
A. For all aircraft engaged in public transport.
B. For state aircraft.
C. For aircraft engaged in non-schedule operation
including training aircraft.
D. All aircraft registered in India.
179. MEL is applicable to aircraft operated by:
A. private operator.
B. non-schedule operator.
C. schedule & non-schedule operator.
D. by all aircraft having C of A.
180. MEL allows the aircraft to
A. keep on flying for unlimited period.
B. keep on flying for limited period.
C. fly from transit station to base station where
maintenance facilities exist.
D. All the above are correct.
181. Invoking MEL for a period longer than
absolutely necessary will result in
A. increased crew load and increased airworthiness.
B. increased crew load and decreased airworthiness.
C. decreased crew load and increased airworthiness.
D. decreased crew load and decreased airworthiness.
182. MMEL stands for
A. Main Minimum Equipment List.
B. Manufacture Minimum Equipment List.
C. Master Minimum Equipment List.
D. Mandatory Minimum Equipmet List.
183. MEL is framed on
A. operator experience.
B. the basis of MMEL.
C. approval by DGCA.
D. All the above.
13
184. Deficiency list includes
A. wings, flight controls, landing gears.
B. complete Engine & its accessories.
C. galley equpment, entertainment system.
D. none of the above.
185. An AME after releasing the aircraft after
invoking MEL
A. shall inform the pilot of the aircraft of the same.
B. shall inform the RAO of the same.
C. shall make an entry in the technical log and placard
the inoperative system.
D. Both (a) & (c) are correct.
186. Deficiency list (MEL) is applicable
A. to transit station.
B. to terminal station.
C. only to main base station.
D. All the above.
187. When an aircraft is flying on MEL
A. the operator has to inform the RAO in writing
within 24 hours.
B. the operator has to inform the RAO and DGCA in
writing within 24 hours.
C. the operator has to inform the RAO in writing
within 24 hours if aircraft is released under the
purview of MEL from the parent base.
D. None of the above.
188. The MEL pre-amble contains
A. procedure for release of aircraft with items of
equipment unserviceable as per MEL.
B. when and where the defects/items will be
rectified/replaced.
C. defining the main base and transit stations.
D. (a), (b) & (c) are correct.
189. Cockpit and Emergency check-list are prepared
under the purview of aircraft rule
A. 60 A.
B. 62 B.
C. 7 B.
D. 70 B.
190. Cockpit check-list means
A. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be
performed by the flight crew after the flight.
B. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be
performed by the flight crew after and before the days
of flight.
C. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be
performed by the flight crew in the order as listed and
in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe
operation of aircraft.
D. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be
performed by the flight crew & ground crew in the
order as listed and in the circumstances as indicated
for ensuring safe operation of a aircraft.
191. A list containing items of action to be performed B. a cross reference to the incoming certification
by the flight crew in the order as listed, whenever document.
emergent situations develop in flight on account of C. details from the outgoing certification of any
failures/malfunction of aircraft systems/components deviation from the approved design document.
and requiring extra alertness on the part of flight crew D. All the above are correct.
is
A. safety list. 198. 'Chief Instructor' is a mandatory requirement for
B. emergency list. organisation approved in
C. emergency check list. A. category 'A'.
D. Cockpit check-list. B. category'C'.
C. category 'F'.
192. A list containing items of inspections/action to be D. category 'G'.
performed by the flight crew in the order as listed and
in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe 199. The 'Pass marks' in approved training school
operation of aircraft is shall not be less than
A. check-list. A. 80%.
B. cockpit check-list. B. 70%.
C. emergency check-list. C. 60%.
D. safety list. D. 90%.

193. Bonded store is a store where 200. In case of re-examination of failed candidate in
A. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting approved training school the passing mark shall not be
DGCA approval. less than
B. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting A. 80%.
evidence of having been received from approved B. 90%.
sources. C. 70%.
C. material bear evidence of having been received D. 60%.
from approved sources.
D. airworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting 201. The duration of training period for specialised
manufacturer approval. course for specific aircraft/engines shall be decided by
A. DGCA.
194. Quarantine store is a store where B. RAO.
A. airtworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting C. manufacturer of aircraft/engines.
DGCA approval. D. organisation.
B. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting
evidence of having been received from approved 202. In an organisation approved in category 'G'
sources. during any course the practical training shall not be
C. material bear evidence of having been received normally
from approved sources. A. less than 50% of total training time.
D. airworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting B. less than 40% of total training time.
manufacturer approval. C. more than 50% of total training time.
D. more than 40% of total training time.
195. Separate stores are maintained for
A. inflammable goods. 203. A candidate appearing for examination in any
B. bearings. approved course should have at least
C. propellers. A. 60% attendance.
D. hardwares. B. 70% attendance.
C. 80% attendance.
196. Incoming release notes or other equipvalent D. 90% attendance.
documents shall be preserved for
A. two years. 204. The Q.C.M. & Dy Q.C. M. are approved by the
B. five years. A. Chief Engineer of an airline operator.
C. ten years. B. controller of Airworthiness.
D. till the life of covered item. C. Managing Director of an organisation.
D. DGCA.
197. Release note contains
A. a cross reference to the outgoing certification 205. The maintenance schedule of an aircraft
document. organisation are approved by the
A. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation.
14
B. Q.C.M of only Indian Airlines & Air India.
C. controller of Director of Airworthiness of the
region.
D. Both b and c are correct.
206. The component life list is a part of
A. Maintenance System manual & may be revised as
per maker's recommendation.
B. Quality Control manual & may be revised as per
maker's recommendation.
C. Maintenance system manyual and may be revised
in concurrence of the DGCA.
D. Quality control manual, once approved by DGCA
can be revised by the Quality Control Manager.
207. When any component or item is drawn from the
bonded stores by the AME, he should ensure that
there is a
A. proper release note available.
B. certificate of maintenance release available.
C. certificate of safety available.
D. consignment note available.
208. Every Inidian registered aircraft is required to
possess
A. certificate of Airworthiness.
B. current and valid certificate of airworthiness before
it is flown.
C. certificate of Airworthiness only for test flight.
D. None of the above.
209. To ensure that the aircraft has a current and valid
C of A is the responsibiloity of
A. D.G.C.A.
B. Regional Airworthiness Office.
C. Manufactuere of the Aircraft.
D. Owner/Operator of the Aircraft.
210. The aircraft is mainteined in airworthy condition
by subjecting the aircraft & component to
A. periodical inspections as approved by D.G.C.A.
B. replace "lifed" components at intervals approved
by the D.G.C.A.
C. carry out repairs/modifications as required by
D.G.C.A.
D. All the above are correct.
211. It is the responsibility of the owner to
A. see his pilots operate the aircraft as per operating
limitations.
B. report all defects encountered in flight or during
routine maintenance to A.I.D.
C. record such defects as per procedure specified in
C.A.R. series 'C'.
D. a,b,c are correct.
212. Operator co-operation to unauthorised officers of
A.I.D.
15
A. extend co-operation to unauthorised officers of
A.I.D.
B. extend co-operation to unauthorised officers of
A.I.D. in supervising the engineering activities.
C. Both a & b are correct.
D. Both a& b are not correct.
213. A.I.D. Officers monitor the airworthiness
standards stipulated by D.G.C.A.
A. through medium of spot checks.
B. through investigation of defects reported to them.
C. through the D.G.C.A.
D. Both a & b are correct.
214. Technical officers of R A O may require
owners/operators to submit their aircraft/aircraft
components for inspection.
A. whenever they like.
B. when the operator / owner is ready.
C. at a pre-determined stage to ensure compliance
with prescribed airworthiness standards.
D. All the above.
215. The main objective of the Airworthiness
authority is to ensure
A. design levels of reliability.
B. operating safety of civil registered aircraft.
C. promulgation and enforcement of highest
achievable standards of airworthiness.
D. All are correct.
216. An unintentional landing effected on account of
failure/malfunction of an aircraft component or a
system is
A. forced landing.
B. heavy landing.
C. normal landing.
D. emergency landing.
217. The maintenance process requiring assembly
inspection of aircraft and aircraft components at fixed
period is
A. preventive maintenance.
B. hard time maintenance.
C. on-condition maintenance.
D. None.
218. The maintenance process for locating and
resolving problem areas through analytical study of
failure or malfunction not affecting safety of aircraft
is called
A. hard time maintenance.
B. on-condition maintenance.
C. condition monitoring.
D. preventive maintenance.
219. Accomplishment of repetitive (1) visual
inspection or (2) physical measurement or (3) in
situ/bench test, etc. to determine the continued
serviceability of aircraft and aircraft components D. None.
without having to dismantle them completely and
before such components reach a critical stage in their 227. Training aircraft operators would furnish the
operation is termed as information concerning major defect/ incident
A. hard time maintenance. /accident to D.G.C.A.
B. on-condition maintenance. A. every month.
C. condition monitoring. B. every six months.
D. preventive maintenance. C. every three months.
D. None.
220. Preventive maintenance is
A. on-condition. 228. If the A.I.D. observes adverse 'trends' in
B. hard line. performance of aircraft he
C. on-condition and hard time. A. suggests additional preventive maintenance.
D. condition-monitoring. B. proposes varying the frequency of existing
preventive maintenance.
221. Condition monitoring is C. suggests incorporation of modifications on
A. hard time maintenance. mandatory basis.
B. preventive maintenance. D. All are correct.
C. a & b is correct.
D. None of the above. 229. Despatch reliability is the percentage ratio
between
222. Preventive maintenance is A. number of services which were delayed for more
A. hard time. than 15 minutes on account of engineering defects per
B. work performed at pre-determined intervals to 1000 Hrs.
maintain an aircraft, aircraft component or aircraft B. number of services which were delayed for more
system in an airworthy condition. than 15 minutes on account of engineering defects per
C. on condition. number of scheduled service during the period.
D. a, b, c are correct. C. number of services which were despatched in time
per 1000 hrs.
223. Private operator shall furnish the information D. number of services which were despatched in time
concerning major defect /incident /accident to the per no. of scheduled service during the period.
D.G.C.A.
A. every month. 230. If there is no information concerning individual
B. every six months. major defect /incident /accident the operator
C. every nine months. A. does not have to send any information to R.A.O.
D. every twelve months. B. does not have to send any information to D.G.C.A.
C. has to send a "NIL' information.
224. Non-schedule operators shall furnish the D. All the above.
information concerning major defect /incident
/accident to the D.G.C.A. 231. CAR is issued under rule
A. every month. A. 133 A.
B. every three months. B. 133 B.
C. every six months. C. 133 C.
D. every nine months. D. 62 B.

225. Schedule operators would furnish the 232. Procedure for issuing of CAR including
information concerning major defect / incident/ amendments, if any, is covered in CAR
accident to the D.G.C.A. A. series A part I.
A. every month. B. series B part I.
B. every six months. C. series B part II.
C. every nine months. D. series A part II.
D. every year.
233. CAR series A part III refers to
226. Aerial work operators shall furnish the A. procedure for issue of CAR.
information concerning major defect /incident B. objective of AID.
/accident to D.G.C.A. C. targets of AID.
A. every month. D. Both b & c are correct.
B. every six months.
C. every three months. 234. Mark the correct statement
16
A. CAR is issued bearing different series
identification serial as I, II, III etc.
B. CAR is issued bearing different parts such as
A,B,C etc.
C. CAR is issued bearing different series
identification alphabetical letter such as series A,B,C
etc.
D. None of the above.
235. A current list of all CAR with amendments, is
also issued
A. at the beginning of each year.
B. at the end of each year.
C. in the middle of each year.
D. Both a & b are correct.
236. When substantial changes are made to a CAR
part
A. a new issue is issued.
B. a new part is issued.
C. new series are issued.
D. new series and part are issued.
237. All pilots before flying as PIC of multi engined
aircraft of licensed air transport service shall
demonstrate to a check pilot let down procedure
applicable to the aerodrome in use, variation in speed
during descent not to exceed
A. 5 MPH above the stipulated speed.
B. 5 MPH below the stipulated speed.
C. 5 MPH above or below the stipulated speed.
D. 10 MPH above or below the stipulated speed.
238. While recovering from unusual altitude during
pilot check loss in height shall not exceed
A. 500 feet.
B. 1000 feet.
C. 1500 feet.
D. 2000 feet.
239. The PIC of every aircraft shall before
commencing any flight satisfy himself of the
A. valid flight release in respect of the aircraft.
B. sufficient length of runway is available.
C. engines are developing correct power.
D. All are correct.
240. The responsibility of briefing the passengers of
smoking limitation lies with
A. PIC.
B. Co-pilot.
C. AME.
D. QCM.
241. Critical phase of flight includes
A. taxying.
B. take off and landing.
C. all flight operations conducted below 10000 feet
except cruise flight.
17
D. All are correct.
242. Duties not required for safe operation of the
aircraft includes company required calls made
A. for ordering galley supplies.
B. for confirming passenger's connections.
C. for promoting airlines.
D. All are correct.
243. No pilot may carry out acrobatic man cover in an
aircraft unless
A. a crash helmet is worn.
B. a headgear is worn.
C. pilots wearing spectacles must weare flying
goggles over and above the spectacles.
D. All are correct.
244. Minimum fuel and oil requirements for public
transport aircraft is contained in
A. CAR series F part II.
B. CAR series F part III.
C. CAR series O part II.
D. CAR series O part III.
245. PIC shall ensure that the aircraft carries sufficient
amount of fuel for the flight considering
A. adverse affects of weather.
B. availability of an alternate aerodrome.
C. emergency that may be expected during the flight.
D. All are correct.
246. The fuel and oil carried in the case of propeller
driven aircraft when alternate airport is not required
shall be at least the amount sufficient to allow the
aircraft
A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is
planned.
B. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes.
C. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes.
D. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 60 minutes.
247. The fuel carried in case of propeller driven
aircraft (when alternate airport is required) shall be at
least the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft
A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is
planned hence to an alternate.
B. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes.
C. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes.
D. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 60 minutes.
248. The fuel carried on turbo jet aircraft (when an
alternate aerodrome is not required) shall be at least
the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft
A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is
planned.
B. as in (a) & to fly for 30 minutes.
C. as in (a) & to fly for 45 minutes.
D. as in (a) & to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at
450 metres above the destination aerodrome.
249. The fuel on board a turbo jet aircraft when no
suitable alternate aerodrome is available to fly to
which the flight is planned and there-after for a period
of
A. 30 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
B. 45 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
C. 60 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
D. 120 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
250. In computing fuel and oil required for aircraft
operation one should consider
A. meteorological forecast.
B. anticipated ATC routing and traffic delays.
C. one instruments approach at the destination
aerodrome including one missed approach.
D. All are correct.
251. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly
under VFR condition is to
A. fly to first point of intended landing.
B. as in (a) thereafter for 15 minutes.
C. as in (a) thereafter for 20 minutes.
D. as in (a) thereafter for 45 minutes.
252. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly
under IFR condition is to
A. fly to first point of intended landing.
B. fly to first point of intended landing and then to
alternate.
C. as in (b) thereafter for 20 minutes.
D. as in (b) thereafter for 45 minutes.
253. Minimum fuel required for operation of
supersonic aircraft
A. is same as for turbo prop aircraft.
B. is same as for turbo jet aircraft.
C. is same as for helicopter.
D. None is correct.
254. A helicopter with such performance that in case
of critical power unit failure it is able to land on the
rejected take off aread or safely condinue the flight to
an appropriate landing area, depending on the failure
occurred is called
A. performance class I helicopter.
B. performance class II helicopter.
C. performance class III helicopter.
D. performance class IV helicopter.
255. A helicopter with such performance that, in case
of critical power unit failure it is able to safely
continue the flight, except when the failure occurs
prior to a defined point after take off or after a defined
point before landing, in which case a forced landing
may be required is called
A. performance class I helicopter.
B. performance class II helicopter.
C. performance class III helicopter.
D. performance class IV helicopter.
18
256. A helicopter with performance such that in case
of power unit failure at any point in the flight profile a
forced landing must be performed is called
A. performance class I helicopter.
B. performance class II helicopter.
C. performance class III helicopter.
D. performance class IV helicopter.
257. All helicopters below 2000 kg AUW must be
equipped with
A. an accurate time piece showing time in hour
minutes and seconds.
B. pilot may use his personal watch in lieu of (a).
C. as in (b) provide the watch is accurate and shows
time in hours, minutes and seconds.
D. All are correct.
258. Helicopter operating in IFR condition in addition
to instruments in VFR flying shall have
A. slip indicator.
B. position lights.
C. landing lights.
D. All are correct.
259. Helicopter which is intended to land in IMC shall
be provided with radio equipment capable of
receiving signals providing
A. guidance to a point from which a visual landing
can be effected.
B. guidance to a point from which instrument landing
can be effected.
C. guidance to ATC transponder.
D. guidance to WX radar.
260. All helicopters intended to be flown over water
shall be fitted with a permanent or rapidly deployable
means of floatation if distance from land corresponds
to more than
A. 10 minutes at normal cruise speed.
B. 15 minutes at normal cruise speed.
C. 30 minutes at normal cruise speed.
D. 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.
261. Flight data recorders are 'must' for all helicopters
A. with AUW of over 7000 kg.
B. with AUW of over 5700 kg.
C. with AUW of over 2700 kg.
D. with AUW of over 2000 kg.
262. CVR's are must for all helicopter
A. with AUW of over 7000 kg.
B. with AUW of over 5700 kg.
C. with AUW of over 2700 kg.
D. with AUW of over 2000 kg.
263. FDR used on helicopter shall be
A. type IV FDR.
B. type III FDR.
C. type II FDR.
D. type I FDR.
264. FDR used on helicopter shall be capable of
retaining the information recorded during at least
A. the last 25 hours of operation.
B. the last 10 hours of operation.
C. the last one hour of operation.
D. the last 30 minutes of operation.
265. CVR used on helicopters shall be capable of
retaining the information recorded during at least
A. the last 25 hours of operation.
B. the last 10 hours of operation.
C. the last one hour of operation.
D. the least 30 minutes of operation.
266. Operation of helicopter is contained in
A. CAR series F part I.
B. CAR series F part IV.
C. CAR series O part I.
D. CAR series O part IV.
267. Aerodrome operating minima is the limits of
usability of an aerodrome for either take-off or
landing usually expressed in times of
A. MDA/G.
B. DA/H.
C. MDA/H.
D. All are correct.
268. An alternate aerodrome
A. is always the aerodrome of departure.
B. may be aerodrome of departure.
C. is at least 500 nautical miles from the aerodrome of
departure.
D. is at least 450 nautical miles from the aerodrome of
departure.
269. Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to
A. mean sea level.
B. average sea level.
C. threshold elevation.
D. tower elevation.
270. Decision height (DH) is referred to
A. mean sea level.
B. average sea level.
C. threshold elevation.
D. tower elevation.
271. MDA/H is specified altitude or height in a
A. non-precision approach below which descent may
be made without visual reference.
B. non-precision approach below which descent may
not be made without visual reference.
C. precision approach below which descent may not
be made without visual reference.
D. precision approach below which descent may be
made without visual reference.
19
272. Civil twilight ends in the
A. evening when the centre of sun's disc is 6 degree
below the horizon.
B. morning when the centre of sun's disc is 6 degree
below the horizon.
C. evening at 6 P.M.
D. morning at 6 A.M.
273. The colour of marking of 'break in points' in
aircraft shall be
A. red.
B. yellow.
C. outlined in white to contrast with the background.
D. All are correct.
274. Installation of anti-collision light is applicable to
all aircraft issued with C of A for the first time after
A. 31-12-1970.
B. 31-12-184.
C. 01-12-1970.
D. 01-12-1984.
275. All aeroplanes on flights over water shall be
provided with one approved life jacket for each
person on board when flown beyond
A. 20 nautical miles away from land.
B. 50 nautical miles away from land.
C. 100 nautical miles away from land.
D. All are correct.
276. Flight recorders are not required for aircraft
below
A. 15000 kg.
B. 7000 kg.
C. 5700 kg.
D. None is correct.
277. The radio equipment installed in aircraft
registered in India shall
A. not be operated in flight unless it has been
inspected and certified as being in proper working
order by a person authorised by the DGCA.
B. be installed and operated with a licence issued by
DGCA.
C. be operated only by a person who holds
appropriate licence issued by DGCA.
D. All are correct.
278. CAR series R Part I pertains to
A. aircraft radio equipment.
B. installation of communication equipment.
C. installation of navigation equipment.
D. installation of radar equipment.
279. While installing anew avionic system on an
aircraft in the absence of manufacturer's guidelines the
AME 'R' shall make a feasibility study to check that
A. empty weight of the aircraft remains same after
installation.
B. empty weight C.G. remains same after installation. A. CAR series E part II.
C. loaded weight C.G. remains same after installation. B. CAR series E part III.
D. C.G. should remain in limit after installation. C. CAR series R part II.
D. CAR series R part III.
280. For approval of an avionic installation, in
absence of manufacturer's guidelines, AME 'R' shall 288. Maintenance check carried out on radio
submit the modification details along with equipments are
A. six copies of drawing to RAO. A. in situ checks & bench checks.
B. six copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs). B. bench check only.
C. three copies of drawing to RAO. C. boroscope checks.
D. three copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs). D. NDT checks.

281. On comletion of structural and electrical wiring 289. FRC of a radio communication system installed
on an aircraft the complete wiring shall be checked for on a flying training club aircraft is
A. continuity. A. valid for 24 hours.
B. insulation and continuity. B. 12 hours or 7 days elapsed time.
C. bonding and insulation. C. 10 hours or 4 days elapsed time.
D. All are correct. D. None is correct.

282. The antenna installed on aircraft shall be checked 290. FRC of a radio communication/navigation
by AME for proper insulation to ensure that system installed on a flying training club aircraft is
A. radio interference is least. A. valid for 24 hours.
B. static interference is maximum. B. valid for 200 hours.
C. precipitation static interference is minimum. C. valid for 90 days.
D. static interference is minimum. D. valid for 30 days.

283. After installation of new avionic system on an 291. During scheduled maintenance check or 180
aircraft the EWCG shall be amended accordingly by days inspection schedule of radio system it is a must
A. AME cat 'R'. to carry out
B. AME cat A & C. A. VSWR of HF & VHF transmitter.
C. AME cat A, C & R. B. bonding of RF cables.
D. AME cat 'B'. C. insulation of radio equipments.
D. All are correct.
284. Installation of a new avionic system on an
aircraft can be carried out only after obtaining 292. FTD checks of ADF, VHF, HF, VOR & ILS
A. the permission from DGCA. equipment are carried out
B. the permit from DGCA. A. once in six months.
C. short term aeromobile licence from WPC wing of B. once in a year (for valve equipment).
Ministry of Communications. C. once in 2 years (for valve equipment).
D. permanent aeromobile licence from WPC wing of D. None is correct.
Ministry of Communications.
293. Final test data check of solid state equipment
285. CAR series R part III pertains to shall be carried out
A. aircraft radio equipment. A. once in six months.
B. installation of aircraft radio equipment. B. once in a year.
C. maintenance of airborne radio equipment. C. once in 2 years.
D. installation and maintenance of airborne radio D. once in a 2 years linked with C of A or any major
equipment. check.

286. Aircraft shall be equipped with radio apparatus 294. Pilot shall file de-briefing report regarding the
as may be specified is required as per IAR range and performance of WX Radar, Omega NAV,
A. 9A. HIS, RMI, DME and R NAV after
B. 9 Sub-rule 3. A. the day's flying.
C. 51 A, sub-rule 3. B. 10 days of flying.
D. Both a and c are correct. C. 90 days of flying.
D. 180 days of flying.
287. Maintenance of airborne communication and 295. Aircraft after flying through electrical storm or
navigation equipments shall be carried out in lightning strike has to be inspected for
accordance with A. loop antenna which is to be demagnetised.
20
B. all digital and CRT indicator shall be inspected for D. 4 years.
any possible damage to glass components.
C. all antenna shall be inspected for any damage to 304. The service life of group B hoses are
the wire. A. 10 years.
D. All are correct. B. 8 years.
C. 6 years.
296. Major modifications regarding safety of aircraft D. 4 years.
radio equipment shall be carried out by
A. AME cat 'R'. 305. The service life of group A and group B hoses
B. AME cat 'B' (radio). can be increased by
C. AME cat A & B (radio). A. 8 years.
D. AME cat 'X' (radio). B. 6 years.
297. CAR series S part I pertains to storage of C. 4 years.
A. aircraft instruments. D. 2 years.
B. aircraft hardware.
C. aircraft engines. 306. Group 'A' hoses are
D. aircraft tyres. A. fuel, oil.
B. pneumatic pressure hoses.
298. Aircraft tyres should be stored vertically in racks C. hydraulic pressure hoses.
having support tubes so that each tyre is supported at D. All are correct.
two point on the treads. The tyres should be turned to
a new position 307. Group 'B' hoses are
A. every month or so. A. fuel, oil.
B. every 2 months or so. B. hydraulic return line and instrument hoses.
C. every 3 months or so. C. fuel return line.
D. every 6 months or so. D. All are correct.

299. The storage temperature of rubber parts should 308. The 'shelf life' of valve seats used in hydraulic
A. between 50 degree F and 70 degree F. system is
B. between 50 degree C and 70 degree C. A. 10 years from the cure date.
C. between 50 degree F and 90 degree F. B. 8 years from cure date.
D. between 50 degree C and 90 degree C. C. 6 years from the cure date.
D. 4 years from the cure date.
300. The relative humidity of the room where hoses
are stored shall be around 309. Rubber seals which have been stored for more
A. 50%. than four years should be checked for deterioration by
B. 60%. stretching the seal to
C. 65%. A. 10% of their internal dia and seeing for crack under
D. 75%. XIO magnification.
B. 20% of their internal dia and seeing for crack under
301. Aircraft hoses should be stored XIO magnification.
A. in coiled state. C. 10% of their external dia and seeing for crack
B. in coiled state supported in racks having support under XIO magnification.
tubes. D. 20% of their external dia and seeing for crack
C. in coiled state with french chalk sprayed. under XIO magnification.
D. in coiled and supported state so as to relieve
stresses. 310. The maximum service life of rubber seals shall
not exceed
302. The storage/shelf life of group A hoses are A. 8 years.
A. 10 years from the cure date. B. 6 years.
B. 6 years from the cure date. C. 5 years.
C. as in (a) before installation pressure test should be D. 4 years.
carried out 1.5 times the working pressure.
D. None is correct. 311. The calendar life of reciprocating engines are
A. 10 years.
303. The service life of group A houses are B. 8 years.
A. 10 years. C. 6 years.
B. 8 years. D. None is correct.
C. 6 years.
21
312. Series aircraft means
A. aircraft manufactured in series.
B. arcraft supplied in series.
C. aircraft belonging to 'A' series.
D. None is correct.
313. Flight test means the flying of an aircraft
A. without any passenger on board for the purpose
assessing the deterioration in performance.
B. as in (a) and also assessing the satisfactory
completion of maintenance.
C. as in (a) and can carry passengers.
D. as in (a) and (b) and can carry passengers.
314. Test flight of an Indian airlines aircraft will be
carried out
A. during C of A renewal.
B. after 'top-overhaul'.
C. after 'block-overhaul'.
D. Both a and c are correct.
315. A private aircraft shall be flight tested
A. during C of A renewal.
B. subsequent to change of an engine.
C. for the purpose of evaluation of engine power.
D. All are correct.
316. On a four-engine aircraft the test flight may not
be carried out after change of
A. one engine provided satisfactory ground run has
been carried out.
B. two engines provided satisfactory ground run has
been carried out.
C. three engines provided satisfactory ground run has
been carried out.
D. All are correct.
317. Engine change means removal of an engine and
its replacement by
A. an overhauled engine.
B. re-installation of the engine in the same position.
C. engine removed from any position of the same
aircraft to any other aircraft.
D. All are correct.
318. Test flight shall be continued if practicable at
A. maximum AUW.
B. minimum AUW.
C. 3/4 of maximum AUW.
D. 1/2 of maximum AUW.
319. The routine test flight procedure will at least
insure
A. that the cruise speed at the cruising engine power is
within the range specified.
B. that the stalling speed has not increased beyond the
figure specified by the manufacturer/DGCA.
C. that 'al-engine-operating' climbed performance is
within acceptable limits specified by the
22
manufacturer/DGCA, while effecting climb at the
'best climbing speed'.
D. All are correct.
320. The responsibility of recording the results of test
flight lies entirely with
A. PIC.
B. Co-pilot.
C. Flight Engineer.
D. AME.
321. The observed actual climb performance is related
to the test condition
A. means altitude.
B. means temperature.
C. means weight.
D. All are correct.
322. When an India registered aircraft suffers major
damage of defect then it shall be the responsibility of
A. the operator to inform the RAO.
B. the operator to inform the DGCA.
C. the operator to inform the DAI.
D. None is correct.
323. On receipt of a report regarding major
defect/damage to an aircraft, officer incharge of RAO
A. may formally suspend the C of A.
B. may suspend C of A, if reasonable doubts exist to
the safety of aircraft.
C. may suspend C of A, if reasonable doubts exist to
the safety of aircraft or as to the safety of this type of
aircraft to which the aircraft belongs.
D. Both a and b are correct.
324. The owner/operator during carrying out
rectification of major defect
A. shall not submit the aircraft to airworthiness
officers for inspection.
B. shall submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers
for inspection during rectification work.
C. shall submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers
for inspection only when rectification is complete.
D. None is correct.
325. When a suspended C of A is revalidated it is
A. for one year.
B. for the period the original revalidation would have
lasted had the suspension not taken place.
C. for six months.
D. Both b and c are correct.
326. Aircraft rule 53 and 53A together
A. prescribes the requirement regarding use of
material process to be used during maintenance of
aircraft.
B. prescribes the requirement regarding use of
material process to be used during maintenance of
aircraft and also the persons authorised to certify the B. will be the same registraqtion number which was
maintenance of aircraft. given to aircraft of which airframe was a part.
C. prescribes the persons authorised to certify the C. in case of new fuselage or imported fuselage new
maintenance of aircraft. registration mark will be allotted.
D. prescribes the requirement regarding use of D. Both a and c are correct.
material process to be used during manufacture of
aircraft and also the persons authorised to certify the 334. Before starting rebuilding of an aircraft the
manufacture of aircraft. constructor must insure that
327. CAR series F part VI deals with A. proper history of parts are available.
A. rebuilding of aircraft. B. parts purchased are genuine.
B. rebuilding of damaged aircraft. C. parts are imported.
C. rebuilding of aircraft wreckage. D. Both a and b are correct.
D. All are correct.
335. AME under-taking the rebuilding of aircraft must
328. Only those aircraft are permitted to be rebuilt be endorsed in
A. which were earlier type certificated. A. category 'A'.
B. which were flying with C of A. B. category 'B".
C. which has sufficient data regarding maintenance C. category 'C'.
and prformance standards. D. category 'D'.
D. All are correct.
336. Aircraft parts are completely
329. Rebuilding means stripped/inspected /overhauled prior to assembling of
A. assembling an aircraft from parts which are already aircraft during rebuilding if the parts had been in
manufactured to an acceptable airworthiness standards storage for more than
and fitted in an aircraft to be type certificated. A. ten years.
B. assembling an aircraft from parts which are already B. eight years.
manufactured to an acceptable airworthiness standards C. five years.
and then fitted to type certificated aircraft. D. two years.
C. assembling an aircraft from parts approved by
AME to an acceptable airworthiness standards and 337. Series F part VII contains
then fitted to an aircraft to be type certificated. A. C of A renewal procedure.
D. None is correct. B. suspension of C of A.
C. spcial flight permit.
330. An approved firm can undertake the rebuilding D. None of the above.
of
A. all aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg. 338. Aircraft with suspended C of A due to defect or
B. all pressurised aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg. damage shall not undertake any flight without specific
C. all unpressurised aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg. permission of DGCA vide
D. all unpressurised aircraft upto the weight 3000 kg. A. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 2.
B. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 3.
331. Rebuilt aircraft will be assigned a serial number C. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 4.
by the constructor. This number will normally be the D. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 5.
number assigned
A. to the wing. 339. DGCA may permit special flight for an aircraft
B. to complete aircraft. when the C of A is suspended vide
C. to the fuselage. A. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 2.
D. None is correct. B. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 3.
C. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 4.
332. The constructor number in case of rebuilt aircraft D. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 5.
will be affixed
A. to the wing by permanent means. 340. A special flight authorisation is a permission
B. to the fuselage by permanent means. accorded
C. to the cockpit by permanent means. A. by DGCA.
D. All are correct. B. to ferry-fly an aircraft.
C. to carry special persons (VIPs).
333. Registration number assigned to a rebuilt aircraft D. Both a and b are correct.
A. will be the same registration number which was
given to aircraft of which fuselage was a part. 341. A special flight permit is a permission

23
A. to ferry fly to a base without passengers on board 348. Important schedules like heavy landing, post
where repairs, modifications and maintenance lighting strike, post propeller strike etc. should be
required to remove the suspension of the C of A can submitted to the RAO for approval in
be performed. A. duplicate.
B. for production flight testing new production B. triplicate.
aircraft. C. quadruplicate.
C. to authorise flight for special purposes. D. None.
D. All are correct.
349. All works on a/c must be recorded in the relevant
342. The operator who wishes to avail a special flight log books within
permit must submit an application to RAO indicating A. an hour of completion.
A. the crew required to operate the aircraft. B. six hours of completion.
B. the crew required to operate the equipment. C. 24 hours of completion.
C. the purpose of flight. D. 48 hours of completion.
D. All are correct.
350. If aircraft log book is not readily available
343. The RAO may authorise a special ferry flight because of aircraft being away from the base then
subject to A. one copy of log book entry should be kept in the
A. inspection or tests by the operation for determining JLB.
the safety of aircraft for the intended flight and B. one copy of log book entry should be sent to the
certified to that effect by appropriately licensed AME. RAO.
B. limitation that the operating weight on any ferry C. aone copy of log book entry should be sent to
flight must be the minimum necessary. DGCA.
C. manufacture for which the aircraft is limited. D. All are correct.
D. All are correct.
351. FRC will become invalid
344. Special flight authorisation issued by A. if unapproved parts are used.
regional/sub-regional airworthiness office is valid B. if unapproved manoeuvers are taken.
A. for one week. C. if aircraft suffers major damage.
B. upto arrival at destination airport. D. None of the above.
C. upto arrival at destination or date whichever is
applicable. 352. Validity of FRC of schedule operator including
D. All are correct. corporation is
A. 12 hours of aircraft operator operation.
345. On completion of special flight the operator with B. 24 hours.
render C. as stated in approved QC manual.
A. to RAO any abnormality encountered during flight. D. as stated in approved maintenance system manual.
B. to DGCA any abnormality encountered during
flight. 353. Validity of FRC of flying training aircraft
C. to DGCA action taken at base to render aircraft A. is valid for every 24 hours (one day).
airworthy. B. is valid for 12 hours of aircraft operation when
D. Both b and c are correct. aircraft is away from main base.
C. is valid for 4 days elapsed time when aircraft is
346. General requirements regarding maintenance and away from main base.
certification of Aircraft is dealt in D. All are correct.
A. CAR series F part V.
B. CAR series F part VI. 354. FRC of aerial work aircraft is
C. CAR series F part VII. A. 10 hours of aircraft operation or 7 days elapsed
D. CAR series F part VIII. time whichever is earlier.
B. 12 hours of aircraft operation or 4 days elapsed
347. Operator who do not have their own facility for time whichever is earlier.
maintenance and certification of aircraft C. 10 hours of aircraft operation or 4 days elapsed
A. can't maintain & fly their aircraft. time whichever is earlier.
B. have to request DGCA for certification. D. 12 hours of aircraft operation or 7 days elapsed
C. C of A of their a/c will be cancelled. time whichever is earlier.
D. can get maintenance and certification performed by
organisation approved for the purpose. 355. FRC of private aircraft is valid for
A. 50 hrs/30 days.
B. 25 hrs/15 days.
24
C. 10 hrs/7 days. 364. FRC is preserved for
D. Both a and b are correct. A. one month from the date of issue.
B. six months from the date of issue.
356. Validity of FRC of State Govt. aircraft is C. one year from the date of issue.
A. 50 hrs/30 days. D. Not required to be preserved.
B. 50 hrs/60 days.
C. decided by the RAO is consultation with the
operator. 365. Distribution of FRC is done as follows:
D. None is correct. A. one copy to RAO.
B. one copy is kept in aircraft.
357. Validity of FRc of Radio communication C. one copy is with organisation record.
equipment of training aircraft is D. Both b and c are correct.
A. 30 days elapsed time.
B. 60 days elapsed time. 366. Rule 53 of aircraft rule specifies that
C. 90 days elapsed time. A. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of
D. None is correct. equipment on such aircraft shall periodically be
inspected/overhauled and certified.
358. Validity of FRC of Radio navigation equipment B. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of
of training aircraft is equipment must be obtained from approved sources.
A. 30 days elapsed time. C. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of
B. 60 days elapsed time. equipment must possess a valid release note.
C. 90 days elapsed time. D. All are correct.
D. None is correct.
367. Schedule maintenance includes the following
359. Validity of FRC of Radio communication work
equipment of private aircraft is A. replacement of "life limited" item.
A. 30 days elapsed time. B. heavy landing schedule.
B. 60 days elapsed time. C. lighting sticks schedule.
C. 90 days elapsed time. D. All are correct.
D. 180 days elapsed time.
368. Unschedule maintenance includes the following
360. Validity of FRC of Radio navigation equipment work
of private aircraft is A. special inspections such as x-rays.
A. 30 days elapsed time. B. replacement of "lifed" components.
B. 60 days elapsed time. C. heavy landing schedule.
C. 90 days elapsed time. D. All are correct.
D. 180 days elapsed time.
369. Aging aircraft requires more frequent inspection
361. FRC for aircraft of AUW of 15000 kg and above of structural components for damage due to
is signed by A. environmental deterioration.
A. persons authorised in two category. B. accidental damage.
B. persons authorised in three category. C. fatigue.
C. persons authorised in four category. D. All are correct.
D. persons authorised in five category.
370. To ensure structural integrity of aging aircraft
362. In case of private aircraft the schedule of manufacturers have issued
inspection lower than 50 hrs may be carried out by A. SSIP.
A. the pilot holding C.P. licence on that particular B. CPCP.
type of aircraft. C. SSIP & CPCP.
B. the pilot having vast experience. D. fatigue prevention document.
C. the pilot having at least ALTP.
D. None is correct. 371. The owner/operator shall inform to RAO/sub-
RAO in writing at least 15 days in advance about the
363. Flight release certificate is signed in commencement of all the inspection schedules
A. duplicate. A. of 100 hrs and above.
B. triplicate. B. of over 100 hrs.
C. quadruplicate. C. of over 300 hrs.
D. None is correct. D. All are correct.

25
372. Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc
extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO's
of components upto a maximum of
A. 10% or 50 hrs (whichever is less).
B. 3% or 3 months (whichever is less).
C. 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less).
D. None is correct.
373. Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc
extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO's
of components upto a maximum of
A. 10% or 50 hrs (whichever is less).
B. 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less).
C. 10% or 3 months (whichever is less).
D. Both b and c are correct.
374. All completed maintenance schedules must be
preserved for a minimum period of
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. five years.
D. ten years.
375. Damage due to environment in form of corrosion
and stress corrosion is
A. environmental damage.
B. corrosion damage.
C. fatigue damage.
D. accidental damage.
376. Aging aircraft are those aircraft which have
A. completed their life.
B. completed their service life.
C. completed their designed service life.
D. completed their designed economic life.
377. Multiple site damage are
A. five or more dents on one site.
B. five or more cracks on one site which link up in to
longer crack.
C. fatigue crack at number of fasteners which stand to
link up into longer crakcs.
D. All are correct.
378. At present SSID have been issued for
A. B 200C, C 90A, B 737.
B. A 35, B 55, C 90a.
C. B 737, B 747, HS 748.
D. J 3C, PA 12, FA 152.
379. Design economic life of Airbus is
A. 10 years.
B. 20 years.
C. 30 years.
D. 50 years.
380. Design economic life of B 737 is
A. 25 years, 51,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes.
B. 20 years, 60,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes.
26
C. 20 years, 51,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes.
D. 25 years, 60,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes.
381. Design economic life of B 747 is
A. 25 years, 20,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes.
B. 25 years, 60,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes.
C. 20 years, 60,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes.
D. 25 years, 51,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes.
382. Design economic life of B707 is
A. 50 years, 60,000 hrs, 51,000 flight cydes.
B. 50 years, 75,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes.
C. 50 years, 20,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes.
D. 20 years, 20,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes.
383. Design economic life of Douglas, F27 & HS-748
are
A. 20 years.
B. 30 years.
C. 40 years.
D. 50 years.
384. The control system of which duplicate
inspections are carried out are
A. flying controls.
B. engine controls.
C. engine controls & flying controls.
D. flying, engine and associated controls.
385. Duplicate inspection of all control system shall
be made
A. after rigging.
B. before the first flight of all aircraft after assembly
and rigging.
C. before the first flight after C of A.
D. before C of A flight.
386. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is at the
base is carried out by
A. persons approved for the purpose in an approved
organisation.
B. a flight engineer.
C. a flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for the
type of aircraft.
D. Both a and c are correct.
387. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is away
from the base in carried out by
A. by a flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for
the aircraft.
B. by any CPL holder.
C. by a person specially authorised by the DGCA.
D. Both a and b are correct.
388. RAO can authorise a person to carry out
duplicate inspection of aircraft if
A. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance
experience and 6 months experience of the type of
aircraft involved.
B. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance
experience and 3 months maintenance experience on
the type of aircraft involved.
C. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance
experience and one year maintenance experience on
the type of aircraft involved.
D. All are correct.
389. Series 'F' part XII deals with
A. inspection of wooden aircraft.
B. duplicate inspection of flying controls.
C. duplicate inspection of engine controls.
D. Both b and c are correct.
390. Aircraft of composite contruction shall be
inspected before issue/renewal or validation of
certificate of airworthiness and thereafter in periods
not exceeding
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. five years.
D. ten years.
391. Factors causing wood deterioration are
A. chemical action of glue due to aging.
B. mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage.
C. development of fungus.
D. All are correct.
392. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes
of temperature and humidity are especially prove to
A. timber shrinkage.
B. glue deterioration.
C. Both a and b are correct.
D. None is correct.
393. Certificate of compliance is a certification to the
effect that all the works on
A. the aircraft have been performed in accordance
with the requirements specified by DGCA.
B. the aircraft component have been performed in
accordance with the requirements specified by
DGCA.
C. the glider component have been performed in
accordance with the requirements specified by
DGCA.
D. Both a and b are correct.
394. All gliders shall be equipped with
A. variomate.
B. RPM indicator.
C. VOR.
D. ADF.
395. The constructions of gliders shall be maintained
and overhauled in accordance with the procedure in
A. CAR series I part I.
B. CAR series I part II.
C. CAR series F part XIII.
27
D. CAR series F part XIV.
396. The C of A of gliders is renewed only during test
flight
A. stall test has been satisfactorily carried out.
B. spin test has been satisfactorily carried out.
C. loop test has been satisfactorily carried out.
D. All are correct.
397. If 'loop test' is not carried out during test flight of
a glider then its C of A
A. will not be renewed.
B. will not be renewed in any case.
C. will not be renewed temporarily.
D. will be renewed provided the glider is suitably
placarded that 'loop manoeuvres are prohibited.
398. Components and spare parts used on gliders
A. should be covered by a release note.
B. should be covered by a certificate of maintenance.
C. should be covered by a rejection note.
D. None is correct.
399. 'Certificate of safety' for gliders is valid for
A. six months.
B. three months.
C. one month.
D. one day.
400. 'Certificate of safety' for gliders should be
preserved for
A. one month.
B. three months.
C. six months.
D. not required to be preserved.
401. Gliders should be weighed
A. on a routine basis.
B. every three years.
C. before issue of C of A.
D. None is correct.
402. Procedures/work sheets pertaining to gliders
which meet with accidents and damages beyond
economical repairs shall be preserved
A. for one year after the date of accident.
B. for five years after the date of accident.
C. for ten years after the date of accident.
D. for two years after the date of accident.
403. When an approved flight manual is carried on
board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A, the C of
A is issued on form
A. CA 23.
B. CA 23A.
C. CA 56.
D. CA 57.
404. Rejection note is a document issued byan
approved organisation for the purpose of advising
details of rejection of aircraft good/parts
A. for which high prices are quoted.
B. common to automobile industry.
C. ground equipment.
D. which fail to meet applicable requirement.
405. Scope of approval of an organisation depends on
A. capacity of the firm to undertake the job.
B. equipment available and technical literating.
C. suitable QCM & Dy. QCM.
D. all the above.
406. Only one of the following need not have the
approval of maintenance organisation
A. private owner of aircraft.
B. non-schedule operator.
C. shceduled airlines.
D. aircraft owned by State Govt.
407. The certificate of flightr release of an aircraft
below 15000 kg AUW remains valid provided the pre
flight inspection is carried out by
A. a pilot as per approved schedule.
B. an AME.
C. a pilot having AME licence also.
D. an approved person as per approved schedule.
408. As per appendix 'A' of CAR series 'F' part IV and
aircraft certified in normal category shall not be used
for purpose mentioned either in
A. special category or aerobatic category.
B. special category or passenger sub-division.
C. aerobatic category or aerial work sub-division.
D. racing aircraft sub-division or goods aircraft sub-
division.
409. An aircraft certified in sub-division of passenger
aircraft in normal category can undertake
A. carriage of mails.
B. carriage of goods.
C. aerial work.
D. None of the above.
410. As per CAR series 'F' part IV the duplicate
inspection of flight and engine controls of an aircraft
away from base can be carried out by a pilot
A. provided his CPL/CHPL is endorsed on the type of
aircraft.
B. or any AME or flight engineer.
C. the answer (a) is correct subject to the condition
that person authorised as per para 3.3.1 of the CAR do
the second check on arrival of the aircraft at the base.
D. any 'B' and /or 'D' licensed engineer.
411. For the purpose of C of A revalidation if the
aircraft has been maintained in accordance with
28
continuous cycle of maintenance the aircraft is subject
to
A. any schedule due and/or a 100 hrs inspection
schedule.
B. a major schedule next to 100 hrs inspection
schedule.
C. a normal DI followed by a higher schedule of
inspection.
D. 500 hrs inspection schedule.
412. An aircraft above 2000 kg is required to be
weighed
A. every two years.
B. every three years.
C. every three years unless required to be weighed in
accordance with para 4.3 of the CAR series 'X' part II.
D. only when it sustains damage requiring extensive
repair.
413. The maintenance schedules of an organisation
are approved by the
A. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation.
B. QCM of only Indian Airlines and Air India.
C. Controller of Director of Airworthiness of region.
D. Both b and c are correct.
414. The lives of the components of an aircraft are
approved by
A. DGCA.
B. QCM.
C. CAW of the region.
D. CE of an organisation.
415. The C of A an imported aircraft can be
revalidated by the DGCA
A. if the C of A for export is issued by the country of
origin.
B. if the aircraft meets the type certificate issued by
the country of origin.
C. if it meets all requirements and standards laid
down by the DGCA.
D. All are correct.
416. C of A renewal of aircraft under continuous
maintenance system can be effected
A. while the aircraft is flying.
B. after completion of the minimum of 100 hours
inspection schedule.
C. provided all mandatory modifications and major
defects are not outstanding.
D. All are correct.
417. An aircraft can be ferry-flown only when the
A. DGCA permits on application.
B. pilot in command certifies it as safe.
C. QCM of the operator permits.
D. None is correct.
418. Weighing requirements in respect of aircraft less 425. For the purpose of snag rectification an aircraft
than 2000 kg AUW are can always be taxied from bay to the maintenance
A. every C of A renewal. hangar by
B. every three years. A. an appropriately licensed AME.
C. need not be re-weighed on routine basis. B. pilot under training may be allowed.
D. every overhaul. C. an individual authorised by the QCM of the firm.
D. None of the above is correct.
419. An aircraft for agricultural operation is required
to be imported in to India the minimum standard of 426. Ground proxiity warning system as per CAR
manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be series I part II is mandatory for all turbine engine
A. as laid down in CAA, B CAR section 'K' & 'D'. aeroplane registered in India after 1-7-79 which are
B. as laid down in FAA FAR parts 23 & 25. A. authorised to carry more than 30 passengers.
C. as laid down by Australian Govt. for agricultural B. having seating capacity of 100 or more.
aircraft. C. Both a and b are correct.
D. Both a and b are correct. D. None of f the above is correct as it is applicable to
all aircraft.
420. Certificate of Airworthiness of an aircraft shows
that it is valid for 'Normal category' - sub-division 427. An India registered aircraft having C of A as per
private aircraft. This aircraft is used for IAR can fly as
A. experimental purposes. A. passenger aircraft can fly as freight aircraft.
B. aerial-work. B. freight aircraft can fly as passenger aircraft
C. aerobatic purposes. provided seats are installed.
D. carriage of executives of his factory without any C. aerial work aircraft can be operated as public
remuneration. transport aircraft.
D. None is correct.
421. One of the following conditions does result in
automatic suspension if C of A 428. Mark the correct statement
A. whenever aircraft develops a defect that effects A. flight release should be preserved for six weeks.
primary structure. B. aircraft log book should be preserved for 5 years.
B. whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing. C. journey log book should be preserved for 2 years.
C. approved inspection schedules are not completed D. None is correct.
when due.
D. whenever 'lifed' components are not remjoved as 429. For flight over water by public transport aircraft
stipulated in T.B.O.'s. at a distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the
shore the equipments required are
422. For powered gliders, following instruments are A. life saving rafts in sufficient number.
required B. two days food.
A. free air temperature gauge. C. survival radio equipment operated on VHF.
B. free air temperature gauge is not required if D. Both a and c are corret.
cqarburettor heating gauge is there.
C. oil temperature gauge. 430. An aircraft certificated in sub-division of
D. Both a and c are correct. passenger aircraft in normal category can undertake
A. carriage of mails.
423. Validity of flight release for radio equipment for B. carriage of goods.
flying club aircraft is C. aerial work.
A. 90 days. D. None is correct.
B. 30 days.
C. 50 hrs/30 days. 431. Gyro instruments are overhauled at every
D. 100 hrs/90 days. A. 2 years/1000 hours.
B. 1 year/2000 hours.
424. For purpose of C of A in case the final inspection C. 3 years/2000 hours.
is carried out after the expiry date of the C of A then D. 2 years.
the validity of the next currency of C of A would start
from the date of 432. Life of automatic pilots (except gyro units) are
A. test flight. A. 2 years.
B. inspection. B. 2 years/1000 hours.
C. expiry of C of A. C. 3 years/2000 hours.
D. None of the correct. D. one year.
433. Life of engine instruments are
29
A. 2 years. C. radio apparatus as required.
B. 2 years/1000 hours. D. All are correct.
C. 3 years/2000 hours.
D. one year. 442. All aeroplanes on all flights shall be equipped
with a seat/berth for each person over the age of
434. altimeters are to be overhauled A. two years.
A. every year. B. three years.
B. every alternate year. C. five years.
C. every 2 year. D. All are correct.
D. 2 years/3000 hours.
443. All aircraft issued with a C of A for the first time
435. Free air temperature gauge has to be after
A. overhauled every year. A. 1-9-76 shall have safety hareness for aircraft crew.
B. overhauled every 2 years. B. 1-10-76 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew.
C. bench-checked every 2 years. C. 1-12-86 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew.
D. bench-checked every 3 years. D. 1-1-87 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew.

436. Temperature required for storing of instruments 444. All aircraft shall be fitted with an ELT meeting
is requirements as laid down in
A. 15 degree centigrade. A. FAA TSO C 91a.
B. 15 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade. B. FAR Part 91.
C. 5 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade. C. B CAR C 91a.
D. below 5 degree centigrade. D. None of the above.

437. Places storing instruments shall have humidity 445. ELT of aircraft flying over land should be
below activated due to impact of more than
A. 60%. A. 3 g.
B. 70%. B. 4 g.
C. 75%. C. 5 g.
D. 80%. D. 8 g.

438. The shlelf life of instruments other than gyro 446. The requirement of ELT for training aircraft
instruments shall not exceed is/will be effected from
A. one year. A. 30th April 1992.
B. two years. B. 31st July 1992.
C. four years. C. 31st December 1992.
D. six years. D. 31st December 1993.

439. The shelf life of gyro instruments must not
exceed
A. one year.
B. one year and at the end of six months bearing
lubricated as per maker's recommendations.
C. two years.
D. two years and at the end of one year bearing
lubricated as per maker's recommendations.
440. Instruments installed on aircraft has not been
operated for a continuous period of six months
A. The aircraft shall be subject to test flight before
use.
B. shall be subject to bench check before use.
C. shall be subject to overhaul before use.
D. All are correct.
441. Aircraft rule 57 requires that every aircraft shall
be fitted and equipped with
A. instruments as required.
B. equipments as required.
30
447. The ELT must be installed on the aircraft
A. as far as possible.
B. in the Radome section.
C. as aft as possible.
D. in the centre of the aircraft.
448. Aeroplane on flight over water shall be provided
with one approved life jacket for each person on board
A. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles.
B. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles away from
the land.
C. when the take off approach path is so disposed
over water that in the event of a mishap there would
be a possibility of ditching.
D. All are correct.
449. Two sets of portable, water resistant, self-
survival radio equpment operated on VHF shall be
carried on board on long range over water flights by
all
A. aircraft.
B. private aircraft only. A. 100 persons.
C. public transport aircraft only. B. 30 persons.
D. non-schedule operators. C. 10 persons.
D. 5 persons.
450. CHT gauge is mandatory on each
A. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 250. 458. Unpressurised aeroplanes shall not be operated at
B. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 300. altitude at which the atmosphere pressure in flight
C. water cooled engine having rated BHP above 250. crew/passenger compartments will be less than
D. Both a and c are correct. A. 700 metres.
B. 600 metres.
451. Aircraft certificated for night flying shall have C. 375 metres.
navigation light as D. All are correct.
A. red light on the right tip side and green light on left
tip side and red light near the tail. 459. Whenever a pressurised aeroplane flies at
B. red light on the left tip side and green light on right analtitude of 10000 to 13000 feet it shall carry
tip side and red light near the tail. sufficient stored breathing oxygen for
C. red light on the left tip side and green light on the A. all crew members and passengers.
right tip side and white light near the tail. B. pilot and co-pilot only.
D. All are correct. C. all crew members and 30% passengers.
D. all crew members and 10% passengers.
452. Electrical power failure indicator is mandatory
for 460. All pressurised aeroplanes are equpped with a
A. all aircraft above 5700 kg AUW. device to provide positive warning to the pilot of any
B. aircraft having AUW of 5700 kg and above. dangerous loss of pressurisation when they fly at an
C. all aircraft above 15000 kg AUW. altitude of
D. all aircraft, irrespective of weights. A. 4000 metres.
453. All turbine engined aeroplane of 5700 kg or B. 7600 metres.
more shall be provided with VOR and DME when C. 10000 metres.
flying at or above D. 13000 metres.
A. FL 180.
B. FL 200. 461. CAR series I part III deals with
C. FL 220. A. aircraft equipment.
D. FL 240. B. aircraft instruments.
C. maintenance of test equipment.
454. All jet aircraft imported in to the country for D. All are correct.
public transport shall be equpped with digital flight
data recorder (DFDR) capable of recording minimum 462. During a planned cloud flying glider can carry on
of board
A. 7 parameter continously for 25 hours. A. pilot and co-pilot.
B. 15 parameter continously for 25 hours. B. one passenger.
C. 25 parameter continously for 25 hours. C. two passengers.
D. 33 parameter continously for 25 hours. D. pilot and one passenger.

455. Black box contains
A. CVR, FDR/DFDR.
B. CVR, DFDR, ELT, DME/VOR.
C. CVR, DFDR, VOR/ILS.
D. CVR, FDR, ELT, VOR/ILS.
456. An anti-collision light, intended to attract
attention to the aircraft is mandatory for all aircraft
A. having AUW of 3000 kg and above.
B. having AUW of 5700 kg and above.
C. having AUW of 15000 kg and above.
D. All are correct.
457. For flight on which licensed navigator is required
according to rules drift indicator is mandatory for
machines with a seating capacity of more than
31
463. Glider certificated for cloud flying shall be
equipped with
A. first aid kit.
B. artificial horizon.
C. turn and bank indicator.
D. All are correct.
464. All helicopters shall be equipped with
A. RPM indicator for main rotor.
B. RPM indicator for tail rotor.
C. floats when operated over water beyond auto
rotative/gliding distance from land.
D. Both a and c are correct.
465. When an unpressurised aeroplane flies at an
altitude in such an atmospheric pressure is less than
620 mb in its compartment it shall carry sufficiently
stored breathing oxygen for
A. all crew members.
B. for all crew and passengers.
C. for all crew and 10% passengers.
D. for all crew and 30% passengers.
B. as in (a), also to go to another place if it cannot
land at destination.
C. as in (b) additionally the helicopter to fly for 45
minutes at straight and normal flight with cruise
speed.
D. None of above.

466. Batteries used in the ELT must be replaced 473. Transistorised or IC equipped radio comm has to
A. when the transmitter has been in use for more than be certified in case of non-scheduled aerial work
1 cumulative hours. aircraft
B. when 50% of their useful life has expired. A. 200 hours/180 days.
C. when 50% of their useful life of charge (for B. 50 hours/30 days.
rechargeble batteries) has expired. C. 25 hours/15 days.
D. All are correct. D. 100 hours/90 days.

467. The requirement of ELT operating on 406.0 474. During refueling of aircraft
MHZ is/will be mandatory from A. aircraft radio electrical and radar swtiches may
A. 30th April 1992. remain 'on'.
B. 31st December 1992. B. steady parking light and such switches may be
C. 31st December 1993. operated.
D. None is correct. C. no special precaution is necessary for ground
power supply.
468. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate ratings for D. the ground power unit tractor and siilar equipment
replacement of those accessible in flight are carried on shall be located outside the defined 'danger zone'.
board. Their numbers should be at least
A. 1 of each rating. 475. Other conditions remaining unchanged during
B. 2 of each rating. refuelling of the aircraft
C. 3 of each rating. A. passengers embarking/disembarking are not
D. 4 of each rating. permitted under any condition.
B. smoking is not permitted within 30 metres from
469. The radio equipment installed on India registered aircraft or fuelling equipment.
aircraft shall be operated with C. a little spilage if, can be washed into the drain.
A. consent of DGCA. D. All the above statements are correct.
B. a license issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of
1895 and amended from time to time. 476. According to IAR check correct statement
C. a licence issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of A. helicopter is aeroplane.
1885 and amended from time to time. B. balloon is an aircraft.
D. None is correct. C. kite is a flying machine.
D. All are wrong.
470. Ammeters and voltmeters are
A. overhauled every two years. 477. For certification of ignition apparatus of light
B. bench checked every year. aircraft the AME should have his licence in
C. bench checked every two years. A. Category 'A'.
D. None is correct. B. Category 'B'.
C. Category 'C'.
471. The pilot friction of compass shall be determined D. Category 'X'.
by deflecting the compass needle 10 degrees and
allowing it to return to the magnetic Meridian. The 478. The Indian Aircraft Rule 61 9revised) became
change in indication from the original heading shall effective from
not exceed A. 1st Jan 1991.
A. one degree. B. 31st Jan 1991.
B. two degrees. C. 1st April 1991.
C. three degrees. D. 1st April 1992.
D. five degrees.
479. Application for appearing in the AME licence
472. Helicopter flying under IFR condition should examination is submitted on from
carry the following amount of fuel A. CA 9.
A. amount to reach the destination. B. CA 9 (Revised).
C. CA 9 (annex I).
32
D. CA 9 (Appendix A).
480. The written paper of AME licence examination
comprised
A. general papers, basic papers.
B. general papers, basic papers & specific papers.
C. basic papers and specific papers.
D. general paperss and specific papers.
481. The basic paper consists of
A. Paper I, II.
B. Paper I, II, III.
C. Paper III.
D. Paper II, III.
482. The pass percentage in AME licence
examination is
A. 80%.
B. 70%.
C. 80% in quiz type and 70% in essay type.
D. 70% in quiz type and 60% in essay type.
483. The pass percentage of specific paper is
A. 80%.
B. 70%.
C. 60%.
D. None of the above.
484. Defence personnel appearing in AME licence
exam are exempted from appearing in
A. paper I, II, III.
B. paper II, III.
C. multiple chioce question of Paper I, II, III.
D. multiple choice question of paper II, III.
485. Those applicants who are not engaged in any
organisation but meet all the requirements for
appearing in the AME licence exam
A. can't appear in the AME licence exam.
B. can't appear in the AME licence exam after
obtaining permission from the RAO.
C. can appear in the AME licence exam after getting
his form forwarded by the QCM of the organisatioin
he last worked.
D. may directly send their application to Director of
Airworthiness (CEO) New Delhi.
486. The candidates who have passed all the written
papers and are due to appear in oral-cum-practical test
for issue or extension of AME licence will be
intimated and CEO will issue for their oral form
A. CA 73 to the QCM of the candidate's organisation.
B. CA 73 to the RAO of candidate's region.
C. CA 63 to the RAO of candidate's region.
D. CA 73 to the candidate.
487. DGCA will recognize the approved course of a
foreign country provided it has been approved by that
country and is
33
A. of two months' duration.
B. of three months' duration for heavy aircraft.
C. of one month duration for heavy aircraft.
D. of one month duration for light aircraft.
488. AME licence for helicopter in category 'A' & 'C'
is issued in combined form whose
A. AUW is below 5700 kg.
B. AUW is below 3000 kg.
C. AUW is below 2000 kg.
D. None is correct.
489. A combined specific paper for airframe and
engine is undertaken for helicopter whose
A. AUW is below 15000 kg.
B. AUW is below 5700 kg.
C. AUW is below 3000 kg.
D. AUW is below 2000 kg.
490. A helicopter engineer in category 'A' can certify
A. all parts of airframe for assembly and condition.
B. balancing and tracking of main rotor and tail rotor.
C. main gear boxes.
D. All are correct.
491. An AME licensed in category 'C' on helicopter
can certify
A. balancing and tracking of main rotor and tail rotor.
B. main gear boxes intermediate gear boxes.
C. engine mounts and cowls for condition & security
of attachment.
D. All are correct.
492. Certification of electrical system for condition,
proper functioning and rectification of minor defects
of helicopter fall under purview of AME licensed in
A. category 'A'.
B. category 'B'.
C. category 'E'.
D. category 'X'.
493. Endorsement of AME licence is contained in
A. CAR series L Part I.
B. CAR series L Part II.
C. CAR series L Part III.
D. CAR series L Part IV.
494. A candidate applying for endorsement in
category 'A' will be exempted from appearing in
general paper III if he
A. has vast experience.
B. has open rating in category 'D'.
C. has endorsement in category 'C' and 'D'.
D. has AME licence in category 'B' for the type of
aircraft for which endorsement is required.
495. According to appendix 'A' of CAR series 'L' part
IV group V contains
A. pressurised twin turbine engine aeroplane not D. certification of replacement of approved
exceeding 5700 kg AUW. components.
B. pressurised twin piston engine aeroplane not
exceeding 5700 kg AUW. 502. A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence
C. piston engine helicopter not exceeding 5700 kg holder for
AUW. A. certification of major modification.
D. Both a and b are correct. B. certification of major repair.
C. certification of replacement of approved
496. In accordance with CAR series L Part IV all components.
turbine engine helicopter not exceeding 3000 kg D. All are correct.
AUW comes under
A. group IV. 503. The holder of category 'A' licence for light
B. group V. aircraft is entitled to issue
C. group VI. A. certificate of maintenance for instruments.
D. group VII. B. certificate of maintenance for electrical systems.
C. certificate of maintenance for autopilots.
497. Turbojet/Turbofan engines in accordance with D. All are correct.
CAR series L part IV appendix 'B' are in
A. group IV. 504. The holder of licence in category 'B' can issue
B. group V. A. certificate of maintenance for airframe.
C. group VI. B. certificate of maintenance for engine controls.
D. group VII. C. certificate of maintenance for engine fuel, oil &
coolant system.
498. Avionics system includes instruments, electrical D. All are correct.
and radio systems of
A. Boeing 737. 505. An AME licenced in category 'C' undertake
B. Boeing 747. A. dismantling of main casing of a turbine engine.
C. Airbus A 300. B. dismantling of main rotating assembles of a turbine
D. Airbus A 320. engine.
C. dismantling of piston engines, other than
499. The privileges of AME licence shall be exercised piston/cylinder assemblies.
only in respect of such operation D. None is correct.
A. and aircraft as are entered on his licence.
B. and airframes, powerplants, aircraft systems 506. Certification of DR compass will be done by
including electrical instruments and radio systems and person holding licence in
component as are entered on his licence. A. cat 'X' for compass.
C. Both a and b are correct. B. cat A with a note valid for DR compass.
D. None is correct. C. cat D with a note valid for DR compass.
D. Both b and c are correct.
500. An AME can exercise his privileges only
A. when within the preceding 24 months he has 507. A person will be deemed to be engaged in
exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not aircraft maintenance if
less than 12 months. A. he has undergone an approved refresher course run
B. when within the preceding 24 months he has by approved training schools.
exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not B. he is employed in production division of aircraft
less than six months. manufacturer.
C. when within the preceding 12 months he has C. he is employed as an AME in an airline.
exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not D. All are correct.
less than 3 months.
D. when within the preceding 24 months he has 508. If an AME has certificated the work on
exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not appropraite procedure sheets and is on outstation duty
less than 3 months. then the log book entry on his behalf can be made by
A. any other AME.
501. A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence B. Chief Engineer.
holder for C. Quality Control Manager.
A. certification of major modification. D. All are correct.
B. certification of major repair.
C. certification of minor repair. 509. Grant of open AME licences is contained in
A. CAR series L PART VII.
34
B. CAR series L part VI. B. held an AME 'R' licence for five years
C. CAR series L part V. continuously.
D. CAR series L part IV. C. Both a and b are correct.
D. None is correct.
510. Omnibus endorsement in respect of AME licence
in category 'A' & 'B' is given to cover 516. A composite construction of an aeroplane means
A. single engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 A. its skin covering is of one material.
kg. B. its skin covering is of two different materials.
B. twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 C. its skin covering is of two or more different
kg. materials.
C. twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000 D. its skin covering (including flight control surface)
kg. is of two or more different materials.
D. single engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000
kg. 517. An organisation seeking approval for cadmium
plating will submit to DGCA
511. 'Open' rating in category 'D' is given for piston A. three specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg.
engines not exceeding B. three specimens of 8"x2"x16swg.
A. 500 BHP. C. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar.
B. 400 BHP. D. all of the above.
C. 300 BHP.
D. 250 BHP. 518. An organisation seeking approval for any
electroplating will submit to DGCA
512. 'Open' rating in cat 'R' and 'X' is given for A. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar.
aircrafts B. three specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg.
A. with AUW below 15000 kg. C. twelve specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg.
B. with AUW below 5700 kg. D. None of the above.
C. with AUW below 3000 kg.
D. 'open' rating in cat 'X' is not given. 519. A firm seeking approval for hand chromium
plating has to submt
513. For obtaining an open rating on single engine A. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar.
aircraft of all metal contruction with AUW below B. three specimens of 12"x1/2" round bar.
3000 kg an AME should C. three specimens of 12"x1" round bar.
A. have held an AME licence for 5 years D. three specimens of 6"x1" round bar.
continuously.
B. have at least 5 types of aeroplanes endorsed on his 520. A certificate issued in respect of a complete
licence. aircraft by appropriately licensed AME/AME's
C. as in 'b' the weight of 3 aeroplanes should not approved or authorised persons certifying that the
exceed 3000 kg. aircraft has been inspected as per approved schedule
D. All are correct. and is airworthy in all respects and is safe for flight
for a period specified in the certificate, is called
514. For 'open rating endorsement' on all single A. certificate of flight release.
engined aircraft of composite construction with an B. certificate of flight approval.
AUW not exceedign 3000 kg the applicant should C. release note.
have D. certificate of maintenance.
A. held an AME licence in cat A/B for five years
continuously. 521. An organisation undertaking calibration of
B. alleast three types of aeroplanes of composite instruments of master gauges and tools as applied to
construction of which at least two should be single the activities of CAD is approved in
engined aircraft with AUW not exceeding 3000 kg. A. catory 'A'.
C. as in 'b' and licenced endorsed in cat A/B as B. catory 'D'.
applicable. C. catory 'F'.
D. All are correct. D. catory 'E'.

515. An applicant desirous of having an open rating in 522. An organisation approved in category 'D' after
category 'R" for aircraft below 5.700 kg AUW must completion of work issues a
have A. certificate of maintenance.
A. held an AME 'R' licence for three years B. certificate of manufacture.
continuously. C. test report.
D. rest flight report.
35
523. Certificate of manufacture contains 531. Check-list is carried
A. signature of AME. A. in safe place in aircraft.
B. firms approval number. B. in laminated form and is readily accessible to the
C. a and b are correct. flight crew in flight.
D. none of the above is correct. C. need not be carried on board it forms a part of
flight manual.
524. A firm approved in category 'E' can carry out D. both (b) & (c) are correct.
A. distribution of aviation fuel.
B. blending of aviation fuel. 532. Alteration to check-list on the basis of operator's
C. distribution of paints. own experience must be carried only after obtaining
D. Both a and b are correct. the concurrence of
A. DGCA.
525. The number allotted to a petroleum product B. RAO.
which is considered as one lot for sampling and listing C. Manufacturer.
is called D. FAA.
A. serial number.
B. batch number. 533. Alteration to the Check-list may also by made by
C. part number. A. RAO.
D. identification number. B. DGCA.
C. manufacturer.
526. Aviation fuel consigned for storage prior to D. Both (b) & (c) are correct.
loading into organisation fueling equipment shall be
certified on 534. CAR Series B part I pertains to
A. approved release note quoting batch no. A. cockpit & emergency check-lists.
B. test report number and specification. B. emergency check-list.
C. Both a and b are correct. C. deficiency list (MEL).
D. None of them is correct. D. None of the above.

527. The Indian Oil refueling station shall issue 535. CAR Series B part II pertains to
voucher to the customer with each consignment of A. cockpit & emergency check-lists.
aviation fuel B. emergency check-list.
A. to certify the quality of the product. C. deficiency list (MEL).
B. to certify the quantity of the product. D. None of the above.
C. to certify the contents of the product.
D. None of the above. 536. Any part, the soundness and correct functioning
of which when fitted on an aircraft is essential to the
528. Refueling voucher shall be continues airworthiness or safety of the aircraft or its
A. serially numbered with the batch number occupants is termed as
specification details and quantity to be delivered. A. aircraft system.
B. shall be prepared in triplicate. B. aircraft component.
C. Both a and b are correct. C. aircraft item.
D. None of them is correct. D. All the above.

529. Stores where materials bearing evidence of 537. A condition existing in an aircraft or aircraft
having been received from approved sources are component arising out of any cause other than damage
stocked called which would preclude it or another aircraft component
A. current store. from performing their intended function that would
B. quarantine store. reduce the expected service life of the aircraft or
C. airworthy store. aircraft component is termed as
D. bonded store. A. snag.
B. P D R.
530. Stores where airworthy and serviceable C. defect.
materials, awaiting evidence of having been received D. minor defect.
from approved sources are stocked is called
A. stand-by store. 538. Defect means
B. quarantine store. A. a condition existing in an aircraft or aircraft
C. airworthiness store. component arising from any cause other than damage.
D. bonded store.
36
B. a condition which preclude it or another aircraft 545. Initial information format of major defect
component from performing their intended function. contains
C. a condition which would reduce the expectable A. aircraft type & registration, date and place of
service life of the aircraft or aircraft component. occurrence, nature of defect.
D. All the above are correct. B. modification action taken, defect report as made by
the pilot/AME.
539. Maintenance means any type of C. no information.
A. overhaul, repair, adjustment, testing. D. Both a & b are correct.
B. inspection, testing, adjustment, repair.
C. overhaul, inspection, adjustment, testing, 546. Investigation of major defect shall be completed
treatment, repair, replacement or modification. A. within one month.
D. overhaul, inspection, adjustment, testing, B. within six months.
treatment, repair, replacement, reconditioning or C. within four months.
modification. D. within two months.

540. A defect of such a nature that reduces the safety 547. Which of the following forms a part of final
of the aircraft or its occupants and includes defects investigation report?
discovered as a result of the occurrence of any A. Apparent on actual cause of defect.
emergency or in the course of normal operation or B. Action taken by the operator against manufacturer.
maintenance is called C. Duration of defect.
A. repetitive defect. D. Aircraft type & registration.
B. minor defect.
C. major defect. 548. Mechanical delay is any delay of
D. defect. A. 15 minutes or more.
B. 30 inutes or more.
541. Repetitive defect means C. 15 minutes or more to schedule services.
A. a defect in an aircraft which recurs in spite of D. 30 minutes or more to schedule services.
rectification.
B. continuous defect. 549. Any mechanical delay has to be reported to the
C. a defect in an aircraft which recurs, in spite of RAO within
rectification attempt on the same aircraft. A. 24 hours.
D. a defect in an aircraft which recurs, in spite of B. 7 days.
rectification attempt on the same aircraft or on another C. 24 hours of receipt of information by the main base
aircraft of the same type. station.
D. None of the above.
542. An aircraft operator who operates its fleet whole
or part of it as per published schedule is known as a 550. The final defect investigation report has to be
A. normal operator. sent
B. private operator. A. in duplicate to DGCA.
C. schedule operator. B. in duplicate to RAO.
D. non-schedule operator. C. in triplicate to RAO.
D. in triplicate to DGCA.
543. All major detects shall be reported to concerned
RAO (AID) 551. Records associated with the defect shall be
A. within 24 hours. preserved for a period of
B. in writing. A. two weeks.
C. in writing or on telephone followed by written B. six weeks.
information. C. one year.
D. All are correct. D. ten years.

544. All particulars of the initial information format of 552. Component associated with major defect shall be
defect report shall be submitted by the operator to the preserved for a period of
RAO A. one week from the date of intimation of defect.
A. within one month. B. two weeks from the date of intimation of defect.
B. within four months. C. three weeks from the date of intimation of defect.
C. within 7 days. D. need not be preserved.
D. within 15 days.

37
553. Failure of a component or a system that results in C. JLB, (col XI).
taking emergency action in flight is a D. defect register.
A. defect.
B. major defect. 561. Series C Part-IV refers to
C. repetitive defect. A. reporting of defects observed on all aircraft.
D. minor defet. B. recording of in-flight instrument readings.
C. analytical study of in-flight instrument readings.
554. Which one of the following is known as major D. All the above.
defect
A. significant contamination of fuel. 562. If deterioration is observed in aircraft's
B. fuel starvation in flight. performance in respect of engine
C. none of the above. A. RAO may require accomplishment of such curative
D. Both a & b are correct. measures as considered necessary.
B. may even require replacement of the deteriorated
555. Defect leading to critical malfunctioning of any engine.
system or depriving the pilot some of the critical C. RAO may requrie the carrying out of test flight to
aspect of its controls is determine the increase in drag.
A. minor defect. D. Both a & b are correct.
B. major defect.
C. repetitive defect. 563. The main purpose of investigation of defects
D. snag. A. is to avoid recurrence of defects.
B. to find the person who has caused the defects.
556. Recording of in-flight instrument readings and C. as in (a) and to find the cause of defects.
reporting of flight defect is contained in CAR D. None of the above.
A. series A part II.
B. series C part I. 564. If it is determined that defect was caused by the
C. series C part II. careless and casual attitude or negligence of technical
D. series D part II. staff
A. DGCA will take action as per the aircraft Act and
557. Recording of all parameters readings, as aircraft rules against the staff.
indicated by the respective instruments under B. operator will take departmental penal action as per
appropriate columns of the approved flight report the rules against the staff.
including the A.V.M. readings is the responsibility of C. DGCA action does not stop an operator from
A. AME. taking penal action against its staff.
B. QCM. D. All of the above are correct.
C. Flight crew.
D. Chief Engineer. 565. All major defects shall be reported to RAO
A. in writing within 12 hours.
558. In-flight instruments reading should be recorded B. telephonically only.
A. at least once in each sector of flight. C. in writing (or telephone followed by a letter)
B. at least once in each sector of flight under within 24 hours (working hours of AID).
stabilized cruise condition. D. in writing when full information is available.
C. in the event of emergency condition of flight.
D. both b & c are correct. 566. After initial reporting of major defects to the
regional airworthiness office, the remaining detailed
559. If there is no defect reported by the crew in a information must be furnished within
previous day's flight A. 7 days in an approved defect report form.
A. AME will release the aircraft for next day's flight. B. 4 months, after awaiting investigation report.
B. AME will not release the aircraft for next day C. as in (a) followed by a defect investigation report
flight. within 4 months of the occurrence of the defect.
C. AME will consult the QCM and release the aircraft D. a period stated in the quality control manual.
for next day's flight.
D. AME will release the aircraft if a 'NIL' entry has 567. After the completion of 1st flight the pilot has
been made in the PDR by the pilot duly signed. not observed any defect…
A. the flight release shall be issued after 'NIL' entry
560. Defects observed at a place away from the been signed and dated by crew.
normal base are recorded in B. the flight release can be issued after carrying out
A. JLB. engg. Maintenance.
B. airframe log book, section III. C. the AME can write 'NIL' on behalf of pilot.
38
D. the 'NIL' report need not be signed.
568. Approved release note contains
A. series no. of engine if component is for engine.
B. serial no. of aircraft if component is for airframe.
C. DGCA approval no. and date.
D. signature of the chief engineer of the firm.
569. For making changes in maintenance control by
reliability programme you need the due approval of
A. owner of aircraft.
B. operator of aircraft.
C. airworthiness authorities.
D. C.E.M./QCM.
570. Air & Fuel consumption in cause of light aircraft
should be
A. recorded in engine log look after 25 hours.
B. recorded in engine and aircraft log books.
C. recorded after post overhaul of the engine.
D. None of the above.
571. FDR contains
A. altitude, airspeed, magnetic heading, vertical
acceleration against a time scale.
B. time, altitude, airspeed & magnetic heading.
C. vertical acceleration, altitude and airspeed against
time scale.
D. altitude, airspeed, magnetic heading against time
scale.
572. To get an organisation approved under approval
system the organisation has to
A. fill CA-182 form.
B. fill one form and offer for inspection to RAO.
C. submit the form to DGCA headquarter for
inspection and approval.
D. Both b & c are correct.
573. Entry in log book can be signed
A. by appropriately licensed AME.
B. by a technician.
C. by key persons of organisation.
D. by an AME having vast experience.
574. Petroleum in bulk means
A. petroleum contained in any receptacle of 900 litres.
B. petroleum contained in receptacle exceeding 900
litres.
C. petroleum contained in receptable but less than 900
litres in capacity.
D. None is correct.
575. Approval under category 'E' according to CAR
series E refers to
A. fuel oil and lubricants storage & distribution.
B. testing laboratories.
C. manufacture of aircraft, aircraft component and
item of equipment.
39
D. training school.
576. After completion of test flight pilot has not
observed any defect
A. the flight release shall be issued after 'NIL' entry
has been signed and dated by crew.
B. the flight release can be issued after carrying out
engineering maintenance.
C. the AME can write NIL on behalf of pilot.
D. the NIL report need not be signed.
577. Amendment of quality control-cum-maintenance
system manual in accordance with latest issues of
CAR are the responsibility of
A. CEM/QCM.
B. airworthiness authorities.
C. owner of the aircraft.
D. operator of the aircraft.
578. Any commercial watchmaker/watch repairing
agencies are permitted to overhaul/repair the
clock/watches installed on aircraft having AUW
below
A. 15000 Kgs.
B. no aircraft is permitted to have the watch repaired
from commercial watch maker.
C. 2000 kgs.
D. 3000 kgs.
579. As per CAR series E part I storing & distribution
of previously certified aircraft/part, by a firm is
approved in
A. category 'C'.
B. category 'D'.
C. category 'A'.
D. category 'F'.
580. Rejection note is a document issued by an
approved organisation for the purpose of advising
details of rejection of aircraft goods/parts
A. for which high prices quoted.
B. common to automobile industry.
C. ground eqiupment.
D. which fails to meet applicable requirement.
581. When an approved flight manual is carried on
board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A is issued
on form
A. CA 23.
B. CA 23A.
C. CA 56.
D. CA 57.
582. Certification of maintenance release of aircraft
component after major maintenance for aircraft AUW
of 15000 kg and above can be done by
A. any authorised person with appropriate BAMEC
and 3 years experience in the specific shop.
B. any person having appropriate BAMEC with 590. Whenever an approved school introduces a new
requisite experience in specific training and QCM course or modifies the existing course DGCA should
approval. be informed at least
C. the key person of the concerned shop. A. two weeks in advance.
D. Any one of above as the circumstances demand. B. two months in advance.
C. one month in advance.
583. The DGCA can validate the type certificate of an D. not required to be informed.
imported component provided
A. it belongs to an aircraft issued with C of A by the 591. Quality control check of the products is carried
airworthiness authority of the country of out by
manufacturer. A. representative of DGCA.
B. it meets DGCA's standard. B. CEM.
C. it is approved by CAA/FAA only. C. QCM/Dy QCm.
D. Both A and b and correct. D. Both b and c are correct.

584. S.S.I.D identifies fatigue proof areas to specify 592. Regional airworthiness office receive the
A. appication of specific NDT. A. 1st copy of release note.
B. frequency of SSI. B. 1st copy of rejection note.
C. the damage tolerance retaining. C. 3rd copy of rejection note.
D. all of the above. D. Both a and b are correct.

585. An AME school shall submit to the DGCA for 593. CAR series 'F' part I refers to
approval of A. procedures relating to registration of aircraft.
A. a training manual. B. procedures relating to registration of microlight
B. a school organisation manual. aircraft.
C. quality control manual. C. procedures relating to registration of balloon.
D. Both a and b are correct. D. All are correct.

586. The chief instructor or his deputy shall keep the
records of
A. progress records in respect of all students attending
ab-initio courses.
B. progress records in respect of all students attending
ab-initio courses of more than two months duration.
C. progress records in respect of all students attending
ab-initio courses of any duration.
D. Both a and b are correct.
587. Examination papers of an approved training
school shall be preserved for a period of
A. three months from the date of examination.
B. six months from the date of examination.
C. nine months from the date of examination.
D. twelve months from the date of examination.
588. For any change in course material prior
permission of
A. DGCA is must.
B. RAO is must.
C. Controller/director of that region is must.
D. Both b and c are correct.
589. Instructors who are employed full time on
instructional duties relating to specific types of
aircraft/engine/equipment shall have job experience of
A. not less than 100 hrs in a year (2 months).
B. not less than 200 hrs in a year (4 months).
C. not less than 500 hrs in a year (6 months).
D. not less than 1000 hrs in a year (1 year).
40
594. IAR 30 empowers the Govt. of India
A. to register an aircraft in India.
B. to import an aircraft in India.
C. to fly aircraft in India.
D. to maintain an aircraft in India.
595. Rule 5 of the aircraft rules requires than no
person shall fly any aircraft unless
A. it has been registered.
B. it bears nationality & registration.
C. it bears name & address of the owner.
D. All are correct.
596. The nationality and registration mark should be
affixed on the aircraft in accordance with aircraft rule
A. 37.
B. 30.
C. 35.
D. 33.
597. Registration of the aircraft by the DGCA
A. is for the purpose of controlling the safety of
aviation in India.
B. is for establishing the legal ownership of an
aircraft.
C. Both a and b are correct.
D. None is correct.
598. An aircraft in India is registered in
A. Three categories.
B. Two categories.
C. One category only. 606. For issue of a duplicate certificate of registration
D. Four cateries. the owner has to apply to
A. RAO.
599. Aircraft registered in category 'B' is B. DGCA.
A. owned by a citizen of India. C. DAI.
B. by a company or corporation registered. D. All of the above.
C. by a company whose chairman and at least two
thirds of directors are citizens of India. 607. When C of R of Indian registered aircraft is lost,
D. None of them is correct. for issuance of a duplicate C or R the owner has apply
600. An aircraft registered in category 'B' is owned by along with
A. a person residing/resident in or carrying on
business in India without citizenship. A. mutilated C of A.
B. a person resident/residing in or carrying on B. photostat copy of C or R.
business in India without citizenship. C. original C of A.
C. citizen of India. D. the prescribed fees.
D. a foreign national.
608. A register of all civil aircraft registered in India
601. Application for registration of aircraft is given in is maintained at
A. CA 23. A. Ministry of Civil Aviation.
B. CA 23A. B. DGCA.
C. CA 28. C. HAL.
D. CA 28 (appendix A). D. All of them are correct.

602. Certificate of registration is valid for 609. The nationality mark of all Indian registered
A. one year. aircraft are
B. six months. A. E.I.
C. two years. B. I.O.
D. None of the above. C. A.V.U.
D. V.T.
603. When an aircraft is solid to another person or
company or ceases to be owned by the owner 610. The size and method of affixing the registration
indicated on its certificate of registration its marking is given in
registration is deemed to have been cancelled in A. CAR series F part II.
accordance with B. CAR series F part III.
A. rule 30. C. car SERIES X part I.
B. rule 28. D. None of the above.
C. rule 28 (appendix A).
D. rule 33. 611. Procedure for issue/revalidation of type
certificate of aircraft and its Engines/propeller is
604. When a person buys an old aircraft already contained in
registered in India then the certificate of registration A. CAR series E part II.
must be accompanied by B. CAR series E part III.
A. the previous certificate of registration duly C. CAR series F part II.
endorsed on the reverse by the old owner. D. CAR series F part III.
B. an affidavit duly authenticated by notary
public/oath commissioner from the owner confirming 612. Aircraft rule 49 empowers
his ownership. A. the DGCA to revalidate C of A.
C. an affidavit indicating that he has sold the aircraft B. the DGCA to issue C of A.
to the new owner and has received the sale proceeds C. the DGCA to issue type certificate for aircraft.
in the full. D. All are correct.
D. All are correct.
613. DGCA issues type certificate to engine/propeller
605. Temporary certificate of registration is valid manufactured in India under the purview of aircraft
A. for one month. rules
B. for one week. A. 49A.
C. until the first landing at a custom aerodrome in B. 49B.
India. C. 49C.
D. until the validity of the C of A. D. 49.

41
614. Application for issue/revalidation of type
certificate for aircraft is to be submitted in the form as
in
A. IAR 49.
B. IAR 49 c Annexure II.
C. CAR series F part II annexure U.
D. CAR series F part II Annexure II.
615. Application for revalidation of type certificate of
rotor craft is submitted in the form as per the
A. CAR series F part I annexure I.
B. CAR series F part I annexure II.
C. CAR series F part II annexure II.
D. CAR series F part II annexure I.
616. For revalidation of type certificate of an imported
light and transport aircraft the DGCA confirms that
the aircraft meets with the requirements of
A. FAR 23 & 25.
B. BCAR 23 & JAR 25.
C. FAR 27 & 29.
D. Both a and b are correct.
617. Type certificate of a rotor craft imported in India
can be revalidated by the DGCA if its design and
construction confirms with the
A. FAR 23 & 25.
B. BCAR 23 & JAR 25.
C. FAR 27 & 29.
D. BCAR 27 & 29.
618. An aero engine manufactured outside India can
be type certificated by the DGCA if it confirms to
A. FAR 33.
B. JAR 33.
C. FAR 30.
D. Both a and c are correct.
619. DGCA revalidates the type certificate in respect
of engine/propeller under the purview of
A. Aircraft rule 49.
B. Aircraft rule 49A.
C. Aircraft rule 49B.
D. Aircraft rule 49C.
620. For revalidation of type certificate of the aircraft
imported to India which of the following document is
not required
A. type-certificate.
B. type-design datasheet.
C. the basis on ETOPS certification if applicable.
D. Quality Control & Maintenance system manual.
621. Before revalidation of type certificate DGCA
may visit the country of manufacturer
A. to discuss specific design/manufacturing issues
with the representative of the manufacturer.
42
B. to discuss specific design/manufacturing issues
with the airworthiness authority of the country of
manufacturer.
C. Both a and b are correct.
D. Both a and b are not correct.
622. DGCA has to revalidate the type certificate of
imported aircraft
A. just as it is.
B. it can modify it.
C. it can impose special condition for safe operation
of aircraft in India.
D. it cannot modify it.
623. Prior to carrying out the test to substantiate the
design the manufacturer shall submit to DGCA
A. test flight report of the aircraft.
B. test flight schedule of scrutiny and approval.
C. test schedule of scrutiny and approval.
D. None of the above is correct.
624. The certification of aircraft/aircraft component
manufactured in India shall be done by approved
authorised person as per
A. aircraft rule 53.
B. aircraft rule 53A.
C. aircraft rule 53B.
D. aircraft rule 53C.
625. All relevant inspection records concerning
manufacture of the aircraft shall be preserved for a
period of
A. 1 year.
B. 2 years.
C. 5 years.
D. 10 years.
626. The test flight of a newly manufactured aircraft
shall be carried out as in accordance with
A. form CA 57.
B. form CA 56.
C. approved manufacturer test flight schedule.
D. test flight schedule approved by the DGCA.
627. For incorporating any modification in type
certification of aircraft/aircraft component
A. approval of DGCA is must.
B. written approval of manufacturer is must.
C. approval of QCM/CEM is must.
D. All are correct.
628. A major modification is one
A. which has no appreciable effect on the weight and
balance.
B. which has no appreciable effect on the structural
strength.
C. which has appreciable effect on the reliability and
operational characteristic affecting the airworthiness
of the aircraft/aircraft component.
D. None of them is correct. 636. When an AME licence has remained lapsed for a
period of more than one year but less than two years,
629. A minor modification is one his licence can be renewed after
A. which has appreciable effect on the weight and A. an oral check by the RAO.
balance. B. AME has appeared in the specific paper I.e. paper
B. which has appreciable effect on the structural IV.
strength. C. a warning to the AME.
C. which has appreciable effect on the flight D. All are correct.
characteristic of aircraft/aircraft component.
D. None of them is correct. 637. AME's shall submit their licence for renewal at
least
630. Designs submitted for type approval shall bear A. 7 days before expiring.
A. description title & drawing number. B. 15 days before expiring.
B. description title and date of issue. C. 30 days before expiring.
C. description title, issue number and date of issue. D. None is correct.
D. Both a and c are correct.
638. If an AME submits his licence between 15 days
631. A person holding open rating endorsement on his to 30 days after expiry
AME licence can exercise his privileges A. it will be renewed with a warning to AME.
A. straight way on a new aircraft. B. it will be renewed from the date of receipt.
B. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for C. it will be renewed from the date of last validity.
a minimum period of six months. D. None is correct.
C. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for
a minimum period of three months. 639. The licence of Indian AME's working aboard
D. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for will be renewed
a minimum period of one month. A. by the airworthiness authority of the country where
they are working.
632. For renewal of AME licence the applicant has to B. by the airworthiness authority of the country where
apply on form they are working in consultation with the DGCA hqrs.
A. CA 29. C. by any authority acceptable to ICAO.
B. CA 29 (revised). D. by the DGCA Hqrs.
C. CA 68 B.
D. CA 68 A. 640. BAMEC is issued when a candidate passes
A. Paper I, II of AME licence exam.
633. AME's licence will be renewed only if in the B. Paper I, II, III of AME licence exam.
preceding 24 months he has been engaged in C. Paper I, II, III, IV of AME licence exam.
aeronautical engineering duties for a period of D. All are correct.
A. 24 months.
B. 18 months. 641. BAMEC is issued under the provision of
C. 12 months. A. CAR series L part VIII.
D. 6 months. B. CAR series L part VII.
C. CAR series L part VI.
634. Which of the following AME's will be D. CAR series L part V.
considered to be employed in AME activity and will
be considered for renewal of their licences 642. BAMEC is issued in
A. refuelling operation of approved aircraft fuel A. four categories.
vendors. B. five categories.
B. as a member of flying crew. C. six categories.
C. approved organisation stocking aircraft D. seven categories.
components.
D. All of the above. 643. The candidate for issuance of BAMEC must be
of
635. An AME to keep his licence valid will have to A. 17 years.
submit a medical certificate B. 18 years.
A. every 6 months. C. 20 years.
B. every 12 months. D. 21 years.
C. every 24 months.
D. it depends on the age of AME.

43
644. Application for grant of Authorisation to an B. triplicate, one copy to person, one copy to RAO
AME/approved person is forwarded to and one coyp to DGCA.
A. QCM. C. only single copy.
B. RAO/Sub-RAO. D. All are correct.
C. DGCA.
D. Chief Engineer. 652. Approval is valid for
A. 3 months.
645. An AME proposed for authorisation should be B. 6 months.
A. holder of current AME licence in relevant C. 12 months.
category. D. 24 months.
B. employed with the organisation on a full-time
basis. 653. Flight Engineer Examiners are appointed as per
C. having at least 3 months practical experience on rule
similar type of aircraft /engine /equipment etc. A. 41A, sub-rule to of IAR 1937.
D. All are correct. B. 61A, sub-rule to of IAR 1937.
C. CAR series L part V.
646. If authorisation is wanted for an aircraft having D. CAR series L part VI.
all AUW exceeding 5700 kg then the AME must
A. possess licence in category B. 654. A person appointed as Check Flight Engineer
B. possess at least 6 months practical experience on must have held a
similar type of aircraft. A. current F.E's licence for a minimum period of three
C. pass a familiatisation course on the aircraft with at years and at least 2000 hours flight experience as FE.
least 70% marks in the examination. B. Current F.E's licence for a minimum period of
D. All are correct. three years and at least 3000 hours flight experience
as FE.
647. Authorisation will not be issued to a person C. current F.E's licence for a minimum period of two
A. failing in the examination for issue of licence in years and at least 2000 hours flight experience as FE.
which the subject of authorisation is covered. D. None is correct.
B. being considered blameworthy in any investigation
of defect. 655. Flight Engineer Examiner should have at least
C. being considered blameworthy in any investigation 500 hours flight experience of which not less than
of accident by the DGCA during the preceding 6 A. 100 hours should be during six months preceding
months. the date of application.
D. All are correct. B. 100 hours should be during 12 months preceding
the date of application.
648. The validity of an authorisation may be extended C. 50 hours should be during 12 months preceding the
to a maximum period of date of application.
A. twleve months. D. 50 hours should be during six months preceding
B. six months. the date of application.
C. three months.
D. one month. 656. Flight Engineer Examiner appointment is valid
for
649. For grant of approval to certify overhaul the A. 24 months.
candidate should be of B. 12 months.
A. 17 years. C. 6 months.
B. 18 years. D. None is correct.
C. 20 years.
D. 21 years. 657. A Flight Engineer Examiner's appointment may
be renewed subject to the condition that he has
650. For grant of approvl a candidate must be A. 50 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6
A. 20 years of age. months.
B. at least a matriculate. B. 25 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6
C. Holding BAMEC in relevant category. months.
D. All are correct. C. 20 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6
months.
651. Approval is granted in D. 10 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6
A. duplicate, one copy to person and one copy to months.
RAO.
658. A Check Flight Engineer should be sponsored by
44
A. an approved organisation. A. 70%.
B. air transport operator. B. 80%.
C. Central Govt. Organisation. C. 90%.
D. State Govt. Organisation. D. None is correct.

659. In order to seek approved welder's certificate,
apart from other requirements the candidate is
required to submit
A. two different test pieces, as per DGCA
requirements.
B. three different test pieces, as per FAA
requirements.
C. three different test pieces, as per CAR series L part
VI.
D. two one test piece, as per CAR series L part VI.
667. Re-examination in GETS can be held after 15
days break within
A. 30 days from the date of completion of the main
course.
B. 45 days from the date of completion of the main
course.
C. 60 days from the date of completion of the main
course.
D. 90 days from the date of completion of the main
course.

660. Welder's approval is issued 668. Candidate under GETS will have to repeat main
A. materialwise. course if he
B. processwise. A. fails to secure 80% marks in aggregate in main
C. material and processwise. course.
D. material and jointwise. B. fails in any one phase with less than 60% marks in
the main course.
661. Unpressurised aircraft operating at altitude C. fail in the tandem course.
between 620mb to 700 mb for more than thirty D. All are correct.
minutes of flight should be provided with
A. adequate supply of oxygen for crew plus 10% pax. 669. GETS candidate fails in three oral-cum-
B. all crew and passengers are to be provided with practicual examinations, he again undergoes a
sufficient oxygen. refresher course and will be again eligible for
C. only pilot and co-pilot are to be provided with A. three oral-cum-practical examinations.
oxygen. B. two oral-cum-practical examinations.
D. None is correct. C. only one oral-cum-practical examination.
D. None is correct.
662. Engineers undergoing training under GETS shall
have 670. If a GETS candidate fails in oral-cum-practical
A. degree in engineering. test again after taking the refresher course
B. P.G degree in engineering. A. he will get two more chances to appear in oral-
C. P.G degree in electronics. cum-practical test.
D. All are correct. B. he will get one more chance to appear in oral-cum-
practical test.
663. GETS is eligible to appear for paper I of C. he will have to take the main course again.
AME/BAMEC examination after the completion of D. All are correct.
A. 6 months of training.
B. 12 months of training. 671. The pass marks in refresher course of GETS is
C. 18 months of training. A. 70% in each phase and 80% in aggregate.
D. 24 months of training. B. 60% in each phase and 80% in aggregate.
C. 60% in each phase and 70% in aggregate.
664. GETS at present is run by D. 80% in each phase and 90% in aggregate.
A. Pawan Hans Ltd. 672. When an AME licence is lost by the holder
B. Indian Airlines & Air India. (other than act of God) then for a duplicate licence
C. Both a & b are correct. A. he has to pay no fees.
D. The passing marks in GETS is. B. he has to pay only half fees.
C. he has to submit FIR, of the lost licence.
665. The passing marks in GETS is D. Both b and c are correct.
A. 70% in each and 80% in aggregate.
B. 60% in each and 70% in aggregate. 673. An AME will have to pay no fees for issuance of
C. 80% in each and 90% in aggregate. a duplicate AME licence if
D. None is correct. A. the licence is more than 25 years old.
B. the licence is more than 20 years old.
666. Pass marks in GETS re-examination is C. the licence is more than 10 years old.
45
D. the licence is more than 5 years old. D. All are correct.

674. Mandatory modification/inspection is issued 682. A consolidated list of all

under the purview of aircraft rule mandatory/modifications /inspections of aircraft
A. 49A. engines and equipment are compiled and distributed
B. 49B. by
C. 49D. A. DGCA.
D. 51A. B. RAO.
C. manufacturer.
675. Mandatory modifications/inspections are carried D. approved organisation.
out in accordance with aircraft rule
A. 49A. 683. C of A will not be renewed if it is observed than
B. 49D. A. any modification is due on aircraft.
C. 50A. B. only mandatory modification is due on aircraft
D. 50D. component.
C. any inspection is due on item of equipment.
676. Aircraft rule 52 D. All are correct.
A. lays down the acceptable standards for
modification/repair. 684. CAR series 'O' part I deals with minimum
B. provides for incorporation of modification in requirements to be compiled with by operator engaged
aircraft. in
C. requires modification/inspection to be carried out A. schedule operator.
in aircraft. B. non-schedule operator.
D. All are correct. C. private aircraft.
D. All are correct.
677. Mandatory modifications/inspections prescribe
the mandatory action required for 685. Aircraft rule 140 requires than all aircraft
A. continued safe operation of the aircraft. owners/operators shall comply with
B. continued airworthiness of aircraft. A. the engineering requirements as specified by the
C. keeping the C of A valid. DGCA.
D. All are correct. B. the maintenance requirements as specified by the
DGCA.
678. Airworthiness directive means an instruction C. the safety requirements as specified by the DGCA.
issued by an airworthiness authority D. All are correct.
A. which amends an approved document.
B. which requires a modification. 686. List of components with approved overhaul lives
C. to keep aircraft, aircraft components in an is given in
airworthy condition. A. quality control manual.
D. All are correct. B. maintenance system manual.
C. engineering organisation manual.
679. Mandatory modifications and inspections are D. All are correct.
promulgated by
A. the manufacturer of the aircraft. 687. Single engined aircraft with retractable
B. the DGCA. undercarriage shall not be used in
C. the airworthiness authority. A. schedule, VFR operation.
D. the airworthiness authority of the country of B. non-schedule VFR operation.
manufacturer of aircraft. C. non-schedule night operation.
D. All are correct.
680. DGCA will declare only those service
bulletins/instructions as mandatory in respect of those 688. A multi-engined aircraft when loaded to the
A. whom DGCA thinks so. maximum gross weight shall be capable of
B. are issued in red colour. maintaining level flight with one engine inoperative at
C. in respect of which AD's are issued. an altitude of not less than
D. None of the above. A. 2000 feet above the valley level at the highest point
on the airroute.
681. DGCA will declare all modifications issued by B. 1000 feet above the valley level at the highest point
A. DGCA as mandatory. on the airroute.
B. FAA as mandatory. C. 3000 feet above the water.
C. CAA as mandatory. D. Both a and c are correct.
46
689. Operation manual is not a necessary requirement D. from ILS system.
of
A. non-schedule operator. 697. The required number of aircrew on a licensed air
B. schedule operator. transport service is found in aircraft
C. flying training aircraft. A. flight manual.
D. private aircraft. B. C of A.
C. C or R.
690. The maximum flight time and flight duty periods D. Both a and b are correct.
of flight crew members is contained in
A. quality control manual. 698. All pilots shall demonstrate to an examiner
B. maintenance system manual. approved by the DGCA that they are familiar
C. operation manual. A. with its loading.
D. All are correct. B. with ATC system.
C. a and b are correct.
691. The maximum flight altitude for each route as D. None is correct.
required for scheduled operations forms a part of
A. operation manual. 699. The first pilot of an airlines shall have made at
B. route guide. least
C. flight manual. A. one flight as first pilot along the route over which
D. All are correct. he is required to fly in VFR condition.
B. two flights as first pilot along the route over which
692. Operation manual contains he is required to fly in VFR conditions.
A. the procedure for refuelling the aircraft. C. three flights as first pilot along the route over
B. the condition under which oxygen shall be used. which he is required to fly VFR conditions.
C. a list of navigational equipment to be carried. D. as in (a) also in IFR condition.
D. All are correct.
700. All pilots while engaged on a licensed air
693. Information which will enable the pilot in transport service shall undergo a local proficiency
command to determine whether the flight may be check
continued should any instrument have become A. once a year.
inoperative is in B. once in two years.
A. flight manual. C. twice a year.
B. emergency check list. D. None is correct.
C. operation manual.
D. all are correct. 701. Proficiency check of licenced air transport
service pilots shall be carried out at an interval of
694. In the event of conflict between the contents of A. not less than 4 months and not more than 8 months.
flight crew operation manual and airplane flight B. not less than 3 months and not more than 6 months.
manual then precedence will be given to C. not less than 6 months and not more than 8 months.
A. operation manual. D. not less than 3 months and not more than 8 months.
B. flight manual.
C. flight crew operation manual. 702. Instruments rating check of a pilot is carried out
D. any one can be accepted. A. every year.
B. every two years.
695. For operation of single engined aircraft there C. twice a year.
shall be an emergency landing ground at intervals of D. every six months.
not more than
A. 150 miles. 703. The IR check of a pilot carried out by an
B. 260 miles. approved check pilot includes
C. 150 km. A. let down procedure applicable to the aerodrome in
D. 260 km. use.
B. recovery from spins.
696. When an aircraft is landing under INE, it shall be C. recovery from loops.
provided with a radio equipment capable of receiving D. All are correct.
signals
A. from VOR station. 704. During an IR check the pilot carries out 180
B. from ATC transponder. degree turns with 30 degree bank to port and starboard
C. providing guidance to a point from which visual variation in height shall not exceed
landing can be effected. A. 100 feet.
47
B. 150 feet. A. 60 cm.
C. 200 feet. B. 50 cm.
D. 300 feet. C. 20 cm.
D. 30 cm.
705. The expected climbed performance shall be
obtained from 713. The width of each letter of (except letter I) and
A. flight manual. the length of hyphens shall be
B. operations manual. A. two-third of the height of the letter.
C. pilot's notes. B. three-fourth of the height of the letter.
D. All are correct. C. three-eighth of the height of the letter.
D. one-half of the height of the letter.
706. The observed actual climb performance (in terms
of feet per minute) shall in no case be lower by more 714. The thickness of the lines of letters of
than registration marking shall be
A. 2% of the 'expected climbed performance'. A. one-eighth of the height of letter.
B. 3% of the 'expected climbed performance'. B. one-eighth of the width of letter.
C. 5% of the 'expected climbed performance'. C. one-sixth of the height of letter.
D. 7% of the 'expected climbed performance'. D. one-sixth of the width of letter.

707. ROC correction factor graph for constant speed 715. The separation between the letter of registration
propellers is available in marking shall not be less than
A. CAR series C part I. A. one-quarter of letters length.
B. CAR series C part II. B. one-quarter of letters width.
C. CAR series T part I. C. one-third of letters length.
D. CAR series T part II. D. one-third of letters width.

708. The varaiables of ROC graphs as given in CAR 716. The separation between the letters of registration
series T part II are marking shall not be less than
A. pressure altitude (in metres), temp (degree F). A. one-quarter of letters height.
B. pressure altitude (in feet), temp (degree C). B. one-third of letters height.
C. pressure altitude (in feet), temp (degree F) and rate C. two-third of letters height.
of climb factor. D. one-sixth of letters height.
D. pressure altitude (in metres), temp (degree F) and
rate of climb factor. 717. Weight and balance control of aircraft is dealt in
A. IAR 58.
709. The nationality and registration marks of an B. IAR 56.
airship appears C. IAR 49.
A. on the fuselage and wing. D. None is correct.
B. on the hull.
C. on the fuselage and stabilizer. 718. Aircraft weight schedule shall include
D. on the fuselage and vertical fin. A. type of engine.
B. type of aircraft.
C. registration marking of aircraft.
710. The registration marking on the aircraft shall D. Both b and c are correct.
appear
A. on the right half of the lower surface of the wing. 719. During weighing of aircraft the equipment
B. on the left half of the lower surface of the wing. installed are
C. as in (a) and on the fuselage. A. oil should be full.
D. as in (b) and on the fuselage. B. hydraulic fluid should be full.
C. all instruments should be installed.
711. The height of registration marks on an aircraft D. all are correct.
shall be at least
A. 60 cm. 720. The aircraft shall be weighed in the presence of
B. 50 cm. A. chief engineer.
C. 22 inches. B. QCM.
D. 50 inches. C. representative of RAO.
D. All are correct.
712. The height of registration marks on the aircraft
fuselage shall be at least
48
721. The weight schedule of an aircraft shall be B. two first aid kits and one physician kit.
retained C. three first aid kits and one physician kit.
A. for 10 years. D. one first aid kit only.
B. for 5 years.
C. for 2 years. 730. Physician's kit is must for all aircraft with a
D. till it is replaced by a fresh schedule. seating capacity of more than
A. 150.
722. The calculated C.G. position for 'take off & land B. 100.
before take off are computed for C. 60.
A. aerial work aircraft. D. 20.
B. private aricraft.
C. public transport aircraft. 731. To check on the aircraft that the first aid kits are
D. All are correct. intact and properly sealed is the respnosibility of
A. QCM.
723. The 'load sheets' of a schedule operator shall B. Pilot in command.
preserved for a period of C. AME.
A. one month from the date of issue. D. M.B.B.S. doctor.
B. six months from the date of issue.
C. one year from the date of issue. 732. The contents of the first aid kit of a public
D. two years from the date of issue. transport aircraft shall be examined by medical officer
once in
724. Mark the wrong statement A. 6 months.
A. During loading it must be ensured that the aircraft B. 12 months.
cabin floor loading limitation are not exceeded. C. 18 months.
B. The load must be securely tight. D. 24 months.
C. The load must be placed behind the passengers the
cabin. 733. The contents of the first aid kit of training
D. The load tying ropes must be of sufficient strength aircraft shall be examined by medical oficer once in
to withstand the loads imposed on it in flight. A. 6 months.
B. 12 months.
725. The first aid kit container shall be C. 18 months.
A. of steel. D. 24 months.
B. of aluminium alloy.
C. moisture and dust proof. 734. the training of the crew members of public
D. All are correct. transport aircraft engaged in schedule and non-
schedule services in application of first aid is
726. The words 'FIRST AID KIT' on first aid kit box undertaken by
shall by at least A. owner/operator.
A. 1 inch high. B. RAO.
B. 3/2 inches high. C. DGCA.
C. 2 inches high. D. Director of Air Safety.
D. 5/2 inches high.
735. Contents of the physician's kit shall be certified
727. First aid kit whenever used shall be replenished by
and certified by a A. Chief Medical Officer.
A. private medical practitioner. B. Medical Officer incharge.
B. Govt. medical practitioner. C. medical practitioner.
C. any medical practitioner. D. medical practitioner with at least M.B.B.S. degree.
D. any medical practitioner holding M.B.B.S. degree.
736. Details of furnishing materials used in aircraft
728. The drugs contained in the physician's kit are are contained in
intended to be administered only by A. CAR series F part IV.
A. an air hostess. B. CAR series X part IV.
B. PIC. C. FAR part 25.
C. Co-pilot. D. Both b and c are correct.
D. medical practitioner.
729. All aircraft with passenger-carrying capacity of 737. Furnishing material used on normal category
50 shall be equipped with aircraft for carrying passengers and havign AUW as
A. one first aid kit and one physician kit. 15000 kg or above shall be
49
A. self-extinguishing. D. as long as the log books are kept.
B. at least flame-resistant.
C. flame resistant. 746. Aircraft log books are made under the pursuance
D. Both a and c are correct. of
A. IAR 67.
738. Furnishing material used on private aircraft shall B. IAR 68.
be C. IAR 57.
A. self-extinguishing. D. None is correct.
B. at least flame-resistant.
C. flame resistant. 747. The number of different log books requirement
D. None is correct. for an aircraft as stated in CAR series X-part VI are
A. three.
739. Resistant to fire (as given in appendix F to FAR B. four.
25 part II) aircraft seats shall be installed in all aircraft C. five.
A. above 15,000 kg AUW. D. six.
B. above 5,700 kg AUW.
C. above 3,000 kg AUW. 748. DGCA shall issue
D. above 2,000 kg AUW. A. JLB.
B. Engine log book.
740. Concession means C. Airframe log book.
A. a permission by the DGCA for free flight. D. All are correct.
B. a permission by the DGCA to use a limited
quantity or material not in conformity with that 749. Detailed record of replacements, major repair &
approved by manufacturer. overhaul of aircraft component or system is entered in
C. a permission by the DGCA to rebuild an aircraft. the
D. Both b and c are correct. A. first section of the log book.
B. second section of the log book.
741. Requrest from grant of 'concessions' for use of C. third section of the log book.
material, effecting major modification is submitted to D. third section of the JLB.
A. DGCA.
B. RAO. 750. The third section of the airframe log book will
C. DGCA and RAO. contain
D. DAW. A. routine inspection records.
B. modification records.
742. Concession form is submitted to the RAO in C. replacement records.
A. duplicate. D. overhaul records.
B. triplicate.
C. quadruplicate. 751. The first section of journey log book contains
D. None is correct. A. routine inspection records.
B. minor repair records.
743. Concession application for carrying out minor C. major repair records.
repairs to aircraft secondary structure is submitted to D. None is correct.
A. QCM.
B. DGCA. 752. In accordance with CAR flight is recorded as
C. RAO. A. chock to chock.
D. DAW. B. take-off to touch down.
744. DGCA's prior approval is not required if a major C. take-off to touch down may be adopted after
repair is carried out strictly in conformity with the obtaining approval from RAO.
standard aeronautical practice spelt out in D. All are correct.
A. AC 43.13 manual, CAIP.
B. Civil Aircraft Inspection Procedures of CAA (UK). 753. When a component having its own log book is
C. BCAR 43, CAA 43, JAR 21. removed from aircraft, the reason for removal should
D. None is correct. be entered in
A. the component relevant log book.
745. An approved copy of concession form is B. flight log book and aircraft log book.
preserved by the applicant for C. aircraft log book.
A. 10 years. D. Both a and c are correct.
B. 2 years.
C. 2 years after the aircraft is withdrawn form use.
50
754. When an engine is changed, the hours flown, the
serial members and part numbers as appropriate of
'lifed' parts, which are not changed with the engine
should be entered in
A. the relevant log book.
B. the log book of the replacement engine.
C. as in (b) and also in aircraft log book.
D. as in (c) and also in JLB.
755. When a pilot carries out an inspection schedule
of below 25 hours its entries will be made in the
A. JLB and signed by the pilot.
B. flight log book & JLB and signed by the pilot.
C. relevant log book and signed by an appropriately
licenced AME.
D. relevant log book and signed by the pilot.
756. Log books carried on board an aircraft are
A. JLB.
B. JLB, flight log book, aircraft log book.
C. working copies of airframe and engine log books.
D. Both a and c are correct.
757. When an aircraft meets with an accident and is
damaged beyond repair, then the
A. aircraft log book is preserved for 2 years.
B. engine log book is preserved for 2 years.
C. propeller log book is preserved for 2 years.
D. All are correct.
758. Log book other than aircraft, engine & propeller
log book are preserved for
A. two years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use.
B. ten years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use.
C. ten years.
D. ten years from the date of last entry.
759. When aircraft engine log book is not kept in the
manner and form as prescribed in aircraft rule 67
A. the C of A will cease to be valid.
B. the C of A will be cancelled.
C. the C or R will be cancelled.
D. the FRC will be cancelled.
760. Valid documents are carried on board an India
registered aircraft in accordance with
A. CAR series X part VII.
B. CAR series X part VII IAR 7.
C. CAR series X part VII IAR 57.
D. CAR series X part VII IAR 67.
761. 'Group A' documents carried on board an India
registered aircraft are/is
A. C or R.
B. C of A.
C. FRC.
D. All are correct.
51
762. 'Group B' documents carried on board an India
registered aircraft is/are
A. FRC.
B. Flight Manual.
C. C or R.
D. All are correct.
763. The documents as required in group A and group
B shall be carried on board all aircraft
A. at all times.
B. with AUW below 5700 kg.
C. with AUW below 15,000 kg.
D. None is correct.
764. An aircraft which does not leave the vicinity of
its starting place and returns without landing
elsewhere to its starting place, needs to carry
A. only documents, of group A.
B. only documents, of group B.
C. documents of group A and group B.
D. None is correct.
765. Passenger safety information briefing card is
carried on
A. all aircraft of 15,000 kg AUW or above.
B. all aircraft of 5,700 kg AUW or above.
C. all passenger aircraft of 15,000 kg AUW or above.
D. all passenger aircraft of 5,700 kg AUW or above.
766. Application for type approval has to be submitted
in form
A. as per annexure I of IAR 49A.
B. as per annexure I of IAR 49.
C. as per annexure I of CAR series F part I.
D. as per annexure I of CAR series X part IX.
767. Application for type approval is submitted to
A. DGCA.
B. DGCA (via RAO).
C. DGCA (atten : Director of Aeronatucial
Inspection).
D. DGCA (Atten : Director of Airworthiness).
768. Application for type approval is submitted in
A. duplicate.
B. triplicate.
C. quadruplicate.
D. None is correct.
769. Applicant for type approval shall submit
A. C of A.
B. C of R.
C. a complete list of drawing.
D. All are correct.
770. Along with the application for type approval the
applicant should submit
A. C of A no of the aircraft.
B. nationality and registration marking of the aircraft.
C. endurance (based on operational experience). C. lays down the procedure of obtaining Indian
D. All are correct. certificate of airworthiness.
D. lays down the procedure of obtaining certificate of
771. If at any time the DGCA feels that the safety of airworthiness.
aircraft is jeopardised it can
A. cancel or suspend a type certificate. 778. For issuing of C of A the DGCA has to satisfy
B. endorse a type certificate. that the aircraft/rotor craft manufactured/imported
C. incorporate a modification in type certificate. meets the approved airworthiness standards of
D. All of them are correct. A. BCAR 23 & JAR 25.
B. FAR 23 & FAR 25.
772. For type certification of aircraft as per CAR C. FAR 27 & FAR 29.
series F part II annexure I D. All are correct.
A. three unmounted photographs of the aircraft have
to be submitted : size (10x15) cm. 779. C of A aircraft which do not fulfill the
B. three unmounted photographs of the aircraft have airworthiness standards as laid down by the DGCA
to be submitted: size not less than (10x15) cm. A. cannot be issued/renewed.
C. five unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to B. the operator may consult the DGCA (DAW) before
be submitted : size (10x15) cm. buying/importing such aircraft so that acceptance
D. five unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to standards is conveyed to him.
be submitted: size not less than (10x15) cm. C. both a and b are correct.
D. none of them is correct.
773. For obtaining type certificate of an aircraft the
manufacturer has to submit the following dimension 780. Application for obtaining C of A is to be
to the DGCA submitted in form
A. length of fuselage. A. CA 23 (Appendix A ).
B. length over all, height over all. B. CA 23A.
C. a and b are correct. C. CA 25 (Appendix A).
D. None is correct. D. CA 25.

774. For obtaining type certificate of a rotor craft the 781. For issuance of C of A the owner/operator shall
manufacturer has to submit the following dimension supply free of cost
to the DGCA A. original log books along with record of
A. length of fuselage. modification with a certificate from the Chief of
B. overall length. Inspection that no modification/airworthiness
C. diameter of main rotor and tail rotor, main rotor directive/inspection is pending.
blade chord. B. two sets of type certificate.
D. All are correct. C. two sets of MMEL.
D. all are correct.
775. Aircraft rule 50 empowers the
A. Govt. of India to issue/renew C of A. 782. In case any deficiency is noticed during
B. RAO to renew/revalidate c of A. inspection by airworthiness officer for issuance of C
C. DGCA to issue/revalidate C of A. of A
D. Both b and c are correct. A. the owner will be informed and he will be
responsible for making up all the deficiencies pointed
776. All aircraft registered in India must possess a out.
current and valid C of A before it is flown is a B. C of A will not be issued.
requirement as per C. the owner may be asked to carry out any
A. Aircraft rules 50. modification/airworthiness directives which is
B. Aircraft rules 30. considered essential for the safety of the aircraft.
C. Aircraft rules 15. D. both a and c are correct.
D. Aircraft rules 50 A.
783. For issuance of C of A partially filld Indian C of
A will be forwarded by the DGCA
777. CAR series 'F' part III A. to the manufacturer for completion.
A. lays down the procedure for obtaining certificate of B. to the owner/operator for completion.
registration. C. to the RAO/Sub-RAO for completion.
B. lays down the procedure for obtaining Indian D. All are correct.
certificate of registration.
784. Validity of C of A is
52
A. for one year. B. in special category.
B. for six months. C. in specific sub-division (s) certificated.
C. restricted in case it is found necessary in the D. None is correct.
interest of safety of aircraft.
D. Both a and b are correct. 793. Private aircraft means
A. all aircraft other than aerial work aircraft or public
785. C of A validity of imported aircraft is transport aircraft.
A. for one year. B. shall not be used for hire or reward.
B. for six months. C. shall not be used of any kind of remuneration.
C. the validity period shall begin from the date of D. All are correct.
issue of original export C of A.
D. both a and c are correct. 794. A state Govt. aircraft certificated in normal
category sub-division shall be a
786. Validity of C of A A. passenger aircraft.
A. is for one year. B. private aircraft.
B. is restricted in case it is found necessary in the C. research aircraft.
interest of safety of aircraft. D. racing aircraft.
C. shall begin from the date of issue of original export
C of A. 795. Research aircraft is a subdivision of
D. both a and c are correct. A. normal category.
B. aerobatic category.
787. Short-term C of A is issued for C. special category.
A. un-airworthy aircraft. D. experimental category.
B. aircraft imported from outside the country under
Indian registration marking. 796. Racing aircraft is a subdivision of
C. aircraft imported from outside the country under A. normal category.
foreign registration marking. B. aerobatic category.
D. aircraft having service life of less than one year. C. experimental category.
D. special category.
788. The DGCA may refuse a C of A to an aircraft if
A. he feels so. 797. Aircraft certificated in normal category shall not
B. required data are not made available. be used in
C. reasonable apprehension exists regarding its A. special category.
airworthiness. B. aerobatic category.
D. both b and c are correct. C. private category.
D. All are correct.
789. Documents which must accompany the
application for the issue of C of A are/is 798. Aircraft certificated in aerobatic category
A. form CA 83. A. may be used in special category.
B. form CA 84. B. may be used in normal category.
C. documents as required vide AME notice no 2 of C. may be used for experimental work.
1969. D. may be used for racing.
D. All of the above.
799. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft
790. The three general categories of aircraft are classified in normal category are between
A. normal, special, aerobatic. A. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g.
B. passenger, mail, goods. B. +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g.
C. aerial, private, agricultural. C. +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g.
D. passenger, normal, special. D. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g.

791. Normal category aircraft are 800. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft
A. passenger, mail. classified in aerobatic category are between
B. goods, aerial. A. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g.
C. private, passenger. B. +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g.
D. All are correct. C. +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g.
D. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g.
792. Aircraft certificated in normal category can be
used
A. in all sub-divisions.
53
801. Aircraft and other aeronautical products to be 809. Engine/propellers imported in India must
eligible for export to India must meet the accompany
requirements of A. export C of A.
A. FAR 15. B. airworthiness approval tag.
B. FAR 26. C. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part L).
C. FAR AD (87-01-40). D. both a and c are correct.
D. FAR 21.
810. Reconditioned/used/surplus parts must be
802. Class II & Class III aeronautical products for certified as per
export to India should be accompanied by
A. export C of A. A. FAR part 145.
B. airworthiness approval tag. B. FAR part 65.
C. airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of C. FAR part 43.
FAA. D. All are correct.
D. None of the above.
811. Requirement for renewal of C of A is contained
803. Class I aeronautical products for export to India in
should be accompanied by A. CAR series 'F' part IV.
A. export C of A. B. CAR series 'F' part III.
B. airworthiness approval tag. C. aircraft rule 5.
C. airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of D. both b and c are correct.
FAA.
D. None of the above. 812. Validity of C of A can be extended for
A. 3% of flight hours.
804. Complete aircraft comes under B. 10% of calendar period.
A. class I aeronautical product. C. no extension is granted.
B. class II aeronautical product. D. both a and b are correct.
C. class III aeronautical product.
D. class IV aeronautical product. 813. Application of renewal of C of A should be made
preferably
805. An aircraft which is being exported to India via A. 10 days in advance of expiry of C of A.
flyway should B. 15 days in advance of expiry of C of A.
A. display Indian nationality and registration marking. C. 7 days in advance of expiry of C of A.
B. display foreign nationality and registration D. none is correct.
marking.
C. have ferry flight authorisation. 814. In case of the C of A of the aircraft has expired
D. Both a and b are correct. then fcr renewal
A. the quantum of work required has to be decided by
806. Displaying of nationality and registration oficer incharge RAO.
marking upon the aircraft prior to being imported to B. the quantum of work required has to be dcided by
India is the responsibility of operator/QCM.
A. exporter of the aircraft. C. the quantum of work required has to be decided by
B. importer of the aircraft. manufacturer.
C. DGCA. D. None of the above.
D. FAA.
815. For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit
807. 'Noise standards' acceptable in India for issuance to RAO
of Indian C of A are A. All log books.
A. same as required for issuance of US C of A. B. JLB.
B. same as required for issuance of UK C of A. C. Procedure sheets cf past one year.
C. same as required for issuance of CAA C of A. D. All the above.
D. same as required in JAR 21.
816. For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit
808. Class II & III aeronautical products imported in to RAO
India must accompany A. C of A, C of R.
A. airworthiness approval tag. B. WT license.
B. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part R). C. Both a and b are correct.
C. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part P). D. None is correct.
D. compliance with FAR 20 (sub part L).
54
817. Renewal of certificate of airworthiness of Indian A. will start from the date of inspection.
registered aircraft abroad B. will start from the expiry of last C of A.
A. cannot be carried out and should be avoided. C. will start from the date of submitting the
B. can be carried out with full justification of such application.
exigencies to the DGCA. D. All are correct.
C. C of A will be renewed in the normal manner.
D. Both b and c are correct. 825. Application for renewal of C of A is submitted
on
818. C of A shall cease to be valid if A. form CA 25.
A. approved inspection schedule is completed when B. Appendix to form CA 25.
due. C. Appendix to CAR series 'F' part III.
B. 'lifted' components are replaced on expiry of D. Appendix to CAR series 'F' part IV.
stipulated lives.
C. unapproved repairs/modifications are carried out. 826. Suspended C of A will be revalidated
D. All are correct. A. only upto the date the previous currency of the C
of A had remained valid, if it had not been suspended.
819. If mandatory modifications are not carried out as B. for another one year.
and when called for C. cannot be revalidated.
A. the C of R will cease to be valid. D. None is correct.
B. the C of A will cease to be valid.
C. the WT license will cease to be valid. 827. Aircraft rules 55(1)
D. All are correct. A. provides for automatic suspension of C of A.
B. empowers the DGCA to suspend C of A.
820. Aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above are C. empowers the DGCA to cancel C of A.
required to be maintained by D. All are correct.
A. individual AMEs.
B. airlines. 828. DGCA can suspend or cancel the C of A of an
C. approved organisation. aircraft under the purview of
D. All are correct. A. Aircraft rules 55.
B. Aircraft rules 55 (1).
821. Aircraft with AUW below 5700 can be C. Aircraft rules 55 (2).
maintained by D. Aircraft rules 55A.
A. individual AMEs.
B. approved organisation. 829. Suspension of C of A is dealt in
C. authorised personnel of approved organisation. A. CAR series F part II.
D. All are correct. B. CAR series F part IV.
C. CAR series F part III.
822. Certificate of maintenance review in case of D. CAR series F part V.
aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above is issued
by 830. The certification of airworthiness of an aircraft
A. DGCA. shall be deemed to be suspended if
B. RAO. A. it is modified or repaired otherwise then in
C. QCM. accordance with approved procedure.
D. All are correct. B. suffers major damage.
C. develops a major defect.
823. Certificate of maintenance review in case of D. All are correct.
aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and below is issued
by 831. Certification by AME 'R' for flight release of
A. individual AMEs. private aircraft may not be necessary if ground
B. AME having his license endorsed in cat 'B' to facilities are not available till
cover the type of aircraft involved. A. inspection associated with next flight certfication.
C. AME having his license endorsed in cat 'D' to B. next 100 hrs schedule.
cover the type of engine involved. C. align with any schedule within 50 hours.
D. Both b and c are correct. D. Any one of the above.

824. If the airworthiness officer completes the final
inspection of the aircraft and its document after the
expiry of the C of A then the validity of the next
currency of C of A
55
832. OAT gauge is a must
A. on all aircraft intended for flying.
B. on aircraft undertaking night flying on VFR.
C. on aircraft fitted with engine with carburettor air
temp. control but without carburettor air temperature
gauge.
D. Both a and b are correct.
833. A two-way communication system and
navigation equipment are essential
A. when an aircraft is flying under IFR.
B. when an aircraft is flying through controlled air
space.
C. suplemented with appropriate ground facilities.
D. comprehensively all above.
834. CAR series L part I deals with
A. issue of AME licences.
B. classification of AME licences.
C. experience requirements for issue of AME
licences.
D. Comprehensively all above.
835. Aircraft rule 61 lays down the
A. minimum qualification for issue of AME licence.
B. minimum experience for issue of AME licence.
C. Both a and b are correct.
D. None is correct.
836. Light aircraft means an aircraft
A. with AUW below 5700 kg.
B. with AUW below 15000 kg.
C. with AUW below 30000 kg.
D. None is correct.
837. Heavy aircraft means an aircraft
A. with AUW of 5700 kg and above.
B. with AUW of 15000 kg and above.
C. with AUW of 3000 kg and above.
D. None is correct.
838. Registration and airworthiness of Microlight
aircraft is contained in
A. CAR series F part XIV.
B. CAR series F part XV.
C. IAR 62.
D. IAR 62 B.
839. Microlight aircraft includes
A. hang gliders.
B. powered hang gliders.
C. light aircraft.
D. None is correct.
840. Microlight aircraft means
A. a single seater or two seater aircraft.
B. a fixed wing aircraft.
C. wing area not less than 10 sq meters.
D. all are correct.
841. Maximum AUM of a microlight aircraft is
A. 250 kg.
56
B. 300 kg.
C. 350 kg.
D. 450 kg.
842. All airworthy mcrolight aircraft should possess a
A. valid certificate of airworthiness.
B. valid certificate of safety.
C. valid permit to fly.
D. All the above.
843. The registration markings assigned to the
microlight aircraft shall be painted
A. on the lower surface of the wings.
B. also on each side of fuselage.
C. or on the upper half of the vertical fin.
D. All are correct.
844. A permanent placard should be affixed on the
microlight aircraft in full view of the occupants
stating that
A. valid for day flying only.
B. the aircraft has not been certificated for cloud
flying.
C. the aircraft has not been certificated to
international requirements.
D. All the above are correct.
845. Permit to fly is valid for
A. six months.
B. nine months.
C. one year.
D. two years.
846. In respect of microlight aircraft a pilot can carry
out the pre flight and all inspections up to
A. 5 hours.
B. 10 hours.
C. 20 hours.
D. 25 hours.
847. Only appropriately licensed AME can perform
any schedule higher than
A. 10 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
B. 15 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
C. 20 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
D. 25 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
848. All columns of microlight aircraft log book
should be filled by
A. an AME and signed by him.
B. an appropriately licensed AME.
C. QCM and signed by him.
D. the pilot and signed by him.
849. A microlight aircraft shall not be flown over the
entire air space over the territory of
A. Delhi.
B. Jammu and Kashmir.
C. Tamilnadu.
D. Punjab.
850. A microlight aircraft shall not be flown over the
areas falling within
A. 10 km from international border.
B. 20 km from international border.
C. 25 km from international border.
D. 50 km from international border.
851. The restricted flying areas are notified by the
A. DGCA in consultation with the Home Ministry.
B. Defence Ministry.
C. Both a and b are correct.
D. None of the above.
852. Application for permit to fly for microlight
aircraft is submitted on
A. from CA 28.
B. appendix to CAR series F part II.
C. annex I to CAR series F part XIV.
D. from CA 182.
853. Requirement for manufacture registration and
airworthiness control of hot air balloons is contained
in
A. IAR 62.
B. IAR 15.
C. CAR series F part XIV.
D. CAR series F part XV.
854. Ballon means
A. a power-driven lighter than aircraft.
B. a non power-driven lighter than aircraft.
C. a non power-driven heavier than aircraft.
D. a power-driven heavier than aircraft.
855. Envelope means the enclosure
A. in which the lifting medium is contained.
B. in which balloon is contained.
C. which is used to accommodate balloon occupants.
D. which is used to cover the balloon.
856. 'Basket' of balloon means
A. the container suspended beneath the envelope.
B. the container suspended beneath the balloon.
C. basket used for the balloon occupants.
D. Both a and c are correct.
857. A hot air balloon used for personal flying a pilot
A. must have a permit to fly.
B. must have a type certificate.
C. need not have a type certificate.
D. Both a and b are correct.
858. All manned free balloons are required to be
registered as per
A. CAR series F part XV.
B. CAR series X part XV.
C. CAR series X part I.
D. CAR series F part I.
57
859. The identification plate of balloon shows
A. registration markings.
B. constructor's name.
C. balloon's serial number.
D. All the above.
860. Flight release for a balloon has to be issued carry
A. 24 hours.
B. 36 hours.
C. 48 hours.
D. seven days.
861. A pilot can carry out inspection schedules up to
A. 5 hours in case of balloons.
B. 10 hours in case of balloons.
C. 15 hours in case of balloons.
D. 25 hours in case of balloons.
862. Only an AME can carry out any inspection
schedule higher than
A. 10 hours in case of ballons.
B. 15 hours in case of ballons.
C. 25 hours in case of ballons.
D. 50 hours in case of ballons.
863. Procedure/worksheet pertaining to balloon shall
be preserved for at least
A. two years after completion of work.
B. five years after completion of work.
C. ten years after completion of work.
D. None of the above is correct.
864. Records/worksheet pertaining to 'lifed'
components of balloons shall be preserved for
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. five years.
D. ten years.
865. All-India registered balloon must carry on board
A. certificate of registration.
B. certificate of airworthiness.
C. cockpit and emergency check list in laminated
form.
D. All the above are correct.
866. The operating of the balloon flight will only be
undertaken during
A. day time under VFR condition.
B. past noon session.
C. pre noon session.
D. between sunrise to sunset.
867. In general a flight manual contains
A. three sections.
B. four sections.
C. five section.
D. six sections.
868. Guidance for the preparation of flight manual is A. with aircraft in level flight altitude drawn the fuel
given in system from the lowest point in the supply line.
A. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part III B. thereafter measure the quantity of residual fuel in
section (9) chapter II. each tank.
B. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part II C. then additional at least 5 litres of fuel per main
section (9) chapter III. tank shall be added to arrive at the zero datum for the
C. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part 9 fuel quantity gauge.
section III chapter II. D. All are correct.
D. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part II
section III chapter 9. 876. The fuel gauges shall be calibrated with zero
datum at
869. If an approved flight manual is not ammended A. five litres.
up-to-date B. ten litres.
A. the C of A will be valid. C. zero litres.
B. the C of A would cease to be valid. D. unusable fuel.
C. the C or R would cease to be valid.
D. Both b and c are correct. 877. A fuel quantity gauge is calibrated
A. at every C of A.
870. All amendment incorporated in the flight manual B. at the time of installation.
of an imported aircraft shall be intimated to C. at the nearest major check.
A. RAO. D. All are correct.
B. sub-RAO.
C. DGCA. 878. A properly calibrated dip stick is carried on
D. Both a and b are correct. board
A. all aircraft.
871. Which aircraft rule prohibits use of component B. all light aircraft and helicopters.
items of equipments from being modified, repaired, C. all helicopters.
replaced, inspected or overhauled except by an D. all heavy aircraft.
approved person of contracting state whose approval
is recognised by the DGCA 879. Aircraft fuelling procedure is laid down in
A. Rule 60. A. CAR series H part II.
B. Rule 61. B. CAR series H part I.
C. Rule 56. C. IAR 25 A.
D. Rule 51. D. Both a and c are correct.

872. Normally no parts should be used from the parts 880. Fuelling zone is regarded as the area extending
pooled beyond A. 25 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point.
A. 25 hours of operation. B. 15 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point.
B. 50 hours of operation. C. 10 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point.
C. 100 hours of operation. D. 06 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point.
D. 200 hours of operation.
881. As a general guide the fuelling place should be at
873. The quantity of unusable fuel in most cases is least
included in the appropriate A. 30 metres from the hangar.
A. flight manual. B. 25 metres from the hangar.
B. QCM. C. 20 metres from the hangar.
C. cockpit check list. D. 15 metres from the hangar.
D. emergency check list.
882. The aircraft shall not be fuelled within
874. CAR series 'H' Part I deals with A. 30 metres of radar equipment in use.
A. unusable fuel supply. B. 25 metres of radar equipment in use.
B. calibration of fuel quantity gauge of aircraft. C. 20 metres of radar equipment in use.
C. calibration of fuel quantity gauge of helicopter. D. 15 metres of radar equipment in use.
D. All are correct.
883. The fuel quantity should be delivered in terms of
875. Light aircraft for which the unusable fuel data is A. density.
not available the procedure recommended to B. kg.
determine, is C. tonnes.
D. volume.
58
884. Exhaust of the refuelling vehicle shall not pass
over the
A. fuelling hose.
B. intake hose.
C. both a and b is correct.
D. none is correct.
885. Whenever wing fuelling is employed the nozzle
of the hose shall be bonded
A. to the fuelling equipment.
B. to the fuelling equipment before filler capt is
removed.
C. to the aircraft structure before filler capt is
removed.
D. None is correct.
886. Fuelling operation shall cease when a turbo prop
jet aircraft manoeuvres so as to bring the rear jet
outlets within
A. 50 metres of the aircraft.
B. 43 metres of the fuelling equipment.
C. 30 m,etres of the aircraft.
D. 33 metres of the aircraft fuelling equipment.
887. Vehicles moving in the danger zone shall be
fitted with
A. spark arrestors.
B. flame traps.
C. fire extinguishers.
D. both a and b are correct.
888. No photographic flash bulbs and electronic flash
equipment shall be permitted to be used within
A. 5 metres of fuelling equipment.
B. 6 metres of fuelling equipment.
C. 15 metres of fuelling equipment.
D. 30 metres of fuelling equipment.
889. Fixed wing aircraft with a seating capacity of
less than 20 shall
A. be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on
board.
B. not be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on
board.
C. be permitted to be refuelled with QCM consent.
D. None of them correct.
890. Fixed wing aircraft with a seating capacity of
less than 20 shall
A. be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on
board.
B. not be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on
board.
C. be permitted to be refuelled with QCM consent.
D. None of them correct.
891. In case of fuel spillage during fuelling operation
covering an area greater than 5 square metres, then all
59
persons shall be evacuated from the effected area to a
place at least
A. 6 metres from the spillage.
B. 15 metres from the spillage.
C. 30 metres from the spillage.
D. 43 metres from the spillage.
892. Aircraft instruments shall be overhauled and
inspected in accordance with the requirement of
A. CAR series I part I.
B. CAR series I part II.
C. CAR series I part III.
D. All the above are correct.
893. Instruments shall be inspected prior to
installation to insure that
A. the instruments are approved for the type of
aircraft.
B. the range of the dial marking is adequate to reflect
correct operation of the aircraft power plant or
equipment and to precisely indicate the appropriate
operating limitation.
C. the range of any coloured sector marked on
instrument dials corresponds with the ranges specified
in the aircraft flight manual or aircraft/engine
manufacturer manual as applicable.
D. All are correct.
894. Aircraft magnetic compasses shall be calibrated
and compensated
A. at the time of initial installation of a compass.
B. as specified in operator's MS manual.
C. after installation of a new electrical system.
D. All are correct.
895. Flame resistant material as per CAR Series X
part IV
A. is not susceptible to combustion to the point of
propagating a flame after ignition source is removed.
B. susceptible to combustion or to the point of
smouldering.
C. which will not catch fire at all.
D. which will not ignite fire to any material.
896. The test flight is not necessary for an engine
change in an aircraft
A. having 4 engines.
B. having 2 engines.
C. having single engine.
D. only C above is wrong.
897. On a two-engine aircraft, a test flight after an
engine change is
A. mandatory.
B. not mandatory.
C. mandatory for aircraft above 5700 kg AUW.
D. mandatory for aircraft above 15,000 kg AUW.
898. A fire-proof metal plate is affixed on the aircraft
to indicate
A. C of A number and its date of issue.
B. name of manufacturer and date of manufacturer.
C. name and address of registered owner, registration
mark.
D. smoking is permitted.
899. Regarding the log books, mark the correct
statement:
A. In engine log book repairs are entered in section-
III.
B. In propeller log book, major repairs are entered in
section-2.
C. Log book entry must be made within 24 hours.
D. Component log book must be preserved for six
months after permanent withdrawal of component.
900. Aircraft having AUW less than 15000 kg should
have seats upholstery, harness, belts etc. are made of
A. self-extinguishing materials.
B. flame resistance materials.
C. no smoking type materials.
D. flame proof materials.
901. Validity or C of A in case of imported aircraft
shall
A. be six months.
B. be one year.
C. begin from the date of issue of Indian C of A.
D. begin from the date of issue of original export of C
of A and will normally be for a period of one year.
902. Validity of C of A would remain continuous
A. if the inspection is carried out more than one
month in advance of the expiry date.
B. if the inspection is carried out not more than 15
days in advance of the expiry date.
C. if the inspection is carried out not more than 7 days
in advance of the expiry date.
D. if the inspection is carried out not more than 30
days in advance of the expiry date.
903. If an aircraft makes a series of take-offs on the
same day, the pre-flight inspection may be carried out
A. before each take-off.
B. after every three take-offs.
C. once before the first flight of the day.
D. None is correct.
904. Jet aircraft allowed to be imported into India for
air taxi operations/charter hire for public transport
shall not
A. be more than 15 years in age.
B. be more than 10 years in age.
C. be more than 12 years in age.
D. None is correct.
60
905. Jet aircraft allowed to be imported into India by
DGCA for air-taxi operations/charter hire for public
transport shall not
A. have completed 50,000 pressurization cycles.
B. have completed 45,000 pressurization cycles.
C. have completed 30,000 pressurization cycles.
D. have completed 40,000 pressurization cycles.
906. DGCA would not allow any aircraft to be
imported for operation if it is more than
A. 50 years old.
B. 25 years old.
C. 20 years old.
D. 15 years old.
907. Turbo-prop aircraft allowed to be imported into
India by DGCA for air taxi operation for public
transport shall not be
A. more than 20 years in age.
B. more than 15 years in age.
C. more than 10 years in age.
D. None is correct.
908. Turbo-prop aircraft allowed to be imported into
India by DGCA for air taxi operation for public
transport shall not have
A. completed 50,000 pressurization cycles.
B. completed 45,000 pressurization cycles.
C. completed 40,000 pressurization cycles.
D. completed 30,000 pressurization cycles.
909. For the import of tools/equipments required for
maintenance/testing etc. of imported aircraft the
importer
A. should contact FAA.
B. should contact CAA.
C. should contact DGCA.
D. should obtain No Objection Certificate from
DGCA.
910. For the export of aircraft spares/items of
equipment to be overhauled abroad in certain
exigencies the operator shall
A. obtain a No Objection Certificate from DGCA.
B. contact the aircraft manufacturer.
C. contact the airworthiness authority of place of
manufacturer.
D. Both b and c are correct.
911. Fuel in delivery hoses should be recirculated if
no fuel has been dispensed from on in relation for a
period of
A. 7 days.
B. 3 days.
C. 2 days.
D. 24 hours.
912. All refuelling tanks shall be cleaned
A. once in two years.
B. once a year. 921. Fuel taken out of fuel bulk storage and aircraft
C. once in six months. fuelling vehicle for checking the state of fuel should
D. every month. be at least
A. 5 gallons.
913. All-lined tank should be inspected for lining B. 3.5 to 4.5 gallons.
defects and internally inspected for cleanliness C. 0.75 to 1 gallon.
A. every five years. D. None is correct.
B. every three years.
C. every two years. 922. Master gauges for checking fuel samples shall be
D. every year. calibrated once in
A. 10 years.
914. Fuelling vehicles should be purged of water and B. 5 years.
sediments C. 2 years.
A. once in three days. D. once a year.
B. once in two days.
C. every day. 923. Primary Indicator colour for AVGAS pipeline is
D. every week. A. Red.
B. Black.
915. Hose and protection filters of 100 mesh gauze C. Violet.
should be inspected D. Yellow.
A. every day.
B. every week. 924. Primary Indicator colour for Jet A-1 pipeline is
C. every fortnight. A. Red.
D. every month. B. Black.
C. Violet.
916. Water sampling extraction pits should be D. Yellow.
checked for water
A. daily. 925. Tank bottom sample of ATF shall be tested for
B. weekly. microbiological growth
C. monthly. A. once in two years.
D. yearly. B. once in 18 months.
C. once in a year.
917. Barrelled AVGAS is fit for use in aircraft if it is D. once in 6 months.
stored for a period less than
A. 12 months. 926. Aviation delivery hoses shall confirm to
B. 9 months. A. I.S./BS/API Specifications.
C. 6 months. B. IS/BS/DGCA Specifications.
D. 3 months. C. IS/DAW/BS Specifications.
D. IS/BS/DAW Specifications.
918. Barelled ATF is fit for use in aircraft if it is
stored for a period of less than 927. Deliveries of AVGAS from the vehicles should
A. 12 months. be made through a micrfilter with a nominal rating of
B. 9 months. A. 20 microns.
C. 6 months. B. 15 microns.
D. 3 months. C. 10 microns.
D. 5 microns.
919. AVGAS should be dispensed direct into aircraft
tanks only through 928. Vehicles delivering aviation turbine fuels should
A. 100 mesh gauze. be fitted with a microfilter or a filter separator monitor
B. 150 mesh gauze. with a nominal rating of
C. 180 mesh gauze. A. 20 microns.
D. 200 mesh gauze. B. 15 microns.
C. 10 microns.
920. Fuel is assessed as unsatisfactory for use in D. 5 microns.
aircraft if a sample shows
A. Globules of water. 929. A hand glider if unpowered weighs less than
B. Cloudiness. A. 300 kgs (AUW).
C. more than a trace of sediment. B. 250 kgs (AUW).
D. All are correct. C. 200 kgs (AUW).
61
D. 150 kgs (AUW). A. pilot incharge.
B. AME.
930. A single-seater powered hang glider weighs less C. person authorized by the DGCA.
than D. None is correct.
A. 375 kgs (AUW).
B. 300 kgs (AUW). 939. Hang glider must be equipped with
C. 275 Kgs (AUW). A. Altimeter, ASI, rpm gauge.
D. 150 Kgs (AUW). B. Altimeter, ASI, rpm gauge, ELT.
C. Altimeter, ASI & ELT.
931. A double seater powered hang glider weighs less D. ASI & ELT.
than
A. 375 Kgs (AUW). 940. The examiner/instructor for hang glider must be
B. 300 Kgs (AUW). approved by DGCA and shall have
C. 275 Kgs (AUW). A. 50 hrs of hang glider.
D. 150 Kgs (AUW). B. 25 hrs of hang glider.
C. 10 hrs of hang glider.
932. A powered hang glider at full power in level D. 25 hrs of hang glider and at least 10 hours on dual
flight should not be capable of more than machine.
A. 100 knots calibrated air speed.
B. 90 knots calibrated air speed. 941. Reweighing of Aircraft of AUW more than 2999
C. 80 knots calibrated air speed. kg shall be done
D. 70 knots calibrated air speed. A. every 5 years.
B. every 3 years.
933. Hang glider shall have a power-off stall speed C. every 2 years.
not exceeding D. every year.
A. 50 knots calibrated air speed.
B. 40 knots calibrated air speed. 942. The first aid kit container shall be of
C. 30 knots calibrated air speed. A. white background with red cross.
D. 25 knots calibrated air speed. B. red background with white cross.
C. green background with white cross.
934. All hang gliders before flight must possess a D. white background with green cross.
A. Valid c of A.
B. permit to fly. 943. Standard weight for CREW for load calculation
C. Both a and b are correct. in civil registered aircraft is taken as
D. None is correct. A. 85 kgs.
B. 75 kgs.
935. All hang gliders must possess C. 70 kgs.
A. Valid C of A. D. 65 kgs.
B. permit to fly.
C. C or R. 944. Standard weight for PASSENGER for load
D. Both b and c are correct. calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as
A. 85 kgs.
936. Validity of permit to fly for hang glider is B. 75 kgs.
A. one year. C. 70 kgs.
B. six months. D. 65 kgs.
C. three months.
D. None is correct. 945. Standard weight for CHILDREN for load
calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as
937. Higher than 50 hours inspection schedules and A. 50 kgs.
overhaul of powered hang glider engine and its B. 40 kgs.
components shall be carried out by C. 35 kgs.
A. pilots. D. 30 kgs.
B. AMES.
C. persons authorized by the DGCA. 946. Standard weight for INFANTS for load
D. None is correct. calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as
A. 30 kgs.
938. Pre-flight inspection and inspection schedule B. 20 kgs.
upto 50 hours on powered hang glider is carried out C. 15 kgs.
by D. 10 kgs.
62
947. The second copy of load and trip sheet shall be 954. Glider is a
kept by the operator for a period of A. aircraft.
A. 5 years. B. airship.
B. 2 years. C. aerodyne.
C. 1 years. D. All are correct.
D. 6 months.
955. According to IAR 1937 aerial work Aircraft
948. Electromagnetic Interference whether conducted means an aircraft used for
or radiated can be categorized by A. an industrial or commercial purpose or any other
A. band width. remunerative purpose.
B. amplitude behaviour. B. as in (a) is not used for public transport.
C. waveform and occurrence. C. as in (a) also used for public transport.
D. All are correct. D. All are correct.

949. The occurrence of electromagnetic interference 956. 'Aerodrome' means any difinite or limited
can be categorized as A. ground or water are intended to be used either
A. periodic & random. wholly or in part for the landing or departing of
B. periodic & aperiodic. aircraft.
C. periodic & instant. B. as in (a) and includes all buildings & sheds.
D. Both a and b are correct. C. as in (b) and also includes vessels, piers and other
structures.
950. Global Positioning Systems (GPS) act as D. None is correct.
A. navigation equipment.
B. an aid to navigation. 957. An aircraft whose support in flight is derived
C. communication equipment. dynamically from the reaction on surfaces in motion
D. radar system. relative to the air is called
A. aerodyne.
951. An AME trainee clears paper I, II, III on HS 748 B. aeroplane.
aircraft of AME's licence examination. The operator C. gyroplane.
will consider him for grant of approval only after D. aerostat.
A. he clears the BAMEC in category 'PA'.
B. he has successfully completed a specific training 958. An aricraft supported in the air statically and
subsequent to obtaining of the BAMEC from the includes all airships and balloons is termed as
DGCA and adjugded fit for approval. A. aerodyne.
C. he has proved himself fit for approval before a B. aerostat.
board chaired by QCM. C. gyrostat.
D. None is correct. D. None of them.

952. In the event of an aircraft involved in an accident 959. Any machines which can derive support in the
required to be notified under aircraft rules 68 of the atmosphere from reaction of the air other than
aircraft rule 1937 reactions of the air against the earth surface is called
A. pilot in command of the effected aircraft can A. aeroplane.
always exercise the privilege of his pilot's licence as B. aircraft.
long as it is valid. C. aerostat.
B. co-pilot can always exercise the privilege of his D. aerodyne.
licence if he is permitted by the aircraft operator.
C. pilot in command and co-pilot can exercise the 960. A power driven heavier-than-air aircraft,
privilege of their licence only after obtaining special deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic
authorisation from the DGCA. reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given
D. None is correct. conditions of flight is termed as
A. aerodyne.
953. Aircraft should be flight tested B. aerostat.
A. at the time of C of A. C. aeroplane.
B. subsequent to maintenance repair or modification D. aircraft.
which effects operational or flight characteristic of the
aircraft. 961. A powe driven lighter-than-aircraft is a
C. on three engine aircraft, if two engines are changed A. airship.
a test flight shall be carried out. B. flying machines.
D. All are correct. C. aerostat.
63
D. All are correct. 970. Arms and ammunitions can be carried by air only
with the special permission of
962. An aeroplane capable of taking off from and A. director of Civil Aviation Security.
alighting on either land or a soled platform or water is B. commissioner of Airport Security.
called a C. DGCA.
A. seaplane. D. All are correct.
B. gyroplane.
C. hydroplane. 971. No alcoholic drink shall be consumed by the
D. amphibian. operating crew members
A. 6 hours before the commencement of the flight.
963. Kite is an B. 8 hours before the commencement of the flight.
A. aerodyne. C. 10 hours before the commencement of the flight.
B. aircraft. D. 12 hours before the commencement of the flight.
C. Both a and b are correct.
D. aerostat. 972. No animals/reptiles shall be carried by air
without permission from
964. Balloon is A. a doctor, authorised for it.
A. aerostat. B. NAA.
B. aerodyne. C. DGCA under rule 34-A.
C. kite. D. DGCA under rule 24-C.
D. All are correct.
973. Minimum age for solo control of aeroplane is
965. 'Contracting state' means any state which is for A. 16 years.
the time being a party to B. 17 years.
A. a convention on International Civil Aviation C. 18 years.
concluded at Chicago on December 7, 1944. D. 21 years.
B. a suit on International Civil Aviation concluded at
Chicago on December 7 1944. 974. Minimum age for solo control of glider is
C. an agreement on Indian Civil Aviation concluded A. 16 years.
at New York on December 7 1944. B. 17 years.
D. an agreement on Indian Civil Aviation concluded C. 18 years.
at Delhi on December 7, 1944. D. 21 years.

966. Convention means 975. Minimum age of issue of CPL is

A. the convention relating to ICAO. A. 16 years.
B. the convention relating to air safety. B. 17 years.
C. the convention relating to air traffic. C. 18 years.
D. the convention relating to International air safety. D. 21 years.

967. 'Dangerous goods' means 976. No paper containing printed matter shall be
A. explosive. dropped from aircraft unless written permission of
B. non-explosive. A. District Magistrate is obtained.
C. any good which is likely to endanger the safety of B. Commissioner of Police is obtained.
aircraft or person or thing on board the aircraft. C. Director Air Safety is obtained.
D. All are correct. D. Both a and b are correct.

968. Flying machine/s may be 977. For aircraft having a seating capacity of not less
A. helicopter. than 10 and not more than 50 passengers the number
B. aeroplane. of cabin attendents required are
C. gyroplane. A. one.
D. All are correct. B. two.
C. three.
969. State aircraft includes D. four.
A. military aircraft.
B. State Government aircraft. 978. contracting state as per aircraft rules means any
C. Central Government aircraft. state
D. All are correct. A. that has signed a bilateral agreement with a nother
state.

64
B. contracted for any particular condition for carriage D. None is correct.
of passengers.
C. which is for the time being a party to convention of 987. Slaughtering of animal is prohibited within
the ICAO. A. 5 km of aeroplane reference point.
D. which is for the time being a party to ICAO. B. a radius of 8 km of aerodrome.
C. a radius of 10 km of aerodrome reference point.
979. Aircraft rule 62 deals with D. a radius of 5 km of aerodrome reference point.
A. fee payable for all licence exams of DGCA.
B. fee payable for AME licence exams of DGCA. 988. Period of validity of aerodrome licence is
C. fee payable for renewaql of AME licence exam. A. one year.
D. Both b and c are correct. B. two years.
C. five years.
980. Aircraft 69 refers to D. ten years.
A. notification of accidents.
B. report on accidents. 989. Route guide contains
C. removed and preservation of damaged aricraft. A. communication facilities, navigation aids available
D. Both a and b are correct. on the route to be flown.
B. meterological minima for each of the aerodromes
981. When an accident occurs it has to be notified by to be flown.
the PIC/operator/owner to the C. instruments let down procedure for aerodrome on
A. DGCA. route.
B. District Magistrate. D. as in a.b.c and specific instruments for computation
C. DM & officer-in-charge of the nearest police of the quantities of fuel and oil to be carrie don board.
station.
D. as in (c) and (a). 990. An applicant for Assistant Flight Instructor rating
shall be of atleast
982. Information of accident to DGCA shall be made A. 19 years.
within B. 20 years.
A. an hour of occurrence. C. 21 years.
B. 12 hours of occurrence. D. 25 years.
C. 24 hours of occurrence.
D. 48 hours of occurrence. 991. Air traffic control service means a service
provided for purpose of
983. Initial accident information to DGCA shall A. signalling aircraft.
contain B. preventing collisions between aircraft.
A. nationality and registration marks of the aircraft. C. manoeuvring and obstruction.
B. the region in which the aircraft is based. D. All are correct.
C. cause of accident.
D. all are correct. 992. Cruising level means level maintained during
A. descent.
984. Passenger and crew's personal luggage shall be B. ascent.
removed from a wrecked aircraft under the C. straight and level flight.
supervision of D. significant portion of a flight.
A. a magistrate.
B. an officer of police department. 993. Area over which flight by aircraft is prohibited, is
C. an officer of CAD. A. the area included within in a radius of 1 km from
D. All are correct. the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay.
B. the area included within in a radius of 2 km from
985. Mails from a wrecked aircraft shall be removed the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay.
under the supervision of C. the area included within in a radius of 1 mile from
A. a magistrate. the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay.
B. an officer of CAD. D. the area included within in a radius of 2 mile from
C. an officer of post and telegraph department. the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay.
D. All are correct.
994. Student for issuance of student pilot licence shall
986. Investigation of accident is carried out in pass
A. one way. A. a written examination in air regulation aircraft and
B. two ways. engine aviation meteorology.
C. three ways.
65
B. a written examination in air regulation aircraft and
engine aviation meteorology air navigation.
C. an oral examination in air regualtion aircraft and
engine aviation meteorology.
D. an oral examination in air regulation aircraft and
engine aviation meteorology and air navigation.
995. An applicant for issuance of private pilot licence
shall produce evidence of having flown
A. 15 hours solo.
B. 20 hours solo.
C. 25 hours solo.
D. 30 hours solo.
996. Cross country flight for issuance of PPL licence
may be a flight to a point beyond
A. 10 nm from the aerodrome of departure.
B. 20 nm from the aerodrome of departure.
C. 30 nm from the aerodrome of departure.
D. 40 nm from the aerodrome of departure.
997. An applicant for issuance of private pilot must
have at least
A. one full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other
than the aerodrom of departure.
B. two full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other
than the aerodrom of departure.
C. three full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome,
other than the aerodrom of departure.
D. four full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other
than the aerodrom of departure.
998. The validity of PPL is
A. 12 months from the date of issue.
B. 24 months from the date of issue.
C. 12 months from the date of issue for person below
38 years of age.
D. 12 months from the date of issue for person above
38 years of age.
999. Night rating is valid only when the licence holder
has carried out 5 take-off and 5 landing by night as
pilot in command within the
A. preceding 3 months.
B. preceding 6 months.
C. preceding 9 months.
D. preceding 12 months.
1000. When two aircraft are approaching head on or
approximately so that there is a danger of collision
A. each shall alter its heading to the right.
B. each shall alter its heading to the left.
C. one shall dive and other shall climb.
D. all are correct.
1001. an overtaking aircraft is a aircraft that
approaches another from the rear on a line forming an
angle of less than
A. 60 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
66
B. 70 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
C. 80 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
D. 90 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
1002. When two or more heavier than aircraft are
approaching an airport for the purpose of landing
A. aircraft at higher altitude shall land first.
B. aircraft at lower altitude shall land first.
C. aircraft at higher altitude shall give way to aircraft
at the lower altitude.
D. aircraft at lower altitude shall give way to aircraft
at the higher altitude.
1003. Aerobatic in aircraft shall be carried out at a
height of at least
A. 500 m above the ground.
B. 600 m above the ground.
C. 1000 m above the ground.
D. 2000 m above the ground.
1004. VFR flight within a control zone shall not be
conducted if the ground visibility is less than
A. 3 kms.
B. 5 kms.
C. 8 kms.
D. 10 kms.
1005. VFR flight within a control zone shall not be
conducted if the ceiling is less than
A. 200 m.
B. 300 m.
C. 500 m.
D. 1000 m.
1006. Which of the signal means that grave and
imminent danger threatens and immediate assistance
is requested
A. a parachute flare showing red light.
B. a signal sent by radio telegraphy saying
"MAYDAY".
C. rocket or shells throwing red light.
D. All are correct.
1007. The two flag signals corresponding to the letter
NC of the international code of signal means
A. urgency signal.
B. assistance signal.
C. distress signal.
D. All are correct.
1008. Which of the following is an urgency signal?
A. Repeated switching on and off of the landing light.
B. Repeated switching on and off of the navigation
light.
C. a succession of white pyrotechnical light.
D. all are correct.
1009. A signal said by a radio telegraphy consisting of
spoken work "SECURITE" means
A. urgency signal. A. land on runway.
B. distress signal. B. land, take off on runway.
C. safety signal. C. taxi on tzxiway only.
D. All are correct. D. All are correct.

1010. A series of green flashes from aerodrome traffic 1018. A horizontal white dumbel with black bar
control means perpendicular to the shaft across each portion of the
A. clear to land. dumbel indicates that aircraft are required
B. clear for take off. A. to land & take off on runway only.
C. return for landing. B. other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways
D. All are correct. and taxiways.
C. taxi on taxi ways only.
1011. A steady red light directed towards the aircraft D. Both a and b are correct.
in flight means
A. aerodrome unsafe do not land. 1019. Crosses of white colour displayed horizontally
B. do not land for the time being. on the manoeuvring area indicates that area is
C. give way to other aircraft and continue circulating. A. fit for landing.
D. None is correct. B. fit for movement of aircraft.
C. unfit for movement of aircraft.
1012. A series of white flashes directed towards an D. None is correct.
aircraft in flight means
A. return for landing. 1020. A black ball displayed on a mast and clearly
B. return to starting point on the aerodrom. visible to the aircraft on the manoeuvring area
C. clear to take. indicates that
D. All are corret. A. the direction of take off is to be decided by PIC.
B. the direction of take off is to be verified with the
1013. Red pyrotechnical light directed towards an aerodrome control tower.
aircraft flight means C. the aircraft can take off from any direction.
A. stop approach. D. None is correct.
B. aerodrome unsafe do not land.
C. not with-standing any previous instructions do not 1021. The letter 'C' displayed vertically in black
land for time being. against yellow background indicates
D. All are correct. A. the place at which weather information are
available.
1014. A steady green light direted towards an aircraft B. the place at which report concerning air traffic
on the ground means services are made.
A. cleared for taxi. C. the place at which catering facility is available.
B. taxi clear of landing area in use. D. None is correct.
C. cleared for take off. 1022. Whoever wilfully flies any aircraft in such a
D. return to dispersal. manner as to cause danger to any person or to any
property on land or water or in air shall be punishable
1015. A series of red flashes directed towards an with imprisonment up to
aircraft on the ground means A. 3 months.
A. return to starting point on the aerodrome. B. 6 months.
B. aerodrome unsafe do not land. C. 9 months.
C. taxi clear of landing area in use. D. 12 months.
D. returned for landing.
1023. A signal man repeatedly crosses arms above his
1016. A horizontal red square panel with yellow head indicate
diagonals indicate that A. a straight ahead signal.
A. landing at the aerodrome is prohibited. B. a stop signal.
B. landing at the aerodrome is prohibited and the C. power cut signal.
prohibition is liable to be prolonged. D. All are correct.
C. special precaution must be observed in
approaching to land. 1024. Left arm downward, right arm repeatedly
D. special precaution must be observed in landing. moved upward and backward is a signal for
A. turn to y9our left.
1017. Horizontal dumbel indicates that the aircraft are B. turn to your right.
required to C. start right engine.
67
D. start left engine. 1033. For tail to star board point left arm down and
right arm brought from overhead vertical position to
1025. Arms down palm facing in-wards swing arms horizontal forward position repeating right arm
from extended position inwards in a signal for movement
A. chocks away. A. turn while backing.
B. insert chocks. B. straight back.
C. start moving. C. this bay.
D. cut power. D. all clear.

1026. Circular motion of right hand at head level with 1034. Arms extended horizontally sideways is a signal
left arm pointing to the engine is a signal to for hovering helicopter to
A. start engine. A. keep hovering.
B. start turning. B. move upward.
C. rate of turning. C. move downwards.
D. slow turning. D. None is correct.

1027. Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand 1035. Arms extended horizontally to the beckoning
across throat, palm downward is signal for upwards with palms turned up is a signal for hovering
A. slow down. helicopter to
B. cut motor. A. move side ways.
C. start engine. B. move down wards.
D. None is correct. C. move up wards.
D. None is correct.
1028. Arms down with palm towards ground then
moved up and down several times is a signal for 1036. Appropriate arm extended horizontally
A. slow down. sideways in direction of movement and other arm
B. speed up. swing in front of body in same direction, in a repating
C. expedite taxi. movement is a signal for hovering helicopters to
D. None is correct. A. move horizontally.
B. move partially.
1029. Arms down palms facing outwards swing arms C. move upwards.
outwards is a signal for D. move downwards.
A. slow down.
B. cut motors. 1037. Arms crossed and extended downwards in front
C. chocks away. of the body is a signal for hovering helicopter to
D. insert chocks. A. land.
B. move horizontally.
1030. Arms down with palms towards grounds, then C. move downwards.
either right or left hand waved up and down indicating D. move upwards.
that
A. slow down motor on left side. 1038. No pilot of a flying machine shall in his
B. slow down motor on right side. capacity as such pilot, fly for more than
C. slow down motor on indicated side. A. 100 hours during any period of 30 consecutive
D. None is correct. days.
B. 125 hours during any period of 30 consecutive
1031. Arms above head in vertical position with days.
palms facing inwards is a signal for C. 150 hours during any period of 30 consecutive
A. all clear. days.
B. this bay. D. 75 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days.
C. straight back.
D. slow down.
1039. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be
1032. Arms above head in vertical position palms preserved for a period of not less than
facing forward brought down quickly to horizontal A. 2 years for the date of last entry.
forward position repeating is a signal for B. 3 years for the date of last entry.
A. straight ahead. C. 4 years for the date of last entry.
B. straight back. D. 5 years for the date of last entry.
C. this bay.
D. all clear.
68
1040. An open rating is given for all conventional 1048. A person for issue of CPL shall undergo cross
types of aeroplanes having an AUW country flying test by day and shall consist of a flight
A. not exceeding 450 kg. on a stipulated route of not less than
B. not exceeding 500 kg. A. 150nm, with one full stop landing on designated
C. not exceeding 1000 kg. aerodrome.
D. not exceeding 1500 kg. B. 200 nm, with one full stop landing on designated
aerodrome.
1041. A pilot opting for open rating shall have not less C. 250 nm, with one full stop landing on designated
than aerodrome.
A. 150 hours of flight time as PIC. D. All are correct.
B. 200 hours of flight time as PIC.
C. 250 hours of flight time as PIC. 1049. Aircraft certified in experimental or amateur
D. 500 hours of flight time as PIC. category are those which are built for
A. Development or Research.
1042. For night rating a pilot must have at least B. Sports.
A. 20 hours of night flight as PIC. C. Education.
B. 50 hours of night flight as PIC. D. all are correct.
C. 100 hours of night flight as PIC.
D. 150 hours of night flight as PIC. 1050. Experimental or amateur built aircraft can be
flown only by persons having at least
1043. The projection on the earth surface of the path A. ATPL.
of an aircraft the direction of which at any point is B. SCPL.
usually expressed in degrees from true north is called C. CPL.
A. true heading. D. PPL.
B. magnetic heading.
C. track. 1051. DGCA inspection carried out in case of amateur
D. None is correct. built aircraft are
A. Pre-cover inspection.
1044. A radio-telegraphy signal consisting of group B. Final Airworthiness Inspection.
XXX means C. Precover and Final Inspection.
A. distress signal. D. None is correct.
B. urgency signal.
C. safety signal. 1052. Maintenance of amateur built aircraft can be
D. None is correct. carried out by
A. any AME.
1045. A radio-telegraphy signal consisting of group B. by any person acceptable to DGCA.
'TTT' means C. any approved person.
A. PAN PAN signal. D. All are correct.
B. urgency signal.
C. May-day signal. 1053. It is mandatory for amateur built aircraft that
D. safety signal. A. 50 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by
AME.
1046. The period of validity of a CPL for a person B. 100 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by
over 40 years but below 45 years is AME.
A. 24 months. C. 200 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by
B. 18 months. AME.
C. 12 months. D. 100 Hrs/C of A renewal to be carried out by AME.
D. 6 months.
1054. 'Permit to Fly' of an aircraft is valid
1047. A person for issue of CPL shall undergo cross A. for 3 months.
country flying test by night which shall consist of a B. for 6 months.
flight on stipulated route of not less than C. for 12 months.
A. 60 mm, returning to place of departure without D. Until C of A is issued.
landing elsewhere.
B. 100 mm, returning to place of departure without 1055. Initially the life of amateur built aircraft is
landing elsewhere. restricted to
C. 120 mm, returning to place of departure without A. 10 years.
landing elsewhere. B. 5 years.
D. None is correct. C. 2 years.
69
D. 1 year. 1062. The upper sample of fuel is taken from a depth
upto
1056. Experimental built aircraft will initially be A. 1/10th of the depth of the product below the top
limited to operation within an assigned flight test area surface.
for at least B. 1/8th of the depth of the product below the top
A. 50 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller surface.
combination. C. 1/6th of the depth of the product below the top
B. 25 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller surface.
combination. D. 1/4th of the depth of the product below the top
C. 10 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller surface.
combination.
D. 5 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller 1063. Fuel sampling shall be carried out preferrably
combination. before
A. 10 am.
1057. Amateur built aircraft will initially be limited to B. 8 am.
operation within an assigned flight test area for at C. 6 am.
least D. 5 am.
A. 50 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller
combination. 1064. pressure Gauges, Thermometers, Hydrometers
B. 40 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller used for inspection of fuel should be calibrated every
combination. A. 3 months.
C. 30 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller B. 6 months.
combination. C. 12 months.
D. 20 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller D. 2 years.
combination.
1065. A clean room as per CAR series I part IV
1058. The acceptable standard of Quality Assurance should always
for aircraft manufactured in India is A. be slightly pressurised.
A. ISO 9000. B. be slightly below the normal pressure.
B. ISO 9001. C. be at prevailing outside atmospheric pressure.
C. ISO 8000. D. be at sea level pressure.
D. ISO 2000.
1066. A clean room as per CAR series I Part IV in
1059. Global positioning system at present is accepted general should have a humidity level of not less than
as A. 10%.
A. an aid to navigation. B. 20%.
B. sole means of navigation. C. 30%.
C. a replacement to GNS. D. 40%.
D. none is correct.
1067. Certificate of First Aid Kit should be signed by
1060. Barreled AV Gas should be stored under cover, A. A doctor holding at least MBBS degree.
clear off the ground on their sides with the bungs B. A doctor holding at least MBBS degree and it
A. in the 3'O clock position. should also be endorsed by an AME.
B. in the 5'O clock position. C. Any Registered Medical Practitioner.
C. in the 7'O clock position. D. a and c are correct.
D. in 3 or 9'O clock position.
1068. Production Test Flight of 'Series' type of aircraft
1061. Fuel samples should be checked for can be carried out by
A. traces of sediments. A. a person holding at least CPL on that type of
B. Globules of water. aircraft.
C. Cloudiness. B. a person holding at least ATPL on that type of
D. All are correct. aircraft.
C. a person specifically endorsed for Test Flight.
D. a person holding at least CPL and approved by
DGCA to carry out production Test Flight.

70
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ) OF PAPER-2

1. Engineering Drawing is a representation of object: 9. Engineering Drawing gives the details of any
A. In Roman language. object:
B. As a graphic representation. A. Shape.
C. Printing. B. Size.
D. None of the above. C. All information required for manufacture or
inspection of the object.
2. Set squares are used in Engineering Drawing to D. Material.
draw.
A. Horizontal lines. 10. The instrument used to draw irregular curves of
B. Vertical lines. changing radius is called :
C. Straight lines. A. Bow compass.
D. All straight lines except horizontal lines. B. Compass.
C. French curve.
3. Compass is used in Engineering Drawing to draw. D. Divider.
A. Circles of 15 cm radius.
B. Draw circles of 30 mm radius without attachment 11. Thickness of Drawing board is :
bar. A. 15 mm.
C. Draw circles of 30 cm radius with attachment bar. B. 20 mm.
D. Draw circles of 30 mm radius with attachment bar. C. 26 mm.
D. 25 mm.
4. Eraser should be used to.
A. Erase the unwanted line. 12. The pencil used for drawing should be kept sharp
B. Erase the unwanted line. to stab should not be.
C. Erase the unwanted line without erasing the A. Less than 60 mm.
surrounding wanted lines. B. More than 85 mm.
D. Both B & C. C. Less than 75 mm.
D. More than 65 mm.
5. Dividers are used in Engineering drawing to.
A. Divide curved or straight line. 13. An angle which is more than 180 degree but less
B. To transfer dimensions from one part of the than 360 degree is ;-
drawing to another part. A. Obtuse angle.
C. Set off given distances. B. Straight angle.
D. All the above. C. Reflex angle.
D. Adjacent angle.
6. For fixing the paper draughting tape and chips are
used because. 14. When two angles together make 180 deg They are
A. It appears good. said to be.
B. It hold the drawing paper and board. A. Complementary angles.
C. It will not damage the paper or board. B. Supplementary angles.
D. Both B & C. C. Reflex angles.
D. Acute angles.
7. In the figure ellipse the line passing through center
perpendicular to major axis is called: 15. When two angles together make 90 deg they are
A. Shorter axis. said to be.
B. Minor axis. A. Supplementary angle.
C. Longer axis. B. Acute angle.
D. None of the above. C. Adjacent angle.
D. Complementary angle.
8. Engineering Drawing language for who are
engaged in: 16. Modern Roman letter is consisting of.
A. Manufacturing. A. Thick lines.
B. Inspection. B. Thin lines.
C. Maintenance work. C. Wide lines.
D. All the above. D. Heavy and light line.

71
17. In engineering Drawing normal lettering ratio D. Perspective.
height and width is.
A. 9:6. 26. In third angle projection method.
B. 6:2. A. The view from the above placed underneath and
C. 3:1. vice versa.
D. 7:4. B. The view from the above placed above and vice
versa.
18. Good style of lettering should aim at. C. The view from the left placed on the left and vice
A. Uniformity of thickness. versa.
B. Uniformity of shape, size and style. D. Both B & C.
C. Uniformity of spacing.
D. All the above. 27. In first angle projection method the projection are
made on.
19. At the bottom of the drawing sheet to make title A. Elevation projected on VP.
block the line used is. B. Plan projected on HP.
A. Thin line. C. End view projected on auxiliary plane (right to left).
B. Medium line. D. All the above.
C. Thick line.
D. Extra thick line. 28. The representation fraction or scale of drawing is
equal to.
20. Wider lines are drawn as. A. Length of object in the drawing by actual length of
A. Short dashes. the object.
B. Short and long dashes. B. Width of the object in the drawing by actual width
C. Short dashes closely and evenly spaced. of the object.
D. Short double dashes. C. Area of the object in the drawing by actual area of
the object.
21. The breaks used on cylindrical metal are often D. Either B or C.
refers to as.
A. F brakes. 29. In Binary subtraction, subtract 11011 from 10111
B. L brakes. A. -11011.
C. T breaks. B. - 00100.
D. S breaks. C. + 11011.
D. + 00100.
22. The following lines are drawn as thin lines.
A. Section lines. 30. Complement of a complement equal to
B. Center lines. A. Zero.
C. Outline. B. Complement.
D. Both A & B. C. One.
D. Original.
23. The ratio of the dimension of the drawing to the
corresponding dimension of the object is the. 31. The 1's compliment of a binary number is the
A. Isometric drawing. number that results when :
B. Oblique drawing. A. Each 0 is changed to 1 and vice-versa.
C. Representation factor. B. Each 0 is changed to 2 and vice-versa.
D. Both B & C. C. Each 0 is changed to 4 and vice-versa.
D. Each 0 is changed to 8 and vice-versa.
24. One of the three dimensional drawing but far side
will appear converging is known as : 32. Binary equivalent of 34.4(8) is :
A. Isometric drawing. A. 10100.1100.
B. Oblique drawing. B. 11000.0011.
C. Perspective drawing. C. 10011.0101.
D. Non pictorial drawing. D. 11100.100.

25. In Engineering drawing, if the length is drawn half 33. Among the following, the output device in a
the actual length and face at an angle of 450 drawing is computer is:
known as : A. Key board.
A. Isometric. B. Printer.
B. Cabinet. C. Mouse.
C. Cavalier. D. Joy stick.
72
34. Many dot matrix printers are: C. Compass.
A. Unidirectional. D. French curve.
B. Tri-directional.
C. Bi-directional. 43. In the blue print process, when sensitized paper is
D. Quadra-directional. washed in running water, the portion covered by black
tracing line turn in to:
35. Compass is used to draw circles of: A. Blue.
A. Up to 25 cm. B. White.
B. up to 10 cm. C. Red.
C. up to 20 cm. D. Green.
D. up to 15 cm.
44. Triangles or set squares comes in pair of:
36. T' Square is used for: A. 450- 1200- 1800 and 600 - 900 -1800
A. Drawing horizontal line. B. 450 - 600 -900 and 600 - 900. - 1800
B. Drawing vertical line. C. 450 - 900 - 450 and 300 - 900 - 600
C. Drawing curved line. D. 450 - 600 - 1800 and 300 - 900 - 600
D. Drawing semi circular line.
45. In convention of lines, thinnest line a draftsman is
37. Now a days fixing the paper on the board, the able to draw is:
following pins is used: A. 20 mm.
A. Drawing pin. B. 0.02 mm.
B. Round head pin. C. 0.20 mm.
C. Clips and tape. D. 0.002 mm.
D. Paper pin.
46. A good style of lettering should aim at:
38. Colour of paper usually used in Engineering A. Uniformity of thickness.
Drawing is: B. Uniformity of shape and size.
A. Black. C. Uniformity of spacing and style.
B. Blue. D. All the above.
C. Brown.
D. White. 47. The inclination angle in a slanting type of lettering
is:
39. If two angles together make 90 deg, they are said A. 95 deg.
to be: B. 85 deg.
A. Straight angle. C. 75 deg.
B. Complementary angle. D. 65 deg.
C. Reflex angle.
D. Adjacent angle. 48. An instrument used for making curve lines is
known as:
40. One of the three dimensional drawing far side will A. French curve.
appear converging is known as: B. File pad.
A. Isometric drawing. C. Shield.
B. Oblique drawing. D. Square.
C. Perspective drawing.
D. Non-pictorial drawing. 49. Leader lines are used for:
A. Decoration.
41. The special tool drafting machine marked on B. Projection.
drawing board does not cover the function of: C. Dimension.
A. T' Square. D. Section.
B. Set Square.
C. Compass. 50. In engineering drawing, a thick free hand irregular
D. Protractor. lines indicate:
A. Break line.
42. The drawing tool, which is used to draw or B. Section line.
measure such angle, which cannot be withdrawn with C. Adjacent parts.
set square is: D. Parts to be sectioned.
A. Protractor.
B. Bow compass.

73
51. When two angles together make 180 deg , they are B. Elevator.
said to be: C. Aileron.
A. Supplementary angle. D. Fin.
B. Complementary angle.
C. Acute angle. 60. Hinged rear positions of the main plane which
D. Obtuse angle. move in the same direction on Port and Star board
wings are:
52. A drawing of an entirely finished product with the A. Elevator.
components assembled together in the correct relative B. Aileron.
position is known as: C. Fin.
A. Detail drawing. D. Flaps.
B. Assembly drawing.
C. Pictorial drawing. 61. A fixed vertical surface affecting the directional
D. General drawing. stability of an aero plane is :
A. Rudder.
53. To show yards, feet and inches on a scale, the B. Fin.
scale will be suitably constructed as: C. Flaps.
A. Plain scale. D. Elevator.
B. RF scale.
C. Diagonal scale. 62. A fixed horizontal surface situated at the rear of an
D. Vernier scale. aircraft affecting the longitudinal stability is :
A. Main plane.
54. A thick small dash and two small dashes are used B. Fuselage.
in the line to express. C. Tail plane.
A. Long break. D. Fin.
B. Short break.
C. Cutting plane. 63. One of the thrust augmentation device used in jet
D. Hidden parts. engine is :
A. Exhaust pipe.
55. Dot matrix printer is an example of: B. Turbine.
A. Line printer. C. After burner.
B. Laser printer. D. Compressor.
C. Drum printer.
D. Character printer. 64. A supporting surface of a aerodyne is :
A. Main plane.
56. A keyboard is a most common: B. Tail plane.
A. Memory unit. C. Fuselage.
B. Input device. D. Fin.
C. Control device.
D. Output device. 65. The capacity of a material to absorb the energy in
elastic range.
57. A movable vertical surface for controlling the A. strength.
motion of an aerodyne about the normal axis is: B. stiffness.
A. Rudder. C. resilience.
B. Elevator. D. Resistance.
C. Aileron.
D. Fin. 66. The property being permanently extended or
flattened by hammering rolling or pressing without
58. The left side of an aircraft when facing the front as rupture.
seen from the cockpit is : A. Elasticity.
A. Star board. B. Swaging.
B. Port side. C. Malleability.
C. Rear side. D. Tenacity.
D. None of the above.
67. The property whereby a metal can be drawn out
59. Movable aerofoil situated at the rear end of each into a wire with out cracking.
wing and designed to impart a rolling movement to the A. Elasticity.
aerodyne about longitudinal axis is B. Ductility.
A. Rudder. C. Savaging.
74
D. Drawing. D. Extrusion.

68. The liability of a metal to fracture on receiving a 77. The body of a twist drill is lesser in diameter
blow or shock. towards the shank end by:
A. Malleability. A. 0.002".
B. Tenacity. B. 0.001".
C. Fusibility. C. 0.004".
D. Brittleness. D. 0.003".

69. The permissible difference in dimension to allow 78. Hide faced hammer is classified by:
for various fits is termed as : A. Size and weight.
A. Clearance. B. Type and weight of the head in ounce.
B. Allowance. C. Weight only.
C. Resistance. D. The number stamped on it.
D. Tolerance.
79. Slow and progressive deformation of a material
70. Pig Iron is. with time under a constant stress is called:
A. weak and brittle. A. Strength.
B. ductile and malleable. B. Creep.
C. Hard and Brittle. C. Resilience.
D. none of the above. D. Stiffness.

71. The cast steel is produced by : 80. The property of a material to resist heat and
A. Cementation process. electricity is known as.
B. Crucible process. A. Stiffness.
C. Open hearth process. B. Resistivity.
D. Electric process. C. Conductivity.
D. Ductility.
72. Pure iron has a tensile strength of :
A. 20 Tons /Sq.inch. 81. The straight part of the tread, which connect the
B. 18 Tons/ Sq Inch. crest and root is known as:
C. 55 Tons / Sq inch. A. Crest.
D. 50 Tons / Sq inch. B. Flank.
C. Root.
73. Pig iron is used as the basic material for producing D. Thread angle.
A. Cast iron.
B. Cast iron, wrought iron and steel by suitable 82. While soldering low voltage ceramic capacitors,
process. the soldering time should be kept less than 5 seconds,
C. Marking off and surface plate. and temperature should not exceed
D. Steel. A. 3500C.
B. 2000C.
74. The constituents of brass are: - C. 2250C.
A. Copper, Zinc. D. 2500C.
B. Copper, Tin.
C. Tin, Lead. 83. Hand brace is used for drilling small holes up to:
D. Copper, Lead. A. 1/2" diameter.
B. 1/8" diameter.
75. Metal is a substance which posses certain physical C. 1/4" diameter.
properties such as: D. 1" diameter.
A. They conduct heat or electricity.
B. They generally have ringing tones. 84. The accuracy of micrometer in metric system is:
C. They have metallic lusture or shine. A. 0.02 mm.
D. All the above. B. 0.01 mm.
C. 0.05 mm.
76. Forcing plastic material through die of required D. 0.04 mm.
shape by means of hydraulic pressure is called:
A. Plasticity. 85. Large component and number of parts can be
B. Swaging. soldered in one operation by:
C. Stamping. A. Hard soldering.
75
B. Sweat soldering. A. Flux.
C. Dip soldering. B. Solvent.
D. Silver soldering. C. Solder.
D. Wax.
86. A type of thread used for transmitting great
pressure in one direction only, is called: 95. Brazing is used to give strong joint for:
A. Worm thread. A. Brass.
B. Acme thread. B. Zinc.
C. Square thread. C. Nickel.
D. Buttress thread. D. Silver.

87. To calibrate the torque wrenches, the number of 96. In aluminothermic soldering iron, the source of
comparison reading required at least is: heat is:
A. Two times. A. Brazing lamp.
B. Three times. B. MOX tablet.
C. Five times. C. Electrical heating element.
D. Six times. D. Open flame.

88. In switch board connection, the red coloured cable 97. The key seat rule is made of:
is used for: A. Graphite carbon steel.
A. Earth line. B. Spring carbon steel.
B. Neutral line. C. Low carbon steel.
C. Live line. D. High carbon steel.
D. Lifeline.
98. All the precision instruments are made of:
89. The size of split pins is determined by its: A. Invar steel.
A. Diameter and colour code. B. Silver.
B. Diameter and length. C. Nickel.
C. Diameter and breadth. D. Steel.
D. Diameter and material.
99. The accuracy of the feeler gauge for measuring
90. The type of locking device suitable for Pressurised thickness is:
cabin, fuel and oil tanks is A. 0.001".
A. Nylon stiff nut. B. 0.004".
B. Phillips stiff nut. C. 0.005".
C. Air tight stiff nut. D. 0.003".
D. Nyloc cap nut.
100. The type of capacitor suitable for use in AC
91. Lubricating oil is graded by: circuits such as in AC motor starter is :
A. Colour. A. Paper capacitor.
B. Amount of hydro carbon present. B. Electrolytic capacitor.
C. Code. C. Polorised electrolytic condenser.
D. Viscosity. D. Non-polarized electrolytic capacitor.

92. Lubricant oil is mixture of: 101. The tenacity with which a magnetic material
A. Trichloroplylene. holds on to its magnetism is called :
B. Fluid lubricants. A. Coercive force.
C. Hydro carbon. B. Retentivity.
D. Non-leaded petrol. C. Coercivity.
D. Magnetic Hysterisis.
93. Use correct size of spanner so that:
A. The over tightening is avoided. 102. In DC generator staggering slots are used to
B. The time delay is avoided. minimize ripple in the.
C. The possibility of cross threading is avoided. A. Input voltage.
D. The bolt head or nut is not damaged. B. Input and out put voltage.
C. Output voltage.
94. A filler material used to join the parent metal is D. Output current.
known as:

76
103. The total capacitance in an electrical circuit A. Fleming's right hand rule.
having three capacitors of 2 micro farads, 3 micro B. Fleming's left hand rule.
farads and 6 micro farads connected in series: C. Faraday's law.
A. 11F. D. Lenz's law.
B. 11 mF.
C. 0.1 mF. 112. The total capacitance in electrical circuit having
D. 10 F. three capacitors of 2mF, 3mF and 6mF connected in
series is:
104. In iron cored transformer with 8: 1 ratio is A. 11 F.
connected to 120V mains, the voltage across B. 11 Mf.
secondary will be: C. 1 F.
A. 20 V. D. 1 mF.
B. 15 V.
C. 10 V. 113. By decreasing the flux, the speed a shunt motor
D. 25 V. will be:
A. Remain constant.
105. For high voltage the insulator used is: B. Increase.
A. Trace paper. C. Decrease.
B. Melinex. D. Diminish because torque is insufficient.
C. Impregnated.
D. Tissue paper. 114. Kirchoff's law are more comprehensive than
ohms law are used for solving:
106. Any machine converts mechanical energy into A. Electrical conductance.
electrical energy is known as. B. Electrical temperature co efficient.
A. Motor. C. Electrical resistance network.
B. Stator. D. Electrical net work.
C. Generator.
D. Amplifier. 115. Resistance offered by 100 cm length of wire having
an area of cross section of 100cm.sq. is called:
107. Fleming's right hand rule is used to find out the A. Specific temp. co- efficient.
direction of: B. Specific conductance.
A. Field. C. Specific co-efficient.
B. Motion of the conductor. D. Specific resistance.
C. Direction of induced emf.
D. Direction of current. 116. The isometric drawing represent three
dimensions of the object:
108. In delta connected alternators the 3 phase A. Lenght, breadth and height of the object.
windings are joined in: B. Breadth, height and are of the object.
A. Auto transformer. C. Height, lenght and circumference of the object.
B. Step up transformer. D. Length, breadth, height and depth of the object.
C. Step down transformer.
D. Voltage transformer. 117. Computer which doesn't compute directly with
the number is called :
109. In transformerif K is greater than one, then the A. Mini computer.
transformer is called: B. Micro computer.
A. Greater accuracy. C. Digital computer.
B. Robust in construction. D. Analog computer.
C. To provide equal amount of frequency.
D. Cooling purpose. 118. The number 17 octal is equivalent to binary :
A. 111.
110. The maximum value, positive or negative of an B. 1110.
alternating quantity is known as: C. 10000.
A. Time period. D. 1111.
B. Frequency.
C. Amplitude. 119. Which of the following is not octal number:
D. Cycle. A. 19.
B. 7.
111. The direction of motion of a DC motor is given C. 15.
by: D. 101.
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120. Junction diode is a : 129. Semiconductor memory in computer is based on
A. Bipolar device. A. Magnetic circuit operation.
B. Constant voltage device. B. Transformer operation.
C. Unipolar device. C. Transistor operation.
D. Constant current device. D. Non magnetic circuit operation.

121. A register stores : 130. The only function of a NOT gate is to:
A. One word of data. A. Stop a signal.
B. A byte. B. Re-complement a signal.
C. One instruction. C. Invert an input signal.
D. 4 bits data. D. Act as a universal gate.

122. Not gate is known as : 131. The first generation computer was introduced
A. Converter. with:
B. Inverter. A. Solid state transistors.
C. Rectifier. B. Vacuum tubes.
D. Amplifier. C. Chips.
D. IC's.
123. Computer hardware usually refers to :
A. Hard metallic component of a computer. 132. Pitot pressure is connected to:
B. Various associated program. A. Altimeter.
C. CPU. B. ROCI.
D. Central processor input/output devices and backing C. ASI.
storage. D. Cabin altimeter.

124. Which of the statement is correct : 133. Any error in indication of accelerometer along
A. NAND gate = Bubbled AND gate. the horizontal axis is cancelled by:
B. NOR gate =Bubbled OR gate. A. A strong coiled spring.
C. Bubbled OR gate = NAND gate. B. Two compensating sector gears.
D. AND gate = OR and NOR gate. C. The restraining springs.
D. The stop spring fitted both sides.
125. In high level language, the source program is
translated into object program with the help of : 134. The principle of accelerometer is that two masses
A. Computer. electrically suspended in parallel about:
B. Converter. A. Vertical axis.
C. Compiler. B. Arthwardship axis.
D. Translator. C. Fore and aft axis.
D. ' Z' Axis.
126. When an input electrical signal A=10100 is
applied to a NOT gate its output signal is a: 135. The type of damping used in accelerometer type
A. 01011. 480/01 is:
B. 10101. A. Eddy current damping.
C. 10100. B. Low viscosity oil type damping.
D. 00101. C. Air damping.
D. Calculated spring type of damping.
127. Truth table of a logic functions :
A. Summaries its output value. 136. Moving coil instrument can be used to measure:
B. Tabulates all its input conditions. A. AC only.
C. Displays all its input/output possibilities. B. DC and AC.
D. Is not based on the logic algebra. C. DC or rectified AC.
D. AC and pulsating DC.
128. A static memory is one that.
A. Is capable of storing binary information 137. The oscillation of the pointer about its final
indefinitely. deflected position in a indicating instrument is
B. Requires periodic restoration of information. minimized by:
C. Is volatile. A. Controlling force.
D. Has destructive read out. B. Damping force.
C. Restoring force.
D. Balancing force.
78
138. Moving coil instrument works on the principle 147. In ratio meter type thermometer, the two coils in
of: moving coil unit is so connected that the torque
A. Fleming's left hand rule. produced by them:
B. Fleming's right hand rule. A. Oppose each other.
C. Kirchoff's law. B. Assist each other.
D. Generator principle. C. Are in same direction.
D. Do not influence each other.
139. In bourden tube pressure gauge, the indicating
mechanism is coupled to the: 148. Variable capacitance of the tank circuit measures
A. Open end of the tube. the quantity of fuel in the fuel contents gauge
B. Free end of the tube. indicator in a form of:
C. Either a or b. A. Alternating current.
D. None of the above. B. Direct current.
C. AC or DC.
140. In bourden tube for measuring very high ranges, D. Fluctuating direct current.
the tube is made of:
A. Phosphor bronze. 149. The float arm type fuel content gauges work on
B. Mild steel. the principle of:
C. Beralium bronze. A. Selsyn transmission system.
D. Beralium copper. B. Desyn transmitting system.
C. Magnesyn transmission system.
141. In moving coil instrument, the temperature D. Variable capacitance system.
variation is compensated by:
A. The air gap between pole pieces and former. 150. In float arm type fuel content gauge, the pointer
B. A weak small permanent magnet. returns to off scale position by:
C. The variation of current in the moving coil. A. Hair spring.
D. Two hair springs coiled in opposite direction. B. A strong permanent magnet.
C. Coil.
142. In torque measuring system, indicator work on: D. Weak permanent magnet.
A. Selsyn system.
B. Desyn system. 151. The vapour pressure type thermometer is used
C. Data Selsyn system. for measuring:
D. Two wire Selsyn system. A. The temperature of engine oil.
B. Coolant temperature in liquid cooled engine.
143. The ammeter used to measure AC only is: C. Temperature of fuel in the tank.
A. Electromagnetic type. D. Humidity of air.
B. Permanent magnet type.
C. Induction type. 152. The unwanted screen current in a pentode valve
D. Moving iron type. is prevented by:
A. Capacitor.
144. In tachometer indicator, the pointer movement is B. Suppressor grid.
controlled by: C. Control grid.
A. The drag cup. D. Choke.
B. The permanent magnet.
C. A hair spring. 153. The common base PNP junction transistor has
D. The interaction of the magnetic fields. reverse biased arrangement between:
A. Emitter and base.
145. Oscillation of the pointer at lower range of Tacho B. Emitter and collector.
indicator may be due to: C. Collector and base.
A. Defective indicator. D. Base and emitter.
B. Synchronizing point is too low.
C. Two indicators are connected in parallel. 154. When the emitter/ base junction of a transistor is
D. Indicator not being in synchronism with generator. reverse biased, collector current:
A. Is reversed.
146. Tachometer indicator comprises a: B. Increases.
A. Three phase induction motor. C. Decreases.
B. Three phase, self starting synchronous motor. D. Stops.
C. Three phase synchronous motor.
D. Single phase, self starting synchronous motor.
79
155. If acid is splashed in eyes, it should be washed B. Cast Iron.
with : C. Pig iron.
A. 5% solution of soda bi carbonate. D. Both (a) and (c.).
B. 5% solution of soda bi carbonate and plenty of
water. 165. The properties of nickel are.
C. 2% solution of nitrogen. A. Hard, brittle ad corrosion resistant.
D. 5% solution of alkali and plenty of water. B. Hard, ductile, corrosion resistant, withstand high
tempt.
156. Pitching movement of a/c is controlled by: C. Soft, poor corrosion resistant and brittle.
A. Aileron. D. soft, ductile, malleable, corrosion resistant.
B. Rudder.
C. Elevator. 166. The carbon contents in the high carbon steel is.
D. Fin. A. 0 to 0.25 %.
B. 0.25 % to 0.75 %.
157. The constituents of Bronze are. C. 0.75% to 1.5 %.
A. Copper, Zinc. D. 0.75% to 1.25 %.
B. Copper, Tin.
C. Tin, Lead. 167. Cast iron is manufactured by.
D. Copper, lead. A. Cementation process.
B. crucible process.
158. The properties of Al are. C. Cupola furnace.
A. Light, ductile, soft and malleable. D. Open-hearth process.
B. soft, poor corrosion resistance and brittle.
C. soft, plastic, malleable and acid resistant. 168. Chisel are classified by:
D. soft, ductile and malleable. A. Shape overall length and width of the cutting edge.
B. Shape and overall length.
159. A great advantage of the electric furnace is : C. Material and size.
A. Very easy to operate. D. Type and cutting edge.
B. absence of gas fume and impurities.
C. no maintenance is required. 169. Hand vice are classified by weight :
D. very economical. A. In ounces.
B. In grams.
160. The blister steel is manufactured by : C. And length of the jaw.
A. Electric process. D. Of the body.
B. open hearth process.
C. Bessemer process. 170. Chisel used for cutting the narrow flat bottom
D. Cementation process. grooves is:
A. Flat chisel.
161. Plastic is an organic material, which shows the B. Cross cut chisel.
property of. C. Diamond point chisel.
A. Elasticity. D. Half round chisel.
B. Ductility.
C. Malleability. 171. The file used on soft material is :
D. Plasticity. A. Single cut.
B. Double cut.
162. Pig Iron contains an average about: C. Dreadnought.
A. 94% Iron and 4% carbon + remainder impurities. D. Rasp.
B. 98% Iron and 2% carbon.
C. 95 % Iron and 2 % carbon. 172. Files are classified by.
D. 97% Iron and 2 % carbon + 1 % impurities. A. Length, section cut and grade.
B. Type of material and size.
163. The properties of lead are: C. Type and overall length.
A. Soft, brittle and poor corrosion resistant. D. Length section and type.
B. Soft, ductile and malleable.
C. Soft, plastic, malleable and acid resistant. 173. Die nut is used for:
D. Malleable and corrosion resistant. A. Cutting external thread.
B. Cutting internal thread.
164. One of the purest forms of iron produced is : C. Cutting starting thread.
A. Wrought Iron. D. Clearing the damage thread.
80
174. The drill which is used for cutting the counter 183. Lubricant used for drilling High carbon and alloy
sinking holes are. steels.
A. Peg or Arboring drill. A. Turps or Kerosene.
B. Bottoming drill. B. Cutting oil or soapy water.
C. Rose bit drill. C. None.
D. Twist drill. D. Water.

175. Scribers are made of : 184. Reamers are classified by :

A. High carbon steel hardened and tempered. A. Type and size.
B. High carbon steel. B. Type material and size.
C. High carbon and alloy steel. C. Type size and length.
D. Alloy steel hardened and tempered. D. Type and angle of cutting edge.

176. Sharpening the scribes is done. 185. The taps are used for cutting.
A. On a grinding stone. A. Internal screw threads.
B. By smooth file. B. External screw threads.
C. By dead smooth file. C. Starting threads.
D. Either by smooth file or dead smooth file. D. Finishing threads.

177. Surface plates are classified by. 186. The tool used to rundown an existing thread that
A. Type material and size. has become burred or damaged, is :
B. Length and breadth. A. Die plate.
C. Type and weight. B. Second tap.
D. Type and Size. C. circular Die.
D. Die nut.
178. The accuracy of surface plates are tested by.
A. Vee blocks. 187. Screw drivers are classified by
B. Master Surface plate. A. Type material and size.
C. Fitter's square. B. Type and length of blades.
D. Vernier caliper. C. Width of the tip.
D. Length of the blade.
179. If the zero of the micrometer thimble crosses the
datum line. 188. Spanner are classified by
A. It is to be subtracted from the measurement. A. Type and length.
B. It is to be added to the measurement. B. Type material and size.
C. It is to be neglected. C. Type material and size of nut or bolt on which it
D. It is to be adjusted with the help of concealed nut. fits.
D. Type and size.
180. Play in the spindle threads of micrometer is taken
up by 189. The pliers used for lead bending of wires and
A. Using a 'c' spanner. lead forming are :
B. Adjusting anvil in the frame. A. Flat more pliers.
C. Adjusting the thimble on the spindle. B. Pliers round nose.
D. Adjusting a nut at the thimble end of the barrel. C. Half round nose pliers.
D. Pliers combination.
181. The lubricant used for drilling mild steel and
wrought iron is. 190. The property of resisting breakage when under
A. Kerosene. the application of a pulling force.
B. Soapy water. A. Tenacity.
C. Cutting oil or soapy water solution. B. Fatigue.
D. None of the above. C. Hardness.
D. Spinning.
182. Lubricant used for drilling magnesium and its
alloys. 191. The position on the crord line of an aerofoil at
A. None. which the resultant force act is:
B. Soapy water. A. Laminarised part of the air flow.
C. Kerosene. B. Pressurised part of the air flow.
D. Cutting oil. C. Centre of pressure.
D. Centre of gravity.
81
192. At the critical angle of attack, the flow of air A. Volatile memory.
from top surface of aerofoil becomes turbulent, which B. Non volatile memory.
is termed as : C. Main memory.
A. Burbling. D. Secondary memory.
B. Curling.
C. Knurling. 201. Daisy wheel printers is a :
D. Rolling. A. Non impact printer.
B. Impact printer.
193. In flight the lift of an aerofoil can be altered by: C. Ink jet printer.
A. Angle of attack only. D. Laser printer.
B. Speed of an a/c only.
C. Angle of attack and speed of an a/c. 202. For opening the existing file next time remember
D. Density and pressure of air. A. File name.
B. Pass word.
194. Lift is obtained at the expense of a certain C. Document name.
amount of horizontal force known as: D. none of the above.
A. Thrust.
B. Weight. 203. Laser printers is a :
C. Drag. A. Impact printer.
D. Forward movement. B. Non impact printers.
C. Drum printer.
195. Honey comb construction is often used in the D. Line printer.
manufacture of.
A. Flying control surface. 204. Stored data goes off from the computer memory
B. AC canopy. when the power supply is turned off is termed as :
C. Main plane. A. Volatile memory.
D. Tail plane. B. Non volatile memory.
C. Secondary memory.
196. MS dos file name is primarily ment for: D. Non of the above.
A. Plus 5 extension characters.
B. Plus 2 extension characters. 205. The commands that do not require any specific
C. No extension characters. files for being excuted and are brought into the
D. Plus 3 extension characters. memory as soon as the computer is switched on is
termed as :
197. A computer keyboard is a most common : A. Common commands.
A. In put device. B. External commands.
B. Out put device. C. Internal commands.
C. Electronic device. D. Acutal commands.
D. Mechanical device.
206. The first name in the file name of Dos can have :
198. All physical requirements to construct a A. 01 to 03 characters.
computer is known as : B. 01 to 08 charaters.
A. Software. C. only 05 charaters.
B. Hardware. D. Unlimited charaters.
C. Electronic components.
D. Mechnical components. 207. The main directory is called :
A. Files.
199. Before taking a printout of document all the B. Programmes.
spelling mistakes and the grammatical mistakes have C. Sub directory.
to be carried out MS word provides a helpful feature D. Root directory.
to carryout this task is called :
A. Check. 208. The memories that retain the stored data even
B. Spell check. when the power to the device is shut off is termed as :
C. Automatic spell check. A. Volatile memory.
D. Correction. B. Non volatile memory.
C. Secondary memory.
200. Booting is the process of loading the operating D. Non of the above.
system into main memory from :

82
209. To close the presentation file, click on the close C. Plenty of cold water.
option from the : D. 5% solution of soda bi-carbonate and plenty of
A. File menu. warm water.
B. End show.
C. Mouse bottom. 218. In the lead acid type of batteries, the positive
D. View menu. plate is made of:
A. Spongy lead.
210. To create a new file, the command used is : B. Carbon.
A. CopyCON <existing file name><new file name>. C. Iron oxide.
B. Copy CON <file name>. D. Lead per oxide.
C. Copy <cource drive:file name>.
D. Copy <destination drive:file name>. 219. Laminated steel core used is for transformers
instead of solid iron cores in order to:
211. Very large scale intergation circuits are A. Have more supply.
introduced in : B. Reduce eddy currents.
A. Second generation of Computers. C. Produce eddy currents.
B. First generation of computers. D. Reduce the weight.
C. Third generation of computers.
D. Fourth generation of computers. 220. The core of the transformer is laminated to:
A. Increase eddy current.
212. When you open a new document in work, the top B. Reduce eddy current.
and bottom margins are preset at : C. Increase output voltage.
A. 1 inch. D. Decrease output voltage.
B. 1.25 inch.
C. 2 inch. 221. Transformer is used in a circuit for:
D. 2.5 inch. A. Raising DC voltage.
B. Lowering DC and AC voltage.
213. Which of the following cannot be sensed by our C. Raising or lowering DC voltage.
sence organs : D. Raising or lowering AC voltage.
A. Software.
B. Hardware. 222. Variation of voltage in a circuit is obtained by
C. Soft and Hardware. fitting a:
D. None of the above. A. Transformer.
B. Suppressor.
214. You should save your active documents every C. Regulator.
A. 10 to 15 minutes. D. Rheostat.
B. 15 to 20 minutes.
C. 5 to 10 minutes. 223. The wattage of omni light is.
D. 20 to 25 minutes. A. 60w.
B. 45w.
215. The grammer you use while typing a command is C. 100w.
called : D. 25w.
A. Syntex.
B. Format. 224. In relation to amplitude modulation, the
C. PROM. disadvantage of frequency and phase modulation is.
D. EPROM. A. very heigh range.
B. very low range.
216. Capacity test on batteries are carried out: C. low range.
A. After every initial charge. D. heigh range.
B. Once in every three months.
C. Whenever capacity of the battery is suspected to be 225. In an alkaline charging room, boric acid solution,
low. first aid outfit, saw dust and boric acid crystals are:
D. All above. A. First aid.
B. Neutralising agents.
217. If acid is split in eyes, it should be washed with: C. Neutral agent.
A. Ammonia in diluted solution. D. First aid agents.
B. Olive oil.

83
226. When alkali acid has been split on skin or B. Ditto line.
clothing apply: C. Long break line.
A. Boric acid. D. Cutting plane line.
B. Boric acid followed by cool water.
C. Boric acid followed by warm water. 235. Dimension line should be placed:
D. Boric acid followied by sopy water. A. Horizontal to dimension line.
B. Perpendicular to dimension line.
227. The common form of threads used are : C. Close to the object.
A. V and sqare thread. D. Out side to feature wherever possible.
B. BAvthread.
C. Sqare and round thread. 236. Free hand and wavy line used for detail and
D. V and round thread. assembly drawing is represented by:
A. Short break line.
228. The type of sectional view used when a view is B. Ditto line.
needed showing both the exterior and interior C. Hidden line.
construction of a symmetrical object is: D. Focus line.
A. Full section.
B. Half section. 237. In engineering drawing the long dash and dot
C. Partial section. alternately placed to represent an alternate position or
D. Revolved section. indication of the limiting position of moving parts is
known as:
229. When the cutting plane cuts an object laterally or A. Indicating line.
cross wise it is called B. Long break line.
A. Longitudinal section. C. Phantam line.
B. Lateral section. D. Locus line.
C. Half section.
D. Cross section. 238. In engineering drawing thin long chain
represents:
230. In engineering drawing the minium length of A. False and developed view.
pencil stub to be kept as: B. Boundary lines.
A. 50mm. C. Hidden detail.
B. 30mm. D. Centre line.
C. 45mm.
D. 75mm. 239. Short and zig zag line is used to show:
A. Limited portion of a larger object.
231. set sqare are used for drawing the different lines B. Limited portion of a smaller object.
of C. Boundary line of any object.
A. Curved lines. D. Broken line of any object.
B. Oblique lines.
C. Vertical&inclined lines. 240. The dimension should not be scaled from blue
D. None above. print because:
A. Dimensions are always not be scale.
232. The hidden lines are to be drawn, the grade of B. Dimensions are inconsistant.
pencil used is : C. The Paper is subjected to slight shrinking due to
A. H. washing and drying up.
B. B. D. Dimensions may not beadequate.
C. HB.
D. 2 H. 241. The title block is located in the drawing sheet at
A. Top left hand corner.
233. In Modern roman letter type elementary strokes B. Bottom any corner.
are: C. Bottom right hand corner.
A. Vertical. D. Top right hand corner.
B. Horizontal.
C. Accented. 242. White lines can be added to a blue print even
D. Longitudinal. after printing process i s over by :
A. Ferric salt solution.
234. A line having one long and two short dashes B. Potassium terrocynide.
alternately and evenly spaced is: C. Ferro- prussiate.
A. Short break line. D. Strong washing soda solution.
84
243. The category of drawing, where sides will look D. Five categories.
smaller which are away from the viewer than that
which is near is: 251. To read workshop drawing of a mechine parts
A. Oblique drawing. means to make cut the sequ ence of operation in
B. Isometric drawing. process of:
C. Pictorial drawing. A. Manufacturing of parts.
D. Perspective drawing. B. Checking of parts.
C. Dismantling of parts.
244. The drawing which gives the drawing of a single D. Assembling of parts.
part which cannot be f urther sub divided is called:
A. Simple drawing. 252. In third angle orthographic plan view taken from
B. Assembly drawing. A. Left on the front elevation.
C. Detail drawing. B. Right on the front elevation.
D. Spot drawing. C. Top of the front elevation.
D. Bottom of the front elevation.
245. Type of drawing shows a number of components
in an assembled condition to from a self contained 253. In four stroke cycle engine the cycle of operation
unit is: comprises of :
A. Detailed drawing. A. 2 revolution of the crank shaft.
B. Assembly drawing. B. 1 revolution of the crank shaft.
C. General arrangement drawing. C. One upward and one down ward movement of the
D. Auxiliary drawing. piston.
D. One upward and two down ward movement of the
246. In engineering drawing, the projection of the top piston.
side of the object o n the horizontal plane is called:
A. Front elevation. 254. In turbojet engine the initial ignition is rovided
B. Plane. by :
C. Single plane. A. Sparking plug.
D. Side elevation. B. Compresion ignition.
C. Hot ignition.
247. The chief characteristic of third angle projection D. Igniter pump.
is that each view i s so placed that it represents the
side of the object: 255. The compressor's main parts are :
A. Remote from it in the adjacent view. A. Compressor, rotor and diffuser.
B. Near to it in the adjacent view. B. Compressor, diffuser and zet nozzle.
C. Opposite to it in the adjacent view. C. Turbine, exhaust pipe and compressor.
D. At an angle to it in the adjacent view. D. Compressor, rotor and zet nozzle.

248. The projection consists of plan and side view, but 256. The electric field of the primary coil is mode to
arranged in such a way that each view is drawn to collapse to generate high voltage in secondary coil by
represent that nearside of adjacent vie w is: the help of :
A. First angle projection. A. Choke.
B. Third angle projection. B. Contact breaker.
C. Orthographic projection. C. Rectifier.
D. General section view. D. Sealed discharge gap.

249. In orhtographic drawing, the object is imagined 257. The principle of electric starter is to convert the
to be placed in front of a vertical plane known as: A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy.
A. Front elevation. B. Electrical energy into mechanical energy.
B. Horizontal plane. C. Magnetic energy into electrical energy.
C. Ground plane. D. Magnetic energy into mechanical energy.
D. Reference.
258. The purpose of a vent line on the top of a fuel
250. Orthographic projection are classified in number tank is to :
of categories accordi ng to the object placed in the A. Over flow the excess fuel.
four quadrants are : B. Vent fuel vapour to atmosphere.
A. Two Categories. C. Reduce the fire risk.
B. Four Categories. D. Vent fuel vapour and maintain differential
C. Three Categories. atmospheric pressure.
85
259. Altimeter works on the principle of : D. Steering arm.
A. Moving coil milivolt meter.
B. Thermocouple. 268. The towing apparatus used in conjuction with a
C. Aneroid. towing vehicle for pull ig light aircraft forward is
D. Dynamic pressure. A. Towing frame.
B. Towing bridle.
260. At high altitude pilot is provided with oxygen to C. Towing bridle aof wire cable.
avoid : D. Lightly manufactured towing arm.
A. Loss of judgement and giddiness.
B. Blood pooling and frost bite. 269. What is the operatus to be used for aircraft with
C. Loss of judgement and forst bite. tail wheel for towin g forward on soft or uneven
D. Loss of vision and blood pooling. ground :
A. Towing bridle and steering arm.
261. Jet pipe temperature gauge is a : B. Towing arm or bar.
A. Moving coil milivolt meter. C. Towing bridle of wire cable.
B. Moving coil volt meter. D. Towing frame.
C. Ohm meter.
D. Power meter. 270. While marshalling arms repeatedly moved
upward, back ward, back on-ing on ward will indicate
262. The air speed indicator works on : :
A. Static pressure. A. Stright ahead.
B. Dynamic pressure. B. Stright backward.
C. Difference between pitot and static pressure. C. Slow down engine.
D. Bowden tube principle. D. Chocks away.

263. The induced EMF in exhauset gas temperature 271. A ladder mounted on wheels with a working
gauge depends upon : platform adjustable for high t is :
A. Material of thermocouple. A. Swing back ladder.
B. Difference between hot junction and cold junction B. Special elevating ladder.
temperature. C. Shelt ladder.
C. Velocity of gas. D. Swing ack flat ladder.
D. All above.
272. Damage to the hyd system of pillar hyd jack is
264. Aircraft fuel tanks are not normally left empty or prevented by providing :
partially empty ove r night This is to : A. Small over flow holes at the upper end of pressure
A. Ensure long life of the tank. cylinder.
B. Avoid gum formation. B. Small over flow holes at the lower end of pressure
C. Ensure setting of sediments. cylinder.
D. Prevent water contamination. C. Cut out valve.
D. Vent valve.
265. Aircraft must not be left overnight with partially
empty tanks because rapid condensation is liable to 273. For dealing with small gasolene, oil or kerosene
take place in :- fire the fire extingu sher used is :-
A. Reservoir. A. CO2.
B. Refuellers. B. Soda acid.
C. Fuel tanks. C. CTC.
D. Fuel rankers. D. Pyrene fire extingusher.

266. For aeroengine ground run a suitable fire 274. For servicing large aircraft the servicing ladder
extingusher to be positioned is :- used is :-
A. CTC. A. Shell ladder.
B. CO2. B. Special elevating ladder.
C. Methyl Bromide. C. Swing back ladder.
D. Foam type. D. Swing back flat ladder.

267. The aircraft should be towed on soft ground by :- 275. In aircraft marshalling signals, if right or left arm
A. Towing arm. down, other arm moved accross body and entended
B. Towing frame. will indicate :
C. Towing bridle. A. Turn which backing tail to port/stbd.
86
B. All clear marshalling finished. C. Pulse receiving power.
C. Proceed under guidance to next marshaller. D. Peak receiving power.
D. Slow down port engine/stbd engine.
284. The light rays flows in sinusoidal path in:
276. Marshalling signals of arms down palm facing A. step index fibre.
out wards swing arms from extended postion out B. Mono index fibre.
wards wil indicate : C. Graded index fibre.
A. Chocks away. D. Single index fibre.
B. Insert chocks.
C. Slow down engine. 285. Black box is a:
D. Stop engine. A. Ground equipment.
B. Trans-receiver.
277. On of the main advantages of CO2 as an C. Air-borne device.
enxtinguishing agent is : D. Test equipment.
A. Its rapidity of discharge.
B. It prevent burning and makes to starve fire. 286. Digital flight data recorder is located in.
C. Being inert gas it effectively blankets a fire. A. cockpit.
D. It cuts of the oxygen. B. ATC.
C. CUR.
278. On receipt of AOG demand the senior logistic D. Black-box.
officer is to ensure for identifications tally with
standard publication and signals to be send to : 287. The number of satellites to cover the whole earth
A. BRDs. by INTELSAT is:
B. Appropriate Equipment depot. A. two.
C. Civil agency. B. three.
D. Manufacturer agency. C. four.
D. five.
279. Prior to starting of aero engines the suitable type
of fire enxtinguis her to be positioned is : 288. Laser stand for:
A. CTC. A. Light amplification by stimulated emission of
B. CO2 type. radiation.
C. Methyl bromide. B. Light amplification by simulated emission of
D. Foam. radiation.
C. Light amplification by stimulated emmission of
280. Signalling by left arm extended forward radiowaves.
horizontally cleanched right h and making horizontal D. Light amplification by simulated emission of
slicing movement below the left palm, downward is electric radiation.
for :-
A. Winch down. 289. The otto cycle consists of.
B. Winch UP. A. Two constant volume line and two adiabatic.
C. Hover. B. Two constant volume line and a adiabatic line.
D. Release load. C. One constant volume line and Two adiabatic.
D. Two constant volume line only.
281. The fire extinguisher which is designed primarily
to extinguish aircra ft engine starting up fire is : 290. Radius gauges are used to check the:
A. Methyl bromide. A. Out side circumrence of a component.
B. CO2. B. Inside circumference of a component.
C. CTC. C. Inside radius of a component.
D. Foam. D. Inside or outside radius of a component.

282. CRT stands for: 291. A metric micrometer having a plus error of 0.01
A. Code rate timer. mm, when set to 8.5mm on barrel scale and 31
B. Cathode ray tube. divisions on thimble scale, the actual measurem ent
C. Clutter reduction technique. will be :
D. Call relay timer. A. 8.8 mm.
B. 8.81 mm.
283. PRP stands for: C. 8.79 mm.
A. Peak repetition period. D. 11.59mm.
B. Pulse repetition period.
87
292. The lenght of the vernier scale of a metric vernier C. Lead screen.
caliper 24/25 syst em is: D. Wooden screen.
A. 0.5 mm.
B. 1 mm. 301. While using ultrasonic flowdector air gap
C. 12 mm. between the probe and the su rface under tests
D. 49 mm. eliminated by:
A. Use of rubber padding.
293. DTI (metric system) is designed to read a range B. Use of rubber boots.
of: C. Applying oil.
A. 1 mm left or right. D. Clamping the probe tightly.
B. 0.5 mm clockwise.
C. 0.5 mm counterclockwise. 302. In the order of corrodibility the least corrodable
D. 0.5 mm clockwise and 0.5 mm anticlockwise. metal is:
A. Chromium.
294. In bevel protractory one vernier scale division is B. Nickle.
equal to: C. Alluminium.
A. 5 minutes. D. Erass.
B. 15 minutes.
C. 55 minutes. 303. Light alloys and stainless steel are:
D. 115 minutes. A. Susceptable to intercrystaline corrosion.
B. Not susceptable to corrosion,ht.
295. In screw pitch gauge (or profile gauge) the C. Susceptable to surface.
number of teeth per teeth per inch is marked on: D. susceptable to corrosion due to galvanic action.
A. Tip of first blade.
B. Body. 304. To file concave surface and elongating circular
C. Tips of last blade. opening, the standard section of file used is:
D. Each blade. A. Round.
B. Half round.
296. Limit gauges are used to determine: C. Three square.
A. High limit dimension. D. Square.
B. Low limit dimension.
C. Internal and external dimension. 305. If the point of a scriber is blunt it is to be:
D. Internal dimension within specified limit. A. Sharpened on oil stone.
B. Sharpened on grinding wheel but dipped into water
297. The angle between the cutting edge and axis of time to time to protect its temper.
the drill is called: C. Sharpened by using a file to avoid over heating.
A. Clearence angle. D. Discard the scriber and chage with a new one.
B. Web angle.
C. Flute angle. 306. Surface plates are made from:
D. Cutting angle. A. Cast iron.
B. Wrought iron.
298. For enlarging the size of hole and bushes,the C. Pig iron.
reamer used is : D. High carbon.
A. Hand expanding reamer.
B. Shell reamer. 307. While using scribing the bent end of scribed
C. Hand taper reamers. should point:
D. Hand parallel reamers. A. Upwards.
B. Downwards.
299. Prior to drilling hole,to locate drill center C. Towards your right.
punching is done by a ce nter punch having angkle of: D. Towards your left.
A. 450.
B. 900. 308. While using scribing block lines can be scribed
C. 600. paralled to the edge o f the table with the help of :
D. 1200. A. Straight end of the scriber.
B. Bent end of the scriber.
300. Electro magnetic crack detection is applid to: C. Marker piece.
A. All types of metals. D. Dowels.
B. Fabric screen.

88
309. Key seat rule is made of B. 50 mm to 65 mm.
A. Low carbon steel hardened and tempered. C. 60 mm to 75 mm.
B. High carbon steel hardened and tempered. D. 50 mm to 75mm.
C. Medium carbon steel case hardened.
D. Plain carbon steel annealed and normalised. 318. Diminishing resistance to fracture caused by
fluctuating stresses is t ermed as:
310. Fitters square is made of A. Toughness.
A. Medium carbon steel hardened. B. Hardness.
B. High carbon steel hardened and tempered. C. Fatigue.
C. Vanadium (blade) and mild steel (stock). D. Brittlennes.
D. Spring steel and cast iron.
319. The capacity of a material to return to its original
311. The legs of the callipers are curved outwards at diensions on the removal of distorting forces :
the extrimities is kn ow as; A. Elasticity.
A. Jenny callipers. B. Conductivity.
B. Out side callipers. C. Ductility.
C. Inside callipers. D. Tenacity.
D. common callipers.
320. The capacity of material to observe the energy in
312. Spanners used in restricted spaces is; electrical range is called.
A. Splined tube spanner A. Elasticity.
B. Peg spanner. B. Tenacity.
C. crow foot spanner. C. Resilience.
D. Terry set. D. Resistivity.

313. A metric micrometer having minus error 0.02mm 321. The property of being permanently extended or
when set to 7 5mm on bar rel scale and 13 divisions flattened by hammering r olling or pressing without
on thimble scale ,the actual measurement will be; rupture is known as :
A. 7.61mm. A. Tenacity.
B. 7.63mm. B. Malleability.
C. 7.65. C. Softness.
D. 7.67mm. D. Plasicity.

314. If the spindle of micrometer is worn out ,the 322. The property of resisting breakage when
errour shown by the micr ometer should by : subjected to bending sudden bl ow or twist is termed
A. Subtraced from the reading. as;
B. Added to the reading. A. Hardness.
C. Ignored. B. Brittleness.
D. micrometer is not to be used. C. Toughness.
D. fatigue.
315. In external metricmeter of 25-50mm size, if the
thimble is rotated for four complete turns from 'o'the 323. The resistance offered by material for
reading will be: deformation at the elastic state is.
A. 25.04mm. A. Strength.
B. 27mm. B. Toughness.
C. 24.96mm. C. Ductility.
D. 2.00mm. D. Stiffness.

316. The minimum measurement that can be taken 324. The slow and progressive deformation of
with collar with the largest extension rod of an material over a period of time under a constant stress
internal metric micrometer is: and elevator temperature is called.
A. 265mm. A. Conductivity.
B. 285mm. B. Creep.
C. 235mm. C. Plasticity.
D. 325mm. D. Tenacity.

317. The smallmest size of extension rod avilable in a 325. A permissible range of dimensions of finished
set of 50mm to 300mm metric internal micrometer is: components provided to cover unavoidable
A. 50 mm to 100 mm. inaccuracies in manufacture is:
89
A. Allowance. C. Mix of kerosene and lubricating oil with french
B. Clearance. chalk.
C. Tolerance. D. Mix of trichlorethylene and lubricating oil with
D. Variation. french.

326. The class of fit suitable for various type of 334. The flourescent solution remaining in the flows
moving parts is: or cracks will reveal clearly as;
A. Driving fit. A. Bright lines or patches of light .
B. Running fit. B. Dull red in colour with broken lines.
C. Push fit. C. Thin black lines or bright patches.
D. Force fit. D. Thin red lines with bright patches.
327. Type of fit suitable for detachable or locating
parts is: 335. Hammers are classified by its :
A. Force. A. Weight and number stamped on the side.
B. Interference. B. Type and weight of the head in ounces.
C. Transition. C. Type and weight of the head in grammes.
D. Clearance. D. Number stamped on the side of the head.

328. The key fits into a key-way in the shaft and will 336. A common grade file used for ordinary
transmit high power is: engineering work where finish is not important is:
A. Feather key. A. Dead smooth.
B. Flat saddle key. B. Second cut.
C. Woodruff key. C. Bastard.
D. Gib headed key. D. Rough.

329. Colour of small stainless steel bult which has no 337. The length of file is measured between:
recognised standard marking is: A. Shoulder to the tip of blade.
A. Brown lacquer. B. Full length.
B. Blue. C. Shoulder and tang end.
C. Green anodic. D. Teeth cut portion end to end.
D. Yellow lacquor.
338. To induce toughness to a new file process used
330. Aluminium alloy nuts are identified by: is:
A. Washed face machined on one face of a nut. A. Pickling.
B. Washed face machined on both face of a nut. B. Pinning.
C. Letter 'L'stamped on one side. C. breaking in.
D. Letter 'AA' stamed on one side. D. Draw filing.

331. To identify a brass nut of 9/16 inch BSF, left 339. The property of resisting breakage when under
hand thread the code le tter marked on the face of the the application of pulling force is known as.
nut is; A. Elasticity.
A. PBL. B. Tenacity.
B. BPL. C. Ductility.
C. LPB. D. Conductivity.
D. BLP.
340. A plain carbon ateel with carbon content of 0
332. The hot fluid chalk method is used where: 67% is;
A. A small component can be removed. A. Low carbon steel .
B. A big component can be removed. B. Medium carbon steel.
C. A small component can not be removed. C. Blister steel.
D. A big component can not be removed. D. high carbon steel.

333. What is the mixture used in cold fluid chalk test 341. Eliments added to steel to get greater
method of crak detec tion: strength,toughness and resistan e to fatigue is:
A. Mixture of methylated of fruit and french chalk. A. Chromium.
B. Lubricating oil and french chalk. B. nickel.
C. Tungsten.
D. Molybdenum.

90
342. Property induced by adding 3% of chromium to 350. To secure maximum strength and hardness to
alloy steel is: duralumin which have been a nnealed must be:
A. Strength. A. Age hardened.
B. Toughness. B. solution treated.
C. Hardness. C. Precipitation treated.
D. Hardness at high temperature. D. Anodised.

343. The element added with steel to get the great 351. Duralmin tubing should be solution treated:
strength,greater resista nce to fatigue is. A. Prior to bending or flaring.
A. Cobalt. B. After bending or flaring.
B. Tungsten. C. Prior and after bending or flaring.
C. chromium. D. only on rebending or flaring.
D. Vanadium.
352. What type of heat treatment is given to brass:
344. 'Y' alloy is used for making: A. Hardening.
A. Air craft structural parts. B. Case hardening.
B. Piston and cylinder heads. C. Annealing.
C. Stressed skin of aircraft. D. Blueing.
D. Rivts.
353. When alumium alloy is quenched from high
345. Indicate the false statement Modulation is used temperature the excess copper comes out of solution
to. This is known as:
A. reduce the bandwidth. A. Decoppering.
B. separate differing transmissions. B. Annealing.
C. ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over C. Evaporation.
long distance. D. Precipitation.
D. allow the use of practical antennas.
354. Advantage of case hardening by nitriding process
346. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed is:
from 0 to 1 The transmitted power is: A. Retention of hardness at low temperature.
A. Unchanged. B. Retention of hardness at high temperature.
B. Halved. C. The depth of hardened case may be 0.08".
C. Doubled. D. It is easy and cheap.
D. Increased by 50%.
355. Which of the following process does not require
347. In communication system noise is most likely to quenching after case h ardening:
affect the signal. A. open hearth process.
A. At the transmitter. B. Box.
B. In the information source. C. Nitriding.
C. In the channel. D. cyanids.
D. At the destination.
356. If a body is stressed beyond it elastic limt, the
348. In a broadcast Superheterodyne receiver, the. strain thus produced will not retreat completely on
A. local oscillator operates below the signal removal of force This residual or rema ining strain is
frequency. called:
B. Mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency. A. Sheer stress.
C. Local oscillator frequency is normally double the B. Tensile strain.
RF. C. permanent set.
D. RF amplifier normally works at 455 KHz above D. Tensile stress.
the carrier frequency.
357. Electro-magnetic crack detection method is
349. One of the following cannot be used to remove suitable for the components made of :
the unwanted sideband in SSB This is the A. Magnesium alloy.
A. Filter system. B. nickle chromium.
B. Phase shift method. C. ferrous metal and can be magnetised.
C. Third Method. D. Non ferrous metals:
D. Balanced Modulator.

91
358. Non distructive tests of crack detection are D. Interference drag.
preferred because they:
A. Are cheaper and faster. 366. If the aspect ratio of wing is higher, the effect of
B. Can be used easily. it will:
C. Do not damage the component. A. Increase the induced drag.
D. Can be used at any part of the component. B. Decrease the induced drag.
C. Keep the aircraft stable while landing.
359. The flourescent solution remaining in the flows D. Keep the aircraft stable while taking off.
or cracks will reveal clearly as:
A. 367. If the aspect ratio is higher, the induced drag is:
B. A. Higher.
C. B. Lower.
D. C. Constant.
D. Increased.
360. When testing a component for crack detection by
flourescent dye penetr ant method,the flows will: 368. Lift is obtained at the expense of a certain
A. Reveal as violet lines or patches under ultra violet amount of horizontal forc is known as:
rays. A. Thrust.
B. Show bright lines or patches under ultra violet rays. B. Weight.
C. reveal bluish lines or patches under ultra C. Drag.
violetrays. D. Forward movement.
D. Show thin black lines or patches under ultra vilot
rays. 369. The principal factor affecting induced drag is:
A. Plan form of the wing.
361. While performance x ray crack detection the B. Shape of fuselage.
operations are protected f rom stray radiation by: C. Design of the tail plane.
A. Metal screen. D. Type of control surfaces.
B. Fabric screen.
C. Lead screen. 370. The point on the main plane at which the
D. Wooden screen. boundary layer changes from laminar flow to
turbulent flow is:
362. Lift is obtained at the expense of a certain A. Stagnation point.
amount of horizontal forc is known as: B. Transition point.
A. Thrust. C. Critical point.
B. Weight. D. Separation point.
C. Drag.
D. Forward movement. 371. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is
doubled The noise power generated is therefore:
363. At the critical angle of attack, the flow of air A. halved.
from top surface of aerofoil becomes turbulent which B. quadrupled.
is termed as. C. doubled.
A. Burbling. D. unchanged.
B. Curling.
C. Knurling. 372. Indicate the noise whose source is in the category
D. Rolling. different from that of the other three.
A. Solar noise.
364. The point on the main plane at which the B. Cosmic noise.
boundary layer changes from laminar flow to the C. Atmospheric noise.
turbulent flow is. D. Galactic noise.
A. Stagnation point.
B. Transition point. 373. In a low level AM system amplifier is following
C. Critical point. the modulated stage must be.
D. Separation point. A. Linear devices.
B. Harmonic devices.
365. Drag which varies inversely to the square of the C. Class C amplifier.
indicated air speed i. D. Non linear devices.
A. Profile drag.
B. Wing drag. 374. If the carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is
C. Induced drag. suppressed the percentage power saving will be.
92
A. 50.
B. 150.
C. 100.
D. 66.6.
375. One of the following is not a useful quantity for
comparing the noise performance.
A. Input noise voltage.
B. Noise temperature.
C. Equivalent noise temperature.
D. Noise figure.
376. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by the two
Sine waves with the modulation indices of 0.3 and
0.4; the total modulation index is.
A. 1.
B. cannot be calculated unless the phase relations are
known.
C. 0.5.
D. 0.7.
377. In the spectrum of frequency modulated wave.
A. The carrier frequency disappears when the
modulation index is large.
B. The amplitude of any sideband depends on the
modulation index.
C. The total number of sidebands depends on the
modulation index.
D. The carrier frequency cannot disappear.
378. A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise
immunity by.
A. boosting the bass frequencies.
B. amplifying the higher audio frequencies.
C. pre-amplifying the shole audio band.
D. converting the phase modulation to FM.
379. Indicate which one of the following is not an
advantage of FM over AM.
A. better noise immunity is provided.
B. lower bandwidth is required.
C. the transmitted power is more useful.
D. less modulating power is required.
380. Indicate the false statement regarding the
advantage of SSB over double sideband, full carrier
AM.
A. More channel space is available.
B. Transmitter circuit must be more stable, giving
better reception.
C. The signal is more noise resistant.
D. Much less power is required for the same signal
strength.
381. The most commonly used filters in SSB
generation are.
A. Mechanical.
B. RC.
93
C. LC.
D. Low-pass.
382. In a radio receiver with simple AGC.
A. an increase in the signal strength produces more
AGC.
B. the audio stage gain is normally controlled by the
AGC.
C. the faster the AGC time constant, the more
accurate the output.
D. the highest the AGC voltage is produced between
stations.
383. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is
tuned to the frequency higher than the incoming
frequency.
A. To help the image frequency rejection.
B. To permit easier tracking.
C. Because otherwise an intermediate frequency could
not be produced.
D. To allow adequate frequency coverage without
switching.
384. If the intermediate frequency is very high
(indicate the false statement).
A. Image frequency rejection is very good.
B. The local oscillator need not be extremely stable.
C. The selectivity will be poor.
D. Tracking will be improved.
385. One of the following cannot be used to
demodulate SSB.
A. product detector.
B. diode balanced modulator.
C. bipolar transistor balanced modulator.
D. complete phase shift generator.
386. Distance near The skip distance should be used
for sky wave propagation.
A. to avoid tilting.
B. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference.
C. to avoid the faraday effect.
D. so as not to exceed the critical frequency.
387. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by
means of.
A. Ground waves.
B. Sky waves.
C. Surface waves.
D. Space waves.
388. The ground wave eventually disappears, as one
moves away from the transmitter, because of.
A. interference from.
B. loss of line of sight conditions.
C. maximum single hop distance limitation.
D. tilting.
389. To provide two or more voice circuits with the
same carrier, it is necessary to use.
A. ISB. A. 3 full adders and one half ader.
B. Carrier. B. 4 full adders.
C. SSB with pitot carrier. C. 4 full subtractors.
D. Lincompex. D. 3 full subtractors and one half subtractors.

390. In EM waves polarization is. 399. A Flip Flop is a.

A. caused by reflection. A. Astable Multivibrator.
B. is due to the transverse nature of the waves. B. Bistable Multivibrator.
C. results from longitudinal nature of the waves. C. Monostable Multivibrator.
D. is always vertical in an isotropic medium. D. None of the above.

391. The emitter of a transistor is doped. 400. In a Transistor if the base resistance is shorted it
A. to a lesser extent than collector. will be :
B. depends upon specification. A. Saturated.
C. heavily. B. Cut off.
D. so that most of emitter injected electron ea go to C. Destroyed.
the base of transistor. D. None of the above.

392. Basic drawback with base bias circuit is 401. The transistor of Class B push pull Amplifiers
A. the base and collecter power supplies are same. are biased at :
B. base and collecter resistors are returned to collector A. Cut off.
supply. B. Center of DC load line.
C. it cannot be used in switching circuits. C. Saturation.
D. Beta dc varies with current and temperature. D. Biasing is fixed by manufacturer.

393. In the collector feedback bias. 402. The varactor is usually.

A. the Beta dc generally varies. A. F Biased.
B. the base resistor is grounded. B. R Biased.
C. the base resistor is returned to the collector than to C. Unbiased.
power supply. D. In the breakdown region.
D. difficult to set a stable Q-point.
403. For nomal operation of the transistor the
394. Amplification factor for triode is given by. collector diode has tobe.
A. = rp/gm. A. F B.
B. = gm.rp. B. R B.
C. = gm/rp+gm. C. Non conducting.
D. None of the above. D. Operating in breakdown region.

395. The transistor used in power amplifier have. 404. If an amitter follower has V CEQ = 5V, ICQ
A. large current ratings. =mA and re = 1 K the maximum peak to peak
B. large voltage ratings. unclipped output is.
C. large power dissipating capacity. A. 1V.
D. neither of these characteristics. B. 2V.
C. 5V.
396. The input and output signals of a CE amplifier D. 10V.
are.
A. Always equal. 405. The common grade of files used to give good
B. Out of phase. finish quickly and has about 40 teeth per inch is
C. Always negative. called:
D. In phase. A. Rough.
B. Bastard.
397. (0.85) in binary is. C. Second cut.
A. 101010. D. Smooth.
B. 110110.
C. 011111. 406. Drills are classified by :-
D. 111100. A. Type, material and size.
B. Type, cut, width & blade.
398. A 1’s complement 4 bit paralles bibary subtractor C. Length, type and material.
requires : D. Size , length and cut.
94
 C. 25mm.
407. The material used to make precision instrument D. 15mm.
is known as :-
A. Stainless steel. 416. To find out the appropriate center of round bar,
B. INVAR steel. the clipper used is :
C. Cast Iron. A. Even leg clipper.
D. High Carbon steel. B. utside clipper.
C. Inside clipper.
408. The term " Hand brace" is associated with: D. Odd leg clipper.
A. Drilling.
B. Filing. 417. In lead acid battery (charged state) electrolyte
C. Screwing. used is.
D. Tinning. A. Dilute H2SO4.
B. Concentrated sulphuric acid.
409. The property whereby a metal can be drawn out C. KOH.
into a wire without cracking is known as : D. Unaffected.
A. Fusibility.
B. Plasticity. 418. In Ni-Cd battery (charged state), positive plate
C. Ductility. used is.
D. Tenacity. A. PbO2.
B. PbSO4.
410. These tools are used for gripping or cutting C. Ni2O2.
purpose : D. Cd.
A. Ring Spanners.
B. Lead Hammers. 419. In lead acid battery (discharged state), negative
C. Pliers. plate used is.
D. Dies. A. PbO2.
B. PbSO4.
411. The metal which is having the properties of soft, C. Ni(OH)2.
plastic, malleable and acid resistant is : D. Cd(OH)2.
A. Zinc.
B. Lead. 420. In lead acid battery (charged state) negative plate
C. Aluminum. used is.
D. Copper. A. PbO2.
B. PbSO4.
412. It is a process of shaping of metals by pressure or C. Ni(OH)2.
by hammer in a die of required shape is called: D. Cd(OH)2.
A. Stamping.
B. Forging. 421. (0.85) in binary is.
C. Stretching. A. 101010.
D. Swaging. B. 110110.
C. 011111.
413. The process by which a new file is first used on D. None of the above.
soft metal is called :
A. Breaking in. 422. In any group If 1’s are completely overlapped by
B. Pickling. other grouping, the group is called :
C. Safe edge. A. Overlap.
D. Pinning. B. Irredundant.
C. Redundant and should be eliminated.
414. In metric system Hacksaw blade length is D. None of the above.
measured from :
A. Centre to centre. 423. A 1’s complement 4 bit parallel binary subtractor
B. Edge to edge. requires:
C. Centre to handle. A. 3 full adders and one half adder.
D. centre to edge. B. 4 full adders.
C. 4 full subtractors.
415. The range of Micro-Meter is : D. 3 full subtractors and one half subtractors.
A. 35mm. 424. A Flip Flop is a.
B. 45mm. A. Astable Multivibrator.
95
B. Bistable Multivibrator. 433. To safe guard the finished surface of job against
C. Monostable Multivibrator. damage by the teeth of the vice jaws, clamps used are
D. None of the above. of :
A. Copper, steel and magnesium.
425. In a Transistor if the base resistance is shorted it B. Copper, lead and aluminium.
will be : C. copper, iron and aluminium.
A. Saturated. D. Silver foil, lead and aluminium.
B. Cut off.
C. Destroyed. 434. The plier suitable for holding screw heads and
D. None of the above. nuts :
A. Bernard.
426. The colour of corrosion on steel is. B. Hellerman.
A. Brown. C. Flat nose.
B. Black. D. Slip joint plier.
C. Gray.
D. Reddish brown. 435. Material used for insulation between commutator
segment is :
427. The process of shaping hot metals by means of A. Micanite.
hammer and presses in. B. Paxolin.
A. Stamping. C. Mica.
B. Forging. D. Ebonite.
C. spinning.
D. drawing. 436. Low carbon steel is having carbon content of :
A. 0.75% to 1.5%.
428. Aircraft parts like oleo legs and ball bearing are B. 0.25% to 0.75%.
plated with. C. 0.25% to 1.5%.
A. Nickel. D. Upto 0.25%.
B. chromium.
C. Zinc. 437. The capacity of an organic material to get deform
D. Cadmium. or change the shape under heat and pressure is :
A. Elasticity.
429. The least count of matric vernier caliper is. B. Resilience.
A. 0.001 ". C. Plasticity.
B. 0.01 mm. D. Extrusion.
C. 0.02 mm.
D. 1 mm. 438. While soldering LDRs and thermisters the
temperature should not exceed above.
430. The purpose of standard wire gauge is to A. 350 deg C.
measure : B. 250 deg C.
A. The clearance between two surfaces. C. 200 deg C.
B. The size of wires and sheets. D. 150 deg C.
C. The inside and outside radius of the component.
D. Slot widths and caliper settings. 439. If inter-crystalline corrosion is detected on
aircraft part, it should be :
431. The process of using a new file first on soft metal A. Electroplated.
is called : B. Replaced.
A. Draw filing. C. Covered with enamel paint.
B. Pinning. D. Given anodic treatement.
C. Pickling.
D. Breaking in. 440. Files, thin bladed of fine grade made out of
special steel, hardened and tempered are:
432. Hacksaw blade may loose its correct temper if it A. Equalizing file.
is : B. Geneva file.
A. Loosely fitted. C. Rasp file.
B. used with more pressure. D. Swiss file.
C. Cutting at faster rate.
D. Fitted too light. 441. Pin vice is used for holding:
A. Square jobs.
B. Small rods.
96
C. Bigger jobsBigger rods. C. Eliminating.
D. Bigger rods. D. Oration.

442. Needle files are used for: 451. First type of adding machine was invented by:
A. Making hole in the needle. A. John Napier.
B. Filing in odd places. B. Charles Babbage.
C. Pierce design work in thick metals. C. Blaise Pascal.
D. Pierce design work in thin metals. D. Dore Fiet.

443. Wardling files are used for: 452. Hybrid computer is a :

A. Filing the electrical contacts. A. Special purpose computer.
B. Pierced design work. B. Combination of analog and digital computer.
C. Making key and key ways. C. General purpose computer.
D. For curved surface. D. Digital computer.

444. Fine point pliers are used for: 453. Name the computer which doesn't compute
A. Removal of parts from restricted place. directly with the number:
B. Watch spring. A. Mini computer.
C. Holding small rods and pins. B. Micro computer.
D. Holding delicate parts. C. Digital computer.
D. Analog computer.
445. Bolley set screw drivers are usually available in:
A. 8 different sizes. 454. Digital computer is used for :
B. 3 different sizes. A. Business and engineering calculation.
C. 4 different sizes. B. To solve specific Programme.
D. 5 different sizes. C. To perform variety of a operation.
D. To solve navigational problem.
446. The metal having crystalline structure, becomes
very hard when chilled : 455. Flip flops are clocked to achieve :
A. Pig iron. A. Synchronization.
B. Wrought iron. B. Optimization.
C. Steel. C. More propagations time.
D. Cast iron. D. 'O' as output of all flip flop.

447. In a twist drill the narrow strips along the cutting 456. The number 17 octal is equivalent to binary :
edge of the blutes is known as : A. 111.
A. Shank. B. 1110.
B. Lands. C. 10000.
C. Body. D. 1111.
D. Axis.
457. Which of the following is not octal number:
448. One complete turn of the thimble of the A. 19.
micrometer gives a travel of : B. 7.
A. 0.5 cm. C. 15.
B. 0.1 cm. D. 101.
C. 0.5 mm.
D. 0.1 mm. 458. Junction diode is a :
A. Bipolar device.
449. Dividers are classified by : B. Constant voltage device.
A. The materials of the legs. C. Unipolar device.
B. The distance between the legs. D. Constant current device.
C. The perimeter of the arcs and circles.
D. the length of the legs. 459. A register stores:
A. One word of data.
450. Process of eliminating errors in computer B. A byte.
program is known as: C. One instruction.
A. De bugging. D. 4 bits data.
B. Rearranging.

97
460. To feed fresh program in the memory, use: 469. Semi conductor memory in computer is based
A. New. on.
B. List. A. Magnetic circuit operation.
C. Write fresh. B. Transformer operation.
D. Print. C. Transistor operation.
D. Non magnetic circuit operation.
461. Not gate is known as:
A. Converter. 470. Half adder is called so because it :
B. Inverter. A. Can add half the bits in a binary number.
C. Rectifier. B. Works for half time only.
D. Amplifier. C. Performs addition in two halves.
D. Can not accept a carry from previous additions.
462. Computer hardware usually refers to:
A. Hard metallic component of a computer. 471. The only function of a NOT gate is to:
B. Various associated program. A. Stop a signal.
C. CPU. B. Re-complement a signal.
D. Central processor input/output devices and backing C. Invert an input signal.
storage. D. Act as a universal gate.

463. The JK Flip flop out put changes with each 472. In a half adder when the input signal A=1 and
trigger when: B=1 the:
A. Both J and K are zero. A. Sum =1,carry=0.
B. J is zero k is one. B. Sum =1, carry =1.
C. K is Zero and J is one. C. Sum=0,carry=0.
D. J and K are both on. D. Sum =0,carry=1.

464. Which of the statement is correct:
A. NAND gate = Bubbled AND gate.
B. NOR gate =Bubbled OR gate.
C. Bubbled OR gate = NAND gate.
D. AND gate = OR and NOR gate.
473. A full adder consists of:
A. Two half adders cascaded together.
B. Two half adders and one OR gate.
C. Two half adders and one AND gate.
D. Two NAND gates.

465. In high level language, the source program is 474. The type of memory, which provides very large
translated into object program with the help of storage capability with.
A. Computer. A. Dynamic memory.
B. Converter. B. Magnetic disc memory.
C. Compiler. C. Magnetic memory.
D. Translator. D. Bi polar memory.

466. When an input electrical signal A=10100 is 475. The first generation computer was introduced
applied to a NOT gate its ouput signal is a with:
A. 01011. A. Solid state transistors.
B. 10101. B. Vacuum tubes.
C. 10100. C. Chips.
D. 00101. D. IC's.

467. Truth table of a logic functions: 476. Second generation of computer started with the
A. Summaries its output value. introduction of transis.
B. Tabulates all its input conditions. A. 1950.
C. Displays all its input/output possibilities. B. 1958.
D. Is not based on the logic algebra. C. Early 60.
D. Late 70.
468. A static memory is one that.
A. Is capable of storing binary information 477. John Napier invented.
indefinitely. A. First type adding machine.
B. Requires periodic restoration of information. B. Computograph.
C. Is volatile. C. Logarithmic table.
D. Has destructive read out. D. Complex computer.

98
478. The input devices handles the flow of
information to the computer.
A. Prior to the execution of the program.
B. At the time of the execution of program.
C. After the execution of the program.
D. When ever the floe of information are required.
479. Control unit process the data using:
A. Input and out put unit.
B. AL.
C. ALU with the help of memory unit.
D. Only input unit.
487. General purpose high-level language is:
A. Cobol, FORTRAN, Lisp and basic.
B. D8 base Multiplan, pli and ALGOL.
C. FORTRAN, basic, pli ,ALGOL and d base.
D. Cobol, lisp, word processor and multi plan.
488. When 10111 base 2 is added to 101111 base 2
the result is.
A. 1000110 base 2.
B. 1001001 base 2.
C. 1100100 base 2.
D. 1010100 base 2.

480. 2's complement of 1000 is: 489. The binary equivalent of 12.5 base 10 is.
A. 1000. A. 1100.01 base 2.
B. 001. B. 1100.001 base 2.
C. 1110. C. 1010.01 base 2.
D. 0111. D. 1100.1 base 2.

481. Binary equivalent of decimal number 26 base 10 490. The process in which heat is transmitted from
is: one point to the other.
A. 10110 base 2. A. Conduction.
B. 11010 base 2. B. Convection.
C. 10111base 2. C. Radiation.
D. 11001 base 2. D. Evaporation.

482. The decimal equivalent of binary 101.11 base 2 491. If the dry bulb and wet bulb temperature are
is: known, the parameter can.
A. 5.75. A. Dew point of the air.
B. 6.75. B. Relative humidity.
C. 3.5. C. Grains of moisture.
D. 9.75. D. Dry bulb temperature.

483. In computer the data are processed by : 492. The process in which the heat is transferred from
A. Memory unit. one place to other.
B. Arithmetic logic unit. A. Conduction.
C. Control unit. B. Convection.
D. Out put section. C. Radiation.
D. Evaporation.
484. The instruction written in binary form is known
as : 493. Transfer of heat from one point to another is
A. High level language. carried out by:
B. Symbolic language. A. Conduction, convection and radiation.
C. Computer language. B. Transformation.
D. Machine language. C. Boiling and heating.
D. None of the above.
485. A Programme in any language above machine
language is called: 494. The process in which heat is transmitted from
A. A source program. one place to another place.
B. An object program. A. Conduction.
C. Derived program. B. Convection.
D. System program. C. Radiation.
D. Evaporation.
486. A binary number that is equivalent to octal
number 61 is. 495. T' Square is used for:
A. 111000 base 2. A. Drawing horizontal line.
B. 101010 base 2. B. Drawing vertical line.
C. 11000 base 2. C. Drawing curved line.
D. 110110 base 2. D. Drawing semi circular line.
99
496. The Acronym 'CAD' in engineering drawing 505. The weather proofing material used for push
represents: switches and terminal lugs are:
A. Computer aided drawing. A. PVC conduit.
B. Computer aided drafting. B. Cotton tape, rubber tape.
C. Computer aided design. C. Weather proofing caps.
D. Computer aided dimensioning. D. Washers and gaskets.

497. Colour of paper usually used in Engineering 506. The disturbance set up by the radio interference
Drawing is: originates as radiation of.
A. Black. A. High tension discharge.
B. Blue. B. High frequency AC.
C. Brown. C. Sparking at contacts.
D. White. D. Electromagnet waves at radio frequencies.

498. A new bush of correct dimension of correct hole 507. When under carriage is in the locked UP
to be fixed in the plate while re cond. position, the indication is :
A. Force fit. A. All red lights are ON.
B. Driving fit. B. All lights are OFF.
C. Push fit. C. All green lights are ON.
D. Running fit. D. All green lights starts flashing.

499. If the pivot is deeply pitted, do only: 508. The 200 Hrs servicing comes under :
A. Stoning. A. Minor star.
B. Lapping. B. Intermediate.
C. Lapping and grinding. C. Major.
D. Stoning and lapping. D. Minor.

500. During refueling the danger of sparking due to 509. The working voltage of a capacitor to which a.c.
static electricity is avoided by: or pulsating d.c. is applied should be
A. Bonding. A. the same as or greater than the applied voltage
B. Screening. B. at least 50 percent greater than the applied voltage
C. Weather proofing. C. 1.41 times the applied voltage
D. Switching off the aircraft battery. D. 707 times the applied voltage

501. During refueling or defuelling of an aircraft, 510. If a circuit contains 10 ohms of resistance, 20
there should not be any naked flame or. ohms of inductive reactance, and 30 ohms of
A. 10 ft. capacitive reactance, it is said to be
B. 200 ft. A. inductive
C. 100 ft. B. impedence
D. 50 ft. C. reluctance
D. inductive reactance
502. The correct replacement of an item, which has
previously been removed, is termed as: 511. The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of
A. Out fit. alternating current is calle
B. Correct fit. A. conductivity
C. Refit. B. impedance
D. Fit. C. reluctance
D. inductive reactance.
503. The fire extinguisher for electric fire is:
A. Normal extinguisher. 512. An increase in which of the following factors
B. Water methanol extinguisher. will cause an increase in the inductive reactance of a
C. Foam extinguisher. circuit?
D. Pyrene extinguisher. A. Inductance and frequency
B. Capacitance and voltage
504. Workman errors are caused due to lack of: C. Resistance and voltage
A. Knowledge. D. resistance and capacitive reactance.
B. Skill.
C. Experience.
D. All the above.
100
513. In an alternating current circuit the effective
voltage
A. is equal to the maximum instantaneous voltage
B. is greater than or less than the maximum
instantaneous voltage
C. may be greater than or less than the maximum
instantaneous voltage
D. is less than the maximum instantaneous voltage
519. which of these following will required most
electrical power during operation? (1hp=745 watts)
A. A 12 volt motor requiring 8 amperes
B. four 30 watt lamps in a 12 volt parallel circuit
C. two lights requiring 3 amperes each in a 24 volt
parallel system
D. a 1/10 hosepower, 24 volt meter which is 75
percent efficient

514. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is 520. How much power must a 24 volt generator
directly proportional to furnish to a system which contains the following
A. the distance between the plates and inversely loads?
proportional to the plate area UNIT RATING
B. the plate area and is not affected by the distance onemotor (75percentefficient)…. 1/5hp
between the plates three position lights …. 20 watts each
C. the plate area and inversely proportional to the one heating element…. 5amp
distance between the plates one anticollision light…. 3 amp(1hp=746 W)
D. the distance between the plates and is not affected A. 18.75 watts
by the plat area B. 402 watts
C. 385 watts
515. A transformer with a step-up rate of 0 to 1 has a D. 450 watts
primary voltage of 24 volts and a secondary amperage
of 0.20 ampere. What is the primary amperage 521. If a unit in a 28 volt aircraft electrical system has
(disregard Losses)? a resistance of 10 ohms, how much power will it use?
A. 1 ampere (1 hp = 746 watts)
B. 4.8 amperes A. 280 watts
C. 0.40 ampere B. 7.84 watts
D. cannot be determined from the information given C. 78.4 watts
D. 28 watts
516. What is the capacitive reactance in ohms of the
parallel a.c. circuit in Fig. 1? 522. A 12 volt electric motor has 1.000 watts input
A. 5 and 1 horsepower output. Maintaining the same
B. 20 efficiency, how much input power will a 24 volt, 1
C. 10 horsepower electric motor require?
D. 15 (1 hp = 746 watts)
A. 1,000 watts
B. 2,000 watts
C. 500 watts
D. cannot be determined from the information given

523. How many amperes will a 28 volt generator be

required to supply to a circuit containing five lamps in
parallel, three of which have a resistance of 6 ohms
each and two of which have a resistance of 5 ohms
each?
A. 1.11 amperes
517. What is the phase relationship between the B. 1 ampere
current and voltage in an inductive circuit? C. 0.9 ampere
A. the current lags the voltage by 00 D. 25.23 amperes
B. The current lags the voltage by 900
C. the current leads the voltage by 900 524. The wattage rating of a carbon resistor is
D. the current leads the voltage by 00 determined by
A. a gold band
518. Current flow is measured in terms of B. a silver band
A. amperes C. the size of the resistor
B. volts D. a red band
C. watts
D. electron flow

101
525. The potential difference between two conductors A. A
which are insulated from each other is measured in B. B
A. ohms C. C
B. volts D. D
C. amperes
D. coulombs

526. The ratio of the true power to the apparent power

in an a.c. electrical circuit is called the power factor. If
the true power and the power factor of a circuit are
known, the apparent power can be determined by
A. multiplying the true power times 100 times the
power factor
B. multiplying the power factor times 100 times the
true power
C. dividing the true power times 100 by the power
factor
531. If resistor R3 is disconnected at terminal D, what
D. dividing the power factor times 100 by the input
will the ohmeter read? (Fig. 4)
power
A. infinite resistance
B. 0 ohm
527. A 24 volt source is required to furnish 48 watts
C. 10 ohms
to a parallel circuit consisting of four resistors of
D. 20 ohms
equal value. What is the voltage drop across each
resistor?
A. 12 volts
B. 6 volts
C. 3 volts
D. 24 volts

528. When calculating power in a reactive or

inductive a.c. circuit, the true power is
A. more than the apparent power
B. more than the apparent power in a reactive circuit
and less than the apparent power in an inductive
circuit 532. With an ohmmeter connected into the circuit as
C. less than the apparent power in a reactive circuit shown, what will the ohmmeter read in fig 5?
and more than the apparent power in an inductive A. 20 ohms
circuit B. infinite resistance
D. less than the apparent power C. 0 ohm
D. 10 ohms
529. Determine the power furnished in watts by the
generator of the circuit in fig 2.
A. 288 watts
B. 24 watts
C. 48 watts
D. 12 watts

533. In Fig 6 how many instruments (meters &

ammeters) are installed correctly?
A. three
B. one
530. Concerned to Fig (3), all the resistance are of C. two
1000 ohms. Which among the above give an D. four
equivalent resistance of 1500 ohms?

102
 A. four terminals per stud
B. three terminals per stud
C. two terminals per stud
D. as many terminals as you can stack on and still
have the required number of threads showing through
the nut

541. What would be the measured voltage of the

series circuit in Fig. 7 between terminals A and B?
A. 1.5 V
B. 3.0 V
534. The secondary voltage of a transformer depends C. 4.5 V
upon the efficiency of the transformer and the rate of D. 6.0 V
the number of turns in the primary winding to the
A. number of turns in the secondary winding
B. amount of current flowing in the primary winding
C. material from which the core is constructed
D. distance separating the windings

535. The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a

circuit is
A. in series with a unit
B. between source voltage and the load
C. in parallel with a unit 542. the efficiency of power in an a.c. circuit is
D. to place one lead on either side of the fuse. expressed by what term?
A. volt-amperes
536. A cabin-entry light of 10 watts and dome light of B. true power
20 watts are connected in parallel to a 30 volt source. C. power factor
If the voltage across the 10 watt light is measured it D. apparent power
will be
A. one third of the input voltage 543. The current in a 60-watt, 120 volt electric light
B. twice the voltage across the 20 watt light bulb is
C. equal to the voltage across the 20 watt light A. 0.8 amp
D. half the voltage across the 20 watt light B. 2 amp
C. 1/3 amp
537. What device is used to measure the very high D. 1/2 amp
insulation resistance of electric cables?
A. high-resistance voltmeter 544. which of the following will require the most
B. moving iron-yane meter electrical power? (note: 1 hp = 746 watts)
C. megger A. four 30 watt lamps arranged in a 12 volt paralle
D. multimeter circuit
B. a 12 volt landing gear retraction motor which
538. Before troubleshooting an electrical circuit with requires 8 amperes when operating the landing gear
a continuity light, the circuit must be C. a 1/10 horsepower, 24 volt motor which is 75
A. connected to the aircraft battery percent efficient
B. connected to the aircraft generator D. a 24 volt anticollision light circuit consisting of
C. isolated two light assemblies which require 3 amperes each
D. connected to an external source of power during operation

539. A 14 ohm resistor is to be installed in a series 545. What unit is used to express electrical power?
circuit carrying 05 ampere. How much power will the A. Coulomb
resistor be required to dissipate? B. Volt
A. at least .70 milliwatt C. watt
B. at least 35 milliwatts D. ampere
C. less than .035 watt
D. less than .70 milliwatt
546. What is the operating resistance of a 30 watt light
540. What is the maximum number of electrical wire bulb designed for a 28 volt system?
terminals that can be installed on one stud? A. 30 ohms
103
B. 1.07 ohms 553. find the voltage across the 5 ohm resistor using
C. 26 ohms the drawing in Fig 8
D. 0.93 ohm A. 2.4 volts
B. 12 volts
547. Which of the following statements is correct C. 20.4 volts
when made in reference to a parallel circuit? D. 24 volts
A. the current is equal in all portions of the circuit
B. the current in amperes is the product of the EMF in 554. Find the total resistance of the circuit in fig 9
volts times the total resistance of the circuit . . . Ohms A. 16 ohms
C. the total current is equal to the sum of the currents B. 10.4 ohms
through the individual branches of the circuit C. 2.6 ohms
D. the current in amperes can be found by dividing the D. 21.2 ohms
EMF in volts by the sum of the resistors in ohms

548. Diodes are used in electrical power circuits

primarily as
A. current eliminators
B. circuit cutout switches
C. rectifiers
D. power transducer relays

549. If three resistors of 3 ohms, 5 ohms and 22 ohms

are connected in series in a 28 volt circuit, how much
current will flow through the 3 ohm resistor? 555. Which of the following is correct in reference to
A. 9.3 amperes electrical resistance?
B. 1.05 amperes A. two electrical devices will have the same combined
C. 1.03 amperes resistance if they are connected in series as they will
D. 0.93 amperes have if connected in parallel
B. if one of three bulbs in a parallel lighting circuit
550. A good conductor of electricity is a material removed, the total resistance of the circuit will
A. through or along which electrons move freely become greater
B. whose protons are all on the outside C. an electrical device that has a high resistance will
C. that contains few electrons have more power than one with a low resistance with
D. through or along which protons move freely the same applied voltage
D. a 5 ohm resistor at a 12 volt circuit will use less
551. A circuit has an applied voltage of 30 volts and a current than a 10 ohm resistor in a 24 volt circuit.
load consisting of a 10 ohm resistor in series with a 20
ohm resistor. What is the voltage drop across the 10 556. An electric cabin heater draws 25 amps at 110
ohm resistor? volts. How much current will flow if the voltage is
A. 15 votls reduced to 85 volts?
B. 10 volts A. 19.3 amps
C. 20 volts B. 44.0 amps
D. 30 volts C. 4.4 amps
D. 1.93 amps
552. find the total current flowing in the wire between
points C and D in Fig 8 557. Determine the total current flow in the circuit in
A. 5.0 amperes Fig. 10.
B. 2.4 amperes A. 0.2 amp
C. 3.0 amperes B. 1.4 amps
D. 0.6 amperes C. 0.4 amp
D. 0.8 amp

104
 B. 80 Ohms
558. The total resistance of thecircuit in Fig 11 is C. 120 Ohms
A. 25 ohms D. 240 Ohms
B. 35 ohms
C. 37 ohms 564. In Fig 12, the equivalent resistance of the circuit
D. 17 ohms is 20 ohms.Then the value of R2 is
A. 40 Ohms
B. 80 Ohms
C. 120 Ohms
D. 240 Ohms

559. A 48 volt source is required to furnish 192 watts

to a parallel circuit consisting of three resistors of
equal value. What is the value of eachresistor?
A. 36 ohms
B. 4 ohms
C. 8 ohms
D. 12 ohms

560. Which is correct concerning a parallel circuit?

A. total resistance will be smaller than the smallest
resistor
B. total resistance will decrease when one of the
resistances is removed
565. What would be the effect if the PCO relay in Fig
C. total voltage drop is the same as the total resistance
13 failed to operate when the left hand tank was
D. total amperage remains the same, regardless of the
selected?
resistance
A. The fuel pressure crossfeed valve would not open
B. the fuel tank crossfeed valve would open
561. The voltage drop in a conductor of known
C. the fuel tank crossfeed valve open light would
resistance is dependent on
illuminate
A. the voltage of the circuit
D. the fuel pressure crossfeed valve open light would
B. the amount and thickness of wire insulation
not illuminate
C. only the resistance of the conductor and does not
change with a change in either voltage or amperage
566. The TCO relay in Fig 13 will operate if 24 VDC
D. the amperage of the circuit
is applied to the bus and the fuel tank selector is in the
A. right hand tank position
562. An electric motor malfunctions causing it
B. crossfeed position
overheat, which will cause an incorporated thermal
C. left hand tank position
switch to
D. normal position
A. prevent an open circuit
B. break the circuit
567. With power to the bus and the fuel selector
C. close the circuit
switched to the right-hand tank (see Fig 13) how
D. break the circuit when cooled
many relays in the system are operated?
A. three
563. In Fig 12, the equivalent resistance of the circuit
B. one
is 20 ohms.Then the value of R1 is
C. two
A. 40 Ohms
D. four

105

Fig 13 Fig 14
Fig. 13

Fig. 14

Fig. 15

106
568. When electrical power is applied to the bus (Fig
13) which relays are engaged?
A. PCO and TCC
B. PCC and TCC
C. TCC and TCO
D. PCO and PCC

569. Energize the circuit with the fuel tank selector

switch selected to the left hand position. Using the
schematic in Fig 13, identify the switches that will
change position
A. 5,11,12,13,15,9,10
B. 5,6,3,7,11,13
C. 5,6,11,15,12,13
D. 5,7,11,15 A. no. 5
B. no. 13
570. Which of the components in fig 15 is a C. no. 8
potentioneter? D. no. 6
A. D
B. E 576. When the landing gears are up and the throttles
C. C are retarded (see Fig 16) the warning horn will not
D. M sound if an open occurs in wire
A. No. 5
571. In Fig 14, what electrical symbol is represented B. No. 7
at E? C. No. 13
A. Fixed capacitor D. No. 6
B. fixed resistor
C. variable resistor 577. Schematic diagrams indicate the location of
D. variable capacitor individual components in the aircraft
A. with aircraft station numbers of each component
572. When the landing gears are up and the throttles B. on the title block by federal stock number
are retarded (see Fig 15) the warning horm will not C. with respect to each other within the system
sound if an open occurs in wire D. with detail drawings of each component
A. no 4
B. no 2 578. when referring to an electrical circuit diagram,
C. no 9 what point is considered to be at zero voltage?
D. no 10 A. the ground reference
B. the current limiter
573. The control valve switch should be placed in the C. the fuse
neutral position when the landing gears are down (see D. the switch
Fig 15) to
A. permit the test circuit to operate 579. Trouble-shooting an open circuit with a
B. Provide a ground for the red light voltmeter as shown in this circuit (see Fig 17) will
C. prevent the warning horn from sounding when the A. permit current to flow and illuminate the lamp
throttles are closed B. create a low resistance path and the current flow
D. remove the ground from the green light will be greater than normal
C. restrict current flow and no voltage will appear on
574. Using Fig 16 under which condition will a the voltmeter
ground be provided for the warning horn through both D. permit the battery voltage to appear on the
gear switches when the throttles are closed? voltmeter
A. right gear up and left gear down
B. anytime the gears malfunction
C. both gears up and the control valve out of neutral
D. left gear up and right gear down

575. When the throttles are retarded with only the

right gear down (see Fig 16) the warning horn will not
sound if an open occurs in wire

107
 A. neutralize the spilled battery acid by applying
sodium bicarbonate, or sodium borate dissolved in
water to the affected area followed by a water wash
B. apply sodium bicarbonate in powder form to the
affected area
C. apply water to the affected area until the spilled
battery acids turn a cloudy white
D. wipe the affected area with an oil-soaked cloth.

584. A fully charged lead-acid battery will not…..

580. A battery containing six lead-acid cells until extremely low temperatures are reached because
connected in series (2.1 volts per cell) has a terminal A. the acid is in the . . .thereby increasing the specific
voltage of 10 volts when delivering 2 amperes to a gravity of the solution
load. What is the internal resistance of the battery? B. most of the acid is in the solution
A. 1.3 ohms C. the increased internal resistance generates
B. 2.6 ohms sufficient heat to prevent . . . .
C. 5.0 ohms D. gases which act as an insulator are always present
D. 6.3 ohms above the solution
581. In Fig.18 the equivalent resistance of the circuit 585. What determines the amount of current which
is 20 ohms. Then the value of R3 is will flow through a battery while it is being charged
A. 40 Ohms by a constant voltage source?
B. 80 Ohms A. the number of cells in the battery
C. 120 Ohms B. the total plate area of the battery
D. 240 Ohms C. the state of charge of the battery
D. the ampere hour capacity of the battery

586. when installing batterieson a constant current

battery charger it is important to know that batteries of
A. more than one voltage rating may be connected in
series and charged at the same time
B. more than one voltag rating may be connected in
parallel and charged at the same time
C. only one voltage rating may be connected in series
and charged at the same time
D. only one voltage rating may be connected in
Fig. 18 parallel and charged at the same time

582. Which symbol in Fig 19 represents a variable 587. Aircraft batteries are usually rated according to
resistor? voltage and ampere-hour capacity. A 35 ampere-hour
A. C battery rating based on the 5-hour discharge rate,
B. A indicates
C. B A. the battery will supply a current of 7 amperes for 5
D. D hours
B. the battery will not become discharged in less than
5 hours
C. a battery discharge rate of 35 amperes must not be
continued for more than 5 hours
D. the battery will supply a current of 35 amperes for
5 hours

588. Some aircraft use more than one battery to

583. If an inspection discloses that a considerable
amount of acid from a lead-acid battery has been
spilled in the general area of the battery compartment,
which of the following procedures should be
followed?
108
increase the power available for starting and for
operating emergency loads. How are the batteries
connected so that the output power will increase but
the voltage will remain the same?
A. by connecting the batteries to separate loads
B. it is not possible
C. by connecting the batteries in parallel
D. by connecting the batteries in series
589. What is the rated voltage-per-call of a nickel-
cadmium battery?
A. 1.30 volts
B. 2.00 volts
C. 2.25 volts
D. 1.55 volts
590. The electrolyte used in the nickel-cadmium
battery is a
A. potassium hydroxide solution
B. hydrochloric acid solution
C. sulfuric acid solution
D. potassium peroxide solution
591. Most aircraft storage batteries are rated
according to
A. open-circuit voltage and closed- circuit voltage
B. voltage and ampere hour capacity
C. the maximum number of volt-amperes (power) the
battery can furnish to a load
D. battery voltage and volts per call
592. (1) The electrolyte in a nickel-cadmium battery
acts as a conductor
(2) The electrolyte in a nickel-cadmium battery
provides an insulator between the plates.
Regarding the above statements, which of the
following is true?
A. only no 1 is true
B. only no 2 is true
C. both no 1 and no 2 are true
D. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true
593. Which of the following is an indication of
improperly torqued cell link connections of a nickel-
cadmium battery?
A. Light spewing at the cell caps
B. low temperature in the cells
C. toxic and corrosive deposits of potassium
carbonate crystals
D. heat or burn marks on the hardware
594. What is the most probable cause of an excessive
amount of potassium carbonate formation on a nickel-
cadmium battery?
A. battery overcharging
B. good battery ventilation
C. diluted electrolyte solution
D. high internal resistance in the battery
595. When should water be added to a nickel-
cadmium battery?
A. 3 to 4 hours after the charging cycle is completed
B. before starting the charging cycle
C. during the charging cycle
D. immediately after the charging cycle is completed
109
596. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is
the lowest when
A. the battery is being charged
B. the battery is fully charged
C. the battery is in a discharged condition
D. the battery is under load condition
597. What is the cell voltage of a fully
charged . . . . .nickel-cadmium battery?
A. 1.2 to 1.3 volts
B. 1.4 to 1.5 volts
C. 1.7 to 1.8 volts
D. 1.8 to 1.9 volts
598. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a
long period of time will show a low fluid level
because the
A. fluid evaporates through the vents.
B. battery is fully charged
C. fluid level was not periodically replenished.
D. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates
599. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium
battery be determined?
A. by measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte
B. by a measured discharge
C. by the temperature of the plates
D. by the level of the electrolyte
600. Which of the following may result if water is
added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully
charged?
A. the cell temperatures will run too low for proper
output
B. the electrolyte will be absorbed by the plates
during the charging cycle
C. no adverse results since water may be added
anytime
D. excessive spewing will occur during the charging
cycle
601. Overcharging of nickel-cadmium batteries causes
A. excessive wetness around the cells, connectors and
cases
B. consistently low electrolyte level
C. formation of an excessive amount of potassium
carbonate
D. excessive plate sulfation
602. What type of line is normally used in a
mechanical drawing or blueprint to represent an edge
or object not visible to the viewer?
A. medium-weight dashed line
B. light solid line
C. alternate short and long heavy dishes
D. zigzag or wavy line
603. A line used to divide a drawing into equal or A. only no 1 is true
symmetrical parts is a B. only no 2 is true
A. centre line C. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true
B. section line D. both no 1 and no 2 are true
C. extension line
D. cutting plane line 607. Identify the bottom view of the object shown in
Fig 21.
604. In the isometric view (see Fig 20) of a typical A. A
aileron balance weight, identify the view indicated by B. C
the arrow C. B
A. A D. D
B. B
C. D 608. What is a fuselage station number?
D. C A. A measurement in inches from the datum or some
other point chosen by the manufacturer
605. Schematic diagrams B. a zone number used to locate a particular point
A. indicate the location of individual components in C. a measurement in inches from the centerline or
the aircraft zero station of the aircraft
B. do not give individual component location in the D. a measurement in inches which always starts at the
aircraft nose of the aircraft
C. do not locate components within the system
D. are used to locate parts and assemblies of parts for 609. What type of line is normally used in a
installation in aircraft. mechanical drawing to represent the exposed surfaces
of an object in sectional view?
606. (1) A detail drawing is a description of a single A. sectioning line
part. B. leader line
(2) An assembly drawing is a description of an object C. break line
made up of two or more parts. D. outline or visible line
Regarding the above statements, which of the
following is true?

110
 616. (1) Schematic diagrams indicate the location of
individual components in the aircraft
610. How many views are possible with an (2) Schematic diagrams indicate the location of
orthographic projection? components with respect to each other within the
A. four system.
B. six Regarding the above statements, which of the
C. three following is true
D. five A. only no 1 is true
B. both no. 1 and no. 2 are true
611. In an orthographic projection, which of the C. only no 2 is true
following is true? D. neither no. 1 nor no. 2 is true
A. there are always at least two views
B. it could have as many as eight views 617. Identify the phantom line in aircraft drawings
C. it must be accompanied with a pictorial drawing A. __ _____ __ _____ __ ______ __ _____ __
D. one-view, two-view and three-view drawings are B. __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __
the most common C. __ _____ __ __ _____ __ __ _____ __ __
D. __ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____
612. Identify the left side view of the object shown in
fig 22 618. Which of the following is used extensively in all
A. A aircraft maintenance and repair manuals and are
B. B
C. C
D. D

613. Where is the title block usually located on a

drawing?
A. lower right corner
B. lower left corner
C. upper right corner
D. upper left corner

614. A line used to show in edge which is not visible

in a
A. position line
B. phantom line invaluable in identifying and lcoating components and
C. hidden line understanding the operation of various systems?
D. break line A. drawing sketches
B. pictorial drawings
615. Identify the bottom view of the object in Fig 23. C. assembly drawings
A. B D. installation diagrams
B. A
C. C 619. What are the proper procedural steps for
D. D sketching repairs and alterations? (see Fig 24)
A. C,A,d, b
B. B,C,A,D
C. D,B,C,A
111
D. A,C,D,B (2) On occasion, a mechanic may need to make a
simple sketch of a proposed repair to an aircraft, a
620. What is the next step required for a description of new design, or a modification.
the ilustration, Fig 25? Regarding the above statements, which of the
A. darken the object outlines following is true?
B. sketch extension and dimension lines A. only no 1 is true
C. add notes, dimensions, title and date B. only no 2 is true
D. sketch at least two more views of the object C. both no 1 and no 2 are true
D. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true

626. What are the six possible of an object in

Orthographic projection?
A. Front, top, inside, rear, right side and left side
B. front, outside, bottom, rear, right side and left side
C. front, top, bottom, rear, right side, and left side
D. front, top, bottom, inside, right side and left side

627. What is the dimension of the chamber in Fig 26?

A. 0.0625 x 45"
B. 0.0625 R
C. 0.4062 R spherical
D. 0.5000 diameter

621. When an aircraft drawing contains three separate

views, the drawing is known as
A. separate view projection
B. side-view drawing
C. an isometric three-view
D. an orthographic projection

622. Which of the following statements is applicable

when using a sketch for making a part?
A. the sketch may be used only if supplemented with
three-view orthographic projection drawings
B. the sketch must show all information to
manufacture the part
C. the sketch need not show all necessary construction
details
D. a part is never made solely from a sketch Fig 26

623. In orthographic projection drawings, it is often 628. Identify the bottom view of the object shown in
possible to portray an object clearly by the use of fig 27?
three views. When three-view projection is used, A. A
which of the following views are usually shown? B. B
A. top, front and bottom C. C
B. front, left-side and right-side D. D
C. top, front and right-side
D. front, back and left-side

624. What should be the first step of the procedure in

sketching an aircraft wing skin repair?
A. draw heavy guidelines
B. layout the repair
C. draw the details
D. block in the views
629. What are the means of conveying measurements
625. (1)According to FAR91, repairs to an aircraft through the medium of drawings?
skin should have a detailed dimensional sketch A. dimensions
included in the permanent records
112
B. tolerances B. 0.3125
C. edge distances C. 0.3185
D. bend allowances D. 0.31255

630. Identify the extension line in Fig 28. 633. What would be the minimum diameter of 4130
A. C round stock required for the construction of the clevis
B. A in Fig 30 that would produce a machined surface?
C. B A. 55/64 inch
D. D B. 1 inch
631. The diameter of the holes in the finished object C. 7/8 inch
of Fig 29 is D. 1-1/16 inch
A. 10 R
B. 8 R 634. Using the information in fig 30, what size drill
C. 12 R would be required to drill the clevis bolt holes?
D. 12 D A. 21/64 inch
B. 19/64 inch
632. What is the diameter of the hole for split pinin C. 5/16 inch
fig 30? D. 9/32 inch
A. 0.500

Fig 30

113

Fig 29
 Fig 32

635. The purpose of cross-hatching in a drawing is to B. used to indicate different sections of the aircraft
show C. used to locate parts in the aircraft
A. the type of material used D. not used on working drawings
B. the type of construction employed
C. the method of finishing 637. Schematic diagrams are used for
D. the cross-section of an object A. locating components in the aircraft
B. trouble shooting
636. Zone numbers on aircraft blueprints are C. identifying items in the aircraft
A. used to locate parts, sections and views on large D. manufacturing aircraft parts
drawings
114
638. When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given D. 225
as 4.387 + 0.005 -0.002
A. the maximum acceptable size is 4.389 645. An aircraft reciprocating engine has 2,800 cubic
B. the tolerance is 007 inch displacement, develops 2,000 BHP and indicates
C. the maximum acceptable size is 4.285" 270 brake mean effective pressure. What is the engine
D. the minimum acceptable size is 4.387" speed (RPM)? (Use Fig 32)
A. 2,200
639. What is the allowable manufacturing tolerance B. 2,100
for a bushing where the outside dimensions shown on C. 2,300
the blueprint are: 1.0625 + 0.0025 - 00037 D. 2,400
A. .0028
B. 1.0650 646. Using Fig 33, determine the cable size of a 40
C. 1.0647 feet length of single cable in line with a continuous
D. 0.0025 rating running from a bus to the approx. 20 volt
system with a 15 ampere load and a 1 volt drop
640. A hydraulic system schematic drawing would A. No. 10
indicate the B. No. 11
A. specific location of the individual components C. No. 18
within the aircraft D. No. 6
B. direction of fluid flow through the system
C. type and quantity of the hydraulic fluid 647. Using Fig 33, determine the smallest size wire
D. part of model numbers of the individual acceptable for carrying 80 amperes of continuous
components current using a single wire in free air
A. No. 2
641. What is the meaning of print tolerance as used in B. No. 8
the title block of an aircraft blueprint? C. No. 6
A. describes the size of the blueprint paper D. No. 4
B. shows proprietary righgts of the bluepring
C. establishes the tolerance for a part when not 648. Using Fig 33, determine the maximum length of
otherwise shown by a dimension line a No. 14 single wire in free air, running from a bus to
D. overrides any other dimension that may be shown the equipment in a 28 volt system with a 30 ampere
on the blueprint continuous load and a 1 volt drop
A. 11 feet
642. In fig 31 the vertical distance between the top of B. 9 feet
the plate and the bottom of the lowest 15/64" hole is C. 13 feet
A. 2.250 D. 15 feet
B. 2.242
C. 2.367 649. Using fig 33, determine the minimum wire size
D. 3.312 of a 15 foot length of single cable in a bundle
supplying current to a component rated at 14 volts,
643. Determine the engine speed (RPM) necessary to with a 20 ampere load and an allowable 5 volt drop
develop 850 brake horsepower in a 2,000 cubic inch A. no. 12
displacement aircraft reciprocating engine operating at B. no 10
185 BMEP (see Fig 32) C. no 16
A. 1.800 D. no 18
B. 1.200
C. 1.400 650. Determine the minimum wire size of a single
D. 1.600 cable in a bundle carrying a continuous current of 20
amperes for 10 feet from the bus to the equipment in a
644. An aircraft reciprocating engine has 1,830 cubic 28 volt system with an allowable 1 volt drop (see
inch displacement, develops 1,250 brake horsepower Fig. 33)
at 2,500 RPM. What is the brake mean effective A. no. 12
pressure? (Fig 32) B. no. 14
A. 217 C. no. 16
B. 190 D. no. 18
C. 205

115
651. Using Fig 34, determine the proper tension for a 655. Which of the following tasks are completed prior
3/16 inch cable (7x19 extra flex) if the temperature is to weighing an aircraft to determine its empty weight?
87 degree F A. remove all items on the aircraft equipment list
A. 132 lb drain fuel and hydraulic fluid
B. 140 lb B. remove all items except those on the aircraft
C. 136 lb equipment list, drain fuel and hydraulic fluid
D. 144 lb

652. In Fig 35, The power dissipated across the

resistor is
A. 4 W
B. 40 W
C. 25 W
D. 2.5 W

653. In Fig 35 The energy transformed in to heat in 5

minutes is
A. 28.6 K Cal C. remove all items on the aircraft equipment list,
B. .286 K Cal drain fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid weight
C. 2.86 K Cal D. remove all items except those on the aircraft
D. 286 K Cal equipment list, drain fuel and fill hydraulic reservoir

654. When computing weight and balance, an airplane
is considered to be in balance when
A. all moment arms of the plane fall within CQ range
B. the movement of the passengers will not cause the
moment arms to fall outside the CG range
C. the pilot is able to compensate for unbalance by
use of elevator trim
D. the average moment arm of the loaded airplane
tells within its CG range
116
656. The useful load of an aircraft consists of the
A. crew, fuel, passengers and cargo
B. crew, fuel, oil and fixed equipment
C. crew, passengers, fuel, oil, cargo and fixed
equipment
D. crew, powerplant, fuel, oil, cargo and passengers
657. Before weighing an aircraft, it is necessary to
become familiar with the aircraft empty weight and
CG range in the weight and balance information in
A. the particular aircraft's weight and balance records 664. What determines whether the value of the
B. advisory Circular 43.13-1A, chapter 12 moment is preceded by a plus (+) or a minus (-) sign
C. the applicable aircraft specification or type data in aircraft weight and balance?
sheet A. the addition or removal of weight
D. the manufacturer's service bulletins and letters B. the location of the weight in ference to the datum
C. the result of a weight being added or removed and
658. When preparing an aircraft for weighing, which its location relative to the datum
of the following should be filled unless otherwise D. the location of the datum in reference to the aircraft
noted in the aircraft specifications or manufacturer's center of gravity.
instructions?
A. Hydraulic reservoirs 665. The maximum weight of an aircraft is the
B. Lavatory tanks A. empty weight plus crew, maximum fuel, cargo and
C. Wash water reservoirs baggage
D. drinking water reservoirs B. empty weight plus crew, passenger and fixed
equipment
659. (1) Private aircraft are required by regulations to C. empty weight plus useful load
be weighed periodically D. empty weight plus crew and fixed equipment
(2) Private airccraft are required to be weighed after
making any alteration. 666. In the theory of weight and balance, the influence
Regarding the above statements, which of the of weight is directly dependent upon its distance from
following is true? the
A. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true A. centerline of the aircraft
B. only no 1 is true B. center of the fuselage
C. only no. 2 is true C. center of gravity
D. both no. 1 and no. 2 are true D. center of longitudinal axis

660. What document will reference the required
equipment needed to maintain validity of a standard
airworthiness certificate?
A. manufacturers maintenance manual
B. advisory circular 43.13-1A
C. the aircraft's latest weight and balance information
D. aircraft Specification or type certificate data sheet
661. Which of the following designates the location of
the reference points for levelling aircraft on the
ground for weighing purposes?
A. certificated A and P mechanic
B. Federal Aviation Administrator
C. Certificated repair station
D. Aircraft manufacturer
662. To obtain useful weight data for purposes of
determining the center of gravity, it is necessary that
an aircraft be weighed
A. with the main weighing points located within the
normal CG limits
B. in a level flight altitude
C. with all items of useful load installed
D. with at least minimum fuel in the fuel tanks.
663. What unit of measurement is used to designate
moment arm in weight and balance computation?
A. pound/feet
B. inches
C. feet
D. pound/inches
117
667. When computing weight and balance for a
helicopter you must consider that
A. the flight altitudes of a helicopter are such that the
weight and balance is not critical
B. it is different from a fixed-wing aircraft, because
the whirling rotor makes it difficult to locate the mean
aerodynamic chord
C. the arm of tail-mounted components is subject to
constraint change
D. it is computed the same as a fixed-wing aircraft
668. Which of the following should be clearly
indicated on the aircraft weighing form
A. minimum allowable gross weight
B. weight of unusable fuel
C. weighing points
D. zero fuel weight
669. The reference datum line is usually placed near
the nose of the aircraft because
A. this is the only location from which all arms can be
measured
B. all manufacturers have agreed on this point for
purposes of standardization
C. all measurements will be positive numbers,
contributing to accuracy
D. measurement of arms from the nose involves less
movement of cargo
670. Zero fuel weight is the
A. basic operating weight plus the weight of full
passengers and cargo
B. maximum weight of a loaded airplane less fuel
C. gross weight plus fuel, passengers and cargo
D. basic weight plus the weight of items such as oil,
crew and crew's baggage
671. The empty weight of an airplane is determined
by
A. adding the gross weight on each weighing point
and multiplying by the measured distance to the
datum
B. adding the net weight of each weighing point and
multiplying the measured distance to the datum
C. subtracting the tare weight from the scale reading
and adding the weight of each weighing point
D. multiplying the measured distance from each
weighing point to the datum times the sum of scale
reading less the tare weight
672. When dealing with weight and balance of an
aircraft, the term maximum weight is interpreted to
mean the maximum
A. weight of the empty aircraft
B. weight of the useful load
C. authorized weight of the aircraft and its contents
D. weight of all optional or special equipment that can
be installed in the aircraft
673. The most important reason for aircraft weight
and balance control in today's aircraft is
A. efficiency in flight
B. to reduce noise levels
C. safety
D. to increase payloads
674. An aircraft has an empty weight of 2.886 lbs and
a total moment of 107,865.78 inch-pounds. The
following modifications were made: two seats
weighing 15 lbs each were removed from station 73
and replaced with a cabinet weighing 97 lbs, one seat
weighing 20 lbs was installed at station 73,
communication gear weighing 30 lbs was installed at
station 97. The new empty weight center of gravity is
located
A. 1.63inchesforwardoftheoldCG
B. 2.05 inches forward of the old CG
C. 1.63 inches aft of the old CG
D. 2.05 inches aft of the old CG
675. When determining the empty weight of an
aircraft certificated under current airworthiness
standards for the issue of type certificates (FAR Part
23) the oil contained in the supply tank is considered
A. a part of the empty weight
B. a part of the useful load
C. the same as the fluid contained in the hydraulic
system and reservour
D. a part of the payload
118
676. Improper loading of a helicopter which results in
exceeding either the fore or aft center of gravity will
be hazardous due to the
A. reduction or loss of effective cyclic pitch control
B. override feature of the sprag clutch assembly
C. controls effect being translated to the fuse large.
D. reduction of loss of effective collective pitch
control
677. How is the useful load of an aircraft determined?
A. Subtract the empty weight from the maximum
allowable gross weight
B. add the empty weight and maximum allowable
gross weight
C. subtract the tare weight from the emptry weight
D. multiply the total moment by the empty weight
678. The maximum weight as used in weight in
balance control of a given aircraft, can normally be
found
A. in the back of the aircraft logbook
B. by weighing the aircraft to obtain empty weight
and mathematically adding the weight of fuel, oil,
pilot, passengers and baggage
C. in the aircraft specifications or Type Certificate
Date Sheets
D. by adding the empty weight and payload.
679. An aircraft with an empty weight of 2,100
pounds and an empty weight center of gravity of
+32.5 was altered as follows:
(1) two 18 pound passenger seats located at +73 were
removed
(2) structural modifications were made at +77
increasing weight by 17pound:
(3) a seat and safety belt weighing 25 pounds were
installed at +74.5 and
(4) radio equipment weighing 35 pounds was installed
at +95.
What is the new empty weight center of gravity?
A. 30.44
B. +34.01
C. +33.68
D. +34.65
680. The amount of fuel used for computing weight
and corresponding center of gravity is
A. empty fuel tanks
B. unusable fuel
C. full fuel tanks
D. the amount of fuel necessary for 1/2 hour of
operation
681. An aircraft as loaded weighs 4.954 pounds at a
centre of gravity of +30.4 inches. The center-of-
gravity range is +32.0 inches to +42.1 inches. Find the
minimum weight of the ballast necessary to bring the
center of gravity within the center-of-gravity range.
The ballast arm is +162 inches.
A. 61.98 lb and main gear center point . . . . . . 360.25"
B. 30.58 lb Net weight at right main gear. . . . . . 980lb
C. 46.24 lb Net weight at left main gear . . . . 9.770lb
D. 57.16 lb Net weight at tail gear. . . . . . . . . 1,970lb
The following items were in the aircraft when
682. As weighed, the total empty weight of an aircraft weighed
is 5,862 pounds with a moment of 885,957. However, a. Lavatory water tank full (34lb at +352)
when the aircraft was weighed, 20 pounds of alcohol b. Hydraulic fluid (22lb at -8)
were on board at +84 and 23 pounds of hydraulic fluid c.Removable ballast (146 lb at +380)
were in a tank located at +101. What is the empty What is the empty weight CG of the aircraft
weight CG of the aircraft? described above?
A. 150.700 A. 62.92 inches
B. 151.700 B. 60.31 inches
C. 154.200 C. 58.54 inches
D. 151.365 D. 59.50 inches

683. Two boxes which weigh 10 pounds and 5 pounds
are placed in an airplane so that their distance aft from
the center of gravity are 4 feet and 2 feet respectively.
How far forward of the center of gravity should a
third box, weighing 20 pounds, be placed so that the
center of gravity will not be changed?
A. 3 feet
B. 2.5 feet
C. 6 feet
D. 8 feet
684. When the empty weight center of gravity of an
aircraft fails within the empty weight center-of-
gravity range listed in the aircraft specifications or
type certificate data sheet, the
A. critical rore-and-aft-loaded center-of-gravity
positions computations are unnecessary
B. aircraft must be loaded in accordance with
nonstandard arrangements
C. critical forward-loaded center-of-gravity position
must be computed
D. critical reward-loaded center-of-gravity position
must be computed.
685. An aircraft with an empty weight of 1,000
pounds and am empty weight centre of gravity of
+31.5 was altered as follows:
(1) two 15 pound passenger seats located at +72 were
removed
(2) structural modification increasing the weight 14
pounds were made at +75
(3) a seat and safety belt weighing 20 pounds were
isntalled at +73.5 and
(4) radio equipment weighing 20 pounds is installed at
+30
A. +30.61
B. +35.04
C. +31.61
D. +32.69
686. Datum is forward of the
main gear center point . . . . . . . . . . 30.24"
Actual distance between tail gear
119
687. When making a rearward weight and balance
check to determine that the CG will not exceed the
rearward limit during extreme conditions, the items of
useful load which should be computed at their
minimum weights are those located forward of the
A. forward CG limit
B. empty weight Cg
C. datum
D. rearward CG limit
688. When an empty aircraft is weighed, the
combined net weight at the main gears is 3.540
pounds with an arm of 195.5 inches. At the nose gear,
the net weight is 2.322 pounds with an arm of 83.5
inches. The datum line is forward of the nose of the
aircraft. What is the empty CG of the aircraft?
A. 151.1
B. 158.7
C. 155.2
D. 146.5
689. An aircraft with an empty weight of 1.500
pounds and an empty weight center of gravity of
+28.4 was altered as follows:
(1) two 12 pound seats located at +68.5 were
removed:
(2) structural modifications weighing +28 pounds
were made at +73;
(3) a seat and safety belt weighing 30 pounds were
installed at +70.5 and
(4) radio equipment weighing 25 pounds was installed
at +85
What is the new empty weight centre of gravity?
A. +23.51
B. +30.81
C. +31.35
D. +30.30
690. The following alteration was performed on an
aircraft. A model B engine weighing 175 lbs was
replaced by a model D engine weighing 185 lbs at a
-62.00" station. The aircraft weight and balance
records show the previous empty weight to be 998
pounds and an empty weight center of gravity of B. are not normally permitted
13.48". C. must be routed in separate enclosures which must
What is the new empty weight center of gravity? be drained and vented to the outside atmosphere
A. 12.99 inches D. must not contain any fittings or connections within
B. 13.96 inches the entryways or compartments.
C. 14.25 inches
D. 12.73 inches 696. From the following sequences of steps, indicate
the proper order you would use to make a single flare
691. When computing the maximum forward loaded on piece of tubing:
center of gravity of an aircraft, minimum weights, a. Place the tube in the proper size hole in the flaring
arms and moments should be used for items of useful block;
load that are located aft of the b. Project the end of the tubes lightly from the top of
A. reward CG limit the flaring tool, about the thickness of a dime
B. forward CG limit c. Slip the fitting nut and sleeve on the tube
C. datum d. Strike the plunger several light blows with a light
D. empty weight CG weight hammer or mallet and turn the pfunger one
half turn after each blow.
692. An aircraft with an empty weight of 1,800 e. Tighten the clamp bar securely to prevent
pounds and an empty weight center of gravity of slippage.
+31.5 was altered as follows: f. Center the plunger or flaring pin over the tube.
(1) two 15 lbs passenger seats located at +50 were A. F, E, B, A, D, C
removed B. A, C, E, B, D, F
(2) structural modifications increasing the weight 14 C. C, A, F, B, E, D
lbs were made at +76 D. C, B, F, E, A, D
(3) a seat and safety belt weighing 20 pounds were
installed at +73.5; and 697. High-pressure hydraulic tubing which is
(4) radio equipment weighing 30 pounds was installed damaged in a localized area to such extent that repair
at +30 is necessary. May be repaird.
What is the new empty weight center of gravity? A. with a union and two sets of connecting fittings
A. +31.97 B. only by replacing the entire tubing using the same
B. +31.67 size and material as the original
C. +32.69 C. by cutting out the damaged section of tubing and
D. +33.95 installing a short piece of high-pressure flexible host
with nose clamps
693. Find the empty weight center-of-gravity located D. by cutting out the damaged section and weilding in
for the following tricycle gear aircraft. Each main a replacement section of tubing
wheel weighs 753 lbs, nose wheel weighs 72 lbs
distance between nose wheel and main wheel is 87.1 698. What is an advantage of a double flare on
inches, nose wheel location is +1.875 inches from aluminum tubing?
datum with 1 gallon of hydraulic fluid at -21.0 inches A. It is less concentric than a single flare
indicated in the weight scale B. Ease of construction
A. +97.375 inches C. it is less resistant to the shearing effect of torque
B. +94.89 inches D. it is more resistant to the shearing effect of torque
C. +95.61 inches
D. +96.11 inches 699. If failure of a flexible hydraulic hose equipped
with swaged-end fittings occurs, which of the
694. Which coupling nut should be selected for use following repair procedures should be follows?
with 1/2 inch aluminium oil lines which are to be A. insert a nonmetallic hose liner which is approved
asserted. Using flared tube ends and standard AN for use with the type of fluid contained in the system
nuts, sleeves end fittings? and clamp firmly at both ends
A. AN-818-2 B. remove the hose fittings and reuse on a new
B. AN-818-8 flexible line of the correct length
C. AN-818-5 C. replace the hose with rigid tubing equipped with
D. AN-818-12 end fittings of the same type as those used in other
parts of the system
695. Hydraulic lines located in entryways of D. install a replacement hose of the proper length
passenger, crew or baggage compartments which has been factory equipped with swaged-end
A. should be suitably supported and protected against fittings
physical damage
120
700. Select the correct statement in reference to flare used when a tubing flare is required. The use of this
fittings type connector eliminates
A. AN fittings can easily be identified by the shoulder A. the need for flexible lines interconnecting movable
between the end of the threads and the flare cone and stationary components
B. all parts of the AN fitting assemblies are B. the flaring operation prior to assembly
interchangeable with AC fitting assemblies with the C. the possibility of reducing the flare thickness by
exception of the sleeves wiping or ironing during the tightening process
C. AC and AN fittings are identical except for the D. wrench damage to the tubing during the tightening
material from which they are made and the identifying process
color
D. AC fittings have generally replaced the older AN 708. Which of the following statements about Ms
fittings (Military Standard) flareless fittings is correct?
A. Ms flareless fitting sleeves must not be preset on
701. Flexible lines should be installed the line prior to final assembly.
A. where bends are necessary B. During installation, MS flareless fittings are
B. only aft of the firewall normally tightened by turning the nut a specified
C. with just enough slack to make the connection amount after the sleeve and fitting sealing surface.
D. with 5-8 percent slack C. MS flareless fittings shold not be lubricated prior
to assembly
702. The maximum distance between end fittings to D. MS flareless fittings must be tightened to a specific
which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is torque.
50 inches. The minimum hose length to make such a
connection should be 709. When flaring aluminium tubing for use with AN
A. 54-1/2 inches coupling nuts and sleeves, the flare angle should be
B. 50-3/4 inches A. 30 degree
C. 51 inches B. 37 degree
D. 52-1/2 inches C. 67 degree
D. 45 degree
703. How should a flexible hose be installed?
A. Stretched tightly between two fittings 710. Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of
B. with slack or bend in the hose aluminium alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no
C. with as small a bend radius as possible deeper than
D. to allow maximum flexing during operation A. 20 percent of the wall thickness
B. 1/32 inch
704. Which of the following colors identifies an aft C. 1/16 inch
aluminium flared-tube fitting? D. 10 percent of the wall thickness.
A. Green
B. Black 711. Which of the following is used in aircraft
C. Red plumbing to connect moving parts with stationary
D. Blue parts in locations subject to vibration?
A. flexible aluminium tubing
705. Soft aluminium tubing (1100,3003 or 5052) may B. corrosion-resistant steel tubing
be bent by hand if the size is C. thin wall aluminium tubing
A. 5/16 inch or less D. flexible hose
B. 7/16 inch or less
C. 5/8 inch or less 712. If it is necessary to route hydraulic lines and
D. 1/4 inch or less electrical power cables adjacent to each other, the
electrical cable should be
706. The material specifications for a certain aircraft A. routed below the hydraulic line and clamped
require that a replacement oil line be fabricated from securely to the structure
3/4 inch, 0.072 5052-0 aluminium alloy tubing. What B. routed above the hydraulic line and clamped
is the inside dimension of this tubing? securely to the structure
A. 0.606 inch C. attached securely to the line by clamps that will
B. 0.572 inch maintain a separation between the line and cable equal
C. 0.688 inch to at least four times the diameter of the fluid line
D. 0.750 inch D. grounded at intervals not to exceed four times the
distance separating the fluid line and the cable
707. In most aircraft hydraulic systems, two piece
tube connectors consisting of a sleeve and a nut are
121
713. When installing a hydraulic line, the tube flare
should meet the fitting squarely and fully before
starting the nut. The flare should never be drawn to
the fitting with the nut because this may
A. deform the line
B. strip the threads on the fitting
C. deform the flare
D. strip the threads on the nut
714. Flexible hose used in aircraft plumbing is
classified in size according to the
A. outside diameter
B. cross-sectional area
C. wall thickness
D. inside diameter
715. A scratch or nick in aluminium alloy tubin can be
repaired by burnishing provided the scratch or nick
does not
A. exceed 5 percent of the tube diameter
B. appear in the heel of a bend in the tube
C. exceed 20 percent of the wall thickness of the tube
D. exceed 10 pecent of the tube diameter
716. Which of the following tubings has the
characteristics (medium strength, workability)
necessary for use in a medium-pressure (1,500 PSI)
hydraulic system?
A. 2024T or 5052-0 aluminium alloy
B. Copper or hard plastic
C. 1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2H aluminium alloy
D. carbon steel or chrome molybdenum
717. Which of the following tubings has the
characteristics (high strength, abrasion resistance)
necessary for use in a high-pressure (3,000 PSI)
hydraulic system for operation of landing gear and
flaps?
A. copper or hard plastic
B. 2024-T or 5052-0 aluminium alloy
C. corrosion-resistant steel annealed or 1/4 H
D. 1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2H aluminium alloy
718. When installing bonded clamps to support metal
tubing
A. paint removal from tube is unnecessary as it will
inhibit corrosion
B. paint clamp and tube after clump installation for
slippage identification
C. paint clamp and tube after clamp installation to
prevent corrosion
D. remove paint or anodizing from tube at clamp
location
719. In a metal tubing installation
A. rigid straight line runs are preferable
B. tension is undesirable because pressurization will
cause it to expand and shift
122
C. a tube may be pulled in line if nut will start on
threaded coupling
D. tension is desirable because it cannot shift when
pressurized
720. A fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN
A. carries hydraulic fluid back to the reservoir
B. is a high-pressure fluid line. The letters mean
Pressure High Discharge at Nacella
C. is carrying a fluid which may be dangerous to
personnel
D. must be made of a nonphsphorous metal
721. The principal advantage of Teflon hose is
A. its operating strength
B. its low cost
C. its corrosion resistance
D. its flexibility
722. Which of the following statements concerning
Bernoulli's principle is true?
A. the pressure of a fluid increases at points where the
velocity of the fluid increases
B. the pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the
velocity of the fluid increases
C. it has no practical application in today's aircraft
D. it applied only to gases
723. (1) Bonded clamps are used for support when
installing metal tubing
(2) Unbonded clamps are used for support when
installing wiring
Concerning the above statements
A. only No. 2 is true
B. only no 1 is true
C. both no 1 and no 2 are true
D. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true
724. Flexible nose may be used in aircraft fluid
systems
A. to replace only low-pressure fluid system lines
B. to replace any fluid system line not subject to heat
C. according to the manufacturer's specifications
D. to replace any fluid system line
725. Which of the following nondestructive inspection
methods would be most suitable for inspecting wing
internal structures?
A. continuous magnetic particle inspection
B. penetrant inspection
C. Radiographic inspection
D. residual magnetic particle inspection
726. Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to
detect
A. distortion
B. irregular surfaces
C. porosity and thickness of ferromagnetic metals
D. flaws on or near the surface
727. In order for dye penetrant inspection to be
effective, the material being checked must
A. have subsurface cracks
B. be magnetic
C. be nonmagnetic
D. have surface cracks
728. Which of the following nondestructive testing
methods is most successful in detecting integranular
corrosion in nonferrous metal?
A. spectography inspection
B. Radiography inspection
C. magnetic particle inspection
D. eddy current inspection
729. Which of the following nondestructive inspection
methods would normally be the most satisfactory to
determine the internal structural condition of a highly
stressed cast aluminium alloy fitting?
A. X-ray or radiographic inspection
B. dye penetrant inspection
C. Magnetic particle inspection
D. fluorescent penetrant inspection
730. What is the principal advantage of the
radiographic inspection method of nondestructive
testing?
A. minimum safety precautions required
B. little or no disassembly of structure
C. simplicity of equipment operation
D. low cost
731. What method a magnetic particle inspection is
used most often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible
craks and other defects?
A. residual
B. inductance
C. continuous
D. intermittent
732. Which of the following factors is considered
basic knowledge of X-ray exposure?
A. the density, thickness, size and shape of the object
to be exposed
B. the X-ray unit's capabilities and its proper
operation
C. the distance and angle for 1 minute exposure
D. the type and exact size of the discontinuity to be
detected
733. which method of magnetization produces the
greatest sensitivity in locating subsurface
discontinuities?
A. continuous circular with a solenoid
B. continuous longitudinal with a solenoid
C. residual circular with a conductor bar
D. residual longitudinal with a conductor bar
123
734. The magnetic particle inspection is somewhat
unreliable for distinguishing or detecting
A. laps and fatigue cracks
B. cold shuts
C. hairline discontinuities and small cracks
D. discontinuities which are below the surface
735. What type of discontinuities are formed by a
parting or a rupture of the metal being magnetically
tested?
A. lap or voids
B. cold shut and inclusions
C. inclusion and laps
D. pipes or voids
736. Which statement relating to the residual
magnetizing inspection method is true?
A. it requires careful and intelligent interpretation and
evaluation of the discontinuities it reveals
B. it is used in practically all circular and longitudinal
magnetizing procedures
C. it may be used only with steels which have been
heat treated for stressed applications
D. it indicating medium is applied when the
magnetizing force is being maintained/
737. what two types of indicating mediums are
available for magnetic particle inspection?
A. iron and ferric oxides
B. wet and dry process materials
C. penetrant and fluorescent material
D. high retentivity and low permeability material
738. Which of the following metals can be inspected
using the magnetic particle inspection method?
A. magnesium alloys
B. aluminium alloys
C. iron alloys
D. copper
739. How is an item demagnetized after a magnetic
particle inspection?
A. rinse it with a nonmagnetic solution
B. lay it aside for a period of time
C. subject it to an alternating current energized coil
D. subject the item to direct current
740. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic
particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal
magnetization?
A. 45 degree
B. longitudinal
C. transverse
D. circumferential
741. Surface cracks in aluminium castings and
forgings may usually be detected by
A. the use of dye penetrants and suitable developers
B. heating the part to approximately 750 degree and D. the part was not thoroughly washed before
observing the surface for any material that may have developer was applied
been forced out of a crack
C. magnetic particle inspection 749. Which type of current is usually used to
D. submerging the part in a concentrated solution of demagnetize aircraft parts?
caustic soda (sodium hydroxide) and rinsing with A. alternating, decreasing
clear water B. direct, increasing
C. alternating, increasing
742. To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant D. direct, decreasing
inspection requires
A. that the developer be applied to a wet surface 750. When using the dye penetrant test, it is well if
B. a shorter than normal penetrating time remember that the
C. a longer than normal penetrating time A. smaller the defect, the longer the required
D. the surface to be highly polished penetrating time
B. larger the defect, the longer the required
743. When checking an item with the magnetic penetrating time
particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal C. smaller the defect, the shorter the required
magnetisation should be used to penetrating time
A. reveal all possible defects D. penetrating time is independent of the size of the
B. prevent permanent magnetization defect
C. prevent one-way polarization
D. ensure uniform current flow 751. If a pure metal is heated above its critical
temperature and cooled to room temperature, it will
744. What is the primary limitation of the dye A. form a mechanical mixture
penetrant method of inspection? B. return to its original structure
A. the defect must be open to the surface C. form a combination of a solid solution and
B. the smaller the defect, the longer the penetrant time mechanical mixture
required D. form a complex solution
C. the washing or rinsing operation causes unreliable
results 752. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic
D. it is limited in use to a small number of metals particle buildup forming
A. a fernlike pattern
745. What is the purpose of the developer as used dye B. a single line
penetrant inspection? C. a smooth outline
A. it removes penetrant from surface D. parallel lines
B. it causes penetrant to glow in the dark
C. it causes penetrant on surface to seep into cracks 753. A part which is being prepapred for dye
D. it brings out the penetrant to show defects penetrant inspection should be cleaned
A. by sandblasting
746. Dye penetrant inspection method will detect B. with a volatile petroleum-base solvent
A. surface defects C. with the penetrant developer
B. subsurface flaws D. with water-base solvents only
C. deteriorated molded rubber
D. cracks in any porous material 754. Which type crack will probably cause the most
buildup in the magnetic particle indicating medium?
747. Before applying dye penetrant to an aluminum A. heat-treated
part, first B. shrink
A. clean the part thoroughly C. fatigue
B. apply the developer D. grinding
C. mix the penetrant with water
D. mix the penetrant with the developer 755. Under magnetic particle inspction a part will be
identified as having a fatigue crack under which of the
748. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not following conditions?
sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that A. the discontinuity pattern is straight
A. the part was not correctly degaussed before the B. the discontinuity is found in a non-stressed area of
developer was applied the part.
B. the part is not damaged C. the discontinuity is found in a highly stressed area
C. the part is badly damaged over an extensive area of of the part
its surface D. the discontinuity pattern is not clear
124
756. The main disadvantage of dye penetrant
inspection is that
A. the chemicals used are dangerous to the inspection
personnel
B. the defect must be open to the surface
C. it does not work on nonferrous metals
D. it is excessively time consuming
757. What defects will be detected by magnetizing a
part using continuous longitudinal magnetization with
a cable?
A. defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part
B. defects parallel to the long axis of the part
C. defects perpendicular to the concentric circles of
magnetic force within the part
D. defects parallel to the concentric circles of
magnetic force within the part
758. Circular magnetization of a part can be used to
detect which of the following defects?
A. defects parallel to the long axis of the part
B. defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part
C. defects perpendicular to the concentric circles of
magnetic force within the part
D. defects parallel to the concentric circles of
magnetic force within the part
759. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundaries
of aluminum alloys which are improperly or
inadequately heat-treated?
A. stress
B. intergranular
C. surface
D. fretting
760. If too much time is allowed to elapse during the
transfer of 2017 or 2024 aluminum alloy from the heat
treatment medium to the quench tank, it may result in
A. case hardening
B. a dull,stained or streaked surface
C. retarded age hardening
D. impaired corrosion resistance
761. Which heat-treating process of metal produces a
hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough core?
A. case hardening
B. annealing
C. tempering
D. normalizing
762. When heat treating a small aluminum forging, a
cold water quench should be used to produce
A. maximum hardness
B. minimum distortion
C. minimum diffusion
D. maximum corrosion resistance
763. Nitriding is a process which
125
A. forms a hard case on a part to resist wear
B. decreases the size of the grain structure
C. toughness steel to increase its tensile strength
D. increases bearing heat resistance
764. The difference between annealing and
normalizing steel is that normalizing usually requires
temperatures
A. higher than critical point, with slower cooling
B. lower than critical point, with faster cooling
C. lower than critical point, with slower cooling
D. higher than critical point, with faster cooling
765. Why is steel tempered after being hardened?
A. to increase its hardness and ductility
B. to decrease its ductility and brittleness
C. to increase its strength and decrease its internal
stresses
D. to relieve its internal stresses and reduce its
brittleness
766. Which of the following aluminum alloy
designations indicates that the metal has been solution
heat treated and artificially aged?
A. 3003 F
B. 7075-T6
C. 5052-H36
D. 6061-O
767. Alloy 2024 rivets should be driven within 10
minutes after they have been quenched; otherwise,
before being used they must be
A. aged
B. anodised
C. reheat treated
D. refrigated
768. Which of the following qualities of magnesium
alloy are improved by precipitation heat treatment?
A. ductility and toughness
B. ductility and yield strength
C. hardness and yield strength
D. hardness, ductility and yield strengh
769. Which type of steel is best suited for case
hardening?
A. low-carbon, low alloy
B. high carbon, low alloy
C. low carbon, high alloy
D. high carbon, high alloy
770. Which of the following cannot be heat treated
repeatedly without harmful effects?
A. unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form
B. products which are molded of steel
C. 6061-T9 stainless steel
D. clad aluminum alloy
771. Metal to be tested on the Rockwell Hardness
Tester must meet which of the following
specification(s)?
A. it must be ground smooth on one side only and
cleaned
B. the two opposite ground surfaces must be free of
scratches and foreign matter
C. the two opposite surfaces must be parallel but not
necessarily cleaned
D. the two opposite ground surfaces should be
perpendicular and cleaned
772. What will determine the hardness of steel
ordinary temperatures?
A. the number of particles of iron carbide in the
mixture
B. the size of the particles of iron austnite in the
mixture
C. the distribution of the particles of iron carbide
throughout the mixture
D. the transformation of pearlite to austnite in the
mixture
773. Unless otherwise specified, toruqe values to
tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate to
A. dry, thoroughly degreased threads
B. tightly oiled threads
C. well oiled threads
D. threads lubricated with a dry lubricant
774. Which of the following is generally used in the
construction of aircraft engine firewalls?
A. aluminium alloy sheet
B. stainless steel
C. chrome-molybdenum alloy steel
D. magnesium-titanium alloy steel
775. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft
bolts should be installed so that the bolt head is
A. upward, or in a rearward direction
B. upward, or in a forward direction
C. downward, or in a forward direction
D. downward, or in a rearward direction
776. Alclad is a metal consisting of
A. aluminium alloy surface layers and a pure alumium
core
B. pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum
alloy core
C. a homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum and
aluminum alloy
D. alternating layers of pure aluminum and aluminum
alloy
777. A fiber-type self-locking nut should never be
used on an aircraft if the bolt is
A. under shear loading
B. under tension loading
C. subject to rotation
126
D. to be mounted in a vertical position
778. The society of Automotive Engineers and the
American iron and Steel Institute use a numerical
index system to identify the composition of various
steels. The symbol 1020 indicates a plain carbon steel
containing an average of
A. 20.00 percent carbon
B. 2.00 percent carbon by volume
C. 2.00 percent carbon by weight
D. 0.20 percent carbon by weight
779. Which of the bolt head code markings shown in
Fig 36 identifies a corrosion resistant AN standard
steel bolt?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
780. Which of the following statements regarding
aircraft bolts is correct?
A. AN standard steel bolts are marked with two raised
dashes on the bolt head
B. when tightening castellated nuts on drilled bolts, if
the cotter pin holes donot line up, it is not permissible
to overtighten the nut to permit alignment of the next
slot with the cotter pin hole.
C. in general, bolt grip lengths should equal the
material thickness
D. alloy steel bolts smaller than 1/4 inch diameter
should not be used in primary structure
781. Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be
A. one and one half times the thickness of the material
through which they extend
B. equal to the thickness of the material through
which they extend plus approximately one diameter
C. equal to the thickness of the material through
which they exten
D. at least three times the thickness of the thinnest
sheet
782. Select the grip length of a bolt used to fasten two
5/8 inch steel plates together
A. 1- 3/8 inches
B. 1-1/4 inches
C. 3/4 inch 789. A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head is
D. 7/8 inch classified as an
A. AN aluminum alloy bolt
783. When the specific torque value for nuts is not B. NAS standard aircraft bolt
given, where can be recommended torque value be C. NAS close tolerance bolt
found? D. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt
A. AC 43, 13-2A
B. FAR part 43, Appendix D 790. The core material of ALCLAD 2024-T4is
C. Technical Standard Order A. commercially pure aluminum, and the surface
D. AC 43,13-1A material is strain-hardened aluminum alloy
B. heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the surface
784. Identify the clevis bolt illustrated in Fig 37 material is commercially pure aluminum
A. A C. commercially pure aluminum and the surface
B. B material is heat-treated aluminum alloy
C. D D. strain-hardened aluminum alloy and the surface
D. C material is commercially pure aluminum

791. The high purity aluminum code number 1100

identifiers what type of aluminum?
A. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper
B. heat treated aluminum alloy
C. aluminum alloy containing zinc
D. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum

792. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a

A. class 1 fit for the threads
785. A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is
B. class 2 fit for the threads
classified as an
C. class 3 fit for the threads
A. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt
D. class 4 fit for the threads
B. NAS standard aircraft bolt
C. NAS close tolerance bolt
793. In the four-digit aluminum index system number
D. AN aluminium bolt
2024, the first digit indicates
A. zinc has been added to the aluminum
786. How is a clevis bolt used with a form-end cable
B. the percent of alloy added
terminal secured?
C. the different alloys in that group
A. with a self-locking nut with a lock washer to
D. copper is the major alloying element
prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork
B. with a shear nut tightened to a snug fit, but with no
794. How is the locking feature of the fiber-type lock
strain imposed on the fork and safetied with a cotter
nut obtained?
pin
A. by a saw-cut fiber insert with a pinched in thread
C. with a castle hut tightened until slight binding
the locking section
occurs between the fork and the fitting to which it is
B. by the use of an unthreaded fiber locking insert
being attached
C. by a fiber insert held firmly in place at the base of
D. with a shear nut and cotter pin or a think self-
the load carrying section
locking nut tightened enough to prevent rotation of
D. by placing the threads in the fiber insert out of
the bolt in the fork
phase with the load carrying section
787. A cross inside a traigle on the head of a bolt used
795. Identify the weld in Fig 38, caused by a
on approved aircraft installations would indicate the
excessive amount of acetylene
bolt is a
A. D
A. standard corrosion-resistant bolt
B. A
B. special purpose bolt
C. C
C. magnetically inspected bolt
D. B
D. close tolerance bolt
796. Using fig 38 select the illustration which depicts
788. Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane?
a cold weld
A. in loading gear assemblies
A. C
B. for tension and shear load conditions
B. A
C. where external tension loads are applied
C. B
D. only for shear load applications
127
D. D 803. One characteristic of a good weld is that no oxide
should be formed on the base metal at a distance from
797. It is necessary to reweld a joint the weld of more than
A. use an oversize welding rod A. 1/2 inch
B. remove all the old weld B. 1 inch
C. preheat before rewelding C. 1/8 inch
D. increase the temperature to ensure proper D. 1/4 inch
penetration

804. What type weld is shown at A in Fig 39?

A. fillet
B. butt
C. lap
798. Why is it considered good practice to normalize D. edge
a part after welding?
A. to relieve internal stresses developed within the 805. What type weld is shown at B in Fig 39?
base metal A. Fillet
B. to born out any excess carbon deposited during B. double butt
welding C. flat
C. to introduce a slight amount of carbon to improve D. edge
the surface hardness of the weld
D. to remove the surface scale formed during welding 806. What type weld is shown at G in fig 39?
A. lap
799. Holes and a few projecting globules are found in B. butt
a weld. What action should be taken? C. flat
A. fill the holes with solder D. edge
B. reheat the bead to melt the globules
C. remove all the old weld and reweld the joint 807. Which tool can be used to measure axle end
D. file the rough surface play?
A. depth gage
800. Select a characteristic of a good gas weld B. dial indicator
A. the depth of penetration shall be sufficient to C. axle gage
ensure fusion of the filler rod D. protractor
B. the weld should be built up 1/8 inch
C. the weld should taper off smoothly into the base 808. Hardened Steel bars of various lengths used to
metal set up a piece of work to a required angle are known
D. no oxide should be formed on the base metal as
A. Sinc bars.
801. Which of the following is an unacceptable B. System bars.
characteristic of a weld on an aircraft? C. Parallel bars.
A. projecting globules D. Protractor bars.
B. smooth seam
C. a smooth taper into the base metal 809. What is the measurement reading on the vernier
D. an extra thickness built up at the joint caliper scale in Fig 41?
A. 1.411 inches
802. What is the most important characteristic that B. 1.436 inches
contributes to a sound weld? C. 1.461 inches
A. inclusions D. 1.700 inches
B. fusion
C. pudding
D. porosity
128
 A. combination set
B. surface gage
C. dial indicator
D. micrometer caliper

816. If it is necessary to accurately measure the

diameter of a hole approximately 3/8 inch in diameter
the mechanic should use a
A. telescoping gage and read the measurement
directly from the gage
810. Which tool should you use to measure the B. telescoping gage and determine the size of the hole
clearance between a surface plate and a surface being it taking a micrometer reading of the adjustable end of
checked for flatness? the telescoping gage
A. depth gage C. 0 to 1 inch inside micrometer and read the
B. surface gage measurement directly from the micrometer
C. thickness gage D. small hole gage and determine the size of the hole
D. dial indicator it taking a micrometer reading of the ball and of the
gage
811. If the thumble of a standard micrometer caliper,
graduated in thousandths of an inch, in turned one full 817. The measurement reading on the micrometer
revolution, the spindle it moves appearing in Fig 43 is
A. 0.010 inch A. 2958
B. 0.10 inch B. 2902
C. 1.10 inch C. 2812
D. 0.0010 inch D. 2885
812. Which of the following represents the vernier
scale . . . . . . .of a micrometer?
A. 0.00001
B. 0.001
C. 0.0001
D. 0.01

818. Which of the following is generally used to set a

divider to an exact dimension?
A. machinist scale
B. surface gage
C. thickness gage
D. dial indicator
813. In the above circuit (Fig. 42), the voltage across
C1 is 819. Which of the following is generally used to
A. 300 V calibrate a micrometer of check its accuracy?
B. 600 V A. Gage block
C. 900 V B. dial indicator
D. 450 V C. surface gage
D. machinist scale
814. In the above circuit (Fig. 42), the voltage across
C2 is 820. what precision measuring tool is used for
A. 300 V measuring crankpin and main bearing journals for out
B. 600 V of round wear?
C. 900 V A. dial gage
D. 450 V B. V blocks
C. micrometer caliper
815. Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or D. depth gage
other cylindrical work?
129
821. The side clearance of piston rings is measured B. Micrometer caliper
with a C. dividers
A. depth gage D. dial indicator
B. thickness gage
C. hole gage 829. During starting of a turbojet powerplant using a
D. telescopic gage compressed air starter, a hung start occurred. Select
the proper procedure from the following
822. Crankshaft alignment runout can be checked by A. advance the power lever
rotating the shaft on V blocks and a surface plate. The B. increase airpower to the starter
measurements are taken with a C. re-engage the starter
A. height gage D. shut the engine down
B. dial gage
C. depth gage 830. When towing an aircraft
D. telescopic gage A. discharge all hydraulic pressure to prevent
accidental operation of the landing gear, retracting
823. How can the dimensional inspection of a bearing mechanism
in a rocker arm be accomplished? B. all tailwheel aircraft must be towed backwards
A. depth gage and micrometer C. if the aircraft has a steerable nosewheel, the
B. thickness gage and V blocks locking scissors should be set to full swivel
C. thickness gage and push . . . . . . . . . D. all nosewheel aircraft must be towed backwards
D. telescopic gage and micrometer
831. When starting an aircraft, engine equipped with a
824. The twist of a connecting rod is checked by float-type carburetor, the carburetor air heat control
installing push-fit arbors in both ends supported by should be placed in
parallel steel bars on a surface plate . Measurements A. the COLD position
are taken between the arbor and the parallel bar with a B. the COLD position under nonicing conditions and
A. dial gage in the HOT position under icing conditions
B. height gage C. the HOT position to reduce the engine warmup
C. thickness gage period
D. depth gage D. a position between HOT and COLD

825. The clearance between the piston rings and the 832. When approaching the front of an idling turbojet
ring lands is measured with a engine, the hazard area extends forward of the engine
A. micrometer caliper approximately
B. thickness gage A. 35 feet
C. dial gage B. 5 feet
D. depth gage C. 15 feet
D. 25 feet
826. Piston-ring gap is measured at a point inside the
cylinder, even with the cylinder flange, using a 833. The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use
A. depth gage in case of carburetor or intake fire is
B. thickness gage A. dry chemical
C. dial gage B. carbon tetrachloride
D. height gage C. carbon dioxide
D. fine water spray
827. Which statement is correct concerning a valve
that is strentched? 834. Identify the signal to engage rotor on a rotorcraft
A. a gap will be noticeable between the stretch gage in Fig 44
and the valve stem A. A
B. a gap will be noticeable between the stretch gage B. B
and the valve face C. D
C. a gap will be noticeable between the stretch gage D. C
and both the valve stem and the valve face
D. the stretch gage will touch only in the radius that
connects the valve stem to the valve face

828. Which tool can be used to determine piston pin

out of round wear?
A. Telescopic gage
130

835. Starting a reciprocating engine which has a liquid
lock in one of the cylinders could cause
A. compressive failure of the valve bodies
B. starter clutch damage
C. removal of the lubricating film on the cylinder
walls
D. major structural damage
836. The priming of a fuel injected horizontally
opposed engine is accomplished by placing the fuel
control lever in which of the following?
A. AUTO-LEAN position
B. IDLE-CUTOFF position
C. AUTO-RICH position
D. FULL-RICH position
837. Which of the following can be a cause of
preignition?
A. high intake manifold pressure
B. vaporized fuel compressed to a critical pressure
C. feathered edges on valves
D. excessive spark plug gap
838. Which action would be required if the turbine
inside temperature exceeds the specified maximum
during the starting sequence of a turboprop engine?
A. turn off the fuel and ignition switch, discontinue
the start and make an investigation
B. advance the power lever and observe for excessive
smoke, if present, discontinue the staff
C. continue the start since temperature will stabilize
as soon as 5,000 RPM is reached
D. turn off the fuel and ignition switch, discontinue
the start, then wait 5 minutes and initiate the starting
sequence
839. How is a flooded engine, equipped with a float-
type carburetor, cleared of excessive fuel?
A. crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with
the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch off and
the throttle fully open until the fuel charge has been
cleared
B. crank the engine with the starter or by hand with
the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch off and
the throttle closed, until the fuel has been cleared
C. turn off the fuel and the ignition. Discontinue the
starting attempt until the excess fuel has cleared
D. crank the engine with the starter or by hand with
the mixture control in cutoff ignition switch on & the
throttle fully open until the excess fuel has cleared on
until the engine starts.
131
840. If fuel flows steadily from the internal
supercharger drain valve during an attempt to start an
engine, which of the following is a possible cause of
the trouble?
A. excessive booster pump pressure
B. the fuel pump relief valve is out of adjustment
C. an improper setting of the misture control
D. a fatigued carburetor fuel supply line
841. Which of the hand signals in Fig 45, would you
give if a taxing aircraft were in danger of striking
some object?
A. C
B. A
C. B
D. D
842. Induction fires during starting can be
extinguished by
A. directing carbon dioxide into the air intake of the
engine
B. directing carbon dioxide into the exhaust system
C. closing the fuel shutoff valve
D. closing the throttle
843. Which of the following indicators should be
checked immediately after starting a reciprocating
engine?
A. oil pressure
B. manifold pressure
C. tachometer
D. cylinder head temperature
844. During the starting sequence of a turboprop
engine, there is no oil pressure indication at 5,000
RPM for either the reduction gear or the power unit.
What action is required?
A. turn off the ignition switch and fuel, discontinue
the start and replace the oil pressure gauge
B. turn off the ignition switch and fuel, let the engine
motorize for 5 minutes and restart
C. turn off the ignition switch and fuel, discontinue
the start and make an investigation
D. turn off the ignition switch and fuel, discontinue
the start, wait for 5 minutes and initiate the starting
sequence
845. When starting an engine equippped with a float-
type carburetor with an idle cutoff unit, the mechanic
should place the mixture control in the
A. IDLE-CUTOFF position
B. FULL-LEAN position
C. FULL-RICH positon while priming the engine,
however, the mixture control should be returned to the
IDLE-theengine
D. FULL-RICH position
846. When approaching the rear of an idling turbojet
engine, the hazard area extends aft of the engine
approximately
A. 80 feet
B. 100 feet
C. 50 feet
D. 5 feet
847. During starting of a turbojet powerplant using a
compressed air starter, a hot start occurrence was
recorded. Select what happened from the following
A. the pneumatic starting unit overheated
B. the pneumatic starter overheated
C. the powerplant was preheated before starting
D. the fuel/air mixture was excessively rich
848. Aviation gasoline mixed with jet fuel will have
the following effects on turbine powerplant efficiency
A. no disadvantages
B. the tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposits on
the turbine blades
C. the tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposits on
the compressor blades
D. continuous use will not affect engine efficiency
849. What would be the action to take if avaition
gasoline in an aircraft was contaminated with jet fuel?
A. determine the type jet fuel, then contact the engine
manufacturer for guidance
B. adjust mixture to compensate for lower octane
C. determine the amount of fuel put in tanks and if
under 25 percent of total volume, do nothing, if over
25 percent, drain the tanks and refill.
D. drain fuel tanks and fill with proper octane rating
fuel.
850. Jet fuel is more susceptible to contamination than
aviation gasoline
(1) let fuel is of higher viscosity and therefore holds
contaminants better
(2) viscosity has no relation to contamination of fuel
Regarding the above statements, which of the
following is true?
A. only no 1 is true
B. only no 2 is true
C. both no 1 and 2 are true
D. neither no 1 nor the no 2 is true
851. Identify the colour of low-lead 100LL aviation
gasoline
A. blue
B. green
C. orange
D. purple
132
852. what is the identification color for turbine fuel?
A. blue
B. green
C. straw
D. purple
853. How are aviation fuels which possess greater
antiknock qualities than 100 octane classified?
A. as antidetonants
B. according to the mililiters of lead
C. by reference to normal heptane
D. by performance numbers
854. Why is ethylene dibromide added to all grades of
aviation gasoline?
A. to prevent detonation at takeoff power settings
B. to remove zinc silicate deposits from the spark
plugs
C. to scavenge lead oxide from the cylinder
combustion chambers
D. to increase the antiknock rating of the fuel
855. Both gasoline and kerosene have certain
advantages for use as turbine fuel. Which of the
following is a true statement in reference to the
advantages of each?
A. kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit weight
than gasoline
B. gasoline is a better lubricant than kerosene
(important in regard to fuel metering pumps).
C. gasoline has a higher heat energy per unit volume
than kerosene
D. kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit volume
than gasoline
856. What characteristic of a fuel reduces its tendency
to vapor lock?
A. low latent heat of vaporization
B. high volatility
C. low vapor pressure
D. high octane rating or performance number
857. characteristics of detonation are
A. rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive cylinder
head temperature and an increase in engine power
B. cylinder pressure remains the same excessive
cylinder head temperature and decrease in engine
power
C. rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive cylinder
head temperature and a decrease in engine power
D. rapid rise in cylinder pressure, cylinder head,
temperature normal and a decrease in engine power
858. A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause
A. hard starting
B. detonation
C. slow warmup
D. vapor lock
 867. When an anodized surface coating is damaged in
859. Jet fuel number identifiers are service, it can be partically restored by
A. performance numbers to designate the volatility of A. use of a metal polish
the fuel B. chemal surface treatment
B. performance numbers and are relative to the fuels C. complete penetration of an inhibitor
performance in the aircraft engine D. a suitable mild cleaner
C. type numbers and have no relation to the fuel's
performance in the aircraft engine 868. If a nickel-cadmium battery electrolyte is spilled
D. type numbers used to designate the vaporization on the hands, what agent may be used to rinse the
rate at atmospheric pressure affected area?
A. boric acid solution
860. The second number in a fuel rating (100/130) is B. baking soda solution
the C. ammonia solution
A. lean mixture antiknock rating D. potassium hydroxide solution
B. percent of iso-octane in the fuel
C. percent of normal heptane in the fuel 869. Select the solvent recommended for wipedown
D. rich mixture antiknock rating of cleaned surfaces just before painting
A. aliphatic naptha
861. Characteristics of aviation gasoline to B. trichloroethane
A. retard to formation of corrosives C. dry-cleaning solvent
B. lubricate the valve seats D. kerosene
C. improve the gasoline's performance in the engine
D. dissolve the moisture in the gasoline 870. Which of the following is used for general
cleaning of aluminum surfaces by mechanical means?
862. Tetraethyl lead is added to gasoline to A. carborundum paper
A. retard the formation of corrosives B. aluminum wool
B. lubricate the valve seats C. crocus cloth
C. improve the gasoline's performance in the engine D. steel wool
D. dissolve the moisture in the gasoline
871. Select the solvent used to clear acrylics and
863. A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can rubber
cause A. aliphatic napths
A. vapor lock B. methyl ethyl ketons
B. detonation C. aromatic naptha
C. hard starting D. methyl chloroform
D. surface ignition
872. Select the solvent used to clean metal surfaces
864. Which of the following materials would be used and as a paint stripper for small areas
to clean an engine crankcase prior to painting? A. kerosone
A. dichromate solution B. methyl ethyl ketone
B. acetone C. dry-cleaning solvent
C. MEK (Methyl Ethyl Ketone) D. methyl choloroform
D. 20 percent caustic soda solution
873. Fayed surfaces cause concern in chemical
865. How many magnesium engine parts be cleaned? cleaning because of the danger of
A. soak in 20 percent caustic soda solution A. electrostatic charge buildup
B. wash with gasoline B. electrochemical attack
C. spray with MEK (Methyl Ethyl Ketone) C. entrapping corrosive materials
D. wash with a commercial solvent, decarbonize and D. corrosion by imbedded iron oxide
scrape or grit blast
874. What effect does a caustic cleaning product have
866. Which solvent is recommended for removing on aluminum structures?
grease from 'abric prior to doping? A. electrochemical
A. Kerosene B. mechanical
B. Acetone C. strengthening
C. toluene D. corrosive
D. turpentine
875. Fretting corrosion between closely metting metal
parts
133
A. is cause for rejection of the part
B. may occur when steel bush melting with aluminum 883. The artificial production of a film of hydroxide
parts with too tightly on the surface of aluminum or any of its alloys is
C. occurs only when two dissimilar metals are in commonly called
contact A. alodizing
D. may be repaired by light oiling and retightening of B. parco lubrizing
the parts. C. anodizing
876. the lifting or flaking of a metal surface is known D. dichromating
as exfolitation. This delamination of the grain
boundaries is sometimes known as 884. Why are parts rinsed thoroughly in hot water
A. dissimilar metal corrosion after they have been heat-treated in a sodium and
B. integranular corrosion potassium nitrate bath?
C. stress corrosion A. to prevent corrosion
D. climatic condition corrosion B. to prevent blistering
C. to reduce warpage
877. Select the metal on which corrosion forms a D. to retard discoloration
greenish film
A. copper and its alloy 885. Intergranular corrosion in structural aluminum
B. aluminium and its alloy alloy parts
C. steel and iron A. is not likely to occur in parts fabricated from heat-
D. titanium and its alloy treated sheet aluminum
B. may be detected by the white, powdery deposit
878. Alodizing is a chemical treatment for aluminum formed on the surface of the metal
to improve their paint-bonding qualities and to C. is not likely to occur, in parts fabricated from
A. increase their corrosion resistance aluminum coated alloys (ALCLAD or PURECLAD)
B. make their surface slightly alkaline D. cannot always be detedted by surface indications
C. relieve their surface stresses
D. increase their corrosion resistance 886. Integranular corrosion is caused by
879. Metals and alloys of greatly differing A. improper heat treatment
composition could not be in direct contact with each B. dissimilar metal contact
other because C. improperly assembled components
A. of the possibility of generating static charges which D. poor application of zinc chromate primer
interfere with radio reception
B. of the different rates of expansion 887. Which of the following types of corrosion may
C. of their unequal tensile strengths exist in aircraft structure and not be visible?
D. deterioration may result from electrochemical A. Electrolytic corrosion
action at point of contact B. bonderizing corrosion
C. climatic condition corrosion
880. what is the best means of removing rust from D. surface corrosion
steel?
A. mechanical 888. Corrosion should be removed from magnesium
B. electrical parts with a
C. chemical A. steel wire brush
D. biochemical B. carborundum abrasive
C. stiff, hog-bristle brush
881. How is alodine applied to aluminum alloys? D. steel burnishing tool
A. as part of the priming process
B. by dipping 889. Why is it important not to rotate the propeller
C. as part of the manufacturing process shaft after the final spraying of corrosion-preventive
D. concurrently with the alclad mixture into cylinders installed on removed engines?
A. the link rods may be damaged by hydraulic lock
882. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface B. the corrosion preventive mixture will be
due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the excessively diluted
pressure of corrosion residual product buildup is C. the engine may fire and cause injury to personnel
called D. the seal of corrosion preventive mixture will be
A. brinelling broken
B. electrolysis
C. transgranulation 890. Why is a plastic surface flushed with fresh water
D. exfoliation before it is cleaned with soap and water?
134
A. to prevent crazing C. impairing the corrosion resisting qualities of the
B. to prevent scratching metal
C. to remove oil and grease D. difficulty in preparing the surface for painting
D. to prevent softening the plastic
897. What power of ten is equal to 1,000,000?
891. What should be done to prevent rapid A. 10 to the third power
deterioration when a tire becomes covered with B. 10 to the fourth power
lubricating oil? C. 10 to the fifth power
A. wipe the tire with a dry cloth and then dry with D. 10 to the sixth power
compressed air
B. wipe the tire with a dry cloth followed by a 898. Find the square root of 1,746
washdown with soap and water A. 41.7852
C. wash the tire with a petroleum solvent and then dry B. 41.7752
with compressed air C. 40.7742
D. wash the tire with alcohol or lacquer thinner to D. 42.7854
neutralize the action of the oil
899. The result of nine raised to the fourth power is
892. Galvanic action caused by dissimilar metal which of the following?
contact may best be prevented by A. 6.491
A. applying a nonporous dielectric material between B. 6.461
the surfaces C. 6.941
B. priming both surfaces with a light coat of zinc D. 6.561
chromate primer
C. special precautions are not required if they are 900. Find the square root of 3,722.18359
properly bonded A. 61.00971
D. application of paper tape between the surfaces B. 61.00
C. 61.009
893. Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the D. 61.0097
result of 901. find the square of 212
A. excessive anodization A. 40,144
B. contact between two unlike metals B. 43,924
C. the wrong quenching agent C. 44,944
D. excessive etching D. 44,844

894. to prevent corrosion between dissimilar metal 902. Find the value of ten raised to the negative sixth
joints in which magnesium alloy is involved power
A. prime only the magnesium part with one coat of A. 0.000001
zinc chromate primer and put a leather gasket between B. 0.0000101
the pieces C. 0.0001
B. the magnesium part must be plated with the same D. 0.00001
metal at the part it will be in contact with
C. coat both mating surfaces with an aluminized 903. What is the square root of four raised to the fifth
varnish power?
D. prime both parts with two coats of zinc chromate A. 32
primer and place a layer of pressure sensitive vinyl B. 64
tape between them C. 16
D. 20
895. The interior surface of sealed structural steel
tubing is best protected against corrosion by 904. The number 3.47 x 10 to the negative fourth
A. purging the interior with dry air before sealing power is equal to
B. a coating of hot linseed oil A. 3,470.00
C. evacuating the tubing before sealing B. 34,700.0
D. a coating of zinc chromate paint C. 0034.70
D. 000347
896. Failure to quench a piece of aluminum in the
minimum required time could result in 905. Which alternative answer is equal to 16,300?
A. failure of the ALCLAD to adhere properly A. 1.63 x 10 to the fourth power
B. causing the aluminium to become extremely brittle B. 1.63 x 10 to the negative third power
C. 163 x 10 to the negative second power
135
D. 1,630 x 10 to the negative first power

906. Find the square root of 125.131

A. 111.8 x 10 to the third power
B. 1118 x 10 to the negative second power
C. 1.118 x 10 to the negative second power
D. 11.186 x 10 to the negative third power

907. What is the square root of 16 raised to the fourth

power?
A. 1,024 913. What size sheet of metal is required to fabricate
B. 64 cylinder 20 inches long and 8 inches in diameter?
C. 4,096 (Note: C = 3.1416 x d)
D. 256 A. 20" x 25-5/32"
B. 20" x 24-9/64"
908. Solve the following : C. 20" x 25-9/64"
D. 20" x 24-5/32"
2
31 + 2 13
(17 ) 2 914. Find the area of the right triangle shown in Fig
A. .0297 47?
B. .1680 A. 5 sq in
C. 7132 B. 6 sq in
D. 0419 C. 9 sq in
D. 12 sq in
909. The result of seven raised to the third power plus
the square root of 39 is equal to
A. 349.24
B. 27.24
C. 343.24
Fig 47
D. 2,407.24

910. Find the square root of 1,824

A. 42,708 x 10 to the negative second power 915. What force is exerted on the piston in a hydraulic
B. .42708 cylinder if the area of the piston is 1.2 square inches
C. 4,270.8 and the fluid pressure is 850 PSI?
D. .42708 x 10 to the second power A. 1,020 lb
B. 1,220 lb
911. The total piston displacement of a specific engine C. 960 lb
is D. 850 lb
A. dependent on the compression ratio
B. dependent on the volumetric efficiency 916. The cylinder of an aircraft engine has a bore of
C. the volume displaced by all the pistons during one 4.75 inches and a stroke of 4.5 inches. What is the
revolution of the crankshaft piston displacement of one cylinder?
D. the volume displaced by one piston during one A. 64.34 cu. In.
revolution of the crankshaft B. 33.58 cu in
C. 318.81 cu in
912. Compute the area of the trapezoid in Fig 46 D. 79.74 cu in
A. 40 square feet
B. 32 square feet 917. A rectangular-shaped fuel tank measures 60
C. 240 square feet inches in length, 30 inches in width and 12 inches in
D. 960 square feet depth. How many cubic feet are within the tank?
A. 12.5
B. 15.0
C. 18.5
D. 21.0

918. Compute the area of the trapezoid in Fig 48.

A. 8 sq ft
B. 24 sq ft

136
C. 48 sq ft 4.0 inches from the bottom of the cylinder. What is
D. 10 sq ft the approximate piston displacement of this engine?
A. 200 cubic inches
B. 360 cubic inches
C. 320 cubic inches
D. 235 cubic inches

924. A rectangular shaped fuel tank measures 37-1/2

inches in length, 14 inches in width, and 8-1/4 inches
in depth. How many cubic inches are within the tank?
A. 525
B. 433.125
C. 4,331.25
D. 309.375
919. Determine the area of the triangle formed by 925. Select the fraction which is equal to 0.020
points A,B and C in Fig 49 A. 3/16
A to B = 7.5 sq inches B. 1/5
A to D = 16.8 inches C. 2/7
A. 7.07 sq in D. 1/50
B. 42 sq in
C. 63 sq in 926. Select the decimal which is equal to the mixed
D. 126 sq in number 1-7/32
A. 1.2188
B. 1.3932
C. 1.7320
D. 1.3270

927. If the volume of a cylinder with the piston at

bottom center is 84 cubic inches and the piston
displacement is 70 cubic inches, then the compression
920. What is the piston displacement of a master ration is
cylinder with a 1.5 inch diameter bore and a piston A. 7:1
stroke of 4 inches? B. 1:2:1
A. 1.7671 cu in C. 6:1
B. 9.4247 cu in D. 1:9:1
C. 7.0685 cu in
D. 6.1541 cu in 928. Express 7/8 as a percent
A. .785 percent
921. How many gallons of fuel will be contained in a B. 78.5 percent
rectangular shaped tank which measures 2 feet in C. .875 percent
width, 3 feet in length and 1 foot 8 inches in depth? D. 87.5 percent
(7.5 gal. = 1 cu ft)
A. 66.6 929. What is the speed of a spur gear with 42 teeth
B. 75 driven by a pinion gear with 14 teeth turning 420
C. 110 RPM?
D. 45 A. 14 RPM
B. 42 RPM
922. A rectangular shaped fuel tank measures 27-1/2 C. 160 RPM
inches in length, 9 inches in width and 8-1/4 inches in D. 140 RPM
depth. How many gallongs will the tank contain? (231
cu in = 1 gal) 930. An engine develops 108 horsepower at 87
A. 18.8 percent power. What horsepower would be developed
B. 6.4 at 65 percent power?
C. 8.8 A. 80
D. 16.4 B. 94
C. 70
923. A four-cylinder aircraft engine has a cylinder D. 64
bore of 3.78 inches and is 8.5 inches deep. With the
piston on bottom center the top of the piston measures
137
931. Which of the following alternatives is the 939. An engine of 125 horsepower maximum is
decimal equivalent of the fraction 43/32? running at 65 percent power. What is the horsepower
A. 1.34375 being developed?
B. 1.43325 A. 93.05
C. 1.32435 B. 30.85
D. 1.74415 C. 81.25
D. 38.85
932. Select the fractional equipvalent for a 0.09375-
thick sheet of aluminum 940. An engine of 98 horsepower maximum is
A. 5/64 running at 75 percent power. What is the horsepower
B. 5/32 being developed?
C. 3/64 A. 87.00
D. 3/32 B. 33.30
C. 73.50
933. Express 5/8 as a percent D. 41.30
A. 62 percent 941. A blueprint shows a hole of 0.17187 to be
B. .625 percent drilled. Which fraction size drill-bit is most nearly
C. .620 percent equal?
D. 62.5 percent A. 11/64
B. 9/64
934. Select the decimal which is most nearly equal to C. 9/32
77/64 D. 11/32
A. 1.8311
B. 0.8311 942. Which of the following decimals is most nearly
C. 1.2031 equal to a bend radius of 31/64?
D. 1.3120 A. 0.0645
B. 0.6450
935. An airplane flying a distance of 875 miles used C. 0.48437
70 gallons of gasoline. How many gallons will it need D. 0.3164
to travel 3,000 miles?
A. 108 gallons 943. Sixty-five engines are what percent of 80 engine?
B. 120 gallons A. 71 percent
C. 240 gallons B. 81 percent
D. 144 gallons C. 65 percent
D. 52 percent
936. What is the speed ratio of a gear with 36 teeth
meshed to a gear with 20 teeth? 944. The radius of a piece of round stock is 7/32.
A. 12 to 5 Select the decimal which is most nearly equal to the
B. 12 to 6.6 diameter.
C. 9 to 5 A. 0.2187
D. 17 to 10 B. 0.5343
C. 0.4375
937. A pinion gear with 14 teeth is driving a spur gear D. 0.3531
with 42 teeth at 140 RPM. Determine the speed of
pinion gear 945. Maximum engine life is 900 hours. Recently, 27
A. 588 RPM engines were removed with an average life of 635.30
B. 196 RPM hours. What percent of the maximum engine life has
C. 420 RPM been achieved?
D. 240 RPM A. 71 percent
B. 72 percent
938. The parts department's profit is 12% on new C. 73 percent
magneto. How much does the magneto cost if the D. 74 percent
sellihg price is $145.60?
A. $128.12 946. What is the ratio of 10 feet to 30 inches?
B. $120.00 A. 4:1
C. $125.60 B. 1:3
D. $130.00 C. 1:4
D. 3:1

138
947. How much current does a 30V motor, 1/2 C. 3-5/16
horsepower, 85 percent efficient, draw from the bus? D. 4-3/4
A. 14.6 amperes
B. 12.4 amperes 956. solve the following:
C. 12.3 amperes 5/9 (41+40) - 40 =
D. 14.1 amperes A. 5
B. 4.55
948. Solve the following: [(4 x -3)+ (-9 x + 2)] / 2 = C. 22.3
A. 0 D. 73.8
B. -30
C. -15 957. Solve the following:
D. -5 (32 x 3/16) / (1/2) =
A. 16
B. 12
949. solve the following: (64 x 3/8) / (3/4) = C. 72
A. 16 D. 1.5
B. 24
C. 32 958. Solve the following:
D. 72 2/4 (30 +34).5 =
A. 117
950. Solve the following: B. 160
-18.4 + 0.07 - 2.2 + 8.36 = C. 345
A. +12.17 D. 640
B. -12.31
C. +12.31 959. Solve the equation in fig 50
D. -12.17 A. 16.51
B. 174.85
951. Solve the following: C. -81.49
1/2 + 7/8 - 1/3 = D. 14.00
A. 1-11/16 ( − 35 + 25 )( − 7 ) + (π ) (16 −2 )
B. 1-1/24
C. 1-1/12 Fig. 50 25
D. 1-3/8
960. Solve the following equation:
952. Solve the following: − 4 125
(1-1/2 x 7/5) / (1/4) = − 6 −36
A. 1-11/16
A. +31.25
B. 1-3/4
B. -5.20
C. 1-9/16
C. -31.25
D. 1-17/32
D. +6.05
953. Solve the following:
961. Solve the following: 4 - 3{-6(2+3) +4} =
(32 x 3/8) / (1/6) =
A. 82
A. 16
B. 33
B. 12
C. -25
C. 2
D. -71
D. 72
962. Solve the following:
954. What is the ratio of a gasoline fuel load of 200
-5 [ -9(-8 +4) -2(7+3)] =
gallons to one of 1.680 pounds?
A. 16
A. 3:7
B. -332
B. 5:7
C. 215
C. 2:3
D. -96
D. 5:42
963. Solve the following: 5 [4 - (+3 -4) +13] -6 =
955. Solve the following:
A. 84
(2-1/2 x 1-3/8) / (2-3/4) =
B. 21
A. 6-3/16
C. 17
B. 6-1/4
D. -16
139

964. Which of the following provides a place for
indicating compliance with FAA airworthiness
Directives or manufacturers' service bulletins?
A. Structural repair manual
B. Aircraft overhaul manual
C. aircraft logs
D. Illustrated parts catalog
965. An aircraft was not approved for return to service
after an annual inspection and the owner wanted to be
the aircraft to another maintenance base. Which
statement is correct?
A. The owner must obtain a special flight permit
B. The aircraft must be approved for return to serve
previous to any flight
C. The aircraft may be flown to another maintenance
base if the discrepancies are not safety of flight items.
D. The owner must obtain a restricted category type
certificate.
966. When should special inspection procedures be
followed to determine if any damage to the aircraft
structure has occurred?
A. Progressive inspection
B. 100 hour inspection
C. Overweight landing
D. Annual inspection
967. During an annual inspection, if a defect is found
which makes the aircraft unairworthy, the person
disapproving must
A. remove the airworthiness certificate from the
aircraft
B. submit a Malfunction of Defect Report
C. provide a written notice of the defect to the owner
D. repair the defect before completion of the
inspection
968. What is the means by which the FAA notify
aircraft owners and other interested persons of
un…….. conditions and prescribes the condition
under which the product may continue to be operated?
A. Airworthiness Directives
B. supplemental Type Certificates
C. Malfunction or Defect Reports
D. Technical Standard Orders.
969. where should you find this entry?
"Removed right wing from aircraft and removed skin
from outer 6 feet. Repaired buckled spar 49 inches
from tip in accordance with Fig. 8 in the
manufacturer's structural repair manual NO. 28-1"
A. Aircraft engine log
B. AD compliance record
C. FAA Form 337
D. Service bulletin compliance record
140
970. Which of the following is a powerplant, major
repair?
A. Installation of an accessory which is not approved
to the engine
B. Separation of a crankcase of a reciprocating engine
equipped with an integral supercharger
C. Overhaul of pressure-type carburators and pressure
type fuel and oil pumps.
D. Disassembly of a crankshaft of a reciprocating
engine equipped with a spur-type propeller reduction
gear.
971. Which of the following is an airframe major
repair?
A. Removal, installation and repair of landing gear
tires
B. Changes to the wing or to fixed or movable control
surfaces which affect flutter and vibration
characteristics
C. Rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessory
D. The repair of portions of skin sheets by making
additional seams.
972. What maintenance action should follow if the
maintenance record contained the following entry?
"During flight the aircraft engine experienced sudden
deceleration."
A. Perform power output check (static and idle RPM)
B. Perform the engine group inspection for the
annual/progressive
C. Perform powr output check with vibration analyzer
(static and idle RPM)
D. Perform sudden stoppage inspection.
973. Which of the following aircraft record entries
best describes a repair of a 6-1/4 inch crack in the top
skin of a stabilizer?
A. Stop-drilled the crack. Make permanent repair at
next scheduled annual inspection
B. Stop-drilled the crack using a 1/8 inch drill,
installed a patch plate two times the length of the
crack, two-row rivet spacing two times the diameter
of the rivet used.
C. Cut out the defective area, installed a flush repair
using the same rivet size, spacing materials, and
pattern as the adjacent area.
D. Cut out the defective area, installed a flush repair
using the same material, revet size and unit spacing as
the adjacent area and a rivet edge distance of two
times the diameter of the rivets used.
974. Which of the following statements best describes
the entry made in an aircraft record for the repair of a
2-inch crack located in the center of a plastic side
window?
A. Stop-drilled both ends of the crack, cut a piece of
plastic 1-1/2 inches larger than the crack, heated the
patch in an oil bath and formed to the contour to be
patched, applied plastic adhesive, pressed in place and
let dry under pressure for 3 hours.
B. Stop-drilled both ends of the crack, cut a piece of
plastic 3/4 inch larger than the crack, heated the patch
in an oil bath and formed to the contour to be patched,
applied plastic adhesive, pressed in place and let dry
under pressure for 3 hours.
C. Stop-drilled both ends of the crack, cut a piece of
plastic 3/4 inch larger than the crack,heated the patch
in an oil bath or boiling water and formed to the
contour to be patched and applied plastic adhesive,
pressed in place and let dry under pressure for 3
hours.
D. Stop-drilled both ends of the crack. Glued a piece
of plastic over the crack.
975. Which of the following aircraft record entries
best describes a repair of a dent in a tubuler steel
structure dented at a cluster?
A. Removed and replaced all the members of the
cluster
B. Removed and replaced the damaged member
C. Welded a reinforcing plate over the dented area
D. Filled the damaged area with a molten metal and
dressed to the original contour
976. Who is responsible for making the entry in the
maintenance records after an annual, 100 hour, or
progressive inspection?
A. The person performing the inspection
B. The owner or operator of the aircraft
C. The person approving or disapproving for return to
service
D. The pilot performing the test flight.
977. An aircraft owner was provided a list of
discrepancies on an aircraft that was not approved for
return to service after an annual inspection. Which
statement is correct concerning who may correct the
discrepancies?
A. Only a mechanic with an inspection authorization
B. Any certificated mechanic
C. Any certificated repair station
D. Holder of a pilot certificate if he/she owns or
operates the aircraft.
978. When entering a major repair in an aircraft
logbook, a mechanic must enter
A. the date the major repair was started
B. total time in service for the aircraft
C. his or her name and date the work was performed
D. total aircraft time since the last overhaul.
979. What action is required when a minor repair is
performed on a certificated aircraft?
A. An FAA Form 337 must be completed
B. The aircraft specifications must be amended
C. An entry in the aircraft's permanent records is
required
141
D. The owner of the aircraft must report the repair to
the FAA
980. After making a major repair to an aircraft engine
that is to be returned to service. FAA Form 337,
Major Repair and Alteration, must be prepared. How
many copies are required and what is the disposition
of the completed forms?
A. Two; both copies for the FAA
B. Two:one copy for the aircraft owner and one copy
for the FAA
C. Three: one copy for the aircraft owner and two
copies for the FAA
D. Three one copy for the aircraft owner, one copy for
the FAA and one copy for the permanent records of
the repairing agency or individual.
981. Who is responsible for maintaining the required
maintenance records for an airplane?
A. Authorised inspector
B. Repair station operator
C. Certified mechanic
D. Aircraft owner
982. Each person performing an annual or 100 hour
inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least
those items in the appendix of
A. FAR Part 43
B. FAR Part 65
C. FAR Part 91
D. Advisory Circular 43.13-3
983. An FAA Form 337 is used to record and
document which of the following?
A. Preventive and routine maintenance
B. Major repairs and major alterations
C. Minor repairs and minor alterations
D. Airworthiness Directive compliance
984. After a mechanic holding an airframe and
powerplant rating completes a 100 hour inspection,
what action is required before the aircraft is returned
to service?
A. Obtain a renewal for the airworthiness certificate
B. Make the proper entries in the aircraft's
maintenance record
C. Complete an operational check of all systems
D. A mechanic with an inspection Authorization must
approve the inspection
985. Which statement is correct, concerning the
completion of an FAA Form 337, Major Repair and
Alteration Form?
A. The certificate number of the person approving the
major repair or alteration need not be recorded on the
form
B. Weight and balance computations are not
necessary if the empty weight change is less than 1
percent
C. A clear, concise, and legible description of the
work to be accomplished. 993. Which of the following is the actual amount
D. Flight test results should be recorded on the form. water vapor in a mixture of air and water?
A. Relative humidity
986. Each person performing an annual or 100 hour B. Dew point
inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least C. Absolute humidity
those items in FAR 43, Appendix D. Vapor pressure
A. D
B. A 994. Under which of the following conditions will the
C. B rate of flow of a liquid through a metering orifice (or
D. C jet) be the greatest?
A. Unmetered pressure - 18 PSI
987. A certificated airframe and powerplant mechanic metered pressure - 17.5 PSI
authorised to approve and return to service an aircraft atmospheric pressure - 14.5 PSI
after a
A. 100 hour inspection B. Unmetered pressure - 23 PSI
B. certification inspection metered pressure - 12 PSI
C. major alteration atmospheric pressure - 14.3 PSI
D. major repair
C. Unmetered pressure - 17 PSI
988. The force that can be produced by an actuating metered pressure - 5 PSI
cylinder whose piston has a cross-sectional area of atmospheric pressure - 14.7 PSI
square inches operating in a 1,000 PSI hydraulic
system is most nearly D. Unmetered pressure - 15 PSI
A. 300 pounds metered pressure - 12 PSI
B. 3000 pounds atmospheric pressure - 14.7 PSI
C. 334 pounds
D. 1000 pounds 995. Which of the following is the portion of
atmospheric pressure exerted by the moisture in the
989. The boiling paint of a given liquid varies air?
A. inversely with volume A. Absolute humidity
B. directly with pressure B. Relative humidity
C. inversely with pressure C. dew point
D. directly with volume D. Vapor pressure

990. One of the following equals 1 horsepower 996. Using Fig 51 the amount of force applied to rope
A. 2,000 ft/lb of work per minute A to lift the weight is
B. 550 ft/lb of work per minute A. 12 pounds
C. 2000 ft/lb of work per second B. 15 pounds
D. 33,000 ft/lb of work per minute C. 20 pounds
D. 30 pounds
991. Which of the following is not considered of heat
transfer? 997. Which of the following will weigh the least?
A. Convection A. 98 parts of dry air and 2 parts of water vapor
B. Conduction B. 35 parts of water vapor and 65 parts of dry air
C. Diffusion C. 100 parts of dry air
D. Radiation D. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor

992. An engine that weighs 350pounds is removed

from an aircraft by means of a mobile hoist. The
engine is raised 3 feet above its attachment mount and
the entire assembly is then moved forward 12 feet. A
constant force of 70 pounds is required to move the
loaded hoist. What is the total work input required to
move the hoist?
A. 840 ft/lb
B. 22,680 ft/lb
C. 1,890 ft/lb
D. 1.050 ft/lb
142
 1004. Which of the following atmospheric conditions
will cause the true landing speed of an aircraft to be
the greatest?
A. low temperature with high humidity
B. low temperature with low humidity
C. high temperature with low humidity
D. high temperature with high humidity

1005. If the fluid pressure is 800 PSI in a 1/2 inch line

supplying an actuating cylinder with a piston area of
10 square inches, the force exerted on the piston will
be
998. Which of the following is the ratio of the water
A. 4,000 pounds
vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the
B. 1600 pounds
amount that would be present if the airware saturated
C. 8000 pounds
at the prevailing temperature and pressure?
D. 800 pounds
A. Absolute humidity
B. Relative humidity
1006. How many of the following factors are
C. Dew point
necessary to determine power?
D. vapor pressure
(1) Force exerted
(2) Distance the force moves
999. If a 120 pound force moves a 3,200 pound object
(3) Time required to do the work.
20 feet in 20 seconds along a straight horizontal path,
A. None
how much power was expended?
B. One
A. 100 ft/lb per second
C. Two
B. 2,400 ft/lb per second
D. Three
C. 3,200 ft/lb per second
D. 120 ft/lb per second
1007. What force must be applied to roll a 120 pound
1000. If the container volume of a confined gas is
barrel up an inclined plane 9 feet long to a height of 3
doubled (assume temperature remains constant), the
feet (disregard friction)?
pressure will
L/I = R/E
A. increase in direct proportion to the volume
L = Length of ramp, measured along the slope
increases
I = Height of ramp
B. remain the same.
R = Weight of object to be raised or lowered.
C. be doubled
E = Force required to raise or lower object.
D. be reduced to one-half its original value.
A. 40 lb
B. 120 lb
1001. If the temperature of a confined liquid is held
C. 360 lb
constant and its pressure is tripled, the volume will
D. 393 lb
A. triple
B. be increased one-third its original volume
1008. Which of the following statements concerning
C. be reduced to one-third its original volume
the concepts of heat and temperature is true?
D. remain the same
A. There is a direct relationship between temperature
and heat
1002. If the pressure of an air mass is doubled, with
B. There is an inverse variation between temperature
all other conditions constant, its density
and heat
A. is doubled
C. Temperature is a measure of intensity of heat.
B. varies inversely as the pressure increases
D. Temperature is a measure of quality of heat.
C. is decreased
D. remains the same
1009. What is absolute humidity?
A. The portion of atmospheric pressure that is exerted
1003. How much work input is required to lower (not
by the moisture in the air.
drop) a 120 pound weight from the top of a 3 foot
B. The temperature to which humid air must be
table to the floor?
cooled at constant pressure to become saturated.
A. 120 lb of force
C. The actual amount of the water vapor in a mixture
B. 120 ft/lb
of air and water.
C. 360 ft/lb
D. The ratio of the water vapor actually present in the
D. none
atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the
143
air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and
pressure.
1010. If the operating pressure is 2,000 PSI in a 1/2
inch line feeding an actuating cylinder which has a
piston area of 10 square inches, the maximum weight
the piston can lift will be
A. 40,000 lb
B. 20,000 lb
C. 10,000 lb
D. 2,000 lb
1011. Which of the following is the temperature to
which humid air must be cooled at constant pressure
to become saturated?
A. Dew point
B. Vapor pressure
C. Absolute humidity
D. Relative humidity
1012. If both the volume and the absolute temperature
a confined gas are doubled, the pressure will
A. not change
B. be doubled
C. be halved
D. become four times as great
1013. FAA Airworthiness Directives are issued to
A. provide temporary maintenance procedure
B. prescribe airman privileges and limitations
C. present suggested maintenance procedures
D. correct an unsafe condition
1014. (1) A supplemental type certificate may be
issued to more than one applicant for the same design
change providing each applicant shows compliance
with the applicable airworthiness requirement.
(2) An installation of an item manufactured in
accordance with the Technical Standard Order system
requires no further approval for installation in a
particular aircraft.
Regarding the above statements, which of the
following is true?
A. Only no 2 is tru
B. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. Neither No 1 nor No. 2 is true
D. Only No. 1 is true.
1015. For all aircraft type certificated prior to Jan 1,
1958, the CAA issued documents known as Aircraft
Specifications which contained technical information
about the aircraft type. If an aircraft was type
certificated May 7 1959, the information that would
formerly have been contained in the Aircraft
Specifications will be in the appropriate.
A. Aircraft Operation Information Letters
B. Certificated Aircraft Bulletins
144
C. Type Certificate Data Sheets
D. Aviation Airworthiness Alerts
1016. Which of the following issues Airworthiness
Directives?
A. National Transportation Safety Board
B. Air Transport Association
C. Manufacturers
D. Federal Aviation Administration
1017. Which of the following is contained in a Type
Certificate Data Sheet?
A. Maximum fuel grade to be used
B. All pertinent minimum weights
C. Control surface adjustment points
D. Location of the datum
1018. Suitability for use of a specific propeller with a
particulatr engine-airplane combination can be
determined by reference to what informational
source?
A. Propeller listing
B. Propeller specifications
C. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Date
Sheet
D. alphabetical Index of current Propeller Type
Certificate Data Sheets, Specifications and Listings
1019. If an airworthy aircraft is sold, what is done
with the airworthiness Certificate?
A. It must be endorsed by a certificated mechanic to
indicate that the aircraft is still airworthy
B. It becomes invalid until the aircraft is reinspected
and returned to service
C. It is declared void and new certificate is issued
upon application by the new owner
D. It is transferred with the aircraft
1020. FAA Airworthiness Directives
A. are mandatory
B. present design changes
C. provide temporary maintenance procedures
D. provide suggested maintenance procedures
1021. Which Part of the Federal Aviation Regulations
governs the issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate?
A. Part 23
B. Part 21
C. Part 25
D. Part 39
1022. Specifications pertaining to an aircraft, of which
a limited number were manufactured under a type
certificate and for which there is no current Aircraft
Specification, can be found in
A. Alphabetical Index of Antique Aircraft
B. Aircraft Listing
C. FAA Statistical Handbook of Civil Airplane
Specifications
D. Annual Summary of Deleted and Discontinued 1029. (1) Propellers are not included in the
Aircraft Specifications Airwarthiness Directive system.
(2) A certificated powerplant mechanic may make a
1023. Where are technical descriptions of certificated minor repair on a propeller and approve for return to
propellers found? service.
A. Applicable Airworthiness Directives Regarding the above statements, which of the
B. Aircraft Listings following is true?
C. Aircraft Specifications A. Only No. 1 is true
D. Propeller type certificates B. Only No. 2 is true
C. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true
1024. Which of the following is generally contained D. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true
in Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data
Sheets? 1030. What publication would a mechanic use to
A. Empty weight of the aircraft determine the fuel quantity and octane rating for a
B. Useful load of aircraft specific aircraft?
C. Payload of aircraft A. Type Certificate Data Sheet
D. Control surface movements B. Manufacturers Parts Manual
C. Summary of Supplemental Type Certificates
1025. Placards required on an aircraft are specified in D. Federal Aviation Regulations
A. Advisory Circular 43.13-1A
B. the aircraft logbook 1031. An Aircraft mechanic is privileged to perform
C. Federal Aviation Regulations under which the major alterations on United States certificated aircraft,
aircraft was type certificated however the work must be done in accordance with
D. aircraft Specifications or Type certificate Date technical data approved by the Administrator before
Sheets the aircraft can be approved for return to service
Which of the following is not approved data?
1026. Technical information about older aircraft A. FAA Airworthiness Directives
models of which no more than 50 remain in service B. Advisory circular 43.13-2A
can be found in the C. Type Certificate Data Sheets
A. Aircraft Listing D. Manufacturers manuals when FAA approved
B. Annual Summary of Deleted and Discontinued
Aircraft Specifications 1032. What is the maintenance recording
C. Alphabetical Index of Antique Aircraft responsibility of the person who complies with an
D. FAA Statistical Handbook of Civil airplane Airworthiness Directive?
Specifications A. Advise the aircraft owner-operator of the work
performed.
1027. (1) The Federal Aviation Regulations require B. Make an entry in the maintenance record of that
approval after compliance with the data of a equipment.
supplemental type certificate. C. Advise the FAA district office of the work
(2) An installation of an item manufactured in performed, by submitting an FAA Form 337
accordance with the Technical Standard Order system D. Record of entry is not required of the person
requires no further approval for installation in a performing the work. The aircraft owner/operator is
particular aircraft. responsible for recording maintenance.
Regarding the above statements, which of the
following is true? 1033. (1)Manufacturer's data and FAA publications,
A. Only No 2 is true such as Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate
B. Both No. 1 and No. are true Data Sheets and Advisory Circulars are all approved
C. Neither No. 1 nor No 2 is true data.
D. Only No. 1 is true (2) EAA publications such as Technical Standard
Orders, Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate
1028. Which of the following would provide Data Sheets, and Aircraft Specifications and
information regarding instrument range markings for Supplemental Type Certificates are all approved data.
an aircraft certificated in the normal category? In regard to the above statements which is correct?
A. FAR Part 21 A. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true
B. FAR Part 25 B. Only No. 1 is true
C. FAR Part 91 C. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true
D. FAR Part 23 D. Only No. 2 is true.

145
1034. The following is the compliance portion of a
Airworthiness Directive. Compliance required, as
indicated, unless already accomplished:
1. Aircraft with less than 500 hours total time in
service: Inspect in accordance with instructions be
low at 500 hours' total time, or within the next 50hrs
time in service after the effective date of this AD, and
repeat after each subsequent 200 hrs in service .
2. Aircraft with 500 hrs through 1000 hrs total time in
service: Inspect in accordance with Instruction below
within the next 50 hrs time in service after the
effective date of this AD and repeat after each
subsequent 200 hrs in service.
3. Aircraft with more than 1000 hrs time in service:
Inspect in accordance with instructions below with the
next 25 hrs time in service after the effective date of
this AD and repeat after each subsequent 200 hrs in
service."
An aircraft has a total time in service of 468
hours. The Airworthiness Directive given was initially
complied with a 454 hours in service. How many
additional hours a service may be accumulated before
the AD must again be complied with?
A. 32
B. 46
C. 200
D. 186

146
1035. Using Fig 52, which type of lubricant is used to 1041. Which statement is true regarding the privileges
the nose door link? of a certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating?
A. Oil, general purpose, low temperature lubricating A. They may perform the 100 hr inspection required
B. grease, general purpose by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a power plant
C. Oil, lubricating, aircraft engine of propeller or any component thereof, but may not
D. Grease, low temperature aircraft lubricating release the same to service
B. They may perform the annual inspection required
1036. Determine the frequency of lubrication of the by the Federal Aviation regulations on a powerplant
pivot bushing. (see Fig. 52) or propeller or any component thereof and may
A. 100 hours release the same to service
B. 50 hours C. They may perform the annual inspection required
C. 500 hours by the Federal Aviation regulations on airframe,
D. 1000 hours powerplant or propeller or any component thereof and
may release the same to service.
1037. Using Fig 52, what method is used to lubricate D. They may perform the 100 hr inspection required
the nose door links? by the Federal aviation Regulations on a powerplant
A. Filter can or propeller or any component thereof and may
B. Grease gun release the same to service.
C. Hand
D. Squirt can 1042. Who has the authority to approve an aircraft
return to service after a 100 hour inspection?
1038. The following is a table of airspeed limits as A. A mechanic of any certificated repair station
given in an FAA issued aircraft specification: B. A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating
Normal operating speed . . . . . . . . . . . . . .260 knots C. a mechanic holding a repairman certificate
Never exceed speed . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 293 knots D. A certificated mechanic with an airframe at
Maximum landing gear operating speed..174 knots powerplant rating
Maximum flap extended speed.. . . . . . . 139 knots
The high end of the white arc on the airspeed 1043. A repair, as performed on an airframe, shall
instrument would be at mean
A. 260 knots A. the upkeep and preservation of the airframe
B. 293 knots including the component parts thereof.
C. 174 knots B. the restoration of the airframe to a condition for
D. 139 knots safe operation after damage or deterioration
C. An appreciable change in the weight, balance
1039. A complete detailed inspection and adjustment structural strength, performance, flight
of the valve mechanism will be made at the first 25 characteristics or other qualities affecting the
hours after the engine has been placed in service. airworthiness of the airframe.
Subsequent inspections of the valve mechanism will D. simple or minor preservation operations and the
be made each second 50 hour period. replacement of small standard parts not involving
From the abovestatement, at what intervals will valve complex assembly operations
mechanism inspections be performed?
A. 100 hours 1044. The replacement of fabric on fabric-covered
B. 25 hours part such as wings, fuselages stabilizers or control
C. 50 hours surface is considered to be a
D. 75 hours A. minor repair unless the new cover is different in
any way from the original cover
1040. Check thrust bearing nuts for tightness on new B. minor repair unless the underlying structure is
or newly overhauled engines at the first 50hr altered or repaired
inspection following installation. Subsequent C. major repair even though no other alteration or
inspections on thrust bearing nuts will be made at repair is performed
each third 50hr inspection. D. minor repair unless the method of covering
From the above statement, at what intervals should changed or the underlying structure is altered or
you check the thrust bearing nut for tightness? repaired
A. 150 hours
B. 50 hours
C. 100 hours
D. 200 hours

147
Fig 52
1045. Which of the following is classified as a major
repair?
A. Removal, installation and repair of landing gear
tires
B. The repair or portions of skin sheets by making
additional seams
C. Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits
landing light wiring circuits
D. Replacing safety belts
1046. The 100 hour inspection required by Federal
Aviation regulations for certain aircraft being
operated for hire may be performed by
A. a person working under the supervision of an
appropriately rated mechanic, but the aircraft must be
approved by the mechanic for return to service
B. an appropriately rated mechanic only if he/she has
an inspection authorization
C. an appropriately rated mechanic and approved by
him/her for return to service
D. an appropriately rated mechanic, but the aircraft
must be approved for return to service by a mechanic
with an inspection authorization
1047. A person working under the supervision of a
certificated mechanic with an airframe and
powerplant rating is not authorized to perform which
of the following?
A. Repair fabric covering involving an area greater
than that required to repair two adjacent wing ribs
B. Repair a wing brace strut by welding
C. A 100 hour inspection
D. Repair an engine mount by riveting
1048. A mechanic certificate is effective for what
period of time?
A. As long as duties are performed under the
certificate for at least 60 days within the preceding 6
months
B. 24 calendar months
C. As long as duties are performed under the
certificate for at least 90 days within the preceding 12
months
D. Until surrendered, suspended or revoked
1049. A certificated mechanic is not privileged to
perform any repair to or alteration of
A. a propeller
B. air conditioning and pressurization systems
C. an electrically heated windshield system
D. an instrument
1050. An Airworthiness Directive requires that a
propeller be altered. A certificated mechanic could
A. perform and approve the work for return to service
if it is a minor alteration
B. not approve the work for return to service because
it is an alteration
C. not perform the work because it is an alteration
D. not perform the work because he/she is not allowed
to perform and approve for return to service repairs or
alterations to propellers
1051. Which of the following is a privilege of a
certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating?
A. Minor repairs to and minor alterations of propellers
B. Minor repairs to and major alterations of propellers
C. Major repairs to and minor alterations of propellers
D. Major repairs to and major alterations of propellers
1052. FAA certificated mechanics may
A. approve for return to service a major repair for
which they are rated
B. supervise and approve a 100 hour inspection
C. perform an annual inspection appropriate to the
rating(s) they hold
D. approve for return to service a minor alteration
they have performed appropriate to the rating(s) they
hold
1053. A certificated mechanic with a powerplant
rating may perform the
A. annual inspection required by the Federal Aviation
Regulations on a powerplant or any component
thereof and approve and return the same to service
B. 100 hr inspection required by the Federal Aviation
Regulations on a powerplant or any component
thereof and approve and return the same to service
C. annual inspetion required by the Federal Aviation
Regulations on an airframe, powerplant or any
component thereof and return the same to service
D. 100 hr inspection required by the Federal Aviation
Regulations on an airframe, powerplant or any other
component thereof and approve and return the same to
service.
1054. A certificated mechanic shall not exercise the
privileges of the certificate and rating unless within
the preceding 24 months the Administrator has found
that the certificate holder is able to do the work or the
certificate holder has
A. served as a mechanic under the certificate and
rating for at least 18 months
B. served as a mechanic under the certificate and
rating for at least 12 months
C. technically supervised other mechanics for at least
3 months
D. serviced as a mechanic under the certificate and
rating for at least 6 months
1055. (1) A certificated mechanic with an airframe
rating may perform a minor repair to an airspeed
indicator providing he/she has the necessary
equipment available.
(2) A certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating
may perform a major repair to a propeller providing
he/she has the necessary equipment available.
 Regarding the above statements, which of the
following is true?
A. Only no 1 is true
B. Neither No. 1 nor no 2 is true
C. Only no 2 is true
D. Both no 1 and no 2 are true
1056. A certificated mechanic must notify the
Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration
of any changes in permanent mailing address in
writing within
A. 48 hours after such changes
B. 30 days after such changes
C. 60 days after such changes
D. 90 days after such changes
1057. Who is responsible for determining that
materials used in aircraft maintenance and repair are
of the proper type and conform to the apppriate
standards?
A. The installing person or agency
B. the owner of the aircraft
C. The supplier of the material
D. the manufacturer of the aircraft
1058. The replacement of a damaged engine mount
with a new identical engine mount purchased from the
aircraft manufacturer is considered a
A. major alteration
B. minor alteration
C. major repair
D. minor repair
1059. Who has the authority to approve and return to
service a powerplant or propeller or any part thereof
after a 100 hour inspection?
A. A mechanic with a powerplant rating
B. A mechanic with an airframe rating
C. Any certified repairman
D. Personnel of any certificated repair station.
1060. Instrument repairs may be performed
A. by the instrument manufacturer only
B. by an FAA approved instrument repair station
C. on airframe instruments by mechanics with an
airframe rating
D. on powerplant instruments by mechanics with a
powerplant rating.
1061. 1.Onalarge aircraft pressure refueling system, a
pressure refueling receptacle and control panel will
permit one person to fuel or defuel any or all fuel
tanks of an aircraft.
2.Because of the fuel tank area, there are more
advantages to a pressure fueling system in light
aircraft..
A. Only No. 1 is true.
B. Only No. 2 is true.
C. Both No. 1 and No.2 are true.
1062. When routing a fuel line between two rigidly
mounted fittings the line should.
A. Have at least one bend between such fittings.
B. be a straight length of tubing and clamped to the
aircraft structure.
C. have a flexible line added between two metal lines
to allow for ease of installation.
1063. 1. If aviation gasoline vaporizes too readily,
fuel lines may become filled with vapor and cause
increased fuel flow. 2. A measure of a gasoline's
tendency to vapor lock is obtained from the Reid
vapor pressure test.
Regarding the above statements,.
A. Only No. 2 is true.
B. both No. 1 and No.2 are true.
C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
1064. Microbial growth is produced by various forms
of micro organisms that live and multiply in the water
interfaces of jet fuels. Which of the following could
result if microbial growth exists in a jetfuel tank and
is not corrected?
1 Interference with fuel flow
2. Intereferenc (rest in explanation).
A. 1,2,4.
B. 2,3,5.
C. 1,5,6.
1065. The vapor pressure of aviation gasoline is.
A. Lower than the vapor pressure of automotive
gasoline.
B. Higher than the vapor pressure of automotive
gasoline.
C. Approximately 20 PSI at 100 degree F.
1066. What can be done to eliminate or minimize the
microbial growth problem in an aircraft jet fuel tank?
A. Use anti-icing and antibacterial additives.
B. Add CO2 as a purgative.
C. Keep the fuel tank topped off.
1067. What is the maximum vapor pressure allowable
for an aircraft fuel?
A. 7 PSI.
B. 5 PSI.
C. 3 PSI.
1068. If a bladder-type fuel tank is to be left empty for
an extended period of time, the inside of the tanks
should be coated with a film of.
A. Engine oil.
B. Linseed oil.
C. Ethylene glycol.
1069. How may the antiknock characteristics of a fuel
be improved?
A. By adding a knock inhibitor.
B. By adding a knock enhancor.
C. By adding a fungicide agent.

1070. A carbon dioxide (CO2) hand held fire

extinguisher may be used on an electrical fire if the.
A. horn is nonmetallic.
B. handle is insulated.
C. horn is nonmagnetic.

1071. The proper fire extinguishing agent to use on an

aircraft brake fire is.
A. water.
B. carbon dioxide.
C. dry powder chemical.
 FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. Output stage of a television transmitter is most
likely to be a_____________________.
2. The most commonly used filter in SSB generation
are ___________________.
3. Tropospheric scatter is used with freq in the
_____________range.
4. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting
because __________________________________.
5. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed
from 0 to 1 The transmitted power is ____________.
6. When the modulation index of an AM wave is
doubled, the antenna current is also doubled The AM
system being used is _______________________.
7. To provide two or more voice circuits with the
same carrier, it is necessary to use ___________.
8. Vestigial sideband modulation (C3F) is normally
used for __________________________________.
9. Unwanted sideband in SSB cannot be removed by
______________________________________.
10. The optical fibre communication is based on the
principle of _____________________________.
11. The three components of AM are ____________,
_____________&______________.
12. At cut off the base current in transistor is
____________________.
13. The maximum efficiency of a class A amplifier is
______________________.
14. The resistance of the p_channel of transistor is
called _______________.
15. In a MOSFET, the more negative the gate voltage,
the smaller the ______________________ current.
16. A _______________________ diode has a
negative resistance in its characteristics.
17. (175)10 = ( )8.
18. (8963)10 = ( )8421.
19. The number of flip flops required to count upto 73
is _________________________.
20. A transistor has a current gain = 250 if collector
current is 10 mA the base current is ______________.
21. If an O0F amp has a bandwidth of 0_100 KHz and
gain of 40 dr The frequency at which the gain will be
unit is ______________________________.
22. (Assuming – 20 dB/decade Slope outside mid
band).
23. A Xtal OSc has crystal of thickness t what
happens it t is reduced by 1% _________________.
24. A JEET is a ____________ is a controlled device
whereas a BJT is a ____________ controlled device.
25. ______ perform the conversion function by means
of solid state or static circuit functions.
26. The nature of battery installations is mainly
determined by _________and emergency power.
27. _____battery suffers a rapid temperature and
current rise once the battery is fully charged.
28. The potting compound consists of and alkaline
and acid base material is known as _______.
29. A battery is a device which converts ____energy
to _____energy.
30. When magnetic field of carbon pile voltage
regulator decreases , the resistance _____.
31. The three temperature of which the pilot must be
kept informed during the flight are the ___________.
32. During cockpit checks, under carriage lever is at
'DOWN' and undercarr lamp indicate _______ lights.
33. Arms extended horizontally side ways and palms
downward, the marshalli signal indicate _________.
34. When turning the aircraft during towing the
_____________ must not exceed 30.
35. The working life of a natural fibre or nylon fibre
rope sling is _____.
36. Bending is another combination of stresses easy to
see in the wing of a _____________ aeroplane.
37. In tersonal stress, tension and compression acting
at an angle of abou _____________ to the applied
force and 90 to each other.
38. The device used to locate or clamps material
during the process of fit is known as ___________.
39. While tacking the aircraft, the jacks must be
positioned correctly and load raised and lowered
gradually, always watch for signs of _________.
40. A parmanent deformation of material, which
increases with stress the l of time the stress is applied
with temperature is called _______.
41. Directional control can be achieed by changing the
__________ acting o fin by means of a rudder.
42. To correct the nose down tendency of an aircraft
the elevator trim tab trimmed ____________.
43. In all cases of levelling the aircraft make sure that
the tail is prop ___________ as some aircraft are in
rigging position.
44. The angular setback of the main planes relative to
the fuselage or hul is known as __________.
45. A principal load carrying member of a plane or of
a control surface is known as _________.
46. The intentional manocurring of an aircraft into any
desired position i called __________.
47. As the velocity increases the pressure on the walls
of the tube decrea and vice versa This is due to
________.
48. The position on the chord at which the resultant
force acts is called ________________.
49. During the movement of centre pressure as the
angle of attack is increased up to _________ the
centre of pressure is more gradually forward.
50. The deviation of meanline from chord line is
called _________.
51. The effective leading edge flep is to _______ the
lift co_efficient.
52. A typical indicator consists of two interconnected
elements, a ____________ and an ____________
indicating element.
53. For slow running tests, a steady indication should
be provided of the order of ________rpm for
reciprocating engines and ___________ rpm for jet
engines.
54. The blind flying panel consists of
_____________.
55. Specific gravity of fully charged Ni_Cd battery is
between ________ and _________.
56. Hydrometer is used to measure _________ of the
electrolyte.
57. Lead acid batteries are __________ type of
batteries.
58. The capacity of the battery is measured in
________________ units.
59. Latent heat of a refrigerant should be __________.
60. Servicing required for battery maintenance are
_________.
61. In AM the _______________of the carrier is
varied by modulating voltage.
62. The modulation index is a number lying
between__________ and _____________.
63. The_____________ of a receiver is its ability to
reject unwanted signals.
64. An ____________________is one that radiates
uniformly in all directions in space.
65. An optical fiber with gradually changing ref
Index along the cross section is
called_______________.
66. The trade name of Hg_Tin_SI bronze is
____________.
67. Commercial acetylene is produced generally by
____________.
68. Naval brass is also called __________.
69. Turn buckles and barrels are manufactured with
__________ alloys.
70. Worm gears are made out of casting alloys of
__________ type.
71. Season cracking is due to __________.
72. Silicon and bronze tubing are used for
__________ parts in the aircraft.
73. Beryllium copper is used for ______ application.
74. In magnesium alloys castings heat treatment aging
is done to increase _________& __________.
75. Main application of Magnesium alloy casting in
aircraft.
76. Stabilizing in magnesium alloy increases
__________.
77. Solution heat treatment in magnesium alloy
casting increases __________& __________.
78. Inconals have excellent resistance to _________.
79. The alloying elements of nickel base alloys are
__________ and __________.
80. Cast alloys are produced by investment casting
under __________.
81. Aluminium alloy parts are treated with
__________ before painting.
82. Reason for crystalline corrosion is due to
________.
83. Rate of corrosion in metals is expressed in _____.
84. In metal dipping process prevention of corrosion
molten __________ and is generally used.
85. In metal spraying __________ item is used for
spraying.
86. Chromatic process of corrosion prevention is used
for __________ alloys.
87. Anodising treatment is applicable to __________
type of alloy.
88. Powder metallurgy preparation is preferred mainly
due to __________.
89. In mechanical communication of powder
metallurgy process ductile metals are made into
__________ shape.
90. Compacting is to prepare the material to coherent
mass to reduce.
91. The service temperatures of structural adhesives in
ceramic applications is __________.
92. __________ material is used for helicopter floor
and rotor blades.
93. Wing beams are manufactured with __________.
94. The main application of high carbon steel is
__________.
95. In aircraft paints pigment gives __________.
96. Paint enamel is a combination of __________.
97. Zinc, chromate primer is in __________ colour.
98. The advantage of using composite material is to
get high strength in __________ direction.
99. Mnemonics are __________ based alloy.
100. The main cause of corrosion in magnesium alloy
is __________.
101. __________ alloy sheets are used for oil and
fuel.
102. Muntz metal is an alloy of copper, zinc and
____________.
103. In magnesium bronze __________ is in high
percentage.
104. Service temperature application of Phenolic
nitrate is up to __________ degree F.
105. __________ is the most preferred NDT method
for checking cracks in under carriage oleo leg.
106. Muntz metal is used for preparing parts coming
in contact with __________.
107. High strength of copper alloy is used for bearings
that are subject to __________.
108. Common alloying elements of magnesium alloys
are aluminium, zinc and __________.
109. Titanium alloys are suitable for __________
application.
110. Radiography method of NDT can be used for
metals of __________ thickness effectively.
111. Acid resistance part is used to coat __________.
112. Metals in engineering are divided into _______
and non_________ metals.
113. The process of manufacture of wrought iron is
_______process.
114. Alloy steel is a combination of steel and
_______.
115. The constituents of bronze are _____ and _____.
116. _______ type of vice is used for holding small
work which cannot be conveniently held in a bench
vice.
117. Fine_toothed hacksaw has _______teeth per inch
for cutting thin material.
118. Coarse blade hacksaw has _______ teeth per
inch for cutting thick material.
119. Inverted angle of the cutting edge of the chisel
for cutting mild steel is _______ degrees.
120. _______ chisel is used for cutting in corners and
short out grooves.
121. Narrow flat_bottomed grooves are cut using
_______ chisel.
122. Hammer shaft is usually made of straight grained
ash wood to _______.
123. While hammering always look at the _______
and not the _______.
124. _______ hammer is used for ordinary job, rivets
etc .
125. _______ files are used for filing small internal
radii.
126. _______ file is used for working 90 degree
corners.
127. The bastard file has _______ teeth per inch.
128. The smooth file has _______ teeth per inch.
129. The length of a file is measured from its _______
to tip of the blade.
130. The spiral grooving in a twist drill is called
_______.
131. _______ provides cutting edge to the drill,
rejects the scarf and takes lubrication.
132. In a twist drill, the angle between the line joining
leading and trailing edges or the top of the horizontal
in _______ angle.
133. The _______ tap will produce a full thread in a
through hole.
134. The accuracy of a divider will be lost if legs are
open beyond _______ degrees.
135. Callipers are classified by the length of the
_______.
136. Feeler gauges are classified by the _______ of
the blades.
137. The _______ of a screw is the distance from a
point on one thread to another thread.
138. Lead equals pitch for a _______ thread.
139. Lead = _______ X No Of start of the thread.
140. The top surface joining the two folds of a thread
is _______.
141. The _______ of the thread is the straight part of
the thread, which connects the crests and roots.
142. The angle between the thread is the _______
angle.
143. The pitch is said to be _______ when there are
few threads per inch.
144. A thread formed with a single continuous groove
and is known as _______.
145. The sites of the square thread are _______.
146. A letter _______ indicates that the bolt is made
of stainless steel.
147. All standard nuts are _______ in shape.
148. Split pin are used with _______ nuts.
149. _______ are used to make the formed head
during riveting.
150. Brazing alloys are mainly of _______
composition.
151. In riveting _______ is the distance from the
centre of a rivet to the centre of the adjacent rivet in
the same row.
152. A transistor has a current gain = 250 If collector
current is 10 mA, the base current is ___________.
153. Specific gravity of fully charged Ni_Cd battery is
between ________ and _________.
154. (175)10 = ( )8.
155. (8963)10 =( )8421.
156. The number of flip flops required to count upto
73 is _______________.
 STATE TRUE or FALSE
1. The AC current speed measurement system,
measures speed in terms of frequency.
2. Since the rotor is driven by the engine at some
fixed ratio, the frequency of induced emf is the
measure of the engine speed.
3. Thermoelectric temperature indicating system is
otherwise called as pyrometry.
4. The pilot need not refer to AH, VSI, ASI,
Compasses constantly.
5. Artificial horizon is otherwise known as altitude
indicator.
6. A bi-metal strip contains two metals with high co-
efficient of linear expansion joined at their interface to
form a single strip.
7. The device that indicates the desired pressure is
reached is called Pressure switch.
8. Separate rooms are used for charging acid batteries
and alkaline batteries.
9. In primary battery cells, active materials are
destroyed during discharge.
10. Alkaline batteries are primary batteries.
11. The capacity of the battery is measured in
Amperes-seconds units.
12. Lead acid batteries are not rechargeable.
13. Dry cell is a secondary type of a battery.
14. In FM the frequency of the carrier signal is varied
in accordance with amplitude of the modulating
signal.
15. Diode detector is used to demodulate the AM
signal.
16. The most common method used for generation of
SSB is phase shift method.
17. The direction of E-field, M-field and propagation
are not actually perpendicular in the electromagnetic
waves.
18. Optical fibre are manufactured from glass and
plastic.
19. A 180 degree phase shift is required in phase shift
method of SSB generation.
20. In a standard broadcast receiver local oscillator
frequency is made lower than the incoming signal
frequency.
21. Modulation is used to reduce the bandwidth used.
22. When modulation index of an AM wave is
doubled, the antenna current is also doubled The AM
system being used is single sideband full carrier
(H3E).
23. Balanced modulator can be used to remove
unwanted sideband in SSB.
24. The principle of communication in optical fibre is
based on total internal reflection.
25. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequency in the
UHF range.
26. The output stage of a television transmitter is most
likely to be grid- modulated class C amplifier.
27. Power density is directly proportional to square of
distance from source.
28. In 2’s complenent subtraction the final carry is
added to the MSB.
29. The barrier potential depends on the density of
doping of the semiconductors.
30. If a P-n Jn is heavily doped, the breakdown
voltage will increase.
31. Class ‘B’ is the most efficient way to operate a
transistor.
32. Usually , the generators used in aircraft are of self
excited , shunt wound type.
33. The armature reaction in a generator causes the
shifting of magnetic neutral axis.
34. The current regulator in a generator controls the
field excitation current.
35. A battery is said to have run away if it takes
decreasing charging current.
36. Capacity testing of batteries should be done at
least once a year.
37. Run-away is not a phenomenon which is peculiar
to constant potential charging systems.
38. The charging voltage for a battery is always
greater than that of the actual output voltage by he
same.
39. The internal resistance of battery can be raised by
lowering the surface current density and increasing
the area vetted by electrolyte.
40. The electrolyte solution of a Lead-Acid battery is
Potassium Hydroxide.
41. Pressure leak testing is carried out to detect cracks
in the adjacent cells.
42. Potting is a method of insulation of sockets from
entry of water and other liquids.
43. Primary bonding conductors are used between
components and earth for which primary conductors
are not specifically required.
44. There is no risk of fire hazards during refueling
due to presence of static charges.
45. Screening process provides a low resistance path
for voltage producing unwanted RF interference.
46. Thermal switches are employed as automatic
temperature control devices which act as a protective
device.
47. Relays are non-electromagnetic switching devices.
48. The materials used for ‘ Fuses ‘ are copper and
iron.
49. In general the melting point of fusing elements are
high.
50. Reverse current circuit breakers are designed to
remain in a “locked – out “ condition to ensure
complete isolation.
51. There is no arching effect in relays.
52. Corona discharge is minimized by using static
discharge wicks.
53. Crimping dos not provide good electrical
conductivity.
54. Proximity fuses are used are based on
eletromagnet principle.
55. Muntz metal is an alloy of copper, zinc and
magnesium.
56. Muntz metal is used for preparing parts coming in
contact with saline.
57. High strength copper alloy is generally used for
manufacturing bearings subject to heavy load.
58. The main advantage of naval brass is good
measuring quality.
59. The main cause of corrosion in magnesium alloy
is surface contamination.
60. Wrought magnesium alloy sheets are used for oil
and fuel tanks on application.
61. The common alloying elements of magnesium are
aluminium, zinc and manganese.
62. Pure magnesium weights 80% as much as
aluminium.
63. Magnesium alloy does not have strength of
required for structural applications to use on aircraft.
64. Mnemonics are used due to its high formability
and welding characteristics.
65. Carbon and boron are not used as alloys elements
in super alloys.
66. Directionally solidified alloys have higher
modular of elasticity.
67. Mnemonics are copper based alloys.
68. Titanium alloys are suitable for low temperature
applications also.
69. The advantage of using composite material is to
get high strength in all direction.
70. In aircraft paints, pigment gives solidity and
colour.
71. Zinc, chromate primer is greenish in colour.
72. Paint enamel is a combination of pigment and
varnish.
73. Paralkatone is used for both ferrous and non-
ferrous application.
74. Copper, brass and bronze items in aircraft require
one coat of paint treatment.
75. Vanadium is the lowest corrodible material.
76. Hot pressing is done below the melting
temperature.
77. The main limitations of powder metallurgy is that
the uniform size of particles.
78. Structural adhesives resistance to stresses as that
of the main material is very rare.
79. Synthetic resins are most widely used adhesives.
80. Phenolic nitrate is used for temperature
application is up to 500 degree F.
81. Radiography is the most preferred NDT method
for checking cracks in under carriage oleo legs.
82. Wing beams are manufactured from stainless steel
extrusion.
83. Thermal decomposition of carbonyl is to yield
spherical particle in powder metallurgy.
84. Phosphate glass is used for property of high
radiation transmission.
85. Enamel is a mixture of phenyl and varnish.
86. Bituminous paint is used in ship hulls painting.
87. Lacquer is used for finishing touch of aeroplane.
88. In riveting distance between two rows of rivet is
called land.
89. The distance from centre of a rivet to centre of the
adjacent rivet in the same row is the pitch.
90. While riveting, incorrect use of dolly or stop,
tampering the plate or forms bad rivet heads.
91. Bust joints in riveting are the joint between two
plates overlap and held by one or two row of rivet.
92. The cable ends eye end is used where correction
of cables is frequent.
93. Spare end is used in cables when they are
connected to terminals and tightened by nuts.
94. In workshops, cuttings formed when drilling,
reaming of fringe is called fretting.
95. Jig is a rigid frame of accurate dimension, fitted
with guides for firmly holding the part to its shape
during fabrication.
96. Heavy cast springs can be compressed in a bench
vice.
97. Isometric view is not suitable for rectangular
solids with sharp edges.
98. The orthogonal projection can be read without any
formal training.
99. In engineering drawing, dimension lines are
broken and fine.
100. In drilling tools, the short drills have parallel
shanks and large drills have taper shanks.
101. The narrow strips along the cutting edge of the
flutes in a drill are lands.
102. In a drill, the web angle and the clearance angle
are inter dependant.
103. In a taper tap the diameter of the core is not equal
to the core diameter of the thread.
104. The flank of the thread is the straight foot of the
thread, which correct the crest out bolts.
105. The worm thread angle is 29 degrees.
106. During tapping lubrication is not necessary.
107. Awareness of safety concept should be evident at
certain levels and in only the flying faculty of the air
force.
108. Aircraft accidents due to bird strikes accounts for
about 10 percent.
109. In 2’s complement subtraction the final carry is
added to the MSB.
110. The barrier potential depends on the density of
doping of the semiconductors.
111. If a P-N Jn is heavily doped, the breakdown
voltage will increase.
 WRITE SHORT NOTES ON

1. Earthing or grounding in aircraft. 19. ISB.

2. Chemical reaction of lead acid batteries. 20. Low level and high level modulation.

3. Ohm’s Law. 21. Generation of AM.

4. Kirchoff’s Law. 22. FM receivers.

5. Faraday’s Law. 23. Methods of sideband suppression.

6. RMS value. 24. Industrial noise.

7. AM Transmitter. 25. Rheostats.

8. Superheterodyne receiver. 26. Methods of cooling of generators.

9. Balanced modulator. 27. Storage of aircraft cables.

10. Need for modulation. 28. Classification of generators.

11. Amplitude Modulation. 29. Thermal switches.

12. Frequency Modulation. 30. Chemical reaction of lead acid batteries.

13. Selectivity & Sensitivity. 31. Current limiters.

14. Phase Modulation. 32. Attracted core heavy-duty relay.

15. Phase shift method. 33. Attracted armature light duty relay.

16. Space waves. 34. limiting resistors.

17. AGC. 35. Earthing or grounding.

18. Advantages of FM over AM.

 VERY SHORT ANSWER
1. Write down the different Main Lines used in
Engineering Drawing.
2. Name the different lines drawn under thin lines.
3. What is non-pictorial drawing?
4. What is Pictorial Drawing?
5. What is Orthographic Projection?
6. Define the terms 'Allowance' and 'Forging' in work
shop technology.
7. Define the term 'Clearance' in workshop
technology.
8. Define the term 'Malleability'.
9. Describe the purpose of giving heat treatment to
metals.
10. Define heat treatment on metals.
11. Write the method of adjusting the zero setting of
micrometer.
12. How is the reading 0 02 mm is obtained in a
metric vernier caliper?
13. Name the parts of a micrometer.
14. State the points to be remembered while using
micrometer.
15. State the principle of micrometer.
16. Name the associated tools required for drilling.
17. Write various types of drills commonly used.
18. State the relation between speed and feed during
drilling operation.
19. Describe the method of checking the accuracy of
micrometer.
20. Write down the different Main Lines used in
Engineering Drawing.
21. Name the different lines drawn under Thin lines.
22. What is non pictorial drawing?
23. What is Pictorial Drawing?
24. What is Orthographic Projection?
25. Define the terms 'Allowance' and 'Forging' in
work shop technology.
26. Define the term 'Clearance' in work shop
technology.
27. Define the term 'Malleability'.
28. Describe the purpose of giving heat treatment to
metals.
29. Define heat treatment on metals.
30. Write the method of adjusting the zero setting of
micrometer.
31. How is the reading 0 02 mm is obtained in a
metric vernier caliper?
32. Name the parts of a micrometer.
33. State the points to be remembered while using
micrometer.
34. State the principle of micrometer.
35. Name the associated tools required for drilling.
36. Name the different types of drilling machines used
in service.
37. Name the different types of drills used in service.
38. State the relation between speed and feed during
drilling operation.
39. Describe the method of checking the accuracy of
micrometer.
40. What are the various lubricants used while drilling
operation on different metals ?
41. How will you check the vernier caliper for
accuracy?
42. Briefly explain the procedure of checking DTI for
accuracy.
43. Define the term 'Corrosion'.
44. List out the types of screw drivers sued in service.
45. Write the reasons for which flux is used in
soldering.
46. Write the purpose of tinning.
47. Precautions to be taken in the battery charging
room.
48. List various tests conducted in battery charging
room.
49. Difference between Primary and secondary
battery.
50. Briefly explain collective pitch control ?
51. What are the factors governing the longitudinal
stability ?
52. How is data stored in the dynamic RAM ?
53. How will you ensure the following :- (a) Delete a
selected item (b) Rename a file.
54. What are the advantages of using Excel for
calculations.
55. What are the functions performed by any
operating system ?
56. What happens inside the computer when any key
is pressed on the key bo ard ?
57. What is character user interface ?
58. What is syntax ?
59. Write in brief :- (a) Radio buttons (b) Control
menu.
60. What do you understand by the term 'servicing'
what are the objectives of servicing,.
61. What does SWL (safe working load)indicators on
a lifting hoist ?
62. What is ground equipment ?
63. What is surface corrosion How is it caused, what
are remedial action.
64. Who is responsible to check the crash-kit ?
65. Define fixtutre.
66. What is the use of optical level ?
67. What are the points to be ensured before closing
Hi shear pin ?
68. Write the advantages of using a jig ?
69. Define the following :- (a) Ambhibian
(b) Angle of attack.
70. Name the four primary components essential of
hydraulically operated s ervices.
71. Write the features which are coming under the
process of air condition ing.
72. Compare between lead acid and alkaline battery
and write why alkaline battery is prefered to lead acid
battery,.
73. Define inductance and write the unit of
inductance.
74. Draw the symbols for the following: (a) Selector
switch (b) Accumulator (c) Mechanical push (d)
Rectifier.
75. Enlist the servicing carried out on a new alkaline
battery.
76. Explain briefly the centralised warning panels and
name the types of w arning it incorporates.
77. Explain the following: (a) Short circuit (b)
Transformer.
78. Name different neutralising agents kept for use in
emergency in lead a cid charging room.
79. State the factors governing the EMF induced in an
armature.
80. What are the checks to be carried out while the
DG set ios running ?
81. What are the different supplies made by ground
power unit ?
82. What are the laws of magnetic induction ?
83. What are the servicing carried out on new alkaline
batteries ?
84. What do you understand by the term protective
devices, name tow of the m.
85. What is capacitance, give its unit of measurement?
86. What is convertoer, name different types of
convertor.
87. What is difference between transformer and
generator.
88. What is electroni emission ? write the types of
electronic emissions ?
89. What is resistance in electricity ? Give its unit of
measurement.
90. What is resistance, what is different between
series resistance and pa rallel resistance ?
91. What is semi conductor and explain intrinsic and
extrinsic semi conduc tor ?
92. What is the principle of electric starter ?
93. Write the advantages of Invertor over Alternator.
94. Write the general precautions to be observed
during handling of aircra ft batteries.
95. Write the merits of semi conductor.
96. Write the purpose of converter and invertor.
97. Explain in brief the principle of thrust
argumentation in the jet engi ne and name the most
common divices used.
98. Explain the purpose of ignition system what is
duel ignition and write its advantages.
99. Give different classifications of propellers and
brifly explain variab le pitch propeller ?
100. Name the different components fitted in aero-
engine lubrication system.
101. Name the essential parts of jet engine.
102. Name the major components of turbo jet engines.
103. What is duel ignitor and state its advantages ?
104. What is the principle of conversion in axial flow
engine ?
105. What is the purpose of oil dilution ? Explain how
it is carried out in aircraft engine lubrication system.
106. What is thermocouple and where is it used ?
107. What is thrust argumentation in jet engine and its
purpose.
108. Write the basic purpose of fuel system and name
the various feeding sy stem used on aero engine.
109. Write the principle of operation of turbojet
engine.
110. Write the purpose of the following components :-
(a) LP Filter (b) HP fuel pump.
111. Define Mach number.
112. Define rigidity (Gyroscopic Inertia) and
enumerate the factors governi ng it.
113. Explain the rinciple of a Bi-metalic temperature
gauge.
114. Name various engine performance instrument
systems.
115. What is Gyroscope.
116. What does the Turn and slip indicator indicates.
117. What is clutter and briefly explain how it is
caused ?
118. Enumerate the application of laser.
119. Tabulate the classification of materials with
examples.
120. What are the uses and functions of Hellarman
Pliers.
121. Briefly explain the procedure of converting a
decimal number into oct.
122. Draw the logic circuit of X-OR Gate.
123. Define the term Logic gate and write the
different logic gates of Digital Technique.
124. Draw the circuit and logic symbol of AND Gate.

125. Draw the logic circuit and logic symbol of

NAND Gate. 138. How semi-conductor memory works in a
126. Draw the symbol and Truth Table for X-OR computer?
Gate. 139. Explain in brief, the function of control unit in a
computer.
127. Define the term 'Register' in digital technique
and write its uses. 140. Convert 8 FA(16) to octal number.

128. Define the term Computer. 141. With the help of a logic circuit explain an 'OR'
gate having two inpu.
129. Name the various popular word processing
packages available in the ma. 142. Name the basic logic gates and give their
symbol.
130. Name the various data operations for maintaining
data base in a compu. 143. With the aid of LOGIC CIRCUIT& TRUTH
TABLE Explain AND Gate.
131. Define square law What are the devices
employed to compensate it? 144. Explain the operation of two-input NOR Gate
with the aid of a logic c.
132. Define :- (i) Rectified Air speed (ii) True Air
speed. 145. Explain Why NAND Gate is called as Universal
Building Block.
133. Explain in brief, the function of control unit in a
computer. 146. Explain the following (I) DRAG (ii)ANGLE OF
ATTACK (iii) CHORD LINE.
134. List out the precautions to be observed before
handling emergency O2 set. 147. Explain lethal warning.

135. Explain why oxygen gas is necessary for Human 148. Write short notes on Piezo electric effect.
body.
149. Name the different methods of non destructive
136. What is a register ? explain the operation of a testing of crack detection.
shift register?
150. Write short notes on Borescope.
137. Explain Binary Ladder with the help of a neat
diagram.
 SHORT ANSWERS
1. What are the effects of temperature on a resistance?
2. What is a Machine Language in Computer?
3. Differentiate between computer and
Microprocessor.
4. With the help of Block diagram explain function of
computer.
5. Convert (125.75) 10 to octal number and (152.25)
10 to Binary number.
6. Define the term re-conditioning.
7. Write the advantages of planned servicing.
8. What are the precautions to be observed while
handling batteries?
9. What is the principle of operation of lead acid
batteries?
10. Name various lines used in Engineering Drawing?
Briefly explain each one of them.
11. Explain different types of thin line used in
engineering drawing.
12. Write down the advantages of engineering
drawing.
13. What are the requirements of a good workshop
drawing?
14. Write down the first cycle and third cycle
projection projects on which planes.
15. Write the classifications of bonding methods with
examples.
16. Name the various anti-corrosive treatments given
to metals Write with examples.
17. Describe the drilling procedure in general.
18. Write the physical properties of metals.
19. Describe the method of using Scribing block.
20. Name the parts of a Vernier Caliper.
21. Write the various methods of projections used in
engineering drawing.
22. Name the various anti-corrosive treatment given
to metals Write with examples.
23. Describe the drilling procedure in general.
24. Write the physical properties of metals.
25. Define critical points of steel when it is heated up.
26. Enumerate the principle employed in high
frequency furnace.
27. Name the various types of pliers.
28. List out the types of spanners.
29. Describe the precautions to be observed during
drilling operation.
30. Describe the method of using Scribing block.
31. Name the parts of a Vernier Caliper.
32. What are the advantages of electric arc welding
and mention its applications.
33. Describe the safety requirements while handling
portable electrical tools.
34. Name the various types of welded joints.
35. Name the types of Taps and explain any one of
them.
36. State the important properties which must be
possessed by a good lubricating oil.
37. Explain the purpose of Altimeter in an Aircraft.
38. Write the principle of Mach meter.
39. What is memory? What are the different type of
memory in a PC Expl ain EPROMS.
40. How will you assign password in the file menu?
Describe.
41. What are the command for - a)Creating a new file
b)Duplicating a File c) Copying the contents of whole
directory.
42. What are the internal commands? Name which
command are from the follo wing- a) Delete a File b)
Print c) Tree d) CLS.
43. What are the menu items found in the start menu?
44. What do you understand by the term.
45. What do you understand by the term "operating
system"? Discuss.
46. What is editing ? What all editing can do to a
given text?
47. Where are the cut copy and paste function is
carriedout? What are the steps for them?
48. Write in brief on a) ICONS b) Menu and c) Menu
options.
49. Differentiate between generators and motors and
enumrate the services operated by electric motors?
50. Explain the Fleming's left hand rule in brief.
51. Explain the principle conservation and operation
of the transformer.
52. How the electrical form of energy can be detected.
53. Name different types of neutralising agent kept for
use in emergency in lead acid charging room and what
are the servicing carried out on ne w alkaline.
54. What is meant by recetification (eletrical)and how
many types of rectifier (electrical) are used in service?
55. What is Electricity,and the method by which it can
be detected?How thi s property is made use of in
every day use.
56. What is the difference minimum relay explain.
57. What is the principle of operation of DC motors?
Give brief descriptio n of different types of different
types DCmotors.
58. Write the different types of the DCmotors used
and their uses.
59. Explain in brief the re-heat system of thrust
augmentation in brief in turb- jet engine.
60. Name the major component of turbojet engine and
write their purpose.
61. Name the various strokes of engine and explain
them in brief.
62. Write down the various parts of a high eenergy
ignition units and expl ain them in brief.
63. Write the purpose of the following components (1)
Diffuser (2) Combustion chamber (3) nozzle guide
vanes (4) Turbine (5) Jet Nozzle (Turbine jet engine).
64. Explain in brief the principle of altimeter.
65. Explain the principal of exhaustgar temperature
system.
66. Explain the requirment of an aircraft oxygen
installation.
67. Name the engine performance instrument and
explain the tacho generator.
68. Name the performance instrument of an aircraft
and write the purpose o f each.
69. What are the requiment which have to be satisfied
to enable an oxygen installation to function efficiently
in the aircraft.
70. What is the purpose of R O C I Define the
principle of R O C I?
71. Write the different spheres in atmosphere,explain
one of them.
72. Write the operation of altimeter.
73. What is clutter and how is causes Enumerate the
clutter reduction tech niques.
74. Give basic construction of LASER.
75. Give different classifications of satellits and
briefly explain synchr onous and non-synchronous
satellits.
76. Name the application of a laser ? Explain the
application in mechanica l engineering ?
77. What are the advantages of Fibre optics
communications system ?
78. What are the functions of an under carriage.

79. What is modulation? Name the type of
modulation.
80. Write in brief about BLACK BOX.
81. Explain the various factors with movement of
pressure which effects t e longitudinal stability?
82. What are the axis of an aircraft and explain the
movement of a/c abou t them.
83. What is vortex ring?
84. With a neat diagram explain the forces acting on
an aircraft during gl ide.
85. Why shunt generator is invariable started with out
load ? Write conditions for.
86. Define drilling Enumerate the drilling procedure?
87. Explain following terms used in screw threads
(a) Pitch (b) Lead (c) Core diameter.
88. Describe in brief a diaphragm.
89. Explain briefly JPT gauge.
90. Define "Seebeck Effect" and name the factors on
which the EMF depends.
91. Explain briefly CHT gauge.
92. Explain the effects of without oxygen an human
body at various altitu.
93. What are the advantages of liquid oxygen over
gaseous oxygen ?
94. List out the precautions to be observed before
handling emergency O2.
95. Explain why oxygen gas is necessary for Human
body.
96. What is purging? Explain stage I purging.
97. What are the advantages hazards of liquid oxygen
over gas oxygen ?
98. What are the precautions to be observed while
charging the oxygen on.
99. What is the purpose of purging? How will you
purge the oxygen install.
100. What are the general precautions to be observed
while working on oxyg.
101. Why portable oxygen sets are used in aircraft and
what are the requirement which they will have to
satisfy before dealing with the sets?
102. Write safety precautions to be observed while
working on liquid oxyge.
103. Write short notes on the following in liquid
oxygen installation (i) Liquid oxygen container (ii)
Filler &vent valve assembly.
104. Write short notes on stabilizing container and
excessive pressure re.
105. What are the various affects of lack of oxygen at
different altitude.
106. What are the general precautions to be observed
while working on oxygen Eqpt
107. Write the properties of liquid oxygen and explain
various hazards of.
108. Enumerate the protective clothing used while
working on liquid oxygen.
109. Write the "First Aid" when affected by liquid
oxygen.
110. Explain Binary Ladder with the help of a neat
diagram.
111. Write the safety requirement of Hand tools:
112. Explain the importance of training to avoid a/c
accident caused by human error.
113. Explain in brief different types of special
screwdrivers.
114. What are Instrument errors? How will you adjust
regular error and irregular errors in an aircraft
instrument?
115. Write the types of punches used in instrument
repair work.
116. Write in brief different types of Instrument
errors.
117. What are different types of special files? Write
difference between warding files & equalizing files.

118. Write the safety requirement of Hand tools.

 LONG ANSWER
1. What is Seam welding?
2. What is spot welding?
3. What is spot welding?
4. Difference between soldering and brazing.
5. Advantages of crimping over soldering.
6. Braiton cycle explanation.
7. Purpose of CPU in computer.
8. Purpose of ALU (Arithmetic and Logic Unit).
9. What is difference between ROCI and altimeter?
10. Explain case hardening.
11. Explain with figure relation between centre of
gravity and MAC.
12. What are all supply will be available to various
load if normal supply system is fails?
13. Explain the eddy current crack detection
procedure.
14. What precaution one should observe while using a
micrometer.
15. Filler and fluxes are used in which procedure.
16. Explain the purpose and use of parallel beer.
17. Driving one normal a/c, power is not available to
engine how will you use bolt electrical load on the
device?
18. When any metal is exposed to environment,
explain the reason and prevention of corrosion on the
metal.
19. Name five surface treatments on ferrous metal.
20. What are right type files are used on the a/c?
21. What are NDT's for plastic and ceramic?
22. Draw depth micrometer name its parts and
reading.
23. How a micrometer is calibrated.
24. What do you understand by resistant welding?
25. What is difference between diode and triode?
26. What treatment is needed to make a metal soft and
with it reduce the internal stress?
27. What is difference between keys and shaft in
pulleys?
28. What is difference between straight and cross
connection in pulleys?
29. How will reduce the effect of hydrogen in
electroplating?
30. What is +ve and -ve error in micrometer?
31. Show reading 879".
32. Name the different a/c manuals.
33. What is the principal of (i) RPM gouge (ii) CHT
gouge?
34. What is ATA code give the name of following
publication: (i) Air conditioning (ii) Pressurisation
(iii) Flight control.
35. What chemical reaction takes place in Ni-Cad
batteries?
36. What chemical reaction takes place while
charging and discharging of batteries?
37. What are the difference between Ni-Cad and lead
acid batteries?
38. How will you check the charging?
39. How capacity test is carried out in batteries?
40. What is heat treatment?
41. Why quenching is important?
42. What are treatment for steel and magnesium?
43. What is hardest test explain any one.
44. What is de-fuelling procedure of a/c?
45. Explain tempering.
46. Write three types of special purpose bolts and
uses.
47. Show reading 0.629" and 0.2941" on a
micrometer.
48. Purpose and types of pliers used on a/c.
49. How will you use triode diode?
50. A bar of conductor and semiconductor is given to
you How will you identify the conductor bar?
51. How power is transferring form shaft? Explain
will diagram.
52. How gear movement is transformed show with
diagram?
53. What are flying instruments is connected pilot
static system?
54. Name the ground support equipment used and
their purpose.
55. What five precautions to be observed on a/c while
maintenance?
56. What is working principle of "D" arsenal meter?
How it will be used to check current and voltage?
57. What is difference between heat treatment and
electroplating?
58. Write type of corrosion; explain any one, cause.
59. What is the purpose of weighing of aircraft, and
define useful load of a/c?
60. What do you mean by aircraft levelling and briefly
explain different method?
61. Briefly explain different forms of fuel
contamination in aviation fuel.
62. How fluid lines are identified in aircraft and write
the symbols used for breathing oxygen and
compressed gas.
63. What are the different classes of threads and
mention its characteristic.
64. Mention any five types of bolt used in aircraft and
mention the purpose of clevis belt.
65. What is the purpose of self-locking nuts and write
the different types.
66. Mention the conditions on which lock washers
should not be used on a/c.
67. Explain the code AN501B-416-7 with respect to
screw used in a/c.
68. What are the general rules followed in safety
wiring?
69. What do you mean by 'Local cells' in electro
chemical attack corrosion and mention the names of
different forms of corrosion.
70. What do you mean by Anodising and alodising?
71. Explain the terms (i) Bending (ii) Torsion (iii)
tensile (iv) Elasticity.
72. What do you meant by spark test and how ferrous
metals identified by spark test?
73. Write the constituents of K-mond and mention its
use.
74. What is heat treatment of metal and write the
types of heat treatment given to Aluminium alloys.
75. Write the advantages of Barcol tester, mention its
limitations.
76. Calculate the resistance value of a resistor with the
following colour code sequence, Red, green and
yellow.
77. Write the chemical equation of Lead Acid battery
during charging and discharging.
78. How ammeter is converted to a voltmeter and how
the range of voltmeter can be extended?
79. Why transformer is rated on KW basis and explain
Autotransformer?
80. How zaner diode function as a voltage regulator?
81. Draw an electrical diagram showing a grounded-
emitter amplifier circuit.
82. What are the methods used in DC motor to change
its direction of rotation?
83. What are the maintenance carried out on DC
generator?
84. Explain 'ATA specification No 100'.
85. What are the steps to be taken when performing a
penetrant inspection method.
86. Write about pulse-echo method of ultrasonic
testing with diagram.
87. Write a short notes on (i) GPU (ii) Hydraulic
Power Unit.
88. Make a neat sketch of micrometer caliper and
mention its parts.
89. What is the advantage of 3 phase system over
single phase system.
90. How RMS value is calculated.
91. What are the types of fixed resistors.
92. What are the types of variable resistors.
93. What is the basic difference between AC and DC
measuring instruments?
94. What is the principle of an autotransformer?
95. What are the advantages of autotransformer?
96. What is the difference between Star and Delta
connection in an electrical system?
97. Draw and explain Half Adder.
98. Draw and explain Full Adder.
99. What is the combination of different materials in
solder used for soldering electronic components?
100. Why flux is used for soldering.
101. Why temperature controlled soldering stations is
used for soldering high sensitive electronic
components.
102. Why Ni-Cd Batteries are preferred than lead-acid
batteries in electronic equipments.
103. Explain briefly capacitance type fuel gauge
system?
104. Write Short Notes on :- (a) Exhaust Gas
Indicator (b) Thermocouples.
105. What is meant by synchronous condition of an
AC motor and state in brief how the condition is
maintained in tachometer indicator?
106. How the electrical type of thermometers are
classified and what is the principle used in CHT and
JPT gauge and explain?
107. Relate the precaution in general, to be observed
before starting up an a/c.
108. Purpose of A/C weight and Balance control.
109. Need for reweighing of A/C.
110. What are the sources from which weight and
Balance data can be obtained?
111. Define the terminology: -(i) The Datum (ii) The
Arm (iii) The Moment (iv) Centre of Gravity (v)
Maximum weight (vi) Empty weight (vii) Useful load
(viii) EWCG (ix) EWCG Range (x) MAC.
112. Compute the e g location in percentage of MAC.
113. What is Aircraft levelling and how it is lavelled?
114. What is minimum fuel weight and how it is
calculated?
115. Explain the operation of the lateral control.
116. Explain the method of towing an aircraft.
117. Write down the difference between the soft
soldering and hard soldering.
118. Describe the safety requirements to be observed
while using hand tools.
119. What are the general fire precautions to be
observed while working in hanger / aircraft?
120. Name the types of corrosion and explain
corrosion due to galvanic action.
121. (a) Name and explain the various stages of
theoritical otto cycle (b) Explain four stages of
theoritical otto cycle.
122. Briefly explain the following (a) Gas laws (b)
Centigrade heat unit (CHU) (c) Themal capacity (d)
Specific heat.
123. Briefly outline the properties of magnesium &
titanium alloys with advantages and disadvantages.
124. Explain in brief the difference among surface
corrosion, galvanic action and inter crystallization
corrosion.
125. Write the uses of magnesium alloys, extrusion,
forging and sheets in aircraft applications.
126. Explain in brief the applications of the copper
alloys and brass in aircraft applications.
127. Indicate three groups of super alloys and their
applications to aircraft industry.
128. In a table from give different types of carbon
steel and their applications on aircraft.
129. Give three heat treatment of magnesium alloys.
130. Write short notes on (a) Composite and
application on modern aircraft (b) Nickel base super
alloys.
131. Application of composites in aircraft industry.
132. Explain in brief the process and importance of
tempering surface hardening of carbon steel.
133. Explain in brief the manufacturing are
application of Inconel and K, Monel nickel based
alloys.
134. Briefly explain the process of Honey Comb core
and Honeycomb sand witch construction composites
with advantages and disadvantages.
135. Explain in brief the surfaced hardenings
techniques and process used aircraft on aircraft
metals.
136. Explain with basic characteristics why, beach
wood, and balsa wood are used for aircraft industry
Why the plywood is preferred for certain applications.
137. Write short notes on (a) Vinyl Phenolics
(b) Epoxy Phenolics.
138. Briefly give names of various rubberised
components used in aircraft How do you check the
‘S’ of seal?
139. What is corrosion? Explain with a neat diagram
the process of galvanic corrosion Name five metals,
in the order of corrosion resistant.
140. Distinguish clearly between self and separately
excited generators.
141. List out the advantages of static Inverter over
Rotary inverter.
142. List out the requirements of an ideal battery
charging room.
143. Give a brief account of the main component of a
DC Generator and explain the purpose of commutator.
144. With the help of a logic circuit and truth table
explain NAND GATE?
145. What are the characteristics of random access
memory?
146. Write the advantages and disadvantages of a
moving coil instrument.
147. Write the advantages and disadvantages of
moving iron instruments.
148. Explain in brief the essential requirements of an
indicating instrument.
149. Name the instruments forces and explain eddy
current damping.
150. Write the principle and operation of moving coil
instruments.
151. Explain the following terms used in a/c
servicing:- (i) Repair (ii) Reconditioning
(iii) Inspection.
152. What is the aim of planned servicing and how it
is achieved?
153. Draw and explain the working of reverse bias PN
junction diode.
154. Give a brief account of the following (i) Photo
conductor (ii) Type extrinsic Semi-conductor.
155. Write short notes on Intrinsic Semi conductor.
156. Briefly explain the Zener Diode.
157. Name the different types of diode and give their
symbols.
158. Name the main components of a conventional
a/c.
160. Write the purpose of the following of a jet
engine: (a) compressor (b) combustion chamber
(c) Turbine.
161. Name the types of corrosion and explain
corrosion due to galvanic action.
162. Explain (i) Wing tip vertices (ii) Trailing edge
vertices.
163. Explain briefly what are the factors governing
lift?
164. Explain the axis of an aircraft and explain the
movement of aircraft about them?
165. Explain the difference between "Wing tip
vertices" and "Trailing edge vertices".
166. State the purpose of"SLAT" and explain them?
167. What are the lift augmentation devices, explain
them briefly.
168. What is boundry layer control? write the
advantages and methods used in boundry layer
control?
169. With the help of a graph explain briefly variation
of drag with angle of attack?
170. Briefly explain flapping to equality.
171. Describe ground resonance and state conditions
which may promote its nset.
172. What is the purpose of having differential control
of aileron? How the differential movement is
obtained?
173. Write short notes on: a) Air ship b) control strip
c) Flap d) longitudinal dihedral e) r igging position.
174. An amplitude-modulated wave has a power
content of 800 W at its carrier frequency; determine
the power content of each of the sidebands for 90%
modulation?
175. Give an expression for the range of space waves
in terms of transmitting and receiving antenna height?
159. Define the following: a) Aileron b) Elevator
c) Rudder.
176. A broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 KW
when the modulation percentage is 75% How much
of this is carrier power?
177. Explain the generation of FM by direct method?
178. In which respect is an LED different from an
ordinary P-n junction diode? State its application.
179. Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator
circuit using a Zener diode and explain its working.
180. Explain briefly the purpose of coupling and
bypass capacitors What is meant by stiff coupling?
181. Obtain the ac equivalent of a single stage CE
amplifier and discuss about the input and output
impedance to develop such a model.
182. With a neat circuit diagram explain the following
term with respect to a differential amplifier (a) Tail
Current (b) Input offset current (c) Input bias current
(d) Input offset voltage.
183. What is the approximate value of zener current
for each of these load resistances :- (a) RL = 100 Kilo
Ohms (b) RL = 10 Kilo Ohms (c) RL = 1 Kilo Ohms.
184. Explain the working of a Class-C amplifier
Obtain the power formulas for class C amplifier.
185. Explain the phenomena of the following types of
corrosion (a) Cavitations (b) Stress corrosion (c)
Pitting corrosion.
186. Explain the difference between cathodic and
anodic oxidation process of corrosion prevention.
187. Explain the different types of paints and coats
used for preventive of corrosion in aircraft industry.
188. Explain in brief the process of fusion welding.
189. Explain the use and application of brazing and
soldering in aircraft industry.
190. Explain properties and use of steel.
191. Explain manufacturing process of Aluminium.
192. Explain properties and use of non-ferrous metals
like brass, bronze, duralumin etc ,.
193. Explain classification of materials and uses of
chisels.
194. Explain classification of materials and uses of
hacksaw frames and blades.
195. Explain briefly on the following (Attempt any
two) (a) Flat chisel (b) Hand vice (c) Cross cut chisel
(d) Bench vice.
196. Explain classification of materials and uses of
hammers.
197. Explain classification of materials and uses of
files.
198. Explain briefly the different types of cuts in files.
199. Explain classification of materials and uses of
drill.
200. Explain briefly the following in twist drill (a)
Cutting angle (b) Clearance angle (c) Web angle.
201. Explain the briefly : Portable pneumatic and
electric drilling.
202. Explain the precautions adopted during drilling
process.
203. Write short notes on (a) Taps (b) Dies.
204. Explain briefly the method of measurement with
a micrometer.
205. Explain briefly how measurement is carried out
with a vernier calliper.
206. Write short notes on (a) Feeler gauges (b) Inside
and outside callipers.
207. Explain the following terminology in a screw
thread (a) Pitch (b) Lead (c) Thread angle (d) Root.
208. Explain the following in detail (a) Square thread
(b) Acme thread (c) Buttress thread (d) Knuckle
thread.
209. Explain the different types of bolt heads.
210. Write short notes on (a) Steel nuts
(b) Aluminium alloy nuts.
211. Write short notes on the following locking
devices (a) Tab washers (b) Split pins (c) Locking
plates (d) Circlips.
212. What are the different types of screw drivers?
Explain in brief.
213. Explain different types of spanners used.
214. Write short notes on (a) Brazing (b) Silver
soldering.
215. Explain the different types of rivets used and
explain the terms used in riveting.
216. What are the different types of riveted joints?
217. What are the different types of cable joints?
218. What are the different types of cable ends?
219. Explain briefly isometric projection in
engineering drawing.
220. What are the different types of lines to be used in
engineering drawing?
221. Explain the method of identification of bolts.
222. What is a stud? How are they classified?
223. Explain the procedure to remove a solid rivet.
224. What are the difference between soft soldering
and hard soldering?
225. Explain the method of soft soldering.
226. Explain in detail the method of brazing.
227. Explain the different types of welded joints.
228. Enlist the list of tools used in steel metal work.
229. Enlist a few sheet metal machines.
230. Enlist forging and blacksmith tools.
231. Enumerate the requirements of ac instrument
system?
232. What are the various principal elements of an
instrument?
233. Explain in detail self excited shunt wound
generator.
234. Explain carbon pile voltage regulator with neat
circuit diagram.
235. Explain in detail various types of special cable.
236. Explain with neat circuit diagram reverse current
circuit breaker.
237. Explain sleepiness, sulphation and runaway of
batteries.
238. Explain vibrating contact voltage regulator with
neat circuit diagram.
239. Define useful life and capacity a secondary
battery Discuss the various tests carried out on a
engine starting Accumulator Trolley?
240. What are the safety precautions to be adopted in
battery charging room?
241. What are the requirements of battery charging
room?
242. Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator
circuit using a Zener diode and explain its working.
243. Describe the requirement of battery charging
room.
244. Compare AC and DC electrical system and what
are the factors governing the choice of electrical
system.
245. Explain internal short circuit and buckling of
batteries.
246. What are the sequence of operations carried out
for testing and servicing of batteries.
247. Enlist the Methods of generation of SSB
Describe one method?
248. Explain the working of super heterodyne
receiver?
249. Derive power relation in AM wave?
250. Explain with block diagram SSB receiver?
251. Explain power saving by SSB?
252. Define modulation and explain Amplitude
Modulation, Frequency modulation, and Phase
modulation Also explain the need for modulation?
253. Define noise, where is it most likely to affect the
signal?
254. Draw and explain the block diagram of AM
transmitter Show the appearance of amplitude
modulated wave?
255. The block diagram of a typical PCM
communication system?
256. The advantages and disadvantages of PCM over
analog communication?
257. Define plastics and what are its common
properties?
258. Write down the classification of file and explain
grade and cut?
259. Explain the various parts of twist drill?
260. How the screwdrivers are classified and describe
various types of screwdrivers.
261. What are the different physiological effects due
to the change in alt.
262. Define calibration Write various accepted
standards and discuss.
263. What do you understand by instrument
mechanism? Explain in brief.
264. Explain the procedure of removal of foreign
matters and moisture from moisture traps.
265. Briefly explain the principal element of an
Instrument from operating point of view.
266. State the purpose and explain the principle of
operation of accelerometer.
267. Explain Q code setting in Altimeter Define
different types of Q code.
268. Name the principal elements in an instrument
and explain them in brief.
269. Define the term 'BACKLASH' and give the
different methods used to minimise the effects of
backlash in instruments.
270. How do you set the subsidiary scale as per QFE
on an altimeter?
271. Name different types of Irregular error
adjustment and with the help of a neat diagram
explain lever length adjustment.

272. How will you remove a rusted screw?
273. Explain in brief different types of Pin Punches.
274. Write short notes on the following :- (i) Riveting
stake.
275. What is purpose of the following :- (i) Setting
files (ii) Broaches (iii) Stout center punch.
276. Explain the normal synchronization operation of
RI compass.
277. Define the following : (i) Magnetic equator
(ii) Compass eror(iii) Magnetic dip (iv) Magnetic
meridian.
278. With the help of circuit diagram explain the
operation of.
279. Define the following : (i) Magnetic meridian (ii)
Deviation (iii) Rhumb line (iv) Latitude.
280. Explain Dip error in magnetic compass.
281. Write the Aircraft Weighing Procedure.
282. Why the Ballast is used in Aircraft?
283. What are Permanent and temporary Ballast?
284. Explain: (i) Volatility (ii) Vapour lock (iii)
Carburettor icing (iv) Detonation (v) Surface ignition.
285. Which of the fuel is hygroscopic in nature
AvGas or Jet Fuel?
286. How the fuel is identified?
287. What are the fuel identification markings?
288. What are the Principle Contaminants in fuel and
how they appear?
289. Contamination detection.
290. Contamination Control.
291. What are the fuel system components?
292. Name the fuel system indicators and their
operating principle.
293. Explain Fuel Jettison systems.
294. Fuel Leak Classification.
295. What do you understand by aircraft plumbing?
296. How the plumbing materials are identified?
297. Explain Teflon hose.
298. How the fluid lines are identified?
299. What are the differences between AN and ACN
fittings?
300. Write the Purpose of Quick Disconnect
Coupling.
301. What are the various tube forming process.
302. Explain single flare and double flare forming
processes?
303. What are the precautions to be observed while
flare less tube installation?
304. What are the common faults flare less tube
installation?
305. Write full form of AN, NAS and MS.
306. Write the differences between Screw and Bolt.
307. How the threads are classified?
308. Types of aircraft bolt.
309. Draw and write the uses of (special bolts) (i)
Eye Bolt (ii) Clevis Bolt (iii) Lock Bolt (iv) Jo-Bolt.
310. Bolt Part no AN3DD5A stands for.
311. What are the types of self locking nut and their
uses.
312. What are the conditions where lock washers are
not used.
313. Write the installation practices of Bolt.
314. Types and uses of Torque Wrench.
315. Types of Aircraft screws and their uses.
316. Method of Heli-coil installation.
317. What are the uses of Turn lock Fasteners?
318. Draw a Dzus Fastener.
319. Draw the cross-sectional shape of Low, medium
and extra flexible cable.
320. Write the installation procedure of turnbuckle.
321. Types of Aircraft pins and their uses.
322. What are the various methods of safe tying
aircraft parts?
323. Write safety wiring rules.
324. Identification Markings of Rivet AN-470AD3 5.
325. Types of Rivets and where they used in Aircraft.
326. Draw 0 types of Aircraft Rivet.
327. Factors to consider in the selection of connect
rivet.
328. Identification of various Rivets - (i) Tueber POP
(ii) AVDEL (iii) Jo Bolt (iv) Riv nut.
329. Difference between thermoplastic
thermosetting plastics.
330. Uses of thermosetting plastic in
construction.
331. Purpose of seal and their types.
332. What is corrosion and types of corrosion.
333. What are different forms of corrosion?
334. Explain Galvanic corrosion, inter granular
corrosion, fretting corrosion and stress corrosion.
335. What are the factors affecting corrosion?
336. What are the preventive maintenance to improve
the corrosion resistance of A/C.
337. What are various corrosion prone areas?
338. What are general corrosion treatments.
339. How the corrosion damages are classified?
340. Write the various corrosion control processes.
341. Explain (i) Parco Lubrising (ii) Anodising (iii)
Alodizing.
342. Selection factors for material used for Airframe
Constructions.
343. What are the various metal working processes?
344. Differentiate between hot working and cold
working.
345. Differentiate between Annealing and
normalizing.
346. What are the basic methods of producing
aluminium ally casting?
347. What is A-B-C classification of Titanium alloys?
348. Write short notes on (i) Monel (ii) K-Monel (iii)
MUNTZ metal (iv) Red brass (v) Spark test of steel.
349. What are the requirements must be kept in mind
when selecting substitute metals.
350. What is the Principle of heat treatment?
351. How the wrapping tendency of steel can be
and reduced during heat treatment.
352. Explain (i) Hardening of steel (ii) Tempering (iii)
A/C Annealing (iv) Normalising (v) Case hardening.
353. Heat treatments of (i) Aluminium alloy (ii)
Magnesium alloys (iii) Titanium.
354. What are different types of hardness testing of
aircraft metals.
355. Purpose of Aircraft Bonding and screening.
356. Distribution of charge on regularly and
irregularly shaped body.
357. Find the value of resistors - (i) White, blue,
brown, gold (ii) Red, green, red, red (iii) Brown,
Black, Black, brown (iv) brown, black, gold, red (v)
Yellow, green, silver, silver (vi) Body colour red, dot
colour yellow, end colour green.
358. Write Kirchoff law.
359. Purpose of voltage dividers.
360. Differentiate between rheostat and potentiometer.
361. What is an electromagnet and where they are
used in aircraft?
362. What are the storage batteries used in aircraft?
363. The material used for lead acid cell and Ni-cad
batteries (i) plates, electrolyte and cover.
364. What are factors affecting the performance of
Lead-Acid batteries.
365. What are various methods of charging lead-acid
batteries?
366. What are the advantages of Ni-cad battery over
Lead acid battery?
367. What is thermal runaway?
368. What is the purpose of circuit breakers and fuses,
their properties?
369. Explain solenoid and relay.
370. Which types of CBs used in Aircraft and what
are not used in Aircraft?
371. What are the types of switches used in A/C?
372. What are the effects of current and which are the
effects are used in meter?
373. What are the precautions to be observed when
connecting an Ammeter in circuit?
374. Precautions to be observed while connecting a
voltmeter in circuit.
375. Define inductive reactance and capacitive
reactance.
376. What is Power factor? What is relation between
PF, True power and apparent power?
377. Principle of transformer Can a transformer work
on DC if not then why?
378. Why the secondary of current transformer never
be left open while the system be operated?
379. Write 05 types of diodes and draw the symbols.
380. Draw and explain the working at a zener diode as
regulator (voltage).
381. What are major parts of an alternator?
382. What is Armature reaction? Write the methods of
reducing it.
383. What are the various types of voltage regulators
and explain the working of carbon pile voltage
regulator.
384. Draw a carbon pile voltage regulator and explain
how the voltage level can be adjusted.
385. What is paralleling of generator, how is it
achieved?
386. What are the differences between AC motor and
DC motor.
387. What is the working Principle of motor?
388. Uses of three-phase and single-phase induction
motor in aircraft systems.
389. What is CSD? Explain the method of adjusting
the speed of CSD.
390. What is AC series motor? Explain the changes,
which are made to operate on AC.
391. Types of turbo engines.
392. Advantages of test engine over turbine engine.
393. Type of fuel used in different engine.
394. Which is the high speed engine (turbo-prop or
turbo jet)? Write the advantages of it.
395. What are the basic flight instruments?
396. Name the different instruments used along with
piston engine.
397. Write the working principle of the following
instruments: Hydraulic pressure gauge, pressure
gauge for anti-icing system, RPM gauge.
398. Points to be kept in mind during inspection of
magnetic compass.
399. Occasion when compass swinging is carried out.
400. What do you mean by remote reading
instrument.
401. Working principle of altimeter and ROCI.
 423. Procedures for jacking the aircraft.
402. Meaning of various coloured are in instrument
dial working. 424. Various taxi lights and their meaning.

403. What is Angle of attack? How it affects lift and
drag?
404. What are special inspections carried out on
aircraft?
425. Classification, materials, types and uses of (i)
screw driver (ii) hammer (iii ) chisel (iv) pliers (v)
Punches (vi) files.
426. Precautions to be taken while using file.

405. What are various Publications used to guide

aviation mechanic?
406. What is ATA specification? Explain its purpose.
427. What are metal cutting tools?
407. What are the types of NDT carried out on aircraft
parts. 428. Types of Blades used in hacksaw (all hard and
flexible type).
408. Explain the principle of ECI. 429. Draw a twist drill and write its parts.

409. What are the indicating mediums used in
magnetic particle inspection?
410. Why the parts under magnetic particle inspection
require to be demagnetised after carried out the test
Methods of demagnetisation.
411. What types of NDT carried out on plastic,
ceramic and rubber?
412. Draw engine intake and exhaust hazard areas.
413. Extinguishing engine fires develops during the
starting procedure.
414. What are various types of ground support units
used in the operations of Aircraft?
415. Precautions to be observed while refuelling of
aircraft.
430. What are layout and measuring tools?
431. What are types of callipers and their uses?
432. Draw a micrometer Write its parts.
433. Calculate the least count of an English
micrometer.
434. Principle of working of a micrometer.
435. Materials uses in construction frame, anvil,
spindle of a micrometer, also its properties.
436. Determining the value of micrometer reading.
437. What is positive error and negative error in
micrometer how it is corrected?
438. Uses of taps and dies.

416. What are the duties of refuelling crews? 439. Various logic gates, their symbols, truth table.
417. What are the advantages of pressure refuelling?
440. Uses and compositions of combination sets.
418. Types of Fire vs Extinguishing agent.
441. Conversion of binary to decimal, octal to
decimal, hexadecimal to decimal and vice-versa.
419. Fire extinguisher periodic checks.
442. NAND gate, NOR gate, Exclusive OR gate.
420. Precautions to be observed while using
compressed Air system.
443. Why NAND/NOR gates are called universal
gate?
421. Precautions against windstorm damage.
444. Draw circuits of 'AND' and OR gate.
422. Procedures for towing the aircraft.
445. What are the advantages of composite materials
used in aircraft construction?

446. NDT carried out on composite materials.

447. Faults in welding.

448. Difference between TIG and MIG welding.

449. Draw and explain, carburising Flame Neutral

flame and oxidising flame.
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

1. The backing and filling plates using the hole in the 9. During flight in the event of engine failure the a/c
stressed skin as a template to obtain correct size, the will have an atti tude of:
backinb plate should be overlap by:
A. 9 D. A. Gliding.
B. 8 D. B. Stalling.
C. 7 D. C. Flying in the same direction and height.
D. 6 D. D. Rolling.

2. Edges of the repair patches are to be: 10. An Increased in the drag on the down going wing
A. Chiffed. during a control roll can be achievced by using:-
B. Chamfered. A. Servo dileron.
C. Filled. B. Frise aileron.
D. Smoothered. C. Mass balance of deliron.
D. Aerodynamically balance of aileron.
3. The chobert rivets mandral is made of:
A. Mild steel. 11. Aileron in effectiveness due to thickened
B. High tensile steel. boundary layer effect toward s the tip is solved by:-
C. High carbon steel. A. large size of ailerons.
D. Monel metal. B. Aileron balance tabs.
C. All moving wing tips.
4. Hi shear pins as name suggests, are used in D. Elevons.
structural position where there is:
A. Heavy load of shear loading. 12. The speed of sound is propotional to the:
B. High degree of shear loading. A. Square of the absolute temperature.
C. Leak proof point. B. Square root of the absolute temperature.
D. Heavy strength. C. Square root of the temperature.
D. Density of air.
5. Jo bolts are supplied pre-lubricated and must:
A. Be degreased before fitment. 13. During transionic flow, a marked rise in air flow
B. Not be degreased before fitment. ocuures immeditately behind the shock wave is
C. Be cleaned with gasoline before fitment. known as:
D. Be cleaned with petrol before fitment. A. Pressure wave.
B. Shock stall.
6. Riv nuts are anchor nuts in rivet form used where C. Sonic bang.
access is limited to: D. Sonic bubble.
A. Both side of the struture.
B. Bottom side of the struture. 14. In a supersonic flow, the formation of shock wave
C. One side of the struture. is upstream of the originating surface, then free stream
D. Top side of the sturture. mach number is:
A. Supersonic.
7. After take off, when the aircraft is accelerating and B. Less than the velocity of propagation.
climbing if the flap are raised, it causes immediate C. Greater than the velocity of propagation.
reduction in the lift and loss of height, this is D. Supersonic but less than the velocity of
countered by: propagation.
A. Increase in the angle of attack.
B. Decrease in the angle of attack. 15. Aerofoil when gives best result in super sonic
C. Increase in the speed of the A/C. conditions is:
D. Decrease in the speed of the A/C. A. Diamond section aerofoil.
B. Bi-convex aerofoil.
8. The best lift/drag ratio is obtained with the flap at C. Sharp edged thin aerofoil.
an angle between : D. Uniconvex aerofoil.
A. 12' and 25'.
B. 10' and 30'. 16. In cabin air cycle system the air discharge valve
C. 10' and 35'. incorporates at outward relief valve to prevent
D. 15' and 35'. excessive.
A. Cabin air pressure.
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B. Cabin ambient pressure. D. Green.
C. Cabin differential pressure. 25. The operation of moving iorn type frequency
D. Cabin atmospheric pressure. meter is based on :
A. Mechanical resonance.
17. A typical high grade moving coil instrument may B. Variation of impedance.
have a coil resistance of :- C. Electrical resonance.
A. 05 ohm. D. Force of attraction.
B. 10 ohm.
C. 15 ohm. 26. A desired wave shape with a known frequency
D. 20 ohm. and amplitude can be obtained from:
A. Oscilloscope.
18. To measure a resistance below 10 kohm by B. Signal generator.
wheatstone bridge method, the rates switch is kept at C. Modulator.
position : D. Signal processor.
A. 0.
B. 1. 27. The instrument used for measuring HF & VHF
C. 10. current is :
D. 100. A. Moving iron freq meter.
B. Tong test ammeter.
19. Avometer used a : C. Hot wire instrucment.
A. Moving coil meter. D. Thermo couple instrument.
B. Hotwire instrument.
C. Moving iron meter. 28. Damping force in moving coil meter is based on
D. induction type instrument. A. End rule.
B. Lenz's law.
20. The torque exerted on moving coil of wattmeter is C. Fleming's Rt hand rule.
proportional to : D. Fleming's lt hand rule.
A. Current in circuit.
B. Voltage in curcuit. 29. Moving coil meter employs the principle of :
C. Product of voltage and current in the circuit. A. Motor.
D. Magnetic field. B. Eddy current.
C. Sliding field.
21. Atype `D' meter when used as ohm meter, the dry D. Electrostatic field.
cell supply required is :
A. 1.5 V. 30. The quantity of electricity passing through any
B. 3 V. point in a curcuit per unit time is :
C. 4.5 V. A. PD.
D. 6 V. B. Current.
C. EMF.
22. The mercury motor meter can measure : D. Voltage.
A. DC only.
B. AC only. 31. The trimming tab which can be adjusted on
C. AC & Dc both. ground is known as :
D. Speed. A. Controllable trimming tab.
B. Fixed trimming tab.
23. The instrument required to indicatge phase C. Spring tab.
relationship between the current and the applied D. Balance tab.
voltage, irrespective of the value of the current and
voltage is : 32. When the Perspex is warmed it can be :
A. Power factor meter. A. Easily moulded.
B. Synchroscope. B. Tendency of facture.
C. Tong test ammeter. C. Malleable.
D. Safety ohmmeter. D. Ductile.

24. If zinc orthosilicate is used as flourescent material 33. Prior to threading on a rivet for broaching mandrel
in CRT, the colour of the light spot is : head should be lightly lubricated with:
A. orange. A. OM-21.
B. yellow. B. XG-275.
C. Blue. C. XG-287.
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D. XG-285. D. Corrosion and ensures a heat proof joint.

34. Riveting pliers which have a ratchet operation so 42. In air cycle system, the charged air is passing
that it can be used in confined place where only small, through nozzle ring of a cold air unit turbine:
repeaeted handle movements are possible. A. Pressure of charged air is reduced.
A. Tucker pop pliers. B. Pressure of charged air is increased.
B. Tucker cup riveting pliers. C. Pressure and temperature of charged air is
C. Avdel riveting pliers. decreased.
D. Chobert riveting pliers. D. Pressure of charged air is increased and
temperature is decreased.
35. Dimple riveting is used for sheets of:
A. 18 SWG & 20 SWG and the rivet hole is drilled 43. In air discharge valve a spring loaded outward
1/32" under size. relief valve is fitted at the centre of the:
B. 18 SWG & 16 SWG and the rivet hole is drilled A. Diaphragm.
1/32" under size. B. Diaphragm chaamber.
C. 18 SWG and the rivet hole is drilled 1/32" over C. Inward relief valve.
size. D. Capsule chamber.
D. 16 SWG and the hole is drilled 1/32" over size.
44. Glands used in sealing the pressure cabin for
36. Rivets mainly used on the seams of fuel and oil passing the control cable/tube are kept well greased
tank are: to:
A. Chobert. A. Provide lubrication.
B. Avdel. B. Minimise friction load.
C. De-Bergue. C. Prevent corrosion.
D. Rivnuts. D. Proper Sealing.

37. Case hardened surface templates are knowna as: 45. In cabin pressure test trolley, when pressure
A. Fitting jigs. becomes excessive in pressure chamber, the excess
B. Filling fixtures. pressure escapes to atmosphere through.
C. Bridge piece. A. Relief valve.
D. Special teemplates. B. Cabin bleed valve.
C. Plate valve.
38. Device used to clamp material during the process D. Outlet valve.
of fitting, machining or drilling is known as:
A. Jigs. 46. All friction pads of brake unit (Plate type) is
B. Template. renewed when :
C. Fixture. A. The limiting dimension is reached.
D. Jury strut. B. Brakes are sluggish.
C. Brake torque is less than prescribed figure.
39. Control surfaces that have been repaired must be D. Oil is leaking.
checked for:
A. Rigging checks. 47. During servicing of remote control system, check
B. Hyd functional check. that the control oper ates correctly and is returned to
C. Mass balance. position by.
D. Operational checks. A. Hydraulic power.
B. Electric power.
40. At the end of all checks to prevent spreading C. Pneumatic power.
further, they should be: D. Spring.
A. Pined by centre punch.
B. Cross cut by chisel. 48. A Cable guide or retainer is fitted to the pulley to
C. By denting the surface. ensure that the c able remains :
D. Holes should be drilled. A. Stright.
B. Tight and fit for operation.
41. All overlapping (fraying) surface and rivets will C. On the pulley.
between in the jointing compound.Jointing compound D. On the fair leads.
helps to prevent:
A. Corrosion and ensures a weather proof joint. 49. The triming tab which can be adjusted only on the
B. Corrosion and ensures a water proof joint. guard is termed as.
C. Corrosion and ensures a lack proof joint. A. Adjustable trim tab.
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B. Fixed trimming tab. A. Nipple extremities of the two end fittings.
C. Servo tab. B. One rubber portion end to other rubber end.
D. Ground tab. C. End of the adopter to other end of the adapter.
D. End of the coupling to other end of the coupling.
50. A cable guide or retainer is fitted to the pulley to
ensure that the c able remains: 58. Bonded seal when used on moving parts it is
A. Straight. backed by a leather or nyl on washer to prevent:
B. tight and fit for operation. A. Fluctuation.
C. on the pulley. B. Shearing.
D. on the fairleads. C. Extrusion.
D. Cracking.
51. To ensure always the cable remain on the pulley
the control run is fitted with. 59. Ring which may be made of felt or rubber and
A. Fairleads. fitted to prevent dirt en tering to the high pressure seal
B. Sprockets. of a jack is termed as:
C. Retainer. A. Duplex seal.
D. Control wheels. B. Bonded seal.
C. 'U' seal.
52. During servicing of distributors dirt should be D. Wiper ring.
removed from the distr ibutors with :
A. Rag. 60. Method of test in which particles filtered out of
B. Brushes. the sample hydraulic fluid are transfered to glass slide
C. A spray water. and then compared with specimen s lides under a
D. Chamois leather. microscope is known as:
A. Comparison method.
53. A valve installed in the pressure line connected to B. Con-par method.
the contol valve,e nsure that service remains in C. Millipore method.
selected position when any other servics are opreated D. Millipore patch method.
is termed as;-.
A. Throtling valve. 61. In which sampling method ,the sample fluid is
B. Sequence valve(hyd). poured through the filte r paper and the paper is then
C. Sequence valve(mech). dried by clean filtered air;-
D. Non-return valve. A. Millipore patch method.
B. Con-par method.
54. In hyro-booster when the supply pressure is C. Comparision method.
sufficient to close the bypassvalve jack chamber are D. Millipore con-par method.
isolated from each otherend jack extended or retracts
in power in reponse to movement ofthe;-. 62. During servicing of aircraft in the hanger to test
A. Servovalve control rod. the hyraulic system under actual operating
B. Bypass valve. condition,use;-
C. Piston. A. Ground test trolley.
D. pilot control column. B. Hyraulic servicing trolley.
C. Hyraulic static test rig.
55. A bypass control type Hydrobooster will permit D. hand pump.
change over of control from power to manuel or ivee
verse: 63. On hyd servicing trolly during winter season it
A. When control surface is in neutral position. may be necessary to bl ock the radiator from the fan
B. Regardless of the position of the flying control. for warming up radiator water up to ;-.
C. When the control surface are in up position. A. 80 degree centigrade.
D. when the control surfaces are in down position. B. 70 degree centigrade.
C. 60 degree centigrade.
56. In Hydraulic pipe/tubing, tungum to using is a D. 50 degree centigrade.
composition of:
A. Alluminium, stainless steel and silicon brass. 64. Ovality is calculated from two measurements
B. Alluminium, nickel and stainless steel. taken at same point in a b ore but at:
C. Alluminium, nickel and silicon brass. A. Opposite direction to each other.
D. Stainless steel, nickel and silicon brass. B. 45' to each other.
C. 60' to each other.
57. All hose assemblios are measured for length from: D. 90' to each other.
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 73. In oil and water trap, the deposited fluid is
65. Internal leak of the valve due to small scroes and prevented from entering the outlet by:
worn bores is preve nted by: A. Gauge filter.
A. Lapping. B. Metal chute.
B. Replacing the faulty parts. C. Baffle.
C. Polishing. D. Metal chute and baffle.
D. Renewing the sealing rings.
74. In pneumatic system a slow build up in pressure
66. The piston rod of jack is connected to the: may indicate that the regulating valve:
A. A/C structure. A. Filter requires cleaning.
B. Services operated. B. Filter requires renewal.
C. Hand pump. C. Internal leakage.
D. Selector valve. D. Safely valve blow off.

67. In non-self idling power circuit, two extra 75. Ejection of oil of filter drain may indicate:
components are fitted othe r than self-idling curcuit to A. Oil leak in compressor.
off load the pump are: B. Oil and water trap faulty.
A. Safety valve and relief valve. C. Oil in the air bottle.
B. Automatic cutout valve and accumulator. D. Anti freezer not working.
C. By pass valve and regulator valve.
D. Relief valve and non-return valve. 76. The clearance between the brake shoes and the
brake drum must be check ed when the brake unit has
68. Filter used in pressure lines of Hydraulic system been:
when chogged, the fl uid passes directly from inlet to A. Renewed.
outlet connection by opening: B. Operated.
A. cut-out valve. C. Repaired.
B. Safety valve. D. Assembled.
C. By-pass valve.
D. Non-return valve. 77. In the pneumatic brake pressure gauges, pressure
drops or rises constantly causes may be:
69. A dehydrater is fitted in pnecematic system A. Cracked pipes.
between: B. Dirt on valve parts.
A. Compressor and pressure relief valve. C. Punctured expansion chamber.
B. Ground charging point and oil and watertrap. D. Exhaust or inlet valve not seating.
C. Oil and water trap and air bottle.
D. Air bottle and air filter. 78. Stress which tend to pull or twist the components
or body by tension a nd compression at a right angle
70. In air pressure system, ground charging valve is to each other is:
installed between: A. Shear.
A. Air compressor and HP relief valve. B. Tension.
B. HP relief valve and Ante freezer. C. Toroion.
C. Anti freezer and oil and water trap. D. Bending.
D. Air compressor and the oil and water trap.
79. The a/c structure may fail due to violent vibration
71. As per classification of air compressor, quering of aerofoil surfac e produced by the interaction of
compressor is classif ied as: mass and aero dynamic load is termed as;-.
A. Nature of installation. A. Buffeting.
B. Moving parts. B. Vibration.
C. Duty. C. Flutter.
D. Application. D. Oscillation.

72. In pneumatic system a dehydrator comtains 80. On high speed aircraft where aelierons are not
alumina where as anmto freez er contains: fitted on wings more ef fective roll is achieved by;-.
A. Warm air. A. Elevons.
B. Silicagel crystals. B. ruddervators.
C. Methanol. C. tailerons.
D. Methane. D. spoilers.

183
81. Carbon fibre reinforced plastics are used as: 89. The wheel suitable for tubless tyre is caleed :
A. Radio transparant radoms. A. Well base wheel.
B. Shaped into components in vacuombeg. B. Loose flange wheel.
C. Stronger and cheaper. C. Divided type.
D. Manufacturing of helicopter rotor blade. D. Detachable flange wheel.

82. Having high strength to weight ratio and an 90. Aircraft wheel arrangements, primary function of
excellent corrosion resist ance, property of the metal bogie undercarriage is one of :
is known as: A. Reduce all up weight.
A. Stainless steel. B. Greater flexibility.
B. Magnesium alloy. C. Provides safety.
C. Titanium alloy. D. Weight distribution.
D. Coppon alloy.
91. Before assy to the wheel to prevent corrosion due
83. The type of wing construction convered with to electrolytic actr ion the treads of the new screws
metal plates which adds st rength and stiffness is: and bolts must be smeared with :
A. Braced of construction. A. Anti seize grease.
B. Honey comb construction. B. Anti freezing grease.
C. Stressed skin construction. C. Jointing compound.
D. Geodatic construction. D. Lubricating oil.

84. A form of stressed skin construction used in a 92. Whenever a tyre is removed from a wheel
fuselage in which the c urved skin carried the whole assembly either for routine maintenance or because
or greater part of the main load is: the tyre is defective the wheel must be checked for.
A. Semi monocoque. A. Cracks.
B. Mono coque. B. Discoloration and cracks.
C. Geodetic. C. Dust, dirt and corrosion.
D. Honey comb. D. FOD.

85. In increase in the drag on the down going wing 93. During the construction of the tyre, the plies are
during a control roll c an be achieved without the fitted in pairs, te rmed as.
complications of the differential linkage b y using: A. Cross baised.
A. Frise ailerons. B. Phy layers.
B. Plan ailerons. C. Phy overlaps.
C. Normal type of ailerons. D. Pockets.
D. Zip type ailerons.
94. The type of valve stem caps are to be tighten with
86. The aerodynamic balancing of control surface are the help of pliers is.
mostly given to: A. Come cap.
A. Ailerons and rudder. B. Hexagonal cap.
B. Rudder and elevators. C. Deflation cap.
C. Elevators and ailerons. D. Double check cap.
D. Elevators, rudder and ailerons.
95. The inflation valve of the tyre designed for
87. For landing gear structure the metal used for pressure above 90 PSI mus t be fitted with valve cores
fatigue resistance is: containing.
A. Nickel steel. A. Stainless steel springs and hexagonal valve cap.
B. Chromium. B. Copper coloured spring and extracto cap.
C. Carbon steel. C. Steel spring and double check cap.
D. Molybdenum. D. Low pressure spring and dome cap.

88. While assembling control surface when testing the 96. If the size of the aircraft tyre is shown as 550 X
control for freedom of movement,they are found to be 250 - 6 the second three digits will denote.
stiff the cause is;-. A. The overall diameter of the inflated tyre in mm.
A. Over tension of cable. B. The cross-sectional width of the tyre in mm.
B. Under tension of cable. C. The diameter of the tyre bead seat in inches.
C. Incorrect run of cable. D. The overall diameter of the tyre.
D. Lack of lubricant in cable.

184
97. Aircraft tyres which are under inflated may cause D. Primary structure.
them to wear rapidly and uneven at or near the.
A. Side walls. 105. When C materials are used, the cause of
B. Shoulder of the tyre. chilling/blooming fault is :
C. Edge of the tread. A. High humidity.
D. Edge of the tyre. B. Low humidity.
C. High temperature.
98. The tyre removal jigs primarily intended for use D. High humidity and low temperature.
with wheels fitted wi th.
A. Tubed tyres but can be with tubless tyres also. 106. The wheel arrangement of ac is governed by the
B. Tubeless tyres but can be used with tubed tyres strength of the runway on which it operates and.
also. A. Take off weight.
C. Tubless tyres. B. Landing weight.
D. Special tyres. C. All up weight.
D. Tyre weight.
99. Case hardened surface templates are known as :
A. Fitting jigs. 107. The undercarriage which withstand only
B. Fitting fixtures. compression loads,this type is known as;
C. Bridge piece. A. Direct action type.
D. Special templates. B. Articulated type.
C. Suspension type.
100. An aircraft with a operational ceiling of 50,000 ft D. Lever type.
approximately diff erential pressure remain to
maintain 25,000 ft condition is : 108. To vary the operating pressure and to provide
A. 1.75 psi. differential piston surf ace area, the liquid spring
B. 3.75 psi. shock absorber has a:
C. 9.25 psi. A. Flutter plate.
D. 5.25 psi. B. Metering pin.
C. Large diameter piston rod with thick wall cylinder.
101. A valve is installed in the pressure line connected D. Separator.
to the control val ve, ensures that the service remains
in selected position when any oth er services are 109. Some type of liquidspring oleo leg are connected
operated is termed as : to the aircraft main hydraulic system through;
A. Throttling valve. A. Recuperated valve.
B. Sequence valve (Hydraulic). B. Non return valve.
C. Sequence valve (Mechanical). C. charging valve.
D. Non return valve. D. Bleeder valve.

102. A Dehydrator is fitted in pneumatic system 110. For filling and charging of oleo the devices
between : required are.
A. Compressor and pressure relief valve. A. Lubricating gun and charging gun.
B. Ground charging point and oil and water trap. B. An universal lubricating gun and flexible charging
C. Oil and water trap and air bottle. pipe.
D. Air bottle and air filter. C. Priming gun.
D. None of the above.
103. All overlapping (fraying) surface and revets will
be wet in the jointi ng compound.Jointing compound 111. The wheel arrangement of AC is governed by the
helps to prevent: strenght of the runways on which it operated with:
A. Corrosion and ensures a weather proof joint. A. Take off weight.
B. Corrosion and ensures a water proof joint. B. Landing weight.
C. Corrosion and ensures a leak proof joint. C. All up weight.
D. Corrosion and ensures a heat proof joint. D. Tare Weight.

104. Airframe structure which highly stressed but, if 112. The compleate downlock and selfcentring
damaged will not caus e failure of aircraft or loss of assembly which rotates freely on a bearing located
life is classified as : between the cam and rataing sleve is called;.
A. Special structure. A. Thrust race bearing.
B. Secondary structure. B. Roller race bearing.
C. Teritary structuare. C. pinion race bearing.
185
D. Ball race bearing. 121. Advantage of case hardening by nitriding process
is;
113. In liquid spring shock absorber the piston is A. Retention of hardness at low temperature.
having a large diameter piston rod, this is to: B. Retention of hardness at high temperature.
A. Prevent bending. C. The depth of hardened case may be 0.08".
B. Acconmodate transefer holes. D. It is easy and cheap.
C. Compress the oil under load.
D. Damper the recoil. 122. Before assembling to the wheel, to prevent
corrosion due to electrolyt tion, the threads of the new
114. In oleo pneumatic shock absorber(Without screws and bolts must be smeared with :
separator), the landing shock in absorbed by: A. Anti seize grease.
A. Small hole in inner tubular member. B. Anti freezing grease.
B. Flutter plate. C. Jointing compound.
C. Spring. D. Lubricating oil.
D. Displacement of oil.
123. To release the air pressure from the tyre and
115. In oleo-pneumatic leg (with separator) the prevents the tyre from bursting, if the wheel becomes
plunger tube is prevented f rom rotating by: over heated, by means of :
A. Torsion link. A. Spark plug.
B. Torsion ring. B. Fusible plug.
C. Gland assembly. C. Fusible valve.
D. Torson plate. D. Rubber O ring.

116. In a/c wheel arrangements,primary function of 124. The wheel bearings are subjected to severe
bogie undercarriage is o ne of; impact loads when the aircr ands, to avoid this load all
A. Reduce allup wight. axles are made to such dimensions that there is a
B. greater flexibility. small clearance between the :
C. Provides safty. A. Axle and retaining nut.
D. Weight distribution. B. Axle and inner race.
C. Inner race and outer race.
117. Large modren aircrafts have more all up weight D. Axle and outer race.
thereby wheel loading i s too high .To protect the
runway structure from damaging and tyre sin king 125. Whenever a tyre is removed from a wheel
which type of wheel arrangement is preferable. assembly, either for a routine tenance or because the
A. Double wheels. tyre is defective the wheel must be checked for.
B. Tandem wheels. A. Cracks.
C. Bogie unit. B. Discolouration & cracks.
D. Single wheel. C. Dust, dirt and corrosion.
D. FOD.
118. A plain carbon ateel with carbon content of
0.67% is; 126. During the construction of tyre, the plies are
A. Low carbon steel . fitted in pairs, termed.
B. Medium carbon steel. A. Crossed biased.
C. Blister steel. B. Ply layers.
D. high carbon steel. C. Ply overlaps.
D. Pockets.
119. To secure maximum strength and hardness to
duralumin which have been a nnealed must be; 127. Twin contact type of tyres are fitted in :
A. Age hardened. A. Nose wheel to provide better grip.
B. solution treated. B. Tail wheel for better castoring.
C. Precipitation treated. C. Nose or tail wheel is anti shimming device.
D. Anodised. D. Nose wheel is shimming device.

120. Duralmin tubing should be solution treated;. 128. The type valve stem caps are to be tightened with
A. Prior to bending or flaring. the help of pliers i.
B. After bending or flaring. A. Dome cap.
C. Prior and after bending or flaring. B. Hexagonal cap.
D. only on rebending or flaring. C. Deflection cap.
D. Double check cap.
186
129. In the inflation valve of tyre designed for 137. A greater area can be sprayed without
pressure above 90 PSI must befitted with valve cores replenishment of the material in container, the method
containing : is known as:
A. Stainless steel spring and hexagonal valve cap. A. Suction feed.
B. Copper colored spring and extractor cap. B. Gravity feed.
C. Steel spring and double check cap. C. Pressure feed.
D. Low pressure spring and dome cap. D. Spraying equipment.

130. If the size of the aircraft tyre is shown as 138. While assembling control surface when testing
550 x 250 - 6. The second e digits will denote: the controls for freedom movements, they are found to
A. The over all diameter of the inflated tyre in mm. be stiff the cause is:
B. The cross-sectional width of the tyre in mm. A. Over tension of cable.
C. The diameter of the tyre bead seat in inches. B. Under tension of cable.
D. The overall diameter of the tyre. C. Incorrect run of cable.
D. Lack of lubricant in cable.
131. Aircraft tyres which are under inflation may
cause them to wear rapidly unevenly at or near the: 139. Grade 'A' perspex (D T D 5544) is used for:
A. Side walls. A. Navigation lamp covers.
B. Shoulder of the tyre. B. Side penals lamp covers.
C. Edge of the tread. C. Where clear unudisturbed vision is required.
D. Edge of the tyre. D. Bullet proof wind shield only.

132. The tyre removal jigs primarily intented for use 140. A/C canopy when cracked badly due to adverse
with wheels fitted with: weather condition is:
A. Tubed tyres but can be used with tubeless tyres A. to be polished well.
also. B. to be replaced with new one.
B. Tubeless tyres but can be used with tubed tyres C. …………………….
also. D. to be sent for repair immediately.
C. Tubeless tyres.
D. Special tyres. 141. During cabin pressuraisation test, the cabin bleed
valve must be in:
133. Red iron oxide pigment is added to cellulose A. Opened position.
materials: B. Closed position.
A. To protect fabric from ultra violet rays of the sun. C. Intermidiate position.
B. To protect fabric from moisture. D. Partially closed position.
C. To provide more tightening.
D. To adopt the camouflaging for a particular aircraft. 142. Any unwanted variation from trimmed condition,
the appropriate control surface may be trimmed to
134. Bostik is an air drying rubber-in-solvent material remove the loading on the pilot control is ensured by :
with estimated storage life of: A. Balance tab.
A. Three month. B. Servo tab.
B. Sixmonth. C. Controllable tab.
C. Nine month. D. Spring tab.
D. One year.
143. In flying control system the sideways fluctuatin
135. In aluminium alloy sheet for culting large size of the cable caused b aircraft vibration is restricted by
holes the tool is used. A. Pulley.
A. Skin knife. B. Clamps.
B. Trepanning tools. C. Fairleads.
C. Back marker. D. Rubber pads.
D. End facing cutter.
144. A cable tension regulator consists of a pair of
136. Making lightening holes on the flanged edges of spring loaded quadrant with a ponter and scale to :
the spars and ribs to: A. Register cable tension while adjusting.
A. To increase rigidity and strength. B. Let out equal tension on each side of the circuit.
B. To form access for control rods and electrical C. Record the change in length of the cable.
system. D. Maintain optimum tension in cables.
C. To form access for inspection.
D. For ventilation.
187
145. Bowden type control system are intended for : D. Carbon steel or Stainless steel.
A. Pull operations only.
B. Both push and pull operations. 154. A cable tension regulator consists of a pair of
C. Providing accurate and positive control throughout spring loaded quadrant with a pointer and scale for:
the range of movement. A. Register cable tension while adjusting.
D. Locking control in any desired position. B. Layout equal tension on each side of the circuit.
C. Recording the change in the length of the cables.
146. The purpose of adjustable stop is to. D. Maintaining optimum tension in cables.
A. Length of the conduit only.
B. Length of the cable. 155. Some cable systems have compensating device
C. Length of both conduit & cable. fitted which ensures opera over a much wider range
D. Movement of control surface. of:
A. Pressure.
147. When pull operation only desired the control B. Temperature.
used is. C. Frequency.
A. Bowden type control. D. Pressure & Temperature.
B. Push pull rod control.
C. Teleflex control. 156. Push pull control unit are installed in place of
D. Chair control. wheel unit where control is operate against a.
A. Heavy load.
148. In teleflex control cable is tinned thinly and B. Light Load.
restricted to extend no more than approximately by C. Pull load.
6mm from the cable end to. D. Both pull and push load.
A. Prevent fraying.
B. Avoid overheating. 157. The main advantages of teleflex controls over
C. Minimise cost. bowden control is more a te and positive control
D. Maintain flexibility. through out the range and furthermore, that th trolled
component can be:
149. In teleflex control units a short length of conduit A. More effective 'PULL' operation.
known as "spent tr tube" is incorporated with: B. Operated at any degree required.
A. Junction box wheel unit. C. Temporally locked in only selected position.
B. Double entry wheel unit. D. Temporally locked in any desired position.
C. Straight lead wheel unit.
D. Single entry wheel unit. 158. If equal pressure is applied to both ends of jack
simultaneously the pressure will:
150. To prevent fraying of the spocer wires during A. Move opposite to the piston rod side.
assembly the free end of cable should be. B. Move to either side.
A. Trimmed. C. Remain stationary.
B. Welded. D. Move to piston rod side.
C. Tinned.
D. Brazed. 159. A rubber piston ring fitted in the hand pump
groove and being a slack acts as:
151. The medium for soaking chain before fitting to A. Transfer valve.
aircraft is. B. Transfer valve in addition to sealing the joint.
A. Paraffin. C. Seal for the joint.
B. Petrol. D. Relief valve.
C. Oil.
D. Non leaded petrol. 160. In non self idling power circuits when
predetermined pressure is built to off load the pump,
152. The fixed trimming tabs are adjusted: component fitted is:
A. Only in the air. A. Pressure regulator valve.
B. In the air or on the ground. B. Pressure relief valve.
C. Only on the ground. C. Automatic cut out valve.
D. No adjustment should be carried out. D. Safety valve.

153. Aircraft control cables are fabricated from: 161. In undercarriage circuit the purpose of NRV
A. Steel. fitted before control valve to.
B. Stainless steel. A. Maintain sufficient pressure in down line.
C. Carbon steel. B. Maintain sufficient pressure in up line.
188
C. Provide positive lock. D. Dirt.
D. Provide hydraulic lock.
170. If a sampling tst shows contamination at a level
162. During take off and landing the flaps are lowered greater than specifie it, it is necessary to change the :
and raised slowly to prevent sudden change in the A. Hydraulic fluid only.
position of the aircraft. For this purpos component B. Hydraulic filters only.
provided in the flap hydraulic circuit is : C. System fluid only.
A. Synchronising valve. D. Hydraulic fluid and filters only.
B. Throttling valve.
C. Pressure relief valve. 171. Before assembling the seal must be lubricated
D. Shuttle valve. with.
A. XG-275.
163. A rubber piston ring fitted in the hand pump B. XG-314.
groove and being a slack acts as : C. Silicon grease.
A. Transfer valve. D. High melting grease.
B. Transfer valve in addition to sealing the joint.
C. Seal for the joint. 172. Rods and cylinders having minor bow during
D. Relief valve. inspection.
A. Can be retained for use.
164. A micronic filter is capable of : B. To be rejected.
A. Filtering 100% of all particles above 10 micron. C. given to workshop for rectification.
B. Filtering 100% of all particles above 5 microns. D. Concession from CEO to be taken before use.
C. Filtering 90% of all particles above 5 microns.
D. Filtering 90% of all particles above 10 micreons. 173. Before assembly of hydraulic components, the
bearing hinge pins etc, a usually lubricated with
165. The purpose of pressure regulator valve (Special) grease:
is to : A. XG - 271.
A. Maintain sufficient pressure for essential services. B. XG - 275.
B. Regulate the pressure in undercarriage system. C. XG - 315.
C. Prevent the undercarriage from dropping while its D. XG - 375.
doors are closing.
D. Prevent fairing doors from closing while 174. Before dismantling the suspected component for
undercarriage is lowered. repair or recategorisat It should be first checked for:
A. Functional test.
166. The bypass valve will permit a free operation of B. Operational test.
hydro booster when. C. Pressure test.
A. Pressure completely leak out. D. Time test.
B. Emergency system enters.
C. Supply fall below a pre-determined value. 175. The test applied to ensure that all connections
D. Pilot select manually. have been correctly ma ter servicing completed is:
A. Functional test.
167. While manufacturing the flexible hoses the end B. Operational test.
fiting are attached by using. C. Pressure test.
A. Hydraulic press. D. Time test.
B. Swaging machine.
C. Welding. 176. In powered flying control unit, the servo valve is
D. Brazing. in neutral position control surface is locked in:
A. Neutral position Hydraulically.
168. "U" seals are used in a jack piston in. B. Neutral position Mechanically.
A. Pair. C. Selected position Hydraulically.
B. Single. D. Selected position Mechanically.
C. With washer.
D. Not used. 177. Yaw damper actuator is electrically controlled
and hydraulically opera nd, when not in use, it act as:
169. The most common contamination to hydraulic oil A. Actuating rod.
is due to the entry of. B. Connecting rod.
A. Dust. C. Operating rod.
B. Water. D. Solid rod.
C. Chemicals.
189
178. In which of the technologies, the undesirable B. Filled with water.
dynamics are filter out he desired response is obtained C. filled with methanol.
by: D. None of the above.
A. Electrical signalling.
B. Manoeuver demand. 187. In pneumatic system, a slow build up in pressure
C. Control configured vehicles. may indicate that the and water trap is :
D. Fly-by-wire system. A. Unserviceable.
B. Serviceable.
179. To ensure correct re-alignment on re-connection C. Corroded.
before the drive shaft owered flying control system D. Full.
disconnected is to:
A. Place the component on the ground in sequance. 188. The material which imparts fatigue resistance
B. Mark parallel of the joints. and used for landing gear construction.
C. Mark the angular of the joints. A. Aluminium.
D. Check the maintenance mannual. B. Duraluminium.
C. Molybednum.
180. Chemical stability is then liquids ability to resist: D. Steel.
A. Oxidation and deterioration.
B. Internal flow of fluid. 189. Thermoplastic (Acrylics) are used for
C. External flow of fluid. manufacturing of.
D. Smooth flow of fluid. A. Cockpit canopies and side windows.
B. Bearing and cable insulator.
181. The drain plug of the oil and water trap should be C. Upholskey material.
finally. D. None of the above.
A. Blanked.
B. Removed. 190. The aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces
C. Tightened. are mostly given to.
D. Tightened and wire locked. A. aeileron & rudder.
B. Rudder and elevators.
182. While dismantling brake unit the shoe nearest to C. elevator & aeilerons.
the inflation connection should be. D. Elevators, rudder and aeilerons.
A. Removed first.
B. Removed last. 191. Airframe structure which are highly stressed but,
C. Not to be removed. if damaged will not failure of a/c or loss of life is
D. Remove when it falls. classified as:
A. special structure.
183. A pneumatic system the lever and the relay valve B. secondary structure.
is connected by means of. C. tertiary structure.
A. Bowden cable. D. primary structure.
B. Teleflex cable.
C. Cable. 192. The causes of tip stall on a highly swept back
D. Pull/pull rod. wing is usually due to:
A. spanwise area being less.
184. A leak in the pipe line or joint can be traced by B. downward deflection of airflow a tips.
means of. C. spanwise drifting of boundary layer.
A. Soapy water. D. washout.
B. By feel.
C. By visual inspection. 193. The construction of the main plane, must be
D. by checking the gauge. strong enough to transfer every large lift to the.
A. nose section.
185. In air pressure system, high pressure release B. Powerplant.
valve is located. C. tail section.
A. between oil & water trap & pressure regulator. D. fuselage.
B. Between ground charging and anti freezer valve.
C. Between compressor ground charging valve. 194. When an aircraft is in straight and level flight
D. Between compressor and anti freezor valve. and flying at a constant speed four forces acting on it
are balanced as.
186. In normal condition the anti freezer is. A. Weight/lift and drag/thrust.
A. Kept isolated. B. weight/thrust and lift/drag.
190
C. lift/thrust and weight/drag. D. Friction damper.
D. weight / drag and lift / thrust.
202. The type of track device which prevents the
195. The flying controls are aerodynamically balanced piston tube rotating in a fixed cylinder is called.
to. A. Thin shock absorber.
A. decrease the force necessary to operate the flying B. Fold.
controls during flying. C. Torque coupling.
B. Increase the force necessary to operate the flying D. Splines.
control during flight.
C. prevent the oscillatory movement of flying 203. An anti shimming device which permits
controls. castering of nose wheel and keep it in centre line after
D. Increase the speed of aircraft. an ac is airborne is known as.
A. Track device.
196. In bogie undercarriage the wheels arrangements B. Suspension device.
are: C. Self-centring mechanism.
A. two wheels on each undercarriage. D. None of the above.
B. four wheels on each undercarriage.
C. multi wheels arrangements. 204. To vary the operating pressure and to provide
D. three wheels on port and stbd undercarriage and differential piston surface area the liquid spraying
two wheels on nose u/c. shock absorber has.
A. Flutter plate.
197. The general aircraft dismantle sequence is. B. Metering pin.
A. main plane, undercarriage, tail unit and fuselage. C. A large diameter piston rod with thick wall
B. mainplane, tail unit, undercarriage and fuselage. cylinder.
C. mainplane, tail unit, undercarriage, centre section D. separator.
and fuselage.
D. mainplane, undercarriage, tail unit, fuselage and 205. In oleo pneumatic leg (with seperator) the
centre section. plunger tube is prevented f otating by a :
A. Torsion plate.
198. Where steel rule cannot be used for measurement B. Torsion ring.
use. C. Packing assembly.
A. measuring tape. D. Torsion link.
B. Vernier caliper.
C. Micrometer. 206. Aircraft wheel arrangements,primary function of
D. Trammel. bogie undercarriage in of:
A. Reduce all up weight.
199. While assembling control surface when testing B. Greater flexibility.
the controls for freedom of movement they are found C. Provides safety.
to be stiff the cause is. D. Weight distribution.
A. Over tension of cables.
B. Under tension of cable. 207. In self centring assembly,the down lock
C. In correct run of cable. assembly consists of a plunger lower end of the
D. Lack of lubricant in cable. plunger is housed in the:
A. Bore of a pawl.
200. The flying controls are aerodynamically balanced B. Bore of a slide.
to: C. Bore of a cam.
A. decrease the force necessary to operate the control D. Bore of a retaining sleeve.
during flight.
B. decrease the force necessary to operate the control 208. In liquid spring shock obsorber the piston is
during powered flight. having a large diameter piston rod. This is to:
C. prevent the oscillating movements of control. A. Prevent bending.
D. to increase stream. B. Accomodate transfer holes.
C. Compress the oil under load.
201. The device used to resist turning of the lower D. Damper the recoil.
tube in a main u/c shock absorber in a fixed upper
tube is called. 209. In a oleoleg strut oil leak from air charging valve
A. Anit shimming device. when the valve cor depressed indicates:
B. Track device. A. Faulty charging valve.
C. Articulated type device. B. Faulty valve seat.
191
C. Faulty plug. C. Axial loads.
D. Faulty separator. D. Radial and Axial loads.

210. The dampening device in oleo-pneumatic shock 218. Before examination , wheel bearings are to be
obsorber with seperator i. cleaned with :
A. Rubber valve. A. Trichlorothane or paraffin.
B. Restrictor hole. B. Paraffin or white spirit.
C. Seperator with floating ring. C. Trichloroethane or white spirit.
D. Flutter plate. D. Carbon ferochlorine or white sprit.

211. Large mordern aircrafts have more all up weight 219. In tubed tyre construction bonding medium for
thereby wheel loading too high. To prevent the the plies is provided by.
runway structure from damaging and tyre sinki which A. Chafer stripes & apex stripes.
type of wheel arrangement is preferable: B. Apex strips & braker strips.
A. Double wheels. C. Breaker strips and chafer strips.
B. Tandem wheels. D. Apex strips and filter strips.
C. Bogie unit.
D. Single wheel. 220. During assembly of tubeless tyre on to wheel
assembly, the red spot ma on tyre should :
212. An oleo pneumatic with separator legs, if leakage A. Line with valve location.
cannot be rectified ightly tightening the appropriate B. Be exactly 180 opposite to valve location.
component,the oleoleg must be: C. Be 45 angle to valve location.
A. Renewed. D. Be 90 angle to valve locaton.
B. Renewed gland or component.
C. Dismantled the gland or component renewed. 221. Twin contact type of tyres are fitted in :
D. Renewed damaged jointing washer. A. Nose wheel to provide better grip.
B. Tail wheel for better castoring.
213. The device which is used for charging and C. Nose or tail wheel as antishimming device.
checking of fluid air pressu a component or system D. Nose wheel as shimming device.
is:
A. Flexible charging pipe. 222. While manufacturing aircraft inner tube, the
B. Turner inflation valve. rubber compound is heated extruded through a
C. Undercarriage oleo pump type 'A'. circular die, and cut into separate length accordin size
D. Tyre pressure gauge. of tube this seperate length is painted by means of :
A. Valcanising.
214. Aircraft wheels are usually made from B. Moulding.
magnisium alloy or alluminium al as. C. Welding.
A. Casting. D. Patching.
B. Two halves welded together.
C. Two halves riveted together. 223. A red spot or triangle near the band on one sode
D. Forgd and riveted together. wall of the tyre indi.
A. Service use.
215. Moat tubeless tyred wheels have one or more B. Speed rating.
safety valves. They are coloured to indicate their : C. Light spot.
A. Location. D. Awl vent.
B. Fusing temperature.
C. Blowing off pressure. 224. The reinforced tread tyres will become un-
D. Material and type. serviceable when :
A. The reinforced fabric becomes exposed.
216. The purpose of hydraulic presss is to facilitate B. The indicating groove is reduced to 2mm.
removal and fitment of. C. The indicating groove is reduced to 1mm.
A. Bearing outer race. D. The reinforced fabric is split or broken.
B. Bearing inner race.
C. Outer wheel. 225. If the braking is a little in excess of hte
D. Outer and inner wheel. requirement the wheels get locked and result in
overturning the aircraft or dragging the wheels. is
217. Wheel bearings are subjected to very high : called :
A. Radial loads. A. Skiding.
B. Shear loads. B. Scalding.
192
C. Dragging. 234. In air conditioning effective dust filtration to the
D. Over turning. size of 5 micron.
A. 45%.
226. During brake application with the wheel rotating B. 60%.
normally, the inlet v of maxaret unit is held open by : C. 99.9%.
A. Indicator rod. D. 100%.
B. Thrust rod.
C. Spring loaded thrust rod. 235. In air conditioning, the air velocity at a height of
D. Indicator rod and thrust rod together. 0.6 meters above.
A. 6 meters/minute.
227. After take off, when the a/c is accelerating and B. 8 meters/minute.
climbing, if the flap raised, it causes immediate C. 10 meters/minute.
reduction in the lift and loss of hight, it is countered D. 15 meters/minute.
by:
A. Increase in the angle of attack. 236. The device, which simplifies the measurement of
B. Decrease in the angle of attack. air properties and el.
C. Increase in the speed of the a/c. A. Humidity chart.
D. Decrease in the speed of the a/c. B. Temperature chart.
C. Air flow chart.
228. During flight in the event of engine failure the D. Psychometric chart.
a/c will have an alti of:
A. Gliding. 237. A refrigerator can be defined as a machine for
B. Stalling. producing:
C. Flying in the same direction and height. A. Heat.
D. Rolling. B. Hot water.
C. Cold water.
229. Highly swept back wings are given anhedral to: D. Cold.
A. Increase longitudinal stability.
B. Decrease longitudinal stability. 238. In air conditioning the unit of measurement used
C. Decrease lateral stability. to determine the amo.
D. Increase lateral stability. A. Grains of moisture.
B. Microns.
230. Aileron in effective due to thichened boundary C. Calories.
layer effect towards th is solved by: D. BTU (British Thermal Unit).
A. Large size of ailerons.
B. Aileron balance tabs. 239. In air conditioning, the automatic control of a
C. All moving wing tips. humidification system.
D. Elerons. A. Thermostat.
B. Humidistat.
231. The speed of sound is proportional to the : C. Condenser.
A. Square of the absolute temperature. D. Rheostat.
B. Square root of the absolute temperature.
C. Square root of the temperature. 240. The grains of moisture scale in psychometric
D. Density of air. chart follow along the b.
A. Toe to heel.
232. During transonic flow, a marked rise in air flow B. Toe to top.
occurs immediately behind the shock wave is known C. Heel to top.
as: D. Heel to toe.
A. Pressure wave.
B. Shock stall. 241. In air conditioning of aircraft, the humidity is
C. Sonic bang. controlled by:
D. Sonic bubble. A. Blowers.
B. Humidifiers.
233. One piece spar is expensive to produce but, C. Humidifiers and water extractors.
because of absence of any joint is stronger than. D. Water extractors.
A. Single spar.
B. Composite spar. 242. In psychometric chart dry bulb temperature scale
C. False spar. extends along the so.
D. Semi composite spar. A. Heel to toe.
193
B. Tow to heel. A. De frosting.
C. Toe to top. B. Frost back.
D. Heel to Top. C. De freezing.
D. Purging.
243. The low temperature of air at high altitude results
in a very low moi. 252. To measure a resistance above 10 k ohm by
A. 1 or 2 percent. Wheatstone bridge, the meter is balanced, for the
B. 2 or 3 percent. correct value of resistance and the box reading is
C. 0.1 or 0.2 per cent. multiplied by :
D. 0.2 or 0.3 percent. A. 1000.
B. 100.
244. The effect of presence of Nitrogen gas in blood C. 0.01.
stream causes: D. 0.1.
A. Anoxia.
B. Brain effect. 253. The method employed for precise measurement
C. Aero embolism. of low resistance :
D. Dryness of eyes and nose. A. Wheatstone Bridge.
B. Maxwell Bridge.
245. In condenser, the refrigerant is cooled by: C. Kelvin's Double Bridge.
A. Water only. D. De Santy bridge.
B. Air only.
C. Water or air. 254. In moving Iron meters, controlling force is
D. Ammonia gas. provided by :
A. Coil current.
246. The unit of measurement used to determine the B. Laminated core of iron.
amount of moisture in t. C. Gravity or hair spring.
A. Dew point. D. External magnetic field.
B. Grain of moisture.
C. Relative humidity. 255. The type of merter which gives uniform scale :
D. None of the above. A. Moving Iron.
B. Hot Wire.
247. Psychometrics is the study of the properties of: C. Moving Coil.
A. Weather. D. Electrostatic.
B. Rain.
C. Air. 256. To increase the range of electrostatic voltmeter
D. All the above. A. Condensers are connected in series.
B. Condensers are connected in parallel.
248. The function of ducts in air conditioner is: C. Resistances are connected in series.
A. Air distribution. D. Resistances are connected in parallel.
B. Air heating.
C. Air cooling. 257. The tong tester is basically :
D. Air cleaning. A. Frequency meter.
B. Voltmeter.
249. The refrigerant boils ata relatively low C. Ammeter.
temperature when pressure is. D. Power meter.
A. Reduced.
B. Increased. 258. The tong test ammeter are fitted with :
C. Remains constant. A. Moving coil type movements.
D. None of the above. B. Moving iron type movements.
C. Hot Wire type movements.
250. Air supply to cabin is conditioned to provide a D. Induction type movements.
reasonable degree of:
A. Temperature. 259. The force tending to move electricity round the
B. Humidity. circuit is called :
C. Ventilation. A. Current.
D. All the above. B. Work done.
C. Volt.
251. The flooding of low pressure liquid from the D. EMF.
evaporator in to suction.
194
260. In moving coil instrument, dead beat is achieved D. Antenna scan rate is increased.
by :
A. Eddy current. 269. The frequency of ringing oscillator for
B. viscous force. producing 10 km calpips should be :
C. repulsion. A. 150 kc/s.
D. electro agnetic induction. B. 15 kc/s.
C. 25 kc/s.
261. In safety ohmmeter (Type N, mk 1), testing D. 10 kc/s.
current must not exceed :
A. 01 ma. 270. For target velocity of 720 km/hr, the doppler
B. 10 ma. shift of a radar set operating at 660 Mhz is :
C. 11 ma. A. 880 Hz.
D. 100 ma. B. 440 Hz.
C. 220 Hz.
262. A phase sensitive rectifier in Ward Leonard D. 660 Hz.
control system, is used to :
A. Transmit the data. 271. The main limitation of a thyratron time base
B. Detect error. generator is :
C. Reverse the servo amp o/p current. A. Delay in de-ionisation.
D. Cancel the magnetomotive force. B. Delay in ionisation.
C. Difficulty in synchronisation.
263. The duty cycle of CW radar is : D. Freq instability.
A. zero.
B. unity. 272. The ability of an MTI radar to detect moving
C. infinity. targets whcih is in the relatively clear resolution cells
D. unsteady. between patches of strog clutter is called :
A. sub-clutter visibility.
264. If a radar is operating at 400 KW peak power, 2 B. inter-clutter visibility.
micro sec pulse width and 400 c/s PRF, its average C. MTI improvement factor.
power is : D. cancellation ratio.
A. 80 watts.
B. 100 watts. 273. When the axis of rotation is held stationary, the
C. 400 watts. Palmer scan is reduced to :
D. 320 watts. A. Nodding scan.
B. Helical scan.
265. Landing radars used for GCA are normally : C. Raster scan.
A. track while scan radar. D. Conical scan.
B. conical scan radar.
C. acquisition radar. 274. In digital MTI, delay line iis substituted by :
D. pulse doppler radar. A. A/D converter.
B. binary converter.
266. Coherent MTI eleminates amplitude fluctuations C. shift-register.
by employing : D. binary register.
A. Phase detector.
B. Stable local oscillator. 275. In self operative neon time base generator the
C. Carrier oscillator. length of the time base is altered by varying;
D. Subtractor. A. Velocity control.
B. Trigger control.
267. In DMTI, the outputs of both phase detectors are C. Amptitude control.
90 deg out of phase to eliminate : D. Freq control.
A. Blind speed.
B. Blind phases. 276. In servo system, the angular position of the input
C. Ambiguous range. shaft is converted into voltages by :
D. Analog delay. A. Control transformer.
B. Selsyn generator.
268. The doppler freq will be large if : C. Electrical servomotor.
A. Wave length is more. D. Selsyn motor.
B. PRF is less.
C. Relative motion between target and radar is large.
195
277. Acircuit which gives rectangular pulses 286. When 100v peak to peak square wave is given to
continuously after switching on is called : dc restorer with anode at earth potential, the o/p varies
A. monostahle multivibrator. between :
B. bistahle multivibrator. A. zero and plus 100v.
C. flip-flop. B. zero and minus 100v.
D. astable multivibrator. C. zero and plus 50v.
D. zero and minus 50v.
278. In airborne MTI, the clutter rejection filters are
A. Low pass. 287. The response of long CR cirvuit across the
B. Band stop. capacitor ;to a rectangular wave form is :
C. Band pass. A. symmetrical triangular wave form.
D. High pass. B. asymmetrical triangular wave form.
C. square waveform.
279. The main limitation of non-coherent MTI is : D. rectangular wave form.
A. Its design is complicated.
B. The target must be in the presence of relatively 288. For efficient limiting in parallel diode limiter
large clutter. with high impedance load, the series resistance should
C. The local oscillator freq should be highly stable. be :
D. It fails to detect target in the presence of relatively A. Equal to load impedance.
large clutter. B. Half of load impedance.
C. Larger than the resistance of diode conducting.
280. Limiters can be used to produce : D. Equal to the resistance of diode conducting.
A. Sine wave forms from triangular in put.
B. Sine wave forms from rectangular in put. 289. For a given transmitter power, reduction in wave
C. Rectangular pulses from sinusodial in put. length results in :
D. Sine wave forms from square wave in put. A. Reduced range.
B. Increased range.
281. In MTI radar cancellation ratio is usually C. Reduced beam width.
expressed in terms of : D. Increased beam width.
A. voltage standing wave ratio.
B. milli volts. 290. In a thyratron time base generator, for a given
C. decibels. negative grid voltage, variation of `R' changes the
D. percentage. sweep :
A. frequency.
282. In MTI, the o/p of carrier oscillator is modulated B. amplitude.
by : C. flyback.
A. Freq modulator. D. non-linearity.
B. Uni-polar video.
C. Bi-polar video. 291. An echo arriving after alloted pulse interval will :
D. Pulse modulator. A. interfere with operation of transmitter.
B. overload the reciever.
283. Frequency of coho oscillator is equal to : C. be rejected by the system.
A. Radio frequency. D. make the target appear closer than it really is.
B. Constant frequency.
C. Transmitter frequency. 292. Rrception time of a radar having PRF 400c/s and
D. Intermediate frequency. PW 5 micro seconds, is :
284. Blind speed limitation of MTI can be overcome A. 2500 micro seconds.
without affecting its performance by : B. 2495 micro seconds.
A. higher PRF. C. 2395 micro seconds.
B. Shorter wave length. D. 2400 micro seconds.
C. higher PRP. 293. The loss of energy experienced in the
D. staggered PRF. transmission lines while connecting the transmitter
output to the antenna is called :
285. If the PRF of a radar is unduly decreased the : A. beam shape loss.
A. peak power will reduce. B. system processing loss.
B. range resolution will improve. C. collapsing loss.
C. weak echoes cannot be distinguised from noise. D. plumbing loss.
D. range will decrease.

196
294. An artificial line is used to : 302. Alteration of repeller voltage of reflex klystron
A. produce pulses of different duration. varies :
B. match pulse transformer to Tx oscillator. A. frequency.
C. produce pulse of fixed duration. B. frequency and power.
D. control the power of O/P of Tx oscillator. C. power and input impedance.
D. input impedance.
295. When two delay lines, each having Zo =48 ohms
and delay of 2 micro seconds are connected in series, 303. In rotary spark gap modulator, PRF is
the resultant Zo and delay of the network will be : determined by :
A. 96 ohms and 4 micro sec. A. Speed of the motor.
B. 48 ohms and 2 micro sec. B. Number of vanes.
C. 48 ohms and 4 micro sec. C. Speed of the motor and number of vanes.
D. 96 ohms and 2 micro sec. D. Maximum range required.

296. PRF of a rotary spark gap modulator having 8 304. The number of resonant frequencies associated
vanes on the disc rotating at a speed of 720 RPM will with a multicavity magnetron is equal to :
be : A. Twice the number of cavities.
A. 5760 PPS. B. Half the number of cavities.
B. 96 PPS. C. PRF of modulating pulse.
C. 192 PPS. D. Number of cavities.
D. 394 PPS.
305. In a radar modulator, the pulse amlitude can be
297. The step up ratio of a pulse transformer which is made equal to the HT voltage by employing :
connected to a magnetron of 3200 ohms impedance A. Constant current charging.
through a cable whose Zo = 200 ohms will be : B. Resonant choke charging.
A. 1/4. C. AC diode charging.
B. 1/16. D. Resistance charging.
C. 4.
D. 16. 306. The characteristics of cross field amplifier
resemble that of:
298. Multi-cavity klystrons are not used for A. TWT.
amplfication of weak microwave signals because of : B. Magnetron.
A. 35 to 40% efficiency. C. Klystron.
B. deterioration of S/N ratio. D. Twystron.
C. saturation at 70% power output.
D. CW power less than 15kw. 307. An over-swing diode with protective resistor
ensures :
299. The bunching of electrons in a klystron takes A. safty of magnetron.
place around the electron that passes through the RF B. safety of thyratron valve.
gap at an instant when the gap voltage is : C. elimination of magnetron post pulse oscillation.
A. Zero and becoming +ve. D. matching of pulse transformer.
B. zero and becoming -ve.
C. +ve maximum. 308. Purpose of magnetic field in a TWT is to :
D. -ve maximum. A. Amplify the signal.
B. Control electrons speed.
300. A non-resonant device : C. Shield the beam from external interference.
A. Magnetron. D. Prevent beam spreading.
B. TWT.
C. Parametric amplifier. 309. Strapping of the magnetron is done to :
D. Cross field amplifier. A. Avoid frequency splitting.
B. Achieve mode separation.
301. With all cavities tunned to same frequency in a C. Ensure frequency drift.
klystron, the gain of the tube and band width : D. Ensure operation below hull cut-off value.
A. High, narrow.
B. Low, narrow. 310. A pulse Txfr is connected to a magnetron of
C. High, wide. 1600 ohm impednace through a cable whose Zo=100
D. Low, wide. ohm. If the amplitude of pulse across magnetron is
20KV, then voltage across the cable is
A. 5 KV.
197
B. 1.25 KV. 313. The minimum detection range by pulse radar
C. 4 KV. depends upon :
D. 320 KV. A. Peak power.
B. Pulse width.
311. Zo of an artificial line having 10 sections and C. Band width of antenna.
each comprising an inductance of 400 micro H and D. Average power.
capacitance of 4 micro F will be :
A. 100 ohms. 314. In FM radar, the beat frequency is amplified and
B. 10 ohms. limited to remove any fluctuation due to :
C. 1000 ohms. A. Mod freq.
D. 400 ohms. B. Amplitude.
C. Beat freq.
312. In radar operating at a PRF of 400 Hz with a D. Phase.
pulse width of 5 micro seconds, the pulse repetition
period is : 315. In a conical scanning radar, when the axis of
A. 2450 micro sec. rotation and the line of sight to the target coincide, the
B. 2495 micro sec. scan modulation will be :
C. 2500 micro sec. A. Zero.
D. 4995 micro sec. B. Maximum.
C. Dependent on target size.
D. Minimum.

198
 FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. Before starting with assembl of controls the aircraft
must be placed i ___________.
2. To enable the metal fully to __________ the rivets
are normalised and annealed.
3. An independent rotation of the tyre over the wheel
is known as _______.
4. Mildsteel distance precis are often fitted to prevent
________ from distorted or crushed.
5. To provide the necessary fluid pressure to operate
the slave units of Hyd brake control valve, the
component fitted is _____________________.
6. A bonding medium for the plies is provided by
__________.
7. With domed canopies, the internal pressure causes
a considerable _____ which necessiates clamping the
canopy to the frame.
8. In each flying control cable has __________end
fittings _________ in position.
9. Mal-alignment between a wheel unit and a
component will result in stif in control and excessive
wear on _________.
10. Hydraulic _______ is situated in the upline of the
alighting gear circ.
11. The full functional test should be carried out
before the suspected component is dismantled for
repair or _________ serviceable.
12. Fly by wire system are based on _________ where
the pilot commands the control surfaces actuators via
electrical links rather than machanical links
13. In some pneumatic systems a _______ is fitted
instead of an antifreeze.
14. A pressure ______ is provided in the reducing
valve to alter the oper pressure.
15. In relay control valve a _________ maintain a
flexible air tight joint between sliding barrel and the
body
16. In all aeroplanes construction considerable effort
is taken to keep th weight of the structure at low level
while providing sufficient strength and
______________.
199
17. In fuselage construction a ___________ due to
rudder and fin loads acting off the centre line.
18. In honey comb construction both matrix and
stressed skin are made from aluminium and are
bonded together by the ___________.
19. The monocoque fuselage relies largely on the skin
or covering to carry ____________.
20. The purpose of main fuel regulating pump is to
feed fuel into the engine____________
21. ___________ is an oil analysis procedure in
performance monitoring
22. The ideal air fuel ratio for a jet engine fuels is
__________.
23. In a typical turbo jet engine only about
__________ of the in coming oxygen is combined
with fuel and 75% in merely heated
24. __________ Makes the best use of the space
available between the compressor and turbine
25. Specific consumption is a ratio of __________
and __________ of an engine
26. Propulsive efficiency = __________ X 100.
27. Delta and theta are correction factors with respect
to engine performance
28. __________ are devices for the measurement of
power out put of engine
29. Two main methods of thrust augmentation are
__________ and __________
30. With present materials reheat temperature is
limited up to __________
31. The purpose of main fuel regulating pump is to
feed fuel in to the engine __________
32. The turbine has the task of providing power to
drive the __________
33. In a by pass engine the size of turbine is
__________ as compared to the pure jet engine for a
given thrust out put
34. The nozzle guide vanes are often of a
__________ shape
35. The blade passages between adjacent vanes of a 46. Net thrust available from a turbo propulsion
turbine form a __________duct engine __________ with air speed

36. In a turbine blade the stress are maximum at the 47. The thrust specific fuel consumption (TSFC) for
blade __________ turbo propulsion engine _________ with airspeed

37. FADEC stands for __________. 48. Net thrust available from turbo jet engine
__________ with airspeed
38. EFC stands for __________.
49. The TSFC for turbo jet engine __________ with
39. Fuel is heated by the heat exchanged between the airspeed
fuel and the __________oil
50. As the airspeed increases the propulsive efficiency
40. Usually there are two types of filter __________ of turbo propulsion engine __________
type and __________type
51. With increasing air speed propulsive efficiency of
41. Cooling of an engine __________ the turbo jet engine __________
performance of an engine
52. At high-pressure ratios, centrifugal compressor is
42. Type of combustion chamber is advance engine is more efficient than axial compressor
__________
53. In a turbine blade, the blade root encounters the
43. __________ Are the control surfaces for lateral maximum temperature
control?
54. The purpose of any starter system is to accelerate
44. __________ Are the control surfaces for the engine up to __________ speed
longitudinal control?

45. __________ Are the control surfaces for

directional control?

200
 VERY SHORT ANSWERS
1. What is the purpose of antiskid unit ?
2. What is the purpose of master brake cylinder ?
3. How tyre creep is prevented in tubeless and
conventional tyres?
4. How wheels are classified ?
5. If tyre pressure is less, stae the defect that can
occur.
6. Name the main four parts of maxret unit and write
the advantages and p urpose of maxret unit.
7. What are the main advantages of maxret unit ?
8. Why wheels, tyres and tubes are balanced both
statically and dynamical ly during manufacturing?
9. Write in a wheel bearing- (i) purpose (ii) different
part (iii) type o f fit on wheel hub and axle.
10. Write the materials used for making of aircraft
wheels and anti corros sive methods useds.
11. What are the main advantages of telefles control
over bowden control s ystem.
12. What are the points to be oobserved while
installing a chain ?
13. What is the purpose of pulleys ?
14. Write the remedy of Jamme swivel joints.
15. Differentiate between anti-icing and de-icing.
16. What methods are used for aerofoil de-icing ?
17. Write the purpose of themal system in anti-icing
system.
18. Name the factors causing aircraft accidents.
19. What are the three basic ingredients of correct
technical practice ?
20. What is commonly used hammer by technicians ?
How & which are the hamm ersused on aircraft ?
21. What is the purpose of powered flying control
system ?
201
22. Write the purpose torque wrenches ?
23. Define flash point.
24. Define replenishing.
25. Name different types of seal used in hydraulic
components ?
26. What are the different methods of coupling
pipelines ?
27. What are the fundamental requirement of powered
flying control system ?
28. What are the main causes of fluid contamination ?
29. What is the purpose of control surface of an a/c?
30. What are the points to be kept in mind while
testing the component aft er repair and assembly of
hydraulic components ?
31. What are the requirement of hydraulic fluid ?
32. What are the two hydraulic circuits , which are
vital to the pilot ?
33. What are the types of hydraulic fluid ?
34. What component is fitted in hyd circuit to cater for
expansion of flui ds and how many of such
components are fitted in the circuit and where ?
35. What do you understand by fluid pressure ?
36. What is Bramah's principle ?
37. What is purpose of control valve in hyd system ?
What is the advantage s of electrically operated
control valve over manually operated valve ?
38. What is the aim of hydraulic fluid sampling ?
39. What precautions to be taken beforechecking the
operation of the aligh tening gear ?
40. Write down the probable defects when all
hydraulics services inoperati ve.
41. Write down the purpose of breather valve in
hydraulic system ?
42. Write the purpose of the following components
fitted in u/c circuits. (a) One way restrictor
(b) Shuttle valve.
43. Write the primary causes of failyre in a pneumatic
components ?
44. How do you carry out leak test in a pneumatic
brake system ?
45. State the peiodicity and method of draining oil and
water trap.
46. What is the purpose of the oil and water trap ?
47. Write down the points to be observed when
parking an aircrafts fitted with pneumatically operated
brakes ?
48. Write the procedure of carrying out immersion test
on fuel tanks.
49. How to top up liquid spring oleo leg ?
50. What is the purpose of track devices ?
51. What is tyre creep ?
52. Write short notes on twin contact tyre.
53. Define absolute temperature in pressurisation and
airconditioning syst em.
54. Enumerate the factors governing the choice of
aircraft cabin pressuris ation.
202
55. Write the advantages of turbo fan in aircraft cabin
atmospheric contro l system.
56. For filling and charging of oleo leg the devices
required are Lubricating gun and charging gun.
57. Explain Relative humidity.
58. Write short note on regenerative Air Cycle in
Aircraft air-conditioning system.
59. Define term pumping down in refrigerator and
when it is carried out.
60. Define :- (i) De-frosting (ii) Purging.
61. What are the function of a condenser in a
refrigerator?
62. Define term pumping down in fefrigerator and
when it is carried out.
63. Write short notes on regenerative air cycle in
aircraft air-conditioning system.
64. Explain relative humidity.
65. What are purposes of air-conditioning?
66. Name the basic components in any cabin pressure
control system.
67. What is the function of a condenser in a
refrigerator?
 SHORT ANSWERS
1. Name and breifly explain the types of lettering
brushes.
2. Name the rivetting pliers and describe in brief.
3. What are classification of damage on aircraft and
explain in brief.
4. What are the sparying techniques to be observed
during spraying.
5. What are the special hand tools used for airframe
repair ? Explain th.
6. What is orange peel effect and what are the causes
of it?
7. Write short notes on the following 1)Dimple
rivetting 2)Reaction rivet ting.
8. Write the purpose of material and the use of tucker-
pop rivets.
9. Explain the factors governing the choice of cabin
pressure.
10. Explain the purpose and principle of operation of
cabin air cycle syst em.
11. State the purpose of by pass circuit in vapour
cycle cooling package.
12. Briefly explain the economic factors while
considering choice of mater ial for Airframe
Construction?
13. How straight edge is checked for straightness.
14. What are the characteristics of following special
material(!) fibre gl ass (2)carbon fibre (3)re-inforced
plastics.
15. What checks are carried out in the rigging
position.
16. What is the purpose of corner drill?Explain the
collect and drill chan ging method.
17. What is trimming tab,Explain its purpose and how
it operates?
18. Write in brief about pressure bulkhead and fuel
tank bulkheads.
203
19. Write the purpose of the following (1) Pulleys
(2) Fair leads (3) Screw j acks.
20. What are checks to be carried out on the control
surface before riggin g?
21. Write the checks generally carried out after any
control surface.
22. Name the components installed in a mechanical
de-icing system and state their purpose.
23. Briefly explain the engineering factors while
considering choice of material for airframe.
24. Name the types of oleo -leg and explain in brief
about oleo pneumatic with out seperator.
25. Write down the dismantling procedure of loose
flange type rims.
26. Write in short the purpose of AC wheels and
mention different types of wheels?
27. Explain the defects that can occur in a tyre and
state the remedy in e ach case.
28. Name the various parts of a tyre and explain how
tyre dimensions are i ndicted on it ?
29. What is tyre creep? Write the method used for
preventing tyre creep.
30. Write down the instructions to be followed for
using a tyre seperator ?
31. Write the procedure of fitting tubless tyre on a
divided type wheel.
32. Write short notes on twin contact wheel.
33. Briefly explain the purpose of hydraulic
accumulator in power circuit system.
34. Explain the qualities of hydraulic fluid used in a/c
hydraulic system.
35. What are the checks to be carried out before
starting of hydraulic ser vicing trolley (304/330)?
36. What are the general points to be observed before
working on powered f lying control?
37. What do you understand by 'blow back' valve? 53. Define term pumping down in refrigerator and
what are the functions of this valve? when it is carried out.

38. With a neat diagrame explain the application of 54. Write short notes on regenerative air cycle in
Bramah Principal in hy draulic system,. aircraft air-condition.

39. Write a short note on auto stabilisation. 55. Explain relative humidity.

40. Write short note on milipore patch method. 56. What is purpose of air-conditioning?

41. Write the procedure of flow characteristics test of 57. Name the basic components in any cabin pressure
hydraulic componen. control system.

42. Write the servicing procedure of static hydraulic 58. What is the function of a condenser in a
test rig. refrigerator?

43. Write the operation of the hand pump(UMC). 59. Define : (i) De-frosting (ii) Purging.

44. Write the switching off procedure of hydraulic 60. What are the methods of refrigeration?
servicing trolley.
61. In comfort air-conditioning system, what are the
45. Name the different types of shock absorber and essential and describe requirements.
write the principle of oil compression shock absorber.
62. What are the purposes of air-conditioning?
46. Write down types of AC wheel brakes in current
use and purpose of mas ter brake cylinder. 63. In comfort Air-conditioning system, what are the
essential and desirable requirements.
47. Write the purpose of a/c landing gear.
64. What are the methods of refrigeration?
48. Briefly explain Fuselage of an aircraft.
65. Explain the conduction heat transfer method.
49. Briefly explain the role of Tail plane of an aircraft.
66. What are the purposes of refrigeration?
50. Briefly explain Main plane of an aircraft.
67. Explain the radiation method of heat transfer in
51. Breifly explain about limitation of 'C' & 'S' comfort Air-conditioning system.
materials.

52. Explain the procedure for carrying out a patch

repair on a stressed sk in structure.

204
 LONG ANSWER
1. What do you understand by FOD? Write the causes
and remedial action to prevent FOD.
2. Briefly explain the purpose and operation of
pressure reducing valve f itted in pneumatic system.
3. Briefly explain in AC structure the fail safe
construction and factors to estimate the fatigue life of
the AC.
4. Briefly explain the procedure to seal the joints,
seams, rivets etc of an AC pressurrised cabin. with
peratol 250.
5. Briefly explain the difference types of oelo leg
fitted on aircraft.
6. With a neat sketch explain the forces action on an
ac during gliding.
7. Differentiate between mass balancing and
aerodynamic balancing of cont rol surfaces. Naqme
various methods/types used to balance controls aer
odynamically.
8. Define stability of an ac and explain briefly about
static and dynamic stability.
9. With a neat sketch. Explain over balance of flying
controls and its ef fects during flight?
10. Write the construction of forward bottom structure
in the cabin assemb ly.
11. How will you carry out leak test on body structure
(without tell tale indicator) of Chetak helicopter.
12. Briefly explain the procedure of assembling of
hydraulic brake assembl y.
13. Briefly explain the charging and checking
procedure of an accumulator fitted in power control
system.
14. Differentiate between aircycle and vapour cycle
refrigeration system.
15. Briefly explain the adverse effect of continious ice
deposite on AC du ring flying.(de-icing).
16. During servicing of tyres ,what are the defects
checked for? What are the action is to be taken for
each defects?
205
17. Name the various types of wheels used in the
aircraft? How are they protected from corrosion?
18. What do you mean by pneumatic system? Write
the advantages and disadvantages of pneumatic
system.
19. What are pre-checks on control surfaces?
20. Write the material and precautions to be observed
while serving transparent panels.
21. Explain the operation of the lateral control.
22. What is the object of picketing? Explain briefly
the types of picketing points.
23. Write the uses and characteristics of transparent
plastic.
24. List out all the types of hydraulic pumps being
used in hydraulic system.
25. What are various pressure control devices in
hydraulic system?
26. What are the basic functions of hydraulic
accumulator in hydraulic system?
27. List out various types of selection valves being
used in hydraulic system.
28. What are various actuating devices used in
hydraulic system?
29. What are the advantages and disadvantages of a
pneumatic system over hydraulic system?
30. Which are the landing gear configurations
available on aircraft? Explain.
31. Classify the landing gears.
32. With a neat diagram explain the generation of
shock structure.
33. Explain anti-skid system.
34. Give configuration of a main fuel system of a jet
engine and describe its sub accessories.
35. Draw a sketch of a fuel oil unit. Give detail of
component of a fuel oil unit.

36. List the various units of main fuel regulating
system. Explain any three briefly.
37. List various components of main and after burner
fuel system. Write in brief about main A/A fuel valve
and fuel valve.
38. Explain function of CPDV with increase in
altitude and with decrease in altitude.
39. Explain function of centrifugal governor when
throttle is moved.
40. Explain functioning of governor with changes in
altitude and forward speed with throttle lever
remaining in fixed position.
41. What is the purpose of fuel system?
42. Explain in brief the function and working of (a)
Fuel pump (b) Fuel-oil exchanger (c) Centrifugal
breather (d) Chip detector.
43. What do you understand by manual and auto
range of a fuel system? What are the components of a
fuel pump, which comes into play in manual and auto
range of R-25 engines?
44. Explain with a neat diagram the arrangement of jet
pipe and nozzle in a turbo jet engine.
45. What are the basic requirements an engine fuel
system of an aircraft must meet?
46. Enumerate various sub assemblies of main fuel
pump.
47. Write the various sub assemblies of main fuel
pump, which control fuel during manual range and
explain any one of them.
48. Discuss the basic requirement of engine
lubricating and fuel system.
49. What are various thrust augmentation system?
Explain briefly.
50. What are de-aerator and centrifugal breather?
51. What is the requirement of chip detector?
52. What are the starting methods used in
reciprocating engine and gas turbine engine? Explain
any two.
206
53. What is the main purpose of fuel control system?
Explain how fuel control system is achieved in
different operating requirements.
54. What types of starters are employed for starting?
What are the advantages and disadvantages of each
type.
55. Give a typical sequence for starting a jet engine.
Draw and explain the starting graph for a turbo jet
engine.
56. What are the anti surge methods available in a gas
turbine? Explain briefly as to how these helping
avoiding surge.
57. How the starter is converted into generator?
58. Write short notes on the following (a) CPDV (b)
Aneroid corrector (c) Starting automat (d) Fuel cut off
valve (e) Hydraulic decelerator (f) Additional A/B
pump.
59. What is the function of a tab?
60. Which are the various types of tab available?
61. List out different types of flaps.
62. What is the function of spoilers?
63. What is the requirement of artificial feel unit in
aircraft fitted with powered controls?
64. What are the functions of control disconnect
mechanism?
65. What is the function of dampers in yaw?
66. What are various propulsion system used in
aircraft?
67. Explain in brief (a) Turbo jet (b) Turbo shaft (c)
Turbo pump (d) Turbo fan (e) Ram jet (f) Pulse jet (g)
Rocket.
68. What are the advantages of axial component over
centrifugal component in aviation gas turbine engine?
69. What are various factors in considering the design
of inlet duct?
70. What are various types of inlet ducts?
71. Explain the phenomenon of compressor stall.
72. What are the various types of combustion
chambers?
73. What are the advantages and disadvantages of
various types of combustion chamber?
74. What is the performance required of combustion
chamber?
75. What are the effects of operating variables on
burner performance?
76. What is the influence of design parameters on
breather performance?
77. What are various types of turbine?
78. What is the function of inlet (nozzle) guide vanes?
79. Explain how the sound or noise problem is
reduced in gas turbine.
80. What are different methods of thrust reversal?
81. What are various methods of thrust augmentation?
82. What is single spool and multi spool?
83. What is free and power turbine?
84. What are the different cycles for piston engine?
Explain with P-V, T-S diagram.
85. Explain the cycles for gas turbine engine with P-
V, T-S diagram.
86. What are various forms of gas turbine engine
starters?
207
87. What are major components of aircraft?
88. What are the various control surfaces available on
aircraft?
89. What all systems in aircraft does hydraulic jack
generally operate?
90. Write the principle sources of heat in air-
conditioning and refrigera.
91. With the help of neat diagram explain the
refrigeration cyc.
92. What are the functions of condenser unit in
refrigeration system and.
93. Explain the following terms used in refrigeration.
(a) De-frosting (b) Purging (c) Crack open (d) Dew
point of Air.
94. Define the following : i. Mechanical equivalent of
heat ii. Specific heat iii. Latent heat.
95. Write in brief by psychometrics and phychometric
charts.
96. Describe turbine compressor air cycle in a/c air-
conditioning system.
97. Briefly explain the closed circuit vapour cycle of
cooling used in ai.
98. How does a vapour compression system works?
99. What is the principle of refrigeration?
BLANK

208
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

1. First law of thermodynamics state W=JH, where J C. Prevent flame from impinging on wall of the tube
is the mechanical equient of heat and its value is. and avoid carbon formation.
A. 4.186 Joules/Cal. D. Prevent flame extinction.
B. 4.816 Joules/Cal.
C. 4.616 Joules/Cal. 9. The purpose of interconnectors in a jet engine with
D. 4.681 Joules/Cal. multiple combustiochamber is to:
A. Propogate the flame and equalise the pressure in all
2. Specific fuel consumption is :- the combustion chamber.
A. Fuel consumed in grm/hr / horse power developed. B. Propogate the flame during starting.
B. Fuel consumed in kg/hr / horse power developed. C. Regulate the combustion process in all combustion
C. Fuel consumed in grm/min / horse power chambers.
developed. D. Propogate the flame and regulate the temperature.
D. Fuel consumed in kg/min / horse power developed.
10. The purpose of the nozzle guide vane is to direct
3. The amount of fuel consumed per unit of power the gases towards thturbine with:
developed per hour is kns : A. High velocity and temperature.
A. Specific fuel consumption. B. High pressure and temperature.
B. Unit fuel consumption. C. High velocity and desired angle.
C. Specific power fuel ratio. D. High pressure and desired angle.
D. Optimum fuel power ratio.
11. The function of the stream lined struts or vanes of
4. In which year did Sir Frank whittle lodged his first exhaust cone is tostraighten out the air flow from
patent turbine jepulsion for the aircraft. approximately:
A. 1920. A. 40 to an axial direction.
B. 1930. B. 42 to an axial direction.
C. 1940. C. 45 to an axial direction.
D. 1950. D. 47 to an axial direction.

5. In combustion chamber the unstable conical spray 12. A mixture of water and methonal is injected into:
is changed into stablvortex shape by primary air, this A. The inlet of axial flow compressors.
action of primary air helps in: B. The combustion gases before they enter the
A. Cooling the burner tip mainly. turbine.
B. Burning the rich mixture only. C. Combustion gases after the turbine.
C. Prevention of flame extinction by high velocity air. D. The stream has left the turbine.
D. Prevent carbon deposit inside the combustion
chamber. 13. If an excessive JPT is generated while using
reheat:
6. In upstream type of combustion chamber the A. The pilot should put off reheat immediately.
pressure loss due to heatinprocess is known as: B. It is advantages for additional thrust.
A. Fundamental loss. C. Inflow of more fuel in A/Bmanifold will cooldown
B. Cold loss. jetpipe&JPT will brought.
C. Pressure loss. D. The temperature limiter cancels reheat.
D. Temperature loss.
14. In reheat, fuel is injected into the gas stream from
7. The arrangement of combustion chamber is used special burners athe stream has left the:
for reducing the overalllength of the engine is: A. Engine.
A. Straight flow. B. Jet pipe.
B. Annular type. C. Jet pipe nozzle.
C. Cannular type. D. Turbine.
D. Reverse flow.
15. In the thrust augmentation devices, the
8. A small amount of primary air passing through the water/meathonal injection incrthe maximum thrust of
holes in the calendeflame tube and then along its inner a gas turbine by about:
walls serve to: A. 10%.
A. Cool the flame tube. B. 15%.
B. Cool and enrich the mixture. C. 20%.
209
D. 25%. 24. At the rear of the compressor there is an exit
section attached to theressor casing, which houses a
16. Free stream mack number is high enough to final row of :
produce local mach number,so which are greater and A. Stator and rotor vanes.
some less than m=1.0 is called: B. Stator vanes.
A. Transonic flow. C. Rotor vanes.
B. Supersonic flow. D. Turbine vanes.
C. Subsonic flow.
D. Hypersonic. 25. The single stage centrifugal compresor unit
consists of :
17. If the free stream speed is greater than m = 5.0 is A. Tow main components.
called: B. Three main components.
A. Hypersonic flow. C. Four components.
B. Transonic flow. D. Five components.
C. Subsonic flow.
D. Supersonic flow. 26. The main feature of the axial flow compressor is
that :
18. Acceleration is defined as : A. A smooth flow compression chamber.
A. Rate of velocity. B. A smooth air flow is to the combustion chamber is
B. Rate at which distance covered. arrured.
C. Rate of change of velocity. C. A smooth air and fuel flow through combusion
D. Distance / time. chamber.
D. A smooth mixture flow through turbine.
19. The momentum of the body directly depends upon
its : 27. An evident by rapid oscillation of delivery,
A. Mass and velocity. accompanied by audible inon of instability, varying
B. Final velocity. from a muffled rumbling noise to an abruptsion and
C. Initial velocity. vibration as a :
D. Volume of the body. A. Surge.
B. Stall.
20. The rate at which distance is covered, that is to say C. Vibration.
the distance/timt has magnitude and direction known D. RPM fluctation.
as :
A. Thrust. 28. Compressor stall is most likely to occur :
B. Work. A. During deceleration and at high altitude.
C. Velocity. B. Due to variation is air density in the atmoshpere.
D. Power. C. During acceleration an at high altitude.
D. Due to the low JPT of the engine at high altitude.
21. 2U / V + U is the formula for :
A. Thermal efficiency. 29. There is no need for accumulator, minimum
B. Force. burner pressure valve with dburner because:
C. Thrust horse power. A. Primary line of the burner gives very effective
D. Propulsive efficiency. automisation even at low Pr.
B. Primary line of burner gives very effective
22. When jet velocity is equal to aircraft speed, the automisation even at low altitu.
thrust will be : C. Secondary line of the burner self sufficient to cater
A. 0. for starting.
B. 50%. D. Secondary line of the burner gives very effective
C. 100%. automisation at low Pr.
D. Equal to the aircraft speed.
30. The dangerous zone for four engined jet air craft
23. In multi jet engine aircraft with short straight air is.
intake duct, theengine is apt to suffer from inlet A. 5 mtrs radius ahead of air intake, 200 mtrs behind
turbulance due to : jet pipe.
A. Slow air speed. B. 5 mtrs radius ahead of air intake, 110 mtrs behind
B. High air speed. the jet pipe.
C. Low angle of attack. C. 10 mtrs radius ahead of air intake, 200 mtrs behind
D. Slow air speed or high angles of attack. the jet pipe.

210
D. 10 mtrs radius ahead of air intake, 110 mtrs behind 39. In an oil system the oil tank is vented to :
the jet pipe. A. Atmoshpere.
B. Top of the fuel tank.
31. After using CTC fire extinguisher, confined C. Engine crank case.
spaces must be : D. The exhaust.
A. Washed with soapy water.
B. Wash with distilled water. 40. The component which limit the maximum
C. Vacated and freely ventilated to disperse the gas. pressure by passing some or allil direct to tank is :
D. Covered air tightly so as to die off any left out A. De-Aerator.
residual fire. B. Anti surge valve.
C. Thermostat valve.
32. Fire extinguisher use on oil and petrol fire is : D. Hot pot.
A. CTC.
B. Foam type. 41. Fuel stored in aircraft tanks should be turned over
C. Glycol. or consumed beforethe time limit of :
D. Soda acid. A. 45 days.
B. 1 month.
33. Soda acid type of fire extinguisher is used to C. 2 months.
extinguish the type of. D. 3 months.
A. Solid nature.
B. Electrical fire. 42. On expiry of storage period in aircraft, the fuel to
C. Can be used on all types of fire. be tested withfollowing method before sucking in to
D. Can be used on oil gasoline and kerosene. refuellers for further use is :
A. Corrosivity test and Sulphide in water.
34. The fire extinguisher that can be used on all types B. Silver strip test.
of fire is : C. Copper strip test.
A. CTC. D. Test of water contamination with paste or capsule.
B. Soda acid.
C. Methyle bromide. 43. When sater is found in fuel system during DI of an
D. Water glycol. aircraft the action.
A. Drain off adequate fuel to ensure complete removal
35. In ball bearing the balls may be arranged in : of accumulated water.
A. One or two rows. B. Only 10 litres of fuel from the sump.
B. Tow or three rows. C. 5% of the total capacity of the aircraft fuel system.
C. Three or four rows. D. Complete fuel from the aircraft.
D. Four or five rows.
44. The petroleum industry roughly groups the
36. Plain bearings are subjected to : lubricating oil in to :
A. Thrust load only. A. Two broad classes.
B. Radial load only. B. Three broad classes.
C. Radial and thrust loads. C. Four broad classes.
D. Longitudinal thrust loads. D. Five broad classes.

37. The purpose of self aligning features of ball 45. An oil which is very thick at low temperature and
bearing is to : becomes very thin athigh temperature is said to be :
A. Provide for unavoidable condition of misalignment A. High viscosity index.
due to shaft deflection. B. Low viscosity index.
B. Provide for slight adjustment for wear after C. Stable oil.
prolonged use. D. Unstable oil.
C. Take up the angular load.
D. Provide positive tranmission of thrust load. 46. The viscosity of Gasolene at a room temperature
of 15 C is.
38. In lay shaft type of reduction gear, the speed ratio A. 2.0 Centipoise.
is determined by. B. 1.0 Centipoise.
A. The length of the gears. C. 0.02 Centipoise.
B. The position of the gears. D. 0.6 Centipoise.
C. The direction of roation of gears.
D. The number of teeth of the gears. 47. When the oils are heated they begin to decompose
and crack rapidly attemperature :
211
A. 575 F and higher. B. Drag.
B. 675 F and higher. C. Avancementd.
C. 775 F and higher. D. Lift.
D. 875 F and higher.
56. The ratio between that part of propeller disc
48. The lubricating oil used in the Gas turbine engine covered by the blades antotal area of the disc is called:
must be of : A. Compressibility.
A. Much higher viscosity. B. Solidity.
B. Much lower viscosity. C. Stability.
C. Normal viscosity. D. Disc area.
D. Below normal viscosity.
57. The thoretical distance and aircraft would advance
49. An imperial number for expressing the change of in one revolution opropeller is known as :
viscosity of an oil witemperature is known as. A. Effective pitch.
A. Kinematic viscosity. B. Experimental pitch.
B. Viscosity index. C. Geometric pitch.
C. Viscosity. D. Fine pitch.
D. Absolute viscosity.
58. Propeller produces maximum lift and least drag
50. The flash point of `wide cut' gasolene type ATF when the angle betweenthrust face and the direction
range start from. of relative air flow is:
A. 100 to 475 F. A. 3 to 6 optimum angle of attack.
B. 125 to 575 F. B. 10 ± 1 angle of attack.
C. 225 to 675 F. C. 12 to 15 of blade angle.
D. 325 to 575 F. D. 4 optimum angle of attack.

51. The high flash point Kerosene's range starts from. 59. The angle of attack at which best lift/drag ratio is
A. 225 to 375 F. obtained.
B. 525 to 575 F. A. Stalling angle.
C. 325 to 475 F. B. Optimum angle.
D. 225 to 575 F. C. Blade angle.
D. Feathering angle.
52. When the propeller is revolving at a steady
number of revolutions perminute, then the propeller 60. A thicker blade section width increased camper, as
torque and the engine torque will be : with wing is lessefficient at:
A. Exactly equal. A. High speed.
B. Different. B. Low speed.
C. Exactly equal and opposite. C. Crucial speed.
D. Exactly opposite. D. Low speed at high altitude.

53. The helix angle is the angle formed between : 61. Increasing the number of blades in a propeller is
A. The chord line and the plane of rotation. one way of increasinability of a propeller,but the
B. The resultant direction of air flow and the plane of number of blades should not exceed:
rotation. A. Eight.
C. The chord line and the direction of rotative air B. Seven.
flow. C. Six.
D. The direction of relative air flow and the plane of D. Five.
rotation.
62. If the air density acting in an aerofoil is halved the
54. The pitch angle of propeller blade is angle lift will be:
between. A. Doubled.
A. Chord line and plane of rotation. B. Increased by four times.
B. Thrust face and relative airflow. C. Increased by six times.
C. Relative air flow and plane of rotation. D. Halved.
D. Chord line and relative airflow.
63. Increasing the speed of thse aerofoil by two times
55. The difference between the geometric pitch and will increase the lby:
the effective pitchthe propeller is called: A. Two times.
A. slip. B. Three times.
212
C. Four times.
D. Six times.
64. The centrifugal force acting on the propeller
depends upon:
A. Resultant air reaction on the blade.
B. Force acting on the propeller in the direction of
flight.
C. Tortional stress produced by resultant air flow.
D. Weight of the propeller.
65. Propeller blades are tddwisted in order to :
A. Equalize the load on the propeller by keeping the
angle of attack constant.
B. To control rotational and forward speed of
propeller.
C. To roughly maintain the angle of attack constant
all along the blade length.
D. To get a hectical path in the air.
66. The force which tends to turn the propeller blade
towards fine pitch icalled:
A. Centrifugal twisting moment.
B. Aerodynamic twisting moment.
C. Gyroscopic force.
D. Power absorption force.
67. By extending the variable pitch range of a
propeller beyond the normalpitch limit to obtain large
negative angle of attack the propeller iscalled:
A. Contra rotating propeller.
B. Rdseverse pitch propeller.
C. Co-axial propeller.
D. Controllable pitch propeller.
68. In PCU the constant speeding rpm are selected by
control lever,which vthe load on the governor spring
and the high and low speed stops are:
A. Provided inside the hub assembly.
B. Fitted externally to abut the control lever.
C. Provided by the feathering pump operation.
D. Achived by the oil pressure controller unit.
69. In PCU two solenoid valves are fitted in the
governor casing. One opethe third oil line valve and
the other operates:
A. Elanged valve.
B. Extractor pinion.
C. Valve lift piston.
D. Bowelded shim.
70. In addition to normal pitch a turbo propeller
engine required finer pifor starting and idling. The
provision to line off to zero oitch is teas:
A. Fine pitch.
B. Ground fine pitch.
C. Flight fine pitch.
D. Zero thrust fine pitch.
213
71. Ondowty rotal propellor on ground selector lever
(FFPS lever) always rin :
A. Withdrawn position.
B. Engaged position.
C. Ground position.
D. Off position.
72. An Avro aircraft flying with one engine in
feathered condition pilotadvances the throttle to
cruising range. The automatic coarsening systwill :
A. Not operate.
B. Operate and engine will go to coarse pitch.
C. Operate only upto ground fine pitch stop.
D. Biring the propeller to fine pitch.
73. In dowty rotal popeller during auto coarsening, the
engine should regatorque suffucient to open the low
torque switch, the breaking of thecircuit will cause the
propeller to :
A. Feather fully and the engine will cut off.
B. Return to normal governing position.
C. Come to ground fine pitch.
D. Come to flight fine pitch and engine will cut off.
74. Quantity of heat required to raise the temperature
of one lb of waterthrough 1 is defined as :
A. Calorie.
B. Centigrade heat unit.
C. British thermal unit.
D. MKS heat unit.
75. If (m) grams be the mass of the substance and `S'
its specific heatthe amount of heat required to raise
the temperature of the bodythrough 1 C is equal to :
A. Therm.
B. Calorie.
C. ms Calories.
D. Kilo clories.
76. The type of burner that has the main advantages of
better automizationuel is obtained at low fuel flow
where by improving engine control anlighting
characteristic at altitude is :
A. Luback tupe.
B. Simplex type.
C. Duplex type.
D. Sprill type.
77. On a jet engine burners are required for:
A. The equal distribution of fuel to combustion
chambers.
B. Controlling the pressure of fuel injected into the
combustion chambers.
C. The injection and vapourisation of fuel.
D. Controlling the JPT.
78. The brayton engine required two cylinders.
A. One for compression and the other for expansion.
B. One for ignition and other for expansion.
C. One for induction and the other for ignition. 86. The extra mass of metal added opposite to the
D. One for induction and other for compression. crank pin and extendingcrank web on a crank shaft is
known as:
79. The transonic upper limit may be as low as M = A. Crank cheek.
1.1 or as high as M = 1depending upon the: B. Crank web.
A. Speed of the aircraft. C. Counter weight.
B. Altitude of the aircraft. D. Balance weight.
C. Density of the atmosphere.
D. Design of the aircraft. 87. Water methonal injection increases thrust by
raising:
80. A definite amount of mechanical work is needed A. Velocity and pressure of the gas stream.
to produce a definiteamount of heat and vice-versa is B. Mass and velocity of the gas stream.
the law of. C. JPT and velocity of the gas stream.
A. Boyle's law. D. JPT and pressure of the gas stream.
B. Charle Law.
C. First law of thermodynamics. 88. The ratio of work done in moving the aircraft
D. Second law of thermodynamics. forward to the energy spn accelerating the gas
rearward is called :
81. In different methods of blades colling in jet engine A. Thrust.
turbine system,circulating the cooling fluid and thus B. Propulsive efficiency.
reducing the blade temperatureconduction is known C. Acceleration.
as: D. Thermal efficiency.
A. Water cooling.
B. Film cooling. 89. In water/methanol injection system, the best
C. Rim colling. proportion of water andmethanol as been found to be:
D. Internal air cooling. A. 40% of water and 60% of methanol by volume.
B. 60% of water and 40% of methanol by volume.
82. The quantity of heat required to raise the C. 50% of water and 60% of methanol by volume.
temperature of a unit of asubstance through 1 C is D. 50% of water and 50% of methanol by volume.
known as :
A. Specific heat. 90. One of the main advantage of reheat as a thrust
B. Specific temperature. augmentation method is.
C. Thermal heat. A. Its efficiency increases with true air speed (TAS).
D. Charle's Law. B. Enables a/c with heavy loads to take off easily
from high altitude aerodrom.
83. The free stream mach is such that at all points the C. It help a/c in easy landing and take off from a/c
local mach numbersgreater than M = 1.0. It is called: carrier.
A. Subsonic flow. D. It improves the life of the engine.
B. Transonic flow.
C. Supersonic flow. 91. The function of a diffuser in a jet engine is to :
D. Hypersonic flow. A. Diifuse the air drawn from atmosphere through the
air intake.
84. The duct will be changed by a mechanical device B. Increase the pressure of air entering the
as the speed of theaircraft increases or decreases is compressor.
usally known as : C. Convert velocity energy of air to pressure before
A. Single entrance air intake duct. combustion chamber.
B. Double entrance air intake duct. D. Convert compressor outlet air to streamline flow &
C. Variable geometry inlet duct. guide to combustion cham.
D. divided entrance duct.
92. Turbo jet engine are rated at their static thrust
85. The clearance between the tips of the diffuser under standard condiof:
vanes and the compressos is about : A. 95 F and 92.29 in Hg.
A. 1/2 ". B. 59 F and 29.92 in Hg.
B. 1". C. 0.59 F and 2.992 in Hg.
C. 1½". D. 5.9 c and 299.2 in Hg.
D. 2".
93. Compressor surge is identified by :
A. Low JPT, flame out with variation in set RPM.

214
B. Engine rumbling noise to an abrupt explosion and 101. On German gas turbine for securing the blade in
vibration. rotor the method used.
C. Severe vibration. A. Fir tree method.
D. Engine flame out. B. Grub screw method.
C. Anchor pin.
94. Pitch setting of the adjustable pitch propeller is D. Bulb root method.
done:
A. On ground whden the engine is not running. 102. In variable area jet nozzle reduced area of jet
B. At various flying condition. nozzle is required dur.
C. On the ground when the engine is running. A. Landing.
D. During assembly of the propeller. B. Take off.
C. Cruising speed.
95. A series of holes are provided towards the rear of D. Slow running.
the flame tube foradmission of additional air this 103. The burner which consists of a swirl chamber
portion is termed as: and fixed area atomizingce is called :
A. Primary zone. A. Simplex burner.
B. Secondary zone. B. Duplex burner.
C. Tertiary zone. C. Lubbock burner.
D. Additional zone. D. Spill burner.

96. In the typical nozzle diaphram, the inner and outer 104. The measure of engine life obtained while
band contain punchholes to receive: maintaining desired reliability is called:
A. Ends of the exhaust nozzle. A. Compactness.
B. Ends of the nozzle vanes. B. Operational flexibility.
C. Exhaust cone. C. Reliability.
D. Nozzle guide ring. D. Durability.

97. The principal advantage of the reverse flow 105. The oil film between the rubbing parts may
system of combustion chambis that: breakdown and will lead to to metal contact due to :
A. It provides longer path for air to have better A. Too high temperature of oil.
cooling before entering C.C. B. Too low temperature of oil.
B. The total engine length is reduced. C. Too high pressure of oil.
C. The air get preheated and so more fuel efficiency. D. Too low oil pressure.
D. It is the only type that is ideal with axial flow
compressor. 106. It is believed that the dilution of oil will be
necessary, because ofweather, the oil dilution is
98. The velocity of the gas flow leaving the nozzle performed at :
ring of the impulse tuas compared to re-action turbine A. Middle of engine run.
is: B. Starting of engine run.
A. Smaller. C. End of each engine run.
B. Same. D. Any stage of engine run.
C. Greater.
D. Totally depends on gas temperature. 107. The ratio of that portion of energy of the fuel
converted into work tomechanical work supplied in
99. Dowty rotol propeller electro hydraulic stop the form fuel is now known as:
comes into operation when. A. Therma efficiency.
A. The propeller control unit fails. B. Propulsive efficiency.
B. The ground fine pitch stop fails. C. Overall efficiency.
C. The flight fine pitch stop fail. D. Volumetric efficiency.
D. The hydraulic stop fails.
108. A series of small rods is smoetimes placed in the
100. When the piston in the propeller control unit is side scoop inlet tot in :
fully forward in thecylinder, the position of the A. Straightening the incoming airflow and to prevent
propeller blades are : turbulance.
A. Fully coarse. B. Reduce the air flow in the intake.
B. Feathered. C. Prevent the air pressure directly acting on the
C. Fully fine. structure.
D. Un-feathered. D. Prevent the surging of the engine.

215
109. For connecting drive shaft where the centre lines D. Compressibility mach number.
neither interact norparallel, the type of gears used are ;
A. Epicyclic gears. 112. The valve which divide the return oil flow
B. Hypoid gears. between the cooler and a by to the tank is called :
C. Spur gears. A. Thermostat valve.
D. Bevel gears. B. Anti surge valve.
C. By pass valve.
110. For smonth flow of air with minimum turbulance D. Relief valve.
the air intake duct mus.
A. Be bigger in size. 113. Air consumption can be measured by measuring
B. Have different anti-surge shutters. the air supply to a surge of capacity of about :
C. Have sufficiently straight section. A. 100 to 150 time the swept volume of the engine.
D. be sub-sonic in nature. B. 150 to 200 time the swept volume of the engine.
C. 200 to 250 time the swept volume of the engine.
111. The mach number of the flow at a point D. 50 to 100 time the swept volume of the engine.
unaffected by the presence of taircraft:
A. Local mach number.
B. Critical mach number.
C. Free stream mach number.

216
 VERY SHORT ANSWERS
1. Name the main parts of Jet Engine.
2. Define Heat engine.
3. State the main type of combustion chamber used in
gas turbine engine?
4. What is the function of combustion chamber?
5. What is the purpose of swirl assembly fitted in the
combustion chamber and how it prevents flame
extinction in the combustion zone?
6. Write the requirements, the nozzle guide vanes are
designed to meet?
7. What are the advantage of "FIR Tree" method of
retention of turbine blades to the wheel?
8. Write the disadvantage of re-heat over water
methanol injection?
9. Write any one the formula for converting the thrust
horse power into thrust?
10. Define the Newton's first law of motion?
11. Define the Newton's second law of motion?
12. Name the essential component of turbo jet engine?
13. Write the advantage of flush ducts?
14. What are the disadvantages of axial flow
compressor?
15. What is the objective of diffuser?
16. What is the purpose of burnors?
17. Define combustion chamber.
18. Write the purpose of bearing?
19. State the purpose of engine mount.
20. What is understood by viscosity and state its unit
of measure?
217
21. Write the advantages of wet sump system.
22. What are the two qualities of ATF which ensures
easy starting?
23. State the necessity of sampling and testing of
petroleum products.
24. Explain briefly "top sample".
25. List out the additives added to mineral base
lubricating oil.
26. Write the purpose of propeller.
27. Define drag.
28. Define thrust.
29. Define the plane of rotation.
30. Define geometric pitch.
31. Define slip and state how it is expressed.
32. Define a propeller efficiency.
33. Define the angle of attack.
34. How the ability of a propeller absorb the power
can be increased moreefficiently? Also state the
result if the number of blade in a propeller be more
than five.
35. What are the factors upon which the ability to
absorb power by a propeller depends?
36. Write the advantage and disadvantage of
adjustable pitch propeller?
37. Write the advantages of constant speed propeller?
38. Explain the on speed operation of dowty rotor
propeller.
39. What are the condition when auto coarsening take
place in flight?
 SHORT ANSWERS
1. Briefly explain the role of combustion chamber.
2. Write the principle of thrust augmentation and
name various devices.
3. Explain in brief the power transmission system of
helicopter.
4. Explain the upper train gear of reduction gear
casing of artouste III-B engine.
5. Write the sub assemblies of artouste III-B engine.
6. Enlist the items the oil tank of Artouste III-B
engine is fitted with.
7. Write the operation of lubrication system of
Artouste III-B engine.
8. Write the purpose of oil pressure transmitter,
magnetic drain plug and oil temperature bulb in
Artouste III B engine.
9. Write the purpose, occassion and precautions to be
observed for removal and installation of oil tank.
10. Define oil cooler fitted in Artouste III-B engine.
11. Write the advantage and disadvantage of the
centrifugal injection fuel system of Artouste IIIB
engine.
12. State the function of nozzle diaphragm .
13. State the function of nozzle diaphragm .
14. Write the basic requirements of a turbine.
15. Write the methods of retention of turbine blades.
16. Explain compressibility mach number.
17. Write the working ranges of speeds of the
following (a) Sub sonic flow, (b) transonic flow , (c)
Supersonic flow (d) Hypersonic flow.
18. Write the advantages of annular nose inlet ducts.
19. Write the advantages and disadvantages of nose
inlets.
20. Write the advantages of wing inlet ducts.
218
21. Write the disadvantages of wing inlet ducts.
22. Name the types of burners and explain Lubbock
type.
23. What are the advantages of duplex burner over the
simplex burner.
24. Distinguish between main and secondary
picketing points.
25. Enumerate the cockpit check before attempting to
start an ac engine.
26. What are the methods of starting an ac?
27. Write the precautions to be observed before and
during ground run.
28. Explain about the water glycol fire extinguisher.
29. State the advantage of CO2 when it is used as an
extinguishant.
30. State the purpose of adding additives to the
minerals base lubricatingoils.
31. Write the effects of acidity in a lubricating oil.
32. Define the propeller solidity and comperssibility.
33. Explain the term "slip" with reference to propeller.
34. Distinguish between the effects of increasing
blade chord and increasing the number of blade in
propeller.
35. State the factors influencing the power obsorption
capacity of a propeller.
36. Enumerate the factors affecting lift and drag.
37. Explain the term skin friction in a propeller.
38. Define the torque bending force and centrifugal
twisting movement of propeller.
39. Explain the thrust bending force acting on a
propeller.
40. Explain torsion or twisting force acting on
propeller.
41. How the necessity for twisting of propeller blade
can be justified.
42. Name the forces acting on propeller in motion.
43. Write about centrifugal force acting on a
propeller.
44. Explain gyroscopic effect on a propeller.
45. What is aerodynamic twisting movement with
reference to propeller explain.
46. Explain the multi position propeller.
47. What is constant speed propeller?
219
48. Explain the procedure of repair carried out on the
blade when it is burnt due to lightning.
49. What are the fixed contacts in a slip ring group in
dowty rotol propeller.
50. Explain the over speed operation of dowty rotol
propeller.
51. Explain the under speed operation of the dowty
rotol propeller.
52. Write the conditions when automatic coarsening
will take place in dowty rotol propeller.
53. Write the on speed of dowty rotol propeller.
 LONG ANSWERS
18. Name the various thrust augumentation devecis
1. Write down the wash parts of a jet engine. used on turbo-jet engine and compare them with one
another.
2. Explain the heat engine.
19. State the comparision between water/methanol
3. Name the various thrust augmentation devices. injection and reheat methods of thrust augmentation
device.
4. Write the purpose of the following: Diffuser b)
Nozzle guide vane c) Exhaust pipe. 20. Briefly explain noise supressor and working range
of air flow definitions.
5. Write the purpose of the following of a jet engine:
compressor b) combustion chamber c) Turbine. 21. Define the following: (a) power (b) velocity
(c) Propulsion efficiency (d) overall efficiency
(e) bypass ratio.
6. Briefly explain the operation of centrifugal type
compressor used in jet engine.
22. Define the following; (a) acceleration
(b) Bernoulli's theorem (c) Thermal efficiency
7. Explain the use of pump feed multi-tank open
(d) Newton's third law of motion.
orifice aircraft fuel system. How it is different from
pressure refueled system?
23. Define the following;(a) work (b) power
(c) velocity (d) momentum (e) propulsive efficiency.
8. What are the main advantages of annular
combustion chamber and explain can annular
combustion chamber. 24. Name the major component of ajet engine ande
briefly explain the construction and operation of a
diffuser.
9. Write the constructional details of exhaust nozzle
guide vane.
25. Write the purose of engine inlet and inlet ducting
and briefly explain single entrance air inlet duct.
10. List out the various methods of retention of
turbine blades and statethe advantages of fir tree
method. 26. State the requirement of a compressor in gas
turbine engine and main features of centrifugal
compressor.
11. Briefly explain the different methods of turbine
blades cooling and write its advantages of cooling.
27. What are the main features of an axial flow
compressor?
12. Write the different methods of cooling turbine
blades and also state the inference made regarding
turbine blade cooling. 28. Make a comparative study of centrifugal
compressor and axial flow compressor.
13. What are the metallurgical requirements of turbine
. 29. Narrate the advantages and disadvantages of
centrifugal and axial flow compressor.
14. Write the effects of JPT on jet engine.
30. Explain duplex burner with constructional details
and advantages?
15. Write the advantages of a variable area jet nozzle.
31. Name the different types of burners and explain
16. Name the various thrust augmentatioin devices
simple burner .
and briefly explain water methanol injection system.
32. Name different type of burners and explain
17. Write the purpose and advantages of re-heat in
lubbock burner.
thrust augmentation device.
33. List out the point to be observed for preparation of
a/c for ground run.

220
34. State the cockpit checks, before attempting to start
the engine and list out methods of starting.
35. Enumerate the properties of a good lubricating oil.
36. Write the sources of contamination of lubricating
oils and how it canbe detected.
37. Name the different ground and airborne type fire
extinguisher and write the adavantages of CO2 trolley
fire extinguisher.
38. Write the purpose of reduction gear and name the
varius types and explain briefly the lay shaft type
gears.
39. Explain types of lubrication and advantages of
wet sump lubrication system.
40. Name the type of lubrication system and explain
hand lubrication system.
41. Write reason for dry sump lubrication system use
on all aero engines and disadvantages of wet sump
system.
42. Write the type of lubrication systems and briefly
explain the splash subrication.
43. Name the sub assemblies of dart-531 engine and
also list out the comonents incorporated in exhaust
sytem assembly.
221
44. Write the purpose of the following monitoring and
safety devices fitted in the oil system :(a) Dip stick (ii)
Oil temperature bulb (c) Oil pressure relief valve (d)
Scavang pump (e) Sludge indicator.
45. Name the sub assemblies of fuel control unit in
dart 531 engine and explain hp cock.
46. Write short notes on the followinga) Anti crash
relayb) Over speed relay.
47. Write down the procedure of unpacking of an
ARTOUSTE IIIB ENGreceivedfrom repair agency for
installation on helicopter.
48. Narrate the inhibition procedure for the engine
which can be groundrun.
49. Write the basic requirement of a good combussion
chamber and briefly explain them.
50. Write all the basic performance parameter of an
engine and explain specific out-put.
51. State the main requirements of combustion
chamber and their names.
52. Write the purpose of combusion chamber and
enumerate the advantages of annular type combustion
chamber.
BLANK

222
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

1. In a computer application window, the status bar 10. A chart data series is a collection of:
displays: A. Related values.
A. The menu for the application. B. Functional values.
B. The name of the application. C. Collected values.
C. The font size, types of styles and alignment. D. Resulted values.
D. Message, page number and section number.
11. A chart that exists on your worksheet is known as:
2. In computer application window, the bar used to A. Radar chart.
change document style and font size is: B. Embedded chart.
A. Status bar. C. Scattered chart.
B. Standard tool bar. D. Column chart.
C. Formatting tool bar.
D. Menu bar. 12. In Binary subtraction, subtract 11011 from 10111
A. - 11011.
3. In MS EXCEL, a formula can be a maximum of : B. - 00100.
A. 255 characters long. C. + 11011.
B. 235 characters long. D. + 00100.
C. 245 characters long.
D. 275 characters long. 13. Complement of a complement equal to;.
A. Zero.
4. An EXCEL FILE is known as: B. Complement.
A. Note book. C. One.
B. Work book. D. Original.
C. Work sheet.
D. Document. 14. The 1's compliment of a binary number is the
number that results when :
5. In MS EXCEL, the [+] of mouse pointer stands for: A. Each 0 is changed to 1 and vice-versa.
A. Start menu. B. Each 0 is changed to 2 and vice-versa.
B. Copy and paste. C. Each 0 is changed to 4 and vice-versa.
C. Cut and paste. D. Each 0 is changed to 8 and vice-versa.
D. Entering the data.
15. Binary equivalent of 34.4 (8) is :
6. An EXCEL workbook has a number of: A. 10100.1100.
A. Pages. B. 11000.0011.
B. Documents. C. 10011.0101.
C. Worksheets. D. 11100.100.
D. Workbooks.
16. Flip Flop is also known as :
7. A worksheet is also known as: A. Astable Multi vibrator.
A. Page. B. Mono stable Multi vibrator.
B. Spreadsheet. C. Bi stable multi vibrator.
C. Document. D. Tri stable multi vibrator.
D. Workbook.
17. For production of voltage pulses without any
8. In MS EXCEL, the (arrow) shape of the mouse driving pulse of all most square wave shape, occurring
pointer indicates: periodically, the circuit used is.
A. Entering the data. A. Free running multi vibrator.
B. Cut and paste. B. Mono stable multi vibrator.
C. Copy and paste. C. Bi stable multi vibrator.
D. Start menu. D. RS flip flop.

9. In MS EXCEL worksheet, rows are denoted by: 18. Among the following ,the output device in a
A. Alphabets. computer is:
B. Numbers. A. Key board.
C. Asterisks. B. Printer.
D. Arrows. C. Mouse.
223
D. Joy stick. A. 0.01 ampere.
B. 0.1 ampere.
19. Many dot matrix printers are: C. 0.0001 ampere.
A. Unidirectional. D. 0.001 ampere.
B. Tri-directional.
C. Bi-directional. 29. The total opposition offered to the flow of current
D. Quadra-directional. in an AC circuit by resistance inductance and
capacitance is known as:
20. Dot matrix printer is an example of: A. Ohm.
A. Line printer. B. Conductance.
B. Laser printer. C. Impedance.
C. Drum printer. D. Watt Hour.
D. Character printer.
30. Indicating instruments are graded on the basis of
21. A keyboard is a most common: their:
A. Memory unit. A. Range.
B. Input device. B. Internal resistance.
C. Control device. C. Limits of error.
D. Output device. D. None of the above.

22. Unit of current by which the rate of flow of 31. Electrical instruments are classified as:
electricity is measured is: A. Indicating, Integrating and recording instrument.
A. Volt. B. Recording, Deflecting and controlling instrument.
B. Ampere. C. Integrating, controlling and Deflecting instrument.
C. Coulomb. D. Deflecting, controlling and Damping instrument.
D. Ohm.
32. Instrument that register electrical quantities over a
23. One Joule is equal to : period of time are classified as :
A. One watt second. A. Indicating instrument.
B. One watt hour. B. Recording instrument.
C. One watt minute. C. Moving coil instrument.
D. One watt. D. Integrating instrument.

24. Ohm'S Law states that: 33. The most common form of damping employed in
A. R= V/I. electrical instrument is:
B. V = R/I. A. Eddy current damping.
C. I = R/V. B. Fluid friction damping.
D. R = VxI. C. Air friction damping.
D. Electromagnetic damping.
25. The practical unit of Conductance is :
A. Ohm. 34. Most suitable material used for controlling spring
B. Coulomb. in an instrument is :
C. MHO. A. Aluminum.
D. Volt. B. Phosphor Bronze.
C. Iron.
26. The unit representing power or by which the rate D. Copper Bronze.
of doing work is measured is :
A. Joule. 35. Shunt is used for increasing the range of a :
B. Watt. A. Ammeter.
C. Ohms. B. AVO meter.
D. None of the above. C. Volt meter.
D. Electrostatic Volt meter.
27. The symbol of Impedence is :
A. R. 36. Moving coil instrument is based on the principle
B. Z. of:
C. I. A. Fleming Right Hand Rule.
D. V. B. Ohm's Law.
C. Fleming Left Hand Rule.
28. The value of Milli ampere is: D. Lenz's law.
224
37. Disadvantages of moving coil instrument is : D. 5000 ohm only.
A. Uneven scale division.
B. It can not be directly used with AC. 46. The digital meter work on the principle of -.
C. Error due to temperature is more. A. Electro magnetic Induction.
D. Can not be designed as center-zero type. B. Quantization.
C. Heating effect.
38. The advantages of Moving Coil Instrument is : D. Eddy current.
A. It correctly indicates the r.m.s value.
B. It can be designed as center -zero type. 47. The accuracy of best analog instruments are rated
C. They are free from frequency error. usually within.
D. They are not affected by stray magnetic field. A. + - 0.5% of full scale.
B. + - 1% of full scale.
39. A low resistance connected in parallel with an C. + - 0.1% of full scale.
ammeter in order to measure a greater current than the D. + - 5% of full scale.
instrument itself can carry is termed as :
A. Multiplier. 48. Purpose of shunt in ammeter is to :
B. Shunt. A. Measure a greater current than that the instrument
C. Swamping resistance. can carry.
D. Ballast resistance. B. Measure a lower current than the instrument can
carry due to safety reasons.
40. Material used for making SHUNT in an ammeter C. Safe guard to instrument.
is usually: D. Reduce the internal resistance.
A. Copper.
B. Manganin. 49. If a resistance is having colour bands Green,
C. Phosphor Bronze. Yellow, and Red, the resistance value is:
D. Bronze. A. 5400 ohms.
B. 5400 + - 10%.
41. Most suitable instrument for measuring high C. 6400 ohms.
voltages is : D. 5800 ohms.
A. Milli voltmeter.
B. Electrostatic voltmeter. 50. For a given voltage four heating coils will produce
C. Digital voltmeter. maximum heat when connected:
D. None of the above. A. All in parallel.
B. All in series.
42. In a thermocouple instrument, the emf at the cold C. With two parallel pairs in series.
end is measured by : D. One pair in parallel with the other two in series.
A. Moving coil instrument.
B. Moving Iron Instrument. 51. Magnetic force that must be applied in the reverse
C. Milli volt meter. direction to reduce the residual Magnetism to zero is
D. Hot wire instrument. called.
A. Magnetic Force.
43. The operating principle of Dynamometer type B. Coercive force.
Wattmeter is-. C. Electromagnetic force.
A. Similar to D C Motor. D. Electro static force.
B. Similar to A C Motor.
C. Similar to D C Generator. 52. If the Voltage applied and the resistance of a
D. Similar to A C Generator. circuit are doubled the circuit will be:
A. Doubled.
44. The true power in A C circuit being equal to : B. Halved.
A. VI sin +. C. Four times.
B. VI cos +. D. Remaining same.
C. RI sin +.
D. RI cos +. 53. A capacitor consists of two:
A. Insulators separated by a dielectric.
45. Digital Instrument have input impedance of the B. Conductors separated by an insulator.
order of -. C. Ceramic plates and one mica disc.
A. 10 Mega ohm or even higher. D. Silver coated Insulators.
B. 10 Mega ohm or even lower.
C. 5 Mega ohm only.
225
54. A force that tends to drive electricity through a 62. Superposition Theorem can be applied only to
circuit is called: circuit having________elements.
A. Ampere. A. Resistive.
B. Wattage. B. Non-linear.
C. RMS value. C. Passive.
D. EMF. D. Linear-Bilateral.
55. The meter, which is used for measuring and
comparing the emf of different cells for calibrating 63. In an electrical circuit, where the current produced
and standardizing voltmeters and ammeters, is known by an applied voltage is proportional to that voltage
as: i.e. Parameters of circuit are constant is called:
A. Potentiometer. A. Electric network.
B. Bonding tester. B. Active network.
C. Ammeter. C. Linear circuit.
D. Multi meter. D. Non linear circuit.

56. The resistance 'R' offered by a conductor depends 64. The term defined as the lagging of magnetization
upon: or induction flux density behind the Magnetizing
A. R = L / A. force is known as:
B. A = L / R. A. Right hand grip rule.
C. L = R / A. B. Magnetizing field.
D. P = L / A. C. Hysterisis.
D. Permeance.
57. To specify the magnitude of resistance, colour
code is used. Certain colours are used for certain 65. The property of a material that opposes the
numbers. Number used for 'Black' band resistance is: creation of Magnetic flux is known as:
A. 1. A. Reluctance.
B. 5. B. Magneto motive force.
C. 0. C. Analogous.
D. 2. D. Permeance.

58. One mega ohm is equal to: 66. When an AC voltage is applied to the plates of a
A. 10 to the power 2ohms. capacitor:
B. 10 to the power 3 ohms. A. Capacitor will discharge what ever charges
C. 10 to the power 4 ohms. available.
D. 10 to the power 6 ohms. B. Capacitor is charged in one direction.
C. Capacitor will resist the voltage.
59. When different resistances are joined end on end, D. The capacitor is charged in one direction and then
they are said to be connected in: in the opposite direction.
A. Parallel.
B. Series - parallel. 67. Fleming's left hand rule is to find out the direction
C. Parallel - series. of :
D. Series. A. Current.
B. Field.
60. The current flowing through a conductor is C. The motion of current carrying conductor.
proportional to difference of potential at the ends of D. Current and field.
the conductor, provided the temperature remains
constant is defined by: 68. In a transformer, the thickness of the core
A. Coulombs Law. lamination for a frequency of 50 Hz is :
B. Ohms Law. A. 0.5 mm.
C. Joules Law. B. 0.15 mm.
D. Kirchoffs Law. C. 0.25 mm.
D. 0.35 mm.
61. One horsepower is equal to:
A. 500 Ft Lb/sec. 69. Generation of AC is :
B. 550 Ft Lb/sec. A. More expensive than that of DC.
C. 600 Ft Lb/sec. B. More complicated than that of DC.
D. 746 Ft Lb/sec. C. More economical than that of DC.
D. Less reliable than that of DC.

226
70. The normal overload setting for star delta starter is 78. In iron cored transformer with 8: 1 ratio is
at : connected to 120V mains, the voltage across
A. 10% overload. secondary will be:
B. 12% overload. A. 20 V.
C. 15% overload. B. 15 V.
D. 25% overload. C. 10 V.
D. 25 V.

71. The open circuit voltage of dry cell is. 79. For high voltage the insulator used is:
A. 2 volt. A. Trace paper.
B. 1.2 Volt. B. Melinex.
C. 1.4 to 1.6 Volt. C. Impregnated.
D. 1.5 Volt. D. Tissue paper.

72. The type of capacitor suitable for use in AC 80. Any machine converts mechanical energy into
circuits such as in AC motor starter is : electrical energy is known as.
A. Paper capacitor. A. Motor.
B. Electrolytic capacitor. B. Stator.
C. Polorised electrolytic condenser. C. Generator.
D. Non-polarized electrolytic capacitor. D. Amplifier.

73. The tenacity with which a magnetic material holds 81. Fleming's right hand rule is used to find out the
on to its magnetism is called : direction of:
A. Coercive force. A. Field.
B. Retentivity. B. Motion of the conductor.
C. Coercivity. C. Direction of induced emf.
D. Magnetic Hysterisis. D. Direction of current.

74. In some cases motors are required to run in both 82. In delta connected alternators the 3 phase
direction with out sparking, the brushes must be windings are joined in:
placed at: A. Auto transformer.
A. MBD. B. Step up transformer.
B. MNA. C. Step down transformer.
C. GNA. D. Voltage transformer.
D. MMF.
83. In transformerif K is greater than one, then the
75. In DC generator staggering slots are used to transformer is called:
minimize ripple in the. A. Greater accuracy.
A. Input voltage. B. Robust in construction.
B. Input and out put voltage. C. To provide equal amount of frequency.
C. Output voltage. D. Cooling purpose.
D. Output current.
84. The maximum value, positive or negative of an
76. The total capacitance in an electrical circuit alternating quantity is known as:
having three capacitors of 2 micro farads, 3 micro A. Time period.
farads and 6 micro farads connected in series: B. Frequency.
A. 11F. C. Amplitude.
B. 11 Mf. D. Cycle.
C. 0.1 mF.
D. 10 F. 85. The direction of motion of a DC motor is given
by:
77. Series circuit at resonance is also called acceptor A. Fleming's right hand rule.
circuit because. B. Fleming's left hand rule.
A. Minimum. C. Faraday's law.
B. Maximum. D. Lenz's law.
C. Equal.
D. Zero. 86. The total capacitance in electrical circuit having
three capacitors of 2 mF, 3 mFand 6 mF connected in
series is:
227
A. 11 F. 95. In lead acid battery (discharged state), negative
B. 11 Mf. plate used is.
C. 1 F. A. PbO2.
D. 1 mF. B. PbSO4.
C. Ni(OH)2.
87. The value of Joule's mechanical equivalent of heat D. Cd(OH)2.
is:
A. 4.18 Joules / calorie. 96. In lead acid battery (charged state) negative plate
B. 4.18 calorie / joule. used is.
C. 4.18 calorie. A. PbO2.
D. 4.18 Joules. B. PbSO4.
88. The power consumed by a bulb having 75 ohm C. Ni(OH)2.
resistance and drawing 200 mA current is: D. Cd(OH)2.
A. 30 Watt.
B. 15 Watt. 97. The emitter of a transistor is doped.
C. 3 Watt. A. to a lesser extent than collector.
D. 0.3 Watt. B. depends upon specification.
C. heavily.
89. Equivalent DC value of an alternating quantity D. so that most of emitter injected electron go to the
which produces heat at same rate through a circuit is base of transistor.
known as:
A. Power. 98. Basic drawback with base bias circuit is.
B. RMS value. A. the base and collector power supplies are same.
C. Form factor. B. base and collector resistors are returned to collector
D. Amplitude factor. supply.
C. it cannot be used in switching circuits.
90. By decreasing the flux, the speed a shunt motor D. Beta DC varies with current and temperature.
will be:
A. Remain constant. 99. In the collector feedback bias.
B. Increase. A. the Beta DC generally varies.
C. Decrease. B. the base resistor is grounded.
D. Diminish because torque is insufficient. C. the base resistor is returned to the collector than to
power supply.
91. In lead acid battery (charged state) electrolyte D. difficult to set a stable Q-point.
used is.
A. Dilute H2SO4. 100. Amplification factor for triode is given by.
B. Concentrated sulphuric acid. A. = rp/gm.
C. KOH. B. = gm.rp.
D. Unaffected. C. = gm/rp+gm.
D. None of the above.
92. One of the factors of useful life of secondary cell
is. 101. The transistor used in power amplifier have.
A. Servicing. A. large current ratings.
B. Environment. B. large voltage ratings.
C. Cell properties. C. large power dissipating capacity.
D. None of the above. D. neither of these characteristics.

93. In Ni-Cd battery( charged state ), positive plate 102. The input and output signals of a CE amplifier
used is. are.
A. PbO2. A. Always equal.
B. PbSO4. B. Out of phase.
C. Ni2O2. C. Always negative.
D. Cd. D. In phase.

94. Capacity of a battery is measured in. 103. A shift counter is also called a.
A. Amperes-sec. A. Ripple counter.
B. Farads. B. Johnson counter.
C. Amperes-Hours. C. Decade counter.
D. None of the above. D. Ring counter.
228
104. The transistor of Class B push pull amplifiers are B. Vacuum tubes.
biased at : C. Chips.
A. Cut off. D. IC's.
B. Center of DC load line.
C. Saturation. 113. The KWH meter can be classified as an:
D. Biasing is fixed by manufacturer. A. Deflecting instrument.
B. Digital instrument.
105. The varactor is usually. C. Recording instrument.
A. Forward biased. D. Indicating instrument.
B. Biased.
C. Unbiased. 114. Induction Watt Hour meters are free from:
D. In the breakdown region. A. Phase error.
B. Creeping error.
106. For normal operation of the transistor the C. Temperature error.
collector diode has to be. D. Frequency error.
A. Forward biased.
B. Reverse biased. 115. The most efficient form of damping employed in
C. Non conducting. electrical instruments is:
D. Operating in breakdown region. A. Air friction.
B. Eddy current.
107. If an ammeter follower has V CEQ = 5V, ICQ = C. Fluid friction.
mA and re = 1 K, the maximum peak to peak D. None of the above.
unclipped output is.
A. 1V. 116. Induction instruments have found widest
B. 2V. application as:
C. 5V. A. Voltmeter.
D. 10V. B. Ammeter.
C. Frequency meter.
108. Kirchoff's law are more comprehensive than D. Watt hour meter.
ohms law are used for solving:
A. Electrical conductance. 117. The unit of magnetic flux in CGS system is:
B. Electrical temperature co efficient. A. Weber.
C. Electrical resistance network. B. Maxwell.
D. Electrical net work. C. Tesla.
D. Oersted.
109. Resistance offered by 100 cm length of wire
having an area of cross section of 100 cm sq. is called: 118. If an electron moves from the conduction band in
A. Specific temp. co- efficient. to the valance band, so that a mobile electron hole
B. Specific conductance. pair disappear, then this process is known as:
C. Specific co-efficient. A. Collision.
D. Specific resistance. B. Re combination.
C. Partition.
110. In transformer if K is less than one, then the D. Thermal agitation.
transformer is called :
A. Auto transformer. 119. A device that can rectify frequencies above 300
B. Step down transformer. M Hz for beyond the capacity of the bipolar diode is:
C. Voltage transformer. A. Zener diode.
D. Step up transformer. B. Step recovery diode.
C. Schottky diode.
111. To reduce the iron losses in an induction motor D. Pin diode.
the stampings are made of:
A. Silicon steel. 120. To make the AC equivalent circuit, DC source
B. Invar steel. must be:
C. Carbon steel. A. Reduced to one.
D. Graphite steel. B. Reduced to zero.
C. Increased to high value.
112. The first generation computer was introduced D. Increased to the value of AC.
with:
A. Solid state transistors.
229
121. In a CC amplifier, voltage gain: D. A pneumatic device.
A. Cannot exceed unity.
B. Depends upon output impedance. 130. If acid is splashed in eyes, it should be washed
C. Dependent on input signal. with :
D. Is always constant. A. 5% solution of soda bi carbonate.
B. 5% solution of soda bi carbonate and plenty of
122. The main use of class C amplifier is: water.
A. In RF circuits of a TXR above 20 K Hz. C. 2% solution of nitrogen.
B. As stereo amplifier. D. 5% solution of alkali and plenty of water.
C. In communication sound equipment.
D. As distortion generator.
131. The speed of floppy disk when inserted in a
123. The value of Alpha (Current amplification) in floppy disk drive unit is:
junction transistor is: A. 180 rpm.
A. Less than one. B. 360 rpm.
B. More than one. C. 540 rpm.
C. Equal to one. D. 720 rpm.
D. 0.707 of one.
132. Erasable PROM (EPROM) is:
124. The unwanted screen current in a pentode valve A. Temporary memory.
is prevented by: B. Permanent memory.
A. Capacitor. C. Volatile memory.
B. Suppressor grid. D. Non volatile memory.
C. Control grid.
D. Choke. 133. In Erasable PROM (EPROM), data can be erased
by exposing it to:
125. If the control grid in a triode as an amplifier A. X' rays.
circuit is open circuited, it will work as: B. Alpha rays.
A. Amplifier. C. Infra red rays.
B. Rectifier. D. Ultra violet rays.
C. Oscillator.
D. Rectifier or an amplifier. 134. In secondary memories, an amplifier and
comparator are used to convert:
126. If by mistake, AC source in a bridge rectifier is A. Small signal to large signal.
connected across the DC terminals, it will result in B. Large signal to small signal.
burning of: C. Small signal to standard logic levels.
A. One diode. D. Standard logic levels to small signal.
B. Two diodes.
C. Three diodes. 135. A Random Access Memory (RAM) is:
D. Four diodes. A. Volatile memory.
B. Non volatile memory.
127. The common base PNP junction transistor has C. Temporary memory.
reverse biased arrangement between: D. Permanent memory.
A. Emitter and base.
B. Emitter and collector. 136. The memory which is also called as 'Read Write
C. Collector and base. Memory' is:
D. Base and emitter. A. ROM.
B. RAM.
128. When the emitter/ base junction of a transistor is C. PROM.
reverse biased, collector current: D. EPROM.
A. Is reversed.
B. Increases. 137. The memory in which MOSFETS are used is:
C. Decreases. A. ROM.
D. Stops. B. PROM.
C. EPROM.
129. Loud speaker is: D. Static RAM.
A. An electrical device.
B. Mechanical device.
C. An electro mechanical device.
230
138. If an amitter follower has V CEQ = 5V, ICQ = 147. The power factor of the generator is ratio of.
mA and re = 1 K the maximum peak to peak A. total power and effective power.
unclipped output is. B. effective power and apparent power.
A. 1V. C. total power and apparent power.
B. 2V. D. none of the above.
C. 5V.
D. 10V. 148. The number of the ampere hours the
manufacturers claim the accumulator will give is.
139. Which of the following is not an advantage of A. rated capacity.
DC system. B. actual capacity.
A. Uses single pole switching. C. % capacity.
B. Mechanical and electrical problems with D. total capacity.
commutators.
C. Can be paralleled. 149. For conversion of AC to DC we use.
D. No load-balancing problem. A. alternators.
B. stabilizers.
140. Slip ring are used in. C. generators.
A. DC generator. D. rectifiers.
B. AC generator.
C. TRU. 150. DC power is converted to AC using.
D. None of these. A. Alternators.
B. stabilizers.
141. In aircraft DC power supply generators C. generators.
employed are. D. rectifiers.
A. self excited shunt wound.
B. separately excited. 151. The % capacity efficiency of battery is defined as
C. permanent magnet. the ratio of actual capacity to the rated capacity
D. none of the above. multiplied by.
A. 10.
142. The rms value of an A C is. B. 50.
A. peak/2. C. 60.
B. 2*peak. D. 100.
C. peak/v2.
D. (peak)2. 152. The aircraft electrical system uses.
A. AC and DC.
143. The main housing of a generator is. B. AC only.
A. yoke. C. DC only.
B. rotor. D. accumulator.
C. winding.
D. none of the above. 153. The procedure where build up or collapse of the
main EM flux is slowed down by a second and
144. The brushes used in air craft generator are of. opposing magnetizing force is.
A. natural graphite. A. Induction.
B. artificial graphite. B. slugging.
C. Copper. C. relaying.
D. iron. D. none of these.

145. The standard frequency used in A/C system is. 154. The function of the inverter is.
A. 400 Hz. A. AC to DC conversion.
B. 50 Hz. B. amplify AC.
C. 60 Hz. C. DC to AC.
D. 25 Hz. D. none of these.

146. The frequency generator in cps is. 155. Voltage of each cell in the lead acid accumulator
A. (rev/min) x pair of poles/ 100. should be.
B. (rev/sec) x pair of poles/60. A. 10 v.
C. (rev/min) x pair of poles/ 60. B. 20 v.
D. none of the above. C. 9 v.
D. 2 v.
231
156. The electro graphitic brushes made up of carbon A. Parallel to the armature.
absorbs moisture due to. B. Series parallel to the armature.
A. fine pores. C. Series with the armature.
B. high conductivity. D. Parallel to the field winding.
C. low conductivity.
D. none of the above. 165. Intermittent electrical faults in an A/C can be
effectively located and rectified by :
157. In twin generator system ,third coil is wound on A. Operating faulty system in air.
core for. B. Using continuity and insulation tester.
A. generation of voltage. C. Replacing entire wiring system.
B. generation of eddy current. D. Simulating conditions of systematic vibration.
C. for separation of parallel relays.
D. none of the above. 166. In a primary cell, the complete impurity cell
formed, consists of :
158. When the A/C is subjected to sudden severe A. Zinc as +ve, impurity as -ve and H2SO4 as
deceleration such would occur in crash landing, all electrolyte.
fire extinguishers are automatically operated by the B. Zinc as -ve, impurities as +ve.
action of : C. Copper as +ve, impurity as -ve.
A. Push s/w type 'C'. D. zinc as -ve, impurity as +ve and H2SO4 as
B. Dimmer s/w. electrolyte.
C. Inertia s/w.
D. Type 'D' circuit breaker. 167. In a simple cell, the formation of film of
hydrogen during the chemical action Between the
159. The component which combines the function of Zinc and the electrolyte is known as :
circuit protector and switch is : A. Local action.
A. Tumbler switch. B. Polarisation.
B. Fuse. C. Sulphation.
C. Micro switch. D. De-polarisation.
D. Circuit breaker.
168. The shelf life (storage ) of dry cells depends
160. the most suitable method operation used in CBs, upon :
to trip in the event of reverse current when used in A. Polarization.
DC circuit is. B. Local action.
A. thermal. C. Its useful life.
B. Manual. D. Its capacity.
C. electromagnetic.
D. both thermal and electromagnetic. 169. In secondary cells discharge rate of current
multiplied by 10 gives the :
161. Slugged relay operates on the principle of : A. Capacity of the cell.
A. Faraday's law. B. Nominal capacity of the cell.
B. Joule's law. C. Effective capacity of the cell.
C. Coloumb's law. D. Terminal voltage of the cell.
D. Lenz's law.
170. If two or more cells are connected in series:
162. In linear actuator, equal armature speeds in both A. Voltage will be same and capacity increases.
the direction of rotation can be adjusted by means of. B. Voltage will be same and capacity decreases.
A. Brush rocker arm. C. The total capacity will be same of single cell and
B. electromagnetic brake. voltage increases.
C. Input voltage regulation. D. Capacity and voltage be same.
D. Armature with limit switches.
171. In a lead acid cell internal short circuit is
163. Over travel of plungers, when a linear actuator is indicated by :
switched off, is prevented by. A. Failure of SG to rise after charge to correct value.
A. Limit switches. B. Excessive gassing on charge.
B. Electromagnetic brake. C. No gassing on charge or a low terminal voltage.
C. Torque reaction ears. D. High voltage reading on charge.
D. Split field motor.
172. A non return valve fitted in the air inlet of battery
164. In rotary actuators the break coil is connected in : pressurization chamber used to:
232
A. Escape of electrolyte. 181. During initial filling of Lead acid batteries, the
B. Prevent fumes and gases escaping into aircraft. level of electrolyte usually be:
C. Prevent thermal run-away. A. 1/4 inch above separators.
D. Provide better connection. B. 1/2 inch above separators.
C. 3/4 inch above separators.
173. The main purpose of non spill vent plug in D. 1 inch above separators.
aircraft battery is to :
A. Allow the gas to escape. 182. When the first insulation test on a wet silver zinc
B. Allow the electrolyte to escape. charged battery found low, action to be taken is:
C. Fill the electrolyte into the cell. A. Categorize.
D. Add the water into electrolyte. B. Remove the cells and retest.
C. Charge the battery and retest.
174. The positive electrode of Dry cell is made of: D. Clean the cells with boric acid, dry ,assemble and
A. Carbon. retest.
B. Copper.
C. Zinc. 183. As a whole an atom is electrically neutral, due to
D. Platinum. A. Equal Number of neutrons and electrons.
B. Equal and opposite charge of protons and neutrons.
175. Average EMF or Nominal voltage of an alkaline C. Presence of valance electrons.
cell is: D. Equal and opposite charges of protons and
A. 2 Volts. electrons.
B. 2.7 Volts.
C. 1.7 Volts. 184. In an atom the number of electron in an orbit is
D. 1.2 Volts. given by the formula:
A. 1.6 X 10 to the power of -19.
176. Negative plate of Alkaline batteries are made of: B. 1.6 X 10 to the power of -18.
A. Steel. C. 1.6 X 10 to the power of -14.
B. Spongy lead. D. 2n x n.
C. Nickel hydroxide.
D. Iron. 185. Swamping is process of inserting a :
A. High value resistance in series with the collector.
177. After capacity test a lead acid battery should be B. Low value resistance in series with the collector.
given : C. Low value resistance in series with the emitter.
A. Insulation test. D. High value resistance in series with the emittter.
B. Routine charge.
C. Initial charge. 186. As a whole, an atom is electrically :
D. Rest for 12 hours. A. Positively charged.
B. Negtively charged.
178. In Digital Capacity tester 400 counts is equal to: C. Neutral.
A. 10 Ampere hour. D. charged particle.
B. 5 Ampere hour.
C. 1 Ampere. 187. The type of emission, in which amount of
D. 2 Ampere. emitted electrons depends upon the intensity of the
light radiation, is.
179. In heavy discharge cell tester, the value of A. Thermionic emission.
resistance connected across the volt meter is. B. secondary emission.
A. 0.035 ohms. C. photo emission.
B. 0.35 ohms. D. Field emission.
C. 0.005 ohms.
D. 0.030 ohms. 188. Thoriated tungsten cathode is designed to work
at :
180. In Lead Acid batteries, the specific gravity of the A. 5 to 10 volts.
electrolyte should be: B. 5 to 50 volts.
A. 1.840. C. 50 to 500 volts.
B. 1.640. D. (a) 500 to 5000 volts.
C. 1.270.
D. 1.170. 189. The additional energy required by an electron to
overcome the surface barrier of the metal is called :
A. Electron emission.
233
B. Work function. C. Avlanche breakdown.
C. Thermionic emission. D. Forward current.
D. Surface emission.
198. To obtain recombination current as well as larger
190. The purpose of grid in a vacuum tube is to collector current, a NPN transistor to be biased :
control the : A. Forward Forward.
A. Input voltage applied to cathode. B. Forward Reverse.
B. Input voltage applied to anode. C. Reverse Forward.
C. Flow of electrons between cathode and anode. D. Reverse Reverse.
D. Flow of electrons from anode to cathode.
199. A medium in which an electric field can exist
191. Intensity of the light spot, in an ESCRT is without creating a current or it is a non-conductor of
controlled by : electricity or insulator is called:
A. Focusing anode. A. Dielectric strength.
B. accelerating anode. B. Breakdown voltage.
C. control grid. C. Breakdown in electric field.
D. electrostatic deflecting plates. D. Dielectric.

192. The main function of accelerating electrode in an 200. The tetrode valve has the disadvantage of :
ESCRT is to : A. Inter electrode capacitance.
A. Control intensity of light spot. B. Inter electrode inductance.
B. Eliminate highly divergent electrons. C. Shielding action of grid.
C. Focusing the beam into a spot. D. Kink effect at low plate potential.
D. Deflecting the beam into the screen.
201. In pentode valve, suppressor grid is inserted
193. The focusing adjustment in an ESCRT is between :
achieved by : A. Cathode and plate.
A. varying first anode voltage. B. Plate and screen grid.
B. varying second anode voltage. C. Cathode and screen grid.
C. varying grid voltage. D. Cathode and grid.
D. varying accelerating electrode.
202. The purpose of screen grid in a tetrode valve is to
194. The substance which have overlapping valance reduce inter electrode :
and conduction band are termed as : A. Capacitance between anode and grid.
A. Semiconductors. B. Capacitance between cathode and anode.
B. Insulators. C. Inductance between cathode and grid.
C. Conductors. D. Inductance between cathode and anode.
D. Di-electric.
203. The reduction in plate current with increasing
195. A PN junction diode can be formed by doping plate voltage is called:
silicon with : A. Mutual characteristics.
A. Antimony and phosphorous. B. Kink effect.
B. Arsenic and antimony. C. Amplification factor.
C. Boron and gallium. D. Power factor.
D. Arsenic and indium.
204. For deflection of the electron beam around the
196. When silicon is doped with Arsenic, the type of center of the screen is obtained in an ESCRT, by
semiconductor formed is : applying the signal to :
A. N type extrinsic. A. x-x plates.
B. P type extrinsic. B. Control grid.
C. N type intrinsic. C. Final anode.
D. P type intrinsic. D. y-y plates.

197. In a lightly doped reverse biased PN junction 205. The process of adding impurities to a
diode, at break down voltage flooding occurs due to semiconductor is known as :a.
electric field causing collisions of charge carriers A. Doping.
results in : B. Mixing.
A. Zener breakdown. C. Biasing.
B. Transient current. D. Super imposing.
234
206. Barrier potential of silicon at 25 Deg C is: B. Applied voltage.
A. 0.7 V. C. Cut-in voltage.
B. 0.5 V. D. Breakdown voltage.
C. 0.3 V.
D. 0.03 V. 215. In a reverse biased PN diode the point at which
reverse current rises sharply is known as :
207. An atom is said to be stable when its valance A. Knee voltage.
orbit contains : B. Applied voltage.
A. 16 electrons. C. Barrier potential.
B. 8 Electrons. D. Reverse breakdown voltage.
C. 4 Electrons.
D. 2 Electrons. 216. The value of bulk resistance of a silicon diode,
when forward voltage drop is 1.5V at a forward DC
208. The inherent property of an atom is to : current 2 A, is equal to.
A. Attract another atom. A. 4 ohms.
B. Stay as free atom. B. 0.4 ohms.
C. Accelerate at high speed. C. 40 ohms.
D. Achieve stable state. D. 10 ohms.

209. Barrier potential of Germanium at 25 Deg C is: 217. The purpose of filter circuit in rectifiers is to :
A. 0.1 V. A. Convert AC into DC.
B. 0.2 V. B. convert DC into AC.
C. 0.3 V. C. Convert pulsating AC into a steady DC.
D. 0.7 V. D. Convert a pulsating DC into a steady DC.

210. Barrier potential decreases with temperature at 218. The heavily doped region in a transistor is :
the rate of : A. Base.
A. 0.2 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. B. Emitter.
B. 0.02 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. C. Collector.
C. 0.002 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. D. Depletion layer.
D. 0.0002 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp.
219. If an NPN transistor is Reverse Reverse biased
211. The purpose of suppressor grid in pentode valve (ie, emitter is reverse biased and collector reverse
is to : biased ), then the emitter and collector current will be
A. Reduce inter electrode capacitance between A. Zero.
cathode and grid. B. Maximum.
B. Reduce inter electrode capacitance between C. Zero an maximum respectively.
cathode and anode. D. Maximum and zero respectively.
C. Eliminate undesirable kink effect.
D. Eliminate electron cloud. 220. In an unbiased transistor, the width of emitter
depletion layer when compared to the width of
212. The reverse current, when a PN junction diode is collector depletion layer is :
reverse biased, that drops to zero after thE depletion A. Equal.
layer stops growing is known as : B. Smaller.
A. Surface leakage current. C. Larger and smaller respectively.
B. Minority carrier current. D. Larger.
C. Transient current.
D. Reverse breakdown current. 221. The minority carriers in a CE configurated NPN
transistor collector region causes :
213. The value of bulk resistance of a silicon diode, A. Base current.
when forward voltage drop is 1.2 V for a forward DC B. Emitter current.
current of 100 mA , is equal to : C. Breakdown of transistor.
A. 5 ohm. D. Leakage current.
B. 50 ohm.
C. 25 ohm. 222. While analyzing the DC load line of a transistor,
D. 0.1 ohm. the point of intersection with the calculated base
current is known as:
214. The knee voltage of a PN diode equals to: A. Saturation point.
A. Barrier potential. B. Cutoff point.
235
C. Quiescent point. 231. In a common collector amplifier, output signal is
D. Breakdown point. taken from :
A. Across the collector and earth.
223. The process of applying appropriate voltage to a B. Across the base and emitter.
transistor is called : C. Across the emitter resistor.
A. Voltage regulation. D. Across the collector and base.
B. Forward biasing.
C. Biasing. 232. The phase difference of 180 Deg between the
D. Reverse biasing. input signal voltage and output signal voltage in a
common emitter amplifier is called :
224. Connecting transistor in a circuit, whereby, the A. Amplification factor.
input is fed between common terminal and one of the B. Voltage reversal.
other two and output is taken between common and C. Phase reversal.
one of the remaining terminal is called : D. Current reversal.
A. Biasing.
B. Configuration. 233. The small signal amplifiers are rated for a
C. Feed back. maximum power output of :
D. Coupling. A. 1/2 Watt.
B. 1 Watt.
225. The method of biasing, in which gain reduces C. 5 Watts.
due to negative feedback is : D. 10 Watts.
A. Base bias.
B. Emitter feedback bias.
C. Collector feedback bias. 234. The main draw back of direct coupling is :
D. Voltage divider bias. A. Input impendence is very low.
B. Drift.
226. A coupling capacitor connects : C. Output impendence is very high.
A. A grounded point to an un grounded point. D. output impendence is very low.
B. An ungrounded point to a grounded point.
C. A grounded point to another grounded point. 235. The maximum possible collector efficiency of a
D. an ungrounded point another ungrounded point. class A amplifier with resistive load is:
A. 15 %.
227. A by pass capacitor connects : B. 25 %.
A. A grounded point to an ungrounded point. C. 45 %.
B. An ungrounded point to a grounded point. D. 50 %.
C. A grounded point to another grounded point.
D. An ungrounded point to another ungrounded point. 236. The maximum possible overall efficiency of a
class A amplifier with resistive load is :
228. Mingling of AC quantity with DC quantity A. 10 %.
during amplification of a signal avoided by the use B. 25 %.
of : C. 50 %.
A. Capacitor. D. 75%.
B. Resistor.
C. Inductor. 237. In Colpitts oscillators a phase shift of 180 Deg is
D. Thermister. achieved through :
A. Capacitors.
229. One common feature of capacitors when used for B. Inductance.
coupling and bypass is that they : C. An auto-transformer.
A. Block AC and short DC to ground. D. Tank circuit.
B. Block DC and short AC to ground.
C. Improve current gain. 238. The Wien bridge oscillator is the most widely
D. Are used only in output stage. used oscillator for frequencies in the range o.
A. 5 HZ to 1 MHZ.
230. A saturated SCR can turned off only by : B. 15 HZ to 2.5 MHZ.
A. Removing the gate pulse. C. 20 HZ to 3 MHZ.
B. Reducing the gate trigger. D. 30 HZ to 30 MHZ.
C. Increasing the gate trigger to saturation.
D. Reducing the load current below the holding 239. The Q factor of a crystal circuit is in the order of
current. A. 5000 and above.
236
B. 10,000 and above. B. Load current only.
C. 15,000 and above. C. Phase difference.
D. 20,000 and above. D. Field excitation current.

240. In Hartley oscillators, a phase shift of 180 Deg is 249. In three phase alternator synchronizing the
achieved through : phases are connected in the proper order of:
A. A tank circuit. A. RYB.
B. An inductance. B. RBY.
C. A capacitance. C. BYR.
D. An auto-transformer. D. YBR.

241. High energy ignition unit gives : 250. In frequency wild generator the secondary
A. 500 sparks/sec. winding of the compounding transformer are in.
B. 60 sparks / sec. A. Series with three phases of generator.
C. 2 sparks / minute. B. Series with compounding rectifier.
D. 60 sparks/ minute. C. Parallel with three phases of generator.
D. Parallel with compounding rectifier.
242. In HFIU the gap between the ionizing electrode
and one main electrode is. 251. In aircraft rotary inverter, out put voltage can be
A. 0.093". varied by:
B. 0.001". A. Adjusting the series field rheostat.
C. 0.01". B. Voltage regulator adjustment.
D. 0.039". C. Increasing or decreasing current in series field and
243. In HFIU the gap between the two main armature.
electrodes is. D. Adjusting shunt field rheostat.
A. 0.01".
B. 0.001". 252. The speed and voltage of rotary inverter can be
C. 0.093". adjusted by a :
D. 0.93". A. Rheostat in the series field.
B. Trimmer in the equalizing field.
244. The purpose of choke in HEIU is to : C. Rheostat in the shunt field.
A. Control duration of discharge. D. Rheostat in the equalizing field.
B. Control input supply.
C. Control the circuit. 253. In modern a/c generators during varying speed &
D. None of the above. load condition the effect of armature reaction is
controlled by.
245. The functional test on HFIU is carried out with A. Interpoles.
an input voltage of : B. Interpoles & shifting of brushes.
A. 24 V. C. Compensating windings.
B. 12V. D. Interpoles and compensating windings.
C. 28V.
D. 16 V. 254. The field magnets and armature core in a
generator are made of lamination to minimize the
246. The purpose of ignition in a/c is to : effect of:
A. Provide air and fuel. A. Eddy current.
B. Ignite fuel and air mixture. B. Commutation.
C. Control flow of air and fuel. C. Sparking at the brushes.
D. None of the above. D. Hysterisis loss.

247. Rotating magnet type magneto in one revolution 255. The magnetic field in DC generator is provided
produce. by the field system consisting of:
A. 2 sparks. A. Field magnet and current.
B. 4 sparks. B. Field coil and magnet.
C. 5 sparks. C. Yoke and armature.
D. 8 sparks. D. Armature and voltage.

248. Armature reaction in aircraft alternators is 256. Lap winding is used in the armature for:
determined by: A. High current and low voltage.
A. Power factor and load current. B. High voltage and low current.
237
C. High voltage and high current.
D. Low voltage and low current.
257. The distance measured in terms of armature slots
between the two sides of the coil is known as:
A. Front pitch.
B. Coil span.
C. Pole pitch.
D. Back pitch.
258. Wave winding is used in the armature for:
A. High current and low voltage.
B. High voltage and low current.
C. High voltage and high current.
D. Low current and low voltage.
259. Auxiliary power unit supplies power in the event
of :
A. TRU failure.
B. Generator failure.
C. Engine failure.
D. None of the above.
260. Cooling centrifugal fan fitted at driving end of a
DC generator is meant for.
A. heat dissipation when generator is not running.
B. to assist slip stream air flow during flight.
C. to cool generator during ground run.
D. to facilitate bench testing.
261. The starter generator will run at its optimum
efficiency if it is:
A. run at maximum operating speed.
B. run at 30% total load current.
C. Provided with additional interpole to counteract the
voltage.
D. Provided with slip stream cooling system.
262. The purpose of bi-metal ring in armature of
carbon pile voltage regulator is to:
A. Provide compensation for variation in temperature.
B. Dissipate the heat.
C. Connect the pile into the field circuit.
D. Enable the core to be locked in position.
263. Trimmer resistance in voltage regulator is used:
A. to increase the current.
B. to raise the voltage.
C. for dip setting.
D. for minor setting of voltage in aircraft.
264. The zener diode in solid state voltage regulator is
used to.
A. Amplify the output in the emitter circuit of TR3.
B. Control the initial current to the base of TR2.
C. Switch on the transistor TR1.
D. Establish the system operating voltage.
238
265. In two coil method of stabilization, the series
stabilizer coil is used to:
A. Assist the shunt stabilizer coil.
B. Assist the main coil.
C. Oppose the shunt stabilizer coil.
D. Oppose the ballast resistance.
266. The feed back resistance in a voltage regulator is
connected in series with:
A. Shunt field.
B. Ballast resistance.
C. Stabilizer coil.
D. Trimmer resistance.
267. In negative feed back stabilization a fall in
voltage creates a resultant flux that.
A. Assist the main coil flux.
B. Opposes the main coil flux.
C. Assist the stabilizing coil flux.
D. Opposes the stabilizing coil flux.
268. In equalized voltage control system, equalizer
coils are connected between:
A. Negative of the two generators.
B. Positive and negative of generators.
C. Any set of positive brushes.
D. Negative brush ring of each generator.
269. The definite drop to the voltage load
characteristics of shunt generator in parallel op.
A. Decompounding coil.
B. Stabilizer resistance.
C. Shunt coil.
D. Equalizing coil.
270. In compensated decompounding system, the
main coil of voltage regulator is connected.
A. In series with master regulator carbon pile.
B. In series with main coil.
C. In parallel with master regulator carbon pile.
D. In parallel with M.R carbon pile.
271. In master regulator system the carbon pile of
master regulator is connected.
A. In series with the fields of parallel generators.
B. In series with operating coil of main regulators.
C. Across the operating coils.
D. In series with decompounding coil.
272. When shunt generators are operated in parallel,
the satisfactory distribution of fairly.
A. De compounding coil.
B. Main winding of individual regulators.
C. Equalizing coil.
D. Compensated de compounding of regulator.
273. If the carbon pile regulator hunts on application
of load, the possible cause can be.
A. Core screw is loose.
B. High resistance in piles.
C. Open circuit in feed back resistance. A. Depends on the load carried by the generator
D. Pile compression screw is out of adjustment. B. Is controlled by the reverse-current cutout relay
point clearance
274. In Carbon pile voltage regulator, voltage setting C. Is increased when the external load is greater than
is done by: the generator output
A. Pile compression screw.
B. Magnet core screw. 283. What is a cause of generator brush arcing?
C. Pile screw. A. Seating brushes with no. 000 standpaper
D. Decompounding coil. B. Carbon dust particles
C. Low spring tension
275. In an aircraft, the generator voltage varies with
load, the cause may be: 284. When ac generators are operated in parallel, the
A. Carbon pile electric circuit of regulator faulty. A. Amperes and frequency must both be equal
B. Generator output low. B. Frequency and voltage must both be equal
C. Regulator out of adjustment. C. Amperes and voltage must both be equal
D. Regulated voltage too high.
285. The starting current of a series-wound dc motor,
276. Operation of Fire extinguisher is categorized in passing through both the field and armature
under: windings, produces a
A. Essential services. A. Low starting torque
B. Non-essential services. B. Speed slightly lighter when unloaded
C. Vital services. C. High starting torque
D. Allied services.
286. Which motor would be most likely to have an
277. In split bus bar system, when battery relay fails armature brake?
to close it contacts, this will result. A. Starter motor
A. Essential AC consumers. B. Landing light refraction motor
B. Vital DC consumers. C. Inverter drive motor
C. Charge the batteries.
D. Essential DC consumers. 287. The method most often used in overcoming the
effect of armature reaction is through the use of
278. Some electric motors have two sets of field A. Interpoles
windings wound in opposite directions so that the B. Shaded poles
A. Speed of the motor can be more closely controlled C. Drum-wound armatures in combination with a
B. Power output of the motor can be more closely negatively connected series field
controlled
C. Motor can be operated in either direction 288. The only practical method of maintaining a
constant voltage output from an aircraft generator
279. One purpose of a growler test is to determine the under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary
presence of the
A. An out of round commutator A. Strength of magnetic field
B. A broken field lead B. Number of conductors in the armature
C. A shorted armature C. Speed at which the armature rotates

280. Electric wire terminals for most aircraft 289. The pole pieces or shoes used in a dc generator
applications must be what type? are a part of the
A. Slotted A. Armature assembly
B. Hook B. Field assembly
C. Rink C. Brush assembly

281. What is the principal advantage of the series- 290. How many cycles of ac voltage are produced in a
wound dc motor? six-pole alternator of the revolving field type for each
A. High starting torque revolution of the rotor?
B. Suitable for constant speed use A. Four
C. Low starting torque B. Three
C. Six
282. If a generator is equipped wsith a vibrator type
voltage regulator, the actual time the voltage regulator 291. If the reverse current cutout relay contact . . . . .to
points remain open open after the generator output has dropped below
239
battery potential, current will flow through the
…………
A. In the normal direction and through the shunt
opposite the normal direction
B. And the shunt field opposite the normal direction
C. Opposite the normal direction and through
the . . . .field in the normal direction
292. How does the magnetic brake used to stop
rotation of an electric motor armature operate?
A. Centrifugal force releases a rotating brake cog
from a stationary notch when the armature reaches a
certain speed and magnetic force re-engages the cog
when the electrical power is turned off.
B. A friction brake is applied by a magnet and
released by a spring.
C. A friction brake is applied by a spring and released
by a magnet.
293. In a generator, what eliminates any possible
sparking to the brush guides caused by the movement
of the brushes with the holder
A. The brush pigtail
B. Brush spring tension
C. Undercutting the mica on the commutator
294. A series-wound dc electric motor will normally
require
A. More current at high rpm than at low rpm
B. Approximately the same current throughout its
operating range of speed
C. More current at low rpm than at high rpm
295. The type of electric wire terminals used for most
aircraft applications, in addition to providing good
current carrying capabilities, are designed primarily
A. To prevent circuit failure due to terminal
disconnection
B. For uncomplicated and rapid circuit connection and
disconnection
C. For permanent connection to the circuit
296. Aluminium wire must be stripped very carefully
because
A. High resistance will develop in stripping nicks
B. Stripping nicks can cause short circuits
C. Individual strands will break easily after being
nicked
297. The commutator of a generator
A. Changes direct current produced in the armature
into alternating current as it is taken from the armature
B. Changes alternating current produced in the
armatureintodirectcurrentasit is taken from the
armature
C. Reverses the current in the field coils at the proper
time in order to produce direct current
240
298. An ammeter in a battery charging system is for
the purpose of indicating the
A. Amperage available for use
B. Total amperes being used in the airplane
C. Rate of current used to charge the battery
299. Which of the following is not one of the purposes
of interpoles in a generator?
A. Reduce field strength
B. Overcome armature reactiong
C. Reduce arcing at the brushes
300. To test generator or motor armature windings for
opens
A. Place armature in a growler and connect a 110V
test light on adjacent segments; light should light
B. Check adjacent segments on commutator with an
ohmmeter on the high resistance scale
C. Use a 12/24v test light between the armature core
segments and the shaft
301. What is the color and orientation of the position
lights for navigation on civil airplanes?
A. Left side- green, right side-red, rear aft - white
B. Left side_ red, right side-green, rear aft - white
C. Left side- white, right side-green, rear aft - red
302. To what depth is the mica insulation between the
commutator bars of a dc generator undercut?
A. One-half the width of the mica
B. Equal to twice the width of the mica
C. Equal to the width of the mica
303. A voltage regulator controls generator output by
A. Introducing a resistance in generator-to-battery
lead in the event of overload
B. Shorting out field coil in the event of overload
C. Varying current flow to generator field coil
304. Which type of dc generator is not used as an
airplane generator?
A. Externally grounded
B. Series wound
C. Compound wound
305. What is the most accurate type of frequency
measuring instrument?
A. Integrated circuit chip having a clock circuit
B. Electrodynamometers using electromagnetic fields
C. Electromagnets using one permanent magnet
306. During ground operation, aircraft generator
cooling is usually accomplished by
A. Auxiliary air cooled through an air/fuel heat
exchanger
B. An integral fan
C. An external motor-driven fan
307. What does a rectifier do?
A. Changes direct current into alternating current 315. For general electrical use in aircraft, the
B. Changes alternating current into direct current acceptable method of attaching a terminal to a wire is
C. Reduces voltage by
A. Crimping
308. What type of instrument is used for measuring B. Soldering
very high values of resistance? C. Crimping and soldering
A. Megohmmeter
B. Shunt type ohmmeter 316. Which of the following factors must be taken
C. Multimeter into consideration when determining the wire size to
use for an aircraf tinstallation?
309. When a diode is checked for an open circuit or a 1. Mechanical strength
short circuit, it should be 2. Allowable powerloss
A. In the circuit 3. Ease of installation
B. Checked with a milliamp ammeter 4. Resistance of current return path through the
C. Disconnected from the circuit aircraft structure
5. Permissible voltage drop.
310. When handling a high voltage capacitor in an 6. Current carrying capability of the conductor.
electrical circuit, be sure it 7. Type of load (continuous or intermittent)
A. Has a full charge before removing it from the A. 2,5,6,7
circuit B. 1,2,4,5
B. Has at least a residual charge before removing it C. 2,4,6,7
from the circuit
C. Is fully discharged before removing it from the 317. When selecting hardware for attaching bonding
circuit connections to an aircraft structure, which of the
following should be considered?
311. Which of the following is most likely to cause 1. Mechanical strength.
thermal runaway in a nickel-cadmium battery? 2. Allowable powerloss.
A. A high internal resistance condition 3. Ease of installation.
B. Excessive current draw from the battery 4. Amount of current to be carried.
C. Constant current charging of the battery to more 6. Type of load (continuous or intermittent).
than 100 percent of its capacity A. 1,3,5
312. How can it be determined if a transformer B. 4,5,6
winding has some of its turns shorted together? C. 1,2,3
A. Measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter
B. The output voltage will be high 318. How should the splices be arranged if several are
C. The transformer will get hot in normal operation to be located in an electrical wire bundle?
A. Staggered along the length of the bundle
313. Which of the following are the major parts of a B. Grouped together to facilitate inspection
de motor? C. Enclosed in a conduit
1. Armature assembly.
2. Field assembly 319. What is the minimum bend radii for an electrical
3. Brush assembly wire bundle?
4. Commutator A. Ten times the outside diameter of the bundle
5. Pole piece B. Five times the outside diameter of the bundle
6. Rheostat C. Fifteen times the outside diameter of the bundle
7. End frame
A. 1,2,3,7 320. When approved, splices may be used to repair
B. 2,3,4,5 manufactured harnesses or installed wiring. The
C. 3,5,6,7 maximum number of splices permitted between any
two connectors is
314. (1) There are three basic types of dc motors; A. One
series shunt, and compound. B. Two
(2) In the series motor, the field windings, consisting C. Three
of relatively few turns of heavy wire, are connected in
series with the armature winding. 321. An/ms electrical connectors are specifically
Regarding the above statements, designed to meet
A. Only no. 1 is true A. Technical standard order (TSO) specification
B. Only no. 2 is true B. Military specifications
C. Both no. 1 and 2 are true
241
C. International civil aviation organization (ICAO)
standards
322. The most common method of attaching a pin or
socket to an individual wire in an ms electrical
connector is by
A. Crimping
B. Soldering
C. Crimping and soldering
323. The pin section of an an/ms connector is
normally installed on
A. The power supply side of a circuit
B. The ground side of a circuit
C. Either side of a circuit (makes no differenct)
324. The voltage output of an alternator may be
regulated by controlling the
A. Speed of the alternator
B. Voltage output of the de exciter
C. Resistance in the rotor windings
325. If several long lengths of electrical cable are to
be installed in rigid conduit, the possibility of damage
to the cable as it is pulled through the conduit will be
reduced by
A. Dusting the cable with powdered graphite
B. Dusting the cable with powdered soapstone
C. Applying a light coat of dielectric grease
326. Grounding is electrically connecting a
conductive object the primary structure. One purpose
of grounding is to
A. Prevent current return paths
B. Allow static charge accumulation
C. Prevent development of radio frequency potentials
327. What is normally used to bond noncontinuous
stainless steel aircraft components?
A. Stainless steel jumpers
B. Copper jumpers
C. Aluminium jumpers
328. Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in
A. Volts
B. Ohms
C. Amperes
329. When adding a rheostat to a light circuit to
control the light intensity, it should be connected in
A. Parallel with the light
B. Series with the light
C. Series parallel with the light switch
330. Circuits that must be opened only in an
emergency or whose inadvertent activation could
endanger system frequently employ
A. Guarded switches
B. Push-pull type circuit breakers only (no switches)
242
C. Spring-loaded to off toggle or rocker switches
331. If one switch is used to control all navigation
lights, the lights are most likely connected
A. In series with each other and parallel to the switch
B. In series with each other and in series with the
switch
C. Parallel to each other and in series with the switch
332. Oil canning of the sides of aluminium or steel
electrical junction boxes is considered to be
A. Normal operation in vibration prone areas
B. A shorting hazard
C. Acceptable operation
333. Electricl wiring installed in aircraft without
special enclosing means (open wiring) offers the
advantages of ease of installation, simple
maintenance, and reduced weight. When bundling
open wiring, the bundles should
A. Be limited as to the number of cables to minimize
damage from a single electrical fault
B. Include at least one shielded cable to provide good
bonding of the bundle to the airframe
C. Be limited to a minimum bend radius of live times
the bundle diameter to avoid excessive stresses on the
cable insulation
334. During inspection of the terminal strips of an
aircraft electrical system, it should be determined that
A. Only locknuts have been used for terminal
attachment to the studs
B. The terminal studs are anchored against rotation
C. Only plain nuts and lockwashers have been used
for terminal attachment to the studs
335. What protection to wires and cables does conduit
provide when used in aircraft installations?
A. Electromagnetic
B. Mechanical
C. Structural
336. Which of the following should be accomplished
in the installation of aircraft wiring?
A. Support the bundle to structure and/or solid fluid
lines to prevent chafing damage
B. Provide adequate slack in the wire bundle to
compensate for large changes in temperature
C. Locate the bundle above flammable fluid lines and
securely clamp to structure
337. If the (+) terminal of a voltmeter is connected to
the (-) terminal of the source voltage and the (-)
terminal of the meter is connected to the (+) terminal
of the meter is connected to the (+) terminal of the
source voltage, the voltmeter will read
A. Correctly
B. Low voltage
C. Backwards
338. When using the voltage drop method of checking
circuit resistance, the
A. Input voltage must be maintained at a constant
value
B. Output voltage must be maintained at a constant
value
C. Input voltage must be varied
339. The nominal rating of electrical switches refer to
continuous
A. Current rating with the cotnacts open
B. Voltage rating with the contacts closed
C. Current rating with the contacts closed
340. Aircraft electrical junction boxes located in a fire
zone are usually constructed of
A. Asbestos
B. Cadmum plated steel
C. Stainless tell
341. To help minimize radio interference a capacitor
will largely elilminate and provide a steady direct
current if the capacitor is connected to the generator in
A. Parallel
B. Series
C. Series/parallel
342. The primary considerations when selecting
electric cable size are
A. Current carrying capacity and allowable voltage
drop
B. The voltage and amperage of the load it must carry
C. The system voltage and cable length
343. The navigation lights of some aircraft consist of
a single circuit controlled by a single switch which
has an on position and an off position, with no
additional positions possible. This switch is referred
to as a
A. Double-pole, single-throw (DPST), two position
switch
B. Single-pole, double-throw (SPDT), two position
switch
C. Single-pole, single-throw (SPST), two position
switch
344. Electric circuits are protected from overheating
by means of
A. Thermocouples
B. Shunts
C. Fuses
345. How does the routing of coaxial cables differ
from the routing of electrical wirig?
A. Coaxial cables are routed parallel with strigers or
ribs
B. Coaxial cables are routed at high agles to stringers
or ribs
C. Coaxial cables are routed as directly as possible
243
346. Which of the following copper electrical cable
sizes should be selected to replace a no. 6 aluminium
electrical cable?
A. No. 4
B. No. 6
C. No. 8
347. In installations where the ammeter
isinthegeneratororalternatorlead, and the regulator
system does not limit the maximum current that the
generatoror alternator can deliver,the ammeter can be
redlined a twhat percent of the generator or alternator
rating?
A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
348. Which statement relating to electric wiring is
true?
A. When attaching a terminal to the end of an electric
cable, it should be determined that the strength of the
cable to terminal joint is at least twice the tensile
strength of the cable
B. When attaching a terminal to the end of an electric
cable, it should be determined that the strength of the
cable to terminal joint is at least equal to the tensile
strength of the cable itself
C. All electric cable splices should be covered with
soft insulating tubing (spaghetti) for mechanical
protection against external abrasion.
349. Bonding connections should be tested for
A. Resistance value.
B. Amperage value
C. Reactance
350. What kind of switch should you install in a single
wire circuit that required the switch to be manually
held in the on position?
A. Single-pole, single-throw(SPST), two-position
normally open (NO)
B. Single-pole, single-throw (SPST), single-position
C. Single-pole, double-throw (SPDT), single-position
normally open (NO)
351. A circuit breaker is installed in an aircraft
electrical system primarily to protect the
A. Circuit and should be located as close to the source
as possible
B. Circuit and should be located as close to the unit as
possible
C. Electrical unit in the circuit and should be located
as close to the source as possible
352. How should a voltmeter be connected?
A. In series with the source
B. In parallel with the load
C. In series with the load.

353. A circuit protection deice called a current limiter
is essentially a slow-blow fuse and is designed to be
used in
A. 400 cycle ac circuits
B. Heavy power circuits
C. Starter-generator circuits
354. If it is necessary to use an electrical connector
where it may be exposed to moisture, the mechanic
should
A. Coat the connector with grease
B. Use a special moisture-proof type
C. Spray the connector with varnish or zinc-chromate
355. The three kinds of circuit-protection devices used
most commonly in aircraft circuits are
A. Circuit breakers, resistors and current limiters
B. Circuit breakers, fuses and current limiters
C. Circuit breakers, capacitors and current limiter
plug-ins mechanical reset types
356. If a wire is installed so that it comes in contact
with some moving parts, what protection should be
given the wire?
A. Wrap with soft wire solder into a shield
B. Wrap with friction tape
C. Pass through conduit
357. In the american wire gauge (AWG) system of
numbers used to designate electrical wire sizes, the
number assigned to a size is related to its
A. Combined resistance and current-carrying capacity.
B. Current carrying capacity
C. Cross sectional area
358. What is the allowable voltage drop for a no. 18
copper wire 50 feet long to carry 12.5 amperes,
continuous operation?
Use the formula VD = RLA
VD = voltage drop
R = resistance per ft =0.00644
L = length of wire
A = amperes
A. 1/2 V
B. 1 V
C. 4 V
359. What is the purpose of the selection of derated
switches for known continuous load current
applications?
A. To calculate the voltage drop across the circuit
B. To prevent short circuits in the motor field
windings
C. To obtain reasonable switch efficiency and service
life
360. What is the advantage of a circuit breaker when
compared to a fuse?
244
A. Never needs replacing
B. Always eliminates the need of a switch
C. Resettable and reusable
361. What is the advantage of a current limiter?
A. It breaks circuit quickly
B. It can be reset easily
C. It will take overload for a short period
362. Where electric cables must pass through holes in
bulkhoads, formers, ribs, firewalls, etc. The wires
should be protected from chafing by
A. Wrapping with electrical tape
B. Using a rubber grommet
C. Wrapping with plastic
363. In aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset
circuit breakers
A. Should not be used as circuit protective devices
B. Are useful where only temporary overloads are
normally encountered
C. Must be used in all circuits essential to safe
operation of the aircraft
364. A certain switch is described as a single-pole,
double throw switch (SPDT). The throw of a switch
indicates the number of
A. Circuits each pole can complete through the switch
B. Terminals at which current can enter or leave the
switch
C. Places at which the operating device (toggle,
plunger etc.) Will come to rest and at the same time
open or close a circuit
365. When considering an alteration, the criteria upon
which the selection of electric cable size should be
based are
A. Applied voltage ad allowable voltage drop
B. Current carrying capacity and allowable voltage
drop
C. Current carrying capacity and applied voltage
366. What is an important factor in selecting aircarft
fuses?
A. The current exceeds a predetermined value.
B. The voltage rating should be lower than the
maximum circuit voltage
C. Capacity matches the needs of the circuit.
367. The circuit breaker in the instrument lighting
system protects the
A. Lights from too much current
B. Wiring from too much current
C. Wiring from too much voltage
368. One advantage of using ac electrical power in
aircraft is
A. That ac electrical motors can be reveresed while dc
motors cannot
B. Greater ease in stepping the voltage up or down
C. That the effective voltage is 1.41 times the
maximum instantaneous voltage; therefore, less power
input is required.
369. Why are the iron cores of most induction coils
laminated?
A. To reduce the core reluctance
B. To increase the core permeability
C. To reduce the effects of eddy currents
370. Certain transport aircraft use ac electrical power
for all normal operation and battery furnished dc
electrical power for standby emergency use. In
aircraft of this type that operate no dc generators, the
batteries are kept charged by
A. Inverters which use the aircraft's ac generators as a
source of power
B. Alternators which use the aircraft's generators as a
source of power
C. Rectifiers which use the aircraft's ac generators as
a source of power
371. The voltage in an ac transformer secondary that
contains twice as many loops as the primary will be
A. Greater and amperage less than in the primary
B. Greater and the amperage greater than in the
primary.
C. Less and the amperage greater than in the primary
372. If the positive field lead between a generator and
a generator control panel breaks and is shorted while
the engine is running, a voltmeter connected to
generator output would indicate
A. Zero voltage
B. Residual voltage
C. Normal voltage
373. What is a method used for restoring generator
field residual magnetism?
A. Flash the fields.
B. Reseat the brushes
C. Energize the armature
374. The major advantages of alternating current (AC)
over direct current (DC) is the fact that its current and
voltage can easily be increased or decreased
A. By means of a inverter
B. By means of a rectifier
C. By means of a transformer
375. Which of the following must be accomplished
when installing an anticollision light?
A. Install a switch independent of the position light
switch
B. Use shielded electrical cable to assure fail safe
operation
C. Connect the anticollision light to the aircraft
position
245
376. The inductor-type inverter output voltage is
controlled by the
A. Number of poles and the speed of the motor
B. Voltage regulator
C. Dc stator field current
377. When using an ohmmeter to check the continuity
of a generator field coil, the coil should
A. Be removed from the generator housing.
B. Show high resistance when the meter prods are
connected to the terminals of the coil
C. Show very low resistance if it is a series field coil
378. The strength of the core of an electromagnet
depends upon the material from which it is
constructed and which of the folllowing?
A. The number of turns of wire in the coil and the
applied voltage
B. The number of turns of wire in the coil and the
amount of current(ampere) passing through the coil.
C. The size (cross section) and the number of turns of
wire in the coil and the applied voltage.
379. A voltage regulator controls generator voltage by
changing the
A. Resistance in the generator output circuit
B. Current in the generator output circuit
C. Resistance of the generator field circuit
380. The overvoltage control automatically protects
the generator system when excessive voltage is
present by
A. Opening the shunt field circuit
B. Opening and resetting the field control relay
C. Breaking a circuit to the trip coil of the field
control relay
381. When dc generators are operated in parallel to
supply power for a single lead, their controls include
an equalizer circuit to assure that all generators share
the load equally. The equalizer circuit operates by
A. Increasing the output of the low generator to equal
the output of the high generator
B. Decreasing the output of the high generator to
equal the output of the low generator
C. Increasing the output of the low generator and
decreasing the output of the high generator until they
are equal
382. Which of the following is considered to be an
intermittent duty circuit?
A. Anticollision light circuit
B. Landing light circuit
C. Instrument panel light circuit
383. The most common method of regulating the
voltage output of a compound dc generator is to vary
the
A. Current flowing through the shunt field coils
B. Total effective field strength by changing the
reluctance of the magnetic circuit
C. Resistance of the series field circuit
384. (Ref to Fig. 18) Which of the batteries are
connected together incorrectly?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
385. (Refer to Figure 19) Upon completion of the
landing gear extension cycle, the green light
illuminated and the red light remained lit. What is the
probable cause?
A. Short in the down limit switch
246
B. Short in the gear safety switch
C. Short in the up limit switch
386. If any one generator in a 24 volt dc system shows
low voltage, the most likely cause is
A. An out-of-adjustment voltage regulator
B. Shorted or grounded wiring
C. A defective reverse current cutout relay.
387. How can the direction of rotation of a dc electric
motor be changed?
A. Interchange the wires which connect the motor to
the external power source
B. Reverse the electrical connections to either the
field or armature windings
C. Rotate the positive brush one commutator segment
388. Aircraft which operate only ac generators
(alternators) as a primary source of electrical power
normally provide current suitable for battery changing
through the use of
A. A stepdown transformer and a rectifier
B. An inverter and voltage dropping resistor
C. A dynamotor with a hall-wave dc output
389. During inspection of an anticollision light
installation for condition and proper operation, it
should be determined that
A. Electrical or mechanical inter-connections are
provided so that the anticollision light will operate at
all times that the position light switch is in the on
position
B. An appropriately rated fuse is in position at the
light to protect the connecting wiring against electrical
faultsw
C. The anticollision light can be operated
independently of the position lights.
390. Major adjustments on equipment such as
regulators, contactors and inverters are best
accomplished outside the airplane on test benches
with necessary instruments and equipment.
Adjustment procedure should be as outlined by
A. The equipment manufacturer
B. The FAA
C. Aircraft technical orders
391. A battery-generator system provides direct
current. On installations requiring alternating current
from the battery-generator system, it is necessary to
have
A. A transformer
B. An inverter
C. A variable resistor between the battery and
generator
392. A relay is
A. A magnetically operated switch
B. A device which converts electrical energy to
kinetic energy
C. Any conductor which receives electrical energy
and passes it on with little or no resistance
393. The purpose of a rectifier in an electrical system
is to change
A. The frequency of alternating current
B. Direct current to alternating current
C. Alternating current to diret current
394. What is the ratio of turns between the primary
coil winding and the secondary coil winding of a
transformer designed to triple its input voltage?
A. Primary will have one-third as many turns as its
secondary
B. Primary will have twice as many turns as its
secondary
C. Primary will have three times as many turns as its
secondary
395. In an ac circuit with no phase lead or lag, which
is true?
A. Real power is zero
B. Real power is greater than apparent power
C. Real power equals apparent power.
396. How are generators rated?
A. Watts at rated voltage
B. Amperes at rated voltage
C. The impedance at rated voltage
397. How is a shunt wound dc generator connected?
A. One field is shunted across the other
247
B. Both fields are shunted across the armature
C. The field and armature are shunted with a capacitor
398. The poles of a generator are laminated to
A. Reduce flux losses
B. Increase flux concentration
C. Reduce eddy current losses
399. What is the frequency of an alternator dependent
upon?
A. Voltage
B. RPM
C. Current
400. The generator rating is usually found stamped on
the
A. Firewall
B. Generator
C. Engine
401. Residual voltage is a result of magnetism in the
A. Field windings
B. Field shoes
C. Armature
402. In troubleshooting an electrical circuit, if an
ohmmeter is properly connected across a circuit
component and some value of resistance is read
A. The component has continuity and is open
B. Either the component or the circuit is shorted
C. The component has continuity and is not open
403. CSD driven generators are usually cooled by
A. Oil spray
B. An integral fan
C. Both ram air and an integral fan
404. A CSD unit drives a generator through the use of
A. A synchronous electric motor
B. An infinitely variable mechanical gearing system
C. A variable hydraulic pump and hydraulic motor
405. Integrated drive generator must be replaced if
A. The KVA has been exceeded by 10%
B. The unit has an overspeed of 10% of its design
operational speed
C. The pressure differential button is extended.
406 If the IDG scavenge oil filter is contaminated
with chunks or pieces of metal
A. Change the oil at 25 hour intervals
B. Remove and replace the idg
C. Replace athe oil and filter at 25 hour intervals
407. When necessary during operation, csd disconnect
is usually accomplished by
A. A switch in the cockpit
B. Circuit breaker activation
C. A shear section in the input shaft

408. A csd unit that is disconnected in flight, due to a
malfunction such as overtemperature, may be
reconnected
A. Automatically if the temperature falls back into the
normal operating range
B. Manually by the flightcrew
C. Only on the ground by maintenance personnel
409. The purpose of antiskid generators is to
A. Monitor hydraulic pressure applied to brakes
B. Indicate when a tire skid occurs
C. Measure wheel rotational speed and any speed
changes
410. In a brake antiskid system, when an approaching
skid is sensed, an electrical signal is sent to the skid
control valve which
A. Acts as a bypass for the debooster cylinders
B. Relieves the hydraulic pressure on the brake
C. Equalizes the hydraulic pressure in adjacent brake
411. An antiskid system is
A. A hydraulic system
B. An electrohydraulic system
C. An electrical system
412. Antiskid braking systems are generally armed by
A. A centrifugal switch
B. A switch in the cockpit
C. The rotation of the wheels above a certain speed
413. A typical takeoff warning indication system, in
addition to throttle setting, monitors the position of
which of the following?
A. Alierons, elevators, speed brake and steerable
fuselage landing gear.
B. Elevators, speed brake, flaps and stablizer trim
C. Aerodynamically actuated slats, elevators, flaps
and speed brake
414. The primary purpose of a takeoff warning system
is to alert the crew that a monitored flight control is
not properly set prior to takeoff. The system is
activated by
A. An 80 knot airspeed sensor
B. An ignition system switch not set for takeoff
C. A thrust lever
415. (1) An airspeed indicator measures the
differential between pilot and static air pressures
surrounding the aircraft at any moment of flight.
(2) An air speed indicator measures the differential
between pilot and cabin air pressures at any of flight.
Regarding the above statements,
A. Both no. 1 and no. 2 are true
B. Only no. 2 is true
C. Only no. 1 is true
248
416. The angle-of-attach detector operates from
differential pressure when the airstream
A. Is parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
B. Is not parallel to the true angle of attack of the
aircraft
C. Is parallel to the angle of attack of the aircraft
417. (1) When an airplane is slowed below
approximately 20 mph, the antiskid system
automatically deactivates to give the pilot full control
of the brakes for maneuvering and parking
(2) An antiskid system consists basically of three
components; wheelspeed sensors, control box and
control valves.
Regarding the above statements,
A. Only no 1 is true
B. Only no 2 is true
C. Both no 1 and no 2 are true
418. In an antiskid system, wheel skid is detected by
A. An electrical sensor
B. A discriminator
C. A sudden rise in brake pressure
419. Which of the following functions does a skid
control system perform?
1. Normal skid control.
2. Normal braking.
3. Fail safe protection.
4. Locked wheel skid control
5. Touchdown protection
6. Takeoff protection.
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,3,4,5
C. 1,2,5,6
420. In the air with the antiskid armed, current cannot
flow in the antiskid control box because
A. Landing gear squat switch is open
B. Landing gear down and lock switch is open
C. Landing gear antiskid valves are open
421. At what point in the landing operation does
normal skid control perform its function?
A. When wheel rotation deceleration indicates an
impending skid
B. When wheel rotation indicates hydroplaning
condition
C. Anytime the wheel is rotating
422. (1) An antiskid system is designed to apply
enough force to operate just below the skid point.
(2) A warning lamp lights in the cockpit when the
antiskid system is turned off or if there is a system
failure.
Regarding the above statements,
A. Only no. 1 is true
B. Only no. 2 is true
C. Both no. 1 and no. 2 are true
 428. Which of the following conditions is most likely
423. When an airplane's primary flight control to cause the landing gear warning signal to sound?
surfaces are set for a particular phase of flight, such as A. Landing gear locked down and throttle advanced
landing or takeoff, the corresponding control-surface B. Landing gear locked down and throttle retarded
indicating system will show C. Landing gear not locked down and throttle retarded
A. Flap/slat position
B. Speed break position 429. (Ref to fig. 20) What will illuminate the amber
C. Trim position indicator flight?
A. Closing the nosewheel gear full retract switch
424. The pneumatic (reed) type stall warning system B. Retanding one throttle and closing the left wheel
installed in some flight aircraft in activated by gear locked down switch
A. Static air pressure C. Closing the nose, left and right wheel gear full
B. Positive air pressure retract switches
C. Negative air pressure
430. (Refer to Fig 20) what is the minimum
425. Stall warning systems are generally designed to circumstance that will cause the landing gear warning
begin warning the pilot when a stall horn to indicate an unsafe condition?
A. Is imminent A. All gears up and one throttle retarded
B. Is starting to occur B. Any gear up and both throttles retarded
C. First affects the outboard portions of the wings C. Any gear not down and locked and one throttle
retarded
426. (Refer to fig. 19) What is the indication of there
landing gear position light under the following 431. Where is the landing gear safety switch usually
conditions: Aircraft on jacks, Landing gear in transit, located?
Warning horn sounding A. On the main gear shock strut
A. Extinguished B. On the landing gear drag brace
B. Flashing C. On the pilot's control pedestal
C. Illuminated
432. What safety device is actuated by the
427. (Refer to fig. 19) Which repair should be made if compression and extension of a landing gear strut?
the gear switch was placed in up position and the gear A. Uplock switch
does not retract? B. Downlock switch
A. Replace electrical wire no. 15 C. Ground safety switch
B. Replace the down limit switch

C. Replace electrical wire no. 12 433. Which repair would require a landing gear
retraction test?
249
A. Landing gear safety switch
B. Red warning light bulb 437. When a landing gear safety switch on a main
C. Gear downlock microswitch gear strut closes at littoff, which system is
deactivated?
434. Landing gear warning systems usually provide A. Landing gear position system
which of the following indications? B. Antiskid system
A. Red light for unsafe gear, no light for geardown, C. Aural warning system
green light for gear up
B. Green light for gear up and down, red light for 438. Microswitches are used primarily as limit
unsafe gear switches to
C. Red light for unsafe gear, green light for gear A. Limit generator output
down, no light for gear up B. Control electrical units automatically
C. Prevent overcharging of a battery
435. In most modern hydraulically actuated landing
gear systems, the order of gear and fairing door 439. When installing pneumatic surface bonded type
operation is controlled by deicer boots
A. Sequence valves A. Remove all paint from the area to be covered by
B. Shuttle valves the delcer boot
C. Microswitches B. Apply a solution of glycerin and water between the
rubber and the wing skin
436. What landing gear warning device(s) is/are C. Apply a sllastic compound between the boot and
incorporated on retractable landing gear aircraft? the wing skin
A. A visual indicator showing gear position 440. Which of the following are found in a laminated
integral

B. A light which comes on which the gear is fully electrically heated windshield system?
down and locked 1. Autotransformer
C. A horn or other aural device and a red warning light 2. Heat control relay
250
3. Heat control toggle switch 448. What is the purpose of the distributor valve in a
4. 24v dc power supply deicing system utilizing deicer boots?
5. Indicating light A. To equalize the air pressure to the left and right
A. 1,2,4,5 wings
B. 2,3,4,5 B. To sequence the deicer boots inflations
C. 1,2,3,5 symmetrically
C. To distribute anti icing field to the deicer boots
441. What controls the inflation sequence in a
pneumatic deicer boot system? 449. What is the purpose of the oil separator in the
A. Shuttle valve pneumatic deicing system?
B. Vaccum pump A. To protect the deicer boots from oil deterioration
C. Distributor valve B. To remove oil from air exhausted from the deicer
boots
442. What is the source of pressure for inflating deicer C. To prevent an accumulation of oil in the vaccum
boots on reciprocating engine aircraft? system
A. Vane-type pump
B. Gear type pump 450. Where are the heat sensors located on most
C. Piston type pump aircraft with electrically heated windshields?
A. Imbedded in the glass
443. Which of the following regulates the vaccum of B. Attached to the glass
the air pump to hold the deicing boots dellated when C. Around the glass
the pneumatic deicing system is off?
A. Distributor valve 451. Two possible sources of heat for the operation of
B. Pressure regulator a wing termal anti-icing system are
C. Suction relief valve A. First stage of the aircycle turbine, turbo
compressor
444. What may be used to clean deicer boots? B. Compressor bleed air, aircraft electrical system
A. Unleaded gasoline or jet a fuel C. Combustion heater, exhaust gases
B. Naphtha
C. Soap and water 452. What maintains normal windshield temperature
control in an electrically heated windshield system?
445. Some aircraft are protected against airframe icing A. Thermal overheal switches
by heating the leading edges of the airfoils and intake B. Thermistors
ducts. When is this type of anti-ice system usually C. Electronic amplifiers.
operated during flight?
A. Continuously while the aircraft is in flight 453. Arcing in an electrically heated windshield panel
B. In symmetric cycles during icing conditions to usually indicates a breakdown in the
remove ice as it accumulates A. Temperature sensing elements
C. Whenever icing conditions are first encountered or B. Autotransformers
expected to occur C. Conductive coating

446. Which of the following indications occur during
a normal operational check of a pneumatic deicer
system?
A. Relatively steady readings on the pressure gauge
and fluctuating readings on the vaccum gauge
B. Fluctuating readings on the pressure gauge and
relatively steady readings on the vaccum gauge
C. Pressure and vaccum gauges will fluctuate as the
deicer boots inflate and deflate
447. What method is usually emloyed to control the
temperature of an anti-icing system using surface
combusion heaters?
A. Thermo-cycling switches
B. Thermostats in the cockpit
C. Heater fuel shutoff valves
251
454. Which of the following connects vaccum to the
deicer boots when the systems is not in operation, to
hold the boots tightly against the leading edges in
flight?
A. Vaccum relief valve
B. Ejector
C. Distributor valve
455. How do deicer boots help remove ice
accumulations?
A. By preventing the formation of ice
B. By breaking up ice formations
C. By allowing only a thin layer of ice to build up
456. Why are the tubes in deicer boots alternately
inflated?
A. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps
distrubance of the airflow to a minimum
B. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes does not
disturb airflow 464. What should be used to melt the ice in a turbine
C. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes relieves the engine if the compressor is immobile because of ice?
load on the air pump A. Deicing fluid
B. Anti-icing fluid
457. Carburetor icing may be eliminated by which of C. Hot air
the following methods?
465. What is used as a temperature sensing element in
A. Alcohol spray and heated induction air an electrically heated windshield?
B. Ethylene glycol spray and heated induction air A. Thermocouple
C. Electrically heating air intake, ethylene glycol B. Thermistor
spray or alcohol spray C. Thermometer.

458. Why should a chemical rain repellent not be used 466. In what area of an aircraft would you find a
on a dry windshield? carbon monoxide detector?
A. It will etch the glass A. Surface combustion heater compartment
B. It will restrict visibility B. Cockpit and/or cabin
C. It will cause glass crazing. C. Engine and/or nacelle
467. What occurs when a visual smoke detector is
459. What is the principle of a windshield pneumatic activated?
rain removal system? A. A warning bell within the indicator alarms
A. An air blast spreads a liquid rain repellent evenly automatically
over the windshield that prevents raindrops from B. A lamp within the indicator illuminates
clinging to the glass surface automatically
B. An air blast forms a barrier that prevents raindrops C. The test lamp illuminates and an alarm is provided
from striking the windshield surface automatically
C. A pneumatic rain removal system is simply a
mechanical windshield wiper system that is powered 468. The types of fire-extinguishing agents for aircraft
by pneumatic system pressure. interior fires are
A. Water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical and
460. What mixture may be used as a deicing fluid to halogenated hydrocarbons
remove frost from an aircraft surface? B. Water, dry chemical, methyl bromide and
A. Ethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol cholorobromomothane
B. Methyl ethyketone and ethylene glycol C. Water, carbon tetrachloride, carbon dioxide and
C. Naptha and isopropyl alcohol dry chemical

461. Which of the following is the best means to use 469. When air samples contain carbon monoxide,
when removing wet snow from an aircraft? portable carbon monoxide detectors containing yellow
A. A brush or a squeegee silica gel will turn which color?
B. Hot air A. Blue
C. Warm water. B. Green
C. Red
462. What are three methods of anti-icing aircraft
windshields? 470. Smoke detection instruments are classified by
1. Blanket-type heating system their method of
2. An electric heating element in the windshield A. Construction
3. Heated air circulating system B. Maintenance
4. Hot water system C. Detection
5. Windshield wipers and anti-icing fluid
6. Ribbon type heating system 471. Smoke detectors which use a measurement of
A. 2, 3, 5 light transmissibility in the air are called
B. 1, 2, 6 A. Electromechanical devices
C. 2, 3, 4 B. Photoelectrical devices
C. Visual devices
463. What icing condition may occur when there is no 472. A contaminated carbon monoxide portable test
visible moisture present? unit would be returned to service by
A. Injector ice A. Heating the indicating element to 300 degree f to
B. Inlet ice reactivate the chemical
C. Carburetor ice B. Installing a new indicating element
252
C. Evacuating the indicating element with CO2
473. Which fire-detection system measures
temperature rise compared to a reference temperature?
A. Fenwal continuous loop
B. Lindberg continuous element
C. Thermocouple
474. Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment
of an aircraft is commonly detected by which
instrument?
A. Chemical reactor
B. Photoelectric cell
C. Sniffer
475. Light refraction smoke detectors
A. Measure a reduction if the amount of visible or
infrared light in the surrounding area
B. Sense light rellected from smoke particles passing
through a chamber
C. Use radiation induced ionization to detect the
presence of smoke
476. Why does the fenwal fire detection system use
spot detectors wired parallel between two separate
circuits?
A. A control unit is used to isolate the bad system in
case of malfunction
B. This installation is equal to two system: a main
system and a reserve system
C. A short may exist in either circuit without causing
a false fire warning.
477. A fire extinguisher container can be checked to
determine its charge by
A. Attaching a remote pressure gauge
B. Weighing the container and its contents
C. A hydrostatic test
478. What is the color code for fire-extinguisher
lines?
A. Brown
B. Yellow
C. Red and green
479. The most common cause of false fire warnings in
continuous loop fire detection systems is
A. Improper routing or clamping of loops
B. Moisture
C. Dents, kinks, or crushed sensor sections
480. A thermocouple in a fire detection system causes
the warning system to operate because
A. It generates a small current when heated
B. Heat decreases its electrical resistance
C. It expands when heated and forms a ground for the
warning system.
253
481. The thermocouple fire warning system is
activated by a
A. Certain temperature
B. Core resistance drop
C. Rate of temperature rise.
482. When used in fire-detection systems having a
single indicator light, thermal switches are wired in
A. Parallel with each other and in series with the light
B. Series with each other and the light
C. Series with each other ad parallel with the light
483. Built-in aircraft fire extinguishing systems are
ordinarily charged with
A. Carbon dioxide and nitrogen
B. Halogenated hydrocarbons and nitrogen
C. Sodium bicarbonate and nitrogen
484. In reference to aircraft fire-extinguishing
systems,
(1) during removal or installation, the terminals of
discharge cartridges should be grounded or shorted
(2) before connecting cartridge terminals to the
electrical system, the system should be checked with a
voltmeter to see that no voltage exists at the terminal
connections.
Regarding the above statements,
A. Only no 2 is true.
B. Both no 1 and no 2 are true.
C. Neither no 1 nor no 2 is true.
485. What method is used to detect the thermal
discharge of built-in fire-extinguisher system?
A. A discoloring of the yellow plastic disk in the
thermal discharge line
B. A rupture of the red plastic disk in the thermal
discharge line
C. The thermal plug missing from the side of the
bottle
486. The thermal switches of a bimetalic thermal
switch type the detection system are heat-sensitive
units that complete circuits at a certain temperature.
They are connected in
A. Parallel with each other and in parallel with the
indicator lights
B. Parallel with each other but in series with the
indicator lights
C. Series with each other but in parallel with the
indicator lights
487. (Refer to the Table) Using the chart, determine
the temperature range for a fire-extinguishing agent
storage container with a pressure of 330 PSIG
(consider 330 PSIG for both minimum and maximum
pressure).
A. 47 to 730 F
B. 47 to 710 F
C. 45 to 730 F
 A. Red disk on the side of the fuselage
B. Green disk on the side of the fuselage
Container Pressure Versus Temperature C. Yellow disk on the side of the fuselage

Container Pressure (PSIG) 491. If a fire-extinguisher cartridge is removed from a

Temperature 0 F discharge valve for any reason, it
Minimum Maximum
A. Must be pressure checked
B. Is recommended that the cartridge because only on
-40 60 145 the original discharge valve assembly
-30 83 165 C. Cannot be used again
-20 105 188
-10 125 210 492. Which of the following are fire precautions
0 145 230 which must be observed when working on an oxygen
10 167 252 system?
20 188 275 1. Display "no smoking" placards
30 209 295 2. Provide adequate fire fighting equipment
40 230 317 3. Keep all tolls and oxygen servicing equipment free
50 255 342 from oil or grease.
60 284 370 4. Avoid checking aircraft radio or electrical systems.
70 319 405
80 356 443 A. 1,3 and 4
90 395 483 B. 1,2 and 4
100 438 523 C. 1,2,3 and 4

493. Which fire extinguishing agent that is considered

488. (Refer to the Table) determine what pressure is
acceptable for a fire extinguisher when the
surrounding area temperature is 330 F
A. 215 to 302 psig
B. 214 to 301 psig
C. 215 to 301 psig
489. On a periodic check of fire-extinguisher
containers, the pressure was not between minimum
and maximum limits. What procedure should be
followed?
A. Release pressure if above limits
B. Replace the extinguisher container
C. Increase pressure if below limits
490. In some fire extinguishing systems, evidence that
the system has been intentionally discharged is
indicated by the absence of a
to be the least toxic?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Bromotrifluromethane (halon 1301)
C. Bromochloromethane (halon 1011)
494. Maintenance of fire detection systems includes
the
A. Repair of damaged sensing elements
B. Removal of excessive loop or element material
C. Replacement of damaged sensing elements
495. A squib as used in a fire protection system, is a
A. Temperature sensing device
B. Device for causing the fire extinguishing agent to
be released
C. Probe used for installing trangible disks in
extinguisher bottles

254
 FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. The capacity of the battery is measured in

________________ units. 19. _______are used primary for operations of short
duration .
2. Latent heat of a refrigerant should be
___________ .
20. In three phase a.c. circuits , _____circuit breakers
3. Servicing required for battery maintenance are are used .
_________.
21. The various losses of generators
4. ______ perform the conversion function by means are___,____,____.
of solid state or static circuit functions .
22. The servicing carried out on Lead acid batteries
5. The nature of battery installations is mainly are__,__,__servicing.
determined by ____and emergency power .
23. The capacity of a battery is given by the product
6. The DC systems have no ____________problem. of ____ and____.

7. The brush gear assembly comprises of the 24. The generators used in aircraft are _______
______and the______. generators .

8. ________are used in several types of small aircraft
employing low DC output .
9. The generator in an aircraft is cooled by ____which
enters through the end belt section of the casing.
10. ______ perform the conversion function by means
of solid state or static circuit functions .
11. The nature of battery installations is mainly
determined by ____and emergency power.
12. _____battery suffers a rapid temperature and
current rise once the battery is fully charged .
13. _______are shielded against electrostatic and
magnetic fields .
14. A battery is a device which converts ____energy
to _____energy.
15. The power ratings of DC generators are generally
given in _____.
16. Static invertors perform the conversion using
_______principles.
17. ____and___constitute the framework of power
distribution system .
18. _____are used for transmission of high tension
voltages in aircrafts .
25. The standard operating voltage in aircraft is ____ .
26. Specific gravity of fully charged Ni-Cd battery is
between ________ and _________.
27. Hydrometer is used to measure ____ of the
electrolyte.
28. Lead acid batteries are __________ type of
batteries.
29. The capacity of the battery is measured in
________________ units.
30. Servicing required for battery maintenance are
____________.
31. At cut off the base current in transistor is
________________.
32. The maximum efficiency of a class A amplifier is
_________.
33. The resistance of the p-channel of transistor is
called _______-.
34. In a MOSFET, the more negative the gate voltage,
the smaller the __________ current.
35. A ___________- diode has a negative resistance
in its characteristics.
36. A JFET is a _____________- controlled device
whereas a BJT is a _____________ controlled device.

255
 STATE TRUE OR FALSE
1. Proximity fuses are used are based on eletromagnet
principle.
2. DC cannot be paralleled.
3. The advantage of a system is that it requires no
commuters.
4. Switching and circuit clearance is more difficult in
DC.
5. A generator is a machine that converts mechanical
energy to electrical energy by process of thermal
induction.
6. Usually, the generators used in aircraft are of self-
excited, shunt wound type.
7. The armature reaction in a generator causes the
shifting of magnetic neutral axis.
8. The current regulator in a generator controls the
field excitation current.
9. A battery is said to have run away if it takes
decreasing charging current.
10. Capacity testing of batteries should be done at
least once a year.
11. Run-away is not a phenomenon that is peculiar to
constant potential charging systems.
12. The charging voltage for a battery is always
greater than that of the actual output voltage.
13. The internal resistance of battery can be raised by
lowering the surface current density and increasing
the area vetted by electrolyte.
14. The electrolyte solution of a Lead-Acid battery is
Potassium Hydroxide.
256
15. Pressure leak testing is carried out to detect cracks
in the adjacent cells .
16. Ducted loom is used for conveying cables in areas
of exposure to oil and hydraulic fluids .
17. Primary bonding conductors are used between
components and earth for which primary conductors
are not specifically required .
18. There is no risk of fire hazards during refueling
due to presence of static charges.
19. Screening process provides a low resistance path
for voltage producing unwanted RF interference.
20. Proximity fuses are used based on electromagnet
principle.
21. Separate rooms are used for charging acid
batteries and alkaline batteries.
22. In primary battery cells, active materials are
destroyed during discharge.
23. Alkaline batteries are primary batteries.
24. Routine servicing is required to estimate further
useful life of a battery.
25. The capacity of the battery is measured in
amperes-seconds units.
26. Alternator is used to crank the engines.
27. Specific gravity of fully charged Ni- Cd battery is
between 1.1 and 1.3.
28. Class ‘B’ is the most efficient way to operate a
transistor.
 WRITE SHORT NOTES ON
1. Ducted Loom.
2. Methods of cooling of generators.
3. Storage of aircraft cables.
4. Requirement of aircraft cables.
5. Requirement of electrical power in aircraft.
6. Classification of generators.
7. Chemical reaction of lead acid batteries.
257
8. Precautions to be taken using charging board.
9. Precautions to be taken in the battery charging
room.
10. List various tests conducted in battery charging
room.
11. Difference between primary and secondary
battery.
12. Define useful life and capacity of a battery.
 VERY SHORT ANSWERS
1. A potential difference of 250volts applied across a
circuit of resistance 500 ohms. Find the cu.
2. Briefly explain wattage rating of resistances.
3. Define Insulators.
4. Define Potentiometer and write its uses.
5. Define Specific Resistance or Resistivity.
6. Define Magnetism.
7. Describe Right Hand Grip Rule (for solenoid).
8. State the Lenz's Law.
9. Define Ohm's law.
10. Define Fleming's Right Hand Rule.
11. Define :- Dielectric constant of a condenser.
12. Name the effects of armature reaction in DC
Generator.
13. 212. Draw the logic circuit of X-OR Gate.
14. 213. Define the term Logic gate and write the
different logic gates of Digital Technique.
15. 214. Draw the circuit and logic symbol of AND
Gate.
16. 215. Draw the logic circuit and logic symbol of
NAND Gate.
17. 216. Draw the symbol and Truth Table for X-OR
Gate.
18. Define electrolysis and name two of its
application.
19. How the setting is done of over load release?
20. Define electrostatics.
21. Define: -(i) Polarization (ii) Local action.
22. What is the function of No-volt-coil in three-phase
star-delta starter?
23. What is impedance in an electrical circuit? State
the formula and the contributing factors?
24. Explain 'SLIP' in induction motor.
258
25. How Hunting is damped in synchronous motors?
26. What are the advantages of static UPS over rotary
UPS?
27. Define Back Emf in a DC motor.
28. Define Faraday's laws of electro-magnetic
Induction.
29. Describe atom and its structure.
30. Define: -(i) Atomic Number (ii) Atomic Weight.
31. Name the common faults in a lead acid
accumulator.
32. What is armature reaction and write its effects?
33. Write the disadvantages of magnetic amplifier.
34. Define Pole pitch in DC Generator.
35. Write the disadvantages of carbon Brushes in DC
Generator.
36. What is the function of Arithmetic and Logic Unit
in a Computer?
37. Write the purpose of Out Put Unit in Computer
System?
38. What are the functions of CPU in a Computer?
39. What are the applications of a Micro Processor?
40. Write the advantages of Electro static voltmeter .
41. Name Different types of Ammeters and
Voltmeter.
42. What is he various methods of measuring low
resistance in Wattmeter Induction type?
43. What do you understand by medium Resistances
from the point of view of measurement?
44. Explain briefly types of semi conductors.
45. Name the different applications of SCR.
46. Write Short notes on Inter pole.
47. What are the uses of shunt generator?
48. Briefly explain the working principle of a
Transformer.
49. Write short note on Mesh or Delta connection.
50. State the advantages of AC over DC.
51. Write short notes on Rating of Alternator.
52. What are the advantages of revolving field
alternator?
53. Write short note on SLIP in respect of 3Q
Induction motor.
54. What are the serious disadvantages of simple
magnetic amplifier?
55. Briefly explain the over load protection system in
Shunt motor starter.
56. Briefly explain the working principle of Static
Inverter.
57. Convert 3927.75(10) into Hexadecimal.
58. Differentiate between most significant bit (MSB)
and Least significant bit(LSB).
59. Briefly explain the procedure of converting a
decimal number into octal number.
60. Subtract 101 from 111 by using 2"S compliment.
61. Draw the logic circuit of X-OR Gate.
62. Define the term Logic gate and write the different
logic gates of Digital Technique.
63. Draw the circuit and logic symbol of AND Gate.
64. Draw the logic circuit and logic symbol of NAND
Gate.
65. Draw the symbol and Truth Table for X-OR Gate.
66. What are the classification of multi vibrator ?
67. Write the purpose of multi vibrator.
68. Define the term 'Register' in digital technique and
write its uses.
69. How will you assign a password to protect a word
document ?
70. Write the advantages of using Excel for
calculation.
71. Write the various menu options available in Menu
Bar.
72. Define the term Computer.
73. Write short note on A/D converter.
74. Write short notes on D/A converter.
75. Name the classification of resistance and briefly
explain about them.
76. Write short notes on Ratio meter Ohmmeter.
77. What is the disadvantage of moving coil
instrument?
78. Name the various effects utilized in secondary
instrument.
79. Define OHM`s Law.
80. Define Joule's Law.
81. What are the advantages and disadvantages of a
Thermocouple instrument?
82. Describe briefly the principle employed in
induction type instruments.
83. Name the various errors in Dynamo meter Watt
meter.
84. Write the major components of Cathode Ray
Tube.
85. What is C R O and list out its sub systems?
86. Precautions to be taken in the battery charging
room.
87. List various tests conducted in battery charging
room.
88. Difference between Primary and secondary
battery.
89. Methods of cooling of generators.
90. Storage of aircraft cables.
91. Classification of generators.
92. Thermal switches.
93. Chemical reaction of lead acid batteries.
94. Current limiters.
95. Attracted core heavy-duty relay.
96. Attracted armature light duty relay.
97. limiting resistors.
98. What kind of rectifier is used in the small DC
alternators installed in most light aircraft?
99. What kind of instrument would you use to
measure very high resistance?
100. When is it important that aircraft electrical
system wire bundles be enclosed in some type of
conduit?
101. What size aluminium wire would be proper to
replace a piece of four-gage copper wire?
102. What is the smallest size aluminium wire that is
approved for use in aircraft electrical systems?
103. What three things must be synchronized before
an aircraft AC generator is placed on the same bus
with another AC generator?
104. How can the direction of rotation of the armature
of a DC shunt-wound electric motor be reversed?
105. What is meant by flashing the field of a
generator?
106. How will you check the serviceability of aircraft
starting trolley batteries?
107. Write operation of battery leakage tester.
108. Explain the different methods of checking the
polarity of a battery.
109. Write the advantages of secondary cells over
primary cells.
110. Write short notes on "Sulphation".
111. What two things must you take into
consideration when selecting the wire size to use in an
aircraft electrical system installation ?
112. What is the maximum number of wires that
should be connected to any single stud in terminal
strip ?
113. How is a wire bundle protected from chafing
where the bundle goes through a hole in a fuselage
frame or bulkhead ?
114. What kind of clamp is used to secure a wire
bundle to the aircraft structure ?
115. Why are solder less splices usually better than
soldered splices in the wiring of an aircraft electrical
system ?
116. What size generator must be used in an aircraft
electrical system if the connected electrical load is 30
amps and there is no way of monitoring the generator
output ?
117. Why must a switch be derated if it is used in a
circuit that .........?
118. On which wing is the red navigation light?
119. What kind of fault can be found in a generator
armature with a growler?
120. Does an aircraft engine electric starter use a
series or a parallel motor?
121. What is the main disadvantage of aluminium
when over copper wire for use in an aircraft electrical
system?
122. What two things must you take into
consideration when selecting the wire size to use in an
aircraft electrical system installation ?
123. What is the maximum number of wires that
should be connected to any single stud in terminal
strip ?
124. How is a wire bundle protected from chafing
where the bundle goes through a hole in a fuselage
frame or bulkhead ?
125. What kind of clamp is used to secure a wire
bundle to the aircraft structure ?
126. Why are solder less splices usually better than
soldered splices in the wiring of an aircraft electrical
system ?
127. What size generator must be used in an aircraft
electrical system if the connected electrical load is 30
amps and there is no way of monitoring the generator
output ?
128. Why must a switch be derated if it is used in a
circuit that …………………………….?
129. On which wing is the red navigation light?
130. What kind of fault can be found in a generator
armature with a growler?
131. Does an aircraft engine electric starter use a
series or a parallel motor?
132. What is the main disadvantage of aluminium
when over copper wire for use in an aircraft electrical
system?
133. Explain local action in primary cell and how it
can be prevented.
134. Write the adverse effects of polarization in a
primary cell.
135. What are the precautions to be observed for
keeping dry cell in good condition?
136. Explain polarization and its effect on primary
cell.
137. Write the advantage and disadvantage of On
Board charge of Ni - Cadmium battery.
138. What are the steps involved in initial charging on
lead acid batteries?
139. What are the occasions at which capacity test is
carried out on a battery ?
140. Write points to be observed while charging
Alkaline batteries.
141. Write the purpose and procedure of Boost charge
on Alkaline battery.
142. Define electronics.
143. Define energy level.
144. Write short notes on vacuum diode.
145. How the electron beam is deflected left and right
on the screen in an ESCRT?
146. Define the term 'Fluorescence' and how it is
achieved in a CRT.
147. Write short notes on semiconductors.
148. Write short notes on ' Barrier Potential '.
149. Write short notes on ' Zener diode '.
150. Name the types of special diodes.
151. Name the various materials normally used for
manufacturing photo conductive cells.
152. Name the various uses of PIN diodes.
153. Write short notes on collector feed back bias.
154. Enumerate the advantages of transistors over
vacuum tubes.
155. Name various types of transistor configurations.
156. Name the types of Optical Fibers.
157. Explain why collector area in a transistor is
larger than emitter or base .
158. Briefly explain the general draw backs of LC
oscillators.
159. Enumerate the advantages of Wien bridge
oscillators.
160. Enumerate the advantages of crystal oscillators.
161. Write short notes on Piezo electric effect.
162. How will you check the serviceability of
Bonding Tester ?
163. Define Transducers.
164. Write short notes on Cathode Ray Oscilloscope.
165. Write short notes on Borescope.
166. Write the purpose of bonding tester.
167. What is the purpose of insulation on cables?
168. What are the advantages of stranding cables?
169. How do you prepare the area for potting
technique ?
170. Write the precautions to be observed while doing
Potting technique.
171. What are the causes of electrical interference?
172. Write the purpose of fuses used in aircraft.
173. What are the advantages of relay over switch ?
174. Write down the procedure of carrying out
mechanical adjustment in carbon pile voltage re.
175. Write the basic principle of solid state voltage
regulator?
176. Differentiate TBO and service life of a
component.
177. What are the checks carried out in the
commutator of a DC generators.
178. Write short notes on "Film forming brushes".
179. Write the principle parts of DC generators.
180. What are the two major factors which influence
the maximum continuous output in generato.
181. Enumerate the factors governing choice and
capacity of electrical power system.
182. How will you calculate the output EMF
generated in a DC Generator?
183. Write short note on Heat dissipater used in
voltage regulator.
184. Write the principle of Transformer Rectifier
Unit?
185. What are design and dimensional changer made
in modern aircraft DC external power plug.
186. Why external power connection to aircraft is
necessary?
187. Briefly explain the construction of external AC
power receptacle used in transport aircr.
188. What is the purpose of Auxiliary Power unit in
aircraft?
189. What is the purpose of reverse current circuit
breaker?
190. What are the disadvantages of DC power supply?
191. What are the various types of alternator?
192. What are the advantages of rotating field type
alternator?
193. Write the classification or type of a a/c
alternator?
194. Write short note on cooling of aircraft alternator.
195. What are the factors affecting the terminal
voltage of Generator?
196. What is the principle of Inverter?
197. What is the necessity of Ignition in a/c?
198. How will you do current consumption test of LT
Booster Coil?
199. Write the main components of HEIU and explain
the purpose of choke?
200. What are the precaution of High-energy ignition
unit to be ob served during servicing an.
201. Explain Bay Servicing carried out on HEIU?
202. How "input current test " is carried out of HEIU?
203. Explain how the performance test of high Energy
Ignition unit is carried out?
204. Explain the functional test of High Frequency
Ignition unit?
205. What are the precautions to be observed while
carrying out functional test of HFIU?
206. What is the purpose of dual coil Ignition unit ?
 SHORT ANSWER
1. Define the laws of electrostatics.
2. Write different applications of synchronous motors
and define power factor correction.
3. Write the principal components of a DC Generator
and Define Brushes.
4. What do you understand by Interpoles?
5. Define mesh or delta connection and why there is
no current circulating in it.
6. Write different types of self excited DC Generator .
7. What is the purpose of slots in Armature core in a
Dc Generator?
8. Define types of electric current.
9. Enumerate the precautions to be observed in a
battery charging room.
10. Define Dielectric, Break down voltage and
Dielectric strength.
11. Define the following: - (i) Field intensity (ii)
Coersive force.
12. What are the effects of temperature on a
resistance?
13. Write the advantage of Magnetic Amplifier.
14. Define the following in AC theory: -(i) Time
period (ii) Frequency (iii) Amplitude.
15. What are the advantages of an Electrostatic
voltmeter?
16. How resistance is classified? Write various
methods used for measuring low resistance.
17. Write the operation of an attraction-iron
instrument.
18. Define the term re-conditioning.
19. Explain briefly Zener diode and give its uses.
20. Explain converter.
21. What are the occasion when capacity test to be
carried out on lead acid battery?
22. What are the advantages of inverter over
Alternator?
23. Explain the principle of AC/DC generator.
24. Name the neutralizing agents and other materials
used in lead acid battery charging room in case of air
emergency.
25. Write short notes on: a)Synchronous converter
b)Motor converter.
26. What are the precautions to be observed while
handling batteries?
27. What is the principle of operation of lead acid
batteries?
28. Describe the tinning procedure.
29. What are colour code used to specify the
magnitude of resistance and write the number value of
colour?
30. State Joule's law of electric heating.
31. Define resistance .State the factors affecting
resistance.
32. State the law of Electrostatics.
33. Define Seeback effect.
34. Define Faraday's Law of electrolysis.
35. Define electrolysis and name three of its
applications.
36. What is Magnetic Screening? How it is achieved
and what is its application?
37. Write in brief about solenoid.
38. Describe the effect when an AC Voltage is applied
through a pure inductive coil.
39. Name the simple elements used in the construction
of Transformers.
40. Briefly explain the Short circuit test carried on a
transformer and its purpose.
41. What are the advantages of AC over DC?
42. Describe the basic working principle of an
Alternator.
43. Explain the reason why the rotor of an Induction
motor (3Q) is set in to rotation when fed with phase
supply.
44. State the reason why DC series motor are not
efficient when used on AC.
45. What are the essential parts of a 3phase
synchronous motor? Explain in brief.
46. What are the applications of a Synchronous
Motor?
47. Enumerate the advantages of Static Inverter over
rotary inverter.
48. Explain the properties of Silicon Control Rectifier
(SCR).
49. What are the advantages of Static UPS System?
50. What are the advantages of Magnetic Amplifier?
51. What are the various applications of Magnetic
Amplifier?
52. What are the disadvantages of Magnetic
Amplifier?
53. Briefly explain how reverse direction of rotation is
achieved in Shunt Series and Compound woun motor.
54. Convert the following binary number to Octal
number and explain the procedure . Ammeter.
1011011.011101(2).
55. Convert the following Hexadecimal number to
Binary number and explain the procedure : 8
EBD.A(16).
56. Write the rules to be observed while 2's
complement subtraction and subtract 1011(2) from
1111(2).
57. Subtract 101 from 111 by using 2'S Compliment.
58. List out the points to be observed while
simplifying Boolean expression by karnaugh map
method.
59. Write short notes on the classification of multi
vibrator.
60. Define the term Binary addition and briefly
explain the rules of Binary addition.
61. Draw and explain in brief the Block diagram
computer system.
62. List out the differences between Software and
Hardware.
63. Explain in brief Application Software?
64. Define the term Software and Hardware.
65. Explain in brief the function of computer
operating system.
66. Write short notes on Floppy disk.
67. Explain in brief about PROM and EPROM.
68. What are the effects utilized in Secondary
Measuring instruments?
69. Write the purpose of the following:_ (a)
Deflecting Force (b) Controlling Force.
70. Explain eddy current damping in indicating
instrument .
71. What are the advantages of Digital Volt
Meter(DVM)?
72. Write short notes on shaded pole or shielded pole
type induction instrument.
73. Name the various errors in Dynamometer
Wattmeter.
74. Briefly explain the Method of using Tong test
75. Name the effects the Analog meter depends for its
operation and give example for each of them.
76. Enumerate the salient features of modern aircraft
batteries.
77. List out the effects of high altitude flying on
aircraft batteries.
78. What are different method of routine charging
and explain rapid partial charge on Nickel Cadm.
79. Enumerate the procedure of marking of Alkaline
batteries.
80. What are the indications of a fully charged lead
acid cell ?
81. Write short notes on conduction band.
82. Write short notes on directly heated cathode.

83. Write short notes on Space Charge.
84. Name and explain the essential components of a
CRT.
85. Write short notes on conductors.
86. Write short notes on Zener breakdown.
87. Write short notes on ' depletion layer '.
88. Briefly explain " Diffusion Capacitance" in a PN
junction.
89. Write short notes on ' Avalanche Breakdown '.
90. Briefly explain the operation of 'Step Recovery
Diode '.
91. Write short notes on Tunnel Diode.
92. How transducers are classified ?
93. Write the procedure to carry out the bonding test
on an aircraft.
94. Write the various uses of Cathode Ray
Oscilloscope.
95. How will you determine the unknown frequency
with the help of CRO ?
96. 365. How to test the serviceability of a fuse ?
97. State the advantages of using a relay.
98. What are the precautions to be observed when
using high altitude brushes?
99. Write the procedure to change carbon pile in
voltage regulator?
100. Write the emergency operation of Static
Inverter?
101. What are the disadvantages of DC system?
102. What are the advantages of using AC power
system in a/c?
103. What are the advantages of AC system?
104. What are the conditions for fulfilling the
synchronization?
105. What is rotary synchroscope? Explain.
106. What are the parts of HEIU?
 LONG ANSWERS
1. Explain constructional differences between salient
poles and smooth cylindrical alternators.
2. Distinguish clearly between self and separately
excited generators.
3. Elaborate the points to be observed for the care and
maintenance of lead acid cells.
4. List out the advantages of static Inverter over
Rotary inverter.
5. With the aid of characteristic curve explain the
speed characterist of a DC series motor.
6. Explain the circuit for various positions starting
handle of shunt motor starter.
7. Explain all day efficiency of a transformer.
8. What is Bus bar? Explain split bus bar in brief.
9. Prove that the significance of back emf is very
much essential to make a DC motor self regulating.
10. Give the differences amongst the various types of
DC generators.
11. Write ward Leonard method of speed control of a
DC shunt motor.
12. With the help of diagram explain open circuit and
short circuit test of a transformer.
13. Can you start a DC series motor without load? If
not, explain the reason.
14. What are the different methods used to control the
speed of DC shunt motors? Explain armature control
method with a diagram.
15. What are advantages and disadvantages of Poly
phase induction motor?
16. Name the various losses in a DC machine. How
will you improve the magnetic or iron losses?
17. Write the purpose of slots in Armature core.
18. Give a brief account of the main component of a
DC Generator and explain the purpose of commutator.
19. What are the various properties of a magnet?
Describe in brief.
20. Write in brief the conditions of self excitation in
DC Generator.
21. Name the self excited generators and Explain
compound generator.
22. With the aid of a diagram explain voltage build up
in a shunt Generator.
23. Write down the difference between the soft
soldering and hard soldering.
24. Describe the safety requirements to be observed
while using hand tools.
25. State the requirements while working on drilling
machine.
26. Describe the safety requirements while carrying
out soldering operation.
27. Name the various types of capacitors and briefly
explain them.
28. Define electrolysis and name the important terms
used in electrolysis.
29. Describe the various properties of magnets.
30. Describe the various properties of magnetic lines
of forces.
31. Describe the classification of materials due to
magnetic effect.
32. Explain 'Skin effect' due to alternating current.
33. With the aid of a neat diagram explain the
operation of parallel running of shunt generators.
34. Write the purpose of slots in armature core.
35. Describe the advantages of lap and wave winding
in DC generators.
36. Enumerate the conditions to be fulfilled for self
excitation of DC generators and how they are
ensured?
37. Name the types of transformers and explain core
type transformer.
38. State the advantages of poly phase over single
phase.
39. State the comparison between star and delta
system in AC .
40. Explain the modifications to be carried out on a
DC series motor to use as universal motor.
41. Explain the principle of operation of Synchronous
motor.
42. With the aid of diagram explain back e.m.f in DC
shunt motor.
43. Describe the Principle, Construction and
Operation of moving coil instrument.
44. Write the precautions to be taken while using
Multi meter.
45. Describe the advantages of Digital Instruments.
46. With the aid of VI characteristic curve, explain
characteristics of vacuum diode.
47. With the aid of VI characteristic curve, explain the
characteristics of a pentode valve.
48. With the aid of a VI characteristic curve, explain
the characteristics of a tetrode valve.
49. Name and explain the main types of
semiconductors.
50. With the aid of a neat diagram briefly explain the
operation of forward biased PN junction.
51. With the aid of symbol, explain the construction,
operation and uses of schott key diode (Hot Barrier
Diode).
52. Enumerate the uses of different types of special
diodes.
53. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram, explain the
construction, operation and peak inverse voltage of a
center tap full wave rectifier.
54. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram explain the
description and operation of Hartley oscillator.
55. Draw a neat structure and symbol diagram of NPN
forward reverse bias transistor and explain its
function.
56. With the help of a neat circuit diagram, explain
the description and operation of Colpits oscillator.
57. With the aid of equivalent circuit, symbol explain
TRIAC and its applications.
58. With the help of a suitable structural and
schematic circuit diagram explain how a SCR reaches
saturation and what happens if trigger is removed
during regeneration?
59. Write the advantages of electrical transducers.
60. Describe the safety precautions to be observed
while using Cathode Ray Oscilloscope.
61. What is the object of weather proofing and name
different methods ?
62. What are the different methods of weather
proofing ?
63. (a) What are the categories of crimping and
explain them ? (b) What is dry joint?
64. What is the procedure for installation, operation
and servicing of aircraft fuses ?
65. Define useful life and capacity a secondary
battery. Discuss the various tests carried out on a
engine starting Accumulator Trolley?
66. What are the safety precautions to be adopted in
battery charging room?
67. What are the requirements of battery charging
room?
68. Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator
circuit using a Zener diode and explain its working.
69. Describe the requirement of battery charging
room.
70. Compare AC and DC electrical system and what
are the factors governing the choice of electrical
system.
71. Explain internal short circuit and buckling of
batteries .
72. What are the sequence of operations carried out
for testing and servicing of batteries .
73. Compare DC Motor and Generator in tabulation
form?
74. What is the difference between Star and Delta
connection in an electrical system.
75. Draw and explain Astable multivibrator.
76. Draw and explain Bistable multivibrator.
77. Draw and explain RS Flipflop.
78. Draw and explain JK Flipflop.
79. Explain how a micro computer works.
80. What is a principle used in networking in a
computer system.
81. Explain memory organisation in micro computer.
82. What is Cache memory in a computer.
83. What are the advantages of LCD over LED.
84. Explain how LED works.
85. What is the difference between soldering and
brazing.
86. Explain in detail self excited shunt wound
generator.
87. Compare AC and DC electrical system and what
are the factors governing the choice of electrical
system in an aircraft.
88. Explain sleepiness, sulphation and runaway of
batteries.
89. Explain internal short circuit and buckling of
batteries.
90. Explain routing of wires and cables in an aircraft.
91. Explain different parts of self-excited shunt
wound generator.
92. What are the sequence of operations carried out
for testing and servicing of batteries.
93. Discuss the various tests carried out on Engine
Starting Accumulator trolley?
94. Define capacity and useful life of a battery?
95. What are the safety precautions to be adopted in
battery charging room?
96. What are the requirements of battery charging
room?
97. Explain calculation of power in three-phase AC
system.
98. Explain colour coding of resistance.
99. What are the various types of resistances?
100. What are the various types of capacitors and
principle of operation of capacitors?
101. Explain colour coding of capacitors.
102. Enumerate the common defects found in Lead
Acid Battery.
103. Enumerate the defects found in alkaline batteries.
104. Explain Initial Charging of Batteries.
105. Define Lenz’s Law.
106. Explain the principle and working of a DC
generator.
107. Explain the principle and working of an AC
generator.
108. Explain Commutation.
109. Explain the principle and working of a DC
Motor.
110. Using the second approximation theory of diode,
calculate the current through the ik register.
111. In which respect is an LED different from an
ordinary P-N junction diode? State its application.
112. Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator
circuit using a Zener diode and explain its working.
113. Explain (a)The conduction angle of a diode.
(b)Conduction in crystals at absolute zero and above
absolute zero.
114. Explain briefly the purpose of coupling and
bypass capacitors. What is meant by stiff coupling?
115. Obtain the ac equivalent of a single stage CE
amplifier and discuss about the input and output
impendence to develop such a model.
116. Define Alpha DC and Beta DC. Derive the
mathematical relationship between them.
117. With a neat circuit diagram explain the following
term with respect to a differential amplifier (a) Tail
current (b) Input offset current (c) Input bias current
(d) Input offset voltage.
118. What is the approximate value of zener current
for each of these load resistances: - (a) RL = 100 Kilo
Ohms (b) RL = 10 Kilo Ohms (c) RL = 1 Kilo Ohms.
119. Explain the working of a Class-C amplifier.
Obtain the power formulas for class C amplifier.
120. What are the advantages and disadvantages of
alkaline batteries over lead acid batteries ?
121. Name and explain various types of electron
emission.
122. With the aid of a symbol sketch, explain the
operation of pentode valve.
123. With the aid of VI characteristic curve, explain
characteristics of vacuum diode.
124. Name and explain the main types of
semiconductors.
125. With the aid of symbol, explain the construction,
operation and uses of schottkey diode (Hot.
126. Enumerate the uses of different types of special
diodes.
127. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram, explain
the construction, operation and peak inverse.
128. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram explain the
description and operation of Hartley oscil.
129. Draw a neat structure and symbol diagram of
NPN forward reverse bias transistor and explain i.
130. With the help of a neat circuit diagram, explain
the description and operation of Colpits osc.
131. With the help of a suitable structural and
schematic circuit diagram explain how a SCR reache.
132. Describe the safety precautions to be observed
while using Cathode Ray Oscilloscope.
133. What are the salient features of modern aircraft
generators?
134. What is the purpose of Slots in armature?
135. (a) What are the principal components of a direct
current generator? (b) What is the pur.
136. Give a brief description of simple armature Lap
and wave winding.
137. Differentiate between Lap and wave winding.
138. Give a brief account of film forming and non-
film forming aircraft generator brushes.
139. Explain the principle, construction and operation
of Transformer rectifier unit during n.
140. Briefly explain the construction of Auxiliary
power unit used in a/c.
141. What are the advantages of using AC power
supply in a/c?
142. Give a brief account of constant frequency AC
system employed in a/c.
143. Explain special features of aircraft alternators.
144. Write down special features of aircraft
alternators used in aircraft?
145. Draw a neat circuit diagram of Frequency wild
generator and explain its operation?
146. With a neat diagram explain MERZ-PRICE
protection system.
147. Draw circuit diagram of Inverter type 100A and
briefly write its operation?
148. With a neat diagram explain the operation of
rotary inverter?
149. Explain the checking procedure of Fire warning
system of MI-17 helicopter.
150. Explain the operation of Fire extinguisher circuit
of MI-17 helicopter in case of actual.
151. Write voltage load characteristics of self-excited
shunt wound generator?
152. What is armature reaction and what relation it
has with compensating and auxiliary inter-pole?
153. Types of voltage regulation. Draw diagram of
solid-state voltage regulation.
154. Explain balancing of Nickel-cadmium battery.
What is recovery voltage of battery?
155. What is on board charger units? Explain briefly.
156. What is constant speed drive?
157. What is real load and reactive load? How it is
corrected for parallel running of altimeter?
158. What is SCR. Explain its On/Off switch function.
159. What is TRU (transformer rectifier unit)?
160. Explain special purpose cable.
161. What are proximity switches? Explain micro
switch.
162. Explain the principle of shagged relay.
163. What is fuse and CB? 168. Write the requirement of A/C lighting system

164. Explain over voltage protection of AC generator. 169. Briefly explain "Strobe lighting".

165. Draw a sketch and show ammeter and voltmeter 170. Explain overheat and fire detection system of
in a circuit. A/C.

166. Explain motor actuators.

167. Write rotating field of 3ø induction motor.

 TYPICAL PRACTICAL PROJECTS
1. Using a wiring diagram of an aircraft electrical
system, identify the switches, circuit breakers, wire
splices, lamps and motors.
2. Given the current requirements and the length of
the wire, select the smallest size wire that will carry
the current without overheating or producing more
than the allowable voltage drop.
3. Install a solderless terminal on a piece of electrical
wire.
4. Given the specifications of an aircraft generator,
find its rated current output.
5. check the diodes in a DC alternator for opens or
shorts.
6. Using an ohmmeter, determine whether or not the
filament in a light bulb is good.
7. using voltmeter, measure the output voltage of an
aircraft generator.
8. Explain to the examiner the connect way to flash
the field of an aircraft generator.
9. Using a voltmeter and an ohmmeter, demonstrate to
the examiner the correct way to troubleshoot an
aircraft electrical circuit.
10. Inspect the ground cable of the battery installed in
an aircraft for condition, rightness of connections and
for evidence of corrosion.
11. Explain to the examiner the correct way to adjust
the voltage controlled by a vibrator type voltage
regulator.
12. Using a growler and continuity light, check the
armature of an aircraft generator for shorted or open
coils.
13. Secure an electrical wire bundle to an aircraft
structure using the proper clamps and grommets.
14. Using the illustrated parts list for a particular
aircraft, inspect an anticollision light installation to
see whether or not it conforms with the aircraft
manufacturer's installation drawings.
15. Using the correct test instruments, measure the
current that flows through an electrical load specified
by the examiner.
16. Demonstrate to the examiner the correct way to tie
an electrical wire bundle with spot ties.
17. Given the specifications of a shock-mounted
electrical components, describe to the examiner the
correct choice of a bonding strap.
18. Splice an electrical wire, using the correct type of
splice and the correct insulation.
19. Correctly attach wires to the terminals of a quick-
disconnect connector.
BLANK
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

1. An EXCEL FILE is known as: A. Zero.

A. Note book. B. Complement.
B. Work book. C. One.
C. Work sheet. D. Original.
D. Document.
11. The 1's compliment of a binary number is the
2. In MS EXCEL, the [+] of mouse pointer stands for: number that results when :
A. Start menu. A. Each 0 is changed to 1 and vice-versa.
B. Copy and paste. B. Each 0 is changed to 2 and vice-versa.
C. Cut and paste. C. Each 0 is changed to 4 and vice-versa.
D. Entering the data. D. Each 0 is changed to 8 and vice-versa.

3. An EXCEL workbook has a number of: 12. Binary equivalent of 34.4 (8) is :
A. Pages. A. 10100.1100.
B. Documents. B. 11000.0011.
C. Worksheets. C. 10011.0101.
D. Workbooks. D. 11100.100.

4. A worksheet is also known as: 13. Flip Flop is also known as :

A. Page. A. Astable Multi vibrator.
B. Spreadsheet. B. Mono stable Multi vibrator.
C. Document. C. Bi stable multi vibrator.
D. Workbook. D. Tri stable multi vibrator.

5. In MS EXCEL, the (arrow) shape of the mouse 14. For production of voltage pulses without any
pointer indicates: driving pulse of all most square wave shape, occurring
A. Entering the data. periodically, the circuit used is.
B. Cut and paste. A. Free running multi vibrator.
C. Copy and paste. B. Mono stable multi vibrator.
D. Start menu. C. Bi stable multi vibrator.
D. RS flip flop.
6. In MS EXCEL worksheet, rows are denoted by:
A. Alphabets. 15. Among the following ,the output device in a
B. Numbers. computer is;
C. Asterisks. A. Key board.
D. Arrows. B. Printer.
C. Mouse.
7. A chart data series is a collection of: D. Joy stick.
A. Related values.
B. Functional values. 16. Many dot matrix printers are:
C. Collected values. A. Unidirectional.
D. Resulted values. B. Tri-directional.
C. Bi-directional.
8. A chart that exists on your worksheet is known as: D. Quadra-directional.
A. Radar chart.
B. Embedded chart. 17. Dot matrix printer is an example of:
C. Scattered chart. A. Line printer.
D. Column chart. B. Laser printer.
C. Drum printer.
9. In Binary subtraction, subtract 11011 from 10111 : D. Character printer.
A. - 11011.
B. - 00100. 18. A keyboard is a most common:
C. + 11011. A. Memory unit.
D. + 00100. B. Input device.
C. Control device.
10. Complement of a complement equal to; D. Output device.
19. Unit of current by which the rate of flow of 28. If the Voltage applied and the resistance of a
electricity is measured is: circuit are doubled the circuit will be:
A. Volt. A. Doubled.
B. Ampere. B. Halved.
C. Coulomb. C. Four times.
D. Ohm. D. Remaining same.

20. One Joule is equal to : 29. A capacitor consists of two:

A. One watt second. A. Insulators separated by a dielectric.
B. One watt hour. B. Conductors separated by an insulator.
C. One watt minute. C. Ceramic plates and one mica disc.
D. One watt. D. Silver coated Insulators.

21. Ohm'S Law states that: 30. A force that tends to drive electricity through a
A. R= V/I. circuit is called:
B. V = R/I. A. Ampere.
C. I = R/V. B. Wattage.
D. R = VxI. C. RMS value.
D. EMF.
22. The practical unit of Conductance is ;-.
A. Ohm. 31. The meter, which is used for measuring and
B. Coulomb. comparing the emf of different cells for calibrating
C. MHO. and standardizing voltmeters and ammeters, is known
D. Volt. as:
A. Potentiometer.
23. The unit representing power or by which the rate B. Bonding tester.
of doing work is measured is : C. Ammeter.
A. Joule. D. Multi meter.
B. Watt.
C. Ohms. 32. The resistance 'R' offered by a conductor depends
D. None of the above. upon:
A. R = L / A.
24. The symbol of Impedence is ;-. B. A = L / R.
A. R. C. L = R / A.
B. Z. D. P = L / A.
C. I.
D. V. 33. To specify the magnitude of resistance, colour
code is used. Certain colours are used for certain
25. The value of Milli ampere is: numbers. Number used for 'Black' band resistance is:
A. 0.01 ampere. A. 1.
B. 0.1 ampere. B. 5.
C. 0.0001 ampere. C. 0.
D. 0.001 ampere. D. 2.

26. The total opposition offered to the flow of current 34. One mega ohm is equal to:
in an AC circuit by resistance inductance and A. 10 to the power 2ohms.
capacitance is known as;-. B. 10 to the power 3 ohms.
A. Ohm. C. 10 to the power 4 ohms.
B. Conductance. D. 10 to the power 6 ohms.
C. Impedance.
D. Watt Hour. 35. When different resistances are joined end on end,
they are said to be connected in:
27. In a thermocouple instrument, the emf at the cold A. Parallel.
end is measured by : B. Series - parallel.
A. Moving coil instrument. C. Parallel - series.
B. Moving Iron Instrument. D. Series.
C. Milli volt meter.
D. Hot wire instrument. 36. The current flowing through a conductor is
proportional to difference of potential at the ends of
the conductor, provided the temperature remains D. Central processor input/output devices and backing
constant is defined by: storage.
A. Coulombs Law.
B. Ohms Law. 45. Truth table of a logic functions :
C. Joules Law. A. Summaries its output value.
D. Kirchoffs Law. B. Tabulates all its input conditions.
C. Displays all its input/output possibilities.
37. The inner most shell or layer on the earth D. Is not based on the logic algebra.
atmosphere is called :
A. Troposphere. 46. A static memory is one that.
B. Stratosphere. A. Is capable of storing binary information
C. Tropopause. indefinitely.
D. Ionosphere. B. Requires periodic restoration of information.
C. Is volatile.
38. Mach Number is equal to : D. Has destructive read out.
A. True air speed (MPH) / Speed of sound (MPH).
B. Altitude / Speed. 47. Erasable PROM (EPROM) is:
C. Air speed / Sound. A. Temporary memory.
D. True air speed (KMPH) / Sound (KMPH). B. Permanent memory.
C. Volatile memory.
39. The temperature at the lower end of the D. Non volatile memory.
atmosphere is.
A. 18500C during the day and 3400 C during night. 48. In Erasable PROM (EPROM), data can be erased
B. 3400C during the day 18500C during night. by exposing it to:
C. 17400C during the day 26400C during night. A. X' rays.
D. 16400C during the day 2460C during the night. B. Alpha rays.
C. Infra red rays.
40. The highest and last major region of Earth's D. Ultra violet rays.
atmosphere is called:
A. Troposphere. 49. In secondary memories, an amplifier and
B. Stratosphere. comparator are used to convert:
C. Ionosphere. A. Small signal to large signal.
D. Exosphere. B. Large signal to small signal.
C. Small signal to standard logic levels.
41. Any machine converts mechanical energy into D. Standard logic levels to small signal.
electrical energy is known as.
A. Motor. 50. A Random Access Memory (RAM) is:
B. Stator. A. Volatile memory.
C. Generator. B. Non volatile memory.
D. Amplifier. C. Temporary memory.
D. Permanent memory.
42. Fleming's right hand rule is used to find out the
direction of: 51. The memory which is also called as 'Read Write
A. Field. Memory' is:
B. Motion of the conductor. A. ROM.
C. Direction of induced emf. B. RAM.
D. Direction of current. C. PROM.
D. EPROM.
43. Not gate is known as :
A. Converter. 52. The memory in which MOSFETS are used is:
B. Inverter. A. ROM.
C. Rectifier. B. PROM.
D. Amplifier. C. EPROM.
D. Static RAM.
44. Computer hardware usually refers to :
A. Hard metallic component of a computer. 53. In a computer application window, the status bar
B. Various associated program. displays:
C. CPU. A. The menu for the application.
B. The name of the application.
C. The font size, types of styles and alignment. B. Hilarious.
D. Message, page number and section number. C. Un conscious.
D. Cold effect.
54. In computer application window, the bar used to
change document style and font size is: 63. In liquid oxygen installation, joints must be made
A. Status bar. by:
B. Standard tool bar. A. Rubber sleeves.
C. Formatting tool bar. B. Varnished cambric.
D. Menu bar. C. Polytetra flureethyle (PTFE).
D. Special synthetic tubes.
55. In MS EXCEL, a formula can be a maximum of :
A. 255 characters long. 64. A line which is neither vertical or horizontal is
B. 235 characters long. called.
C. 245 characters long. A. Curved.
D. 275 characters long. B. Parallel.
C. Straight.
56. The lack of oxygen at height between 18000 and D. Oblique.
25000 ft, one would.
A. Very sleepy. 65. The line drawn on a map joining all places having
B. Unconscious. equal magnetic dip is called:
C. Loss of judgment. A. Isoclinal.
D. Blurred vision. B. Isogonal.
C. Equator.
57. The effect of lack of oxygen at 4000 ft. in the D. Rhomb line.
night is:
A. Loss of consciousness. 66. Isoclinal is the line drawn on a map joining all
B. Over confidence. places having:
C. Loss of co-ordination. A. Zero magnetic dip.
D. Lowering of night vision. B. Equal magnetic dip.
C. Equal magnetic variation.
58. In a typical liquid oxygen installation, the liquid D. Zero magnetic variation.
oxygen is change.
A. Stabilizer. 67. Cardinal points are:
B. Pressure build up coil. A. North, east, south and west.
C. Check valve. B. North and east.
D. Pressure control valve. C. South and west.
D. North and west.
59. The condition of oxygen starvation is technically
called: 68. The line cutting all meridians on earth surface at
A. Get down condition. same angle is called:
B. Anoxia. A. Track line.
C. Loss of judgment. B. Rhumb line.
D. Hilarious. C. Drift line.
D. Green line.
60. The advantage of liquid oxygen is:
A. Less weight, more volume. 69. In liquid type compass the "liquid swirl error" is
B. Non corrosive, more weight. avoided by:
C. Corrosive, more weight, more volume. A. Removing air from liquid.
D. Non-corrosive, less weight, occupies less space. B. Balancing the magnetic assembly.
C. Making the bowl spherical in shape.
61. Liquid oxygen is: D. Making the bowl with dicon.
A. Yellow in colour.
B. Pale blue in colour. 70. Compass error is the angle between:
C. Colour less. A. True north and magnetic north.
D. Watercolour. B. Compass north and magnetic north.
C. True north and compass north.
62. With full oxygen supply at 30000 heights, effect D. A particular compass needle and true meridian.
on aircrew will be:
A. No ill effect. 71. The horizontal situation (HIS) displays:
A. Computer, compass and tacan. A. artificial horizon.
B. Range land ILS. B. altimeter.
C. UHF information. C. ASI.
D. All the above. D. ROCI.

72. The most important temperature of which pilot 81. The a/c speed measurement system, measures
must be aware of during flight is. speed in terms of.
A. out side temp. A. voltage.
B. original oil temp. B. current.
C. jet pipe temp. C. frequency.
D. atmospheric temp. D. none of the above.

73. The force which is produced when two dissimilar 82. The fuel tank contents in the tank units is given by
elements are joined together is called. the.
A. emf. A. inductors.
B. KE. B. capacitors.
C. PE. C. resistors.
D. thermoelectric force. D. none of the above.

74. The point of balance in wheat stone bridge is 83. Gyros have the property of.
called. A. Precession.
A. zero point. B. Rigidity.
B. balance point. C. Flexibility.
C. ideal point. D. Both (a) and (b).
D. null point.
84. INS is affected by.
75. One of the following is not a part of blind typing A. Rate of turn.
panel. B. weather.
A. ASI. C. Lightning.
B. fuel gauge. D. None of the above.
C. AM.
D. VSI. 85. Gyros are used for.
A. INS.
76. AH & TSI works on principle of. B. Radio navigation.
A. pitot static probe. C. ILS.
B. gyroscope. D. None of the above.
C. none of the above.
D. both of the above. 86. VSI is a.
A. differential pressure gauge.
77. One of four principal element of instrument B. pressure gauge.
mechanism is. C. temperature gauge.
A. directing element. D. none of the above.
B. operating element.
C. detecting element. 87. AH indicates.
D. none of the above. A. pitch only.
B. roll only.
78. Air speed indicator. C. none of the above.
A. true air speed. D. both of the above.
B. indicated airspeed.
C. rectified air speed. 88. Error in compass system are.
D. none of the above. A. transmission error.
B. coriolis.
79. ASI & VSI works on the principle of. C. both of the above.
A. pitot static tube. D. reception errors.
B. gyroscope.
C. change in temp. 89. ICAO stands for.
D. none of the above. A. international Council of Airport Operations.
B. international civil aviation organisation.
80. Altitude indicator is also known as. C. Indian center for airborne operations.
D. none of the above. 99. The tail pipe temperature indicator is connected
in:
90. The gyros used for detection of rate of turn is. A. Series with thermocouple.
A. rate gyros. B. Series with the adjustable resistor and
B. laser gyros. thermocouple.
C. electric gyros. C. Series with adjustable resistor.
D. none of the above. D. Parallel to the thermocouple resistor.

91. The mach no is given by. 100. The indicator used in exhaust gas temperature
A. speed of ac/ speed of sound. indicating system is:
B. speed of sound/speed of ac. A. A moving coil permanent magnet type.
C. ( speed of sound/speed of ac)x 100. B. A moving magnet type instrument.
D. ( speed of ac/speed of sound)x100. C. A ratio meter type instrument.
D. A bridge type instrument.
92. The capsule in an altimeter is.
A. sensing element. 101. The revolution of the induction pulse average
B. detecting element. core is proportional to.
C. amplifying element. A. Rate of fuel flow.
D. none of these. B. Rate of impeller revolution.
C. Input frequency to supply voltage.
93. In TSI, to indicate the bank. D. In put voltage.
A. a ball is used.
B. a strip is used. 102. The stall warning system is designed to operate
C. a pointer is used. from the incidence pr.
D. no provision for indication of bank. A. The stall incidence angle approaches.
B. The aircraft speed is going beyond limit.
94. Temperature at mean sea level is. C. Any incident is going to take place.
A. 10 degree. D. Aircraft speed approaches sound speed.
B. 20 degree.
C. 15 degree. 103. When the self test button is released, the ADC
D. 30 degree. will immediately rev.
A. Normal mode of operation.
95. Anoxia is. B. Servo mode of operation.
A. effect on body as a result of increase of C. Stand by mode of operation.
atmospheric pressure with altitude. D. Will not function.
B. effect on body as a result of decrease of
atmospheric pressure with altitude. 104. The purpose of tone generator in stall warning
C. none of these. system is to:
D. . A. Produce required supply for the system.
B. Produce audio warning to pilot.
96. Primary source of air data instrument is. C. Light a warning lamp.
A. atmosphere. D. Give supply to flap actuator to lower it.
B. pressure.
C. temperature. 105. Anoxia is a physiological effect of altitude due
D. altitude. to:
A. Decrease of partial pressure of oxygen with
97. When reading is zero at landing and takeoff it is increase in altitude.
called. B. Decrease of partial pressure of oxygen with the
A. QFE. decrease of the absolut.
B. QNE. C. Increase of partial pressure of oxygen with increase
C. QNH. of altitude.
D. none of the above. D. Loss of nitrogen content in blood system.

98. The external resistance of the circuit in tail pipe
temperature sys.
A. By resistor box.
B. By a resistance in series.
C. By a resistance in parallel.
D. By a resistance in parallel.
106. The pressure-reducing valve is fitted between:
A. Content gauge and the demand regulator.
B. Content gauge and cut off valve.
C. Demand regulator and on / off valve.
D. Cut off valve and on / off valve.
107. (1) A dc selsyn system is a widely used electrical C. Water of any stone.
method of indicating a remote mechanical movement D. Kerosene.
or position
(2) a synchro-type indicating system is an electrical 116. A decrease in the lever length will make the
system used for transmitting information from one instrument reading to:
point to another. A. Decrease.
Regarding the above statements, B. Be unaffected.
A. only no 1 is true. C. Increase or decrease.
B. only no 2 is true. D. Increase.
C. both no 1 and no 2 are true.
117. The difference of reading between the desired
108. What is one check for proper operation of a pitot value and the value obtained is called:
static tube heater after replacement? A. Tolerance.
A. Ammeter reading. B. Error.
B. Voltemeter reading. C. Allowance.
C. Continuity check of system. D. (a) and (b).

109. Bubble in the liquid compass will cause: 118. Instrument parts are generally cleaned by:
A. Increase in deviation. A. Nitric acid.
B. Decrease in variation. B. Caustic acid.
C. Increase the liquid swirrel. C. Metal brush.
D. Rapid rusting of pivot. D. Watch makers brush.

110. The E2 type compass the bowl is made out of: 119. The error whose magnitude and sign remain
A. Plastic. unchanged during checking through out the range is
B. DIACON. called as:
C. Anikelite. A. Regular error.
D. Perspex. B. Irregular error.
C. Tolerance.
111. The outer ring of directional gyro is fitted in the D. Linear error.
pitch frame in:
A. Longitudinal axis. 120. Eye glass is used in instrument work especially
B. Lateral axis. for:
C. Vertical axis. A. Scrutinizing the defect.
D. Horizontal axis. B. Fitment of small parts.
C. Seeing the parts.
112. Semi conductor memory in computer is based on D. Removal and fitment of delicate parts.
A. Magnetic circuit operation.
B. Transformer operation. 121. 0 'X' eye glass magnification is:
C. Transistor operation. A. 6 times at a distance of 1.5 "to 2".
D. Non magnetic circuit operation. B. 2.5 times at a distance of 4".
C. 5 times at a distance of 3".
113. The tool used for locating and removal of D. 6 times at a distance of 6".
delicate instrument parts and small screw is.
A. A fine point pliers. 122. By adjusting the lever length or angle, you can
B. Tweezers. adjust.
C. Long nose pliers. A. Negative regular error.
D. Side cutting pliers. B. All regular errors.
C. All irregular errors.
114. Spraying and re painting instrument dial is a part D. None of the above.
of:
A. Bay servicing. 123. Jewel holes and ruby pins of instruments are
B. Overhauling. polished by:
C. Rectification. A. Diamond power.
D. Periodic servicing. B. Emery paper.
C. Oil stone.
115. Shellac dissolves in: D. Diamantine.
A. Petrol.
B. Methylated spirit.
124. For cleaning and removing the grease and oil B. Non corrosive, more weight.
from the instrument parts, use: C. Corrosive, more weight, more volume.
A. Turpentine. D. Non-corrosive, less weight, occupies less space.
B. Benzene.
C. Methylated spirit. 133. What is the colour of Liquid oxygen?
D. Kerosene. A. Yellow in colour.
B. Pale blue in colour.
125. Name the lubricant used for lubricating Oxygen C. Colour less.
parts : D. Water colour.
A. Graphite fluid ZX-24.
B. Graphite grease XG 271. 134. What is effect on aircrew at 30000 altitude with
C. Trichloroethylene. fall of O2 supply?
D. Graphite fluid ZX-24 and graphite grease XG-271. A. No ill effect.
B. Hilarious.
126. What is the consequence of lack of Oxygen at C. Un conscious.
heights between 1800 to 2500 ft? D. Cold effect.
A. Very sleepy.
B. Unconscious. 135. What is the substance used to make the leak tight
C. Loss of judgment. joint in liquid oxygen installation?
D. Blurred vision. A. Rubber sleeves.
B. Varnished cambric.
127. During night , what will be the effect of lack of C. Polytetra flureethyle (PTFE).
Oxygen at 4000 ft? D. Special synthetic tubes.
A. Loss of consciousness.
B. Over confidence. 136. The liquid oxygen is changed into gas by:
C. Loss of co-ordination. A. Stabilizer.
D. Lowering of night vision. B. Pressure build up coil.
C. Check valve.
128. Which is the suitable method used for charging D. Pressure control valve.
O2 for Oxygen testing trolley?
A. Economic method. 137. In the liquid compass system radial wires are
B. Proper method. fixed to the moving system to increase.
C. Charging method. A. Deviation.
D. Cascade method. B. Variation.
C. Damping.
129. What is the technical term used for starvation of D. Stability.
Oxygen?
A. Get down condition. 138. One of the undesirable habits in servicing is:
B. Anoxia. A. Using appropriate tools.
C. Loss of judgment. B. Following the servicing schedule.
D. Hilarious. C. Keeping the working area clean.
D. Resorting to short cuts.
130. What is the purpose of annular space between
two walls of the liquid oxygen container. 139. Solar cell unit in Head up display system
A. Evacuated for temperature maintaining inside. consists of:
B. For insulation. A. Two silicon voltaic cells.
C. Opened to atmospheric pressure. B. Single silicon photo voltaic cell.
D. Sealed with 15 lbs / sq. inch pressure. C. Three silicon photo voltaic cells.
D. Simple voltaic cell.
131. In liquid oxygen system, preferably the joints are
made with: 140. Reflection of PDU in HUD system can be moved
A. Rubber Material. longitudinally to:
B. Sealing compound. A. Overcome limitation of viewing angle in Azimuth.
C. Leather material. B. Overcome limitation of viewing angle in elevation.
D. Metal to metal joints. C. Prevent diminishing of display illumination.
D. Provide a bright and fine image.
132. What is the advantage of liquid oxygen over
gaseous oxygen ? 141. Data input and output to and from electronic unit
A. Less weight, more volume. is:
A. Digital form. 150. The focusing adjustment in an ESCRT is
B. Analogue form. achieved by :
C. Digital and or analogue form. A. varying first anode voltage.
D. Pulse form. B. varying second anode voltage.
C. varying grid voltage.
142. The head up display system provides the pilot D. varying accelerating electrode.
with a:
A. Visual display of information for phases of flight. 151. The substance which have overlapping valance
B. Virtual display of information for all phases of and conduction band are termed as :
flight. A. Semiconductors.
C. Visual display of information only two phases of B. Insulators.
flight. C. Conductors.
D. Real display of information for all phases of flight. D. Di-electric.

143. The basic data displayed in HUD are: 152. A PN junction diode can be formed by doping
A. Altitude and heading. silicon with :
B. Angle of attack and bank angle. A. Antimony and phosphorous.
C. Radio height and vertical speed. B. Arsenic and antimony.
D. All the above. C. Boron and gallium.
D. Arsenic and indium.
144. The characteristics of lens system on PDU is:
A. Cleanliness. 153. When silicon is doped with Arsenic, the type of
B. Brightness. semiconductor formed is :
C. Collimating. A. N type extrinsic.
D. Shining. B. P type extrinsic.
C. N type intrinsic.
145. Thoriated tungsten cathode is designed to work at D. P type intrinsic.
A. 5 to 10 volts.
B. 5 to 50 volts. 154. In a lightly doped reverse biased PN junction
C. 50 to 500 volts. diode, at break down voltage flooding occurs due to
D. (a) 500 to 5000 volts. electric field causing collisions of charge carriers
results in :
146. The additional energy required by an electron to A. Zener breakdown.
overcome the surface barrier of the metal is called : B. Transient current.
A. Electron emission. C. Avlanche breakdown.
B. Work function. D. Forward current.
C. Thermionic emission.
D. Surface emission. 155. To obtain recombination current as well as larger
collector current, a NPN transistor to be biased :
147. The purpose of grid in a vacuum tube is to A. Forward Forward.
control the : B. Forward Reverse.
A. Input voltage applied to cathode. C. Reverse Forward.
B. Input voltage applied to anode. D. Reverse Reverse.
C. Flow of electrons between cathode and anode.
D. Flow of electrons from anode to cathode. 156. A medium in which an electric field can exist
without creating a current or it is a non-conductor of
148. Intensity of the light spot, in an ESCRT is electricity or insulator is called:
controlled by : A. Dielectric strength.
A. Focusing anode. B. Breakdown voltage.
B. accelerating anode. C. Breakdown in electric field.
C. control grid. D. Dielectric.
D. electrostatic deflecting plates.
157. The tetrode valve has the disadvantage of :
149. The main function of accelerating electrode in an A. Inter electrode capacitance.
ESCRT is to : B. Inter electrode inductance.
A. Control intensity of light spot. C. Shielding action of grid.
B. Eliminate highly divergent electrons. D. Kink effect at low plate potential.
C. Focusing the beam into a spot.
D. Deflecting the beam into the screen.
158. In pentode valve, suppressor grid is inserted B. Step up transformer.
between : C. Auto transformer.
A. Cathode and plate. D. Instrument transformer.
B. Plate and screen grid.
C. Cathode and screen grid. 168. Mercury switch operates on:
D. Cathode and grid. A. Pressure.
B. Temperature.
159. A generator is a machine which produces always. C. Interface tension.
A. AC output. D. Altitude.
B. DC output.
C. AC and DC output. 169. The rotor in an autosyn remote indicating system
D. None of the above. uses.
160. In a vibrating contact voltage regulation system A. an electromagnet.
the current coil is connected in: B. a permanent magnet.
A. Series with shunt winding. C. neither an electromagnet nor a permanent magnet.
B. Series with series winding.
C. In parallel with shunt winding. 170. The basic difference between an autosyn and a
D. In parallel with series winding. magnesyn indicating system is the.
A. rotor.
161. In NPN or PNP transistor emitter is always: B. transmitter.
A. Forward biased. C. receiver.
B. Reverse biased. D. .
C. Not connected only earthed.
D. None of the above. 171. The rotor in a magnesyn remote indicating
system uses.
162. The role of electrolyte in Nickel-cadmium A. a permanent magnet.
battery is. B. an electromagnet.
A. To play active part in chemical reaction. C. an electromagnet and a permanent magnet.
B. To provide parts for current flow. D. .
C. To collect oxygen from positive plate.
D. To increase its relative density. 172. Which of the following are some uses for a dc
selsyn system?
163. Paralleling of alternator is not possible due to: 1. Indicatespositionofretractablelandinggear
A. Wild frequency. 2.indicatestheangleofincidenceofanaircraft
B. Voltage. 3.Indicatesthealtitudeofanaircraft
C. Load. 4.Indicatescowlflapsoroilcoolerdoorposition
D. None of the above. 5.indicates (cont'd.).
A. 1,4,5,7.
164. Reactive load unbalance are corrected by: B. 2,3,4,5.
A. Controlling exciter field current. C. 2,3,5,6.
B. Controlling speed of prime mover.
C. By adjusting torque at output drive shaft. 173. The purpose of screen grid in a tetrode valve is to
D. None of the above. reduce inter electrode :
A. Capacitance between anode and grid.
165. In semiconductors, carriers are: B. Capacitance between cathode and anode.
A. Holes. C. Inductance between cathode and grid.
B. Electron. D. Inductance between cathode and anode.
C. Both atoms.
D. All of the above. 174. The reduction in plate current with increasing
plate voltage is called:
166. When rectifiers are connected in parallel: A. Mutual characteristics.
A. Voltage handling capacity increases. B. Kink effect.
B. Current handling capacity increase. C. Amplification factor.
C. No capacity increases. D. Power factor.
D. None of the above.
175. For deflection of the electron beam around the
167. In transformer when transformation ratio is more center of the screen is obtained in an ESCRT, by
than one (1), it indicates: applying the signal to :
A. Step down transformer. A. x-x plates.
B. Control grid. 184. The value of bulk resistance of a silicon diode,
C. Final anode. when forward voltage drop is 1.2 V for a forward DC
D. y-y plates. current of 100 mA , is equal to :
A. 5 ohm.
176. The process of adding impurities to a B. 50 ohm.
semiconductor is known as :a. C. 25 ohm.
A. Doping. D. 0.1 ohm.
B. Mixing.
C. Biasing. 185. The knee voltage of a PN diode equals to:
D. Super imposing. A. Barrier potential.
B. Applied voltage.
177. Barrier potential of silicon at 25 Deg C is: C. Cut-in voltage.
A. 0.7 V. D. Breakdown voltage.
B. 0.5 V.
C. 0.3 V. 186. In a reverse biased PN diode the point at which
D. 0.03 V. reverse current rises sharply is known as :
A. Knee voltage.
178. An atom is said to be stable when its valance B. Applied voltage.
orbit contains : C. Barrier potential.
A. 16 electrons. D. Reverse breakdown voltage.
B. 8 Electrons.
C. 4 Electrons. 187. The value of bulk resistance of a silicon diode,
D. 2 Electrons. when forward voltage drop is 1.5V at a forward DC
current 2 A, is equal to.
179. The inherent property of an atom is to : A. 4 ohms.
A. Attract another atom. B. 0.4 ohms.
B. Stay as free atom. C. 40 ohms.
C. Accelerate at high speed. D. 10 ohms.
D. Achieve stable state.
188. The purpose of filter circuit in rectifiers is to :
180. Barrier potential of Germanium at 25 Deg C is: A. Convert AC into DC.
A. 0.1 V. B. convert DC into AC.
B. 0.2 V. C. Convert pulsating AC into a steady DC.
C. 0.3 V. D. Convert a pulsating DC into a steady DC.
D. 0.7 V.
189. The heavily doped region in a transistor is :
181. Barrier potential decreases with temperature at A. Base.
the rate of : B. Emitter.
A. 0.2 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. C. Collector.
B. 0.02 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. D. Depletion layer.
C. 0.002 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp.
D. 0.0002 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. 190. If an NPN transistor is Reverse Reverse biased
(ie, emitter is reverse biased and collector reverse
182. The purpose of suppressor grid in pentode valve biased ), then the emitter and collector current will
is to : be :
A. Reduce inter electrode capacitance between A. Zero.
cathode and grid. B. Maximum.
B. Reduce inter electrode capacitance between C. Zero an maximum respectively.
cathode and anode. D. Maximum and zero respectively.
C. Eliminate undesirable kink effect.
D. Eliminate electron cloud. 191. In an unbiased transistor, the width of emitter
depletion layer when compared to the width of
183. The reverse current, when a PN junction diode is collector depletion layer is :
reverse biased, that drops to zero after thE depletion A. Equal.
layer stops growing is known as : B. Smaller.
A. Surface leakage current. C. Larger and smaller respectively.
B. Minority carrier current. D. Larger.
C. Transient current.
D. Reverse breakdown current.
192. The minority carriers in a CE configurated NPN C. Inductor.
transistor collector region causes : D. Thermister.
A. Base current.
B. Emitter current. 200. One common feature of capacitors when used for
C. Breakdown of transistor. coupling and bypass is that they :
D. Leakage current. A. Block AC and short DC to ground.

193. While analyzing the DC load line of a transistor, B. Block DC and short AC to ground.
the point of intersection with the calculated base C. Improve current gain.
current is known as: D. Are used only in output stage.
A. Saturation point.
B. Cutoff point. 201. A saturated SCR can turned off only by :
C. Quiescent point. A. Removing the gate pulse.
D. Breakdown point. B. Reducing the gate trigger.
C. Increasing the gate trigger to saturation.
194. The process of applying appropriate voltage to a D. Reducing the load current below the holding
transistor is called : current.
A. Voltage regulation.
B. Forward biasing. 202. The phase difference of 180 Deg between the
C. Biasing. input signal voltage and output signal voltage in a
D. Reverse biasing. common emitter amplifier is called :
A. Amplification factor.
195. Connecting transistor in a circuit, whereby, the B. Voltage reversal.
input is fed between common terminal and one of the C. Phase reversal.
other two and output is taken between common and D. Current reversal.
one of the remaining terminal is called :
A. Biasing. 203. The maximum possible overall efficiency of a
B. Configuration. class A amplifier with resistive load is :
C. Feed back. A. 10 %.
D. Coupling. B. 25 %.
C. 50 %.
196. The method of biasing, in which gain reduces D. 75%.
due to negative feedback is :
A. Base bias. 204. In Colpitts oscillators a phase shift of 180 Deg is
B. Emitter feedback bias. achieved through :
C. Collector feedback bias. A. Capacitors.
D. Voltage divider bias. B. Inductance.
C. An auto-transformer.
197. A coupling capacitor connects : D. Tank circuit.
A. A grounded point to an un grounded point.
B. An ungrounded point to a grounded point. 205. The Wien bridge oscillator is the most widely
C. A grounded point to another grounded point. used oscillator for frequencies in the range o.
D. an ungrounded point another ungrounded point. A. 5 HZ to 1 MHZ.
B. 15 HZ to 2.5 MHZ.
198. A by pass capacitor connects : C. 20 HZ to 3 MHZ.
A. A grounded point to an ungrounded point. D. 30 HZ to 30 MHZ.
B. An ungrounded point to a grounded point.
C. A grounded point to another grounded point. 206. The Q factor of a crystal circuit is in the order of
D. An ungrounded point to another ungrounded point. A. 5000 and above.
B. 10,000 and above.
199. Mingling of AC quantity with DC quantity C. 15,000 and above.
during amplification of a signal avoided by the use of D. 20,000 and above.
A. Capacitor.
B. Resistor.
 FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. The three temperature of which the pilot must be
kept informed during the flight are the ___________.
2. Dissimilar metals when joined at their ends produce
an dependent on the b/w the junction.
3. In a wheat stone bridge type of temperature
indicator the point at which the circuit is balanced is
called as .
4. A typical indicator consists of two interconnected
elements, a and an indicating element.
5. The blind flying panel consists of .
6. Four principal elements of inst are .
7. In basic form, capacitance type fuel gauge system
consists of a located in fuel tank, an and an .
8. The 2 typical form of gauge which operate by
measuring the level of fuel in tank are .
9. The sensing elements commonly used to measure
pressure in aircrafts are______ , ________,
_______,and _______________ .
10. In synchro-control transformer, transmitters and
receivers rotors are at to each other for zero signal
conditions.
11. Air speed indicators indicated of the aircraft in
air at any moment.
12. Engine performance instruments includes ______.
13. All instruments have to be compensated ______ .
14. ASI and VSI works on the principle of _______.
15. Techniques are used in pressure measurement in
________________ aircraft.
16. The alternating current speed measurement
system, measures speed in terms of ___________ .
17. Thermocouple temperature measurement
instruments are of any external electrical supply for
their operation.
18. system provides indication of rate of consumption
of each engine and quantity of fuel remaining in ac.
19. is otherwise known as attitude indicator.
20. In reciprocating engines, for slow running test the
desired rpm is ______________________.
21. The _________________ is produced when two
dissimilar elements.
22. are joined together.
23. Attitude indicator is also known as ___________.
24. Gyros are free from interference by _________.
25. Important properties of gyros are _____________.
26. The three degrees of gyroscopes freedom is
______, ______, and ______.
27. INS uses ______ for inertial sensing.
28. Internal Navigation consists of INS and
__________.
29. In INS acceleration is integrated twice to get
______________.
30. INS is independent of ___________ interference .
31. True airspeed is EAS compensated for changes in
______________at various flight levels.
32. Computed airspeed is IAS with corrections for
__________.
33. Rate of climb indicator is a ___________ .
34. Lag in static pressure in ROCI is caused by using
__________.
35. Gyro horizon indicates attitude.
36. Two important properties of gyroscope are and .
37. Rate of precession is directly proportional to the
strength and .
38. A gyro horizon indicates the attitude of an aircraft
_______________.
39. Oxygen system used in aircraft are of type and
type _______________.
40. Atmospheric pressure is expressed in .
41. ICAO stands for _____________ .
42. An altimeter operates on the principle of an .
43. The pressure sensing element of the altimeter is
compensated for change in temp. by a ___________.
44. The sensing element in altimeter is ________.
45. The turn and bank indicator contains indecent
mechanisms.
46. For the detection of rate of turn are used.
47. ROCI is also called as ______________.
48. Red radial line on instrument dial indicates
____________.
49. The atm pressure at mean sea-level is equal to
_______ mb.
50. When an airspeed indicator corrected only for
instrument error, it reads ________.
51. Mach number is the ratio between _______ and
speed of sound.
52. Altitudes alert system alert the flight crew, of an
aircraft's approach to, or deviation from a _________
altitude.
53. The horizontal angle contained between the true
and magnetic meridian at any place is known as the
___________.
54. The special calibration procedure carried out on
compass to compensate for the deviations is known as
________.
55. In gyroscope, the increase of 'radius of gyration',
will results in increase of _______.
56. The no. of gimbals ring in rate gyroscope is
__________.
57. The no. of spokes in flux detector of MHRS
system is ______.
 STATE TRUE OR FALSE
1. ASI measures speed in terms of difference between
dynamic and static pressure.
2. IAS is the reading of an ASI corrected for position
error.
3. In ROCI capillary tube is used to produce lag in
static pressure.
4. Gyro horizon indicates only pitch of an ac.
5. Air data relates to the sensing and transmission of
picot and static pressure to indicators.
6. Transmission error is type of dynamic error.
7. Precision depends on moment of inertia of rotor.
8. Altitude is indirectly proportional to static pressure.
9. Atmospheric pressure increases with increasing
altitude.
10. Oxygen regulators are used for regulators of
oxygen supply from high to low pressure.
11. Below 37000 ft temp is const.
12. In QFE setting indicates 0 reading on landing at ,
and takeoff from airport.
13. In QNE barometric pressure is used to make the
altimeter read airport elevation above sea level on
landing and takeoff.
14. Rate gyro used in turn indicator has two gambol
rings.
15. If bank angle of a rate of turn is correct, the
resultant force holds the ball at the center of the tube.
16. Speed of sound depends on atmospheric pressure
and density , so it will vary with attitude of ac.
17. ROCI & VSI are same.
18. QFE setting the barometreic pressure to make the
altimeter read airport elevation above sea level on
landing and take off.
19. QNH setting the barometric pressure to make the
altimeter read airport elevation above sea level on
landing and take off.
20. The metering unit in ROCI introduces the required
rate and time lad factors and differential pressure
across the capsule which postion the pointer to
indicate altitude change in m/s.
21. Main components of ROCI are capsule, indicating
& metering unit.
22. In a ratio meter type temp indicating system, the
force produced by the coil will always tend to rotate
the measuring element in the same direction to that
produced in the second coil.
23. Thermocouple temp measurement inst are
independent of any external electrical supply for their
operation.
24. The pilot need not refer to AH, VSI, ASI,
Compasses constantly.
25. Accuracy considerations for instrument systems is
not determined by the importance of the system.
26. Artificial horizon is otherwise known as altitude
indicator.
27. Tank units are inductors whose value depends on
fuel tank contents.
28. Purpose of matching unit is to receive tank unit
output capacitance and compare this with standard
capacitance mounted in unit.
29. Fuel flow meter system provides indication of rate
of consumption of each engine and quantity of fuel
remaining in ac.
30. Diaphragms due to the sensitivity are usually
employed for the measurement of high pressure.
31. U- tube manometers and dead weight techniques
are used in pressure measurements in aircraft.
32. The three tapping are taken from the resister in
Desynn system at intervals of 120 degrees.
33. A bi-metal strip contains two metals with high co-
efficient of linear expansion joined at their interface to
form a single strip.
34. When a pressure is applied to the interior of a
bourdon tube, there is tendency for the tube to change
from elliptical c/s to circular.
35. Similar metals when joined at their ends produce
an electromotive force depending in the difference in
temperature between the junction.
36. The most important temperature of which pilot
must be aware of during flight is atmospheric
temperature.
37. Flat arm gauge and capacitor gauge are the two
typical form of gauge which operate by measuring the
level of fuel in tank.
38. Aircraft speed measurement system measures
speed in terms of voltage.
39. ROCI is used for measurement of altitude.
40. Altimeter is used for measurement of rate of climb
of an aircraft.
41. Air speed indicator indicates true air speed.
42. The device that indicates the desired pressure is
reached is called pressure switch.
43. INS is affected by weather.
44. INS can be easily jammed.
45. INS requires preflight alignment.
46. Rate gyro is an example of single degree of
freedom gyro.
47. Gyros are used for Radio navigation.
48. Magnetic compass contains single degree of
freedom gyros.
49. The period during the disturbance of a system is
known as transient period.
50. Ring laser gyroscope has no rotating mass or
gimbals ring.
51. Inertial Navigation System does not require initial
alignment.
52. The CRT is a thermiomic device.
53. The jet engine EGT indicating system works on
Seebuct effect.
54. The compensation for aircraft altitude changes in
the fuel quantity indicating system is done by
compensator tank unit.
55. In vertical speed indicator, the capsule compresses
when aircraft descents.
56. Places on charts, having the same dip angle are
joined by lines known as Isoclinals.
57. Oxygen charging can be carried out on aircraft
during refuelling operation provided adequate
precaution is observed.
58. In Altimeter, the static pressure is acting inside the
aneroid capsule.
59. Auto pilot basically designed to improve aircraft
stability.
 WRITE SHORT NOTES ON

1. Wheat stone bridge. 12. Banana slot compensation.

2. Ratio meter system. 13. Equivalent air speed.

3. Thermo resistance method of temperature 14. ROCI.

compensation.
15. Mach meter.
4. Differential synchros.
16. Aircraft oxygen system.
5. Bourdon tube.
17. Laser gyroscope.
6. Diaphragms.
18. Rate gyroscope.
7. Bellows.
19. Erection system in artifical horizon.
8. Gyroscope.
20. Limitation of free gyro.
9. Conventional gimbal gyros.
21. Altimeter.
10. Internal navigation.
22. TSI.
11. Inertial navigation system.
 VERY SHORT ANSWER
1. Define Faraday's laws of electro-magnetic
Induction.
2. Name the common faults in a lead acid
accumulator.
3. What is the function of Arithmetic and Logic Unit
in a Computer?
4. Write the purpose of Out Put Unit in Computer
System?
5. What are the functions of CPU in a Computer?
6. What are the applications of a Micro Processor?
7. How secondary Instruments are classified?
8. Explain briefly types of semi conductors.
9. Write the construction of transmitter used in Desyn
Transmission system.
10. Give advantages of static events over pressure
heads in an aircraft.
11. Define :- (i) Isothermal law (ii) I CAN law.
12. Name the errors in Air speed indicator.
13. Give the different ‘Q’ code settings for altimeter.
14. Explain the effects of without oxygen an human
body at various altitu.
15. What are the advantages of liquid oxygen over
gaseous oxygen ?
16. Name different types of gyroscope.
17. How the gyro motor deflection is transmitted to
the turn indicator pointer of DA-200?
18. What is Sperry's rule of precession?
19. Name the factors on which the rigidity of a
gyroscope depends.
20. Name the three degree of freedom of a gyroscope.
21. Explain lateral axis of an aircraft .
22. What is servo mechanism?
23. Define Temporary and permanent oscillation.
24. What are the various control of an aircraft.
Explain aileron control?
25. What is a servo mechanism? Explain it with
example.
26. Define oscillation Name types of oscillation and
factors on which it depends.
27. Explain why oxygen gas is necessary for Human
body.
28. Define following: (a) Rhumb line (b) Small circle.
29. Define electronics.
30. Define energy level.
31. Write short notes on vacuum diode.
32. How the electron beam is deflected left and right
on the screen in an ESCRT?
33. Define the term 'Fluorescence' and how it is
achieved in a CRT.
34. Write short notes on semiconductors.
35. Write short notes on ' Barrier Potential '.
36. Write short notes on ' Zener diode '.
37. Name the types of special diodes.
38. Name the various materials normally used for
manufacturing photo conductive cells.
39. Name the various uses of PIN diodes.
40. Write short notes on collector feed back bias.
41. Enumerate the advantages of transistors over
vacuum tubes.
42. Name various types of transistor configurations.
43. Name the types of Optical Fibers.
44. Explain why collector area in a transistor is larger
than emitter or base .

45. Briefly explain the general draw backs of LC
oscillators.
46. Enumerate the advantages of Wien bridge
oscillators.
47. Enumerate the advantages of crystal oscillators.
48. Write short notes on Piezo electric effect.
49. Define Transducers.
50. Write short notes on Borescope.
 SHORT ANSWER
1. Convert the following binary number to Octal
number and explain the procedure . display system.
1011011.011101(2).
2. Convert the following Hexadecimal number to
Binary number and explain the procedure : 8
EBD.A(16).
3. Write the rules to be observed while 2's
complement subtraction and subtract 1011(2) from
1111(2).
4. Subtract 101 from 111 by using 2'S Compliment.
5. List out the points to be observed while simplifying
Boolean expression by karnaugh map method.
6. Write short notes on the classification of multi
vibrator.
7. Define the term Binary addition and briefly explain
the rules of Binary addition.
8. Draw and explain in brief the Block diagram
computer system.
9. List out the differences between Software and
Hardware.
10. Explain in brief Application Software?
11. Define the term Software and Hardware.
12. Explain in brief the function of computer
operating system.
13. Write short notes on Floppy disk.
14. Explain in brief about PROM and EPROM.
15. Explain the purpose of Altimeter in an Aircraft.
16. Write the principle of Mach meter.
17. What do you understand by reciprocal bearing
method on compass and explain briefly?
18. Explain deviation and variation.
19. What are the conditions to be observed prior to
swinging the aircraft?
20. Name the different types of compass errors and
explain liquid swirl error.
21. What is error? How will you adjust regular error
on an instrument?
22. Name the parameters displayed on Head Down
23. Name the various DC power supply fed to the
stabilisers in Head up display system.
24. Name the sub assemblies Head up display system.
25. Describe the electrically driven gyroscope and
write its advantages.
26. Explain briefly JPT gauge.
27. Define "Seebeck Effect" and name the factors on
which the EMF depends.
28. Explain about Seebeck effect.
29. Describe in brief a capsule.
30. Write down the procedure of adjusting the relief
valve for HP charging.
31. Write short notes on conduction band.
32. Write short notes on directly heated cathode.
33. Write short notes on Space Charge.
34. Name and explain the essential components of a CRT.
35. Write short notes on conductors.
36. Write short notes on Zener breakdown.
37. Write short notes on ' depletion layer '.
38. Briefly explain " Diffusion Capacitance" in a PN
junction.
39. Write short notes on ' Avalanche Breakdown '.
40. Briefly explain the operation of ' Step Recovery
Diode '.
41. Write short notes on Tunnel Diode.
42. How transducers are classified ?
43. Write the procedure to carry out the bonding test
on an aircraft.
44. Write the various uses of Cathode Ray
Oscilloscope.
45. How will you determine the unknown frequency
with the help of CRO ?
 LONG ANSWER
1. With the help of a neat sketch explain the principle,
operation and use of Thermocouple Instrument.
2. Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator
circuit using a Zener diode and explain its working.
3. Enumerate the requirements of ac instrument
system?
4. What are the various principal elements of an
instrument?
5. Draw and explain Astable multivibrator.
6. Draw and explain Bistable multivibrator.
7. Draw and explain RS Flipflop.
8. Draw and explain JK Flipflop.
9. Explain how a micro computer works.
10. What is a principle used in networking in a
computer system.
11. Explain memory organisation in micro computer.
12. What is Cache memory in a computer.
13. What are the advantages of LCD over LED.
14. Explain how LED works.
15. What is the difference between soldering and
brazing.
16. Enumerate the requirements of ac instrument
system?
17. Briefly explain the various methods of
temperature compensation?
18. What are various electrical temperature indicating
system?
19. What is cold junction temperature compensation.
20. What are the effects of fuel temperature changes.
21. What are the main functions of INS?
22. Define inertial navigation. Why is preferred over
other types of navigation?
23. Explain the functioning of INS.
24. What do understand by rigidity and precession?
25. Explain the constructional details of the basic
component in INS i.e., gyroscope.
26. Explain the need of INS in modern aircraft?
27. What are the various sub-assemblies in an INS?
28. What are the advantages of INS over conventional
navigation system?
29. What is the purpose of Auto Pilot.
30. What are the main component of auto pilot.
31. What is the purpose of rate gyro.
32. What is the purpose of Servo motor.
33. How the pitch disturbance is eliminated in auto
pilot system.
34. How is the roll disturbance & Yaw disturbance are
over come in auto pilot system.
35. Briefly explain Automatic approach coupling unit.
36. What is cross feed.
37. What is the principle of operation of auto pilot
system.
38. What are the advantage of Rate gyro over
displacement gyro.
39. Name the layers of Atmosphere.
40. Name the units used to express Atmoshpheric
preasure.
41. What is the temperature at mean sea level.
42. The temperature is constant above (a) 36900 ft (b)
46900 ft (c) 26900 ft (d) 56900 ft.
43. What the precautions to be observed while oxygen
charging.
44. What are the various components of oxygen
system.
45. Write the main parts of oxygen regulator.
46. What are the precautions to be observed while
calibrating oxygen equipments.
47. What is the procedure for replacing any oxygen
components and how will replace a new oxygen
components.
48. Write precautions while operating oxygen tester.
49. Name the main parts of the oxygen system.
50. What is an ANOXIA? What are the ill effect of
ANOXIA on human body.
51. Draw the block diagram of pitot-static and explain
briefly?
52. What are the various ‘Q’ codes for altimeter
setting. Explain briefly?
53. Draw and explain briefly simple altimeter?
54. Define (a) Indicated air speed (b) True air speed
(c) Rectified air speed.
55. What is square law compensation in ASI?
56. Expand the following (a) TSI (b) TAS.
57. Explain briefly the properties of a gyroscope?
58. What are the various degrees of freedom of a
gyroscope?
59. Write short notes on (a) Laser gyroscope (b) Rate
gyroscope (c) Erection system in artificial horizon (d)
Limitation of a free gyro.
60. What is the purpose of the metering unit in a
ROCI.
61. What are the principle components of an aircraft
oxygen system.
62. Explain briefly about the components of aircraft
oxygen system.
63. How bank indication is achieved in a TSI.
64. Draw a simple diagram of ASI and briefly explain.
65. Explain briefly the gyro horizon principle.
66. What are the two commonly used principle used
in square law compensation.
67. Write the purpose and and operation of caging
mechanism of DG.
68. Define, Rigidity precession torque and gyro
wander.
69. Write in brief the properties of gyroscope.
70. What are the advantages of electrical operated
gyro over air driven gyro? .Name the various types of
gyroscope.
71. Define gyroscope. Name the type of gyroscope
and explain any one of them.
72. What is gyro wander? How is it minimised in a
rate gyroscope and explain three degree of freedom of
gyroscope?
73. Write the purpose and operation erection
mechanism in gyro horizon indicator.
74. Define gyroscope. State spree's rule of precession,
Why it is applied to a gyroscope?
75. Write the purpose and operation of erection
system of gyro horizon indicator (Badin type) when
the rotor axis is deflected from the vertical in either
plane.
76. What is gyroscopic inertia or rigidity, how it is
increased?
77. What do you understand by the term oscillation?
Name the different types oscillation and briefly
explain causes of oscillation.
78. Draw a block diagram denoting various hardware
and its inter connection.
79. Briefly explain the principle of operation of
altitude module of ADC.
80. Write the different components of MHRS system
and mention the use of flux detector.
81. What is the purpose of flight director system and
mention its components.
82. Write the difference between INS and IRS system.
83. Write the alignment sequence of IN/IR system.
84. Draw a neat sketch of CRT.
85. Write the construction of colour CRT.
86. Explain servo operated TPM indicating system.
87. What is the purpose of EPR indicator and explain
its basic operation.
88. Briefly explain principle of operation of integrated
flow meter system.
89. What do you mean by EICAS and briefly explain
its display modes.
90. What is Flight Management System and write
down its components.
91. Briefly explain the typical passenger oxygen
system.
92. Name and explain various types of electron
emission.
93. With the aid of a symbol sketch, explain the
operation of pentode valve.
94. With the aid of VI characteristic curve, explain
characteristics of vacuum diode.
95. Name and explain the main types of
semiconductors.
96. With the aid of symbol, explain the construction,
operation and uses of schottkey diode (Hot.
97. Enumerate the uses of different types of special
diodes.
98. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram, explain the
construction, operation and peak inverse.
99. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram explain the
description and operation of Hartley oscil.
100. Draw a neat structure and symbol diagram of
NPN forward reverse bias transistor and explain i.
101. With the help of a neat circuit diagram, explain
the description and operation of Colpits osc.
102. With the help of a suitable structural and
schematic circuit diagram explain how a SCR reache.
103. Write the different types of displays and colour
coding used in instrument indication.
104. Mention the difference between LED and LCD
diodes.
105. Draw a diagram of basic flight instrument
grouping and mark the 'Basic T' instruments.
106. Draw the sketch of combined pilot static probe
and mark the different parts.
107. What is pressure error and how it is
compensated?
108. What is TAS and how it is calculated in Air
Speed indicators?
109. Why square-law compensation is required in
ASI?
110. Briefly explain servo altimeter with a diagram.
111. What are the Q-code of communication in
connection with altimeter setting and briefly explain.
112. How instantaneous indication is generated by
IVSI?
113. What is 'Ram Rise' and how it is created in TAT
probe?
114. Why stall warming system used in aircraft and
how many method of indication available to the flight
crew?
115. What is turning error in DR compass and how it
is compensated?
116. Briefly explain the mechanism of deviation
compensator device in DR compass.
117. How the direction of precession is determined in
gyroscope?
118. What is transport wander and how it is
controlled?
119. What are the types of erection system used in
gyroscope?
120. Explain fast erection system in gyroscope.
121. Why erection cutout system is required in
electrically operated gyro horizons?
122. Briefly explain the operation of Rate gyroscope.
123. Draw the diagram of control synchro system and
mention the use of control transformer (CT).
BLANK
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

1. A Random Access Memory (RAM) is: 10. A worksheet is also known as:
A. Volatile memory. A. Page.
B. Non volatile memory. B. Spreadsheet.
C. Temporary memory. C. Document.
D. Permanent memory. D. Workbook.

2. The memory which is also called as 'Read Write 11. In MS EXCEL, the (arrow) shape of the mouse
Memory' is: pointer indicates:
A. ROM. A. Entering the data.
B. RAM. B. Cut and paste.
C. PROM. C. Copy and paste.
D. EPROM. D. Start menu.

3. The memory in which MOSFETS are used is: 12. In MS EXCEL worksheet, rows are denoted by:
A. ROM. A. Alphabets.
B. PROM. B. Numbers.
C. EPROM. C. Asterisks.
D. Static RAM. D. Arrows.

4. In a computer application window, the status bar 13. A chart data series is a collection of:
displays: A. Related values.
A. The menu for the application. B. Functional values.
B. The name of the application. C. Collected values.
C. The font size, types of styles and alignment. D. Resulted values.
D. Message, page number and section number.
14. A chart that exists on your worksheet is known as:
5. In computer application window, the bar used to A. Radar chart.
change document style and font size is: B. Embedded chart.
A. Status bar. C. Scattered chart.
B. Standard tool bar. D. Column chart.
C. Formatting tool bar.
D. Menu bar. 15. In Binary subtraction, subtract 11011 from 10111
A. - 11011.
6. In MS EXCEL, a formula can be a maximum of : B. - 00100.
A. 255 characters long. C. + 11011.
B. 235 characters long. D. + 00100.
C. 245 characters long.
D. 275 characters long. 16. Complement of a complement equal to:
A. Zero.
7. An EXCEL FILE is known as: B. Complement.
A. Note book. C. One.
B. Work book. D. Original.
C. Work sheet.
D. Document. 17. The 1's compliment of a binary number is the
number that results when :
8. In MS EXCEL, the [+] of mouse pointer stands for: A. Each 0 is changed to 1 and vice-versa.
A. Start menu. B. Each 0 is changed to 2 and vice-versa.
B. Copy and paste. C. Each 0 is changed to 4 and vice-versa.
C. Cut and paste. D. Each 0 is changed to 8 and vice-versa.
D. Entering the data.
18. Binary equivalent of 34.4 (8) is :
9. An EXCEL workbook has a number of: A. 10100.1100.
A. Pages. B. 11000.0011.
B. Documents. C. 10011.0101.
C. Worksheets. D. 11100.100.
D. Workbooks.
19. Flip Flop is also known as : A. Ohm.
A. Astable Multi vibrator. B. Coulomb.
B. Mono stable Multi vibrator. C. MHO.
C. Bi stable multi vibrator. D. Volt.
D. Tri stable multi vibrator.
29. The unit representing power or by which the rate
20. For production of voltage pulses without any of doing work is measured is :
driving pulse of all most square wave shape, occurring A. Joule.
periodically, the circuit used is. B. Watt.
A. Free running multi vibrator. C. Ohms.
B. Mono stable multi vibrator. D. None of the above.
C. Bi stable multi vibrator.
D. RS flip flop. 30. The symbol of Impedence is :
A. R.
21. Among the following ,the output device in a B. Z.
computer is: C. I.
A. Key board. D. V.
B. Printer.
C. Mouse. 31. The value of Milli ampere is:
D. Joy stick. A. 0.01 ampere.
B. 0.1 ampere.
22. Many dot matrix printers are: C. 0.0001 ampere.
A. Unidirectional. D. 0.001 ampere.
B. Tri-directional.
C. Bi-directional. 32. The total opposition offered to the flow of current
D. Quadra-directional. in an AC circuit by resistance inductance and
capacitance is known as:
23. Dot matrix printer is an example of: A. Ohm.
A. Line printer. B. Conductance.
B. Laser printer. C. Impedance.
C. Drum printer. D. Watt Hour.
D. Character printer.
33. If the Voltage applied and the resistance of a
24. A keyboard is a most common: circuit are doubled the circuit will be:
A. Memory unit. A. Doubled.
B. Input device. B. Halved.
C. Control device. C. Four times.
D. Output device. D. Remaining same.

25. Unit of current by which the rate of flow of 34. A capacitor consists of two:
electricity is measured is: A. Insulators separated by a dielectric.
A. Volt. B. Conductors separated by an insulator.
B. Ampere. C. Ceramic plates and one mica disc.
C. Coulomb. D. Silver coated Insulators.
D. Ohm.
35. A force that tends to drive electricity through a
26. One Joule is equal to : circuit is called:
A. One watt second. A. Ampere.
B. One watt hour. B. Wattage.
C. One watt minute. C. RMS value.
D. One watt. D. EMF.

27. Ohm'S Law states that: 36. The meter, which is used for measuring and
A. R= V/I. comparing the emf of different cells for calibrating
B. V = R/I. and standardizing voltmeters and ammeters, is known
C. I = R/V. as:
D. R = VxI. A. Potentiometer.
B. Bonding tester.
28. The practical unit of Conductance is : C. Ammeter.
D. Multi meter. B. 30 GHz to 300 GHz.
C. 300 MHz to 3000 MHz.
37. The resistance 'R' offered by a conductor depends D. 30 MHz to 300 MHz.
upon:
A. R = L / A. 46. Computer which doesn't compute directly with the
B. A = L / R. number is called :
C. L = R / A. A. Mini computer.
D. P = L / A. B. Micro computer.
C. Digital computer.
38. To specify the magnitude of resistance, colour D. Analog computer.
code is used. Certain colours are used for certain
numbers. Number used for 'Black' band resistance is: 47. Flip flops are clocked to achieve :
A. 1. A. Synchronization.
B. 5. B. Optimization.
C. 0. C. More propagations time.
D. 2. D. 'O' as output of all flip flop.

39. One mega ohm is equal to: 48. The number 17 octal is equivalent to binary :
A. 10 to the power 2ohms. A. 111.
B. 10 to the power 3 ohms. B. 1110.
C. 10 to the power 4 ohms. C. 10000.
D. 10 to the power 6 ohms. D. 1111.

40. When different resistances are joined end on end, 49. Which of the following is not octal number:
they are said to be connected in: A. 19.
A. Parallel. B. 7.
B. Series - parallel. C. 15.
C. Parallel - series. D. 101.
D. Series.
50. Junction diode is a :
41. The current flowing through a conductor is A. Bipolar device.
proportional to difference of potential at the ends of B. Constant voltage device.
the conductor, provided the temperature remains C. Unipolar device.
constant is defined by: D. Constant current device.
A. Coulombs Law.
B. Ohms Law. 51. A register stores :
C. Joules Law. A. One word of data.
D. Kirchoffs Law. B. A byte.
C. One instruction.
42. VHF frequency band ranges from : D. 4 bits data.
A. 300 MHz to 3000MHz.
B. 300 KHz to 30MHz. 52. Not gate is known as :
C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz. A. Converter.
D. 300 KHz to 3000 KHz. B. Inverter.
C. Rectifier.
43. Medium frequency ranges from. D. Amplifier.
A. 30 MHz to 300 MHz.
B. 300 KHz to 3000 KHz. 53. Computer hardware usually refers to :
C. 30 GHz to 300 GHz. A. Hard metallic component of a computer.
D. 3 GHz to 30 GHz. B. Various associated program.
C. CPU.
44. High frequency (HF) ranges from: D. Central processor input/output devices and backing
A. 3 MHz to 30 MHz. storage.
B. 30MHz to 300 MHz.
C. 300 MHz to 3000 MHz. 54. In high level language, the source program is
D. 3000KHz to 30MHz. translated into object program with the help of :
A. Computer.
45. Ultra High Frequency (UHF) ranges from: B. Converter.
A. 36GHz to 30 GHz. C. Compiler.
D. Translator. C. Sum=0,carry=0.
D. Sum =0,carry=1.
55. When an input electrical signal A=10100 is
applied to a NOT gate its output signal is a: 64. A full adder consists of :
A. 01011. A. Two half adders cascaded together.
B. 10101. B. Two half adders and one OR gate.
C. 10100. C. Two half adders and one AND gate.
D. 00101. D. Two NAND gates.

56. Truth table of a logic functions : 65. The type of memory, which provides very large
A. Summaries its output value. storage capability with a moderate operating speed, is
B. Tabulates all its input conditions. known as :
C. Displays all its input/output possibilities. A. Dynamic memory.
D. Is not based on the logic algebra. B. Magnetic disc memory.
C. Magnetic memory.
57. A static memory is one that. D. Bi polar memory.
A. Is capable of storing binary information
indefinitely. 66. The first generation computer was introduced
B. Requires periodic restoration of information. with:
C. Is volatile. A. Solid state transistors.
D. Has destructive read out. B. Vacuum tubes.
C. Chips.
58. A counter where all the flip flops are fed D. IC's.
altogether at the same time with the clock is called.
A. Ring counter. 67. If an electron moves from the conduction band in
B. Serial counter. to the valance band, so that a mobile electron hole
C. Synchronous counter. pair disappear, then this process is known as:
D. Decade counter. A. Collision.
B. Re combination.
59. Semi conductor memory in computer is based on. C. Partition.
A. Magnetic circuit operation. D. Thermal agitation.
B. Transformer operation.
C. Transistor operation. 68. Peak to peak detector is used:
D. Non magnetic circuit operation. A. In measuring instrument.
B. In oscillator.
60. A half adder is called so because it : C. In amplifier.
A. Can add half the bits in a binary number. D. For regulation of voltage.
B. Works for half time only.
C. Performs addition in two halves. 69. Series inductance in smoothing circuit:
D. Can not accept a carry from previous additions. A. Bypasses AC variation.
B. Opposes DC variation.
61. A half adder can be constructed from : C. Opposes AC variation.
A. Two XOR gates only. D. Gives fluctuating output.
B. One XOR and one Or gate with their Outputs
connected in parallel. 70. In clipping circuits, the clipping level is primarily
C. One XOR and one OR gate with their Input determined by:
connected in Parallel. A. Shape of input wave form.
D. One XOR gate and one AND gate. B. Battery voltage.
C. Value of the resistor.
62. The only function of a NOT gate is to: D. Knee voltage of the diode.
A. Stop a signal.
B. Re-complement a signal. 71. A device that can rectify frequencies above 300 M
C. Invert an input signal. Hz for beyond the capacity of the bipolar diode is:
D. Act as a universal gate. A. Zener diode.
B. Step recovery diode.
63. In a half adder when the input signal A=1 and B=1 C. Schottky diode.
the : D. Pin diode.
A. Sum =1,carry=0.
B. Sum =1, carry =1.
72. In a CC amplifier, voltage gain: D. Base and emitter.
A. Cannot exceed unity.
B. Depends upon output impedance. 81. When the emitter/ base junction of a transistor is
C. Dependent on input signal. reverse biased, collector current:
D. Is always constant. A. Is reversed.
B. Increases.
73. The main use of class C amplifier is: C. Decreases.
A. In RF circuits of a TXR above 20 K Hz. D. Stops.
B. As stereo amplifier.
C. In communication sound equipment. 82. The transistor circuit used to couple a low
D. As distortion generator. impedance source to a high impedance load is:
A. Length of the vertical deflecting plates.
74. The value of Alpha (Current amplification) in B. Distance between screen and deflecting plates.
junction transistor is: C. Deflecting voltages.
A. Less than one. D. Separation between Y Plates.
B. More than one.
C. Equal to one. 83. The deflection sensitivity of a CRT depends
D. 0.707 of one. inversely on:
A. Length of the vertical deflecting plates.
75. The unwanted screen current in a pentode valve is B. Distance between screen and deflecting plates.
prevented by: C. Deflecting voltages.
A. Capacitor. D. Separation between Y Plates.
B. Suppressor grid.
C. Control grid. 84. The voltage across the depletion layer due to
D. Choke. diffusion of the carrier is called:
A. Energy hill.
76. If the control grid in a triode as an amplifier B. Fermi level.
circuit is open circuited, it will work as: C. Depletion voltage.
A. Amplifier. D. Potential hill.
B. Rectifier.
C. Oscillator. 85. Magnetron is used as :
D. Rectifier or an amplifier. A. High frequency high power output oscillator.
B. Low frequency and high power output oscillator.
77. If by mistake, AC source in a bridge rectifier is C. High frequency low power output oscillator.
connected across the DC terminals, it will result in D. Low frequency low power output oscillator.
burning of:
A. One diode. 86. Reflex klystron is used as:
B. Two diodes. A. Low frequency low power output oscillator.
C. Three diodes. B. Low frequency high power output oscillator.
D. Four diodes. C. High frequency low power output oscillator.
D. High frequency high power output oscillator.
78. The additional energy required by an electron to
overcome the surface barrier of the metal is known as: 87. Radar works on the principle of:
A. Surface barrier. A. Doppler.
B. Work function. B. Echo.
C. Transfer of electron. C. Electromagnetic induction.
D. Electron emission. D. Transformer.

79. A bypass capacitor produces an: 88. Out -put of short C.R. differentiation circuit for a
A. Ideal ground. square wave input is :
B. DC ground. A. Sine wave.
C. Virtual ground. B. Square wave.
D. AC ground. C. Saw tooth wave.
D. Peaky in nature.
80. The common base PNP junction transistor has
reverse biased arrangement between: 89. Position of satellite in the sky is known as:
A. Emitter and base. A. Geo stationary orbit.
B. Emitter and collector. B. First orbit.
C. Collector and base. C. Second orbit.
D. Last orbit. 99. Erasable PROM (EPROM) is:
A. Temporary memory.
90. Loud speaker is: B. Permanent memory.
A. An electrical device. C. Volatile memory.
B. Mechanical device. D. Non volatile memory.
C. An electro mechanical device.
D. A pneumatic device. 100. In Erasable PROM (EPROM), data can be erased
by exposing it to:
91. The process of separating signal in frequency is A. X' rays.
called: B. Alpha rays.
A. FDM. C. Infra red rays.
B. TDM. D. Ultra violet rays.
C. PDM.
D. MDM. 101. In secondary memories, an amplifier and
comparator are used to convert:
92. The range of LOS communication is : A. Small signal to large signal.
A. 600 miles. B. Large signal to small signal.
B. 40 miles. C. Small signal to standard logic levels.
C. 30 to 40 miles. D. Standard logic levels to small signal.
D. 250 to 600 miles.
102. Indicate the false statement. Modulation is used
93. In amplitude modulation, wave shape is to.
maintained at a very broad band in: A. reduce the bandwidth.
A. Audio telecast. B. separate differing transmissions.
B. Video telecast. C. ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over
C. PA telecast. long distance.
D. Live telecast. D. allow the use of practical antennas.

94. Marker are used to : 103. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed
A. Indicate the position of the aircraft with respect to from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is:
touch down. A. Unchanged.
B. Help pilot to take off the aircraft. B. Halved.
C. Avoid heavy landing. C. Doubled.
D. To make sure accident free landing. D. Increased by 50%.

95. Radio compass is used to find out the : 104. In communication system noise is most likely to
A. True north. affect the signal.
B. Relative bearing of the station tuned. A. At the transmitter.
C. Altitude. B. In the information source.
D. Speed of the aircraft. C. In the channel.
D. At the destination.
96. The range of AC voltmeter on 11.25 KVA set is :
A. 0 to 150V AC. 105. In a broadcast Superheterodyne receiver, the.
B. 0 to 230 V AC. A. local oscillator operates below the signal
C. 0 to 250V AC. frequency.
D. 0 to 300V AC. B. Mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency.
C. Local oscillator frequency is normally double the
97. The range of airport location Beacon is : IF.
A. 150 Km. D. RF amplifier normally works at 455 KHz above
B. 100 Km. the carrier frequency.
C. 50 Km.
D. 20 Km. 106. One of the following cannot be used to remove
the unwanted sideband in SSB. This is the :
98. When the Perspex is warmed it can be : A. Filter system.
A. Easily moulded. B. Phase shift method.
B. Tendency of facture. C. Third Method.
C. Malleable. D. Balanced Modulator.
D. Ductile.
107. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is 115. Indicate which one of the following is not an
doubled. The noise power generated is therefore : advantage of FM over AM.
A. halved. A. better noise immunity is provided.
B. quadrupled. B. lower bandwidth is required.
C. doubled. C. the transmitted power is more useful.
D. unchanged. D. less modulating power is required.

108. Indicate the noise whose source is in the category 116. Indicate the false statement regarding the
different from that of the other three. advantage of SSB over double sideband, full carrier
A. Solar noise. AM.
B. Cosmic noise. A. More channel space is available.
C. Atmospheric noise. B. Transmitter circuit must be more stable, giving
D. Galactic noise. better reception.
C. The signal is more noise resistant.
109. In a low level AM system amplifier is following D. Much less power is required for the same signal
the modulated stage must be. strength.
A. Linear devices.
B. Harmonic devices. 117. The most commonly used filters in SSB
C. Class C amplifier. generation are.
D. Non linear devices. A. Mechanical.
B. RC.
110. If the carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is C. LC.
suppressed the percentage power saving will be. D. Low-pass.
A. 50.
B. 150. 118. In a radio receiver with simple AGC.
C. 100. A. an increase in the signal strength produces more
D. 66.6. AGC.
B. the audio stage gain is normally controlled by the
111. One of the following is not a useful quantity for AGC.
comparing the noise performance. C. the faster the AGC time constant, the more
A. Input noise voltage. accurate the output.
B. Noise temperature. D. the highest the AGC voltage is produced between
C. Equivalent noise temperature. stations.
D. Noise figure.
119. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is
112. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by the two tuned to the frequency higher than the incoming
Sine waves with the modulation indices of 0.3 and frequency.
0.4; the total modulation index is. A. To help the image frequency rejection.
A. 1. B. To permit easier tracking.
B. cannot be calculated unless the phase relation s are C. Because otherwise an intermediate frequency could
known. not be produced.
C. 0.5. D. To allow adequate frequency coverage without
D. 0.7. switching.

113. In the spectrum of frequency modulated wave.
A. The carrier frequency disappears when the
modulation index is large.
B. The amplitude of any sideband depends on the
modulation index.
C. The total number of sidebands depends on the
modulation index.
D. The carrier frequency cannot disappear.
114. A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise
immunity by.
A. boosting the bass frequencies.
B. amplifying the higher audio frequencies.
C. pre-amplifying the shole audio band.
D. converting the phase modulation to FM.
120. If the intermediate frequency is very high
(indicate the false statement).
A. Image frequency rejection is very good.
B. The local oscillator need not be extremely stable.
C. The selectivity will be poor.
D. Tracking will be improved.
121. One of the following cannot be used to
demodulate SSB.
A. product detector.
B. diode balanced modulator.
C. bipolar transistor balanced modulator.
D. complete phase shift generator.
122. Distance near The skip distance should be used 131. The transistor used in power amplifier have.
for sky wave propagation. A. large current ratings.
A. to avoid tilting. B. large voltage ratings.
B. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference. C. large power dissipating capacity.
C. to avoid the faraday effect. D. neither of these characteristics.
D. so as not to exceed the critical frequency.
132. The input and output signals of a CE amplifier
123. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by are.
means of. A. Always equal.
A. Ground waves. B. Out of phase.
B. Sky waves. C. Always negative.
C. Surface waves. D. In phase.
D. Space waves.
124. The ground wave eventually disappears, as one 133. A Flip Flop is a.
moves away from the transmitter, because of. A. Astable Multivibrator.
A. interference from. B. Bistable Multivibrator.
B. loss of line of sight conditions. C. Monostable Multivibrator.
C. maximum single hop distance limitation. D. None of the above.
D. tilting.
134. In a Transistor if the base resistance is shorted it
125. To provide two or more voice circuits with the will be :
same carrier, it is necessary to use. A. Saturated.
A. ISB. B. Cut off.
B. Carrier. C. Destroyed.
C. SSB with pitot carrier. D. None of the above.
D. Lincompex.
135. The transistor of Class B push pull Amplifiers
126. In EM waves polarization is. are biased at :
A. caused by reflection. A. Cut off.
B. is due to the transverse nature of the waves. B. Center of DC load line.
C. results from longitudinal nature of the waves. C. Saturation.
D. is always vertical in an isotropic medium. D. Biasing is fixed by manufacturer.

127. The emitter of a transistor is doped. 136. The varactor is usually.

A. to a lesser extent than collector. A. F Biased.
B. depends upon specification. B. R Biased.
C. heavily. C. Unbiased.
D. so that most of emitter injected electron ea go to D. In the breakdown region.
the base of transistor.
137. For nomal operation of the transistor the
128. Basic drawback with base bias circuit is. collector diode has tobe.
A. the base and collecter power supplies are same. A. F B.
B. base and collecter resistors are returned to collector B. R B.
supply. C. Non conducting.
C. it cannot be used in switching circuits. D. Operating in breakdown region.
D. Beta dc varies with current and temperature.
138. Modulation index in FM is :
129. In the collector feedback bias. A. directly proportional modulating voltage.
A. the Beta dc generally varies. B. Inversely proportional to mod. Frequency.
B. the base resistor is grounded. C. Directly proportional to modulating frequency.
C. the base resistor is returned to the collector than to D. Inversely proportional to the mod voltage.
power supply.
D. difficult to set a stable Q-point. 139. The amount of energy required for an electron to
jump from valance band to conduction band is equal
130. Amplification factor for triode is given by. to:
A. = rp/gm. A. 1.1 eV.
B. = gm.rp. B. 1.2 eV.
C. = gm/rp+gm. C. 11 eV.
D. None of the above. D. 2.1 eV.
140. A lower IF helps : 148. Indicate which one of the following is not an
A. To reject Second Channel frequency. advantage of FM over AM.
B. To reject adjacent channel frequency. A. better noise immunity is provided.
C. Increase tracking difficulties. B. lower bandwidth is required.
D. Better image frequency rejection. C. the transmitted power is more useful.
D. less modulating power is required.
141. When the power O/P of an amplifier is 15 W
and input power is 0.5 W, the Gain in dB is : 149. The most commonly used filters in SSB
A. 15.5. generation are.
B. 30. A. Mechanical.
C. 14.5. B. RC.
D. 7.5. C. LC.
D. Low-pass.
142. Indicate the false statement. Modulation is used
to. 150. In a radio receiver with simple AGC.
A. reduce the bandwidth. A. an increase in the signal strength produces more
B. separate differing transmissions. AGC.
C. ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over B. the audio stage gain is normally controlled by the
long distance. AGC.
D. allow the use of practical antennas. C. the faster the AGC time constant, the more
accurate the output.
143. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed D. the highest the AGC voltage is produced between
from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is: stations.
A. Unchanged.
B. Halved. 151. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is
C. Doubled. tuned to the frequency higher than the incoming
D. Increased by 50%. frequency.
A. To help the image frequency rejection.
144. In a broadcast Superheterodyne receiver, the. B. To permit easier tracking.
A. local oscillator operates below the signal C. Because otherwise an intermediate frequency could
frequency. not be produced.
B. Mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency. D. To allow adequate frequency coverage without
C. Local oscillator frequency is normally double the switching.
IF.
D. RF amplifier normally works at 455 KHz above 152. If the intermediate frequency is very high
the carrier frequency. (indicate the false statement).
A. Image frequency rejection is very good.
145. One of the following cannot be used to remove B. The local oscillator need not be extremely stable.
the unwanted sideband in SSB. This is the : C. The selectivity will be poor.
A. Filter system. D. Tracking will be improved.
B. Phase shift method.
C. Third Method. 153. One of the following cannot be used to
D. Balanced Modulator. demodulate SSB.
A. product detector.
146. In a low level AM system amplifier is following B. diode balanced modulator.
the modulated stage must be. C. bipolar transistor balanced modulator.
A. Linear devices. D. complete phase shift generator.
B. Harmonic devices.
C. Class C amplifier. 154. Distance near The skip distance should be used
D. Non linear devices. for sky wave propagation.
A. to avoid tilting.
147. If the carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is B. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference.
suppressed the percentage power saving will be. C. to avoid the faraday effect.
A. 50. D. so as not to exceed the critical frequency.
B. 150.
C. 100. 155. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by
D. 66.6. means of.
A. Ground waves.
B. Sky waves.
C. Surface waves. A. The carrier not droping to zero when key is
D. Space waves. opened.
B. The use of low grid block voltage.
156. The ground wave eventually disappears, as one C. The instantaneous rise of carrier power from zero
moves away from the transmitter, because of. to full power.
A. interference from. D. Use of undesirable load.
B. loss of line of sight conditions.
C. maximum single hop distance limitation. 165. The type of keying used for eliminating arcing
D. tilting. is :
A. Over bias keying.
157. If JK flip flop changes its state more than once B. Centre filament Keying.
during propagations. C. Anode keying.
A. Racing. D. Grid keying.
B. Toggling.
C. Running. 166. In time division Multiplexing the frame bit is
D. Mixing. added for the purpose of :
158. A counter where all the flip flops are fed A. Sampling.
altogether at the same t. B. Synchronization.
A. Ring counter. C. Pulse amplitude modulation.
B. Serial counter. D. Pulse width modulation.
C. Synchronous counter.
D. Decade counter. 167. Salient features of low level modulation is :
A. Following stage where modulation takes place has
159. A half adder can be constructed from: to be linear.
A. Two XOR gates only. B. Power handling capacity is more.
B. One XOR and one Or gate with their Outputs C. More numbers of AF stages are required.
connected in parallel. D. Less efficiency.
C. One XOR and one OR gate with their Input
connected in Parallel. 168. Selectivity of a reciever can be improved by
D. One XOR gate and one AND gate. employing:
A. More number of tuned circuit.
160. A 8 bit parallel binary adder consists of: B. More number of AF stages.
A. 8 full adder. C. More number of RF pre-selector.
B. 7 full adder and 01 half adder. D. More number of IF stages.
C. 4 full adder and 4 half adder.
D. 8 half adder. 169. The purpose of buffer amplifier in a transmitter
is to :
161. Complement adder / substractor is based on: A. Isolate aerial from mixer stage.
A. 3's complement. B. Isolate IF stages from local oscillator stage.
B. 2's complement. C. Connect MO to other amplifying stages.
C. 1's complement. D. Isolate MO from the amplifying stages.
D. 0's complement.
170. A process in which same active device is used as
162. A group o flip flop wired as a shift register is mixer as well as Oscillator is called :
used for shifting a b. A. Endodyne.
A. Into the register. B. Heterodyne.
B. Out of the register. C. VCO.
C. Out of the flip flop. D. Synthesizer.
D. Both a and b.
171. When the power gain is 0.01, the decibel power
163. In MOPA system, antenna is not coupled directly gain is :
to the tank circuit of the oscillator to avoid : A. -20 dB.
A. Reduction in level of transmission. B. 20 dB.
B. use on both CW and RT. C. 10 dB.
C. Frequency instability. D. -10dB.
D. increased power transmission.
172. The stage which isolate power amplifier from the
164. Chirps in keying are caused due to : Master Oscillator is known as:
A. Divider stage.
B. Buffer stage. A. Beta DC.
C. Harmonic Generator. B. I c.
D. Modulator. C. I b.
D. Alfa DC.
173. In vestigial side band the lower edge of the USB
frequency band transmits : 181. Transistor is always operated in :
A. Video Carrier. A. Saturation region.
B. Audio Carrier. B. Active region.
C. Pilot Carrier. C. Break down region.
D. Audio and Video Carrier. D. All the above.

174. Noise which is produced due to random 182. The kind of coupling in which power loss is
variations in the arrival of Electrons or Holes at more :
Collector of an Amplifying device is referred as : A. R C.
A. Thermal Agitation noise. B. Impedence.
B. Gas Noise. C. Direct.
C. Shot Noise. D. Transformer.
D. Flicker Noise.
183. A modified discriminator circuit to provide
175. In amplitude modulation distortion is overcome limitting is called:
by : A. Phase discriminator.
A. Carrier being higher than modulating voltage. B. Slop Detector.
B. Carrier not be greater than modulating voltage. C. Balanced Slop Detector.
C. Modulation index should be between 0 to 2. D. Ratio Detector.
D. Modulation frequency should be kept constant.
184. While designing large signal amplifiers with
176. The formation of electron cloud near the Cathode maximum AC out put compliance the 'Q' is to be
can be reduced by : located :
A. Decreasing the anode voltage. A. located above the centre of DC load line.
B. Increase the distance between Anode and Cathode. B. located below the centre of DC load line.
C. Decreasing the distance between Anode and C. located at the centre of DC load line.
Cathode. D. located above and below the centre of DC load
D. By introducing a heated filament under the line.
Cathode.
185. The resistance of Carbon is affected by :
177. A gate gives 1 out put when all the inputs are 1 is A. Light.
known as : B. Magnetism.
A. OR Gate. C. Mechanical Stress.
B. NOT Gate. D. Humidity.
C. AND Gate.
D. NOR Gate. 186. The forbidden energy gap of insulating material
is :
178. The ratio of small change in plate voltage to the A. 1 Electron Volt.
small change in plate current with grid voltage B. 6 Electron volt.
constant is known as:_. C. 3 Electron volt.
A. Trans conductance. D. 8 Electron volt.
B. Plate resistance.
C. Plate current. 187. The collector feed back bias circuit is designed :
D. Cathode voltage. A. So that emitter voltage has direct effect on base
voltage.
179. The amplification factor of a pentode ranges B. To have a direct effect on Grid voltage.
from : C. To improve frequency response at high
A. 70 to Over 5000. frequencies.
B. 40 to Over 800. D. To reduce the effects of Beta variation on Q point.
C. 20 to Over500.
D. 70 to 500. 188. The outer most shell of an atom is :
A. Valance shell.
180. The ratio of DC collector current to DC emitter B. Conduction shell.
current is called : C. Valance Band.
D. Conduction band. C. QUAD method.
D. Min term.
189. An important valve constant which determines
how much control the control grid voltage has over 197. A Boolean expression which is formed by
the plate current is known as : considering the rows of truth table for '1' output
A. Amplification factor. condition is known as :
B. Plate resistance. A. Maxterm.
C. Trans conductance. B. Standard product of sum.
D. Grid anode capacity. C. Standard sum of product.
D. Minterm.
190. In a balanced modulator the modulating voltage
(V2) and carrier voltage (V1) are applied at the gate 198. The amount of time it takes for the output of a
of FET : gate or a flip flop to change the states after the input
A. In phase. changes is called :
B. Out of phase by 180 degree. A. Hold time.
C. Mod Vol V2 by 180 degree out of phase and B. Propagation delay time.
carrier vol V1 in phase. C. Set up time.
D. Modulating Voltage V2 in phase and Carrieer D. Preset time.
Voltage V1 by 180 Degree out of phase.
199. A+AB is equal to :
191. In frequency modulation the modulation index is A. A+B.
A. Inversely proportional to the Modulating B. A+B.
frequency. C. A+B.
B. Directly proportional to the modulating frequency. D. A.B.
C. Equal to the modulating frequency.
D. Twice that of the modulating frequency. 200. A small Capacitor connected in series to a coil to
provide small frequency correction generally towards
192. Forward resistance of a transistor should be : lower side of frequency band is called :
A. 500 Ohm. A. Trimmer.
B. 100 K Ohm. B. Padder.
C. 1 K Ohm. C. MIXER.
D. 10 K Ohm. D. PLL.

193. After the input changes, the time taken for the 201. Convert Hexa-Decimal number D A D. B (16)
output of a gate or a flip-flop to change its states is into Binary Number :
known as : A. 110110101111.1010.
A. Set up time. B. 101011110101.1100(2).
B. Propagation Delay time. C. 111000101011.1001(2).
C. Holding time. D. 110110101101.1011(2).
D. Hold Delay time.
202. An array is one in which the principal direction
194. If the length of a director is 65 feet and its of radiation coincides with the direction of the array
frequency is : axis is called as :
A. 7 MHz. A. Parasitic array.
B. 5 MHz. B. Broad side array.
C. 9 MHz. C. Driven array.
D. 14 MHz. D. End fire array.

195. A+[ B+C] = [ A+B] +C ( OR Operation ) and A. 203. A group of Multi vibrators wired to provide
[ B . C] = [A . B] . C ( AND operation) are : shifting a binary Number into the register or shifting
A. Commutative Law. out of the register or both functions is called :
B. Associative Law. A. Shift Register.
C. Distributive Law. B. Serial Shift Register.
D. Octate Law. C. Buffer Register.
D. Push-Pull Register.
196. Each AND ed term is sum of product of a
Boolean expression is known as : 204. The octal equivalent of binary number 1110 (2)
A. Max term. is:
B. Pair method. A. 11.
B. 13. A. Distortion occurs.
C. 16. B. Percentage of modulation increases.
D. 17. C. Level of carrier become high.
D. Level of carrier become low.
205. The GATE which gives 1 output ,only when
any or all the inputs are one is known as : 214. Inter action of power amplifier with master
A. XOR GATE. oscillator is avoided by the use of:
B. OR GATE. A. Harmonic generator.
C. NOT GATE. B. Master oscillator.
D. AND GATE. C. Buffer amplifier.
D. Inter stage coupling.
206. "NOT" gate is known as :
A. Converter. 215. A dipole is the one which has :
B. Inverter. A. Two identical halves with one end earthed.
C. Alternator. B. Two identical halves and the potential is opposite
D. All the above. at the ends.
C. Two identical halves with their ends at opposite
207. An "AND" gate gives out put : potential with respect to earth at centre.
A. When all the inputs are one. D. symmetrical halves with ends at identical potential
B. when one input is one. with respect to central earthy point.
C. When any inputs are one.
D. When two dissimilar inputs are one. 216. Some part of Aerial energy lost due to the
surrounding objects during propogation is known as
208. An "OR" gate followed by "NOT" gate , the A. Absorption.
circuit is called : B. Dispersion.
A. "AND" gate. C. Diffraction.
B. "OR" gate. D. Refraction.
C. "NOR" gate.
D. "NAND" gate. 217. A Marconi aerial is cut for a length of 13 feet and
frequency that would be radiated is.
209. The multiplication sign in Boolean algebra A. 9 MHz.
stands for : B. 18 MHz.
A. OR operation. C. 27 MHz.
B. NOT operation. D. 15 MHz.
C. NOR operation.
D. AND operation. 218. A half wave aerial is cut for a length of 26 feet .
The frequency that would be radiated is :
210. A wave with continuously rotating polarisation is A. 18 Mhz.
termed as : B. 9 Mhz.
A. Horizontal polarisation. C. 9 Khz.
B. Vertical polarisation. D. 13.6 Mhz.
C. Circular polarisation & Elliptical polarisation.
D. Horzontal and vertical polarisation. 219. The type of feeder line desired in an aircraft for
the use with a very high frequency is.
211. An increase in the number of valance electrons , A. Twin feeder.
then conductivity: B. Four wire feeder.
A. Increase. C. Concentric feeder.
B. Decrease. D. Open wire feeder.
C. Not increase.
D. Not decrease. 220. The length of the director is 65 ft and its
frequency is :
212. Power handling capacity is more in:_. A. 5 MHz.
A. Plate modulation. B. 7 MHz.
B. Grid modulation. C. 9 MHz.
C. Low level modulation. D. 14 MHz.
D. High level modulation.
221. An array is one in which the principal direction
213. In amplitude modulation when modulating of radiation coincides with the direction of the array
voltage becomes greater than carrier voltage then: axis is known as :
A. Broad side array. D. Photo electric emission.
B. Parasitic array.
C. End fire array. 230. When mercury is placed near a powerful magnet,
D. Driven array. experience a weak repulsion .It is categorised as the
substance of :
222. The aerial which are specially used for low A. Dia magnetic.
frequency ranges are : B. Ferro magnetic.
A. Quarter wave aerial. C. Para magnetic.
B. Half wave aerial. D. Non magnetic.
C. Folded dipole.
D. Inverted L and T aerial. 231. The device in which the current set up is
external circuit is unidirectional , the machine is
223. If the length of the marconi aerial is 13 feet then termed as :
the radiation frequency will be: A. AC Generator.
A. 9 MHz. B. DC Generator.
B. 18 MHz. C. Synchronous Generator.
C. 26 MHz. D. Separately excited Generator.
D. 36 MHz.
232. To have a speed control on series motor , in flux
224. The center impedance of a dipole is 80 Ohm and control method , a variable resistance is shunted to
to match with a 600 Ohm line the surge impedance of series winding . This is called :
a quarter wave matching section should be : A. Armature divertors.
A. 220 Ohm. B. Tapped field control.
B. 110 Ohm. C. series field control.
C. 55 Ohm. D. Filed diverters.
D. 330 Ohm.
233. Ratio of RMS value to average value for
225. The power gain of Rhombic Aerial is more due triangular wave is :
to : A. 1.
A. All the four legs are not taking part in radiation. B. 1.1.
B. All the four legs are taking part in radiation. C. 1.15.
C. The adding of terminating resistance. D. 1.12.
D. Counter poise is used.
234. When alternate voltage is applied to a purely
226. The final stage of audio amplifier is known as : inductive coil :
A. Modulator. A. Current leads voltage by quarter cycle.
B. De-Modulator. B. Voltage leads current by 180degree.
C. Power amplifier. C. Current leads voltage by 90degree.
D. RF-Modulator. D. Voltage leads current by 90degree.

227. Radiation resistance of a marconi aerial is : 235. What is the equivalent of 2, 3 and 8 ohm
A. 20 ohms. resistance connected in series:
B. 40 ohms. A. 10 Ohms.
C. 80 ohms. B. 11 Ohms.
D. 120 ohms. C. 12 (.
D. 13 Ohm.
228. The generator which has the full voltage, applied
across its field windings is: 236. In capacitors , the capacity increases , when:
A. Separately excited generator. A. Paper is used instead of air as the medium
B. Shunt wound generator. separating the plates.
C. Series wound generator. B. The distance between the plates is increased.
D. Compound wound generator. C. The area of one or both plates is reduced.
D. By selecting the medium with low permitivity
229. A method in which the principle of law of between two plates.
charges is utilised in attracting electrons from an
unheated electrons is called: 237. Where a constant voltage is required in DC
A. Thermionic emission. distribution system , the type of generators used are:
B. Secondary emission. A. Series generators.
C. Field emission. B. Compound generators.
C. Shunt generators. 245. The type of rotor used in high speed alternator is
D. Both series and shunt Generator. A. Salient Pole.
B. Smooth cylindrical.
238. In symmetrical alternating current , the average C. Rotating Armature.
value is obtained by adding or integrating the D. Inductor.
instantaneous value of current:
A. Over one half cycle. 246. For measuring current flowing through a circuit
B. Over two consecutive half cycles. the instrument required to be used is :
C. Over one full cycle. A. Ampere meter.
D. Over first quarter cycle and fourth quarter cycle. B. PD meter.
C. Galvanometer.
239. A 100 KVA Generator is fully loaded at its rated D. Ammeter.
voltage of P F=1, Then the true power is :
A. 1 KW. 247. In point law, the current leaving a junction is
B. 10 KW. equal to the current entering at the junction is true
C. 100 KW. because :
D. 0.01 KW. A. The Sum of the EMF in the path is zero.
B. No accumulation or depletion of current at the
240. One of the symptoms of hydration in lead acid junction.
battery is : C. No depletion of current at the junction.
A. The voltage on load falls below 1.85 v. D. Accumulation of current at the junction.
B. Low SG at the end of the charge.
C. Rust deposit on the plates. 248. In capacitor , the capacity increases when :
D. The bituminous sealing of battery gets cracked. A. Paper is used instead of Air as the medium
separating the plates.
241. Switching time for off line UPS is : B. The distance between the plates is increased.
A. Less than 100 mS. C. The area of one or both plates is reduced.
B. 0 mS. D. By selecting the medium with low permitivity
C. Less than 5 mS. between two plates.
D. More than 10 mS.
249. The value of radio frequency chokes generally
242. A magnetic transformer is converted to constant range from :
voltage transformer : A. 2.5 to 125 Henrie.
A. By connecting a variable diode in its primary B. 12.5 to 25 Henries.
winding. C. 2.5 to 125 milli Henries.
B. By connecting a condenser in secondary winding. D. 25 to 125 milli Henries.
C. By increasing number of turns in the secondary
side. 250. The working principle of magnetic amplifier is:
D. By keeping the resistance of the primary winding A. Magnetic flux linkage.
to minimum. B. Mutual induction.
C. Core saturation.
243. The process of converting AC voltage to D. Faraday s law of induction.
pulsating DC voltage is called :
A. Rectification. 251. Audio frequency transformer are meant to
B. Inversion. operate on audio frequency of :
C. Conversion. A. 20 Hz to 20 MHz.
D. Transforming. B. 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.
C. 20khz to 200 kHz.
244. In point law , the current leaving a junction is D. 20 Hz to 200 kHz.
equal to the current entering at the junction is true
because: 252. When inductance connected in parallel , mutual
A. The sum of the EMF in the path is zero. flux linkage opposing self flux linkage "L" is equal
B. No depletion of current at the junction. to :
C. Of accumulation of current at the junction. A. L 1 + L 2 + 2M.
D. No accumulation or depletion of current at the B. L 1 + L 2 - 2M.
junction. C. (L 1 L2 -M2)/(L 1 +L 2 +2M).
D. (L 1 L2 -M 2)/(L 1 + L 2 - 2M).
253. The opposition offered to alternating current by 261. In a series AC circuit a current of 1.5 amps flow
inductance and or capacitance is known as. when the applied voltage is 300 volt If the power
A. Susceptance. consumption is 225 watt then the resistance in the
B. Reactance. circuit will be:
C. Resistance. A. 10 Ohm.
D. Admittance. B. 25 Ohm.
C. 175 Ohm.
254. Residual magnetism in the specimen left even D. 100 Ohm.
after magnitising force has been removed , is called :
A. Susceptibility. 262. The collector feed back bias circuit is designed :
B. Coercivity. A. Emitter voltage has a direct effect on Base voltage.
C. Permeability. B. To reduce the effects of Beta variation on Q point.
D. Retentivity. C. To have a direct effect on grid voltage.
D. To improve frequency response at high
255. Sulphation in a Lead Acid Accumulator is caused frequencies.
by:
A. Under charging. 263. The source resistance that an amplifier presents
B. Under charging or discharging to low voltage. to its load is called :
C. White deposit on the plates. A. Input impedance.
D. discharging to low voltage. B. Out put impedance.
C. Gain.
256. The state of charge in a battery can be D. Zero output impedance.
determined by discharging the battery of fixed current 264. In Hartely oscillator the frequency tends to
flow and measure the time taken to drop the voltage : destabilize at higher frequency because of :
A. To an average of 1V/ Cell. A. Capacitive coupling.
B. To an average of 1. 2 V/ Cell. B. RC coupling.
C. To an average of 1.75 V/ Cell. C. Transformer coupling.
D. To an average of 1.27 V/ Cell. D. Stray capacitance.

257. The diode in full wave rectifier circuit should be 265. The main advantage of a cascade amplifier over
rated for : other amplifier is :
A. Peak secondary voltage is greater than peak inverse A. Low input resistance and High input capacitance.
voltage. B. High output resistance and low output capacitance.
B. Peak inverse voltage is greater than peak secondary C. High input resistance and low input capacitance.
voltage. D. Low input resistance and Low input capacitance.
C. Peak inverse voltage is equal to peak secondary
voltage. 266. In a differential amplifier the common mode
D. Peak secondary voltage is equal to 2V2 (peak). operation occurs when two signals of :
A. The same frequency, amplitude and phase are
258. The switching time for offline UPS is : applied.
A. < 5ms. B. The same phase are applied.
B. > 5ms. C. The same frequency are applied.
C. 0 ms. D. The same amplitude and phase are applied.
D. 30 to 100ms.
267. An Op-Amplifier with negative feed back :
259. The phase relation ship of current and applied A. Increases the effect of diode off set voltage.
voltage of AC in capacitor is: B. Amplifies the sum of the two inputs.
A. Both in phase. C. Reduces the effect of diode off set voltage.
B. Voltage is lead by 90º. D. Converts sine wave into pulsating DC.
C. Currents lead by 90º.
D. Current and voltage are out of phase by 180º. 268. Excess of maximum operational frequency of an
operational amplifier results in:
260. The loss due to the resistance of the wire used A. Gain of the amplifier drops to zero.
for the windings in transformer is called: B. Distorted output wave forms.
A. Flux loss. C. Reduced HF response.
B. Copper loss. D. Increased gain of the amplifier.
C. Iron loss.
D. Hysterisis loss.
269. A device that maintains a constant DC output , 277. The conductivity of atom depends on the number
regardless of changes in either its input voltage or its of
load current is called : A. Electrons.
A. Inverter. B. Protons.
B. Converter. C. Neutrons.
C. Regulator. D. Nucleus.
D. Insulator.
278. The formation of electron cloud near the cathode
270. The forbidden energy gap of insulating material can be reduced by :
is : A. Decreasing the Anode voltage.
A. 1 Electron Volt. B. Increase the distance between Anode and Cathode.
B. 3 Electron Volt. C. Decreasing the distance between Anode and
C. 6 Electron Volt. Cathode.
D. 8 Electron Volt. D. By introducing a heated filament under the
Cathode.
271. A method of biasing which needs split supply is
known as: 279. In BOHR atom model the outermost shell for a
A. Base bias. given atom is called :
B. Emitter bias. A. Valence shell.
C. Collector feed back bias. B. Conduction shell.
D. Voltage divider bias. C. K shell.
D. L shell.
272. In an ideal amplifier, as the input impedance Z is
infinite, the overall effect will be : 280. A method of keying which generates Back wave
A. Input voltage is equal to the source voltage. when carrier does not drop to zero but merely
B. Load voltage is equal to out put voltage. reduces to low value when key is open is called:
C. Voltage is divided equally in the out put circuit. A. Amplitude ON/OFF keying.
D. Overall gain of amplifier can't be increased. B. HT anode keying.
C. Filament keying.
273. While designing a circuit , the amplifier that is D. Over bias keying.
not preferred , when stability is almost important is :
A. RC Coupled. 281. Those substances which are being attracted even
B. Impedance Coupling. by weak magnates are called :
C. Transformer Coupling. A. Para-magnetic substances.
D. Direct Coupling. B. Diamagnetic substances.
C. Ferro magnetic substances.
274. As source follower is a very heavily swamped D. Non magnetic substances.
amplifier, It.
A. Keeps square law distortion to minimum. 282. By shifting the brushes in the direction of
B. Highly steady Q Point. rotation in DC generator will:
C. Maximum theoretical efficiency rating of 99 %. A. Improve commutation.
D. Eliminates non linearity of Trans conductance. B. Minimise armature reaction.
C. De magnetise the main flux.
275. Increasing the operating frequency of an Op-amp D. Cross magnetise the main flux.
beyond a certain point will :
A. Decrease the maximum output voltage swing. 283. Speed of DC motor is :
B. Increase the Open-loop voltage gain. A. Directly proportional to the applied voltage.
C. Increase the maximum output voltage swing. B. Inversely proportional to the main field.
D. Decrease the Open-loop voltage gain. C. Directly proportional to the flux.
D. Directly proportional to the Back EMF.
276. When two signals of the same amplitude,
frequency and phase are applied to a differential 284. The process by which the current in the short
amplifier, the mode of operation is called : circuits coil reversed while crosses magnetic neutral
A. Single ended mode. axis is called:
B. Differential mode. A. Armature reaction.
C. Common mode. B. Commutation.
D. C. M. M.R. C. Armature current.
D. Prime mover.
285. The turning or twisting movement of a force C. Class "B".
about axis is called : D. Class "C".
A. Back EMF.
B. Eddy current. 294. A type of coupling that does not have any bar for
C. Torque. frequency amplification is :
D. Armature current. A. Direct coupling.
B. Transformer coupling.
286. The type of bias employed in a transistor used as C. Impedance coupling.
a switch is: D. R C Coupling.
A. Base bias.
B. Emitter feed back Bias. 295. Change of direction of DC motor is achieved by
C. Collector feed back Bias. A. Reversing the main supply lead.
D. Universal Bias (Voltage divider Bias). B. Reversing the direction of current both in the field
and armature.
287. The opposition that the capacitor offers to the C. Reversing the current in the field.
applied AC Voltage is called: D. Reversing the direction of current either in the field
A. Capacitive reactance. or in the armature.
B. Capacitive Inductance.
C. Conductance. 296. The form factor for triangular wave is:
D. Reactance. A. 1.15.
B. 1.11.
288. The base - emitter junction and collector- base C. 1.71.
junction of a BJT are forward biased and reverse D. 1.25.
biased respectively. The BJT operates on :
A. Cut Off Point. 297. To creat a new file in MS dos , the command
B. Saturation region. used is :
C. Breakdown region. A. Create.
D. Active region. B. New . Com.
289. Electron emission by application of heat energy C. Copy.
to a substance is known as: D. Copy con.
A. Photo emission.
B. Thermionic emission. 298. The register that can make the difference
C. Secondary emission. between a simple calculator and an authentic
D. Field emission. computer is :
A. Accumulator.
290. The physical location of control grid of an B. Special purpose register.
electron tube is : C. Stack printer.
A. Near to the plate. D. Status register.
B. Near to the cathode.
C. Near to the anode. 299. The lowest 8- bit binary number is :
D. With the filament. A. 11111111.
B. 00000000.
291. A doped semiconductor is widely known as : C. 01010101.
A. Pure semiconductor. D. 11111000.
B. Intrinsic semiconductor.
C. Extrinsic semiconductor. 300. A Substance capable of being magnetized in
D. True semiconductor. either of the two direction, represents a '0' or '1', can
be used as component of.
292. In a heavily doped diode , the depletion layer is : A. Computer Memory.
A. Thin. B. Core memory.
B. Big. C. Semi conductor memory.
C. Broad. D. Main Memory.
D. Narrow.
301. The Microprocessor's internal data bus made up
293. An amplifier in which the collector current flows of :
for less than 1800 and Q point is selected beyond A. Logic devices.
the cutt off point is known as : B. Data Signals.
A. Class "A". C. Internal Devices.
B. Class "AB". D. Control Logic.
302. The complete Set of instructions that allows B. Airfield.
Micro Processor to manipulate data by moving it or C. Inner marker.
processing it, and to perform house keeping functions D. Outer marker.
is known as :
A. Instruction Set. 311. The dark brown ring end of Zener diode
B. Manipulated Data. indicates :
C. Microprocessor data. A. Anode.
D. Serial Data. B. Cathode.
C. Gate.
303. In MS- DOS 'type' command is : D. Plate.
A. External command.
B. Direct command. 312. A logic gate which has its output only when
C. Internal command. either of the two input is high or both the inputs are
D. Prompt command. low is called :
A. NOT GATE.
304. Semiconductor memories are used instead of B. OR GATE.
core memories in latest generation in computers C. AND GATE.
because they are : D. NAND GATE.
A. Less expensive.
B. More expensive but easy to work. 313. Zener voltage (Vz) used in SCR craw bar
C. Small in size But expensive. circuit is :
D. Less expensive and easy to work with. A. 20 volt.
B. 19 volt.
305. The number of row in MS Excel are. C. 21 volt.
A. 256. D. 25 volt.
B. 65536.
C. 65256. 314. If you hold a transistor in such a way that
D. IV. printed portion facing the body and legs pointing
306. Which one of the fo;;owing is not an operating downwards then the extreme left leg will be :
system ?. A. Anode.
A. Windows. B. Cathode.
B. Lotus. C. Source.
C. MS dos. D. Gate.
D. Unix.
315. A computer programme that enables you to type,
307. When we say that we have cleared or reset the modify, print and save test for future retrieval and
accumulator , we really mean that we have : reference is called:
A. Shorted out the accumulator outputs. A. My computer.
B. Stopped using the accumulator. B. MS ACCESS.
C. Set the accumulator contents to all logic 0's. C. POWER POINT.
D. Set the accumulator contents to all logic 1"s. D. Word processor.

308. The document which you type , normally exist 316. Which of the following is not a ALU function :
in: A. Increment.
A. RAM. B. Complement.
B. ROM. C. Shift right.
C. E PROM. D. Power up sequence.
D. EE PROM.
317. Binary equivalent of decimal number 25(10) will
309. Making a corrective changes to document is be:
referred to: A. 11000.
A. Re-arrangement of text. B. 11001.
B. Inserting text. C. 10111.
C. Deleting text. D. 11110.
D. Editing.
318. In MS Excel the mouse pointer of this + shape
310. DME in an aircraft is basically used to measure is for.
the distance of : A. Entering the data.
A. Aircraft. B. Cut and Paste.
C. Copy. C. Clock signal.
D. Copy and Paste. D. Logic Signal.

319. The audio output of MRU -101 is : 327. The 25 kHz reference signal and output of
A. 15 mw across 600 ohm. programmable counter are compared in:
B. 10 mw across 600 ohm. A. Guard RXR.
C. 101 mw across 60 ohm. B. Power amplifier.
D. 600 mw across 100 ohm. C. Frequency synthesizer.
D. Pin switch unit.
320. A spring loaded switch which works in
conjunction with test meter to read 400 hz recorded 328. The data can be erased by exposing it to ultra
testing signal is known as : violet light is known as :
A. Bulk erase. A. ROM.
B. Test switch button switch. B. EPROM.
C. Test meters. C. EAROM.
D. Test switch. D. PROM.

321. When a number of transmitting NDB are 329. Length of a transmitting aerial is :
operating in near by area with closely spaced A. Depending of the characteristic of the carrier.
frequency, the error of giving wrong bearing is known B. Depending of the level of the carrier.
as : C. Inversely proportional to frequency.
A. Mountain effect error. D. Directly proportional to frequency.
B. Night effect error.
C. Antenna effect error. 330. The grammar we use while typing a command is
D. Station interference error. called :
A. SYNTAX.
322. The loop antenna must be mounted on the B. FORMAT.
fuselage of aircraft with its: C. PRINT.
A. longitudinal center line. D. PROGRAM.
B. Vertical center axis.
C. Horizontal axis. 331. The location of outer marker from the runway
D. Vertical axis. thresh hold is :
A. 3 1/2 mile.
323. The signal to the RF Loop amplifier is derived B. 4miles.
from : C. 4 1/4 miles.
A. RF sense amplifier. D. 4 1/2 miles.
B. Phase splitter.
C. Goniometer search coil. 332. The range of localizer beacon is :
D. IF amplifier. A. 25 Miles at 2000 ft high.
B. 25 Miles at 4000 ft high.
324. In VUC-201 A , the injection signal for VHF C. 25 Miles at 5000 ft high.
and UHF band is provided by: D. 30 Miles at 6000 ft high.
A. Local oscillator.
B. Power amplifier. 333. When the instruction register is loaded by
C. Frequency synthesizer. starting the microprocessor on a Fetch/Execute cycle
D. PLL. also called :
A. An instruction cycle.
325. The reference voltage by phase lock loop to the B. A memory cycle.
synthesizer is : C. An explanation cycle.
A. 50 hz. D. A control cycle.
B. 25 hz.
C. 30 Hz. 334. The register that can make difference between
D. 75 hz. simple calculator and authentic computer is :
A. Stack pointer.
326. For the basic timing signal to synchronize all of B. Status Register.
the microprocessor's operation the control logic uses C. Accumulator.
the : D. Special purpose Register.
A. I/O write signal.
B. Memory read signal.
335. The memory address register point to : 343. Binary equivalent of decimal number 25(10)
A. CPU location. will be:
B. Memory register. A. 11000.
C. Memory's contents. B. 11001.
D. Memory location. C. 10111.
D. 1110.
336. While working on computer if power supply fails
and UPS is not available the memory which retain the 344. Binary equivalent of decimal number 22 will be.
stored data is : A. 10110.
A. MOS FET. B. 11001.
B. EPROM. C. 11000.
C. Dynamic RAM. D. 10010.
D. Static RAM.
345. The XOR GATE operation is called:
337. The RF power modulated during BITE and A2 A. MOD 1addition.
mode of transmission is : B. MOD 2 addition.
A. 1 MHz. C. MOD 3 addition.
B. 1.1 MHz. D. Mod addition.
C. 10 kHz.
D. 1000 Hz. 346. A basic logic circuit also known as inverter is:
A. NOT GATE.
338. According to the associative law, the equation A. B. OR GATE.
(B.C) is equal to: C. AND GATE.
A. A.(A+C). D. NAND GATE.
B. (A.B).C.
C. B.(C.A). 347. The minimum amount of time that the data bit
D. A+(B+C). must be present before the clock edge hits is called :
A. Propagation delay time.
339. Which of the following pin number of IC 7805 B. Set up time.
provides the audio output via C 3 coupled to the C. Hold time.
speaker : D. Pre set time.
A. 8.
B. 9. 348. A controlled counter counts :
C. 7. A. Square pulse.
D. 5. B. Saw tooth pulse.
C. Synchronous pulse.
340. A Doppler shift caused by satellite drifting in D. Sinusoidal pulse.
orbit due to gravitational pull of moon and sun is
barely minimum incase of satellite placed in: 349. The minimum amount of time that the data bit
A. Equatorial orbit. must be present before the clock edge hits is called :
B. Polar orbit. A. Propagation delay time.
C. Inclined orbit. B. Set up time.
D. Geocentre. C. Hold time.
D. Pre set time.
341. In a JK flip flop , when J is low and K is high
then : 350. A Boolean expression, which is formed by
A. It resets. considering the rows of the truth table for `0', output
B. It sets. condition is known as :
C. Toggles. A. Min term.
D. Depends on the last value. B. Max Term.
C. Standard Product of Sum.
342. A Boolean expression which formed by D. Fundamental Product.
considering the rows of the truth table for 0 out put
condition is known as : 351. Higher side of the frequency band is used in up
A. Standard sum of product. link in order to:
B. Min term. A. Reduce the size of the satellite antenna.
C. Max term. B. Increase the size of the satellite antenna.
D. Standard product of sum. C. Obtain high RF power.
D. To avoid Doppler shift caused by satellite.
352. A device that distributes light from a main fiber 361. The main function of accelerating electrode in an
into one or more branch fibers is known as: ESCRT is to :
A. Connectors. A. Control intensity of light spot.
B. Splicing. B. Eliminate highly divergent electrons.
C. Optical coupler. C. Focusing the beam into a spot.
D. Optical attenuator. D. Deflecting the beam into the screen.

353. An OR Gate give 1 output When: 362. The focusing adjustment in an ESCRT is
A. All the inputs are 1. achieved by :
B. All the inputs are`0'. A. varying first anode voltage.
C. Any or all the inputs are 1. B. varying second anode voltage.
D. Inputs are similar. C. varying grid voltage.
D. varying accelerating electrode.
354. An alternative method of making a permanent
connection between fibers is called : 363. The substance which have overlapping valance
A. Fusion splicing. and conduction band are termed as :
B. Connectorisation. A. Semiconductors.
C. Mechanical splicing. B. Insulators.
D. Electrical splicing. C. Conductors.
D. Di-electric.
355. A communication satellite is capable of
accommodating more number of channel as it uses: 364. A PN junction diode can be formed by doping
A. Long Range. silicon with :
B. More Number of repeaters and directors. A. Antimony and phosphorous.
C. Microwave. B. Arsenic and antimony.
D. Transponders. C. Boron and gallium.
D. Arsenic and indium.
356. A controlled counter counts :
A. Square pulse. 365. When silicon is doped with Arsenic, the type of
B. Saw tooth pulse. semiconductor formed is :
C. Synchronous pulse. A. N type extrinsic.
D. Sinusoidal pulse. B. P type extrinsic.
357. Thoriated tungsten cathode is designed to work C. N type intrinsic.
at : D. P type intrinsic.
A. 5 to 10 volts.
B. 5 to 50 volts. 366. In a lightly doped reverse biased PN junction
C. 50 to 500 volts. diode, at break down voltage flooding occurs due to
D. (a) 500 to 5000 volts. electric field causing collisions of charge carriers
results in :
358. The additional energy required by an electron to A. Zener breakdown.
overcome the surface barrier of the metal is called : B. Transient current.
A. Electron emission. C. Avlanche breakdown.
B. Work function. D. Forward current.
C. Thermionic emission.
D. Surface emission. 367. To obtain recombination current as well as larger
collector current, a NPN transistor to be biased :
359. The purpose of grid in a vacuum tube is to A. Forward Forward.
control the : B. Forward Reverse.
A. Input voltage applied to cathode. C. Reverse Forward.
B. Input voltage applied to anode. D. Reverse Reverse.
C. Flow of electrons between cathode and anode.
D. Flow of electrons from anode to cathode. 368. A medium in which an electric field can exist
without creating a current or it is a non-conductor of
360. Intensity of the light spot, in an ESCRT is electricity or insulator is called:
controlled by : A. Dielectric strength.
A. Focusing anode. B. Breakdown voltage.
B. accelerating anode. C. Breakdown in electric field.
C. control grid. D. Dielectric.
D. electrostatic deflecting plates.
369. The tetrode valve has the disadvantage of : D. Achieve stable state.
A. Inter electrode capacitance.
B. Inter electrode inductance. 378. Barrier potential of Germanium at 25 Deg C is:
C. Shielding action of grid. A. 0.1 V.
D. Kink effect at low plate potential. B. 0.2 V.
C. 0.3 V.
370. In pentode valve, suppressor grid is inserted D. 0.7 V.
between :
A. Cathode and plate. 379. Barrier potential decreases with temperature at
B. Plate and screen grid. the rate of :
C. Cathode and screen grid. A. 0.2 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp.
D. Cathode and grid. B. 0.02 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp.
C. 0.002 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp.
371. The purpose of screen grid in a tetrode valve is to D. 0.0002 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp.
reduce inter electrode :
A. Capacitance between anode and grid. 380. The purpose of suppressor grid in pentode valve
B. Capacitance between cathode and anode. is to :
C. Inductance between cathode and grid. A. Reduce inter electrode capacitance between
D. Inductance between cathode and anode. cathode and grid.
B. Reduce inter electrode capacitance between
372. The reduction in plate current with increasing cathode and anode.
plate voltage is called: C. Eliminate undesirable kink effect.
A. Mutual characteristics. D. Eliminate electron cloud.
B. Kink effect.
C. Amplification factor. 381. The reverse current, when a PN junction diode is
D. Power factor. reverse biased, that drops to zero after thE depletion
layer stops growing is known as :
373. For deflection of the electron beam around the A. Surface leakage current.
center of the screen is obtained in an ESCRT, by B. Minority carrier current.
applying the signal to : C. Transient current.
A. x-x plates. D. Reverse breakdown current.
B. Control grid.
C. Final anode. 382. The value of bulk resistance of a silicon diode,
D. y-y plates. when forward voltage drop is 1.2 V for a forward DC
current of 100 mA , is equal to :
374. The process of adding impurities to a A. 5 ohm.
semiconductor is known as :a. B. 50 ohm.
A. Doping. C. 25 ohm.
B. Mixing. D. 0.1 ohm.
C. Biasing.
D. Super imposing. 383. The knee voltage of a PN diode equals to:
A. Barrier potential.
375. Barrier potential of silicon at 25 Deg C is: B. Applied voltage.
A. 0.7 V. C. Cut-in voltage.
B. 0.5 V. D. Breakdown voltage.
C. 0.3 V.
D. 0.03 V. 384. In a reverse biased PN diode the point at which
reverse current rises sharply is known as :
376. An atom is said to be stable when its valance A. Knee voltage.
orbit contains : B. Applied voltage.
A. 16 electrons. C. Barrier potential.
B. 8 Electrons. D. Reverse breakdown voltage.
C. 4 Electrons.
D. 2 Electrons. 385. The value of bulk resistance of a silicon diode,
when forward voltage drop is 1.5V at a forward DC
377. The inherent property of an atom is to : current 2 A, is equal to.
A. Attract another atom. A. 4 ohms.
B. Stay as free atom. B. 0.4 ohms.
C. Accelerate at high speed. C. 40 ohms.
D. 10 ohms. D. Coupling.

386. The purpose of filter circuit in rectifiers is to : 394. The method of biasing, in which gain reduces
A. Convert AC into DC. due to negative feedback is :
B. convert DC into AC. A. Base bias.
C. Convert pulsating AC into a steady DC. B. Emitter feedback bias.
D. Convert a pulsating DC into a steady DC. C. Collector feedback bias.
D. Voltage divider bias.
387. The heavily doped region in a transistor is :
A. Base. 395. A coupling capacitor connects :
B. Emitter. A. A grounded point to an un grounded point.
C. Collector. B. An ungrounded point to a grounded point.
D. Depletion layer. C. A grounded point to another grounded point.
D. an ungrounded point another ungrounded point.
388. If an NPN transistor is Reverse Reverse biased
(i.e. emitter is reverse biased and collector reverse 396. A by pass capacitor connects :
biased), then the emitter and collector current will be A. A grounded point to an ungrounded point.
A. Zero. B. An ungrounded point to a grounded point.
B. Maximum. C. A grounded point to another grounded point.
C. Zero an maximum respectively. D. An ungrounded point to another ungrounded point.
D. Maximum and zero respectively.
397. Mingling of AC quantity with DC quantity
389. In an unbiased transistor, the width of emitter during amplification of a signal avoided by the use of
depletion layer when compared to the width of A. Capacitor.
collector depletion layer is : B. Resistor.
A. Equal. C. Inductor.
B. Smaller. D. Thermister.
C. Larger and smaller respectively.
D. Larger. 398. One common feature of capacitors when used for
coupling and bypass is that they :
390. The minority carriers in a CE configurated NPN A. Block AC and short DC to ground.
transistor collector region causes : B. Block DC and short AC to ground.
A. Base current. C. Improve current gain.
B. Emitter current. D. Are used only in output stage.
C. Breakdown of transistor.
D. Leakage current. 399. A saturated SCR can turned off only by :
A. Removing the gate pulse.
391. While analyzing the DC load line of a transistor, B. Reducing the gate trigger.
the point of intersection with the calculated base C. Increasing the gate trigger to saturation.
current is known as: D. Reducing the load current below the holding
A. Saturation point. current.
B. Cutoff point.
C. Quiescent point. 400. The phase difference of 180 Deg between the
D. Breakdown point. input signal voltage and output signal voltage in a
common emitter amplifier is called :
392. The process of applying appropriate voltage to a A. Amplification factor.
transistor is called : B. Voltage reversal.
A. Voltage regulation. C. Phase reversal.
B. Forward biasing. D. Current reversal.
C. Biasing.
D. Reverse biasing. 401. The small signal amplifiers are rated for a
maximum power output of :
393. Connecting transistor in a circuit, whereby, the A. 1/2 Watt.
input is fed between common terminal and one of the B. 1 Watt.
other two and output is taken between common and C. 5 Watts.
one of the remaining terminal is called : D. 10 Watts.
A. Biasing.
B. Configuration. 402. The maximum possible collector efficiency of a
C. Feed back. class A amplifier with resistive load is:
A. 15 %. 408. The Wien bridge oscillator is the most widely
B. 25 %. used oscillator for frequencies in the range o.
C. 45 %. A. 5 HZ to 1 MHZ.
D. 50 %. B. 15 HZ to 2.5 MHZ.
C. 20 HZ to 3 MHZ.
403. The maximum possible overall efficiency of a D. 30 HZ to 30 MHZ.
class A amplifier with resistive load is :
A. 10 %. 409. The Q factor of a crystal circuit is in the order of
B. 25 %. A. 5000 and above.
C. 50 %. B. 10,000 and above.
D. 75%. C. 15,000 and above.
D. 20,000 and above
404. The process of directing a fraction of sampled
energy from output to input, out of phase to the input 410. In Hartley oscillators, a phase shift of 180 Deg is
signal is called: achieved through :
A. Feed back. A. A tank circuit.
B. Gain without feed back. B. An inductance.
C. Positive feed back. C. A capacitance.
D. Negative feed back. D. An auto-transformer.

405. The process of directing a fraction of sampled 411. Epitaxial layer in a IC is a layer of :
energy from output to input in phase with the. A. N type semiconductor on the P substrate.
A. Positive feed back. B. P type semiconductor on the N substrate.
B. Negative feed back. C. PN type semiconductor on the P substrate.
C. Feed back. D. NP type semiconductor on the N substrate.
D. Gain with feed back.
412. The input terminal of OPAMPs are marked + and
406. Feed back is a phenomenon in which a fraction - . + mark indicates :
of : A. Non-inverting terminal.
A. Amplifier input is fed to the output. B. Inverting terminal.
B. Amplifier output is fed back to the input circuit. C. Positive terminal.
C. Sampled energy from output to input but in phase. D. Input terminal.
D. Sampled energy from input but out of phase.
413. Minus ( -) mark on the input terminal of an OP
407. In Colpitts oscillators a phase shift of 180 Deg is Amp indicates :
achieved through : A. Input terminal.
A. Capacitors. B. Negative terminal.
B. Inductance. C. Non-inverting terminal.
C. An auto-transformer. D. Inverting terminal.
D. Tank circuit.
 FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. In AM the ______________ of the carrier is varied
by modulating voltage.
2. The modulation index is a number lying
between__________ and _____________.
3. The______________ of a receiver is its ability to
reject unwanted signals.
4. An ____________________is one that radiates
uniformly in all directions in space.
5. An optical fiber with gradually changing ref. Index
along the cross section is called________________.
6. Output stage of a television transmitter is most
likely to be a______________________.
7. The most commonly used filter in SSB generation
are ___________________.
8. Tropospheric scatter is used with freq in the
______________range.
9. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting
because ___________________________.
10. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed
from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is ____________.
11. When the modulation index of an AM wave is
doubled, the antenna current is also doubled. The AM
system being used is ____________________.
12. To provide two or more voice circuits with the
same carrier, it is necessary to use ______________.
13. Vestigial sideband modulation (C3F) is normally
used for _________________________.
14. Unwanted sideband in SSB cannot be removed by
______________________.
15. The optical fibre communication is based on the
principle of _____________________.
16. The three components of AM are ___________,
______________& ______________.
17. At cut off the base current in transistor is
________________.
18. The maximum efficiency of a class A amplifier is
__________________.
19. The resistance of the P-channel of transistor is
called ____________________.
20. In a MOSFET, the more negative the gate voltage,
the smaller the _____________________ current.
21. The number of flip flops required to count upto 73
is __________________________.
22. A transistor has a current gain = 250 if collector
current is 10 mA the base current is _____________.
23. If an O F amp has a bandwidth of 0 - 100 KHz and
gain of 40 dr. The frequency at which the gain will be
unit is _________________________.
24. (Assuming – 20 dB/decade Slope outside mid
band).
25. A Xtal OSc has crystal of thickness t what
happens it t is reduced by 1% ________________.
26. A JEET is a ____________ is a controlled device
whereas a BJT is a ____________ controlled device.
27. The difference in depth of modulation (DDM)
is________ along the course line.
28. The localizer carrier frequency is within the range
of______MHz to ______ MHz.
29. The outer, middle, inner markers are located at
_________, _________and _________ respectively.
30. As per ICAO specifications, all localizers must be
adjusted to give full scale DDM of _________% and
_________m on either side of the ILS reference
datum.
31. The ICAO recommended MLS system employs
_______ and _________ techniques.
32. The angular coverage of TRSB system is
___________ to ___________ in the direction of
runway.
33. Angle function transmission consists of
___________which consists of five unit
synchronizing code pulse.
34. A total of _________channels at a spacing of
___________ Khz is allocated.
35. The frequency band is _____________ Mhz to
_________ Mhz.
36. The elevation coverage is _________ with a
height ceiling of ___________.
37. The range coverage is __________.
38. In MLS the quality of guidance signal is
________ of ______________.
39. The three temperature of which the pilot must be
kept informed during the flight are the __________ .
40. If an OP amp has a bandwidth of 0__100 KHz and
gain of 40 dB. The frequency at which the gain will
be unit is _________________.
41. A crystal Oscillator has crystal of thickness T,
What happens if t is reduced by 1% ______________.
42. (Assuming – 20 dB/decade slope outside mid
band) ___________.
43. In AM the ________________of the carrier is
varied by modulating voltage.
44. The modulation index is a number lying between
________________and________.
45. The______________ of a receiver is its ability to
reject unwanted signals.
46. An ____________________is one that radiates
uniformly in all directions in space.
47. An optical fiber with gradually changing ref.
Index along the cross section is called____________.
48. Output stage of a television transmitter is most
likely to be a______________.
49. The most commonly used filter in SSB generation
are ________________.
50. Tropospheric scatter is used with freq in the
______________range.
51. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting
because ______________.
52. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed
from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is ___________.
53. When the modulation index of an AM wave is
doubled, the antenna current is also doubled. The AM
system being used is ______________.
54. To provide two or more voice circuits with the
same carrier, it is necessary to use ___________.
55. Vestegial sideband modulation (C3F) is normally
used for __________.
56. Unwanted sideband in SSB cannot be removed by
____________________.
57. The optical fibre communication is based on the
principle of ________.
58. Noise figure is defined as the ratio of _________.
59. The three components of AM are ________,
___________& _________.
60. The __________ is used for measuring forward
and reverse powers.
61. During reception, transmitter is isolated from the
receiver by _________ dB.
62. The ILS performs the functions of,_________ and
provides information about ____________.
63. Signals carrying azimuth guidance information are
produced by a _________ which produces a
horizontally polarized composite field pattern
modulated by _______Hz tone and______Hz tone.
64. Intelligence in a telegraph signal is ______.
65. The spacing between the element of a Morse code
is ______.
66. The biggest disadvantage of PCM is ________.
67. ..(??) noise is produces in ______.
68. PCM permits amplifying data signal without
______________.
69. When power radio is expressed in dbm the
reference powe is ______.
70. To couple a co__axial line to parallel line it is best
to use ______.
71. When a electromagnet wave meets a perfect
conductor it is ___.
72. Multiple wire conductors are used for rhombic
antenna to ____.
73. A half wave dipole has ______.
74. Radiation resistance of half wave dipole is _____.
75. In a broad side array maximum radiation occurs
_______.
76. Antenna which is .....(??) is _______.
77. The frequency used for HF communication
between two fixed points is generally higher in
________.
78. Very low frequency wave are used in some types
of services because ___________ .
79. Frequency in UHF range propagate by means of
______.
80. The mean square value of shaft noise varies
_____.
81. In a receiver maximum contribution to noise is
made by the _____.
82. Johnson noise is a name given to _______.
83. Minimum noise network to have _______.
84. Static is a name given to ______.
85. Not useful quantity for comparing the noise
performance of receivers is _____.
86. Another name for horizontal retrace in a TV
receiver is the ____.
87. Most commonly used code in telegraphy for hand
signalling is _____.
88. A machine which uses start__stop 5 unit code is
known as _____.
89. In a non__polarised sounder the releasing current
is ________.
90. Permanent magnet is used in polarity relay
________.
91. When the telephone receiver is on the cradle the
______.
92. The modulation index of AM wave is changed
from 0 to 1. The transmitted power ____________.
93. In a ....(??) AM system amplifiers following the
modulated stage must be __________ (linear device).
94. In a SSB transmitter one is most likely to find is
_______.
95. In FM signal contains intelligence in _________.
96. A pure AC signal is called _______.
97. The output of a frequency modulator is _______.
98. In angle modulation the information signal modify
the ___.
99. To prevent the overloading of the last IF amplifier
in a receiver one should use ______________ .
100. The Image frequency of super heterodyne
receiver ____________.
101. In a broadcast super heterodyne receiver the
______________.
102. If the IF is very high ____________.
103. Spectral density of white noise is ___________.
104. The wavelength of a wave in a wave-guide is
_________________.
105. Merker frequency is ___________.
106. Radar system works on _________.
107. Pulse recurrence period and the number of pulse
transmitted in 1 second is called ________________.
108. Varying the frequency of carrier in accordance
the charge in amplitude of audio is called
___________.
109. Wave reflected from the Ionosphere shall be
known as _______.
110. One of the most disadvantages of lower
frequency is _________________.
111. Loop aerial is used in A/C is to find out the
_______.
112. NDB transmits vertically polarised signal in
_______.
113. The ground wave follows the surface of earth
partly because of _______.
 STATE TRUE/FALSE
1. In FM the frequency of the carrier signal is varied
in accordance with amplitude of the modulating
signal.
2. Diode detector is used to demodulate the AM
signal.
3. The most common method used for generation of
SSB is phase shift method.
4. The direction of E-field, M-field and propagation
are not actually perpendicular in the electromagnetic
waves.
5. Optical fibre are manufactured from glass and
plastic.
6. A 180 degree phase shift is required in phase shift
method of SSB generation.
7. In a standard broadcast receiver local oscillator
frequency is made lower than the incoming signal
frequency.
8. Modulation is used to reduce the bandwidth used.
9. When modulation index of an AM wave is doubled,
the antenna current is also doubled . The AM system
being used is single sideband full carrier (H3E).
10. Balanced modulator can be used to remove
unwanted sideband in SSB.
11. The principle of communication in optical fibre is
based on total internal reflection.
12. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequency in the
UHF range.
13. The output stage of a television transmitter is most
likely to be grid- modulated class C amplifier.
14. Power density is directly proportional to square of
distance from source.
15. The barrier potential depends on the density of
doping of the semiconductors.
16. If a P-n Jn is heavily doped, the breakdown
voltage will increase.
17. Class ‘B’ is the most efficient way to operate a
transistor.
18. Screening process provides a low resistance path
for voltage producing unwanted RF interference .
19. In FM the frequency of the carrier signal is varied
in accordance with amplitude of the modulating
signal.
20. Diode detector is used to demodulate the AM
signal.
21. The most common method used for generation of
SSB is phase shift method.
22. The direction of E-field, M-field and propagation
are not actually perpendicular in the electromagnetic
waves.
23. Optical fibre are manufactured from glass and
plastic.
24. A 180 degree phase shift is required in phase shift
method of SSB generation.
25. In a standard broadcast receiver local oscillator
frequency is made lower than the incoming signal
frequency.
26. Modulation is used to reduce the bandwidth used.
27. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed
from 0 to 1. The transmitted power remains
unchanged.
28. When modulation index of an AM wave is
doubled, the antenna current is also doubled . The AM
system being used is single sideband full carrier
(H3E).
29. Balanced modulator can be used to remove
unwanted sideband in SSB.
30. The principle of communication in optical fibre is
based on total internal reflection.
31. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequency in the
UHF range.
32. The output stage of a television transmitter is most
likely to be grid- modulated class C amplifier.
33. Power density is directly proportional to square of
distance from source.
 WRITE SHORT NOTES ON

1. AM Transmitter. 12. Filter method in sideband suppression.

2. Superheterodyne receiver. 13. Advantages of FM over AM.

3. Balanced modulator. 14. ISB.

4. Need for modulation. 15. Low level and high level modulation.

5. Amplitude Modulation. 16. Generation of AM.

6. Frequency Modulation. 17. FM receivers.

7. Selectivity & Sensitivity. 18. Methods of sideband suppression.

8. Phase Modulation. 19. ILS.

9. Phase shift method. 20. Azimuth and Elevation guidance from ILS.

10. Space waves. 21. Facilities performance categories of ILS.

11. AGC. 22. MLS.

 VERY SHORT ANSWERS

1. Write the mandatory feature of airborne 23. Write short notes on:(i) Clutter (ii) Mono pulse
communication equipment. technique.

2. Define (i) Resonance (ii) Resonance frequency.
3. Describe atom and its structure.
4. Define: -(i) Atomic Number (ii) Atomic Weight.
24. Write short notes on:(i) Doppler principle (ii)
STLO in MTI.
25. Define: (i) Frequency modulation (ii) Amplitude
modulation (AM).

5. What is the function of Arithmetic and Logic Unit 26. Explain briefly Instrument Landing System (ILS).
in a Computer?
27. AM Transmitter.
6. Write the purpose of Out Put Unit in Computer
System? 28. Superheterodyne receiver.

7. What is an Assembler? 29. Balanced modulator.

8. What is the purpose of Compilers and Interpreters 30. Need for modulation.
in Computer?
31. Amplitude Modulation.
9. Write the Units of Computer System?
32. Frequency Modulation.
10. What are the functions of CPU in a Computer?
33. Selectivity & Sensitivity.
11. What are the applications of a Micro Processor?
34. Phase Modulation.
12. Write the types of CRO. (Cathode Ray
Oscilloscope). 35. Phase shift method.

13. Name the major components of CRO (Cathode 36. Space waves.
Ray Tube).
37. AGC.
14. Explain briefly types of semi conductors.
38. Advantages of FM over AM.
15. Define biasing and name different types of
biasing. 39. ISB.

16. List out the advantages of negative feed back. 40. Low level and high level modulation.

17. Name the different Applications of OP Amplifier. 41. Generation of AM.

18. List out the different types of special purpose 42. FM receivers.
diode.
43. Methods of sideband suppression.
19. Explain briefly DC coupling and its features.
44. Industrial noise.
20. Name the different applications of SCR.
45. With the help of a logic circuit explain an 'OR'
21. Give the applications of secondary radar. gate having two inpu.

22. Describe the following components of pulse radar: 46. Name the basic logic gates and give their symbol.
(i) Transmitter (ii) Duplexer.
47. With the aid of LOGIC CIRCUIT& TRUTH
TABLE Explain AND Gate.
48. Explain the operation of two-input NOR Gate with
the aid of a logic c.
49. Explain Why NAND Gate is called as Universal
Building Block.
50. Differentiate between most significant bit (MSB)
and Least significan.
51. Draw the logic circuit of X-OR Gate.
52. Define the term Logic gate and write the different
logic gates of Digital Technique.
53. Draw the circuit and logic symbol of AND Gate.
54. Draw the logic circuit and logic symbol of NAND
Gate.
55. Draw the symbol and Truth Table for X-OR Gate.
56. Define Faradays law of electromagnetic
induction?
57. What are the precautions observed while testing
the circuits in LAB?
58. Write the disadvantages of electrolytic condenser?
59. Write the advantage of electrolytic capacitors?
60. What are the advantages of revolving filed type
alternator?
61. What is thermal efficiency ?
62. What is a thyristor ? Write down its main
applications?
63. What are the steps to be taken to minimise the
armature reaction in a DC generator?
64. What are the advantages of revolving field type of
alternator?
65. Draw the circuit diagram of bridge rectifier and
write its uses?
66. What are the front panel control of MRU -101?
67. Define the leakage losses in transformer?
68. Define " KIRCHOFF's" Current & Voltage Laws?
69. Draw circuit diagram of PLL circuit( Tone
switch)?
70. Briefly explain SCR, Draw and explain SCR as a
crow bar circuit?
71. What are the factors affecting the magnitude of
induced EMF?
72. What are the methods to be followed to improve
the commutation?
73. Briefly explain the Back EMF in DC Motors?
74. What are the factors which controls the speed of
DC Motors?
75. What is the necessity of a starter in DC Motors?
76. Explain radio magnetic indicator (RMI) in
ARC -610 A?
77. What is sense antenna cable equalizer in ARC
610?
78. Define primary and secondary cell ?
79. What is Faraday's laws of electron magnetic
Induction ?
80. State the advantages of electrolytic condenser?
81. Define thermal agitation noise?
82. Define slew rate?
83. What is an EPROM?
84. Explain the purpose of ALU and FLAGS?
85. What is a Micro processor ?
86. What is static RAM's?
87. What is 'Word' in Microprocessor?
88. What are the different types of ROMS? Define
EPROM ?
89. Define cross over modulation?
90. State the advantages of FM over AM?
91. Write the salient features of the crystal filter?
92. What is a negative decibel ?
93. Enumerate the essential items required for Radio
communication.
94. Enumerate the types of keying ?
95. Define cross over modulation?
96. Convert 1762.56 (16) into Octal Number?
97. Which are the two D' Morgan" theorems?
98. Convert 152.25 (8) into binary ?
99. What are the disadvantages of analog to digital
converter ?
100. What are the disadvantages of Resistive Divider
Network?
101. Convert 3927.75(10) into Hexa - decimal.
102. What is pre- emphasis in FM transmitters?
103. Convert BAD.8(16) into Decimal Number?
104. Briefly explain Continuous wave(CW)?
105. Draw the logic circuit of NOT gate and write its
Truth Table and Logic symbol?
106. Define preset and clear?
107. Draw the logic circuit of NOR gate with its truth
table and symbol?
108. State modulation index and how modulation
percentage is calculated?
109. Write short notes on the squelch?
110. Define pinch off voltage (Vp) in FET'S ?
111. Convert 120.4(8) to Decimal number?
112. Define Desktop?
113. What are the methods of biasing with BJT?
114. Give two examples of input devices.
115. How do you differentiate primary memory and
secondary memory?
116. What is the purpose of Recycle Bin in MS
Windows 95?
117. Define word processor?
118. What is Booting?
119. Give examples of two Electronic Spread Sheet
program?
120. Define Computer?
121. Why a series motor should not be started without
some mechanical load?
122. State the purpose of slots in armature core of DC
generator?
123. Define armature reaction ?
124. What are the factor affecting the magnitude of
induced EMF ?
125. Write the applications of DC to DC converter?
126. Fuses and circuit breakers do not provide
protection from lightning induced voltages. Why?
127. What do you understand by the term "Word
Wrap"?
128. Write short notes on surface leakage current in
Transistor Characteristics?
129. The Flux of a current carrying coil links with
near by coil. Write the factors on which this linkage
depends?
130. Write short note on BJT?
131. What are the different transistor currents? Define
Alfa DC?
132. What are the salient features of transformer
coupling ?
133. Define 'Q' shift point ?
134. Name two Application software?
135. Define active region ?

136. Define covalent bond?
137. What is a basic differential amplifier?
138. Write short note on Comparators and state its
use?
139. Write the advantages of negative feed back in
oscillators ?
140. Draw a circuit diagram of summer and mixer .
Write its output voltage equation ?
141. State the effects of reverse bias in a PN junction
diode ?
142. What are the different units of a Computer?
143. What are the characteristics of an ideal voltage
amplifier ?
144. What are the classification of multi vibrator ?
145. Write the purpose of multi vibrator.
146. Define the term 'Register' in digital technique
and write its uses.
147. Write the construction of transmitter used in
Desyn Transmission system.
148. What is a register ? explain the operation of a
shift register.
149. Explain Binary Ladder with the help of a neat
diagram.
150. Define electronics.
151. Define energy level.
152. Write short notes on vacuum diode.
153. How the electron beam is deflected left and right
on the screen in an ESCRT?
154. Define the term 'Fluorescence' and how it is
achieved in a CRT.
155. Write short notes on semiconductors.
156. Write short notes on ' Barrier Potential '.
157. Write short notes on ' Zener diode '.
158. Name the types of special diodes.
159. Name the various materials normally used for
manufacturing photo conductive cells.
160. Name the various uses of PIN diodes.
161. Write short notes on collector feed back bias.
162. Enumerate the advantages of transistors over
vacuum tubes.
163. Name various types of transistor configurations.
164. Name the types of Optical Fibers.
165. Explain why collector area in a transistor is
larger than emitter or base .
166. Briefly explain the general draw backs of LC
oscillators.
167. Enumerate the advantages of Wien bridge
oscillators.
168. Enumerate the advantages of crystal oscillators.
169. Enumerate the characteristics of operational
amplifiers.
170. Write short notes on Cathode Ray Oscilloscope.
 SHORT ANSWERS
1. Convert the following binary number to Octal
number and explain the procedure . 20. What are the three Basic Circuits required to drive
1011011.011101(2).
2. Convert the following Hexadecimal number to
Binary number and explain the procedure :
8 EBD.A(16).
3. Write the rules to be observed while 2's
complement subtraction and subtract 1011(2) from
1111(2).
4. Subtract 101 from 111 by using 2'S Compliment.
5. List out the points to be observed while simplifying
Boolean expression by karnaugh map method.
6. Write short notes on the classification of multi
vibrator.
7. Define the term Binary addition and briefly explain
the rules of Binary addition.
8. Draw and explain in brief the Block diagram
computer system.
9. List out the differences between Software and
Hardware.
10. Explain in brief Application Software?
11. Define the term Software and Hardware.
12. Explain in brief the function of computer
operating system.
13. Write short notes on Floppy disk.
14. Explain in brief about PROM and EPROM.
15. Describe the magnetic screening effects.
16. Why ordinary DC series motors are not efficient
when used on AC?
17. Write the advantage of Magnetic Amplifier.
18. What is the function of Auxiliary Memory Unit in
Computer?
19. What are the advantages of a Flow Chart in a
Computer?
the CRT?
21. Write briefly about Volatile and Non Volatile
Memories.
22. Write the function of Control Unit in a Computer.
23. What is a Machine Language in Computer?
24. What are the basic laws of Boolean algebra?
25. Describe the following: (i) PROM (ii) EPROM.
26. Differentiate between computer and
Microprocessor.
27. What are the different types of electron emission?
Explain secondary emission.
28. Describe the transition or space charge
capacitance (CT) in PN Junction.
29. Explain briefly Zener diode and give its uses.
30. Explain briefly Photo diode and write its uses.
31. What is a crystal and define "PIEZO ELECTRIC
EFFECT" in crystal?
32. Name different type of Integrated circuits (Ics)
and Define Hybrid IC.
33. Write short notes on AC emitter Resistance
Transistor.
34. Enumerate the Advantages of FET.
35. Draw the circuit symbol (Diagram) of operational
amplifier and write its characteristics.
36. Draw a circuit diagram of Colpits Oscillator and
state the conditions for Oscillation?
37. Write down the advantages of optical fiber cable?
38. Draw and explain hysterisis loop of Iron and
Steel ?
39. state the advantages of using geo stationary
satellite ?

40. What objectives are achieved by grounding the
equipment?
41. Enumerate the steps to minimise the armature
reaction ?
42. Write the advantages and disadvantages of
magnetic amplifier?
43. Write down the advantages of revolving Field
alternator?
44. What are the checks and care to be carried out on
a running Kirloskar DG set?
45. State the conditions of resonance in series LCR
circuit?
46. What is known as DC to DC converter ? State its
uses?
47. Draw a labeled diagram of online UPS?
48. Write a short note on paralleling of DC generator
with its advantages?
49. Briefly explain the method of varying the speed of
shunt motor?
50. What are the factors affecting Magnitude of
induced EMF?
51. The flux of a current carrying coil links with near
by coil. Write the factors on which this linkage
depends on?
52. What are the different losses in generator, explain
copper loss ?
59. What is the basic principle of marker beacon,
briefly explain middle marker?
60. Draw a labelled circuit diagram of Squelch and
Mute?
61. Briefly explain parallel data transfer in Data
Communication and state its advantages?
62. Draw a labelled circuit diagram of instrumentation
Amplifier?
63. What is a radio transmitter ? Write the short
comings of one valve transmitter.
64. What are the different biasing methods used with
BJT ?
65. Write the salient features of high level
modulation.
66. Briefly explain why modulation is necessary?
67. Why limitter is needed before the detector in FM
receiver ?
68. Write down the function of main records unit
(MRU-101 )?
69. Draw and explain SSB pilot carrier transmitter?
70. Explain keying. HT anode keying is rarely
used .Reason out.
71. What are the salient features of MOPA?
72. Briefly Explain RS Flip - Flop?
73. Convert 1762.56 (16) into Octal Numbers ?

53. Define generator . Briefly explain working 74. Draw NOR gate logic circuit and write its truth
principle of DC generator? table , logic symbol and Boolean expression?

54. What are the test equipment used in fiber optics? 75. Convert 1A3.C Hexa decimal into decimal
number?
55. What are the advantages of low level
modulation? 76. Draw the logic circuit diagram of a exclusive OR
gate . State its output,T/T and symbol?
56. Briefly explain the function of "test switch" in
MRU -101? 77. Explain the serviceability check of L E D with the
help of AVO meter?
57. Why shunt generator is invariable started with out
load ? Write conditions for. 78. Write the advantage of IC voltage regulator?

58. Briefly explain localizer beacon? 79. How will you identify the pin numbers. of an IC ?
80. Why flux is used while soldering?
81. How will you check the serviceability of a Zener
diode with AVO meter?
82. Draw a diagram of IC voltage regulator ?
83. An electronic circuit used in almost all the
electronic equipment where automatic frequency
Tracking, frequency multiplication and frequency
synthesizing take place is: (A) digital switching unit
(B) Bilateral switching unit (C) SCR circuit (D) PLL
circuit
84. Enumerate various methods of classification of
modulation?
85. Write short notes on: (A) Bulk resistance (B)
Barrier Potential (C) Zener Diode.
86. What are the principle of operation of CVR
(MRU_101)?
87. Name and briefly explain the three basic system
components needed to assemble a complete
microprocessor?
88. What is the difference between Volatile and Non
volatile memory?
89. What are the salient features of emitter bias ?
90. List out the salient features of Class "A"
amplifier?
91. Briefly explain the construction part of tetrode
with the help of a schematic diagram?
92. What are the uses and applications of Micro
processor.
93. Name the 7 status bits used in microprocessor ?
94. What is program counter and state its role in
microprocessor?
95. Write the salient features of common base
amplifier?
96. What are the salient features of Common
Collector Amplifiers?
97. What are the advantages and disadvantages of
alternating Current over Direct Current?
98. What will happen when the break down voltage is
higher in lightly doped diodes?
99. Explain Armature reaction. How is it minimized?
100. Draw the diagram of integrator? Show its
input/output wave forms?
101. State the essential conditions for oscillation?
102. What are the salient features of direct coupled
amplifier ?
103. Briefly explain 'Q' point (Quiescent ,working or
operating points ) of a transistor?
104. What are the special features of VUC -201 A?
105. Briefly explain the functions of 50 MHz phase
lock loop (PLL) modules in VUC-201 A?
106. What is break down voltage ? How it occurs?
107. Write the elements used in the construction of a
Transformer?
108. Draw the diagram of full wave rectifier and
briefly explain the function.
109. Briefly explain the fundamental properties of an
amplifier?
110. Write down the testing procedure of a zener
diode?
111. Draw a circuit diagram of common emitter
amplifier ?
112. What are the different losses in generator,
explain copper loss ?
113. What are the two major components of computer
system?
114. Define Icon?
115. State any six data types available in MS Access?
116. What is the basic difference between MS DOS
and Windows?
117. Give two examples of System software?
118. Briefly explain the difference between data sheet
view and design view of a table in MS-Access?
119. Write down the advantages of non-impact
printer.
120. Define Software. What is difference between
software and hardware?
121. What are the components of MS-Access?
122. Briefly explain power amplifier?
123. Write short notes on conduction band.
124. Write short notes on directly heated cathode.
125. Write short notes on Space Charge.
126. Name and explain the essential components of a
CRT.
127. Write short notes on conductors.
128. Write short notes on Zener breakdown.
129. Write short notes on ' depletion layer '.
130. Briefly explain " Diffusion Capacitance" in a PN
junction.
131. Write short notes on ' Avalanche Breakdown '.
132. Briefly explain the operation of ' Step Recovery
Diode '.
133. Write short notes on Tunnel Diode.
134. How transducers are classified ?
135. Write the procedure to carry out the bonding test
on an aircraft.
136. Write the various uses of Cathode Ray
Oscilloscope.
137. How will you determine the unknown frequency
with the help of CRO ?
 SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Give an expression for the range of space waves in
terms of transmitting and receiving antenna height?
2. A broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 KW
when the modulation percentage is 75%. How much
of this is carrier power?
3. Explain the generation of FM by direct method?
4. In which respect is an LED different from an
ordinary P-n junction diode? State its application.
5. Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator
circuit using a Zener diode and explain its working.
6. Explain briefly the purpose of coupling and bypass
capacitors. What is meant by stiff coupling?
7. Obtain the ac equivalent of a single stage CE
amplifier and discuss about the input and output
impedance to develop such a model.
8. With a neat circuit diagram explain the following
term with respect to a differential amplifier (a) Tail
Current (b) Input offset current (c)Input bias current
(d) Input offset voltage.
9. What is the approximate value of zener current for
each of these load resistances :- (a) RL = 100 Kilo
Ohms (b) RL = 10 Kilo Ohms (c) RL = 1 Kilo Ohms.
10. Explain the working of a Class-C amplifier.
Obtain the power formulas for class C amplifier.
11. Enlist the Methods of generation of SSB. Describe
one method?
12. Explain the working of super heterodyne receiver?
13. Derive power relation in AM wave?
14. Explain with block diagram SSB receiver?
15. Explain power saving by SSB?
16. Define modulation and explain Amplitude
Modulation, Frequency modulation, and Phase
modulation. Also explain the need for modulation?
17. Define noise, where is it most likely to affect the
signal?
18. Draw and explain the block diagram of AM
transmitter. Show the appearance of amplitude
modulated wave?
19. The block diagram of a typical PCM
communication system?
20. The advantages and disadvantages of PCM over
analog communication?
21. An amplitude-modulated wave has a power
content of 800 W at its carrier frequency; determine
the power content of each of the sidebands for 90%
modulation?
22. Explain the RS Flip Flop with the help of a
diagram.
23. Explain the "TTL NAND GATE" with the help of
a circuit diagram.
24. Explain the basic laws of Boolean algebra.
25. Give a brief account of the magnetic tape as a
medium of storing information and state basic parts of
digital magnetic tape system.
26. What is the purpose of flow chart used in
computer? Give symbol of ??? PRINT, STOP and
CONNECTOR, MULTIMATERIAL computation.
27. What is the safety precaution to be observed while
using CRO?
28. Name various types of frequency meter widely
used and Explain the principle ad operation of
mechanical resonance type frequency meter.
29. Write the purpose and use of the following: - (i)
Varactor diode (ii) Step recovery diode (step diode).
30. Enumerate the parts of a MOSFET and explain
positive gate operation of MOSFET.
31. Draw a block diagram of typical ESCRT and
explain the purpose of control grid.
32. What is difference between Zener Break Down
and Avalanche Break down.
33. Briefly explain the Zener Diode.
34. What is the purpose of a clipper in an electronic
circuit? Explain its operation with a simple diagram.
35. Write short Notes on: - (i) Varactor Diode (ii)
Avalanche Breakdown.
36. Explain snap diode (step Recovery diode) and
enumerate its uses.
37. What are the advantages of Class 'B' Push-Pull
amplifier? Give justification to your answer.
38. Name the various types of satellite with brief
description.
39. What is ground wave? Explain its different
elements.
40. Briefly explain the application of LASER in the
following: (i) Spect ??? (iii) Weaponry.
41. What are the points to be observed while selecting
an antenna system.
42. What are the types of antennas used in
communication equipments.
43. How is the range of VHF transmitter calculated.
Explain with the help of formula.
44. Which is the agency allots frequency band for
communication purposes.
45. Explain the type of propagation used in VHF
range.
46. What is the difference between soldering and
brazing.
47. What is ‘BITE’ in a communication equipment.
48. What are the types of ‘BITE’.
49. What is the principle of automatic direction
finding equipment.
50. How VOR works.
51. What are the purpose of glide path and localiser in
ILS system.
52. How middle marker and outer marker works in
ILS system.
53. Why screening is used in airborne system.
54. What are the types of ILS system used in India.
55. What are the points to be observed while installing
an ADF station.
56. What is ground plane antenna.
57. How antenna length is calculated in
communication system. Explain with formula.
58. Explain operation of class C grid modulation
amplifier with circuit diagram and waveform?
59. Enlist the Methods of generation of SSB. Describe
one method?
60. Explain the working of super heterodyne receiver?
61. Derive power relation in AM wave?
62. Explain with block diagram SSB receiver?
63. Explain power saving by SSB?
64. Define modulation and explain Amplitude
Modulation, Frequency modulation, and Phase
modulation. Also explain the need for modulation?
65. Explain the structure of an optical fiber and also
explain the principle on which optical communication
takes place?
66. Draw and explain the block diagram of AM
transmitter. Show the appearance of amplitude
modulated wave?
67. Draw the block diagram of a typical PCM
communication system?
68. List the advantages and disadvantages of PCM
over analog communication?
69. An amplitude modulated wave has a power
content of 800 W at its carrier frequency, determine
the power content of each of the sidebands for 90%
modulation?
70. List the advantages of FM over AM?
71. Give an expression for the range of space waves in
terms of transmitting and receiving antenna height?
72. A broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 KW
when the modulation percentage is 75%. How much
of this is carrier power?
73. Explain the generation of FM by direct method?
74. Draw the block diagram of FM transmitter?
75. Explain the working of antenna of SRE?
76. Explain the purpose and role of PAR?
77. Explain the functioning of PAR?
78. Explain in brief how PAR is able to provide
guidance information for safe landing of aircraft?
79. What are the various angle marks generated in
PAR?
80. Explain the purpose of ILS?
81. What is MLS?
82. How MLS provides guidance information to pilot
to perform safe landing?
83. Explain the purpose and operation of MLS?
84. Explain the purpose and operation of Localiser,
glide path and marker beacons?
85. What are the various components of ILS?
86. What is the coverage of ILS?
87. What is the standard procedure by which the
aircraft makes use of the ILS?
88. Where is on airfield ILS antenna positioned?
89. Why ILS equipments are not installed on both
ends of the runway?
90. What are the advantages of MLS over ILS?
91. What is the horizontal and vertical coverage of
MLS?
92. How many channels are used in MLS?
93. What is the frequency of operation of MLS?
94. What are the types of Navigation?
95. Draw and explain self excited mixers?
96. Draw and explain delayed AGC?
97. Compare acceptor and rejector circuits in
tabulation form?
98. What is primary cell? Narrate important points
about them . Also write short notes on rated capacity
of Lead Acid Accumulator?.
99. What is the necessity of regulator? Draw shunt
feed back regulator and write the specifications for IC
regulators?.
100. Enumerate the types of condensers . Briefly
explain advantage and disadvantage of electrolytic
condensers?
101. Enumerate magnetic properties of substances?
Briefly explain magnetostriction?
102. Explain the salient features of communication
satellite.
103. Characteristics of an ideal op-amplifier ?
104. Briefly explain the advantages and disadvantages
of optical fiber cable?
105. Draw a block diagram and explain double super
heterodyne receiver?
106. Briefly explain the operating principle of IC
based regulator.
107. Draw and briefly explain Anode (plate )
modulation?
108. Enumerate the external noises produced in a
receiver ?Briefly explain miscellaneous Noise.
109. Draw and explain a cascade amplifier. Write its
advantage and uses?
110. Write the advantages and disadvantages of FM
over AM ?
111. Draw a block schematic diagram to show the
stages of op-amplifier. Name the.
112. What is biasing ? What are the method of biasing
? Briefly explain emitter feed back bias?
113. Explain the relation between alfa dc and bita
dc ?
114. How junction diodes are formed ? Explain the
forming of depletion layer?

115. What are the uses of CRO / CRT ?
116. Draw the diagram of timer circuit using IC 555
and explain ?
117. Draw SCR crow bar circuit and state its
purpose?
118. Write Point wise the requirement of keying?
119. Briefly explain class "C" amplifier ? write down
its salient features?
120. How the marker is distinguished ? Briefly
explain outer marker?
121. Briefly explain the qualities of receiver/.
122. Draw Block schematic diagram of AM simple
transmitter and explain Harmonic generator.
123. Briefly explain glide path?
124. What are the various type of peripheral devices
of a microprocessor? Explain briefly?
125. Draw a circuit diagram of common collector
amplifier (Emitter follower) and briefly explain its
action?
126. Draw and explain Common Drain Amplifier
(Source Follower) and state its salient features?
127. Define modulation. Enumerate the reasons which
necessitated modulation. Enumerate classifications of
modulation.
128. Compare Low and High level Modulation?.
129. What are the properties of Amplifiers. How
amplifiers are classified?
130. Enumerate the procedure of pre-setting of
frequency and channels on VUC 201 A?
131. Draw a block schematic diagram of super
Heterodyne Receiver and differentiate between
Autodyning and Heterodyning?
132. What are the specifications of Electrical Cables
used for airborne radio equipments.
133. What are the safety precautions to be observed
while soldering electronic components in airborne
radio equipments.
134. How insulation test is conducted.
135. Why 50 Hz is fixed as frequency for 230V AC.
136. Why Germanium and Silcon are used in
semiconductors?
137. How a semiconductor diode works.
138. What are the impurities in a semiconductor
diode.
139. What are the advantages over vacuum tube diode
in a PN junction diode.
140. Draw the VI characteristics of a PN junction
diode and explain.
141. Draw and explain Astable multivibrator.
142. Draw and explain Bistable multivibrator.
143. Draw and explain RS Flipflop.
144. Draw and explain JK Flipflop.
145. What is the basic principle used in oscillators.
146. How colpitts oscillator works.
147. Draw and explain Hartley oscillator.
148. Explain how a micro computer works.
149. What is a principle used in networking in a
computer system.
150. Explain memory organisation in micro computer.
151. What is Cache memory in a computer.
152. What are the advantages of LCD over LED.
153. Explain how LED works.
154. Why Impedence matching is required in a
communication system?
155. What is SWR.
156. What are the types of connectors used in Coaxial
calbe.
157. Why reflected power should be very less or zero
in a transmitter.
158. Draw the diagram of CVR and clearly show the
source of input.
159. Explain why a marker sensitivity switch is
required.
160. Describe in general how will you carry out ramp
test of an ILS.
161. Explain the working principle at radio altimeter.
162. Discuss centaur, STC and AGC in a weather
radar.
163. Describe the Doppler effect as utilised as in
airborne Doppler radar.
164. Draw a simplifier block diagram of Doppler
navigation system.
165. Draw a block schematic diagram of pulse radio
altimeter.
166. Which system requires signals from radio
altimeter? What are signals involved?
167. With the help of block diagram explain the
action of an HF ATU.
168. Describe the information in ADF presented to
pilot.
169. Draw and explain a simple anticross talk
network.
170. Draw a simplifier block diagram of VOR
receiver and explain it.
171. List the facilities provided by a typical general
aviation AIS.
172. Describe briefly the basic principle of ILS.
173. List source of interference to A/C radio system
and state method used to minimise the effects of such
sources.
174. Discuss the term squelch. How squelch test is
carried out?
175. Describe how your would check a waveguide(??)
...(??) for condition.
176. Explain the term fruit and garbling as applied to
SSR.
177. Explain how DECCA chain is designated.
178. Describe the outputs from ILS to the aircrafts
instrumentation and to other system.
179. Draw a block diagram of Glide slope receiver.
180. Name and explain various types of electron
emission.
181. With the aid of a symbol sketch, explain the
operation of pentode valve.
182. With the aid of VI characteristic curve, explain
characteristics of vacuum diode.
183. Name and explain the main types of
semiconductors.
184. With the aid of symbol, explain the construction,
operation and uses of schottkey diode (Hot.
185. Enumerate the uses of different types of special
diodes.
186. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram, explain
the construction, operation and peak inverse.
187. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram explain the
description and operation of Hartley oscil.
188. Draw a neat structure and symbol diagram of
NPN forward reverse bias transistor and explain I.
189. With the help of a neat circuit diagram, explain
the description and operation of Colpits osc.
190. With the help of a suitable structural and
schematic circuit diagram explain how a SCR reache.
191. Describe the safety precautions to be observed
while using Cathode Ray Oscilloscope.
192. Explain adjacent channel interference in Radio
signal.
193. List the source of error effecting ADF operation.
194. Describe quad rental error and explain how it 195. Draw ADF installation diagram.
may be corrected.