BCH MCQs1

BIOC520: Medical Biochemistry
1995: Exam 1
PART I. (60 points)
Type A. Each of the following statements is followed by five suggested
answers or completions. On the answer sheet, mark the one which
is best in each case.
1. If 10 ml of 0.01 M lactate is added to 10 ml of 0.1 M lactic acid

(pKa=3.86), what will be the pH of the resulting solution?
A. 4.86
B. 3.86
C. 2.86
D. 1.86
E. none of the above
2. Which of the following is not a true statement?

A. there are twenty naturally occurring amino acids that are
incorporated into proteins during translation
B. only the L stereoisomers of amino acids are incorporated
into proteins
C. there are only 20 naturally occuring amino acids in
mammalian cells
D. the alpha-carbon of glycine has no stereospecificity
E. the zwitterionic form of an amino acid has no net charge
3. The peptide bond is planar because

A. it has partial double bond character due to resonance
B. it has the ability to freely rotate
C. of steric hindrance from amino acid side chains
D. it is polar and generally participates in hydrogen bonding
E. the condensation reaction requires the energy of ATP
4. Which of the following statements about an alpha helix is correct?

A. it is stabilized by hydrogen bonding between amino acid
side chains
B. each of the amino acids is equally able to exist in an
alpha-helix
C. it is found in all proteins in their native states
D. it requires extensive hydrogen bonding between carbonyl
oxygens and amide hydrogens in the polypeptide backbone
E. it is a right handed double helix with 10 nucleotides per
turn
5. A substrate molecule that causes a conformational change in the

enzyme at or near the active site would be best described by
which of the listed mechanisms?
A. Induced fit
B. Destabilization
C. Acid Base Catalysis
D. Covalent catalysis
6. Membrane fluidity
A. increases as the percent of unsaturated fatty acids increases.
B. increases as the percent of unsaturated fatty acids decreases.
C. increases as the length of fatty acid side chains increases.
D. is independent of the nature of fatty acids.
E. increases as the percent of saturated fatty acids increases.
7. "Edman degradation" refers to 1

A. a metabolic pathway for catabolism of proteins.
B. a chemical method for determination of the N-terminal amino
acid
sequence of proteins and polypeptides.
C. an enzymatic method for determination of the C-terminal
sequence
of proteins and polypeptides.
D. a chemical method for determination of the C-terminal sequence
of proteins and polypeptides.
E. none of the other answers is correct.
8. Which of the following groups contains only amino acids with side
chains capable of participating exclusively in hydrophobic bonding
when found in proteins?
A. Thr, Asp, Glu
B. Leu, Lys, Val
C. Ile, Leu, Lys
D. Val, Leu, Ala
E. Arg, Ile, Val
9. At pH 7.0 which of the following compounds would have a net negative

charge?
A. Glutamate.
B. Palmitate.
C. ATP.
D. Phosphatidylserine.
E. All of the above
10. Which of the following represents a protein modification which

changes
enzyme activity in a non-reversible manner?
A. Competitive inhibition
B. Zymogen activation
C. Phosphorylation of a serine residue of the protein
D. Coenzyme activation
E. Allosteric activation
11. At their isoelectric point proteins have

A. no ionized groups.
B. no positively charged groups.
C. no negatively charged groups.
D. equal numbers of positively and negatively charged groups.
12. Which of the following is most likely to cross a membrane by a

non-mediated diffusion process?
A. glucose
B. water
C. sodium ions out of cells
D. ADP
E. ATP
13. Secondary structure of proteins

A. is maintained by hydrogen bonds.
B. refers to proteins consisting of two (or more) subunits
held together by noncovalent forces.
C. encompasses any hydrogen-bonded interaction found in
proteins.
D. refers to proteins consisting of one or more
polypeptide chains plus a nonprotein moiety.
E. is found only in fibrous proteins.
14. The concept (delta)G infers which of the following?
A. (delta)G allows us to predict the rate of a reaction. 2

B. (delta)G is a measure of whether a reaction is spontaneous.
C. (delta)G depends on whether a reaction occurs in a single step
giving off heat or trapped as chemical energy in a series of
small steps.
D. when (delta)G = 0, the system is at equilibrium.
E. both B and D are true.
15. All of the following statements about facilitated diffusion are
correct EXCEPT
A. a plot of rate of uptake by cells versus substrate
concentration would be expected to give a hyperbolic curve.
B. depending on conditions, transport could occur in either
direction across the membrane.
C. the process can allow a substance in cells to be accumulated
against a concentration gradient.
D. an interaction between the substance transported and a

membrane
component is likely to occur.
E. competitive inhibition of the transport of a substance by its
chemical analogs is likely to occur.
16. The asymmetry associated with biological membranes refers to the
A. degree of lateral mobility of integral membrane proteins.
B. ratio of phospholipid to cholesterol.
C. differences in protein and lipid composition of the outer and
inner leaflet of the membrane bilayer.
D. ratio of peripheral to integral membrane protein. 3

E. the fluidity a various temperatures
17. The peptide backbone of a protein contains atoms connected in a

chain
as follows
A. -C-N-C-S-
B. -C-N-N-C-
C. -C-O-C-N-
D. -C-N-C-C-
E. -C-C-C-N-
18. In considering the 'active site' of enzymes, a fair
generalization is that
A. nearly all the amino acid side-chains of the protein
must directly participate in catalysis.
B. all the amino acid residues which are involved in the
active site are adjacent because they are located on
the same short stretch of the polypeptide backbone.
C. the active site region does not exist at all until
the substrate is bound.
D. the amino acid residues which form the active site are
in close proximity because of the specific
three-dimensional conformation the protein has adopted.
E. only one amino acid residue is involved in the active site.
19. Which of the following could be a positive allosteric
effector of an enzyme? 4
A. a competitive inhibitor
B. a noncompetitive inhibitor
C. a compound, other than the substrate, which binds to
the active site
D. a compound, other than the substrate, which binds to the

enzyme
but not to the active site
E. a covalent modification which leads to a conformational change
in the enzyme
20. Which one of the following statements about the maximum velocity
(Vmax) of an enzyme catalyzed reaction is true?
A. Vmax is unaltered in the presence of a noncompetitive

inhibitor.
B. Vmax is directly proportional to enzyme concentration.
C. Vmax is directly proportional to substrate concentration.
D. Vmax is directly proportional to the measured rate (v).
E. Vmax is directly proportional to Km, being higher for enzymes
with higher Km values for their substrates.
21. Integral membrane proteins
A. are located only at the external surface of the membrane,

where
they function as a permeability barrier.
B. consist of two species common to all membranes, which are
responsible for structural integrity.
C. consist of a small number of low molecular weight, water

soluble
components which are important in active transport.

5
D. traverse the membrane as an helix with high hydrophobicity
E. are located only in the internal portion of the membrane and

are
surrounded by a lipid sheet.
22. All of the following statements about allosteric enzymes are true
EXCEPT
A. They are generally comprised of 2 or more polypeptide chains.
B. Their activities are often controlled through feedback

inhibition.
C. The catalytic site of the enzyme may occur on a different
polypeptide chain than does the regulatory site.
D. Plots of reaction rate vs substrate concentration are often
sigmoid shaped.
E. The apparent Km of an enzyme for its substrate is increased by

a
positive allosteric modulator.
23. All of the following effects may occur in enzyme catalysis
EXCEPT which one?
A. Stabilization of transition states occurring between

substrates
and products.
B. General acid and base catalysis.
C. Lowering of the free energy of products, making a forward

reaction
thermodynamically more favorable.
D. Nucleophilic covalent catalysis, creating intermediates not
possible in an uncatalyzed reaction.
E. The orienting of substrate in configurations favorable to

6
catalysis by reactive groups on an enzyme.
24. In the presence of a typical noncompetitive inhibitor of the
activity
of a particular enzyme toward a given substrate
A. the enzyme is irreversibly inactivated.
B. the potential maximum velocity will remain unchanged from that

in
the absence of the inhibitor.
C. the interaction of the inhibitor with the substrate is a major
factor leading to the inhibition observed.
D. sigmoidal kinetics would be expected if there is no change in
protein conformation on the binding of either S or I.
E. the apparent Michaelis constant for the substrate will be the

same
with or without inhibitor present.
25. Which one of the following factors is considered to be the major

force
which leads to conformational stability of globular proteins?
A. hydrogen bonding.
B. hydrophobic interactions.
C. ionic interactions.
D. disulfide bonding.
E. van der Waals forces.
26. All of the following are a part of our current concept of
biological membranes EXCEPT
A. a fluid lipid bilayer.
B. selective transport pores through the membrane.

7
C. non-covalent association of protein with the lipid bilayer.
D. rapid exchange of membrane components between the inner and
outer leaflets.
E. insertion of structural proteins into and across the lipid
bilayer.
27. A patient first experienced chest pains approximately 6 hr ago.
A good diagnostic test for the possibility of a myocardial
infarction would be:
A. an immunoassay quantitating troponin levels in the serum
B. an electrophoretic assay to determine the relative serum

levels of
LDH isozymes
C. an electrophoretic assay to determine the relative serum

levels of
creatine kinase isozymes
D. A, B, C are all correct
E. A and C are correct
28. For active transport across a membrane
A. ATP hydrolysis is always directly involved in the process
B. the transported molecule can be "pumped" in either direction
across the membrane
C. energy is required to move the transported molecule against
a concentration gradient
D. the process is influenced by the relative concentrations of
the transported molecule but is independent of
the membrane potential

8
E. saturation kinetics are not observed because there is no
specific interaction between the transporter and its

substrate
29. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of biological

membranes?
A. asymmetric structure
B. glycoproteins oriented with sugars on outside
C. rapid lateral movement of lipids in plane of membrane surface
D. rapid transverse movement of proteins from one side of the
membrane to the other
E. bilayer structure of phospholipids with non-polar ends
pointing inwards
30. The sodium/potassium ATPase (pump) will
A. transport sodium from inside the cell to the outside
B. hydrolyze ATP
C. transport potassium from outside the cell to the inside
D. maintain the ionic concentration gradient
E. all of the above
ANSWERS
1C 2C 3A 4D 5A 6A 7B 8D 9E
10B 11D 12B 13A 14E 15C 16C 17D 18D
19D 20B 21D 22E 23C 24E 25B 26D 27E
28C 29D 30E
BIOCHEMISTRY 520/720
EXAM 2
September 11, 1995
PART I. (60 points)

answers or completions. On the answer sheet, mark the one which is 9
best in
each case.
1. Identify the anomeric carbon on this sugar:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
2. All of the following statements about the interconversion of

glucose and glucose 6-phosphate are correct EXCEPT which one?
A. The production of glucose 6-phosphate from glucose

requires a kinase.
B. The production of glucose from glucose 6-phosphate is a
hydrolysis reaction catalyzed by a phosphatase.
C. The interconversion of the two compounds is
accomplished by a single, freely reversible reaction.
D. Glucose 6-phosphate inhibits the enzyme of skeletal
muscle tissue which catalyzes its production from
glucose.
E. Muscle tissue is incapable of the dephosphorylation of
glucose 6-phosphate.
3. The uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation in the human might be

of physiological importance because it
A. allows storage of nutrients.

B. produces water.
C. increases carbon dioxide level in the blood.
D. produces heat.
E. raises the oxygen level in the blood.
4. Which of the following is not true of the enzyme

phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase?
A. it catalyzes a reaction in both glycolysis and

gluconeogenesis
B. there are both mitochondrial and cytosolic forms of the
enzyme
C. it can catalyze the conversion of oxaloacetate to
phosphoenolpyruvate
D. it requires hydrolysis of a GTP
E. the level of enzyme activity is regulated by changes in
enzyme concentration
5. Disaccharides such as sucrose and lactose
A. are directly absorbed by intestinal cells

B. are hydrolyzed into monosaccharide components by
pancreatic amylase
C. are hydrolyzed by salivary amylase
D. are hydrolyzed by specific enzymes associated with the
intestinal brush border
E. must be metabolized by intestinal bacteria prior to
absorption in the gut
6. The reaction catalyzed by UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase is

physiologically irreversible because
A. the Km of the enzyme is very high

B. the Km of the enzyme is very low
C. the enzyme lowers the activation energy of the 10
reaction
D. one of the products, pyrophosphate, is rapidly
hydrolyzed
E. the enzyme shifts the equilibrium of the reaction to the
right
7. Which of the following enzymes catalyze the reduction of NADP+

that is needed for reductive biosynthesis in the cytosol?
1. malic enzyme
2. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
3. 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
4. malate dehydrogenase
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
8. Which statement about phosphofructokinase-1 is FALSE?
A. It is a major control enzyme in glycolysis.

B. ATP is a substrate.
C. AMP is a negative effector.
D. fructose-2,6-bisphosphate is a positive effector.
E. It catalyzes a physiologically irreversible reaction.
9. All of the following enzymes carryout substrate level

phosphorylations except
A. ATP synthase
B. phosphoglycerate kinase
C. pyruvate kinase
D. succinyl CoA synthetase
10. Which of the following components of the mitochondrial

electron transport system are incapable of carrying 2
electrons?
1. Ubiquinone
2. cytochrome C
3. FMN
4. Heme b
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
11. ATP synthase
A. contains an F1 unit that constitutes the proton channel.

B. translocates ATP through the mitochondrial membrane.
C. is located in the outer mitochondrial membrane.
D. releases ATP from an active site as a consequence of
protons re-entering the mitochondrial matrix.
E. functions independently from the proton motive force
12. What is the Eo' for the transfer of electrons to oxygen from
the
FADH2 that is covalently bound to succinate dehydrogenase?
A. +1.14
B. +0.78
C. +0.82 11
D. +1.12
E. -1.14
13. Which of the following cannot be directly transported across the
mitochondrial inner membrane?
1. NADH
2. oxaloacetate
3. acetylCoA
4. pyruvate
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
14. In the Cori cycle
A. lactate produced by glycolysis in tissues such as muscle

or RBCs is taken up by the liver and used as a carbon
source
for the production of glucose
B. muscle pyruvate is converted to alanine which is then
taken up by the liver and used for gluconeogenesis
C. cytosolic oxaloacetate is reduced to malate which is
then transported into the mitochondrial matrix for
reoxidation to oxaloacetate
D. cytosolic NADH reduces dihydroxyacetone phosphate to
glycerol 3-phosphate which is reoxidized by an FAD
containing complex within the mitochondrial inner
membrane
E. excess acetylCoA is shuttled from muscle cells to the
liver for use in glucose synthesis
15. An important regulatory step in the oxidation of fatty acids

is:
A. the release of acetylCoA by thiolase for use in the

citric acid cycle
B. oxidative formation of a trans double bond in the fatty
acylCoA
C. cytosolic activation of the fatty acid by attachment to
CoA which is inhibited by malate
D. transport of acylated carnitine into the mitochondrial
matrix which is inhibited by malonyl CoA
E. conversion of propionyl CoA to succinyl CoA which is
inhibited by a cAMP dependent mechanism
16. Fatty acid synthase

1. is a single polypeptide chain with
multiple enzymatic functions
2. cannot make stearate
3. requires NADPH and a covalently bound
cofactor that is similar to CoA
4. is found in the cytosolic compartment
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. all are correct
A. in red blood cells NADPH plays a protective role because

it is used to reduce oxidized glutathione
B. in phagocytes NADPH plays a part in a defensive 12
mechanism
in which it is used as a source of electrons for the
production of oxygen radicals
C. in liver cells NADPH can be utilized as an energy source
by providing electrons for the mitochondrial electron
transport system
D. in people with a deficiency in glucose 6-phosphate
dehydrogenase, certain drugs can cause hemolytic anemia
because the associated oxidative stress cannot be
overcome
by the limiting supply of NADPH
E. in liver cells NADPH is an important source of reducing
equivalents needed for fatty acid synthesis
18. Which of the following does not occur in liver cells after an
extended fasting period?
A. citric acid cycle intermediates are used for

gluconeogenesis
B. certain amino acids derived from protein breakdown are
used for gluconeogenesis
C. fatty acids are imported from adipose tissue and used
for
the production of acetylCoA
D. acetylCoA from fatty acid oxidation accumulates leading
to the formation of ketone bodies, which can be exported
and used as a fuel for the brain
E. glucose from glycogen breakdown is exported for
utilization by the brain and other tissues
19. Regulated steps in glycolysis of muscle tissue include which

of the following?
1. the phosphohexose isomerase reaction
2. the phosphofructokinase reaction
3. the enolase reaction
4. the phosphoglycerate kinase reaction
5. the pyruvate kinase reaction
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 5
D. 1 and 4
E. 2 and 5
20. The mitochondrial enzymes, pyruvate dehydrogenase and

isocitrate dehydrogenase, are specifically located in the
A. outer membrane.
B. inter-membrane space.
C. inner membrane.
D. matrix.
E. knobs protruding from the inner membrane as visualized
using negative staining techniques.
21. A newly discovered inhibitor was found to cause the

accumulation of FMNH2, reduced ubiquinone, and oxidized
cytochrome
C. It is most likely to be
A. an uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation

B. affecting a component of complex I
C. affecting a component of complex II
D. affecting a component of complex III
E. affecting a component of complex IV
22. Isolated liver mitochondria are treated so that electrons

from NADH only are diverted directly to an artificial electron 13
acceptor, rather than proceeding through the electron
transport
chain. Theoretically, how many moles of ADP (or equivalent) will
be phosphorylated to ATP (or equivalent) when a mole of
acetyl-CoA is completely oxidize in this system?
A. 0
B. 1.5
C. 2.5
D. 3.5
E. 4.5
23. Which enzyme of gluconeogenesis also carries out an important

anaplerotic reaction?
A. glucose-6-phosphatase
B. pyruvate carboxylase
C. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
D. phosphoglycerate kinase
E. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
24. Some of the enzymes for gluconeogenesis are localized in the:

1. cytosol
2. endoplasmic reticulum
3. mitochondrial matrix
4. mitochondrial inner membrane
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
25. Starch is similar to glycogen in that
A. it is a glucose polymer containing alpha (1-4) linkages

and branches arising from alpha-(1,6) linkages
B. it is a glucose polymer containing beta-(1-4) linkages
and branches arising from alppha-(1-6) linkages
C. it is an important source of dietary glucose
D. it contains branches about every 8-12 glucose residues
E. it is an intracellular storage form of glucose in
mammals
26. In a poorly regulated diabetic, ketoacidosis can occur because
A. the major regulatory step of glycolysis is bypassed

leading to accumulation of high levels of lactate in
the blood
B. of excess levels of aspartate in the blood due to
elevated turnover of muscle proteins
C. constitutively elevated levels of blood glucose cause
excretion of bicarbonate ions by the kidney
D. increased levels of blood glucose signal the liver to
increase the production of glycogen and anaerobic
glycolysis which leads to elevated lactate levels in
the blood
E. excess levels of acetylCoA, above the capacity of the
citric acid cycle to oxidize it, lead to increased
synthesis of ketone bodies and elevated levels of ketone
bodies in the blood
27. Transketolase
A. transfers a 2 carbon fragment to an aldehyde acceptor

B. transfers a 3 carbon fragment to an acceptor
C. converts the ketose sugar ribulose 5-phosphate to 14
ribose-
5-phosphate
D. is part of the irreversible oxidative phase of the
pentose phosphate pathway
E. converts two 5 carbon sugar phosphates to fructose 6-
phosphate and erythrose 4-phosphate
28. During fatty acid biosynthesis
A. all but the first two carbons of the growing acyl chain
come directly from malonyl CoA
B. FADH2 reduces the alpha-keto group
C. ATP is cleaved in the dehydration step
D. the growing acyl chain is attached to coenzyme A
E. the product is released after a chain of 24 carbons is
synthesized
29. Type I diabetes
A. is the most prevalent type of diabetes

B. is due to a lack of insulin production
C. is due to a defect in the insulin receptor
D. is often associated with obesity
E. generally responds favorably to drugs such as Metformin
which increases insulin sensitivity in the tissues
30. If a cell is actively undergoing DNA synthesis but has little

need for the synthesis of fatty acids
A. only the reversible non-oxidative steps of the pentose

phosphate pathway are necessary
B. most of the sugars produced by the non-oxidative steps
of
the pentose phosphate pathway would be metabolized by
glycolysis to provide energy for cell division
C. only the oxidative steps of the pentose phosphate
pathway
would be necessary to produce the ribose-phosphate
necessary for nucleotide synthesis
D. Both the irreversible oxidative steps and the reversible
non-oxidative steps of the pentose phosphate pathway
would be necessary
E. none of the above are correct
1995: Exam 3
PART I. (60 points)

is best in each case.
1. Enzymes that incorporate free ammonia into forms useful for the
central pathways of amino acid metabolism include
A. aspartate transaminase and alanine transaminase
B. carbamoyl phosphate synthase II and adenosine deaminase
C. alpha-ketoglutarate aminotransferase and phosphoserine 15
transaminase
D. glutamine synthetase and glutamate dehydrogenase
E. phenylalanine hydroxylase and cystathionase
2. The primary function of the urea cycle is

A. to convert toxic ammonia to urea which can be excreted
B. the turnover of excess arginine
C. the production of the citric acid cycle intermediate fumarate
D. the synthesis of ornithine for spermidine synthesis
E. the synthesis of aspartate
3. The regeneration of methionine from homocysteine

A. occurs only in bacteria
B. requires a methyl group to be donated by SAM
C. requires pyridoxal phosphate as a cofactor
D. involves an S-adenosyl intermediate
E. requires vitamin B12 and 5-methyltetrahydrofolate
4. The catabolism of which of the following amino acids involves

glutamate as an intermediate?
1. glutamine
2. proline
3. arginine
4. histidine
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 2, 3, and 4
E. all of them
5. A major difference between chylomicrons and VLDL particles is that

A. The major lipid component of chylomicrons is triglycerides
while the major lipid component of VLDL is cholesterol esters
B. Lipoprotein lipase removes fatty acids and glycerol from
chylomicrons while hormone sensitive lipase removes them from
VLDL
C. chylomicrons carry triglycerides assembled in the
intestinal mucosal cells from dietary sources while VLDL
carries triglycerides primarily synthesized by the liver
D. chylomicrons carry triglycerides away from the liver while
VLDL primarily returns them to the liver from other tissues
E. Only chylomicrons have apolipoprotein C2
6. Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
A. is required for both purine and pyrimidine synthesis
B. is a ribonucleotide
C. is synthesized from AMP and ribose
D. is a substrate for the first step of UMP biosynthesis
E. synthesis is blocked by aminopterin
7. In the synthesis of phosphatidylinositol

A. the inositol must be activated by coupling to a dinucleotide
B. CDP-diacylglycerol is an intermediate
C. the inositol ring is exchanged with the head group of
phosphatidylethanolamine
D. the inositol ring is exchanged with the head group of
phosphatidylserine
E. The inositol ring is attached to ceramide
8. The major site of cholesterol biosynthesis in the human is

A. intestinal epithelia
B. gall bladder
C. pancreas
D. adrenal gland
E. liver 16
9. In the liver most ethanol
A. is metabolized by a cytochrome P450 enzyme producing
reactive molecules such as acetaldehyde and free radicals
B. is oxidized by alcohol dehydrogenase producing acetaldehyde
and NADH
C. is carboxylated to form pyruvate and funnelled into the
citric acid cycle
D. is not metabolized allowing it to exchange with choline
to produce phosphatidylethanol
E. is enzymatically converted to fatty acid ethyl esters
leading to membrane damage
10. Which of the following is not an important factor in producing

or maintaining a low pH in the lumen of the stomach?
A. ATP-dependent transport of potassium ions into parietal
cells in exchange for protons
B. metabolic production of CO2 and ATP by mitochondria-rich
parietal cells
C. antiport exchange of chloride ions in the blood for HCO3-
ions in parietal cells
D. histamine release by stomach cells
E. Cotransport of sodium and chloride ions from parietal
cells into the lumen
11. Which of following amino acids can be synthesized directly from

a citric acid cycle intermediate by a single transamination step?
1. glutamate
2. glutamine
3. aspartate
4. serine
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. all of them
12. An amino acid that requires reactions in two tissues for synthesis
in a pathway that has several intermediates similar to the urea cycle
is
A. glutamine
B. histidine
C. arginine
D. glycine
E. cystine
13. The most common donor of methyl groups in biosynthetic reactions is

A. 5-methyltetrahydrofolate
B. S-adenosylmethionine (SAM)
C. homocysteine
D. 5-formiminotetrahydrofolate
E. tetrahydrobiopterin
14. The branched chain amino acids valine and isoleucine are both
glucogenic because
A. they are metabolized yielding propionyl CoA which can be
further metabolized to a citric acid cycle intermediate
B. during their breakdown electrons are harvested and passed
on to ubiquinone in the mitochondrial electron transport
system
C. their metabolism yields both acetoacetate and acetylCoA
D. the first step in their breakdown involves transamination
of alpha-ketoglutarate to form glutamate which can be used
as a fuel for glucose synthesis
E. an intermediate in their catabolism is an acylCoA
17
15. Which of the following is not true concerning reduction of
ribonucleotides?
A. ribonucleoside diphosphates are the substrates that are
reduced by ribonucleotide reductase
B. NADPH provides the reducing power for synthesis of
deoxyribonucleotides
C. each of the four ribonucleotides are reduced by a specific
isozyme of ribonucleotide reductase
D. two proteins, thioredoxin and thioredoxin reductase,
are necessary to maintain ribonucleotide reductase in its
active reduced state
E. the mechanism of ribonucleotide reductase involves an
unusual tyrosine free radical
16. Gaucher's disease is a lysosomal storage disease. Which of the

following reactions is normally catalyzed by the enzyme which is
defective in the disease?
A. ceramide + UDP-galactose --> cerebroside + UDP
B. ceramide + phosphatidylcholine --> sphingomyelin +
diacylglycerol
C. serine + palmitoylCoA --> ketosphinganine + CoA + CO2
D. glucocerebroside --> ceramide
E. sphingosine + acylCoA --> ceramide + CoA
17. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the committed and

rate-limiting step of cholesterol synthesis from acetyl-CoA?
A. acetyl CoA carboxylase
B. citrate lyase
C. HMG CoA reductase
D. thiolase
E. mevalonate kinase
18. Enteropeptidase is an important enzyme for digestion of

proteins in the small intestine because
A. it is activated by bile salts so that it can cleave
trypsinogen producing active trypsin which in turn
proteolytically activates other digestive zymogens
B. it is the major protease found in the duodenum
C. it is primarily responsible for the direct activation
of zymogens including proelastase, chymotrypsin, and
procarboxypeptidases
D. it is produced in the stomach but activated by the
increased pH found in the small intestine
E. it is not a zymogen and therefore the only protease
that is found in an active form at the time it is secreted by
the pancreas
19. In mammals the sulfur atom for the synthesis of cysteine is

derived from
A. inorganic sulfide
B. sulfite
C. methionine
D. coenzyme A
E. cystine
20. The substrates for the enzyme carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

include:
1. ATP
2. bicarbonate
3. NH3
4. glutamine
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them 18
21. The catabolism of which amino acid leads to the formation of
fumarate
and acetoacetate and requires ascorbate (vitamin C)?
A. Tryptophan
B. Leucine
C. Isoleucine
D. Tyrosine
E. Histidine
22. High levels of intracellular cholesterol would be expected to lead

to
1. a reduction in the levels of HMG-CoA reductase

activity
2. a decrease in the level of cell surface LDL receptors
3. an increase in acylCoA:cholesterol acyltransferase
activity (ACAT)
4. a decrease in lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase
activity
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
23. The first target of human gene therapy encodes an enzyme
involved in purine breakdown known as
A. 5'-nucleotidase
B. xanthine oxidase
C. xanthine dehydrogenase
D. adenosine deaminase
E. purine nucleoside phosphorylase
24. A serum enzyme that esterifies cholesterol with fatty acids
from phosphatidylcholine is
A. acylCoA:cholesterol acyltransferase
B. glycerolphosphate acyltransferase 19
C. lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase
D. lipoprotein lipase
E. pancreatic lipase
25. One mechanism for maintaining balanced production of purine
and pyrimidine ribonucleotides is that
A. the first enzyme in both pathways is the same
B. IMP, a purine nucleotide, activates carbamoyl synthetase II,
an enzyme in the pyrimidine synthetic pathway
C. GMP blocks IMP dehydrogenase by feedback inhibition
D. AMP inhibits the synthesis of 5-phosphoribosylamine, the
committed step of purine synthesis
E. pyrimidine nucleotides inhibit carbamoyl synthetase II
by feedback inhibition
26. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to
lipoprotein complexes?
1. LDLs are the main cholesterol carriers and bind to
receptors in peripheral tissues
2. Chylomicrons are assembled in the liver and are
primarily carriers of triacylglycerol
3. HDLs are the largest lipoprotein complexes and have
the lowest protein content
4. VLDLs are remnants of chylomicrons
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
27. Sulfa drugs such as sulfanilamide are effective against certain
pathogenic bacteria because 20

A. they block the synthesis of dihydrobiopterin
B. they block the synthesis of niacin
C. they block the synthesis of folate
D. they block the synthesis of pyridoxal
E. they block the synthesis of thiamine
28. The absorption of which of the following might be lowered by
treatment for high cholesterol levels with bile acid sequestrants such
as
cholestyramine?
1. triglycerides
2. vitamin E
3. vitamin A
4. vitamin K
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. all of them
29. All of the following would be delivered through the blood
directly to the liver following digestion and uptake into the small
intestine EXCEPT?
A. glucose
B. triglycerides
C. leucine
D. glutamine
E. glutamate
30. Amino groups derived from amino acid catabolism in the muscle
are released from the cell predominantly as

21
1. urea
2. alanine
3. asparagine
4. glutamine
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
ANSWERS
1D 2A 3E 4E 5C 6A 7B 8E 9B
10E 11B 12C 13B 14A 15C 16D 17C 18A
19C 20D 21D 22D 23D 24C 25B 26A 27C
28E 29B 30C
1995: Exam 4 Part I
EXAM 4
October 16, 1995
PART I. (60 points)

answers or completions. On the answer sheet, mark the one which is best
in
each case.
1. An intracellular target of the cancer chemotherapeutic drug

camptothecin is:
A. histone H1
B. DNA gyrase
C. topoisomerase I
D. RNA polymerase II
E. elongation factor I
2. Which of the following is a true statement?

A. DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3' phosphate group of
an
existing strand
B. When read in the same direction (5' to 3'), the sequence of
nucleotides in the newly synthesized DNA strand is the
same as in the parental template strand
C. Synthesis of the new DNA strand occurs in the 5' to 3'
direction on the leading strand but in the 3' to 5' 22
direction
on the lagging strand
D. Bidirectional replication means that one strand must be
synthesized in a discontinuous manner
E. A mutation in the 3'-5' exonuclease of DNA polymerase would
affect the fidelity (accuracy) of DNA synthesis
3. Which of the following processes occur only in cells that are

actively
replicating their DNA?
1.excision repair
2.mismatch repair
3.photoreactivation
4.recombinational repair
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
4. Which of the following is not true of the prokaryotic (E. coli)

transcriptional process?
A. specific sequences in the promoter are necessary for stable
binding of RNA polymerase
B. A separate helicase enzyme is necessary for unwinding the DNA
template to create an open complex
C. during transcriptional elongation base pairing between the
new
RNA molecule and the template strand of DNA is important
D. sigma factor is required only during the initiation process
E. termination requires special sequences (signals) in the
nascent
RNA chain
5. In eukaryotes, 28S, 5.8S, and 18S ribosomal RNAs

A. are all encoded by separate genes that are transcribed by RNA
polymerase I
B. are all synthesized as one large precursor molecule that is
subsequently cleaved to release the 3 RNAs
C. are encoded by one large gene that undergoes splicing to
produce the final RNA products
D. are encoded by a single copy gene that is expressed at
extremely high levels because of its localization to
the nucleolus
E. are assembled into ribosomes as part of the translation
initiation process in the cytosol
6. The most important step in maintaining fidelity of the translation

process is
A. joining of the correct amino acid and tRNA by aminoacyl-tRNA
synthetases
B. proper methylation of tRNAs
C. correct base pairing between the codon and anticodon
D. peptide bond formation by peptidyl transferase
E. none of the above are involved
7. Which of the following are useful antibacterial agents since they

block
protein synthesis in prokaryotes but not eukaryotes (in vivo)?
1. streptomycin
2. cycloheximide
3. puromycin
4. diphtheria toxin 23
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. all of them
8. Mannose-6-phosphate receptors in the lumen of the Golgi function
A. in the delivery of lysosomal enzymes to lysosomes

B. to return proteins, such as signal peptidase, back to the ER
C. to add phosphates to mannose residues of lysosome-bound
enzymes
D. to activate mannose by coupling it to UDP
E. in the delivery of secreted proteins to secretory vesicles
9. In E. coli the lac operon is expressed at low levels when both

glucose
and lactose are available because:
A. no inducer is available to inactivate repressor binding to

the
operator
B. glucose is an allosteric activator of repressor DNA-binding
activity
C. CRP, which can enhance RNA polymerase binding to the
promoter,
remains in its inactive state
D. beta-galactosidase is unavailable for converting lactose to
allolactose
E. attenuation causes premature termination of the transcription
process
10. The proto-oncogene encoded protein c-jun is a leucine zipper

containing transcription factor. Therefore it:
A. requires zinc to stabilize the proper conformation for
DNA-binding
B. requires dimerization for activity
C. probably functions as a steroid hormone receptor
D. binds directly to TATA boxes
E. does not require an activation domain for transcriptional
activation
11. Important features of a plasmid cloning vector include:

1. unique restriction enzyme sites for inserting DNA molecules
2. an origin of replication that allows amplification of the
clone
in host cells
3. an antibiotic resistance gene that allows for selection of
host
cells that carry the clone
4. a middle section that can be removed and replaced by the
DNA insert
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. all of them
12. A collection of recombinant DNA clones representing all of the

various mRNA molecules from a certain cell type is a:
A. probe
B. genomic library
C. cDNA library
D. vector
E. restriction digest 24
13. Which of the following would you expect to enhance the
hybridization
between a mouse DNA probe and a human DNA fragment that was 90%
identical
in a Southern Blot experiment:
1. increased temperature
2. increased Mg++ concentration
3. high (alkaline) pH
4. increased NaCl concentration
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. all of them
14. A nucleosome core particle consists of

A. two copies of histones H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 organized as an
octamer and associated with about 140 bp of genomic DNA
B. linker DNA between two nucleosomes associated with histone H1
C. a complex of histones H2A, H2B, H3, H4, and H1
D. a 30 nm fiber wound into a solenoid-like structure
E. a complex of the proteins dnaA, dnaB, and dnaC
15. Telomerase:
1. is an enzyme containing an important RNA component
2. is required for initiation of replication in eukaryotes
3. is required for replicating ends of eukaryotic chromosomes
4. is found in all eukaryotic cells
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
16. The concept of "wobble" involves:
A. base pairing between the first (5') base of the codon and the
third (3') base of the anticodon
B. base pairing between the first base of the codon and the
first
base of the anticodon
C. base pairing between the third base of the codon and the
first
D. base pairing between the third base of the codon and the
third
E. none of the above are correct
17. Which of the following is a true statement?
A. since AUG serves as the start codon methionine is generally

found only at the N terminus of a protein
B. in eukaryotes the same aminoacyl-tRNA is used for the start
codon as for internal AUG sequences
C. in E. coli the same aminoacyl-tRNA is used for the start
codon
as for internal AUG sequences
D. in translation of a eukaryotic mRNA the first AUG sequence
almost always serves as the start codon
E. since AUG serves as the start codon methionine is always the
N-terminal amino acid in mature proteins
25
18. For O-linked glycosylation of secreted or membrane proteins:
A. a complex oligosaccharide is synthesized on dolichol
phosphate
and then transferred to the protein
B. sugars are linked to the side chain of asparagine
C. sugars are linked to the side chain of tyrosine
D. sugars are added to the carbohydrate chain one at a time in
the
Golgi
E. the necessary enzymes are localized to lysosomes
19. Control by attenuation (as in the trp operon) can occur only in
prokaryotes because:
A. it requires coupling of transcription and translation
B. hairpin loops in RNA are more stable in bacteria
C. prokaryotic genes are often organized as operons
D. eukaryotic transcription does not have specific termination
signals
E. repressor molecules are only found in prokaryotes
20. Initiation of mRNA transcription in a eukaryote

A. involves a group of basal transcription factors that are
required to position RNA polymerase at the transcriptional
start site
B. does not require specific DNA sequences
C. is not a regulated step for determining the level of gene
expression
D. requires canonical -10 and -35 sequences
E. requires sequence specific binding by the RNA polymerase
itself
21. Steroid hormone receptors

A. are transmembrane receptors that bind the hormone and
initiate
signals that lead to gene activation
B. are soluble proteins that directly bind the hormone and act
as
transcription factors
C. are basal transcription factors that can bind directly to
TATA
boxes
D. are transcription factors that bind to DNA but become
activated
by phosphorylation in response to hormone
E. are transcription factors that are synthesized when steroid
hormones bind to cell surface receptors
22. Restriction enzymes are required for which of the following

recombinant DNA techniques:
1. RFLP analysis
2. Southern blotting of genomic DNA
3. Preparation of a genomic library
4. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
23. Since the cloning of the HD (Huntington's Disease) gene and

identification of the specific defect, a genetic screen can be utilized
that does not depend on access to samples from other family members.
This
screen utilizes which of the following methods: 26
A. RFLP analysis
B. DNA sequencing
C. Southern blotting with an ASO (allele specific
oligonucleotide)
probe
D. SSC (single strand conformational analysis)
E. PCR (polymerase chain reaction)
24. Processing of a tRNA molecule includes all of the following except:

A. removal of nucleotides from the 5' end
B. removal of nucleotides from the 3' end
C. addition of nucleotides to the 3' end
D. methylation and other base modifications
E. removal of introns by spliceosomes
25. Peptidyl transferase

A. is an intrinsic enzymatic activity of the large ribosomal
subunit and requires an RNA component
B. utilizes the energy of GTP hydrolysis to catalyze peptide
bonds
C. transfers peptidyl-tRNA from the P site to the A site
D. recognizes signal peptides for transfer of nascent
polypeptides
to the RER
E. mimics an aminoacyl transferase and binds to the A site to
cause termination of translation
26. A common property of DNA polymerase, pyruvate kinase, and aconitase

is
that:
A. they are all made on RER bound ribosomes
B. they are all made on soluble ribosomes in the cytosol
C. they all have nuclear translocation signals
D. they are all synthesized by mitochondrial ribosomes
27. One function of the small protein ubiquitin is:

A. to recognize abnormal proteins so they can be degraded
B. to degrade proteins within the lysosome
C. to become covalently linked to proteins to "mark" them for
degradation
D. to sort endocytosed proteins to the lysosome for degradation
E. to add PEST sequences to proteins to promote their turnover
28. An activation domain for stimulating transcription of a eukaryotic

gene
A. is a specific DNA sequence that is recognized by a
transcription factor
B. is an allosteric site that enhances transcription factor
binding to DNA
C. often contains a homeobox motif
D. is a hydrophobic surface that promotes transcription factor
dimerization
E. is a domain, separate from the DNA binding domain, of a
transcription factor that functions by contacting some
component of the basal transcription machinery
29. An important feature of an origin of DNA replication is:

A. a specific sequence recognized by DNA polymerase
B. a specific sequence recognized by topoisomerase
C. an AT-rich region
D. a GC-rich region
E. a sequence containing a nick at a specific site
30. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning the

genetic 27
code
A. some amino acids are coded for by more than one triplet
B. the same code is used by humans and E. coli
C. all 64 possible triplet sequences code for amino acids
D. the code is non-overlapping in an mRNA
E. the there are no gaps between successive codons in an mRNA
(i.e. it is commaless)
ANSWERS
1C 2E 3C 4B 5B 6A 7A 8A 9C
10B 11D 12C 13C 14A 15B 16C 17D 18D
19A 20A 21B 22D 23E 24E 25A 26B 27C
28E 29C 30C
1995: Exam 5
PART I. (60 points)

answers or completions. On the answer sheet, mark the one which is
best in each case.
1. Most CO2 is carried from the tissues to the lungs

A. bound to hemoglobin as carbamino groups
B. as CO2 gas bound to the heme group of hemoglobin
C. as CO2 gas in the plasma
D. after enzymatic conversion to carbon monoxide
E. as HCO3- in the plasma
2. High intracellular levels of iron would lead to

A. reduced levels of ferritin translation
B. increased synthesis of transferrin receptors
C. reduced levels of transferrin receptor mRNA
D. reduced levels of ferritin mRNA
E. increased levels of transferrin endocytosis
3. Vitamin D:
1. increases calcium absorbance in the intestine
2. increases resorption of bone
3. is considered a hormone as well as a vitamin
4. is fat soluble
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
4. Heme oxygenase
A. produces biliverdin and CO
B. inserts iron into protoporphyrin
C. oxidizes all of the methene bridges of heme
D. conjugates bilirubin with sugar residues 28
E. reduces iron in heme
5. Myoglobin and hemoglobin both
1. bind heme
2. are highly alpha-helical
3. bind oxygen
4. exhibit positive cooperativity
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
6. Regulation of mammalian cell division occurs primarily in which cell

cycle phase?
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
E. G3
7. The effect of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate is

A. to enhance oxygen binding to hemoglobin in the lung
B. facilitate unloading of oxygen from hemoglobin in the tissues
C. to allow hemoglobin to be saturated with oxygen at a lower
pO2
D. allosterically enhance CO2 binding to hemoglobin
E. to produce methemoglobin
8. The enzyme that directly breaks down fibrin in the normal mechanism
for
clot dissolution is
A. plasmin
B. tPA
C. urokinase
D. streptokinase
E. factor V
9. Occasionally oxygen dissociates from hemoglobin with an extra

electron
leaving Fe+3 . An enzyme that directly reduces the heme iron using an
electron from NADPH is:
A. heme oxygenase
B. catalase
C. monoamine oxidase
D. methemoglobin reductase
E. ferroxidase
10. Vitamin C deficiency results in defective collagen because

A. vitamin C is necessary for iron absorption and iron is
required for exocytosis of procollagen
B. vitamin C is an essential cofactor for the peptidase that
removes collagen propeptides
C. vitamin C is an essential cofactor for lysyl oxidase, the
enzyme that is involved in crosslinking the collagen fibril
D. vitamin C is required by the enzymes that hydroxylate
prolines
and lysines of collagen
E. vitamin C is necessary for collagen fibril to aggregate into
collagen fibers
11. Iron must be in its reduced form for which of the following?
1. ferrochelatase
2. transferrin binding
3. uptake by intestinal mucosal cells 29
4. storage by ferritin
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 2 only
E. all of them
12. A catecholamine neurotransmitter that is low in the substantia

nigra
of Parkinson's patients is
A. dopamine
B. L-dopa
C. norepinephrine
D. epinephrine
E. GABA
13. During collagen synthesis, the events that occur extracellularly

include:
1. disulfide bond formation

2. crosslinking
3. hydroxylation of prolines
4. removal of propeptides
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
14. The function of the enzyme acetylcholine esterase is to

A. concentrate acetylcholine in synaptic vesicles by exchanging
it
for protons
B. to signal the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic
cleft
C. to clear acetylcholine after it has been secreted into the
synaptic cleft
D. to synthesize acetylcholine from acetylCoA and choline
E. to bind to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane
15. In a resting (unstimulated) axon, which of the following ions has a

higher concentration in the cytosol of the axon than outside of the
axon?
1. K+
2. Na+
3. Ca++
4. Cl-
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
16. The synthesis of a number of neurotransmitters involves

decarboxylation of amino acids. The enzymes that carryout these
reactions
often utilize which of the following as a cofactor?
A. SAM
B. pyridoxal phosphate
C. dihydrobiopterin
D. tetrahydrobiopterin
E. tetrahydrofolate
17. The direct intracellular target of IP3 (inositol-1,4,5-

trisphosphate) is 30
A. a gated calcium channel in the endoplasmic reticulum
B. calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase
C. cAMP phosphodiesterase
D. protein kinase C
E. an ATP-dependent Ca++ pump on the endoplasmic reticulum
18. A major difference between cone cells and rod cells in the retina
is that
A. cone cells express different opsins
B. cone cell rhodopsin binds different retinal prosthetic groups
than rod cell rhodopsin
C. cone cells do not use transducin for signalling
D. cone cells are much more sensitive and can function at lower
light levels
E. cone cell rhodopsin can absorb light equally across the full
spectrum rather than only at ~500 nm
19. Functions of the globular myosin headpiece include:

1. ATP binding
2. ATP hydrolysis
3. actin binding
4. attachment to Z line
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
20. The insulin receptor functions as a:

A. a receptor with 7 transmembrane spanning regions
B. a nuclear protein that acts as a transcription factor
C. a receptor guanylate cyclase
D. a transmembrane serine/threonine kinase
E. a tyrosine kinase
21. Superoxide dismutase is an important enzyme for maintenance of red

blood cells and is defective in some neurodegenerative diseases. What
does
this enzyme do?
A. catalyzes the conversion of O2- to H2O2 and O2
B. creates superoxides by oxidizing heme
C. converts H2O2 to water and O2
D. removes H2O2 by oxidizing glutathione and producing water
E. shuttles an electron from superoxide into complex II of
the mitochondrial inner membrane
22. The target of most antiviral drugs (eg. AZT) currently used to
treat
patients carrying HIV is
A. the viral coat proteins
B. the TAT transactivator
C. the CD4 receptor protein on T cells
D. the viral reverse transcriptase enzyme
E. the viral integrase enzyme
23. Which of the following are phase II reactions of xenobiotic

metabolism?
1. conjugation of glutathione to acetaminophen by
glutathione S-transferase
2. oxidation of procarbazine by monoamine oxidase
3. epoxidation of benzopyrene by cytochrome P450
4. oxidation of ethanol by alcohol dehydrogenase
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4 31
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
24. A major skeletal muscle protein that forms long helical arrays from
globular subunits is:
A. titin
B. dystrophin
C. actin
D. myosin
E. troponin C
25. The gene which is defective in some familial breast cancers and
encodes a protein containing a zinc finger motif near its amino
terminus
is:
A. ALDH2
B. PRAD1
C. BRCA1
D. FMR1
E. CDK4
26. Beef is better than lentils as a single source of dietary protein

because
A. beef has a higher protein content
B. beef has a better balance of essential amino acids
C. plant sources of protein are not digested well by intestinal
proteases
D. plant amino acids cannot be absorbed
E. beef is a good source of heme which promotes protein
digestion
27. Heme synthesis:

1. begins and ends in the mitochondria
2. is defective in Crigler-Najjar syndrome
3. is sensitive to lead poisoning
4. occurs only in the liver
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
28. The action of which enzyme converts a "soft" clot into a "hard"
clot
by crosslinking lysine and glutamine side chains of fibrin?
A. factor IX
B. factor X
C. factor XI
D. factor XII
E. factor XIII
29. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

A. expression of globin genes is developmentally regulated
B. the and globin gene clusters are located near each other on
the
same chromosome
C. thalassemias can involve either the or genes
D. thalassemias can be caused by gene deletions
E. HbS results from a point mutation in a globin gene
30. Phospholipase A2 would hydrolyze which of the bonds in the

structure
shown?
A. 1
B. 2 32
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
ANSWERS
1E 2C 3E 4A 5D 6A 7B 8A 9D
10D 11B 12A 13C 14C 15A 16B 17A 18A
19D 20E 21A 22D 23A 24C 25C 26B 27B
28E 29B 30C
FINAL EXAM
November 17, 1995
(200 points) Each of the following statements is followed by five suggested answers
or completions. On the answer sheet, mark the one which is best in each case.
1. Pyridoxal phosphate acts as coenzyme in most
A. transmethylation reactions.
B. carbon dioxide fixation reactions.
C. transamination reactions.
D. kinase reactions.
E. none of the above.
2. At their isoelectric point proteins have
D. equal numbers of positively and negatively charged groups.
3. Which statement about the mammalian -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
complex is FALSE?
A. It consists of an aggregate containing three different
enzyme activities and five different cofactors.
B. The only cofactor undergoing a net change during the
overall reaction is FAD --> FADH2.

33
C. Lipoic acid is alternately oxidized and reduced as
catalysis continues.
D. Lipoic acid is covalently attached to one of the
proteins in the complex.
E. The first step catalyzed is the formation of
hydroxyethyl- thiamine pyrophosphate and the release of
carbon dioxide.
4. Allopurinol lowers blood urate levels by
A. blocking tubular reabsorption of uric acid.
B. inhibiting hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase.
C. increasing uptake of sodium urate by leukocytes.
D. inhibiting the conversion of hypoxanthine to xanthine.
E. activating urate oxidase.
5. In the regulation of an overall metabolic sequence, which of the

following
reactions is most likely to be modulated by allosteric effectors?
A. All steps have equal probability to be regulated
B. The last reaction of the sequence.
C. The initial committed step of the sequence.
D. The fastest reaction of the sequence.
E. A reaction with an overall equilibrium constant of one
6. All of the following are true concerning fibrin EXCEPT: 34

A. it is formed during primary hemostasis
B. it is formed from fibrinogen by specific cleavage by

thrombin.
C. it does not have intrinsic protease activity
D. it becomes covalently crosslinked to stabilize a clot
E. it is normally degraded by plasmin
7. A patient first experienced chest pains approximately 6 hr ago. A

good
diagnostic test for the possibility of a myocardial infarction would

be:
A. an immunoassay quantitating troponin levels in the serum
B. an electrophoretic assay to determine the relative serum

levels of LDH isozymes
C. an electrophoretic assay to determine the relative serum

levels of creatine kinase isozymes
D. A, B, C are all correct
E. A and C are correct
8. In proteins, the side chain of serine can be involved in all of the

following
EXCEPT:
A. phosphorylation
B. hydrogen bonding
C. covalent carbohydrate attachment
D. ionic interactions
9. All of the following statements about integral membrane proteins are

true EXCEPT
A. they are associated with lipid in the membrane.
B. they often span the membrane with an helical segment
C. they often act as receptors for hormones and growth

factors.
35
D. they are symmetrically distributed within the membrane.
E. they are only removed from the membrane by drastic
treatments,
such as with a detergent.
10. All of the following enzymes carry out substrate level

phosphorylations EXCEPT
A. ATP synthase
C. pyruvate kinase
11. The signal peptide found at the amino end of proteins destined to
be secreted
from eukaryotic cells:
A. consists largely of hydrophobic amino acids.
B. is added to the polypeptide chain post-translationally.
C. is cleaved off prior to SRP docking at the RER
D. consists largely of hydrophilic amino acids.
E. consists of an amphipathic helix
12. Which of the following components of the mitochondrial electron

transport system are incapable of carrying 2 electrons?
1. Ubiquinone
2. cytochrome C
3. FMN
4. Heme b
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
36
13. The major pathway by which mature adult red cells generate ATP is:
A. aerobic metabolism.
B. anaerobic glycolysis.
C. hexose monophosphate shunt activity.
D. generation of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate.
E. fatty acid oxidation.
14. Intermediates or reactants in urea formation include:
1. argininosuccinate.
2. carbamoyl phosphate.
3. bicarbonate.
4. arginine.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
15. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate serves all of the following purposes in
mammalian cells EXCEPT:
A. as part of a shuttle system for transporting electrons from
NADH to the mitochondria.
B. as precursor of the "glycerol" moiety of glycerides.
C. as precursor of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
D. as precursor of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate.
E. as precursor of leucine.
16. The absorption of glucose from the intestinal lumen into mucosal
cells:
37
A. does not require a carrier protein.
B. requires bile salts
C. occurs down a glucose concentration gradient.
D. requires a greater concentration of sodium outside the cell

than inside the cell.
E. occurs through an insulin-responsive glucose transporter
17. All of the following statements about allosteric enzymes are

generally
correct EXCEPT which one?
A. They exhibit cooperativity in the binding of substrate.
B. The affinity of an enzyme for its substrate is decreased by a
positive allosteric modulator.
C. Some contain regulatory subunits which do not bind

substrate.
D. They are commonly involved in the control of metabolic

pathways by feedback inhibition.
E. They give sigmoid kinetics (v vs S graphs).
18. Fatty acid synthase:
1. is a dimer of identical subunits having multiple enzymatic

functions
2. cannot make stearate
3. requires NADPH and a covalently bound cofactor that
4. is found in the cytosolic compartment
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. all are correct
38
19. Which of the following enzymes are unique to gluconeogenesis (as
opposed
to glycolysis)?
1. glucose 6-phosphatase
2. pyruvate kinase
3. PEP carboxykinase
4. aldolase
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
20. Diphtheria toxin is a potent inhibitor of protein synthesis. Which

one of the
following statements closely describes its mode of action?
A. It inhibits the binding of N-formyl methionine-tRNA to 30S

subunit of ribosomes.
B. It inhibits the peptidyl transferase activity of the large

subunit of ribosomes.
C. It catalyzes the transfer of adenosine diphosphate ribosyl

moiety of NAD to the elongation factor EF-2
(translocase).
39
D. It causes premature chain termination by covalent attachment
of the toxin molecule to the growing polypeptide chain.
E. It inhibits RNA polymerase I.
21. A newly discovered inhibitor was found to cause the accumulation of
FMNH2, reduced ubiquinone, and oxidized cytochrome C. It is most likely

to
be
A. an uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation
B. affecting a component of complex I
C. affecting a component of complex II
D. affecting a component of complex III
E. affecting a component of complex IV
22. Which of the following amino acids is oxidatively deaminated to

furnish
ammonium ion for the urea cycle?
A. Tryptophan
40
B. Glutamate
C. Arginine
D. Glutathione
23. A general mechanism of action of steroid hormones involves:
A. binding of the steroid hormone to a cytoplasmic or nuclear

receptor protein.
B. stimulation of plasma membrane-bound adenylate cyclase.
C. activation of a protein kinase signalling cascade.
D. binding of the steroid hormone to a transmembrane receptor

of target
cells.
E. activation of a specific phospholipase
24. The major site of cholesterol biosynthesis in the human is
B. gall bladder
C. pancreas
D. adrenal gland
E. liver
25. Phenylketonuria is a genetic defect due to the absence of the

enzyme: 41
A. alpha-keto acid decarboxylase.
B. tyrosinase.
C. homogentisate oxidase.
D. alanine transaminase.
E. phenylalanine hydroxylase.
26. In biological systems, which compound mediates transfer reactions
involving the "one-carbon" pool in multiple oxidation states?
A. glutathione.
B. pyridoxal phosphate.
C. tetrahydrofolic acid.
D. vitamin K.
E. biotin.
27. Which of the following is not true concerning reduction of

ribonucleotides?
A. ribonucleoside diphosphates are the substrates that are

reduced by ribonucleotide reductase
B. NADPH provides the reducing power for synthesis of
C. each of the four ribonucleotides are reduced by a separate

isozyme of ribonucleotide reductase
D. two proteins, thioredoxin and thioredoxin reductase, are

necessary to maintain ribonucleotide reductase in its
active reduced state
E. the mechanism of ribonucleotide reductase involves an unusual

tyrosine free radical
28. Glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase are both _________
proteins in their _________ state. (fill in the blanks)
42
A. phosphorylated, inactive
B. sulfated, active
C. pyrophosphorylated, active
D. phosphorylated, active
29. Which of the following enzymes are involved in the EXCISION-REPAIR
of UV-induced pyrimidine dimers?
1. an endonuclease
2. DNA ligase
3. DNA polymerase I
4. photoreactivatingenzyme
(DNA photolyase)
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
43
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
30. Fatty acids from adipose tissue are transported to sites of

utilization in the
form of:
A. triglycerides bound to serum albumin.
B. very low density lipoproteins.
C. high density lipoproteins.
D. chylomicrons.
E. free fatty acids bound to serum albumin.
31. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the committed and rate-
limiting
step of cholesterol synthesis from acetyl-CoA?
A. acetyl CoA carboxylase
B. citrate lyase
44
D. thiolase
E. mevalonate kinase
32. Restriction endonucleases:
A. digest DNA duplex molecules from the 5'-OH ends.
B. attack only single stranded DNA.
C. have nucleotide sequence specificity.
D. randomly digest double stranded DNA molecules.
E. are not produced by bacteria.
33. The absorption of which of the following might be lowered by

treatment for
high cholesterol levels with bile acid sequestrants such as

cholestyramine?
1. triglycerides
2. vitamin E
45
3. vitamin A
4. vitamin K
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. all of them
34. Which statement about the Cori cycle is TRUE?
A. All of the component reactions occur in the liver.
B. Lactate from muscle is used in the liver as a gluconeogenic

substrate.
C. Free glucose, produced from glycogen in skeletal muscle, is

utilized for the synthesis of glycogen in the liver.
D. It is the cycle in the liver by which glycogen is

synthesized from and
degraded to glucose 1-phosphate.
46
E. All of the component reactions occur in skeletal muscle.
35. The citric acid cycle is initiated by the condensation of two

molecules,
which are:
A. NAD and oxaloacetate.
B. pyruvate and malate.
C. NAD and oxalosuccinate.
D. acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate.
E. acetyl-CoA and oxalosuccinate.
36. Which of the groups below contains two compounds that are parts of
coenzymes involved in the beta-oxidation of fatty acids?
A. Vitamin D and pantothenic acid
B. Biotin and folic acid
C. Niacin and riboflavin
D. Pyridoxine and thiamine 47

E. Choline and carnitine
37. Which of the following repair processes occur only in cells that
are actively
replicating their DNA?
1. excision repair
2. mismatch repair
3. photoreactivation
4. recombinational repair
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
38. The main function of the glycerol phosphate shuttle is in 48

A. anaerobic glycolysis for regeneration of NAD.
B. the -oxidation of fatty acids.
C. the transport of reducing equivalents into mitochondria from
NADH formed during glycolysis.
D. the biosynthesis of triacylglycerols.
E. the biosynthesis of serine for use in mitochondrial protein

synthesis.
39. An anticodon is:
A. the part of a DNA molecule which codes for chain

termination.
B. a 3-nucleotide sequence of a mRNA molecule.
C. a specific part of a tRNA molecule.
D. a nucleotide triplet of a rRNA molecule.
E. the portion of a ribosomal subunit which interacts with aminoacyl-t
49
40. In the liver, increased cyclic AMP leads to increases in the
activity of all
the following enzymes EXCEPT
A. glycogen phosphorylase.
B. fructose 2,6 bisphosphatase.
C. pyruvate kinase.
D. phosphorylase kinase.
E. cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase.
41. All of the following molecules, without further metabolism, can

cross the
inner membrane of functioning mitochondria EXCEPT
A. ATP.
B. oxygen.
C. inorganic phosphate.
D. pyruvate.
E. acetyl CoA.
50
42. Since the cloning of the HD (Huntington's Disease) gene and
identification
of the specific defect, a genetic screen can be utilized that does not
depend on
access to samples from other family members. This screen utilizes which
of the
following methods:
A. RFLP analysis
B. DNA sequencing
C. Southern blotting with an ASO (allele specific

oligonucleotide) probe
D. SSC (single strand conformational analysis)
E. PCR (polymerase chain reaction)
43. The normal storage form of iron in tissues is:
A. an iron-transferrin complex.
B. ferritin.
C. hemoglobin.
51
D. hemosiderin.
E. None of the above. Iron is not stored; it must be supplied

daily
in the diet.
A. concentrate acetylcholine in synaptic vesicles by exchanging

it for protons

cleft
C. to clear acetylcholine after it has been secreted into the

synaptic cleft
45. Which tissue normally has the highest concentration (per gram of
tissue)
of glycogen?
A. adipose tissue
52
B. brain
C. liver
D. red blood cell
E. skeletal muscle
46. Which enzyme of the Krebs cycle is most similar to pyruvate
dehydrogenase?
A. citrate synthase
B. succinyl-CoA synthetase
C. succinic dehydrogenase
D. -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
E. isocitrate dehydrogenase
47. Glutamate can be formed directly (one step) from which citric acid
cycle
intermediate?
A. malic acid
53
B. succinic acid
C. alpha-ketoglutarate
D. oxaloacetate
E. fumaric acid
48. An important drug which functions by releasing NO leading to

relaxation
of heart muscle and vasodilation is:
A. lithium
B. theophylline
C. ibuprofin
D. nitroglycerine
E. l-dopa
49. Which of the following is not one of the important criteria that is
considered
in determining if a genetic disease is a good candidate for gene

therapy?
54
A. the gene defect must be known and the normal gene must be
cloned and characterized
B. the disease should be life threatening with no adequate

therapy
C. optimally the genetic defect should be due to a dominant

mutation
D. the target tissue should be easily accessible
E. it should exhibit a nonpleiotropic phenotype and should be

encoded by a single copy gene
50. Excess circulating cholesterol (as LDL) can cause health problems
but
cholesterol is an essential compound. Positive functions of

cholesterol (or 7-dehydrocholesterol) include:
1. it is a structural component of plasma

membranes
2. it is a precursor of vitamin D
3. it is a precursor of bile salts
4. it is a precursor of steroid hormones
A. 1
55
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
51. Aspirin would have the greatest effect on the synthesis of which of
the
following compounds?
A. leukotriene B
B. arachidonic acid
C. progesterone
D. prostaglandin A2
E. diacylglycerol
52. The anticancer drug tamoxifen functions by
A. inhibiting topoisomerase II
56
B. alkylating DNA in rapidly growing cells
C. stabilizing microtubules preventing mitosis
D. binding to and blocking estrogen receptor function
E. blocking DNA synthesis by inhibiting thymidylate synthase
53. Which of the following is not an important factor in the activation

of a
growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase?
A. ligand (growth factor) binding
B. receptor dimerization
C. receptor/G protein interaction
D. autophosphorylation (cross-phosphorylation)
54. Each of the following statements is correct EXCEPT which one?
A. Heme is the prosthetic group of myoglobin and certain

cytochromes.
B. The ring structure of heme is composed of four pyrrole rings
linked by one-carbon bridges.

57
C. In hemoglobin, one of the coordinate linkages of each iron
atom is to a histidine nitrogen.
D. The phenomenon of cooperativity is observed in the binding

of oxygen to myoglobin.
E. The binding of 2,3-BPG to Hb decreases its affinity for

oxygen.
55. What vitamin is needed by the liver cell for the synthesis of the
plasma
protein prothrombin?
A. vitamin D.
B. vitamin E.
C. vitamin K.
D. vitamin A.
E. vitamin B12.
56. A molecule produced both in the Krebs cycle and the urea cycle is
A. arginine.
B. aspartate.
C. ornithine.
D. fumarate.
E. citrate.
57. Allosteric control of enzyme action requires

58
A. a cofactor derived from a vitamin.
B. a metal ion.
C. the conversion of one form of the enzyme to another by the

action of proteolytic enzymes.
D. a conformational change in an enzyme that changes its

catalytic activity.
E. an effector that is the product of the enzymatic reaction

and which competes for the active site of the enzyme.
58. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT which one?
A. During RNA synthesis, RNA polymerase moves along the DNA

template strand in the 3' --> 5' direction thereby catalyzing RNA chain
growth in the 5' -> 3' direction.
B. Binding of each successive aminoacyl-tRNA to the aminoacyl

(A) site on the ribosome requires participation of an elongation factor
and expenditure of a high energy phosphate from GTP.
C. The site of attachment of the amino acid in aminoacyl

transfer RNA is the 3' position of the ribose of the terminal
adenosine.
D. Termination of protein synthesis at a stop codon is promoted

by a protein, which is bound to the ribosome at the A site.
E. The amino acid sequence of a protein is determined during

synthesis by direct interactions between amino acids and codons in the
mRNA template.
59. The protein involved in separating the DNA strands at a DNA

replication fork is called:
A. helicase.
B. DNA polymerase I.
C. DNA polymerase III.
D. primase.
E. DNA gyrase.
59
60. A number of genetic diseases are a result of abnormal mRNA
splicing. All of the following are involved in splicing EXCEPT:
A. 5' splicing signal
B. 3' splicing signal
C. 5' TATA box
D. U snRNPs
E. branch point consensus signal
61. An enzyme present in the liver but NOT in muscle is
A. hexokinase.
B. glucose 6-phosphatase.
C. lactate dehydrogenase.
D. pyruvate dehydrogenase.
= E. glycogen phosphorylase.
62. All of the following compounds are carbon sources for the net
synthesis of
glucose in liver EXCEPT
A. lactate.
B. Beta-hydroxybutyrate.
C. alanine.
D. aspartate.
E. glycerol.
63. Regarding the process of DNA replication in E. coli which of the

following
statements is INCORRECT?
60
A. DNA replication is a semiconservative process.
B. There is a unique site at which replication is initiated.
C. DNA replication is unidirectional.
D. The mechanism of replication is such that there is a leading

strand and a lagging strand at each replicating fork.
E. DNA synthesis occurs in the 5' to 3' direction.
64. In untreated insulin-dependent diabetes, all these differences from

the
normal state are observed EXCEPT
A. transport of glucose into adipose tissue is increased.
B. gluconeogenesis is increased.
C. glycogen breakdown in liver is increased.
D. lipolysis in adipose tissue is increased.
E. ketogenesis is increased.
65. An enzyme affects the rate of a chemical reaction by:
A. decreasing the free energy of the reaction.
B. increasing the free energy of the reaction.
C. lowering the energy of activation of the reaction.
D. raising the energy of activation of the reaction.
E. displacing the equilibrium constant.
66. For transport across the inner mitochondrial membrane, long chain
fatty acids are attached to
61
A. coenzyme A.
B. acyl transacylase.
C. phosphatidylethanolamine.
D. acyl transferase.
E. carnitine.
67. Defective collagen in scurvy is due to insufficient vitamin C which
A. is ordinarily incorporated into crosslinks between collagen
B. is usually involved in the hydroxylation of prolyl residues.
C. inhibits the oxidative degradation of collagen.
D. is required for the conversion of lysyl residues into

aldehydes.
E. is needed to trap free radicals
68. The sequence shown below is one strand of a double-stranded DNA
fragment. Which of the oligonucleotide pairs given below could be used

toamplify the entire sequence shown by PCR.
5'-TGCCCAGGCCATGGAACACCAGCTCCTGTGCTGCGAATAAGAAACCATCCGAACG-3'
A. 5'-TGCCCAGGCCAT-3' and 5'-CCATCCGAACG-3'
B. 5'-ATGGCCTGGGCA-3' and 5'-CGTTCGGATGG-3'
C. 5'-ACGGGTCCGGTA-3' and 5'-GCAAGCCTACC-3'
D. 5'-TGCCCAGGCCAT-3' and 5'-CGTTCGGATGG-3'
E. 5'-ATGGCCTGGGCA-3' and 5'-CCATCCGAACG-3'
62
69. Carbon monoxide would be expected to interfere with the function of
A. myosin and myoglobin.
B. myoglobin and cytochrome oxidase.
C. cytochrome oxidase and lactate dehydrogenase.
D. lactate dehydrogenase and myosin.
E. myosin and cytochrome oxidase.
70. In the red blood cells, NADPH is required
1. for the maintenance of reduced glutathione.
2. as a source of electrons for oxidative

phosphorylation.
3. for the formation of ribose 5-phosphate from

glucose.
4. as a reactant in the pentose phosphate

pathway.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
63
71. Mobilization of fat from adipose tissue requires the enzymatic
activity of:
A. lipoprotein lipase.
B. hormone-sensitive lipase.
C. phospholipase A2.
D. pancreatic lipase.
E. glycerol kinase.
72. All of the following enzymes would be active in catalyzing protein
hydrolysis in the intestine EXCEPT which one?
A. trypsin.
B. pepsin.
C. chymotrypsin.
D. carboxypeptidase A.
E. all of the above are active.
73. All of the following are true concerning the promoter region of a
gene
EXCEPT
A. it insures that transcription begins at the proper place
B. it can bind specifically with certain proteins to enhance
transcription.
C. it can participate as part of control mechanisms to

coordinate transcription with the needs of the cell.
D. it is transcribed in its entirety.
74. Which of the following statements is not true concerning synthesis

of glucose from lactate?
A. The process is not the simple reversal of glycolysis.
B. Some of the necessary enzymes are in the cytoplasm and some

in mitochondria.
C. The first enzyme required is lactate dehydrogenase 64

D. It occurs primarily in skeletal muscle.
E. oxaloacetate is an intermediate in the process
75. With respect to plasma lipoproteins:
1. high density lipoproteins have the highest

apolipoprotein content.
2. very low density lipoproteins transport lipid from liver

to other tissues.
3. some apolipoproteins are found in several types of

lipoprotein particles
4. receptors for LDL are found only in the liver
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
76. Many carbon dioxide utilizing enzymes such as pyruvate carboxylase

use as
a coenzyme the vitamin:
A. biotin.
65
B. thiamine.
C. pyridoxine.
D. riboflavin.
E. niacin.
77. Bilirubin:
A. is mainly derived from the rapid turnover of heme-containing

enzymes in the liver.
B. is formed by oxidation of heme, initially to biliverdin.
C. is mainly found free in the blood.
D. is tightly bound to serum albumin only after it is

conjugated.
E. None of the above.
78. When a template strand of DNA with the sequence AGTCAG (5' -> 3')
is transcribed by RNA polymerase the resulting RNA would have the

sequence
(5' -> 3'): 66

A. TCAGTC
B. UCAGUC
C. CUGACU
D. CTGACT
E. AGUCAG
79. All of the following statements concerning the first amino acid to
be
incorporated into a protein during translation in a mammalian cell are

true
EXCEPT:
A. it is generally modified by formylation of its amino group
B. it is generally coded for by an AUG codon near the 5'-end of

the messenger RNA.
C. it is "delivered" to the ribosome attached to a special

initiator.
D. it is practically always methionine.
E. it is not always found at the amino-terminus of the protein

in its final form.
67
80. In a cancer cell, the involvement of a tumor suppressor gene
A. generally results from a mutation leading to a "gain of

function" for the protein encoded by the gene
B. leads to the loss of an inhibitory or checkpoint control of

cell growth
C. is generally the result of gene amplification
D. results in the expression of a protein that is normally

involved in stimulating cell growth
E. alone can cause tumorigenic transformation
81. Coenzyme A contains the vitamin:
A. pyridoxine.
B. thiamine.
C. riboflavin.
D. pantothenic acid.
E. nicotinic acid.
68
82. The rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction
1. can be determined by measuring the increase in product

concentration
with respect to time.
2. is independent of the enzyme concentration.
3. at saturating substrate concentrations, becomes zero-order

with respect to substrate.
4. shows the same pH dependence for all enzymes.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
69
83. Which of the following are positive allosteric effectors of
phosphofructokinase-1?
1. ATP
2. fructose 2,6-
bisphosphate
3. citrate
4. AMP
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
84. ATP synthase
A. is located outside the inner mitochondrial membrane
B. reduces oxygen to form water
70
C. is thought to operate by a binding change mechanism in which
3 substrate binding sites are each in a different
conformation at any
one time
D. is thought function through a ping-pong catalytic mechanism invo
and then to the beta subunit
E. is able to continuously synthesize ATP even in the absence of

a proton motive force
85. During prolonged starvation, the brain oxidizes significant amounts

of
1. glucose.
2. fatty acyl carnitine.
3. acetoacetate.
4. free fatty acids.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
71
E. all of them
86. Concerning variable regions of immunoglobulins, which of the

following
is correct?
A. they are involved in binding of antigen.
B. they include the site which is necessary for clearance of antibody/an
C. they occur only in the light chain subunits.
D. they occur only in the heavy chain subunits.
E. they are found only in the IgG class of immunoglobulins
87. The construction of a human genomic DNA library in E. coli would

involve
or require which of the following?
1. a bacteriophage or plasmid vector with a bacterial

origin of replication.
2. the preliminary purification of a unique DNA

fragment generated
72
by restriction endonuclease digestion of nuclear
DNA
3. a large number of genomic DNA fragments generated by
restriction endonuclease digestion of human
genomic
DNA
4. a bacteriophage or plasmid vector containing

multiple cloning site just upstream of a Shine-
Dalgarno sequence
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
88. All of the following directly contribute one or more atoms to the
synthesis
of a purine ring EXCEPT
A. glutamine
B. bicarbonate ion (CO2)
C. glycine
73
D. arginine
E. aspartate
89. The left-handed helices of a collagen chain is an example of
A. primary structure
B. secondary structure
C. tertiary structure
D. quaternary structure
90. Reducing equivalents necessary for de novo biosynthesis of fatty

acids can
be produced directly by the action of
1. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
2. malate dehydrogenase.
3. malic enzyme.
74
4. succinate dehydrogenase.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
91. Which of the following statements concerning receptors for low

density
lipoproteins (LDL) is correct?
A. they are synthesized free in the cytosol and then inserted

into the plasma membrane sites.
B. the receptor and its ligand are completely degraded within

lysosomes following endocytosis.
C. they play a key role in controlling serum cholesterol levels.
D. they can bind high density lipoproteins (HDL) as well as LDL
E. their synthesis is stimulated by high intracellular levels of

cholesterol
75
92. The Na+K+ ATPase transport system
A. is restricted to the plasma membranes of kidney, brain and eryt
B. will normally transport both Na+ and K+ in either direction

across the membrane.
C. is important in maintaining the membrane potential across the

plasma membrane
D. is a peripheral protein associated with the extracellular

side of the plasma membrane.
E. allows transport of the ions down their concentration

gradients
93. DNA polymerases and RNA polymerases both
1. require a template
2. require a primer to initiate

synthesis
3. catalyze formation of phosphodiester

bonds
4. utilize ATP as a substrate
A. 1
76
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
94. All of the following are TRUE concerning sources of energy and
glucose
during fasting EXCEPT?
A. Alanine is released from skeletal muscle to be used for gluconeogen
B. Fatty acid oxidation supplies the ATP required for

gluconeogenesis.
C. Glycerol is released from adipose tissue to be used for gluconeogen
D. Excess free fatty acids are converted to ketone bodies

which are then used as an energy source by the liver.
95. Physiologically irreversible reactions in glycolysis include those

catalyzed
by which of the following enzymes:
1. pyruvate kinase.
77
2. hexokinase.
3. phosphofructokinase.
4. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
dehydrogenase.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
A. Chaperones chemically modify nascent polypeptide chains in

order to assist folding
B. Protein folding is driven primarily by hydrophobic

interactions
C. Protein folding occurs step-wise with several intermediates
D. The information required for proper folding of a protein 78

is contained
within the primary sequence
E. Certain enzymes aid protein folding by catalyzing otherwise kine
97. Biological oxidation of which of the following provides the most

calories
of energy per gram?
A. starch
B. fatty acids
C. cholesterol
E. nucleic acids
D. protein
98. Methotrexate interferes with DNA synthesis by blocking which of the
following?
A. UDP dUTP
B. dCMP dUMP
C. thioredoxin disulfide thioredoxin sulfhydryls
D. dUMP dTMP
E. relaxed DNA to supercoiled DNA 79

99. 10 ml of a 0.1 M solution of a weak acid (Ka = 10-6 M) is mixed with
anequal volume of a 0.1 M solution of the sodium salt of that acid. The
final pH will be approximately:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. insufficient data to determine
100. The absence of which coagulation factor is responsible for

classical
hemophilia A?
A. Factor II
B. Factor V
C. Factor VII
D. Factor VIII
E. Factor X
1994: Exam 1
PART I. (60 points)

best
in each case.
1. Which one of the following bonds is LEAST likely to break during

protein denaturation?
A. Hydrophobic
B. Hydrogen
C. Disulfide
D. Van der Waal's
E. Electrostatic
2. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation can be used to determine all

of
the following EXCEPT
A. the pK' of any acid from the molar ratio of conjugate
base
to acid at a given pH.
B. the pH of a solution of any conjugate acid-base pair 80
from
the molar ratio of the two and the pK'.
C. the molar ratios of a conjugate acid-base pair in a
solution containing other acids and bases given the pH
of
the solution and the pK' of the acid-base pair in
question.
D. the concentration of the conjugate base of an acid given
the pK' and the pH of the solution.
3. At what pH value would you expect the electrostatic attraction

between the side chains of histidine (pK' = 6.5) and glutamic acid (pK'
=
4.25) in a protein to be strongest?
A. pH 3.0
B. pH 5.5
C. pH 7.0
D. pH 10.0
E. should be the same at all pH values
4. In biological membranes the PREDOMINANT interaction between the

integral proteins and phospholipids is probably
A. hydrogen bonding.
B. hydrophobic interaction.
C. ionic interactions.
D. covalent linkages.
5. Which of the following mutations would you expect to cause the

most drastic alteration in the functional performance of a polypeptide
chain? (Assuming the replacement is not at the active site)
A. Replacement of glutamate with lysine.
B. Replacement of valine with alanine.
C. Replacement of aspartic acid with glutamic acid.
D. Replacement of lysine with arginine.
E. Replacement of tyrosine with phenylalanine.
6. Complete hydrolysis of a cerebroside would yields

A. sphingosine, a fatty acid, phosphorus, and a nitrogenous
base.
B. sphingosine, glycerol, and a hexose.
C. a ceramide and a hexose.
D. sphingosine, a fatty acid, and a hexose.
E. sphingosine, a fatty acid, a hexose and sialic acid.
7. Induced fit
A. is a conformational change brought about by the binding
of substrate to an allosteric site.
B. is also known as cooperative binding and requires
enzymes with more than one subunit.
C. occurs when cholesterol becomes embedded in the lipid
bilayer of the plasma membrane.
D. is the change in the absorption spectrum of an enzyme
upon formation of ES complex.
E. is a conformational change evoked by binding of
substrate to the active site of an enzyme.
8. The peptide bond has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT

A. planarity.
B. freedom to rotate.
C. polarity.
D. greater stability in TRANS configuration.
E. partial double bond character.

following reactions is most likely to be modulated by allosteric
effectors? 81
A. Any reaction of the sequence.
C. The initial reaction of the sequence.
E. The slowest reaction of the sequence.
10. All of the following are involved as factors governing the

folding
of a protein EXCEPT which one?
A. Hydrogen bonds between groups involved in peptide
bonding.
B. Hydrogen bonds between amino acid side chains.
C. Electrostatic interactions.
D. Hydrophobic bonding.
E. They are all involved.
11. In the fluid-mosaic model of membrane structure

A. ionic and polar heads of lipid molecules are in the
interior core of the membrane.
B. the membrane is symmetrical in that the outer face is
identical to the cytoplasmic face in terms of
phospholipid
and protein composition.
C. integral membrane proteins are in contact with the fatty
acid chains of the phospholipids.
D. peripheral membrane proteins are situated in the
hydrophobic core.
12. Gangliosides are sphingosine derivatives containing which nine

carbon sugar?
A. ribulose
B. N-acetylglucosamine
C. N-acetylgalactosamine
D. N-acetylneuraminic acid
E. glucuronic acid
13. Ligases are enzymes that catalyze which of the following type of
reaction
A. formation of bonds with ATP cleavage.
B. addition to double bonds.
C. hydrolysis reactions.
D. transfer of functional groups.
E. oxidation-reduction reactions.
14. In the case of an enzyme displaying a sigmoid relationship

between
velocity and substrate concentration, it can be concluded that
A. the binding of one substrate molecule hinders the
binding
of others.
B. the enzyme contains only one binding site for substrate.
C. substrate binds more easily at low concentrations than
at
high concentrations.
D. the enzyme must contain at least four subunits.
E. the enzyme displays cooperativity in terms of substrate
binding.
15. Mild elevation of LD isoenzyme 4 (M3H) and marked elevation of

LD
5 (M4), with normal values of isoenzymes 1, 2, and 3, is most
consistent
with disease of
A. heart
B. liver 82
C. lung
D. kidney
E. brain
16. Which of the following represents a protein modification which

changes enzyme activity in a non-reversible manner?
A. Competitive inhibition
B. Zymogen activation
C. Phosphorylation of a serine residue of the protein
D. Coenzyme activation
E. Allosteric activation
17. High energy compounds include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. esters
B. phosphate anhydrides
C. enol phosphates (phosphoenol pyruvate)
D. thioesters
E. creatine phosphate
18. The standard free energy of hydrolysis of acetyl CoA is -7.8

kcal/mole. The standard free energy of hydrolysis of ATP to AMP and
pyrophosphate is -7.3 kcal/mole. What is the standard free energy for
the
reaction written below?
acetate + ATP + CoA ---> Acetyl CoA + AMP + Pyrophosphate
A. -0.5 kcal/mole
B. -7.8 kcal/mole
C. -15.1 kcal/mole
D. +0.5 kcal/mole
E. +15.1 kcal/mole
19. Three proteins, A, B and C, with isoelectric points of 8.8, 6.8

and 4.7 respectively, are applied to the top of a diethylaminoethyl
cellulose column (anion exchanger) equilibrated with a buffer of pH
8.0.
The same buffer is passed through the column and the sodium chloride
concentration is progressively increased. The three proteins will
appear
in the column effluent in the order of
A. A, B, C.
B. B, C, A.
C. C, B, A.
D. A, C, B.
E. B, A, C.
-----------------------------------------------------------
Type C. Answer the following question using the key outlined below:
A if the item is associated with (A) only
B if the item is associated with (B) only
C if the item is associated with BOTH (A) and (B)
D if the item is associated with NEITHER (A) nor (B)
20. Lysozyme
A. substrate strain
B. general acid catalysis
---------------------------------------------------------------
Type K. Answer the following questions using the key outlined below:
A if 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B if 1 and 3 are correct
C if 2 and 4 are correct
D if only 4 is correct
E if all four are correct
21. The interaction between an antibody and its antigen

1. involves covalent interactions between the two 83
molecules.
2. involves the hypervariable loops within the variable
regions of the antibody.
3. involves the constant region of the heavy chain.
4. involves both the light and heavy chains.
22. Which of the following statements applies to plasma membrane

lipids?
1. They form a lipid bilayer that serves as a matrix for
certain proteins and acts as a permeability barrier.
2. They are distributed asymmetrically in membranes.
3. They are generally amphipathic molecules.
4. They exchange readily from one side of the membrane to
the
other.
23. The factors thought to be responsible for the high reaction

rates
obtained in enzymic reactions include
1. proximity effects (effectively high substrate
concentration at the active site due to specific
binding).
2. alignment of substrate with catalytically active groups.
3. general acid-base catalysis.
4. deformation of the substrate upon binding to the enzyme.
24. Hydrogen bonds may be involved in which of the following?

1. beta structure
2. reverse turns
3. alpha helix
4. subunit interactions
25. Active transport through membranes

1. always involves a carrier protein.
2. always proceeds against a concentration gradient.
3. always requires energy input, since G' for the process
is
positive.
4. increases linearly with the concentration of substance
to
be transported, regardless of concentration.
26. The carbohydrate moiety of mammalian cell surface membranes is

1. frequently attached to the polypeptide chain through an
N-glycosidic linkage to asparagine.
2. exclusively attached to protein.
3. often attached to polypeptide chain through an
O-glycosidic linkage to serine and threonine.
4. oriented symmetrically with respect to the membrane
bilayer.
27. The diagnosis of myocardial infarction can be made with

certainty
if, during the first 48 hours after the onset of symptoms
1. serum creatine kinase is elevated.
2. on electrophoresis there is an inverted lactate
dehydrogenase isoenzyme 1 to lactate dehydrogenase
isoenzyme 2 ratio.
3. lactate dehydrogenase is elevated.
4. creatine kinase isozyme BB is elevated.
28. Which of the following is/are capable of unfolding (denaturing)

proteins?
1. 8 M urea
2. 1 % sodium dodecyl sulfate
3. 6 M guanidine hydrochloride 84
4. heat
29. The velocity of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction can
1. be independent of substrate concentration under certain
conditions.
2. be dependent on substrate concentration under certain
conditions.
3. rise with increasing temperature.
4. decline with increasing temperature.
30. The reagent diisopropylfluorophosphate will inactivate

1. Chymotrypsin
2. Acetylcholine esterase
3. Trypsin
4. Elastase
ANSWERS TO PART I
1C 2D 3B 4B 5A 6D 7E 8B 9C
10E 11C 12D 13A 14E 15B 16B 17A 18D
19A 20C 21C 22A 23E 24E 25A 26B 27C
28E 29E 30E
1994: Exam 2
PART I. (62 points)

best
in each case.
1. In thiamine deficiency, the activity of which enzyme would be

most
affected?
A. malate dehydrogenase
B. lactate dehydrogenase
C. citrate synthase
D. pyruvate dehydrogenase
E. succinic dehydrogenase
2. All of the following compounds are substrates for hepatic

gluconeogenesis EXCEPT
A. lactate.
B. beta-hydroxybutyrate.
C. alanine.
D. aspartate.
E. glycerol.
3. The mitochondrial electron transport system responsible for

reoxidation of NADH and electron transfer to oxygen is located in the 85
mitochondrial
A. matrix.
B. inner membrane.
C. space between inner and outer membranes.
D. outer membrane.
E. matrix and inner membrane.
4. NADH generated in the cytoplasm is able to donate electrons to

oxygen via the mitochondrial electron transport system through which of
the following mechanisms?
A. A specific transport system enables NADH to pass
directly
through the mitochondrial membrane.
B. NADH reduces cytoplasmic FAD to FADH2 which passes
through
the mitochondrial membrane.
C. NADH reduces cytoplasmic dihydroxyacetone phosphate to
glycerol phosphate which is reoxidized by an enzyme
associated with the mitochondrial electron transport
system.
D. NADH reduces cytoplasmic NADP to NADPH which can pass
through the mitochondrial membrane.
E. None of the above mechanisms is used.
5. When fatty acid biosynthesis is stimulated, beta-oxidation of

fatty acids is inhibited. This inhibition occurs mainly because
A. the pool of acetyl-CoA is depleted by the TCA cycle and
fatty acid biosynthesis.
B. malonyl-CoA inhibits carnitine acyltransferase I.
C. high levels of ATP inhibit phosphofructokinase.
D. high levels of citrate stimulate acetyl-CoA synthase.
6. Theoretically, the maximum number of moles of ADP (or

equivalent)
phosphorylated to ATP (or equivalent) as one mole of glucose is
completely
oxidized to carbon dioxide and water in a liver cell is (2.5 ATP/NADH,
1.5
ATP/FADH2)
A. 45
B. 2
C. 12
D. 24
E. 32
7. All of the following molecules, without further metabolism, can

cross the inner membrane of functioning mitochondria EXCEPT
A. ATP.
B. aspartate.
C. inorganic phosphate.
D. pyruvate.
E. acetyl CoA.
8. What change from normal is likely to result from the ingestion

of
ethanol?
A. increased reduction of pyruvate
B. increased conversion of beta-hydroxybutyrate to
acetoacetate
C. decreased ketogenesis due to lack of acetyl-CoA
D. increased production of oxaloacetate from malate
E. increased production of dihydroxyacetone phosphate from
glycerol phosphate
9. All of the following are gluconeogenic enzymes EXCEPT 86

A. glucose 6-phosphatase.
B. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase.
C. phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)-carboxykinase.
D. pyruvate carboxylase.
E. pyruvate dehydrogenase.
10. Glucose utilization via glycolysis requires the continuous

reoxidation of NADH. The enzyme catalyzing this reoxidation under
anaerobic conditions is
A. malate dehydrogenase.
B. lactate dehydrogenase.
C. pyruvate dehydrogenase.
D. isocitrate dehydrogenase.
E. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
11. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate is a positive allosteric effector in

liver for
A. glucokinase.
B. fructose-1,6-biphosphatase.
C. pyruvate kinase.
E. phosphofructokinase-1.
12. The oxidation of ethanol occurs primarily

A. via the MEOS system in the liver.
B. via the MEOS system of various tissues.
C. via cytosolic alcohol dehydrogenase and mitochondrial
aldehyde dehydrogenase in the liver.
D. via cytosolic alcohol dehydrogenase and mitochondrial
aldehyde dehydrogenase of muscle.
E. via catalase in liver.
13. Which enzyme involved in glycogen metabolism becomes directly

activated by elevated Ca++?
A. protein kinase A.
B. glycogen synthease.
C. phosphorylase kinase.
D. phosphorylase.
E. cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase.
14. Which of the following is an intermediate in ketone body

synthesis?
A. biotin
B. cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12)
C. phosphopantetheine
D. citrate
E. 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA
15. Fatty acids with an odd number of carbon atoms and certain
branched-chain fatty acids can support the net synthesis of glucose
because they
A. increase the NAD/NADH ratio.
B. can produce methylmalonyl-CoA which is converted to
succinyl-CoA.
C. are converted to malonyl-CoA.
D. yield NADPH on oxidation.
E. are converted to acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate.
16. Indicate the correct sequence of reactions employed for

beta-oxidation of acyl-CoA derivatives from the list below.
A. oxidation coupled to NAD, hydration, oxidation coupled
to
NAD, thiolysis
B. oxidation coupled to NAD, thiolysis, oxidation coupled
to
FAD, hydration 87
C. oxidation coupled to FAD, hydration, oxidation coupled
to
FAD, thiolysis
D. oxidation coupled to FAD, hydration, oxidation coupled
to
NAD, thiolysis
E. oxidation coupled to FAD, thiolysis oxidation coupled to
NAD, hydration
17. All of the following are directly associated with the pentose
phosphate pathway EXCEPT
A. transketolase.
B. ribulose 5-phosphate.
C. formation of NADPH.
D. sedoheptulose, a seven carbon sugar.
E. glycerol 3-phosphate.
18. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the rate controlling

step
in fatty acid biosynthesis?
A. dehydratase
B. enoyl ACP reductase
C. acetyl-CoA carboxylase
D. synthetase
E. deacylase
19. Which is a flavoprotein?

A. isocitrate dehydrogenase
B. succinate dehydrogenase
C. lactate dehydrogenase
D. citrate synthase
E. aconitase
20. What is meant by the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation in

a
mitochondrial system?
A. Mitochondrial metabolism ceases.
B. Mitochondrial membrane ATPase is inhibited.
C. Mitochondrial TCA cycle activity ceases.
D. ATP formation continues but oxygen utilization ceases.
E. ATP formation ceases but oxygen utilization continues.
21. Three proteins,A, B and C, with isoelectric points of 8.8, 6.8

and
4.7 respectively are applied to the top of a cation exchange column
(binds
cations) equilibrated with a buffer of pH 8.0. The same buffer is
passed
through the column and the sodium chloride concentration is
progressively
increased. The three proteins will appear in the column effluent in
the
order of
A. A, B, C.
B. B, C, A.
C. C, B. A.
D. A, C, B.
E. B, A, C.
---------------------------------------------------------
Type B. Answer the following questions using the key outlined below:
A if the item is associated with (A) only
D if the item is associated with NEITHER (A) nor (B)
88
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
22. Synthesized in the cells in the pancreas.
23. Binds to a membrane receptor in skeletal muscle.
24. Is/Are proteins.

-------------------------------------------------------
25. TRUE statements concerning phosphoenolpyruvate include which of

the following?
1. It is a glycolytic intermediate.
2. It is formed from oxaloacetate in a reaction requiring
GTP.
3. It contains a "high-energy phosphate" bond.
4. It is formed from 2-phosphoglycerate by removal of a
water
molecule.
26. Metabolic reaction(s) and pathway(s) occurring mainly or

entirely
in the mitochondria of mammalian tissues include:
1. oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate.
2. fatty acid synthesis (de novo).
3. reactions directly involved in oxidative
phosphorylation.
4. pentose phosphate pathway.
27. Which of the following are essential fatty acids in man?

1. oleic acid
2. linolenic acid
3. stearic acid
4. linoleic acid
28. Which of the following changes is/are common to acute diabetes

mellitus and starvation?
1. increased hepatic fatty acid synthesis
2. increased hepatic gluconeogenesis
3. decreased adipose tissue lipolysis
4. increased ketogenesis
29. Insulin increases the conversion of acetate to fatty acids by

isolated adipose tissue by
1. increasing uptake of glucose.
2. activating hormone sensitive lipase.
3. increasing the supply of NADPH.
4. increasing the phosphorylated form of acetyl CoA
carboxylase.
30. Reducing equivalents necessary for de novo biosynthesis of fatty

acids can be produced directly by action of
1. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
2. mitochondrial malate dehydrogenase.
3. malic enzyme.
4. succinate dehydrogenase.
31. Von Gierke's disease is due to defective activity of glucose

6-phosphatase. Clinical manifestations of this disease include 89
1. an increase in liver glycogen.
2. an increase in muscle glycogen.
3. hypoglycemia.
4. abnormal structure of glycogen in liver.
ANSWERS TO PART I
1D 2B 3B 4C 5B 6E 7E 8A 9E
10B 11E 12C 13C 14E 15B 16D 17E 18C
19B 20E 21C 22A 23A 24C 25E 26B 27C
28C 29B 30B 31B
1994: Exam 3
Examination #3
September 27, 1994
PART I. (60 points)

best
in each case.
1. Thioredoxin, a heat stable protein, plays an important role in

A. the synthesis of cysteine from cystine.
B. the synthesis of cystine from cysteine.
C. the conversion of ribonucleotide diphosphates to
deoxyribonucleotide diphosphates.
D. the synthesis of cysteine from methionine.
E. electron transport.
2. Amethopterin (methotrexate), which has been used clinically in

the
treatment of leukemia, exerts its growth inhibiting characteristic by
which of the following mechanisms?
A. It inhibits the conversion of tetrahydrofolic acid to
N10-formyltetrahydrofolic acid.
B. It inhibits the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to
tetrahydrofolic acid.
C. It inhibits the conversion of pteroic acid and glutamic
acid to pteroylglutamic acid.
D. It inhibits the synthesis of methylenetetrahydrofolic
acid
from serine and tetrahydrofolic acid.
E. The growth inhibition mechanisms of this compound are
not
known.
3. Tay-Sachs disease is the result of an inborn error of metabolism

of
A. histidine. 90
B. cholesterol.
C. ganglioside.
D. lactose.
E. cerebroside.
4. Synthesis of thymidylate ((d)TMP) involves the immediate

participation of
A. N-5-methyl tetrahydrofolate (THF).
B. S-adenosyl-methionine.
C. thymine-ribose-5-phosphate.
D. N-5,10-methylene THF.
E. dihydrofolate.
5. In mammalian metabolism, which molecule can be converted to

serine
in a one-step reaction?
A. cysteine
B. pyruvate
C. alanine
D. glycine
E. choline
6. In mammalian cells the nitrogen atoms of the purine ring are

derived directly from
A. aspartate, glutamine and glycine.
B. ammonia, glutamine and aspartate.
C. urea and ammonia.
D. glycine, ammonia and glutamate.
E. glycine and aspartate.
7. Which enzyme is NOT active in catalyzing hydrolysis of proteins

in
the intestine?
A. trypsin
B. pepsin
C. chymotrypsin
D. carboxypeptidase A
E. All of the above participate in hydrolysis of proteins
in
the intestine.
8. Carbamoyl phosphate is a key substance in

A. purine biosynthesis.
B. pyrimidine biosynthesis.
C. urea biosynthesis.
D. A and B.
E. B and C.
9. In the biosynthesis of purines the last common intermediate on

the
pathway to AMP and GMP is:
A. PRPP.
B. IMP.
C. Phosphoribosylamine.
D. AMP.
E. xanthosine monophosphate.
10. All of the following compounds EXCEPT which one would be

expected
to be found in excess amounts in the urine in phenylketonuria?
A. o-hydroxyphenylacetic acid
B. phenyllactic acid
C. tyrosine
D. phenylacetic acid
11. Which compound is an immediate contributor of three carbon 91

atoms
to the de novo biosynthesis of the ring system of uracil?
A. aspartate
B. glutamate
C. 5-methyltetrahydrofolate
D. glycine
E. carbamoyl phosphate
12. The first committed, essentially irreversible step in purine

nucleotide biosynthesis is the formation of
A. 5-phosphoribosylamine.
B. formylglycinamide ribotide.
C. dihydroorotic acid.
D. phosphoribosylpyrophosphate.
E. 5-formamidoimidazole-4-carboxamide ribotide.
13. The dietary requirement for nicotinic acid may be spared by an

adequate amount of which one of the following amino acids?
A. tryptophan
B. glutamine
C. histidine
D. tyrosine
E. phenylalanine
14. LDL is derived from

A. chylomicrons.
B. HDL.
C. nascent HDL.
D. VLDL and IDL.
15. The utilization of ammonia for synthesis of the alpha-amino

group
of non-essential amino acids is
A. dependent upon the action of glutamate dehydrogenase.
B. achieved by reversal of the urea cycle.
C. mediated by carbamoyl phosphate.
D. effected through the intermediate of carbamino acids.
E. dependent upon the intestinal bacterial flora.
16. All of the following are intermediates in the biosynthesis of

cysteine from methionine EXCEPT
A. cystathionine
B. S-adenosylhomocysteine
C. glycine
D. homocysteine
E. S-adenosylmethionine
17. One of the characteristics of each of the sphingolipidoses, like

Tay Sach's disease, is the absence or deficiency of a specific
catabolic
enzyme activity. These enzymes are normally localized in the
A. mitochondria.
B. endoplasmic reticulum.
C. lysosomes.
D. microbodies (peroxisomes).
E. Golgi complex.
18. Which of the following is a zymogen activated by a protease

produced by the intestine?
A. trypsinogen
B. chymotrypsinogen
C. carboxypeptidase
D. enteropeptidase
E. glycocholic acid
19. An intermediate common to the biosynthesis of cholesterol and 92

the
biosynthesis of ketone bodies is
A. methylmalonyl-CoA.
B. succinyl-CoA.
C. cholyl-CoA.
D. 5-phosphomevalonic acid.
E. HMG-CoA.
20. Liver is the major site for all of the following processes
EXCEPT
A. transamination of branched chain amino acids.
B. synthesis of urea.
C. synthesis of glucose from alanine.
D. synthesis of ketone bodies.
E. phosphorylation of glycerol.
Type C. A if the item is associated with (A) only

D if the item is associated with neither (A) nor (B)
A. Mitochondria B. Cytosol
21. Site of urea cycle
C of 2 and 4 are correct
E is all four are correct
22. Pyrimidine biosynthesis de novo resembles purine biosynthesis de

novo in that
1. neither require folic acid coenzymes.
2. both utilize the amide nitrogen atom of glutamine.
3. ribose phosphate is introduced at the first step in
each.
4. both require aspartate.
23. Which of the following statements are correct for human

metabolism?
1. Proline can be synthesized from glutamate.
2. Serine can be synthesized from a glycolytic
intermediate.
3. Cysteine can be derived from methionine and serine.
4. Phenylalanine can be derived from acetoacetate and
fumarate.
24. Which of the following amino acids may be converted to glucose

in
mammals by a pathway involving alpha-ketoglutarate as an obligatory
intermediate?
1. histidine
2. glutamate
3. arginine
4. aspartate
25. Cholesterol can act as a precursor for

1. bile acids.
2. adrenal cortical hormones.
3. Vitamin D.
4. lecithin.
93
26. Phosphatidic acid has a central role in lipid metabolism.
Lipids
which can be derived from phosphatidic acid in mammals include:
1. phosphatidylethanolamine
2. triacylglycerols
3. phosphatidylglycerol
4. cerebrosides
27. Which of the following mammalian enzymes react(s) with substrate

to produce free ammonia or ammonium ion?
1. Histidase
2. Serine dehydratase
3. Glutaminase
4. Glutamate-oxaloacetate transaminase
28. The alanine-glucose cycle

1. involves transamination of branched-chain amino acids in
muscle.
2. serves to carry nitrogen from extrahepatic tissues to
the
liver.
3. supplies glucose to extrahepatic tissues.
4. forms free ammonia which enters the bloodstream.
29. Reactions of enzymes in mammalian tissues which require the

DIRECT
participation of BOTH folate and Vitamin B12 coenzymes include
1. biosynthesis de novo of IMP.
2. methylmalonyl CoA mutase.
3. conversion of formiminoglutamate (FIGLU) to glutamate.
4. methionine synthase (homocysteine methyltransferase).
30. Both galactose and fructose

1. are present as disaccharides with glucose in a normal
diet.
2. are phosphorylated on carbon #6 as the first step in
their
metabolism.
3. can be converted into glucose in liver.
4. are both converted into glucose-1-phosphate before
forming
any glycolytic intermediate.
ANSWERS TO PART I
1C 2B 3C 4D 5D 6A 7B 8E 9B
10C 11A 12A 13A 14D 15A 16C 17C 18A
19E 20A 21C 22C 23A 24A 25A 26A 27A
28A 29D 30B
1994: Exam 4
BIOCHEMISTRY 520 94
Examination #4
October 17, 1994
PART I. (60 points)

best
in each case.
1. All of the following statements are true concerning DNA

synthesis
EXCEPT:
A. An RNA-DNA hybrid occurs at one stage.
B. DNA is replicated by several DNA polymerases, one of
which
can synthesize DNA in a 3' to 5' direction and another
of
which synthesizes DNA in a 5' to 3' direction.
C. The primer for DNA synthesis is RNA.
D. DNA synthesis is discontinuous on the lagging strand in
the sense that small fragments of DNA are made first and
then sealed together into long strands.
E. DNA synthesis is semi-conservative which means that
daughter cells contain one complete parental DNA strand
and one complete new DNA strand.
2. An anticodon is
A. the part of a DNA molecule which codes for chain
termination.
B. a 3-nucleotide sequence of a mRNA molecule.
C. a specific part of a tRNA molecule.
D. a nucleotide triplet of a rRNA molecule.
E. the portion of a ribosomal subunit which interacts with
aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
3. Investigations concerning gene expression in eukaryotic cells

reveal that
A. all segments of chromosomal DNA are either transcribed
or
serve as regulatory genes.
B. the process of protein synthesis occurs within the
nucleus
in close proximity to the structural genes;
consequently,
the mRNA may be translated as it is being transcribed.
C. the initial transcription products of structural genes
are
usually very large RNA molecules. Before these RNA
molecules become functional mRNA molecules, they are
usually shortened and a poly-A segment is added to the
3'
end.
D. the evolutionary changes which brought about the
existence
of eukaryotic cells necessitated dramatic changes in the
translational process (as developed in prokaryotic
cells).
E. DNA synthesis occurs early in the G1 phase of the
cell-cycle.
4. During the process of amino acid activation

A. the carboxyl group is activated with the formation of a
mixed anhydride between the carboxyl group and the
phosphate of 5'-AMP.
B. the amino group is activated with the formation of a 95
mixed
anhydride between the amino group and the phosphate of
5'-AMP.
C. the energy is derived from GTP.
D. the reaction is catalyzed by a peptidyl transferase.
E. the same tRNA is used for all the amino acids but there
is
a different specific activating enzyme for each amino
acid.
5. Which of the following statements regarding translation is

INCORRECT?
A. The first amino acid introduced into the protein is MET.
B. mRNA codes for the amino acid sequence during protein
synthesis.
C. tRNA serves to decode the genetic code located in the
mRNA
through interactions between the anticodon of the tRNA
and
the codons in the mRNA.
D. the mRNA is translated in the 5' to 3' direction.
E. Proteins are synthesized in the carboxyl to amino
direction.
6. With respect to transcription, which statement is false?

A. Eukaryotic cells have 3 RNA polymerases each of which
specializes in the synthesis of a particular class of
RNA.
B. Prokaryotic cells contain an RNA polymerase which
requires
sigma factor for proper initiation.
C. Transcription is the synthesis, in the 3' to 5'
direction,
of RNA from a primer.
D. RNA is produced from one strand of the DNA and is
produced
in a direction anti-parallel to this DNA strand.
E. The information for the synthesis of RNA comes from the
DNA and is specified by base pairing.
7. Repressor proteins have specific sites that bind to

A. promoters.
B. ribosomes.
C. operators.
D. mRNA.
E. TATA boxes.
8. All of the following statements concerning histones are true

EXCEPT that they
A. are rich in arginine and lysine.
B. are proteins of relatively low molecular weight.
C. exhibit known interspecies homologies in their amino
acid
sequences.
D. are noncovalently attached to DNA in stoichiometric
amounts.
E. exhibit a wide variety of non-homologous molecular
structure.
9. Each of the following components participates DIRECTLY in the

cellular formation of protein from amino acids supplied in the form of
aminoacyl transfer RNA EXCEPT which one?
A. GTP
B. Magnesium ion
C. Ribosomes 96
D. Messenger RNA
E. ATP
10. Eukaryotic genes coding for proteins usually contain introns.
Production of a eukaryotic protein in bacteria (proinsulin for example)
doesn't necessarily pose a problem because
A. the bacteria possess the necessary enzymes to correctly
process the primary transcript containing intervening
sequences.
B. reverse transcriptase can be used to synthesize a cDNA
from the mRNA. This unfragmented DNA can then be
cloned.
C. the protein synthetic machinery of the bacteria will
only
translate the exon portions of the resulting RNA.
D. the translation of intron regions usually doesn't alter
the activity of the protein.
11. Regarding the process of replication in E. coli, which of the

following statement is INCORRECT?
A. DNA replication is a semiconservative process.
B. There is a unique site at which replication is
initiated.
C. DNA replication is unidirectional.
D. The mechanism of replication is such that there is a
leading strand and a lagging strand at each replicating
fork.
E. DNA synthesis occurs in the 5' to 3' direction.
12. Which of the following statements about RNA is correct?

A. The kind of RNA which in the free form has the greatest
percentage of specific, tertiary structure is mRNA.
B. rRNA binds with phospholipids to form ribosomal
subunits.
C. tRNA molecules are relatively small, generally
containing
less than 100 nucleotides.
D. Like DNA, RNA is animal cells is often found in
double-stranded, duplex structures.
E. RNA, in contrast to DNA, is found only in the cytoplasm
of
cells.
13. Which of the following protein factors are required for the
addition of an amino acid residue to a growing polypeptide chain during
protein biosynthesis in E. coli?
A. IF-1, IF-2 and IF-3
B. Factor G
C. Factor R
D. Factors Tu and Ts
E. Factor L
14. The degree of homology between DNA from two organisms can most
accurately be determined by
A. base composition.
B. comparing melting curves.
C. density measurements.
D. hybridization.
15. The 70S ribosome contains about 50 separate proteins and one
clearly definable enzymatic activity in protein synthesis. The name of
that activity is
A. 30S dependent ATPase.
B. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
C. elongation factor G.
D. peptidyl transferase. 97
E. None of the others answers is correct.
16. Which one of the following classes of histones is not a
component
of the core particle?
A. H1
B. H2A
C. H2B
D. H3
E. H4
17. Dolicohol phosphate-mediated glycosylation of proteins occurs on

which amino acid residue?
A. Serine
B. Asparagine
C. Tyrosine
D. Glutamine
E. Arginine
18. Which of the following enzymes is needed only for lagging strand
synthesis at a replication fork?
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase III
C. Helicase
D. SSB
E. Topoisomerase II
E is all four are correct
19. During protein synthesis, movement of peptidyl-tRNA from the 'A'

to 'P' ribosomal sites
1. requires GTP hydrolysis.
2. is catalyzed by EF-G or eEF-2.
3. is inhibited by diphtheria toxin in eukaryotes.
4. involves removal of one tRNA molecule from the ribosome.
20. Histones are not found in

1. human erythrocytes.
2. human liver cells.
3. E. coli.
4. human nerve cells.
21. Which of the following statements concerning nucleosomes is/are

true?
1. The "core" structure contains a piece of DNA about 140
base pairs long along with proteins.
2. The "core" structure contains 8 histone molecules along
with DNA.
3. DNA is believed to be wrapped around the outside of a
histone cluster.
4. Approximately two turns of chromatin DNA exists per
nucleosome core.
22. The genetic code

1. consists of a three letter code referred to as codons.
2. displays degeneracy; that is, in certain cases there are
multiple codons for the same amino acid.
3. is universal, except for mitochondria which use several
codons differently.
4. also specifies modified amino acids that are found in 98
proteins.
23. A typical cytoplasmic mRNA molecule
1. of eukaryotes encodes multiple proteins.
2. of prokaryotes lacks a polyadenylic acid poly (A)
sequence.
3. of eukaryotes has 50% of its nucleotides methylated in
the
2' position.
4. of eukaryotes was most likely modified by a spliceosome
during processing in the nucleus.
24. Okazaki fragments

1. are found primarily on the leading strand during
replication.
2. could contain short sequences of RNA on their 5' end.
3. are products whose base sequences are primarily due to
the
action of DNA polymerase I.
4. could be isolated from a system where DNA ligase was
inhibited.
25. The G1 phase of the cell cycle is characterized by

1. highly variable duration.
2. sensitivity to mitogens.
3. production of factors necessary for the S phase to
begin.
4. a restriction point termed Go.
26. Puromycin inhibits protein synthesis because

1. its structure is analogous to aminoacyl-tRNA.
2. it can react with a peptidyl-tRNA to yield
peptidyl-puromycin.
3. it causes premature termination of the chain.
4. it blocks the codon recognition step.
27. cDNA which is complementary to the complete mRNA molecule for a

specific protein
1. can be produced by RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
2. will always contain the sequence CAT.
3. can be used to identify the gene for the specific
protein.
4. can be used to determine the sequence of amino acids in
the specific protein.
28. Excision repair of DNA

1. replaces both strands of the DNA in the damaged region.
2. uses high energy phosphate bonds.
3. utilizes RNA polymerase to make a primer.
4. requires DNA ligase.
29. RNA differs from DNA

1. in that it occurs more frequently as a single rather
than
a double-stranded structure.
2. in the type of common purine bases it contains.
3. in the type of common pyrimidine bases it contains.
4. in that all RNAs contain unusual purine bases.
30. Regarding splicing of RNAs,

1. splicing may involve an RNA molecule functioning as an
enzyme.
2. during splicing, introns are precisely removed and exons
joined by 3', 5' phosphodiester bonds.
3. a structure known as a lariat is formed during
splicing. 99
4. poly A tail addition is required for splicing to
occur.
ANSWERS
1B 2C 3C 4A 5E 6C 7C 8E 9E
10B 11C 12C 13D 14D 15D 16A 17B 18A
19E 20B 21E 22A 23C 24C 25E 26A 27E
28C 29B 30A
1994: Exam 5
BIOCHEMISTRY 520
EXAM #5
November 15, 1994
PART I. (60 points)

best
in each case.
1. Similarities between hemoglobin and myoglobin include

A. the number of heme groups.
B. the effects of pH on oxygen binding.
C. the effects of certain organic phosphates on oxygen
binding.
D. the shape of the oxygen dissociation curve.
E. the amount of -helical secondary structure.
2. If an adult human who is in nitrogen balance is put on a diet

deficient only in phenylalanine, which one of the following statements
will be MOST CORRECT?
A. Nitrogen intake will continue to equal nitrogen
excretion.
B. Nitrogen balance will temporarily become negative but
the
individual will adapt and nitrogen balance will
gradually
return to zero.
C. Nitrogen balance will become positive and remain that
way
as long as the deficiency exists.
D. Nitrogen balance will temporarily become positive but
the
individual will adapt and nitrogen balance will
gradually
return to zero.
E. Nitrogen balance will become negative and remain that
way
as long as the deficiency exists.
3. Each of the following results in a decrease in the percent 100

oxygen
saturation of hemoglobin EXCEPT
A. increase in hydrogen ion concentration.
B. increase in carbon dioxide concentration.
C. increase in concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate
D. decrease in hemoglobin concentration.
E. decrease in oxygen concentration.
4. All of the following statements concerning the synthesis of

epinephrine are correct EXCEPT
A. it occurs in the adrenal medulla
B. it involves transamination
C. it requires tetrahydrobiopterin
D. tyrosine hydroxylase catalyzes the rate-limiting step
E. it involves S-adenosylmethionine (SAM)
5. Total gastrectomy frequently eventually leads to symptoms

typical
of a deficiency of
A. vitamin A.
B. vitamin K.
C. biotin.
D. vitamin D.
E. vitamin B12.
6. GTP is essential in the hormone mediated production of cAMP.

Its
role is to
A. stimulate the activity of aspartate transcarbamoylase.
B. increase the cellular level of ATP by serving as a
substrate in the synthesis of ATP.
C. bind to the G-protein forming a complex which is
necessary
for the activation of adenylate cyclase.
D. bind to EF-tu forming a complex necessary for the
insertion of ATP into the A-site.
E. form cGMP.
7. Cholera toxin exerts its effects on cells of the intestinal

mucosa
by
A. activation of the GTP-binding protein by ADP-
ribosylation.
B. ADP-ribosylation of factor EF-2.
C. inactivation of the GTP-binding protein by
ADP-ribosylation.
D. binding to a transcription factor.
E. activation of guanylate cyclase.
8. Heme synthesis
A. occurs mainly in the liver.
B. occurs primarily in mitochondria, but begins and ends in
the cytoplasm.
C. is regulated by the rate of synthesis of the globin
protein.
D. is sensitive to lead poisoning.
9. The major regulatory step in the formation of heme by de novo

synthesis is
A. heme oxygenase.
B. cytochrome P-450.
C. delta-aminolevulinate synthase.
D. glucuronyl transferase.
101
10. All of the following statements about cAMP are correct EXCEPT
A. cAMP may act as a second messenger.
B. cAMP may function to activate a cAMP-dependent protein
kinase.
C. cAMP may, in conjunction with cAMP receptor protein,
regulate gene expression.
D. cAMP may be inactivated by hydrolysis.
E. cAMP levels decrease in the presence of caffeine or
theophylline.
11. A strict vegetarian diet (no meat, fish or dairy products

whatever) is most likely to be deficient in which of the following?
A. Phytic acid
B. Choline
C. Vitamin B12
D. Folic acid
E. Essential fatty acids
12. Iron is transported in the plasma primarily as

A. hemosiderin complex.
B. transferrin complex.
C. ferritin complex.
D. free ferrous ion.
E. heme containing enzymes.
13. The oxidized form (Fe+3) of iron is required for

A. insertion of iron into the porphyrin ring by
ferrochelatase.
B. transport of iron by transferrin.
C. uptake of iron by the intestinal mucosal cells.
D. binding of CO2 by hemoglobin.
E. conjugation of bilirubin to bilirubin diglucuronide.
14. Jaundice is the result of

A. increased levels of iron.
B. release of high levels of carbon monoxide by heme
oxygenase.
C. build up of bilirubin.
D. excess excretion of bilirubin diglucuronide in the bile.
E. a genetic defect in the heme biosynthesis pathway.
15. Structure of collagen includes all of the following structural

features EXCEPT
A. left-handed helix.
B. triple helix.
C. over 1/4 of the amino acids are gly.
D. extracellular removal of N-terminus.
E. cross link between adjacent histidines.
16. Cytochrome P450 is formed principally in the

A. plasma membrane.
B. nucleus.
C. cytoplasm.
D. endoplasmic reticulum.
E. lysosomes.
17. Regarding the action of aspirin, which of the following

statements
is correct?
A. Aspirin causes the acetylation of lipomodulin.
B. Aspirin blocks the release of arachidonic acid from
phospholipids.
C. Aspirin causes irreversible inhibition of
cyclooxygenase.
D. Aspirin increases the rate of formation of
prostaglandins. 102
18. The following are TRUE statements concerning catecholamines
EXCEPT
A. dopamine cannot pass the blood brain barrier and is
provided to patients with Parkinson's disease in the
form
of DOPA.
B. the synthesis of epinephrine requires
tetrahydrobiopterin
and SAM as cofactors.
C. synthesis of epinephrine and norepinephrine takes place
in
the adrenal medulla.
D. NAD+ is required in the conversion of DOPA to dopamine.
E. catabolism of catecholamines involves oxidative removal
of
the amino groups by monoaminooxidase (MAO) and
methylation
of OH-groups by catechol-O- methyltransferase (COMT).
19. The absence of which coagulation factor is responsible for

classical hemophilia A?
A. Factor II
B. Factor V
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX
E. Factor X
20. Post-translational modifications of collagen include all of the

following EXCEPT
A. hydroxylation of proline.
B. hydroxylation of lysine.
C. oxidation of lysine by lysyl oxidase.
D. oxidation of proline by prolyl oxidase.
E. glycosylation with galactose.
21. The formation of biologically active amines from amino acids

requires participation of the coenzyme
A. biotin.
B. thiamine.
C. pyridoxal phosphate.
D. NAD+.
E. NADP+.
-------------------------------------------------------------------
22. The formation of a blood clot involves

1. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin monomers.
2. activation of factors by proteolytic hydrolysis.
3. polymerization of fibrin monomers.
4. a requirement for calcium and phospholipids.
23. Vitamin E is characterized as a(n)

1. fat-soluble vitamin.
2. antioxidant.
3. inhibitor of lipid peroxidation.
4. cofactor involved in production of clotting factors.
24. Concerning the transport of carbon dioxide in the blood

1. the reaction H2O + CO2 --> H+ + HCO3- occurs 103
primarily in
the plasma.
2. the bulk of carbamino compound formation occurs within
the
erythrocyte.
3. oxyhemoglobin reacts with carbon dioxide more readily
than
does deoxyhemoglobin.
4. the release of H+ from hemoglobin as it is oxygenated
assists in the conversion of both HCO3- and carbamino
compound to free carbon dioxide gas.
25. Activation by calcium ions of contraction in smooth muscle

requires the action of
1. calmodulin.
2. cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase.
3. phosphorylated myosin light chains.
4. troponin-tropomyosin complex.
26. The drug detoxification system of the liver

1. can be induced by various drugs.
2. is catalyzed by the cytochrome P-450 system.
3. produces a more hydrophilic compound.
4. sometimes produces a compound more toxic than the
initial
drug.
27. Vitamin K
1. is important in blood clotting.
2. is required for the post-translational modification of
glutamic acid residues in specific proteins.
3. participates in reactions which enable certain proteins
to
bind calcium.
4. is synthesized completely within mammalian liver.
28. Receptor-mediated endocytosis (RME) is a mechanism whereby iron

is
taken up by the cell. True statement(s) regarding RME include
1. the internalized receptors are recycled.
2. the receptors become localized in specialized regions
called coated pits.
3. a proton pump is important for release of the iron.
4. the receptor is fixed in the coated pit-vesicle by
interaction with the protein clathrin.
29. Which of the following might be used to treat a patient with

small
blood clots in a coronary artery?
1. Urokinase
2. Hexokinase
3. Streptokinase
4. Factor XIII (transglutaminase)
30. Which of the following step(s) in the biosynthesis of collagen

take(s) place before secretion of procollagen from the cell?
1. Hydroxylation of lysine
2. Glycosylation of hydroxylysine residues
3. Hydroxylation of proline
4. Intermolecular cross-link formation
ANSWERS TO PART I
104
1E 2E 3D 4B 5E 6C 7A 8D 9C
10E 11C 12B 13B 14C 15E 16D 17C 18D
19C 20D 21C 22E 23A 24C 25B 26E 27A
28A 29B 30A
1994: Final Examination
Final Examination
November 18, 1994

answers or completions. On the answer sheets, mark the one which is
best
in each case.
1. Which of the following amino acids is incompatible with an

alpha-helical structure?
A. valine
B. glycine
C. proline
D. cysteine
E. glutamate

B. proteins can move laterally in the plane of the
membrane.
C. non-covalent association of protein with the lipid
bilayer.
D. proteins are symmetrically distributed on both sides of
the membrane.
E. insertion of structural proteins into and across the
lipid
bilayer.
3. The isoelectric point of alanine is 6.0. If alanine is

dissolved
in a buffer of pH 8.0 and subjected to electrophoresis it will
A. not migrate to either anode or cathode.
B. migrate to the cathode (negative pole).
C. decompose with evolution of hydrogen.
D. some will migrate to the anode and some to the cathode.
E. migrate to the anode.
4. The formation of 1,3-diphosphoglycerate is accompanied by the

formation of NADH in the cytoplasm. What is the primary fate of this
NADH
under aerobic conditions?
A. It accumulates in the cytosol.
B. It diffuses into mitochondria.
C. It transfers its reducing equivalents directly to
NADP+ 105
D. The reducing equivalents are transferred by a shuttle
system to the mitochondrial electron transport system.
E. It is used to reduce glucose to sorbitol.
5. The first intermediate formed from glucose in the pentose

phosphate pathway is
A. 6-phosphogluconolactone.
B. xylulose-5-phosphate.
C. fructose 6-phosphate.
D. ribulose 5-phosphate.
E. glucose 1-phosphate.
6. All of the following would be likely in a case of acute juvenile

(insulin dependent) diabetes EXCEPT
A. increased fatty acid oxidation.
B. lowered levels of glucose and glucose 6-phosphate in
muscle cells.
C. high levels of glycogen synthesis in liver.
D. high blood fatty acid levels.
E. high blood glucose levels.
7. The molecule needed for transport of palmitic acid from the

cytosol into mitochondria for oxidation is
A. cobalamin (vitamin B12).
B. coenzyme Q.
C. acyl carrier protein.
D. carnitine.
E. ubiquitin.
8. In the Cori cycle, the liver is primarily responsible for

converting lactate from muscle into a substrate which is returned to
muscle. This substrate is chiefly
A. acetyl CoA.
B. glucose.
C. palmitic acid.
D. alanine.
E. pyruvate.
9. The acyl donor for cholesterol ester formation in blood is:

A. phosphatidylcholine.
B. palmitoyl-CoA.
C. triglycerides.
D. acyl carrier protein.
E. monoglycerides.
10. Which of the following compounds serves as a coenzyme for

transaminase reactions?
A. pyridoxal phosphate
B. thiamine pyrophosphate
C. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
D. flavin adenine dinucleotide
E. coenzyme A
11. The dietary requirement for nicotinic acid may be spared by an

adequate amount ofwhich one of the following amino acids?
A. tryptophan
B. glutamine
C. histidine
D. tyrosine
E. phenylalanine
12. One of the characteristics of each of the sphingolipidoses is
the
absence or deficiency of a specific catabolic enzyme activity. These
enzymes are normally localized in the
A. mitochondria. 106
B. endoplasmic reticulum.
C. lysosomes.
D. microbodies (peroxisomes).
E. Golgi complex.
13. Of the 6 carbon atoms of a glucose molecule, what is the maximum

number that can be incorporated into ketone bodies in mammalian liver?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
14. Which of the following is a pancreatic zymogen that is activated

directly by enteropeptidase?
A. trypsinogen
B. chymotrypsinogen
C. carboxypeptidase
D. proelastase
E. prothrombin
15. Concerning the biosynthesis of urea by mammalian liver, each of

the following statements is correct EXCEPT
A. The first nitrogen atom entering the urea cycle does so
in
the form of carbamoyl phosphate.
B. The second nitrogen atom entering the urea cycle is
supplied by the amino group of aspartate.
C. Fumarate is a by-product of the urea cycle.
D. The immediate precursor of urea is ornithine from which
urea is cleaved by ornithase, an enzyme present almost
exclusively in liver.
E. N-acetyl glutamate is a positive effector of the enzyme
catalyzing the synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate.
16. An intermediate common to the biosynthesis of cholesterol and

the
biosynthesis of ketone bodies is
B. succinyl-CoA.
C. cholyl-CoA.
E. HMG-CoA.
17. All of the following are true for both DNA polymerase and RNA
polymerase EXCEPT which one?
A. Both require a template.
B. Both reactions produce pyrophosphate as a product.
C. Both add 5' nucleotides to 3' hydroxyl groups.
D. Both utilize 5'-nucleoside triphosphates as substrates.
E. Both require a primer.
18. What will be the effect of a single base pair DELETION in the
middle of a DNA sequence coding for a certain protein?
A. A protein with a single amino acid substitution in its
center.
B. The gene will not be transcribed and no protein will be
produced.
C. The amino half of the protein will have a normal
sequence.
D. The carboxyl half of the protein will have a normal
sequence.
E. DNA polymerase will repair the base pair substitution.
19. All of the carbon and nitrogen atoms of the pyrimidine ring
are 107
supplied by which of the groups of compounds listed below?
A. glutamate, glycine
B. glycine, aspartate
C. glutamine, N-10 formyl tetrahydrofolate
D. carbamoyl phosphate, ammonia
E. carbamoyl phosphate, aspartate
20. Regarding the action of aspirin, which of the following

statements
is correct?
A. Aspirin causes the acetylation of lipomodulin.
B. Aspirin blocks the release of arachidonic acid from
phospholipids.
C. Aspirin causes irreversible inhibition of
cyclooxygenase.
D. Aspirin increases the rate of formation of
prostaglandins.
E. None of the above
21. The form of beta-galactosidase found in the plasma of patients

with I-cell disease lacks a residue of
A. N-acetyl glucosamine.
B. mannose-6-phosphate.
C. asparagine-linked N-acetylglucosamine.
D. glucose-6-phosphate.
E. mannose.
22. Methylmalonic aciduria and homocystinuria are both associated

with
a deficiency of which one of the following vitamins?
A. biotin
B. vitamin B12
C. folic acid
D. pyridoxine
E. pantothenic acid
23. The regions of variable amino acid composition of

immunoglobulins
occur in
A. heavy chains only.
B. light chains only.
C. both light and heavy chains.
D. IgG but not other immunoglobulins.
E. IgE but not other immunoglobulins.
24. 10 ml of a 0.1 M solution of a weak acid (pKa = 6.0) is mixed

with
an equal volume of a 0.1 M solution of the sodium salt of that acid.
The
final pH will be approximately:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. Insufficient data to determine
25. Allosteric inhibitors of regulatory enzymes most likely

influence
enzyme activity by:
A. inducing a conformational change in the enzyme.
B. promoting a covalent modification of the enzyme.
C. binding to the active site of the enzyme.
D. reacting with the substrate.
E. promoting dephosphorylation of the enzyme.
26. The chemiosmotic hypothesis suggests that the potential 108

energy of
the electrons moving down the mitochondrial electron transport chain
from
a negative to a positive oxidation potential is initially conserved in
the
form of a:
A. proton gradient across the membrane.
B. a high energy phosphate bond.
C. a different conformational form of the electron
carriers.
D. a protonated form of coenzyme Q.
E. a reduced non-heme iron protein.
27. Which one of the following enzymes is involved in the

mobilization
of fatty acids from triacylglyerol stored in adipose tissue?
A. pancreatic lipase
B. lipoprotein lipase
C. hormone-sensitive lipase
D. phospholipase A2
E. carnitine acyltransferase
28. Pyruvate can be converted in one step, catalyzed by a single

enzyme or enzyme complex, to each of the following EXCEPT
A. malonyl-CoA.
B. oxaloacetate.
C. lactate.
D. acetyl-CoA.
E. alanine.
29. Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes the committed and
rate-limiting step of cholesterol synthesis from acetyl- CoA?
A. thiolase
B. 3-hydroxy-3-methyl glutaryl CoA reductase
C. 3-hydroxy-3-methyl glutaryl CoA lyase
D. citrate lyase
E. acetyl CoA carboxylase
30. An LDL receptor deficiency could cause all of the following to

occur EXCEPT:
A. decreased serum LDL.
B. increased cholesterol synthesis.
C. increased serum cholesterol.
D. decreased LDL endocytosis.
E. increased 3-hydroxy-3-methyl glutaryl-CoA reductase
activity.
31. The anticoagulant dicumarol is an antagonist of:

A. vitamin E.
B. ascorbic acid.
C. vitamin K.
D. vitamin D.
32. The primary failure in collagen biosynthesis which results in

scurvy is improper:
A. assembly of the amino acids in the sequence of pro
alpha-1
chains.
B. formation of disulfide bonds.
C. extent of crosslinking.
D. extent of hydroxylation.
E. cleavage by procollagen peptidase.
33. The formation of biologically active amines from amino acids 109
requires participation of the coenzyme:
A. biotin
B. thiamine
C. pyridoxal phosphate
D. NAD+
E. NADP+
34. Which statement regarding active transport of uncharged

molecules
through membranes is FALSE?
A. normally involves a carrier protein rather than a
channel
protein.
B. proceeds against a concentration gradient.
C. always requires energy input, since G' for the process
is
positive.
D. obeys saturation kinetics.
E. always involves an Na+ gradient.
35. Enzymes do all of the following EXCEPT:

A. increase the rate of a reaction.
B. lower the activation energy of a reaction.
C. act specifically on one substrate or a group of related
substrates.
D. alter the equilibrium constant of a reaction.
E. distinguish between D and L forms of a substrate.
36. Triglycerides are an efficient form for storage of energy in

humans for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. The body has a large capacity for storage of
triglycerides.
B. Triglycerides, as compared to glycogen, are more highly
reduced and thus provide more calories per gram when
oxidized.
C. They have lower density than does water and are stored
largely in anhydrous form.
D. Triglycerides can supply energy under both aerobic and
anaerobic conditions.
E. They can be mobilized rapidly by activation of hormone
sensitive lipase.
37. Which of the following is a major gluconeogenic substrate?

A. fatty acids
B. ketone bodies
C. acetyl-CoA
D. alanine
E. leucine
38. NADPH necessary for de novo biosynthesis of fatty acids can be

produced directly by action of
A. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
B. mitochondrial malate dehydrogenase.
C. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase.
D. lactate dehydrogenase.
E. cytochrome P450.
39. Von Gierke's disease is due to defective activity of glucose

6-phosphatase. A clinical manifestation of this disease is
A. an increase in liver glycogen.
B. an increase in muscle glycogen.
C. hyperglycemia.
D. abnormal structure of glycogen in liver.
E. elevated insulin levels.
40. HMGCoA can act as a precursor for all of the following 110
EXCEPT:
A. bile acids.
B. adrenal cortical hormones.
C. Vitamin D.
D. lecithin.
E. estrogen.
41. What change from normal is likely to result from the ingestion
of
ethanol?
A. increased reduction of pyruvate
B. increased conversion of beta-hydroxybutyrate to
acetoacetate
C. decreased ketogenesis due to lack of acetyl-CoA
D. increased production of oxaloacetate from malate
E. increased production of dihydroxyacetone phosphate from
glycerol phosphate
42. Which of the following step(s) in the biosynthesis of collagen

take(s) place after secretion of procollagen from the cell?
A. hydroxylation of lysyl residues
B. glycosylation of hydroxylysine residues
C. hydroxylation of prolyl residues
D. intermolecular cross-link formation
E. formation of triple helix
43. Heme biosynthesis is characterized by all the following EXCEPT:

A. is controlled at least partly by feedback inhibition.
B. is inhibited by lead.
C. involves delta-amino levulinic acid as an intermediate.
D. takes place totally within mitochondria.
E. the last step involves the addition of Fe++.
44. Obstruction of the common bile duct, with the resulting loss of
bile salts for emulsification would be expected to impair absorption of
all of the following EXCEPT:
A. vitamin A.
B. vitamin K.
C. vitamin E.
D. vitamin C.
E. linolenic acid.
45. During prolonged starvation, all of the following are true

EXCEPT:
A. the energy demands of the body are met primarily by the
stores of triacylglycerols.
B. demands for glucose are met by gluconeogenesis.
C. glycogen stores do not serve as a source of energy.
D. the brain utilizes ketone bodies for energy.
E. the insulin/glucagon ratio increases.
46. Which of the following mammalian enzymes will not react with
substrate to produce free ammonia or ammonium ion?
A. Glutamate dehydrogenase
B. Glutaminase
C. Serine dehydratase
D. Glutamate-oxaloacetate transaminase
E. Asparaginase
47. Which of the following statements most closely describes the

phenomenon of uncoupling in oxidative phosphorylation?
A. The formation of ATP continues, but oxidation of Krebs'
cycle intermediates ceases.
B. ATP formation ceases because Krebs' cycle activity is
inhibited.
C. Mitochondrial metabolism is blocked. 111
D. The movement of ATP and ADP across mitochondrial
membranes
is impaired.
E. ATP formation ceases, but oxygen consumption continues.
48. S-Adenosyl methionine is required for which conversion?

A. tyrosine --> dihydroxyphenylalanine (L-DOPA)
B. L-DOPA --> dopamine
C. tryptophan --> serotonin
D. norepinephrine --> epinephrine
E. dopamine --> norepinephrine
49. Adenylate cyclase is an enzyme which increases the concentration

of the "second messenger", cyclic AMP. In liver high adenylate cyclase
activity brings about
A. conversion of glycogen synthase b to glycogen synthase
a.
B. increased conversion of carbohydrate into fatty acids.
C. increased conversion of phosphorylase a to phosphorylase
b.
D. increased lipogenesis from gluconeogenic amino acids.
E. increased activity of a protein kinase.
50. A competitive inhibitor

A. forms an irreversible complex with the active site of an
enzyme
B. forms an irreversible complex with a site on an enzyme
other than the active site.
C. decreases the maximal velocity of the reaction catalyzed
by an enzyme.
D. competes with the substrate for the active site of an
enzyme.
E. lowers the Km for the substrate.
51. Glycolysis is only partially reversible because of energy

barriers
at the reactions catalyzed by
A. hexokinase, triose phosphate isomerase, and pyruvate
kinase.
B. phosphofructokinase, aldolase, and lactate
dehydrogenase.
C. hexokinase, pyruvate dehydrogenase, and
phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase.
D. hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase.
E. hexokinase, glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase,
pyruvate kinase.
52. Which coagulation factor serves at the junction of the extrinsic

and intrinsic pathways?
A. Factor II
B. Factor V
C. Factor VII
D. Factor X
E. Factor XII
53. Which Krebs cycle intermediate helps to regulate the overall

rate
of glycolysis by direct influence on the activity of
phosphofructokinase?
A. citrate
B. succinate
D. oxaloacetate
E. malate
54. Avidin, a protein found in egg whites, has a high affinity 112
for
biotin and is a potent inhibitor of biotin enzymes. Which of the
following would be blocked by the addition of avidin to a cell
homogenate?
A. glucose --> pyruvate
B. pyruvate --> glucose
C. oxaloacetate --> glucose
D. glucose --> ribose 5-phosphate
E. ribose 5-phosphate --> glucose
55. Which of the following does not contain carboxyglutamic acid

residues?
A. prothrombin
B. factor VII (proconvertin)
C. fibrinogen
D. Christmas factor (factor IX)
E. Stuart factor (factor X)
56. Skeletal muscle glycogen is not a source of blood glucose

because
skeletal muscle does not contain
A. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
B. phosphorylase.
C. phosphoglucomutase.
D. glucokinase.
E. glucose 6-phosphatase.
57. All of the following statements about phosphofructokinase 1

(PFK-1) are true EXCEPT
A. it is a major control enzyme in glycolysis.
B. ATP is a substrate for PFK.
C. AMP is a negative effector of PFK.
D. ATP is a negative effector of PFK.
E. it catalyzes a metabolically irreversible reaction;
i.e.,
its equilibrium point lies far in one direction.
58. What is the reaction rate in a simple enzymatic system, if the

substrate concentration is much less than Km?
A. It is maximal.
B. It would be too slow to measure.
C. It would be reduced by addition of more substrate.
D. It would be uninfluenced by the addition of more
substrate.
E. It is virtually proportional to substrate concentration.
59. In a simple protein molecule in aqueous solution, the charged

groups
A. are almost all on the surface.
B. are mostly engaged in intramolecular electrostatic
bonds.
C. are completely accounted for by the side chains of the
basic and acidic amino acids.
D. have pK's below the solution pH.
E. all of the above
60. An enzyme system, isolated from the liver, converts

deoxyuridine-5'-phosphate (dUMP) to thymidine-5'-phosphate ((d)TMP).
Which of the following participates in this reaction?
A. 5,10-methylene tetrahydrofolic acid
B. ATP
C. S-adenosylmethionine
D. Vitamin B12
E. thioredoxin
61. Oxaloacetate is an obligatory intermediate in the net 113

conversion
of carbon atoms of which substance to glucose?
A. acetyl-CoA
B. phosphoenolpyruvate
C. alanine
D. glycogen
E. glycerol
62. Glutamate either is converted to or is derived from each of the

following EXCEPT
A. alpha-ketoglutarate.
B. histidine.
C. proline.
D. leucine.
E. ornithine.
63. Codon-anticodon interactions

A. take place between mRNA and tRNA.
B. apply only to suppressor tRNAs.
C. involve base-pairing between mRNA and rRNA.
D. refer to interactions with the three termination codons.
E. involve base-pairing between tRNAs and amino acids.
64. Southern blots are used to analyze DNA that has been
fractionated
based on difference in
A. length.
B. sequence.
C. GC content.
D. AT content.
E. density.
65. The phase in the mammalian cell cycle when the replicated
chromosomes are segregated into the daughter cells is
A. Go.
B. G1.
C. S.
D. G2.
E. M.
66. The complementary sequence for 5'-TCTAAG-3' is
A. 5'-AGATTC-3'
B. 5'-AGATAC-3'
C. 5'-AAATTT-3'
D. 5'-CATAGA-3'
E. 5'-CTTAGA-3'
67. In the gene for a protein containing 300 amino acids, which of
the
following mutations would be the LEAST LIKELY to result in a
non-functional protein?
A. an insertion of a single nucleotide in codon 23
B. a single base change in the first position of codon 12
C. a single base change in the third position of codon 12
D. a nonsense mutation in codon 37
E. a 10 base-pair deletion in the first exon
68. Thioredoxin, a heat stable protein, plays an important role in

A. the synthesis of cysteine from cystine.
B. the synthesis of cystine from cysteine.
C. the conversion of ribonucleotide diphosphates to
deoxyribonucleotide diphosphates.
D. the synthesis of cysteine from methionine.
E. electron transport.
69. Gangliosides are sphingosine derivatives containing which

nine 114
carbon sugar?
A. ribulose
B. N-acetylglucosamine
C. N-acetylgalactosamine
D. N-acetylneuraminic acid
E. glucuronic acid
70. The lack of active hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl

transferase
causes a human genetic disease known as
A. alkaptonuria.
B. familial hypercholesterolemia.
C. phenylketonuria.
D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
E. Tay-Sachs disease.
71. Glucose metabolism is necessary in adipose tissue to supply

which
of the following for the formation of triglycerides?
A. ribose 5-phosphate
B. succinyl-CoA
C. alpha-glycerol phosphate
D. phosphoenolpyruvate
72. In the following order
Chylomicrons ---> VLDL ---> LDL ---> HDL
Which of the following statements would be correct as you

proceed
from LEFT to RIGHT?
A. decreasing size
B. increasing density
C. decreasing lipid:protein ratio
D. All are correct.
E. None are correct.
73. Which of the following is complexed with albumin in blood?

A. chylomicrons
B. palmitate
C. VLDL
D. chenodeoxycholate
E. HDL
74. Hydrolysis of cGMP in the retina involves all of the following

EXCEPT
A. transducin (same as G-protein).
B. phosphodiesterase.
C. rhodopsin.
D. guanylate cyclase.
E. light.
75. Acetyl-CoA for de novo fatty acid biosynthesis is formed by the

energy-dependent cleavage of
A. pyruvate
B. oxaloacetate
C. citrate
D. alpha-ketoglutarate
E. acetoacetate
76. The biochemical basis for the use of methotrexate (an analog of
folic acid) as a chemotherapeutic agent in humans is that it
A. directly inhibits the function of dihydrofolate
reductase,
hence reduces THF levels and nucleotide synthesis in
tumor cells. 115
B. inhibits synthesis of folic acid, thus reducing RNA
and
DNA production.
C. directly inhibits the enzyme which catalyzes a reaction
involving THF and vitamin B12.
D. activates dihydrofolate reductase leading to
overproduction of THF and a sequestering of methyl
groups.
E. is a noncompetitive inhibitor of folic acid reduction.
77. Allopurinol, used in the treatment of gout,

A. inhibits the formation of phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate.
B. inhibits the conversion of guanine to xanthine.
C. increases the plasma concentration of hypoxanthine
compared with that when allopurinol is not given.
D. enhances the excretion of uric acid compared with that
when allopurinol is not given.
E. is a purine.
78. Which statement BEST describes the fate of propionic acid in

mammalian systems?
A. Propionate is converted to acetyl-CoA.
B. Propionyl-CoA and acetyl-CoA condense to form a 5-carbon
precursor of steroids.
C. Propionate is oxidized to malonate.
D. Propionate is metabolized via a reaction sequence that
involves Vitamin B12 and biotin.
E. The methyl group of propionate is transferred to
S-adenosylhomocysteine to form S-adenosylmethionine.
79. All of the following enzymes are involved in maintaining the

integrity of the red blood cell membrane EXCEPT which one?
A. Superoxide dismutase
B. Glutathione peroxidase
C. Glutathione reductase
D. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
E. Heme oxygenase
80. In man, serine is intimately involved in the biosynthesis of all

the following EXCEPT
A. sphingomyelin.
B. chymotrypsinogen.
C. phosphatidyl serine.
D. ceramide.
E. phenylalanine
81. Which of the compounds listed below is a precursor of a

component
of fatty acyl synthetase?
A. coenzyme Q
B. lipoic acid
C. carnitine
D. pantothenic acid
E. cytochrome b5
82. The process of long chain fatty acid oxidation in liver is

regulated in part by the interaction of
A. acetyl-CoA with acyl-CoA dehydrogenase.
B. acetyl-CoA with carnitine acyl transferase I.
C. acetyl-CoA with carnitine acyl transferase II.
D. malonyl-CoA with carnitine acyl transferase I.
E. malonyl-CoA with carnitine acyl transferase II.
83. A deficiency of vitamin B12 in humans results in anemia
primarily
because:
A. vitamin B12 is required for the conversion of 116
methylmalonyl CoA to succinyl CoA.
B. vitamin B12 is necessary for the absorption of folic
acid
from the gut.
C. vitamin B12 is required for the conversion of
5-methyl-tetrahydrofolate (THF) to THF.
D. vitamin B12 is required for the conversion of methionine
to cysteine.
E. vitamin B12 is a cofactor in the biosynthesis of purine
nucleotides required for the synthesis of DNA.
84. The utilization of ketone bodies would occur in all of the

following tissues EXCEPT
A. cardiac muscle.
B. renal cortex.
C. liver.
D. skeletal muscle.
E. brain (adapted to lone-term starvation).
85. ADP-ribosylation is a key event in all of the following diseases

EXCEPT:
A. pertussis
B. diphtheria
C. cholera
D. fragile X syndrome
86. Enzymes that require Cu++ for their activity include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. homocysteine methyl transferase
B. superoxide dismutase
C. lysyl oxidase
D. cytochrome oxidase
Type C. A if the item is associated with (A) only

D if the item is associated with neither (A) nor (B)
A. Alpha-helix. B. Beta-pleated sheet. C. Both D. Neither
87. An example of secondary structure in a protein
88. Stabilized by hydrogen bonds between NH and C=0 groups of

peptide
bonds
-----------------------------------
A. Serine B. Homocysteine C. Both D. Neither
89. Contributes a one-carbon unit directly to tetrahydrofolate in

mammalian metabolism
90. Essential intermediate in the biosynthesis of cysteine.

-----------------------------------
A. Tay Sach's disease B. Gaucher's disease C.Both D. Neither
91. Inherited disease due to deficiencies in lysosomal enzymes
-----------------------------------
A.pyridoxial phosphate B.thiamine pyrophosphate C.Both 117

D.Neither
92. Coenzyme for a decarboxylation reaction
NAME______________________________________
Match the signalling molecules on the right with their targets on the
left.
93_____ soluble guanylate cyclase a. Ca++
94_____ gated Ca++ channels in the ER b. insulin
95_____ protein kinase A c. prostaglandin E
96_____ calmodulin d. natriuretic factors
97_____ protein kinase C e. nitric oxide
98_____ tyrosine kinase receptor f. cyclic GMP
99_____ receptor guanylate cyclase g. cyclic AMP
h. IP3
(inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate)
i. progesterone
j. diacylglycerol
Select the lettered item on the right that most closely corresponds
with
the statement on the left.
100_____ a DNA sequence that is specifically a. Z-DNA

recognized by RNA polymerase
b. exon
101____ a DNA sequence that encodes
a portion of an RNA c. intron
transcript that will be
removed from the mature mRNA d. E. coli promoter
102_____ a DNA sequence that increases e. polyadenylation signal

transcriptional initiation
by binding specific proteins f. RNA polymerase
103____ a DNA sequence that can form

a cruciform structure g. 5' splicing signal
h. inverted repeat
i. enhancer
j. repressor
k. operator
118
with
104_____ a vitamin that is important for a. aminolevulinic acid

iron absorption by the synthase
intestinal mucosal cells b. transferrin
105____ a readily absorbed form of

dietary iron c. Vitamin B12
106____ an iron storage protein d. Vitamin E
107____ a cell surface protein involved e. ascorbic acid

in iron uptake into cells
f. ferrochelatase
108____ an enzyme required for
insertion of iron into the g. heme
protoporphyrin ring
h. spinach
i. transferrin receptor
j. ferritin
k. heme oxygenase
with
109____ an enzyme that requires a a. DNA polymerase I

primer with a free 3'-OH
b. topoisomerase I
110____ an enzyme that functions to
modulate DNA supercoiling c. mutS
111____ a DNA repair enzyme that d. recA

directly reverses DNA damage
e. DNA ligase
112____ an enzyme that unwinds DNA
at a replication fork f. Okazaki fragment
113____ an enzyme that can seal a nick g. helicase

in DNA
h. primase
i. uracil DNA glycosylase
j. photolyase
with
114____ this RNA/protein complex is a. phosphohydrolase

required for recognition of
a 5'splice site b. mRNA 119
115____ this enzyme requires the signal c. polyA-polymerase
AUAAA found near the 3'
end of a mature mRNA in d. 5-methylcytosine
mammalian cells
e. tRNA
116____ the "cap" added to the 5' end of
eukaryotic mRNA contains f. U1 snRNP
this base
g. U5 snRNP
117____ these RNA molecules are
synthesized within the h. signal
recognition
nucleus by particle
RNA polymerase I
i. rRNA
118____ up to 10 % of nucleotides of
these RNA molecules are j. 7-methylguanine
modified post-transcriptionally
to allow for an extensive k. U2 snRNP
tertiary structure that is
important for their function l. spliceosome
m. 3'-terminase
Match the disease on the left with the most closely associated defect
on
the right.
119____ PKU a. UDP-glucuronyltransferase
120____ maple syrup urine disease b. mannose-6-phosphate
121____ hyperammonemia c. Cl-- channels
122____ Parkinson's d. intrinsic factor
123____ jaundice/newborns e. Glucose-6-phosphate

dehydrogenase
124____ cystic fibrosis f. phenylalanine hydroxylase
g. dopamine
h. urea cycle
i. DNA repair
j. HGPRT
k. glucose-6-phosphatase
l. phosphorylase
m. branch chain amino acid

decarboxylase
n. autoimmune
o. adenosine deaminase
p. collagen
ANSWERS 120
1C 2D 3E 4D 5A 6C 7D 8B 9A
10A 11A 12C 13D 14A 15D 16E 17E 18C
19E 20C 21B 22B 23C 24D 25A 26A 27C
28A 29B 30A 31C 32D 33C 34E 35D 36D
37D 38A 39A 40D 41A 42D 43D 44D 45E
46D 47E 48D 49E 50D 51D 52D 53A 54B
55C 56E 57C 58E 59A 60A 61C 62D 63A
64A 65E 66E 67C 68C 69D 70D 71C 72D
73B 74D 75C 76A 77C 78D 79E 80E 81D
82D 83C 84C 85D 86A 87C 88C 89A 90C
91C 92C 93e 94h 95g 96a 97j 98b 99d
100d 101c 102i 103h 104e 105g 106j 107i 108f
109a 110b 111j 112g 113e 114f 115c 116j 117i
118e 120f 121m 122h 123g 124a 125c
Examination #1
August 20, 1996
PART I. (56 POINTS)
Type A. Each of the following statements is followed by five
suggested answers or completions. On the answer sheets, mark
the one which is best in each case.
1. 10 ml of a 0.1 M solution of a weak acid (Ka = 10-4M) is mixed

with
an equal volume of a 0.1 M solution of the sodium salt of that
acid. The final pH will be approximately:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
121
D 6
E. 7
2. Isoenzymes are best defined as
A. enzymes with quaternary structure.
B. several enzyme activities in one molecule.
C. several enzyme activities in one primary structure.
D. several enzymes from different species catalyzing the
same reaction.
E. several enzymes from a single species catalyzing the
same reaction.
biological membranes EXCEPT:
B. selective transport pores through the membrane.
122
C. non-covalent association of protein with the lipid
bilayer.
D. rapid exchange of membrane components between the
inner and outer leaflets.
E. insertion of structural proteins into and across the

lipid
bilayer.
4. The decrease often seen in the rate of enzyme catalyzed
reactions as the temperature is increased above 40C is due to
A. an increase in the activation energy.
B. a decrease in the activation energy.
C. a change in the equilibrium constant for the reaction.
D. saturation of the enzyme.
E. thermal denaturation of the enzyme.

influence
enzyme activity by:
123
A. inducing a conformational change in the enzyme.
B. promotion a covalent modification of the enzyme.
C. binding to the active site of the enzyme.
D. reacting with the substrate.
E. promoting dephosphorylation of the enzyme.
6. The amino acids that provide the functional groups involved in

the
catalytic activity of an enzyme:
A. must be close to one another in the primary peptide
sequence of the enzyme.
B. may be far apart in the primary peptide sequence of the
enzyme.
C. may be more or less randomly spaced over the three-
dimensional surface of the active enzyme molecules.
D. are always destroyed by reversible enzyme inhibitors.
E. must include an amino terminus residue.
124
7. At their isoelectric point proteins have:
D. equal numbers of positively and negatively charged
groups.
8. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT which one?
A. The maximum velocity, Vmax, of an enzyme
reaction is proportional to the amount of enzyme

present.
B. The initial velocity of an enzyme reaction at high

values
of subsrate concentration is proportional to the amount

of
enzyme present.
C. The Michaelis constant, Km, of a substrate for
an enzyme is proportional to the amount of enzyme

present. 125
D. The slope of the line in a double reciprocal plot of
enzyme
kinetic data is equal to Km/Vmax.
E. The Michaelis constant, Km, is defined as the
concentration of substrate at which the initial velocity
is equal to Vmax/2.
9. Which of the following statements about the actual free energy
change (deltaG') of a reaction is not true?
A. When deltaG' < 0 the reaction is spontaneous.
B. deltaG' is dependent on the concentration of products.
C. deltaG' is dependent on the concentration of reactants.
D. When deltaG' = 0 the system is at equilibrium.
E. When the ratio of products to reactants is 1:1, deltaG'

=
0.
10. Identify the amino acid that disrupts alpha-helical structure.
126
A. Glycine
B. Aspartate
C. Histidine
D. Tryptophan
E. Proline
11. The pI of lysine is: (pK1 = 2.30, pK2 = 9.60, pK3 = 10.60)
A. 2.30
B. 5.95
C. 9.60
D. 10.10
E. 10.60
12. SDS-PAGE separates proteins based on:
A. charge.
127
B. solubility.
C. size.
D. shape.
E. pI.
13. Each of these can be used in the determination of the primary
sequence of a protein EXCEPT:
A. cyanogen bromide.
B. trypsin.
C. chymotrypsin.
D. phenylthioisocyanate.
E. ribonuclease.
14. Edman degradation is used to determine:
A. the position of disulfide bonds in a protein.
128
B. the amino acid content of a protein.
C. C-terminal amino acid in a protein.
D. the molecular weight of a protein.
E. the sequence of amino acids in a protein.
15. Noncovalent bonds essential for the formation of the alpha-helix
and beta-pleated sheet are:
A. disulfide bonds.
B. Van der Waals interactions.
C. salt bridges.
D. hydrogen bonds.
E. hydrophobic forces.
16. A substrate molecule that causes a conformational change in the
enzyme at or near the active site would be best described by
which of the listed mechanisms?
A. Induced fit
129
B. Destabilization
C. Acid base catalysis
D. Covalent catalysis
17. Membrane fluidity
A. increases as the percent of unsaturated fatty acids
increases.
B. increases as the percent of unsaturated fatty acids
decreases.
C. increases as the length of fatty acid side chains

increases.
D. is independent of the nature of fatty acids.
E. increases as the percent of saturated fatty acids

increases.
18. Which of the following is most likely to cross a membrane by a
non-mediated diffusion process?

130
A. Glucose
B. Water
C. Sodium ions out of cells
D. ADP
E. ATP
correct EXCEPT:
A. a plot of rate of uptake by cells versus substrate
concentration would be expected to give a hyperbolic

curve.
C. the process can allow a substance in cells to be
accumulated against a concentration gradient.
membrane component is likely to occur.
E. competitive inhibition of the transort of a substance 131

by
its chemical analogs is likely to occur.
20. Integral membrane proteins
A. are located only at the external surface of the

membrane,
where they function as a permeability barrier.
B. consist of two species common to all membranes, which
are responsible for structural integrity.
C. consist of a small number of low molecular weight, water
soluble components which are important in active
transport.
D. traverse the membrane as an -helix with high
hydrophobicity.
E. are located only in the internal portion of the membrane
and are surrounded by a lipid sheet.

true
EXCEPT:
A. they are generally comprised of 2 or more polypeptide

132
chains.
B. their activities are often controlled through feedback
inhibition.
C. the catalytic site of the enzyme may occur on a

different
D. plots of reaction vate vs substrate concentration are

often
sigmoid shaped.
E. the apparent Km of an enzyme for its substrate
is usually increased by a positive allosteric modulator.
22. For active transort across a membrane
A. ATP hydrolysis is always directly involved in the
process.
B. the transported molecule can be "pumped" in either
C. energy is required to move the transported molecule
D. the process is influenced by the relative

concentrations of 133
the transported molecule but is always independent of
the
membrane potential.
specific interaction between the tranporter and its
substrate.
23. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of biological
membranes?
A. Asymmetric structure
B. Glycoproteins oriented with sugars on outside
C. Rapid lateral movement of lipids in plane of membrane
surface
D. Rapid transverse movement of proteins from one side of
the membrane to the other
E. bilayer structure of phospholipids with non-polar ends
pointing inwards
24. Which of the following is not a common feature of catabolic
pathways? 134
A. Carbohydrates becoming reduced to generate NADH for
ATP synthesis.
B. Regulation of key enzymes by allosteric effectors.
C. Feedback regulation by products of the pathway.
D. Control of pathways by membrane transport of substrates.
E. Committed irreversible steps in the pathway.
25. All of the following enzymes are intiially made as zymogens
EXCEPT:
A. ribonuclease.
B. chymotrypsin.
C. elastase.
D. carboxypeptidase.
E. trypsin.
135
26. Assumptions used in deriving the Michaelis Menten equation
included all of the following EXCEPT:
A. the concentration of the ES complex is constant.
B. products don't interfere; initial velocity is measured.
C. E + S <--> ES ---> E + P
D. the conc of substrate greatly exceeds that of the

enzyme.
E. the maximal velocity is kcat/Km.
27. Which of the following does not describe a feature of the ATP
molecule?
A. A ribose.
B. An adenine.
C. 3 phosphates linked together.
D. An N-glycosidic linkage.
E. One of the phosphates is attached directly to a nitrogen
atom.
136
28. Which of the following statements about the structure of an
antibody is not true?
A. An IgE molecule has two antigen binding sites.
B. An Fab fragment of IgG has one antigen binding site.
C. The antigen binding site is made up of the variable

region
from the heavy chain only.
D. Differences in the sequence of each antigen binding site

is
greatest in the hypervariable region.
E. Antibodies contain both intra- and inter-chain disulfide
bonds.
ANSWERS
1B 2E 3D 4E 5A 6B 7D 8C 9E
10E 11D 12C 13E 14E 15D 16A 17A 18B
19C 20D 21E 22C 23D 24A 25A 26E 27E
28C
9/97BIOCHEMISTRY 520/720
Exam #2
September 9, 1996
PART I. (60 points)
137
suggested answers or completions. On the answer sheet, mark the
one which is best in each case.
1. The role of carnitine in vivo is to participate in the
A. intracellular transport of fatty acyl groups.
B. extracellular transport of fatty acids.
C. biosynthesis of creatine.
D. biosynthesis of unsaturated fatty acids.
E. biosynthesis of cholesterol.
2. Which is NOT an intermediate or a cofactor in the conversion of
acetyl-CoA to beta-hydroxybutyrate?
A. beta-hydroxy-beta-methylglutaryl-CoA
B. acetyl carnitine
C. acetoacetic acid
138
D. NADH
E. acetyl-CoA
3. In liver, the hexose monophosphate shunt is the principal source

of
A. carbon dioxide.
B. glucose 6-phosphate.
C. the reduction of NAD.
D. fructose 6-phosphate.
E. ribose 5-phosphate.
4. The chemiosmotic hypothesis for oxidative phosphorylation

proposes
that the driving force for the formation of ATP is
A. a change in the hydrogen and hydrophobic bonds between
proteins within the mitochondrial membrane.
B. a proton gradient across the mitochondrial membrane.
139
C. the formation of a high energy bond between Pi and a
protein
in the mitochondrial membrane.
D. the pumping of water through the mitochondrial membrane.
5. Glucose can be used in humans to contribute to all of the

following
EXCEPT
A. synthesis of linoleic acid.
B. synthesis of palmitic acid.
C. synthesis of glycerol phosphate.
D. synthesis of ribose-5-phosphate.
E. generation of NADPH from NADP.
6. All of the following compounds are substrates for hepatic
gluconeogenesis EXCEPT
A. lactate.
140
C. alanine.
D. aspartate.
E. glycerol.
7. The basis for a clinical assay for thiamine deficiency is the
reaction catalyzed by the enzyme:
A. transketolase.
B. transaldolase.
C. pyruvate carboxylase.
D. isocitrate dehydrogenase.
E. PEPCK.
8. Export of acetyl-CoA from mitochondria to cytosol to participate
in fatty acid or steroid biosynthesis involves
A. a specific carrier for acetyl-CoA in the

mitochondrial 141
membrane.
B. transport of citrate from mitochondria.
C. synthesis of acetoacetate from acetyl-CoA in

mitochondria.
D. transport of oxaloacetate from mitochondria.
E. formation of acetyl-carnitine.
9. In liver cells, substrate-level phosphorylation may be
differentiated from mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation in

that
all substrate-level phosphorylation
A. can continue in the presence of dinitrophenol.
B. requires inorganic phosphate.
C. forms GTP as the immediate product.
D. requires a proton gradient.
E. is characterized by all of the above.
142
10. All of the following statements about glucose metabolism are
true
EXCEPT
A. the regulation of phosphofructokinase can affect the
metabolism of glucose.
B. when the cell is synthesizing large amounts of compounds
such as fatty acids, the hexose monophosphate shunt
pathway should be functioning.
C. oxidation of glucose can produce carbohydrate residues
containing 5 carbon atoms which can be used for nucleic

acid
synthesis.
D. glucose metabolism to pyruvate occurs in the cytoplasm.
E. glucose derived from glycogen is NOT metabolized by the
hexose monophosphate shunt (pentose phosphate pathway).
11. Oxaloacetate is NEITHER product NOR substrate of
A. citrate synthase.
B. citrate cleavage enzyme.
143
D. malate dehydrogenase.
E. pyruvate carboxylase.
12. A congenital defect in which enzyme may cause hemolytic anemia

in
men given either sulfa drugs or the antimalarial drug,

primaquine?
A. hexokinase
B. pyruvate kinase
C. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
D. phosphofructokinase
E. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
13. Which pair of enzymes participates in the synthesis of glycogen
from glucose?
A. glycogen phosphorylase and amylo-1,6-glucosidase
B. phosphoglucomutase and glycogen synthase
144
C. glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase
D. amylase and amylo-1,6-glucosidase
E. glucose 6-phosphatase and phosphoglucose isomerase
14. All of these vitamins are essential for the activity of

mammalian
pyruvate dehydrogenase EXCEPT
A. thiamine.
B. biotin.
C. niacin.
D. pantothenic acid.
E. riboflavin.
15. Oxaloacetate moves through the mitochondrial membrane
A. after conversion to glycerol phosphate.
B. by passive diffusion.
145
C. after reaction with carnitine.
D. after oxidation to pyruvate.
E. after reduction to malate.
16. Which of the following would be least likely to occur in a liver
cell when the "energy charge" was high?
A. accelerated rate of glycogen breakdown
B. stimulation of gluconeogenesis
C. inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase
D. decreased rate of operation of Krebs' cycle
E. decreased rate of glycolysis
17. Two enzymes specifically required for gluconeogenesis from

lactate
but not from glycerol are
A. pyruvate kinase and phosphoglycerate kinase.
B. pyruvate carboxylase and PEPCK. 146

C. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase and PEPCK
D. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase and phosphofructokinase-1.
E. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase and aldolase.
18. All of the following enzymes catalyze reactions in which a

hexose
1-phosphate is formed EXCEPT
A. phosphoglucomutase.
B. hexokinase.
C. galactokinase.
D. fructokinase.
E. glycogen phosphorylase.
19. Which statement about the Cori cycle is TRUE?
A. All of the reactions involved occur in the liver.
B. Lactate is produced by skeletal muscle and 147

transported to
the liver where it is utilized as a gluconeogenic
substrate.
C. Free glucose is produced in the cytosol of skeletal

muscle
cells and is transported across the cell membrane into
blood by a specific glucose transport system.
D. It is the metabolic process by which glycogen is
synthesized from and degraded to glucose 1-phosphate.
E. All of the participating enzymes are located in skeletal
muscle.
20. Which statement regarding the actions of glucagon and insulin is
FALSE?
A. Insulin is an anabolic hormone.
B. Glucagon increases levels of cAMP in target cells.
C. Insulin activates a tyrosine kinase.
D. Both insulin and glucagon bind specifically to proteins

in
the plasma membrane of target cells.
E. Glucagon stimulates glycolysis in target cells.
148
21. Reducing equivalents generated during glycolysis in a normal
liver cell
A. enter the mitochondria as protons.
B. are used in the pentose phosphate pathway.
C. are transported into mitochondria in the form of malate.
D. enter the mitochondria as reduced glutathione.
E. enter the mitochondria as NADH.
22. Phosphorylation by a protein kinase leads to inactivation of
A. phosphorylase.
B. phosphorylase kinase.
C. glycogen synthase.
D. phosphoglucomutase.
E. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
149
23. Insulin will cause
A. enhanced glucose uptake by the muscle.
B. increased glycogenesis.
C. increased oxidation of glucose to carbon dioxide and

water.
D. increased conversion of glucose to fatty acids.
E. all of the above.
24. Propionate is glycogenic in man because
A. its CoA ester can be metabolized to succinyl-CoA.
B. it can give rise to butyryl-CoA.
C. its alpha-carbon can be oxidized giving lactate.
D. it can give rise to triglycerides.
E. it is an intermediate in beta-oxidation.
150
25. Increased levels of ATP inhibit which pair of enzymes?
A. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase and enolase
B. lactate dehydrogenase and triose phosphate isomerase
C. phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase
D. phosphofructokinase and glucose 6-phosphate isomerase
E. glucokinase and phosphoglucomutase
26. The non-oxidative portion of the hexosemonophosphate shunt
A. forms CO2 as glucose 6-phosphate is converted to pentose
phosphates.
B. requires ATP.
C. converts lactate to pyruvate.
D. does not function in mature erythrocytes.
E. can lead to synthesis of hexose phosphates from pentose
phosphates.
151
27. In the electron transport scheme below, which electron carrier
is
missing?
NADH -> FMNH2 -> ? -> cytochromes -> O2
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin C
C. Ferridoxin
D. Ubiquinone
E. NADPH
28. Which enzyme does NOT utilize a cofactor derived from a vitamin?
A. succinate dehydrogenase
B. pyruvate kinase
C. pyruvate carboxylase
D. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
152
29. An enzyme found in the liver but not in skeletal muscle is
A. glycogen phosphorylase.
B. lactate dehydrogenase.
D. glucose-6-phosphatase.
E. hexokinase.
30. Which is most effective in inhibiting the tricarboxylic acid

cycle?
A. fructose-1,6-bisphosphate.
B. glycerol-3-phosphate.
C. a high ratio of NADH/NAD+
D. a high ratio of intramitochondrial ADP/ATP.
153
E. a high intramitochondrial concentration of Ca++.
ANSWERS
1A 2B 3E 4B 5A 6B 7A 8B 9A
10E 11C 12C 13B 14B 15E 16A 17B 18B
19B 20E 21C 22C 23E 24A 25C 26E 27D
28B 29D 30C
Exam #3
September 24, 1996
Part I. (60 points)
1. The enzyme defect in homocystinuria is
A. cysteine synthase.
B. cystathionine synthase.
C. cystathionase.
D. S-adenosylmethionine sulfatase.
E. S-adenosylhomocysteine sulfatase.
2. In mammals, which enzyme(s) must act to catalyze the production
of ammonium ion most directly from alanine?
154
A. transaminase, glutaminase
B. transaminase
C. transaminase, glutamate dehydrogenase
D. aminopeptidase, glutamae dehydrogenase
E. alanine oxidase
3. The required amount of methionine in the diet may be reduced if
the diet is supplemented with
A. arginine.
B. cysteine.
C. glutamine.
D. alanine.
E. threonine.
4. The Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome is an inherited disorder associated
with a virtually complete deficiency of an enzyme of purine

155
metabolism, which is
A. adenylosuccinate lyase.
B. aspartate carbamoyl transferase.
C. hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase.
D. purine nucleotide phosphorylase.
E. xanthine oxidase.
5. Most ammonia formation in the kidney is via the enzyme
A. urease.
B. uricase.
C. arginase.
D. carbamoyl phosphate synthetase.
E. glutaminase.
156
6. A reaction in mammalian tissues which requires the participation
of
BOTH folate and vitamin B12 coenzymes is:
A. biosynthesis de novo of IMP.
B. methylmalonyl CoA mutase.
C. conversion of formiminoglutamate (FIGLU) to glutamate.
D. methionine synthase (homocysteine methyltransferase).
E. cystathionine synthetase.
7. Enzymes that incorporate free ammonia into forms useful for the
central pathways of amino acid metabolism include
A. aspartate transaminase and alanine transaminase.
B. carbamoyl phosphate synthase II and adenosine
deaminase.
C. alpha-ketoglutarate aminotransferase and phosphoserine
transaminase.
D. glutamine synthetase and glutamate dehydrogenase.

157
E. phenylalanine hydroxylase and cystathionase.
8. Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
A. is required for both purine and pyrimidine synthesis.
B. is a ribonucleotide.
C. is synthesized from AMP and ribose.
D. is a substrate for the first step of UMP biosynthesis.
E. synthesis is blocked by aminopterin.
pathogenic bacteria because
A. they block the synthesis of dihydrobiopterin.
B. they block the synthesis of niacin.
C. they block the synthesis of folate.
D. they block the synthesis of pyridoxal.
158
E. they block the synthesis of thiamine.
10. All of the following would be delivered through the blood
directly to
the liver following digestion and uptake into the small intestine
EXCEPT?
A. glucose
B. triglycerides
C. fructose
D. glutamine
E. glutamate
11. Which of the following amino acids is a precursor of the

pyridine
ring portion of NAD?
A. alanine
B. glycine
C. tryrosine
159
D. tryptophan
E. phenylalanine
12. In an animal fed aminopterin or methotrexate which of the

following
reactions would you expect to be DIRECTLY impaired?
A. The conversion of ribose 5-phosphate to PRPP.
B. The formation of IMP from PRPP.
C. The formation of GMP from IMP.
D. The synthesis of AMP from IMP.
E. The formation of UMP from carbamoyl phosphate.
13. The principal surface active material in the lung is:
A. dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine (lecithin).
B. phosphatidylinositol.
C. lysophosphatidic acid.
160
D. cholic acid.
E. sphingomyelin.
14. GOUT is often treated with
A. allopurinol.
B. lovastatin.
C. sulfa drugs.
D. 5-fluorouracil.
E. medium chain length fatty acids.
15. The lipoprotein particles that have the highest percent
concentration of triglyceride and the lowest density are
A. the very low density lipoproteins (VLDL).
B. the chylomicra.
C. the low density lipoproteins (LDL).
161
D. the high density lipoproteins (HDL).
E. the remnant particles.
16. The committed step in purine synthesis is the step in which
A. uric acid is formed from xanthine.
B. glutamine is incorporated intact into the molecule on

the
sugar phosphate unit.
C. N-formylglycinamide ribonucleotide is formed from
glycinamide ribonucleotide with a methyl group

transferred
from N5,N10-methylene THFA.
D. phosphoribosylamine is formed enzymatically from PRPP
and glutamine.
E. bicarbonate is utilized to carboxylate aminoimidazole
ribonucleotide.
17. Serine is a non-essential amino acid. Which of the following is

its
most direct precursor?
A. glutamic acid 162

B. Methionine
C. 3-phosphoglyceric acid
D. pyruvic acid
E. oxaloacetate
18. Triacylglycerol synthesis in the intestinal mucosa involves all

of the
following EXCEPT:
A. occurs in response to dietary fat absorption.
B. involves reacylation of 2-monoacylglycerol.
C. is depressed under conditions of bile duct obstruction.
D. precedes appearance of lipoproteins in the lymph.
E. esterification of medium chain (6-10 carbon atoms) fatty
acids
19. All of the following are essential amino acids EXCEPT:
163
A. lysine
B. valine
C. threonine
D. serine
E. tryptophan
20. The major cholesterol-containing lipid fraction in blood is
A. chylomicrons
B. VLDL
C. LDL
D. IDL
E. HDL
21. Familial hypercholesterolemia is due to a deficient
A. lipoprotein lipase
164
B. Apo C2
C. LCAT
D. LDL receptor
E. ACAT
22. The amino acid that is involved in almost every aminotransferase
reaction is:
A. pyruvate
B. aspartate
C. lysine
D. glutamate
E. glutamine
23. Protein metabolism differs from that of fat and carbohydrate in

that:
A. proteins are absorbed directly into the blood without

being
165
broken into their constituent amino acids.
B. there is no separate storage form of proteins in the

body.
C. proteins cannot be utilized for energy.
D. excess dietary protein is excreted without metabolism.
E. no specific enzymes are necessary to hydrolyze proteins;
the acidity of the stomach is sufficient.
24. The nitrogens in urea originate MOST DIRECTLY (fewest number
of steps) from:
A. NH3 and glutamate
B. NH3 and glutamine
C. alanine and glutamate
D. carbamoyl phosphate and aspartate
E. free ammonia
25. Pyridoxal phosphate acts as coenzyme in most: 166

A. dehydrogenation reactions.
B. carbon dioxide incorporated reactions.
C. transamination reactions.
D. kinase reactions.
26. Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes the committed and
rate-limiting step of cholesterol synthesis from acetyl-CoA?
A. thiolase
B. 3-hydroxy-3-methyl glutaryl CoA reductase
C. 3-hydroxy-3-methyl glutaryl CoA lyase
D. citrate lyase
E. acetyl CoA carboxylase
27. A defect in the metabolism of branched chain amino acids

known 167
as Maple Syrup Urine Disease is caused by a deficiency in:
A. methylglutaconyl-CoA hydratase.
B. leucine transaminase.
C. methylcrotonyl-Coa carboxylase.
D. alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase (decarboxylating).
E. enoyl-CoA hydratase.
28. An intermediate that is found in the pathways for the

biosynthesis
of cholesterol and the biosynthesis of ketone bodies is:
B. succinyl-CoA.
C. cholyl-CoA.
E. HMG-CoA.
168
29. The major nitrogenous component in urine from an adult on an
adequate maintenance diet is:
A. amino acids.
B. creatinine.
C. urea.
D. uric acid.
E. ammonia.
30. An LDL receptor deficiency could cause all of the following to

occur
EXCEPT:
A. decreased serum LDL.
B. increased cholesterol synthesis.
C. increased serum cholesterol.
D. decreased LDL endocytosis.
E. increased 3-hydroxy-3-methyl glutaryl-CoA reductase
activity.
169
ANSWERS
1B 2C 3B 4C 5E 6D 7D 8A 9C
10B 11D 12B 13A 14A 15B 16D 17C 18E
19D 20C 21D 22D 23B 24D 25C 26B 27D
28E 29C 30A
9/97BIOC520: Medical Biochemistry

Exam #4, 1996
October 11, 1996
PART I. (60 points)
suggested answers or completions. On the answer sheet, mark the
one which is best in each case.
1. All of the following are true for DNA polymerase and RNA
A. Both require a template.
B. Both reactions produce pyrophosphate as a product.
C. Both add 5' nucleotides to 3' hydroxyl groups.
D. Both utilize 5'-nucleoside triphosphates as substrates.
E. Both require a primer.
170
2. ATP is directly required in protein biosynthesis for
A. movement of mRNA on the ribosome.
B. the activation of the amino group for peptide bond

synthesis.
C. the formation of amino acyl-AMP.
D. the attachment of the ribosome to transfer RNA.
E. the formation of an "initiation complex".
3. The number of codons which specify binding of amino acyl tRNAs
in wild-type E. coli cells is
A. 20.
B. 27.
C. 61.
D. 64.
E. 71.
4. Which statement most correctly describes the polarity of

synthesis
of RNA and protein, and the direction of movement of the ribosome

along
mRNA?
A. RNA: 3' to 5'
Protein: N terminal to C terminal
Ribosome movement: 5' to 3'
B. RNA: 5' to 3'
Ribosome: 3' to 5'
C. RNA: 3' to 5'
Protein: C terminal to N terminal 171

Ribosome: 3' to 5'
D. RNA: 5' to 3'
Ribosome: 5' to 3'
5. Sigma factor is involved in which of the following?
A. initiation of protein synthesis
B. termination of protein synthesis
C. recognition of promoters by RNA polymerase
D. termination of transcription by RNA polymerase
E. binds to Lac operator
6. If a DNA molecule contains adenine as 20% of the total bases,
the percentage of cytosine would be
A. 30.
B. 50.
C. 40.
D. 10.
E. 20.
7. All of the following are true with regard to proteins which
are destined for secretion from eukaryotic cells EXCEPT
which one?
A. They are synthesized on membrane-bond ribosomes.
B. They are often glycosylated.
C. They most often contain a hydrophobic C-terminal

amino 172
acid sequence.
D. They are generally synthesized as higher molecular

weight
precursors.
E. They are transported from the lumen of the endoplasmic
reticulum to the Golgi and then to the extracellular
space.
8. Part of the deleterious effect of diphtheria toxin can be

explained by
A. inhibition of methylation reactions.
B. inhibition of EF-2.
C. activity as a restriction enzyme.
D. inhibition of RNA polymerase I.
E. binding to the 40S ribosomal subunit.
9. In E. coli, biosynthesis of tryptophan can be repressed.
The repressor protein of the tryptophan operon
A. is activated by the binding of tryptophan.
B. is inactivated by the binding of tryptophan.
C. is not affected by tryptophan.
D. is activated by the binding of free tRNA.
E. is only synthesized in the presence of tryptophan.
10. RNA polymerase is bound initially to which part of an operon?
A. promoter
B. operator
173
C. structural genes
D. regulator genes
E. enhancer
11. All of the following statements concerning DNA replication in
prokaryotes are true EXCEPT which one?
A. Replication is bidirectional from a single initiation
point.
B. Okazaki fragments are joined by DNA polymerase III.
C. DNA polymerase III utilizes RNA oligonucleotides as

primers.
D. Replication occurs in a 5' 3' direction.
E. Unwinding of the double helix requires ATP hydrolysis.
12. The nucleolus is the site of
A. messenger RNA synthesis.
B. protein synthesis.
C. ribosomal RNA synthesis.
D. spindle fiber attachment.
E. tRNA synthesis
13. The mRNA coding for the beta polypeptide chain of hemoglobin
(beta mRNA) can accomodate six ribosomes. Which of the following is

true
for this polyribosome complex?
A. All six ribosomes are cooperating to form one beta
polypeptide chain.
174
B. The entire polyribosome can bind only six tRNAs at
once.
C. The 60S subunit of one ribosome and the 40S subunit of
another may later be bound to each other on another

mRNA.
D. The ribosome nearest the 5' end of the beta mRNA is
carrying a larger portion of a beta polypeptide chain
than is the ribosome nearest the 3' end.
E. The ribosomes themselves consist entirely of RNA and
are devoid of proteins.
14. The role of elongation factor G in protein biosynthesis is to
A. promote the movement of peptidyl-tRNA from the "A" site
to the "P" site on the ribosome.
B. catalyze the formation of peptide bonds.
C. catalyze the ejection of free tRNA from the "P" site on
the ribosome.
D. promote the movement of amino acyl-tRNA from the "P"
site to the "A" site on the ribosome.
E. promote the recognition of termination codons by release
factors.
15. DNA excision repair
A. involves only two distinct steps.
B. requires visible light for activation.
C. replaces both strands of a segment of DNA.
D. is deficient in xeroderma pigmentosum.
E. is blocked by allopurinol.
175
16. In a human cell (with 46 chromosomes), which of the following
broad classes of nucleic acids would be represented by the LEAST number
of kinds of different, individual molecules?
A. rRNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. DNA
E. hnRNA
17. The type of nucleic acid that usually contains small quantities
of a variety of modified ribonucleotides, such as pseudouridine and
inosine, is
A. messenger RNA.
B. ribosomal RNA.
C. nucleolar RNA.
D. transfer RNA.
E. mitochondrial RNA.
18. The H1 histone
A. is one of the four histones in the nucleosome core.
B. helps form the octamer nucleosome complex.
C. is one of the two arginine-rich histones.
D. is present at 1:1 weight ratio with DNA.
E. helps fold the "bead-on-a-string" structure into higher
order structures.
176
19. The rate of transcription of a gene in E. coli would not be
directly affected by
A. the promoter sequence.
B. a mutation in RNA polymerase.
C. the presence of cAMP and the catabolite gene-activating
protein.
D. actinomycin D.
E. the size of the polysomes.
20. E. coli cells grown on a mixture of glucose and lactose

selectively
use glucose because
A. lactose provides more energy than glucose.
B. the lactose repressor blocks the movement of the RNA
polymerase.
C. no lactose repressor is made under these conditions.
D. cyclic AMP binding protein (CAP) is not present when
glucose is present.
E. glucose lowers cAMP which reduces the amount of CAP-

cAMP.
21. Which of the following defines the role of eIF2?
A. eIF2 binds mRNA and delivers it to the 40S ribosomal
subunit.
B. eIF2 mediates the formation of the 80S initiation

complex.
C. eIF2 binds met-tRNAi and delivers it to the 40S
ribosomal subunit. 177

D. eIF2 is the "cap" binding protein.
E. eIF2 binds met-tRNAi and delivers it to the
60S ribosomal subunit.
22. All of the following statements are true regarding turnover
of proteins in eukaryotic EXCEPT
A. the rate of turnover of a protein may be controlled by
altering either the rate of its synthesis or its
degradation.
B. some mammalian proteins have a half-life of less than
an hour.
C. polyubiquitination is a signal for intracellular
degradation.
D. the C-terminal amino acid of proteins determines their
rate of degradation.
E. lysosomal hydrolytic enzymes are extensively involved in
intracellular degradation of proteins.
23. The "signal sequence" for secreted proteins
A. contains a high proportion of hydrophilic amino acids.
B. is found at the carboxy terminus of the protein.
C. is clipped off by a protease inside the endoplasmic
reticulum.
D. is added on to the nascent chain by the ribosome.
E. is a non-translated leader sequence on mRNA.
178
24. The following table shows data obtained by Southern
hybridization
analysis with a human chymotrypsin cDNA probe of DNA obtained from
mouse-human somatic cell hybrids. Based on these data, which

chromosome
contains the human chymotrypsin gene?
Hybrid Cell Line Human Chromosomes Hybridization with Human
Found in Hybrid Chymotrypsin cDNA
A1 1,2,3,5,6,7,8,11,17 Yes
A2 1,3,5,8,11 No
A3 2,3,6,17 No
A4 7,8,11,17 Yes
A. 17
B. 6
C. 7
D. 11
E. cannot be determined from the above information
25. GTP is required for which step(s) in protein biosynthesis?
A. Peptide bond formation
B. Binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to A site of ribosome

179
C. Translocation
D. Both A and C
E. Both B and C
26. Which of the following enzymes can be used for the construction
of a recombinant DNA molecule in vitro?
A. DNA polymerase + DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase + RNA polymerase
C. Restriction enzyme + DNA ligase
D. Phosphorylase + DNA ligase
E. Acetylase + single stranded DNA specific

deoxyribonuclease
27. Blot hybridization (Southern) analysis is best used to
A. compare polypeptide conformation.
B. determine tRNA anticodons.
C. determine protein degradation rates.
D. establish DNA sequence homologies.
E. investigate ribosome assembly.
28. Post-translational modifications of polypeptides include all
the following EXCEPT which one?
A. disulfide bond formation
B. removal of methionine
C. protease cleavage
D. capping by 7-methylguanidine
E. attachment of prosthetic groups
180
29. What will be the effect of a single base deletion in the middle
of a cistron on the protein coded for by this cistron? (Assume that

there
is no premature termination codon)
A. A protein with a single amino acid substitution in its
center will be produced.
B. The cistron will not be transcribed and therefore no
product will be produced.
C. The complete amino acid sequence of the protein will be
abnormal.
D. This is a missense mutation and therefore the protein
may remain functional.
E. The carboxyl half of the protein will have an altered
sequence.
30. All of the following statements concerning DNA cloning are true
EXCEPT which one?
A. Vectors such as plasmids or bacterial viruses can be

used
for cloning foreign DNA in bacterial cells.
B. Recombinant molecules between plasmid DNA and foreign

DNA
can be generated by using restriction endonucleases.
C. cDNA synthesized from the messenger RNA of a desired

gene
can be cloned.
D. If foreign DNA is inserted into a bacterial plasmid, the
recombinant plasmid cannot be used for transforming
eukaryotic cells.
E. Some eukaryotic genes can be expressed when

tranformed 181
into bacteria.
ANSWERS
1E 2C 3C 4D 5C 6A 7C 8B 9A
10A 11B 12C 13C 14A 15D 16A 17D 18E
19E 20E 21C 22D 23C 24C 25E 26C 27D
28D 29E 30D
9/96Biochemistry 520
November 12, 1996
Exam #5
PART I. (60 points)
Type A. Each of the following statements is followed by
five suggested answers or completions. On the answer sheet, mark
the one which is best in each case.
1. Sensitivity to the antimalarial drug, primaquine, occurs
in men with mutations in
A. hexokinase.
C. phosphoglucomutase.
182
D. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
E. pyruvate kinase.
2. A significant biochemical role of vitamin C has been described

in
A. bone formation.
B. prevention of the common cold.
C. oxidation of carotenes to vitamin D.
D. metabolic functions of zinc.
E. steroid hydroxylation.
3. A patient has thrown a blood clot to the lung following surgery.
To prevent further embolus formation, you would most like inject
A. EDTA to bind serum calcium.
B. heparin I.V.
C. warfarin I.V.
D. protamine I.V.
4. The specific Ca2+ binding protein of the myofibril is
A. G actin
B. tropomyosin
C. troponin C
D. alpha actinin
5. Which of the following reactions involving Vitamin A occurs as
a result of absorption of a photon of light?

183
A. hydrolysis of a retinal-phosphatidylethanolamine
complex.
B. 11-cis retinal to trans retinal.
C. trans retinol to 11-cis retinal.
D. retinol to retinal.
E. beta-carotene to retinal.
6. The protein which becomes an instantly acting protease inhibitor
in the presence of heparin is
A. alpha1 antitrypsin
B. alpha2 macroglobulin
C. tissue factor
D. high molecular weight kininogen
E. antithrombin III
7. Each of the following enzymes requires pyridoxal phosphate as a
coenzyme EXCEPT which one?
A. ALA-synthetase
B. lactic dehydrogenase
C. glutamic decarboxylase
D. histidine decarboxylase
E. aspartate aminotransferase
8. The immediate precursor of heme in its synthesis is
A. protoporphyrin IX.
B. coproporphyrinogen III.
C. uroporphyrinogen III. 184

D. porphobilinogen.
E. bilirubin.
9. The bile pigments result from degradation of
A. globin.
B. gallstones.
C. cholesterol.
D. heme.
E. uric acid.
10. Cholera toxin exerts its effects on cells of the intestinal
mucosa by
A. activation of the GTP-binding protein by ADP-

ribosylation.
B. ADP-ribosylation of factor EF-2.
C. inactivation of the GTP-binding protein by ADP-

ribosylation.
D. binding to a transcription factor.
E. activation of guanylate cyclase.
11. Iron is transported in the plasma primarily as
A. transferrin complex with Fe+2.
B. transferrin complex with Fe+3.
C. ferritin complex.
D. free ferrous ion.
E. heme containing enzymes.
185
12. Structure of collagen includes all of the following structural
features EXCEPT
A. left-handed helix.
B. triple helix.
C. over 1/4 of the amino acids are Gly.
D. extracellular removal of N-terminus.
E. cross link between adjacent histidines.
13. The following are TRUE statements concerning
catecholamines EXCEPT
A. dopamine cannot pass the blood brain barrier and is
form of DOPA.
B. the synthesis of epinephrine requires

tetrahydrobiopterin
and SAM as cofactors.
C. synthesis of epinephrine and norepinephrine takes place
in the adrenal medulla.
D. NAD+ is required in the conversion of DOPA
to dopamine.
E. catabolism of catecholamines involves oxidative removal
of the amino groups by monoaminooxidase (MAO) and
methylation of OH-groups by catechol-O-methyltransferase
(COMT).
14. Receptor-mediated endocytosis (RME) is a mechanism whereby iron
is taken up by the cell. True statement(s) regarding RME include all

of
186
the following EXCEPT:
A. the internalized receptors are recycled.
B. the receptors become localized in specialized regions
called coated pits.
C. a proton pump is important for release of the iron.
D. the receptor is fixed in the coated pit-vesicle by
interaction with the protein clathrin.
E. the receptor remains in the membrane while the iron is
internalized.
15. Which of the following does NOT occur when
a RBC returns to the Lungs from the peripheral tissues?
A. Deoxyhemoglobin is oxygenated.
B. Chloride migrates from the erythrocyte to the plasma.
C. Bicarbonate migrates from the plasma into the

erythrocyte.
D. Hydrogen ions are released from hemoglobin.
E. 2,3 bis phosphoglycerate binding to hemoglobin is

increased.
16. The repeating unit of hyaluronic acid is composed of

combinations
of which of the following kinds of carbohydrates?
A. a uronic acid and an amino sugar
B. Galactose and glucose
C. Fructose and glucose
D. Sialic acid and an amino sugar
E. Mannose and an amino sugar 187

17. In skeletal muscle fibers the thin filament consists of a double
stranded chain of "beads". These thin filaments are
A. myosin
B. troponin
C. fibrin
D. actin
E. lectin
18. This amino acid and a 4 carbon intermediate from the

tricarboxylic
acid cycle condense in the first step of the biosynthesis of heme:
A. valine
B. aspartate
C. glycine
D. glutamine
E. alanine
19. Phase II of xenobiotic metabolism
A. involves oxygenation catalyzed by cytochrome P450

enzymes.
B. involves conjugation reactions that result in a more
water soluble product.
C. involves conjugation reactions that result in more
hydrophobic products.
D. is the breakdown of phase I products in the

lysosomes.
188
E. sometimes results in a highly reactive epoxide that can
act as a carcinogen.
20. In Thalassemia, the predominant form of hemoglobin that is
found is
A. alpha2beta2
B. beta4
C. beta4gamma2
D. alpha2gamma2
E. alpha2epsilon2
21. Leptin is
A. a drug sometimes called Redux
B. an appetite stimulant
C. a key weight control hormone
D. a membrane receptor
E. a protein expressed mainly in the hypothalamus
22. In vision, the role of TRANSDUCIN in the signaling process is

to:
A. absorb a photon of light
B. activate guanyl cyclase
C. activate phosphodiesterase
D. deactivate rhodopsin
E. act as a channel for entry of Na+
23. An infant had profuse bleeding after his circumcision.

Analysis
189
showed an abnormally long partial thromboplastin time (PTT), but a
normal
prothrombin time (PT). A blood mixing study corrected the PTT time.
What
is the likely defect?
A. a circulating anticoagulant
B. lack of vitamin K
C. deficiency of factor VII
D. ingestion of excessive aspirin
E. deficiency of factor VIII
24. Pernicious anemia in an elderly patient is most often due to?
A. lack of intrinsic factor
B. lack of folate in the diet
C. autoimmune problem
D. deficiency in methionine
E. lack of B12 in the diet
25. The primary defect in cystic fibrosis is:
A. problem with cysteine metabolism
B. collagen defect with gly replaced by cys
C. defective cystine transport
D. defective chloride channel
E. lack of vitamin C
26. In rigor mortis, the muscle contraction process is stopped
at the point where:

190
A. ATP is initially hydrolyzed
B. Ca++ exposes binding sites on actin
C. ADP and Pi have been released
D. the myosin head is in the "high energy" configuration
E. after Ca++ has been returned to the
sarcoplasmic reticulum
27. Prions are believed to cause disease via:
A. a DNA virus
B. a misfolded protein
C. an RNA virus
D. a protein kinase
E. cytokines
28. One of the major factors implicated in most cases of Type I
diabetes is:
A. genetic defect in insulin receptors
B. genetic defect in glucokinase in pancreatic cells
C. accumulation of mitochondrial DNA mutations
D. antibodies to Glutamate Decarboxylase (GAD)
E. obesity
29. Which of the following blood proteins does NOT require
vitamin K to become fully functional?
A. fibrinogen
B. thrombin
191
C. factor IX
D. factor X
E. factor VII
30. Cyclin B is present in highest concentration during which
phase of the cell cycle?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. M
ANSWERS:
1D 2A 3B 4C 5B 6E 7B 8A 9D
10A 11B 12E 13D 14E 15E 16A 17D 18C
19B 20D 21C 22C 23E 24A,C 25D 26C 27B
28D 29A 30D
96BIOC520: Final Exam 1996

November 15, 1996
Each of the following statements is followed by five suggested answers or

completions. On the answer sheet, mark the one which is best in each case. 2
POINTS EACH
1. The isoelectric point of alanine is 6.0. If alanine is dissolved
in a buffer of pH 8.0 it will
A. have a net positive charge 192

B. be electrically neutral
C. have a net negative charge
D. have no negatively charged groups
2. In anaerobic glycolysis, pyruvate does not
accumulate because
A. lactate dehydrogenase consists of five isoenzymes
B. pyruvate is converted to acetylCoA by pyruvate

dehydrogenase
C. the ratio of NADH/NAD is low in the cytoplasm
D. it is reduced to lactate by cytosolic lactate

dehydrogenase
E. it is oxidized by the citric acid cycle
3. All of the following are true concerning fibrin EXCEPT:
A. it is formed during primary hemostasis
193
B. it is formed from fibrinogen by specific cleavage
by thrombin.
C. it does not have intrinsic protease activity
D. it becomes covalently crosslinked to stabilize a
clot
E. it is normally degraded by plasmin
4. The major lipids found in membranes are
A. triacylglycerols and cholesterol
B. cholesterol and sphingomyelin
C. phospholipids, glycolipids, and cholesterol
D. phospholipids and free fatty acids
E. cholesterol, inositol, and glycolipids
5. In proteins, the side chain of serine can be involved in all of

the
following EXCEPT:
194
A. phosphorylation
B. hydrogen bonding
C. covalent carbohydrate attachment
D. ionic interactions
E. enzymatic catalysis
6. All of the following enzymes carry out substrate level
phosphorylations EXCEPT
A. ATP synthase
C. pyruvate kinase
7. During glycolysis NADH is produced in the cytosol. Under
aerobic conditions, what is the primary fate of this

195
NADH?
A. It accumulates in the cytosol
B. It diffuses into the mitochondria
C. It transfers its reducing equivalents directly to NADP+
D. The reducing equivalents are transferred by a shuttle
system to the mitochondrial electron transport system
E. It is used to reduce glucose to sorbitol
8. The major pathway by which mature red cells generate ATP is:
A. aerobic metabolism.
B. anaerobic glycolysis.
C. hexose monophosphate shunt activity.
D. generation of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate.
E. fatty acid oxidation.
9. All of the following would be likely in an untreated case of

Type I 196
(insulin-dependent) diabetes EXCEPT
A. increased fatty acid oxidation
B. lowered levels of glucose and glucose 6-phosphate in
muscle cells
C. high levels of glycogen synthesis in liver
D. high blood fatty acid levels
E. high blood glucose levels
10. The absorption of glucose from the intestinal lumen into mucosal
cells:
A. does not require a carrier protein.
B. requires bile salts
C. occurs down a glucose concentration gradient.
D. depends on the sodium ion gradient.
E. occurs through an insulin-responsive glucose transporter
197
11. Which of the following enzymes are unique to gluconeogenesis
(as opposed to glycolysis)?
1. glucose 6-phosphatase
2. pyruvate kinase
3. PEP carboxykinase
4. aldolase
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
12. In biological systems, which compound mediates transfer

reactions
A. S-adenosyl methionine.
B. pyridoxal phosphate. 198

D. vitamin K.
E. biotin.
13. In the Cori cycle, the product made by liver cells and returned
to muscle is
A. acetyl CoA
B. glucose
C. palmitic acid
D. alanine
E. lactate
14. Which of the following is a pancreatic zymogen that is activated
directly by enteropeptidase (enterokinase)?
A. trypsinogen
199
B. chymotrypsinogen
C. carboxypeptidase
D. proelastase
E. prothrombin
15. Which of the following enzymes are involved in the EXCISION-

REPAIR
of UV-induced pyrimidine dimers?
1. an endonuclease
2. DNA ligase
3. DNA polymerase I
4. photoreactivating enzyme (DNA photolyase)
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them 200

16. Concerning the biosynthesis of urea by humans, each of the
following statements is correct EXCEPT
A. the first nitrogen atom entering the urea cycle does so

in
the form of carbamoyl phosphate
B. the second nitrogen atom entering the urea cycle is
supplied by the amino group of aspartate
C. the process occurs primarily in the liver
D. the immediate precursor of urea is ornithine from which
urea is cleaved by ornithase
E. some of the reactions of the urea cycle occur in the
mitochondrial matrix and some in the cytoplasm
17. Fatty acids from adipose tissue are transported to sites of
utilization in the form of:
A. triglycerides bound to serum albumin.
B. very low density lipoproteins.
201
C. high density lipoproteins.
D. chylomicrons.
E. free fatty acids bound to serum albumin.
18. An intermediate common to the biosynthesis of cholesterol and
the biosynthesis of ketone bodies is
A. methylmalonyl-CoA
B. succinyl-CoA
C. cholyl-CoA
D. 5-phosphomevalonic acid
E. HMG-CoA
19. Which of the groups below contains two compounds that are parts
of
coenzymes involved in the beta-oxidation of fatty acids?
A. Vitamin D and pantothenic acid
B. Biotin and folic acid 202

C. Niacin and riboflavin
D. Pyridoxine and thiamine
E. Choline and carnitine
20. All of the following are true for both DNA polymerase and RNA
A. both require a template
B. both reactions produce pyrophosphate as a product
C. both add 5' nucleotides to 3' hydroxyl groups
D. both utilize nucleotide triphosphates as substrates
E. both require a primer
21. What will be the effect of a single base pair
deletion in the middle of a DNA sequence coding for a certain protein?
A. a protein with a single amino acid substitution in its
center
203
B. the gene will not be transcribed and no protein will be
produced
C. the amino half of the protein will have a normal

sequence
D. the carboxyl half of the protein will have a normal
sequence
E. DNA polymerase will repair the damage
22. Which of the following is not one of the
important criteria that is considered in determining if a genetic

disease
is a good candidate for gene therapy?
A. the gene defect must be known and the normal gene must
be
cloned and characterized
B. the disease should be life threatening with no adequate
therapy
C. optimally the genetic defect should be due to a dominant
mutation
D. the target tissue should be easily accessible
E. it should be encoded by a single copy gene 204

following reactions is most likely to be modulated by allosteric
effectors?
A. All steps have equal probability to be regulated
C. The initial committed step of the sequence.
E. A reaction with an overall equilibrium constant of
one
24. The genetic code is degenerate means:
A. one codon codes for more than one amino acid
B. there is more than one codon for some amino acids
C. both DNA strands are used as templates for mRNA

synthesis
205
D. the code varies from species to species
E. there is more than one aminoacyl tRNA synthetase for

each
amino acid
25. Allosteric control of enzyme action requires
A. a cofactor derived from a vitamin.
B. a metal ion.
C. the conversion of one form of the enzyme to another
by the action of proteolytic enzymes.
D. a conformational change in an enzyme that changes
its catalytic activity.
E. an effector that is the product of the enzymatic
reaction and which competes with the normal
substrate for the active site of the enzyme.
26. An enzyme present in the liver but NOT in muscle is
A. hexokinase.
206
C. lactate dehydrogenase.
D. pyruvate dehydrogenase.
E. glycogen phosphorylase.
27. All of the following compounds are carbon sources for the net
synthesis of glucose in liver EXCEPT
A. lactate.
C. alanine.
D. aspartate.
E. glycerol.
28. The absence of which factor is responsible for classical
hemophilia A?
A. Factor II
207
B. Factor V
C. Factor VII
D. Factor VIII
E. Factor XIII
29. Which of the following are positive allosteric effectors
of phosphofructokinase-1?
1. ATP
2. fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
3. citrate
4. AMP
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
208
E. all of them
30. Which of the following statements about hemoglobin S is correct?
A. It is the normal hemoglobin found in most adults
B. It is a form of hemoglobin modified by the addition of a
cysteine at the C-terminus
C. It is a mutant form of hemoglobin in which a specific
glutamic acid in each chain has been replaced by a

valine
and has a tendency to form insoluble aggregates
D. It is a mutant form of hemoglobin that makes one more
susceptible to infection by the malarial parasite
E. It is a mutant form of hemoglobin that aggregates in the
presence of high oxygen concentrations
31. The regions of variable amino acid composition of

immunoglobulins
occur in
A. heavy chains only
209
B. light chains only
C. both light and heavy chains
D. IgG but not other immunoglobulins
E. IgM but not other immunoblobulins
32. A patient has chest pains that began 6 hours earlier. Which of
the following would be most useful to indicate the presence of a
myocardial infarction at this time?
A. elevated MB fraction of creatine kinase in serum
B. elevated MM fraction of creatine kinase in serum
C. elevated LDH fraction 5 in serum
D. elevated LDH fraction 1 in serum
E. elevated BUN (blood urea nitrogen)
210
A. malonyl-CoA
B. oxaloacetate
C. lactate
D. acetylCoA
E. alanine
34. Xeroderma pigmentosum results from a deficiency in
A. collagen synthesis
B. DNA replication
C. DNA repair
D. bilirubin conjugation
E. a tumor suppressor
35. The rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction
1. can be determined by measuring the increase
in product concentration with respect to time.

211
2. is usually dependent on temperature and pH.
3. at saturating substrate concentrations,
becomes zero-order with respect to substrate.
4. is independent of the enzyme concentration.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
36. During prolonged starvation, the brain oxidizes significant
amounts of
1. glucose.
2. fatty acyl carnitine.
3. acetoacetate.
212
4. free fatty acids.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
scurvy is
A. improper translation of the pro-alpha-chains
B. incorrect formation of disulfide bonds
C. insufficient interstrand crosslinking
D. insufficient hydroxylation of proline and lysine
E. improper cleavage of procollagen
38. A drug that lowers blood urate levels by inhibiting the

conversion 213
of hypoxanthine to xanthine is
A. cholestyramine
B. allopurinol
C. methotrexate
D. 5-fluorouracil
E. puromycin
39. Which of the following proteins would not be expected
to be synthesized in a form that contains a signal peptide that is
recognized by SRP?
A. insulin
B. lysosomal beta-hexosaminidase
C. beta-adrenergic receptor
D. trypsinogen
E. hexokinase
214
40. Which of the following amino acids is most likely to be found on
the surface of a globular protein in an aqueous environment?
A. phenyalanine
B. methionine
C. leucine
D. valine
E. aspartate
41. Adenylate cyclase
A. is activated by direct contact with beta-adrenergic
receptors
B. is activated by direct contact with the GaS
subunit
C. can synthesize cyclic GMP as well as cyclic AMP
D. is inactivated by a phosphodiesterase
215
E. is a second messenger
42. For a competitive enzyme inhibitor
A. Vmax is decreased by a factor of 1 + I/KI
B. the Vmax is unaffected
C. the effects are irreversible
D. the Km is unaffected
E. the Km is decreased by a factor of 1 + I/KI
A. a fluid lipid bilayer
B. proteins can move in the plane of the membrane
C. proteins are symmetrically distributed on both sides of
the membrane
D. proteins are inserted into and across the lipid bilayer
216
E. lipids are asymmetrically distributed on both sides of
the membrane
44. A major difference between chylomicrons and VLDL particles is

that
A. The major lipid component of chylomicrons is

triglycerides
while the major lipid component of VLDL is cholesterol
esters
chylomicrons while hormone sensitive lipase removes them
from VLDL
C. Chylomicrons carry triglycerides assembled in the
carries triglycerides primarily synthesized by the liver
D. Chylomicrons carry triglycerides away from the liver
while VLDL primarily returns them to the liver from

other
tissues
45. The major site quantitatively of cholesterol biosynthesis in the
human is 217
B. gall bladder
C. pancreas
D. adrenal gland
E. liver
pathogenic bacteria because
A. they block the synthesis of dihydrobiopterin
B. they block the synthesis of niacin
C. they block the synthesis of folate
D. they block the synthesis of pyridoxal
E. they block the synthesis of thiamine
47. The absorption of which of the following vitamins would most

218
likely be lowered by treatment for high cholesterol levels with bile
acid
sequestrants such as cholestyramine?
A. vitamin C
B. vitamin E
C. biotin
D. pantothenic acid
E. thiamine
48. Which of the following is true for hemoglobin but not for
myoglobin
A. it contains a heme group
B. it is highly alpha-helical
C. it binds oxygen
D. it exhibits positive cooperativity
E. the iron atom is in the +2 valence
219
A. concentrate acetylcholine in synaptic vesicles by
exchanging it for protons
cleft
C. to clear acetylcholine after it has been secreted into
the synaptic cleft
50. A collection of recombinant DNA clones representing all of the
various mRNA molecules from a certain cell type is a:
A. probe
B. genomic library
C. cDNA library
D. vector
220
E. restriction digest
51. A restriction enzyme would not be required for
which of the following recombinant DNA techniques:
A. RFLP analysis
B. Southern blot analysis of genomic DNA
C. Preparation of a genomic library
D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
52. Enzymes do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. increase the rate of a reaction
B. lower the activation energy of a reaction
C. alter the equilibrium constant of a reaction
D. act specifically on one substrate or a group of related
substrates
221
53. Which of the following steps in collagen biosynthesis takes
place
outside of the cell?
A. intermolecular crosslinking
B. hydroxylation of lysine
C. hydroxylation of proline
D. triple helix formation
E. glycosylation
54. The receptor protein for light in retinal cells is
A. cis retinal
B. all trans retinal
C. cGMP
D. rhodopsin
E. transducin
222
55. The antitumor reagent methotrexate functions by
A. directly inhibiting the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase
B. inhibiting synthesis of folate
C. directly inhibiting the enzyme thymidylate synthase
D. blocking absorption of vitamin B12
E. inhibiting oxidation of folic acid
56. A direct intracellular target of nitric oxide is
A. adenylate cyclase
B. guanylate cyclase
C. IP3
D. protein kinase C
E. calmodulin
223
57. In malignant hyperthermia, administration of certain
anesthetics to sensitive people results in the rapid development of a
tremendous fever, rapid breathing and energy insufficiency.
The most likely cause of malignant hyperthermia is
A. blockage of a glycolytic enzyme.
B. uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation.
C. inhibitor of fatty acid oxidation.
D. stimulation of epinephrine release.
E. inhibition of mitochondrial electron transport
58. Pyridoxal phosphate acts as a coenzyme in all of the following
reactions EXCEPT
A. aminotransferase reactions (transaminases).
B. biosynthesis of cys from met and ser.
C. decarboxylation of glu to form GABA.
D. decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl CoA.
E. biosynthesis of heme from succ CoA and glycine.

224
59. An infant presents with symptoms of Maple Syrup Urine disease.
If the defect involved a mutation resulting in an increased Km
of the defective enzyme, which of the following vitamins in megadoses
could possibly alleviate the symptoms?
A. vitamin B12
B. folic acid
C. biotin
D. thiamine
E. vitamin B6 (pyridoxamine)
60. Enzymes which are classified as serine hydrolases
include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. trypsin
B. chymotrypsin
C. acetylcholine esterase
D. thrombin
225
E. lysozyme
61. What is the most plausible explanation for impaired pentose
phosphate pathway metabolism in alcoholics:
A. low blood glucose
B. high blood glucose
C. low transketolase activity due to a thiamine deficiency
D. low glucose-6-P dehydrogenase activity due to a thiamine
deficiency
E. impaired electron transport due to high levels of

alcohol
62. The major regulatory step in glycolysis can be bypassed in the
catabolism of which of the following carboydrates:
A. glycogen
B. glucose
C. galactose
226
D. fructose
E. maltose
63. Removal of the chief metabolite of cholesterol from the body is
used in the treatment of hypercholesterolemia. Therapy is directed

toward
the elimination of
A. ketone bodies
B. cortisol
C. progesterone
D. bile salts
E. acetyl CoA
64. The final product of glycolysis in human cells under anaerobic
conditions or in cells lacking mitochondria is
A. carbon dioxide
B. ethanol
227
C. lactate
D. phosphoenol pyruvate
E. pyruvate
65. Myoglobin exhibits all of the following types of structure

EXCEPT:
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. quaternary
66. Which of the following is most important in establishing the
secondary structure of a protein?
A. disulfide bonds
B. ionic bonds
C. hydrogen bond
228
D. hydrophobic forces
E. van der Waals forces
67. A deficiency of pyruvate carboxylase leads to a decrease in
cellular
A. acetyl CoA
B. Kreb's cycle intermediates
C. lactate
D. biotin
E. alanine
68. A sample of the enzyme defective in Maple Syrup Urine disease

was
isolated from the infant in question #59, and its kinetic dependence on
the appropriate cofactor were determined by means of a Lineweaver Burk
(double reciprocal) plot. Which of the following lines represents the
data for the patient?
229
69. Failure to digest dietary lipids leads to steatorrhea. All of
the
following substances are required for digestion of dietary lipid
EXCEPT
A. bile pigments
B. bile salt
C. colipase
D. pancreatic lipase
E. pancreatic phospholipase
70. The circulating form of hemoglobin that is used to assess

chronic
blood glucose concentrations in diabetes mellitus is
A. hemoglobin A
B. hemoglobin A1c
C. hemoglobin F
D. hemoglobin H
230
E. hemoglobin S
71. A deficiency of which one of the following enzymes leads to
diarrhea and failure to thrive in newborns owing to inadequate cleavage

of
trypsinogen to trypsin in the intestinal lumen?
A. carboxypeptidase A
B. enterokinase (enteropeptidase)
C. furin
D. leucine aminopeptidase
E. pepsin
72. Which one of the following proteins possesses protein-tyrosine
kinase activity?
A. AMP-dependent protein kinase
B. fructose-6-phosphate 2-kinase/fructose-2,6-biphosphatase
C. glucagon receptor 231

D. insulin receptor
E. pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
73. Phenylketonuria, alkaptonuria, and albinism are caused by
deficiencies in enzymes involved in the metabolism of
A. tryptophan
B. phenylalanine
C. histidine
D. valine
E. lysine
74. Mutation of which one of the following tumor suppressor genes

can
lead to multiple eye tumors in children?
A. Bcl-2
B. NF1
232
C. p53
D. RB1
E. WT1
75. Which one of the following is a true statement regarding
fluorouracil?
A. It is an alkylating agent.
B. It inhibits human topoisomerase II.
C. It inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.
D. It is a hormone antagonist.
E. It is converted to an inhibitor of thymidylate synthase.
76. Which one of the following binds calcium and then undergoes a
conformational change that triggers striated muscle contraction?
A. calsequestrin
B. tropomyosin
233
C. troponin I
D. troponin C
E. troponin T
77. Several types of osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bone disease)
are due to point mutations involving which one of the following amino
acids?
A. alanine
B. glycine
C. hydroxylysine
D. hydroxyproline
E. proline
78. Which of the following may be involved in the intracellular
transmission of hormonal action?
A. cAMP
234
B. inositol triphosphate
C. tyrosine kinase
D. protein kinase C
E. all of the above
79. Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes the elimination of
nicks or discontinuities in DNA that occur during DNA repair or in the
linking together of Okazaki fragments?
A. AP exonuclease
B. DNA gyrase
C. DNA ligase
D. topoisomerase I
E. topoisomerase II
80. Each one of the following statements describes both human and
bacterial DNA EXCEPT
A. The DNA occurs physiologically as nucleosome

complexes. 235
B. The DNA contains major and minor grooves.
C. The DNA consists of an antiparallel duplex.
D. The DNA conains equal molar fractions of adenine and
thymine.
E. The DNA contains equal molar fractions of guanine and
cytosine.
81. Aspirin is an irreversible inhibitor of
A. cyclooxygenase
B. lipoxygenase
C. phospholipase A1
D. phospholipase A2
E. phospholipase C
82. Reversing the effects of the glucagon cascade in the liver
involves all of the following processes EXCEPT

236
A. cessation of adenylyl cyclase stimulation
B. conversion of cyclic AMP to 5'-AMP
C. reformation of the inactive R2C2 form of
protein kinase A
D. dephosphorylation of phosphatase-1 inhibitor,

phosphorylase
a, phosphorylase kinase, glycogen synthase,
fructose-6-phosphate-2-kinase/phosphatase, and pyruvate
kinase
E. increased dephosphorylation of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
to form fructose 6-phosphate
83. All of the following DNA sequences play an important role in
mediating human gene expression EXCEPT
A. TATA box
B. CAAT box
C. GC box
D. enhancers
E. lac Operon 237

84. GTP hydrolysis is required for each of the following activities
in
protein synthesis EXCEPT
A. chain initiation
B. implanting aminoacyl-tRNA into the A site
C. the peptidyltransferase reaction
D. translocation
E. chain termination and dissociation of the ribosomal

subunits
85. Gelatin, a foodstuff that is derived from collagen, lacks
tryptophan and cysteine. A diet that consists only of gelatin leads to

a
negative nitrogen balance nitrogen excretion exceeds nitrogen intake)

and
decreased protein synthesis. The primary mechanism responsible for
decreased protein synthesis in a diet lacking tryptophan is
A. decreased ATP production
B. failure to synthesize any aminoacyl-tRNA

238
C. failure of mRNAs containing codons corresponding to
tryptophan to bind to ribosomes
D. failure to form an initiation complex
E. failure to elongate polypeptides directed by mRNAs
containing codons corresponding to tryptophan
86. Which one of the following is a true statement regarding
transducin?
A. It is a seven-transmembrane-segment protein
B. It consists of alpha-, beta-, and gamma-subunits that
resemble those of Gs and Gi
C. It catalyzes the hydrolysis of cyclic GMP
D. It contains 11-cis retinal
E. It directly opens a cation channel
87. Cholera toxin catalyzes the ADP-ribosylation of which one of the
following proteins?
239
A. Ovaltine
B. Gi
C. Gi
D. Gs
E. EF-2
88. All of the following are considered essential amino acids in the
adult EXCEPT:
A. leucine
B. lysine
C. methionine
D. valine
E. asparagine
89. All of the following statements show biological information
transfer occurring in a correct direction EXCEPT

240
A. DNA --> RNA
B. RNA --> DNA
C. RNA --> protein
D. DNA --> DNA
E. Protein --> RNA
90. Which of the following pathways is most important in the mature
red blood cell?
A. pentose phosphate pathway
B. oxidation of fatty acids
C. citric acid cycle
D. ketone body synthesis
E. fatty acid synthesis
91. Which of the following would be least likely to occur in
advanced cases of marasmus.

241
A. ketone bodies used by the brain
B. liver glycogen depleted
C. high insulin:glucagon ratio in blood
D. liver gluconeogenesis
E. oxidation in the liver
92. Which of the following descriptions of glycogen in NOT true?
A. glycogen is composed of glucose linked by alpha 1-4 and
alpha 1-6 linkages
B. glycogen is very hydrophilic
C. glycogen is stored in granules in the cytosol
D. the reducing end of glycogen is attached to glycogennin
E. glycogen is degraded starting at the reducing end.
93. Which of the following enzymes is the important regulatory point
in the beta-oxidation of fatty acids?

242
A. fatty acid synthase
B. carnitine acyl transferase I
D. fatty acyl CoA synthetase
E. acyl CoA dehydrogenase
94. Each of the following statements about heme and iron metabolism
is correct EXCEPT:
A. iron is stored in the liver as ferritin
B. iron is transported in the plasma bound to transferrin
C. iron as Fe2+ is inserted into protoporphryin
IX in the last step of heme synthesis
D. the iron produced by heme degradation is primarily
excreted in the feces
E. uptake of iron by cells requires a specific receptor
which is recycled to the plasma membrane.
243
95. Which of the following amino acids is involved in the formation
of disulfide bridges?
A. methionine
B. hydroxyproline
C. tryptophan
D. tyrosine
E. cysteine
96. All of the following enzymes are activated by protein kinase A
EXCEPT:
A. hormone sensitive lipase (adipose)
B. phosphorylase
C. fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase
D. phosphorylase kinase
E. glycogen synthetase
244
97. Which of the following is a result of epinephrine signalling to
the muscle.
A. dephosphorylation of glycogen synthase
B. dephosphorylation of glycogen phosphorylase
C. activation of cAMP phosphodiesterase
D. phosphorylation of phosphorylase kinase
E. synthesis of new glycogen
THIS CASE REFERS TO QUESTIONS 98-100:
A 29-year-old woman and her 32-year-old husband come to the obstetrics
clinic for information and counseling concerning her pregnancy. They

had
previously had three children. Child I (A 7-year-old girl) and child

II
(a 4year-old boy) are alive and healthy, and child III (a girl) died of
cystic fibrosis at the age of 18 months, 1 year ago.
An ultrasound examination during week 9 showed a dichorionic twin
gestation with two placentas. The couple requested prenatal

diagnosis.
245
The crown-rump length of both fetuses were 27 mm, corresponding to 9.5
weeks.
Chorionic villus sampling was used to obtain approximately 25 mg of
tissue from each placenta. After DNA extraction, polymerase chain
reactions were performed. The primers, which were designed to bracket

the
508 mutation, led to the production of an 87-base-pair product from a
normal CFTR gene and an 84-base-pair product from a 508 mutant gene.
The
products were subjected to polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis and
localized by ethidium bromide staining. The results for the PCR

analysis
of DNA from the parents, their children, the two fetuses, an unaffected
person and DNA containing a 508 mutation established by DNA sequence
analysis are illustrated below.
MOM DAD CI CII CIII FI FII NORM 508
87 ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
84 ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
98. Which one of the following is NOT a true statement regarding
these results?
A. Child I will be affected with cystic fibrosis 246

B. Child II is heterozygous for the 508 mutation
C. the father is heterozygous for the 508 mutation
D. the mother is heterozygous for the 508 mutation
E. Child III is homozygous for the 508 mutation
99. Cystic fibrosis is what class of genetic disease?
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
100. Which of the fetuses will be affected, according to the results
from the polymerase chain reaction methodology?
A. both fetus I and II will be affected
B. fetus I, but not fetus II, will be affected

247
C. neither fetus I nor II will be affected
D. fetus II, but not fetus I, will be affected
101. Respiratory Distress Syndrome in premature newborns is caused by
deficiency in the lungs of:
A. sphingomyelin
B. gangliosides
C. triacylglycerols
D. phosphatidylcholine
E. prostaglandins
102. A person with an LDL-receptor deficiency was treated with
lovastatin. As a consequence of the action of this drug, the person
should have:
A. fewer LDL receptors in cell membranes
B. increased de novo cholesterol synthesis
C. increased ACAT activity

248
D. lower blood cholesterol levels
E. higher blood triacylglycerol levels
103. Mutations involving this gene lead to impaired ability to

produce
chylomicrons, VLDL, and LDL, thereby leading to fat malabsorption,
diarrhea, retinitis pigmentosa, cerebellar ataxia, and acanthocytosis.
A. Apoprotein A-1 gene
B. Apoprotein B-100/B-48 gene
C. Apoprotein C-II gene
D. Apoprotein E gene
E. LDL receptor gene
104. All of the following are consequences of alcohol consumption
EXCEPT:
A. increased cytosolic NADH levels
B. increased mitochondrial NADH levels
249
C. increased gluconeogenesis from lactate
D. fatty liver if the consumption is chronic
E. increased activity of the malate-aspartate and
alpha-glycerol phosphate "shuttles"
105. An infant is found to have a glucose 6-phosphatase deficiency.
Manifestations of this deficiency would include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. an enlarged liver due to glycogen deposits
B. an inability to maintain blood glucose levels by
gluconeogenesis
C. an inability to utilize galactose or fructose to

maintain
blood glucose
D. an enlarged muscle mass due to glycogen deposits
E. an inability to maintain blood glucose levels by
glycogenolysis
106. A patient's blood contains 20 mM HC03- and 2 mM total CO2 250

(C02+ H2C03. The pH of the blood (pKa = 6.1) is:
A. 6.1
B. 7.1
C. 5.1
D. 7.4
107. A serine protease that has been shown to be involved in the
molecular pathway for activating apoptosis is
A. Bcl-2
B. FIRE
C. ICE
D. WIND
E. Bax
251
108. Patients with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome have a tendency towards
periodic aggressive behavior, including self-mutilation (e.g. biting
through lip, etc.), besides having problems with gout. Lesch-Nyhan
syndrome is due to a mutation in:
A. xanthine oxidase
B. de novo biosynthesis of purines
C. de novo biosynthesis of pyrimidines
D. salvage pathway for purines
E. salvage pathway for pyrimidines
109. A deficiency in which of the following would lead to a decreased
ability to handle oxidative stress and cause premature lysis of the
erythrocyte under oxidative conditions?
A. defective synthetic pathway for glutathione
B. defective glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
C. defective glutathione reductase enzyme
252
D. defective glutathione peroxidase
E. all of the above
110. Diabetes mellitus could be caused by:
1. Insufficient secretion of insulin
2. antibodies to pancreatic beta-cells (autoimmune
disease)
3. glucokinase mutation
4. ineffective insulin receptors
A. 1,2, and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. all 4 are correct
253
111. A 25 year old male insulin-dependent diabetic presents in the
emergency room of the hospital after not taking his shots faithfully.
Which of the following symptoms would you NOT expect to find?
A. rapid, shallow breathing
B. blood pH = 7.1
C. elevated blood levels of acetoacetate and
beta-hydroxybutyrate
D. odor of acetone on his breath
E. severely decreased levels of blood glucose
(112-116) For each description of a biochemical process, select the
most appropriate cellular component.
A. cytosol
B. lysosome
C. mitochondrion
D. nucleus
E. peroxisome
F. plasma membrane
254
G. rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi
H. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
112. __________ site of protein glycosylation reactions
113. __________ the therapeutic effect of AZT used in the

treatment
of AIDS occurs at this site
114. __________ location of alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
115. __________ final destination of proteins tagged with
mannose-6-phosphate
116. __________ site of de novo fatty acid synthesis
------------------------------------------------------------
The following list pertains to questions 117-121
A. Wet beriberi with heart failure
B. Bleeding disorders
C. Kwashiorkor
255
D. Marasmus
E. Night blindness
F. Pellagra
G. Pernicious anemia
H. Rickets
I. Scurvy
For each of the characteristics listed below, select the most
appropriate disease from the list above (A-I).
117. ____________ Deficient intrinsic factor production
118. ____________ Inadequate protein and caloric intake in children
119. ____________ Deficient intake of -carotene
120. ____________ Inadequate thiamine due to chronic alcoholism
121. ____________ Deficient intake of niacin
ANSWERS
1-10: C,D,A,C,D,A,D,B,C,D
11-20: B,C,B,A,A (in man) or E (in bacteria), D,E,E,C,E

256
21-30: C,C,C,B,D,B,B,D,C,C
31-40: C,A,A,C,D,B,D,B,E,E
41-50: B,B,C,C,E,C,B,D,C,C
51-60: D,C,A,D,E,B,B,D,D,E
61-70: C,D,D,C,D,C,B,B,A,B
71-80: B,D,B,D,E,D,B,E,C,A
81-90: A,E,E,C,E,B,D,E,E,A
91-100: C,E,B,D,E,E,D,A,B,D
101-110 D,D,B,C,D,B,C,D,E,E
111-121 E,G,D,C,B,A,G,D,E,A,F
Examination #1
BIOCHEMISTRY 520
Exam #1 - August 19, 1997
PART I. (60 points)
Each of the following statements is followed by five suggested answers

or
completions. ON THE ANSWER SHEET, mark the one which is best in each
case.
1. All of the following are examples of compounds containing a

"high-energy" phosphate bond EXCEPT:
A. AMP.
B. ADP
C. Creatine phosphate
D. Phosphoenolpyruvate.
E. 1,3-bis-phosphoglycerate
2. All of the following bond types are significant for the

maintenance of the secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure
of enzymes or proteins EXCEPT:
A. hydrophobic interactions
B. disulfide bonds
C. ester bonds
D. hydrogen bonds
E. electrostatic interactions
3. Cardiac glycosides such as ouabain and digitalis stimulate

cardiac
contraction. The molecular basis of the effect of these
compounds
is believed to result from which of the following?
A. They act as monovalent cation ionophores.
B. They cause an increase in the fluidity of the plasma
membrane.
C. They inhibit the efflux of calcium ions from the cell.
D. They inhibit the Na+,K+ ATPase enzyme.
E. They become intercalated into the plasma membrane,
rendering it leaky.
4. All of the following statements about active transport are

correct
EXCEPT: 257
A. a plot of rate of uptake by cells of the pertinent
substance would be expected to give a hyperbolic curve.
accumulated against a concentration gradient.
membrane protein is likely to occur.
E. competitive inhibition of the transport of a substance
by
its chemical analogs is likely to occur.
5. Which one of the following amino acids is a component of both

phospholipids and polypeptides?
A. Serine
B. Glycine
C. Glutamic acid
D. Leucine
E. Lysine
6. Which of the following mutations would you expect to cause the

most drastic alteration in the functional performance of a
polypeptide
chain? (Assuming the replacement is not at the active site)
A. Replacement of cysteine with alanine.
B. Replacement of valine with leucine.
C. Replacement of aspartic acid with glutamic acid.
D. Replacement of lysine with arginine.
7. The degree of inhibition caused by a competitive inhibitor can

be
decreased by:
A. adding water, thus diluting out the EI complex.
B. increasing the enzyme concentration.
C. increasing the substrate concentration.
D. increasing both the enzyme and inhibitor concentration.
8. A large negative free energy change always indicates all of the

following EXCEPT
A. spontaneity
B. an exergonic reaction
C. an equilibrium constant greater than one
D. a exothermic reaction
E. at equilibrium, the concentration of reactants is less
than the products
9. An essential element of the alpha-helical structure of proteins

is
A. disulfide bonds.
B. hydrogen bonds perpendicular to the axis.
C. salt links.
D. hydrogen bonds randomly placed.
E. hydrogen bonds parallel to the axis.
10. Isozymes are

A. enzyme molecules from which their cofactors have been
removed.
B. molecules synthesized from different genes which
catalyze
the same enzymatic reaction.
C. inactive enzyme molecules which become activated by
limited proteolytic attack.
D. molecules with a common ancestral gene which have 258
evolved
through divergent evolution into enzymes which catalyze
different reactions.
E. an isolated enzyme that was modified by the purification
procedure
11. Which of the amino acids below is UNLIKELY to be involved in the

reaction mechanism at the active site of an enzyme?
A. alanine
B. serine
C. cysteine
D. histidine
E. aspartic acid
12. If a buffer of a weak acid of given pK is prepared containing a

concentration of 10 mM acid, and the sodium salt of the acid at
a
concentration of 1 mM, the pH of the solution will be close to
A. pK minus 2.
B. pK minus 1.
C. pK.
D. pK plus 1.
E. pK plus 2.
13. Each of the following lipid types is a membrane constituent

EXCEPT
which one?
A. sphingolipids
B. phospholipids
C. gangliosides
D. triglycerides
E. cholesterol
14. Two enzymes from 2 different organisms catalyze the same

reaction.
It may be expected that the two enzymatically catalyzed
reactions will
have in common one of the following properties
A. pH optimum
B. temperature optimum
C. kinetics of heat inactivation
D. equilibrium constant for the reaction
E. Vmax values
15. The reagent DIPF (Diisopropylphosphofluoridate) is used to

A. identify the amino terminal residues of peptides and
proteins.
B. inactivate "serine hydrolases".
C. cross link the sulfhydryl groups of cysteines.
D. react with tryptophan.
E. quantitate amino acids by developing a yellow color.
16. The influence of pH on the rate of enzymatic reactions may be a

result of:
A. a requirement that the substrate be in a definite ionic
form.
B. a requirement for specific ionic groups on the enzyme
protein for substrate binding.
C. a requirement for specific protonated groups on the
enzyme
for acid-base catalysis
D. all of the above.
E. A and B only.
17. Hemoglobin contains four polypeptide chains per molecule. As

individual items, and with no other information, the best 259
evidence for
this conclusion is
A. hemoglobin contains four iron atoms per molecule.
B. a molecule of hemoglobin binds four atoms of oxygen.
C. hemoglobin crystallizes in the cubic crystal form.
D. the molecular weight of hemoglobin is 64,000.
E. there are four N-terminal valine residues per molecule
of
hemoglobin.
18. All of the following effects may occur in enzyme catalysis

EXCEPT
which one?
A. Stabilization of transition states occurring between
substrates and products.
B. General acid and base catalysis.
C. Lowering of the free energy of products, making a
forward
reaction thermodynamically more favorable.
D. Nucleophilic covalent catalysis, creating intermediates
not possible in an uncatalyzed reaction.
E. Local concentration effects the orienting of substrate
in
configurations favorable to catalysis by reactive groups
on an enzyme.
19. Specific activity of an enzyme refers to:

A. the ratio of units of enzyme activity (initial rate in
the
presence of excess substrate) to the weight of protein
in
a given preparation.
B. the catalytic activity of an enzyme under Vmax
conditions.
C. the amount of enzyme transforming 1 mole of substrate
per
second under standard conditions.
D. the ratio of the activity of an enzyme in an "unknown"
sample to that of a standard or "known" sample under
identical conditions.
E. the activity of an enzyme under specific conditions of
first-order kinetics.

true
EXCEPT:
A. they are generally comprised of 2 or more polypeptide
chains.
B. their activities are often controlled through feedback
inhibition.
C. the catalytic site of the enzyme may occur on a
different
D. plots of reaction vate vs substrate concentration are
often sigmoid shaped
E. the apparent Km of an enzyme for its substrate is
usually
increased by a positive allosteric modulator.
21. The enzyme ribonuclease when reduced with beta-mercaptoethanol

in
the presence of 8M urea, lost the enzyme activity. Removal of
urea and
exposure to air at neutral pH restored the activity indicating
that
A. ribonuclease is made up of many subunits. 260
B. the overall conformation is produced spontaneously
and
disulfide bonds are essential for normal activity of the
enzyme.
C. urea produced conformational changes in the protein
which
were reversed by atmospheric oxygen.
D. the enzyme requires oxygen for its activity.
E. a chaperone must have been present during reactivation.
22. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase, an enzyme, has an altered

electrophoretic mobility at pH 8.6 caused by the mutation of a
valine
residue to which of the following amino acids?
A. asparagine
B. glutamate
C. isoleucine
D. methionine
E. serine
23. Which of the following groups of amino acid residues might be

phosphorylated in a membrane receptor?
A. threonine and cysteine
B. aspartic acid and cysteine
C. serine and tyrosine
D. tyrosine and cysteine
E. methionine and cysteine
24. Which of the following statements about secondary structure is

not
true?
A. beta-strands in a beta-pleated sheet can be either
parallel or anti-parallel in orientation
B. hydrogen bonding is important in the structure of an
alpha-helix
C. R-groups of hydrophobic amino acids in an alpha-helix
orient towards the inside of the helix.
D. glycine is commonly found in reverse turns
E. the collagen triple helix is not an -helix
25. Kinetically, an irreversible inhibitor resembles:

A. a competitive inhibitor because Km increases and Vmax
remains constant.
B. a competitive inhibitor because Km appears to be the
same
but Vmax decreases.
C. a non-competitive inhibitor because Km appears to be the
same but Vmax decreases.
D. a non-competitive inibitor because Km increases and Vmax
stays the same.
E. an uncompetitive inhibitor because both Km and Vmax
appear
to decrease.
26. Which of the following groups of amino acids would be most

likely
be exposed on the outside of a globular protein?
A. Ala, Gly, Phe
B. Leu, Met, Ile
C. Asp, Thr, Ser
D. Val, Trp, Leu
E. Ala, Leu, Phe
27. Which of the following statements about amino acids is true?

A. histidine absorbs UV light at 280nm 261
B. the R side chain of asparagine is basic with a pKa
around
10.5
C. methionine can be oxidized to for disulfide bridges
D. cystine is the oxidized form of cysteine
E. glycine and proline are the only ones of the 20
"standard"
amino acids that do not display stereospecificity
28. Calculate the approximate net charge on the peptide Asn-Gly-His

at
pH=6
alpha-COOH = 3 beta or gamma-COOH = 4.5
alpha-NH3+ = 8 epsilon amino = 10.5
imidazolyl = 6.0 guanidinium = 12.5
sulfhydryl = 8.0 tyrosyl = 10.0
A. +1
B. +½
C. 0
D. -½
E. -1
29. Which of the following statements about the structure of

peptides
is not true?
A. the peptide bond is rigid and planar
B. the amide hydrogen is able to form H-bonds
C. the synthesis of the peptide bond requires the input
chemical energy
D. the psi and phi angles of the alpha-carbon are limited
because of steric hindrance
E. the peptide bond is most often in the cis orientation
30. During the generation of monoclonal antibodies, lymphocytes are

fused with what type of cells to generate immortalized
immunoglobulin
secreting cells?
A. myeloma cells
B. epithelial cells
C. macrophages
D. T-lymphocytes
E. HAT cells
1997: Exam 2
BIOCHEMISTRY 520
Examination #2 - September 5, 1997
PART I. (56 points)

or
case.
1. Which of the following is common to both fatty acid oxidation

and 262
synthesis?
A. FAD
B. NADPH
C. subcellular location
D. acetyl CoA
E. malonyl CoA
2. The most direct source of acetyl CoA for use in de novo

synthesis
of palmitoyl CoA is
A. cytosolic citrate
B. beta-hydroxy butyrate
C. cytosolic fatty acyl CoA
D. pyruvate
E. mitochondrial acetyl CoA
3. A patient has a blood pH of 7.1. If her [HCO3-] is 20 mM, what

is
the concentration of [CO2 + H2CO3] in her blood? (pKa = 6.1 for
carbonic acid)
A. 0.2 mM
B. 2.0 mM
C. 20.0 mM
D. 200 mM
4. The uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation found in the brown

fat
mitochondria of a newborn infant might be of physiological
importance
because
A. it allows ATP formation
B. it produces water.
C. it increases CO2 in the blood.
D. it produced heat.
E. it raises the oxygen level in the blood.
5. A nonconservative point mutation of an enzyme might result in a

change in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. migration on nondenaturing gel electrophoresis
B. migration on SDS-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
C. Km of the enzyme
D. primary structure
E. tertiary structure
6. In the electron transport scheme below, which electron carrier

is
missing
NADH --> FMNH2 --> ?? ---> cytochromes ---> O2
A. vitamin K
B. vitamin C
C. ferridoxin
D. ubiquinone (coenzyme Q)
E. NADPH
7. Which one of the following enzymes is involved in the

mobilization
of fatty acids from triacyglyerol stores in adipose tissue?
A. pancreatic lipase
B. lipoprotein lipase
C. hormone-sensitive lipase
D. phospholipase A2
E. carnitine acyltransferase
8. For active transport across a membrane 263

A. ATP hydrolysis is always directly involved in the
process.
B. the transported molecule can be "pumped" in either
C. energy is required to move the transported molecule
D. the process is influenced by the relative concentrations
of the transported molecule but is always independent of
the membrane potential.
specific interaction between the transporter and its
substrate.
9. A deficiency in pyruvate carboxylase leads to a decrease in

cellular
A. acetyl CoA
B. TCA cycle intermediates
C. lactate
D. biotin
E. alanine
10. The Cori cycle involves the metabolism of lactic acid primarily
in
A. the liver.
B. skeletal muscle.
C. both A and B.
D. neither A nor B.
11. Inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase has which

following effects?
A. lactic acidosis
B. increases the rate of acetyl CoA synthesis from pyruvate
C. increases the rate of the TCA cycle
D. forms reactive oxygen species
E. increase phosphorylation of the insulin receptor
12. In muscle, epinephrine activates phospholipase C which in turn

increases cellular levels of
A. GTP and cAMP
B. phosphodiesterase
C. inositol triphosphate and diacylglycerol
D. phosphoprotein phosphatase
E. phosphatidyl choline
13. Which of the following statements most closely describes the

mechanism of insulin enhanced uptake of glucose into muscle
cells?
A. Insulin stimulates the increased transport of glucose by
a
fixed number of GLUT glucose transporters.
B. Insulin stimulates the increased transport of glucose by
increasing the number of GLUT transporters at the cell
surface.
C. Insulin stimulates the increased transport of glucose by
decreasing the Km of the GLUT glucose transporter.
D. Insulin stimulates the increased transport of glucose by
increasing the Km of the GLUT glucose transporter.
E. Insulin does not affect the import of glucose into
muscle
cells.
14. Which of the following coenzymes is not required for

alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase activity?
A. coenzyme A
B. thiamine pyrophosphate
C. NAD+ 264
D. FAD
E. ATP
15. In rapidly dividing cells, which of the following events is most
likely to occur?
A. The pentose phosphate pathway would be inactive.
B. The pentose phosphate pathway would produce
ribose-5-phosphate for nucleotide synthesis.
C. The pentose phosphate pathway would produce only NADPH
and
regenerate glycolytic intermediates by sugar
interconversions.
D. Hexose monophosphates would be shunted from glycolysis
into glycogen synthesis.
E. Pentose phosphate intermediates would be primarily used
for gluconeogenesis.
16. The genetic defect in galactose metabolism, galactosemia, is

most
often a defect in one of which two enzymes?
A. hexokinase and galactose-1-P uridyltransferase
B. UDP-glucose-4-epimerase and galactose-1-P
uridyltransferase
C. hexokinase and galactokinase
D. galactokinase and galactose-1-P uridyltransferase
E. hexokinase and phosphoglucomutase
17. Which of the following statements about the location of glycogen

metabolism is most accurate?
A. Highest levels of glycogen metabolism occur in the red
muscle fibers.
B. Glycogen synthesis occurs in the cytosol and glycogen
breakdown occur in the mitochondrial matrix.
C. Glycogen synthesis occurs in the mitochondrial matrix
and
glycogen breakdown occurs in the cytosol.
D. Glycogen metabolism occurs in the cytosol.
E. Glycogen is stored as dense granules in the sarcoplasmic
reticulum.
18. A hemolytic episode that occured in a patient after ingestion of

a
salad containing fava beans is most likely to be a result
because the
patient has a genetic mutation in which of the following
enzymes?
A. transketolase
B. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
C. pyruvate dehydrogenase
D. catalase
E. glutathione
19. All of the following statements about fatty acids are true
EXCEPT:
A. Linolenic acid must be obtained from the diet.
B. Cis-desaturation of fatty acids requires O2.
C. The fatty acid synthase contains seven different
polypeptides.
D. Elongation of fatty acids past 16 carbons can occur in
the
endoplasmic reticulum.
E. The acyl carrier protein contains a prosthetic group
derived from pantothenic acid.
20. Which Krebs cycle intermediate helps to regulate the overall

rate 265
of glycolysis by direct influence on the activity of
phosphofructokinase?
A. citrate
B. succinate
D. oxaloacetate
E. malate
21. The NET products of anaerobic glycolysis are

A. pyruvate, NAD, ATP
B. lactate, NAD, ATP
C. lactate, ATP
D. acetyl-CoA, NADH, ATP
E. pyruvate, ATP
22. The carnitine esters of fatty acids carry fatty acyl groups
A. in the plasma.
B. across the plasma membrane.
C. during fatty acid biosynthesis.
D. into the mitochondrial matrix.
E. out of the mitochondrial matrix for biosynthesis of
triacylglycerols.
23. In liver cells, substrate-level phosphorylation may be

differentiated from mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation in
that all substrate-level phosphorylation
A. can continue in the presence of dinitrophenol.
B. requires inorganic phosphate.
C. forms GTP as the immediate product.
D. requires a proton gradient.
E. is characterized by all of the above.
24. All of the following metabolites are oxidized by an NAD-linked

enzyme in liver cells EXCEPT
A. isocitrate.
B. malate.
C. lactate.
D. succinate.
E. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
25. Which of the following properties is characteristic of

glucokinase?
A. lower Km for glucose than hexokinase
B. catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose on the #1
carbon
C. is inhibited by glucose 6-phosphate
D. is found primarily in the liver
26. Reducing equivalents generated during glycolysis in a normal

liver
cell
A. enter the mitochondria as protons.
B. are used in the pentose phosphate pathway.
C. are transported into mitochondria in the form of malate.
D. enter the mitochondria as reduced glutathione.
E. enter the mitochondria directly as NADH.
27. In the following pathway for conversion of glucose to glycogen,

what is compound X?
glucose--> glucose 6-P--> X --> UDP-glucose --> glycogen
A. glucose 6-pyrophosphate
B. glucose 1-phosphate
C. glucose 1,2-bisphosphate
D. fructose 6-phosphate 266
E. no intermediate is missing.
28. All of the following are gluconeogenic enzymes EXCEPT
A. glucose 6-phosphatase.
B. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase.
C. phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)-carboxykinase.
E. pyruvate dehydrogenase.
1997: Exam 3
BIOCHEMISTRY 520
Examination #3 - September 22, 1997
PART I. (60 points)

or
case.
1. The oxidation of ethanol occurs primarily

A. via the MEOS system in the liver.
B. via the MEOS system of various tissues.
C. via cytosolic alcohol dehydrogenase and mitochondrial
aldehyde dehydrogenase in the liver.
D. via cytosolic alcohol dehydrogenase and mitochondrial
aldehyde dehydrogenase of muscle.
E. via catalase in liver.
2. Compounds derived from beta-OH-beta-methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG

CoA)
include
A. male steroid hormones
B. cholesterol
C. bile acids
D. glucose
E. ketone bodies
3. Each of the following enzymes is involved in the synthesis of

serine from glucose EXCEPT
A. phosphofructokinase
B. aldolase
C. phosphoserine phosphatase
D. pyruvate kinase
4. The carbons of cysteine are derived from

A. threonine
B. serine
C. leucine
D. methionine
5. The principal nitrogenous urinary excretion product in humans

resulting from the catabolism of AMP is
A. creatinine
B. urea
C. uric acid
D. NH4+
E. thymine 267
6. The conversion of propionyl CoA to succinyl CoA requires
A. biotin
B. vitamin B12
C. biotin and vitamin B12
D. biotin, vitamin B12, and tetrahydrofolate
7. Pregnant women frequently suffer from folate deficiencies. A

deficiency of folate would decrease the production of
A. creatine phosphate from creatine
B. all of the pyrimidines required for RNA synthesis
C. the thymine nucleotide required for DNA synthesis
D. phosphatidyl choline from diacylglycerol and CDP-choline
8. Compared to a healthy person, a person with pernicious anemia

A. produces less intrinsic factor
B. excretes less methylmalonic acid in the urine
C. requires less methionine in the diet
D. has a higher rate of purine biosynthesis
E. has lower blood levels of FIGLU
9. The plasma and urine of patients with maple syrup urine disease
contain elevated levels of each of the following amino acids
EXCEPT
A. valine
B. leucine
C. lysine
D. isoleucine
10. In biological systems, which compound mediates transfer

reactions
A. S-adenosyl methionine.
B. pyridoxal phosphate.
D. vitamin K.
E. biotin.
11. The nucleotide that is used to activate choline for transfer to

1,2-diacyglycerol for lecithin synthesis is:
A. ATP
B. GTP
C. CTP
D. UTP
E. TTP

A. malonyl CoA
B. oxaloacetate
C. lactate
D. acetyl CoA
E. alanine
13. An amino acid from which no net glucose can be synthesized is

A. serine
B. alanine
C. leucine
D. arginine
E. glutamine
14. A major difference between chylomicrons and VLDL particles is

that
A. The major lipid component of chylomicrons is
triglycerides 268
while the major lipid component of VLDL is
cholesterol esters
chylomicrons while hormone sensitive lipase removes them
from
VLDL
C. Chylomicrons carry triglycerides assembled in the
carries
triglycerides primarily synthesized by the liver
D. Chylomicrons carry triglycerides away from the liver
while
VLDL primarily returns them to the liver from other
tissues
15. The major site quantitatively of cholesterol biosynthesis in the

human is
B. gall bladder
C. pancreas
D. adrenal gland
E. liver

A. directly inhibiting the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase
B. inhibiting synthesis of folate
C. directly inhibiting the enzyme thymidylate synthase
D. blocking absorption of vitamin B12
E. inhibiting oxidation of folic acid

If
the defect involved a mutation resulting in a decreased Km of
the
defective enzyme, which of the following vitamins in megadoses
could
possibly alleviate the symptoms?
A. vitamin B12
B. folic acid
C. biotin
D. thiamine
E. vitamin B6 (pyridoxamine)
18. Removal of the chief metabolite of cholesterol from the body

with
cholestyramine is used in the treatment of hypercholesterolemia.
Therapy is directed toward the elimination of
A. ketone bodies
B. cortisol
C. progesterone
D. bile salts
E. acetyl CoA
19. A deficiency of which one of the following enzymes leads to

diarrhea and failure to thrive in newborns owing to inadequate
cleavage
of trypsinogen to trypsin in the intestinal lumen?
A. carboxypeptidase A
B. enterokinase (enteropeptidase)
C. furin
D. leucine aminopeptidase
E. pepsin
20. Respiratory Distress Syndrome in premature newborns is caused

by 269
A. sphingomyelin
B. gangliosides
C. triacylglycerols
D. phosphatidylcholine
E. prostaglandins
21. A person with an LDL-receptor deficiency was treated with

lovastatin. As a consequence of the action of this drug, the
person
should have:
A. fewer LDL receptors in cell membranes
B. increased de novo cholesterol synthesis
C. increased ACAT activity
D. lower blood cholesterol levels
E. higher blood triacylglycerol levels
22. All of the following are consequences of alcohol consumption

EXCEPT:
A. increased cytosolic NADH levels
B. increased mitochondrial NADH levels
C. increased gluconeogenesis from lactate
D. fatty liver if the consumption is chronic
E. increased activity of the malate-aspartate and
alpha-glycerol phosphate "shuttles"
23. Patients with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome have a tendency towards

periodic aggressive behavior, including self-mutilation (e.g.
biting
through lip, etc.), besides having problems with gout. Lesch-
Nyhan
syndrome is due to a mutation in:
A. xanthine oxidase
B. de novo biosynthesis of purines
C. de novo biosynthesis of pyrimidines
D. salvage pathway for purines
E. salvage pathway for pyrimidines
24. Diabetes mellitus could be caused by:

1. Insufficient secretion of insulin
2. antibodies to pancreatic beta-cells
(autoimmune disease)
3. glucokinase mutation
4. ineffective insulin receptors
A. 1,2, and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. all 4 are correct
25. The initial step in the biosynthesis of both pyrimidines and

urea
involves the formation of
A. carbamoyl phosphate
B. argininosuccinate
C. orotic acid
D. ornithine
E. carbamoyl aspartate
26. All of the following are considered essential amino acids

EXCEPT:
A. threonine
B. proline 270
C. leucine
D. lysine
E. tryptophan
27. Which of the following reactions does NOT involve pyridoxal

phosphate as coenzyme?
A. alanine aminotransferase
B. glutaminase
C. glutmate-oxaloacetate transaminase
D. cystathionase
E. cystationine synthetase
28. The end product of purine metabolism in a person taking

allopurinol is which of the following?
A. PRPP
B. xanthine
C. urate
D. GMP
E. cytosine
29. Which of the following is considered a non-essential amino acid,

but requires an essential amino acid for its synthesis?
A. methionine
B. alanine
C. serine
D. tryptophan
E. tyrosine
30. The enzyme that oxidatively releases NH3 from an amino acid,
generating NADH in the process, is called
A. serine dehydratase
B. aspartate aminotransferase
C. glutamic dehydrogenase
D. glutaminase
E. glutamine synthetase
ANSWERS:
1C 2D 3D 4B 5C 6C 7C 8A 9C
10C 11C 12A 13C 14C 15E 16A 17D 18D
19B 20D 21D 22C 23D 24E 25A 26B 27B
28B 29E 30C
1997: Exam 4
BIOCHEMISTRY 520
Exam #4 - October 7, 1997
PART I. (60 points)

or
case.
1. Semiconservative replication of DNA means that after two rounds

of
replication
A. only one of the two parental strands is preserved intact
in the progeny molecules of DNA.
B. both parental strands remain intact in one of the 271
progeny
molecules of DNA.
C. the two parental strands remain intact in different
progeny molecules.
D. one of the parental strands is broken down and dispersed
in one of the progeny molecules of DNA, the other
parental
strand remains intact in one of the progeny molecules.
E. neither of the parental strands appears in the progeny
molecules of DNA.
2. If a sample of mRNA is 30 mole % G, the mole % A

A. is greater than 30.
B. is less than 30.
C. cannot be ascertained from this information.
D. is also 30.
3. The "signal sequence" for secreted proteins

A. contains a high proportion of hydrophilic amino acids.
B. is found at the carboxy terminus of the protein.
C. is clipped off by a protease inside the endoplasmic
reticulum.
D. is added on to the nascent chain by the ribosome.
E. is a non-translated leader sequence on mRNA.
4. Regarding nucleosome structure, which of the following

statements
is correct?
A. Nucleosomes are spherical structures comprised of RNA,
nonhistone proteins and histone proteins.
B. The major histones comprising nucleosomes are H1 and H4.
C. Nucleosomes permit efficient packing of DNA to about one
seventh its normal length.
D. The histone associated with the DNA in the linker region
holding nucleosomes is called H2A.
E. All of the above.
5. All of the following will inhibit, either directly or

indirectly,
cytoplasmic protein synthesis in human liver EXCEPT
A. alpha-amanitin.
B. cycloheximide.
C. puromycin.
D. actinomycin
E. chloramphenicol.
6. There is redundancy (degeneracy) in the genetic code. This

means
that
A. DNA is unstable.
B. codons frequently change.
C. multiple codons can code for a single amino acid.
D. multiple amino acids are coded for by a single codon.
E. alcoholism and drug abuse are inherited characteristics.
7. The various tRNA molecules contain a relatively high percentage

of
methyl groups which have been added to nitrogen atoms of the
bases in
the post-transcriptional modification of the tRNA precursors.
The most
likely direct source of these methyl groups is
A. methyl-tetrahydrofolate.
B. methylene-tetrahydrofolate.
C. S-adenosylmethionine. 272
D. trimethylglycine.
E. methionine.
8. All of the following reactions are involved in the formation of
a
fully functional tRNA from precursor tRNA in a eukaryotic cell
EXCEPT
A. removal of extra nucleotide sequences from the 5' end of
the precursor molecule.
B. addition of a short poly A sequence to the 3' end.
C. addition of the sequence CCA to the 3' end.
D. removal of extra nucleotide sequences from the 3' end of
the precursor molecule.
E. modification of individual bases in the tRNA molecule.
9. Which of the following DOES NOT play a role in prokaryotic

replication?
A. DNA ligase
B. reverse transcriptase
C. DNA helicase
D. primase
E. DNA polymerase I
10. The mRNA coding for the beta polypeptide chain of hemoglobin
(beta
mRNA) can accommodate six ribosomes. Which of the following is
true for
this polyribosome complex?
A. All six ribosomes are cooperating to form one beta
polypeptide chain.
B. The entire polyribosome can bind only six tRNAs.
C. The 60s subunit of one ribosome and the 40s subunit of
another may later be bound to each other on another
mRNA.
D. The ribosome nearest the 5' end of the beta mRNA is
carrying a larger portion of a beta polypeptide chain
than is
the ribosome nearest the 3' end.
11. What is the function of the 3' to 5' exonuclease activity of

bacterial DNA polymerases?
A. removes mismatched bases during replication
B. removes pyrimidine dimers
C. removes the RNA primers of Okazaki fragments
D. initiates mRNA synthesis
E. processes precursors of ribosomal RNA
12. Which of the following statements about RNA is correct?

A. The kind of RNA which in the free form has the greatest
percentage of specific, tertiary structure is mRNA.
B. rRNA binds with phospholipids to form ribosomal
subunits.
C. tRNA molecules are relatively small, generally
containing
less than 100 nucleotides.
D. Like DNA, RNA in animal cells is often found in
double-stranded, duplex structures.
E. RNA, in contrast to DNA, is found only in the cytoplasm
of
cells.
13. During the process of peptide chain elongation, the growing

peptide chain
A. is linked to the mRNA.
B. is linked to the ribosomal RNA.
C. is not linked at all to any RNA. 273
D. is linked to the 3'-OH of the adenosine terminal
nucleoside of tRNA.
14. Genetic information has so far been shown to flow in each of the
following directions EXCEPT which one?
A. RNA -> DNA
B. DNA -> RNA
C. DNA -> protein
D. protein -> DNA
E. RNA -> protein
15. An antibiotic was added to a prokaryotic in vitro translation

reaction directed by the synthetic mRNA AUGCCCCCCCCC. The
product
formed had the sequence fMET-PRO, and remained bound to the
ribosome.
The intermediate event that is inhibited is
A. activity of peptidyl transferase.
B. binding of amino acyl tRNA to ribosome.
C. initiation of translation.
D. translocation step which requires GTP.
E. termination of peptide chains.
16. The activation of amino acids for protein synthesis requires

A. one enzyme which activates all the amino acids.
B. one enzyme for forming amino acyl adenylates and one
forming amino acyl tRNA.
C. several enzymes and DNA.
D. a different enzyme for each of the twenty amino acids
used
to make proteins.
E. a series of enzymes each with a broad specificity for
amino acids of similar structure.
17. The degree of homology between DNA from two organisms can most
accurately be determined by
A. base composition.
B. comparing melting curves.
C. density measurements.
D. hybridization.
18. All of the following statements regarding the Watson-Crick "B"

form of DNA are true EXCEPT
A. two chains are coiled around a common axis forming a
right-handed helix.
B. there are 10 base pairs per turn.
C. the bases are found on the outside of the helix and the
sugar phosphate backbone on the inside.
D. the two chains run in opposite directions.
E. adenine is always paired with thymine, guanine with
cytosine.
19. A eukaryotic cell unable to synthesize small nuclear RNA (snRNA)

would
A. be unable to process tRNA precursors.
B. be unable to splice mRNA precursors.
C. have defective ribosomes.
D. be unable to initiate RNA synthesis at the proper sites.
20. Enzymes that catalyze stepwise hydrolysis of mononucleotides

from
one end of a polynucleotide chain are
A. polymerases.
B. endonucleases.
C. ligases.
D. exonucleases. 274
E. nickases.
21. DNA can always be distinguished from RNA because
A. DNA is larger.
B. DNA contains uracil, whereas RNA contains thymine.
C. the phosphodiester bond in DNA is stable to alkali,
whereas that in RNA is sensitive to alkali.
D. DNA is in the nucleus, whereas RNA is in the cytoplasm.
E. nucleases attack DNA, but not RNA.
22. Which of the following types of lipid anchors for proteins is

most
likely to be affected by the action of a phospholipase?
A. PGI anchors
B. palmitoylation
C. farnesylation
D. geranylgeranylation
E. myristoylation
23. What enzyme(s) or enzyme complex is responsible for the

degradation of ubiquitinated proteins?
A. cathepsins
B. zymogens
C. proteasome
D. ribosome
E. chymotrypsinogen
24. Which of the following statements describing the signal

recognition particle (SRP) is not true?
A. the SRP is composed of proteins and RNA
B. SRP is located in the nucleus
C. SRP binding arrests translation
D. SRP is bound by the docking protein on the endoplasmic
reticulum
E. SRP binds to the signal peptide of secretory
polypeptides
during their synthesis
25. The N-linked carbohydrate is transferred to protein from what

lipid donor?
A. farnesyl-PP
B. geranylgeranyl-PP
C. dolichol-PP
D. glycogennin
E. UDP
26. Secretory proteins are sorted and packaged into secretory

vesicles
by what cellular organelle?
A. endosome
B. lysosome
C. rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. trans Golgi network (TGN)
E. ribosome
27. Which of the following targetting mechanisms involves vesicle

mediated transport?
A. transport of newly synthesized proteins to the nucleus
B. transport of newly synthesized proteins to the
mitochondrial matrix from the cytosol
C. transport of newly synthesized lysosomal enzymes
D. transport of mRNA out of the nucleus
28. In E. coli, biosynthesis of tryptophan can be repressed. The

repressor protein of the tryptophan operon
A. is activated by the binding of tryptophan. 275
B. is inactivated by the binding of tryptophan.
C. is not affected by tryptophan.
D. is activated by the binding of free tRNA.
E. is only synthesized in the presence of tryptophan.
29. The nucleolus is the site of

A. messenger RNA synthesis.
B. protein synthesis.
C. ribosomal RNA synthesis.
D. spindle fiber attachment.
E. tRNA synthesis.
30. What wll be the effect of a single base pair deletion at the 3'
splice sequence of intron #1 coding for a certain protein?
A. a protein with a single amino acid substitution in its
center
B. the gene will not be transcribed and no protein will be
produced
C. a mutant protein larger than the wild type
D. a mutant protein smaller than the wild type
E. DNA polymerase will repair the damage
ANSWERS:
1C 2C 3C 4C 5E 6C 7C 8B 9B
10C 11A 12C 13D 14D 15D 16D 17D 18C
19B 20D 21C 22A 23C 24B 25C 26D 27C
28A 29C 30D
1997: Exam 5
PART I. (60 points)

is
best in each case.
1. Fiber in the diet is said to have negative nutritive value

because:
A. it increases mobility in the bowel.
B. it decreases the absorption of some nutrients in the
gut.
C. it decreases the generation of carcinogenic derivatives
of
bile salts.
D. it is composed of undigestible cell wall materials.
E. it doesn't taste very good.
2. The RDA levels for which of the following vitamins was recently
increased in order to address deficiencies in pregnant women
which
might lead to fetal neural tube defects?
A. vitamin B12
B. folate
C. riboflavin
D. niacin
E. tocopherol
3. The absence of meat and dairy in the vegan diet helps to lower
fat
and cholesterol intake making it a quite healthy lifestyle. 276
However,
vegans should be careful to monitor their intake of which of the
following vitamins which is absent in fruits and vegetables?
A. beta-carotene
B. folate
C. vitamin B12
D. vitamin C
E. vitamin K
4. Dietary supplements available at nutrition stores are of

questionable value healthwise. However, some supplements have
some
efficiacy. Which of the following statements about dietary
supplements is not true?
A. Chromium may enhance insulin action in type II diabetic
patients.
B. Carnitine is required for the synthesis of fatty acids
in
the liver.
C. DHEA is a precursor to the sex hormone testosterone.
D. Creatine is used in muscle for the storage of high
energy
phospho-anhydride bonds.
E. Melatonin may be useful as a sleeping aid.
5. Mutation of the gene encoding the hormone leptin results in

obesity in mice. However, most obese humans have normal levels
of
circulating leptin. Which of the following reasons best
explains this
apparent discrepancy.
A. Leptin has no role in metabolism in humans.
B. Obese humans may be resistant to leptin action.
C. Leptin is metabolized faster in obese people.
D. The leptin receptor is only expressed in the brain of
obese people.
E. The leptin receptor is not expressed in the brain of
obese
people.
6. Clinical trials for gene therapy of cystic fibrosis have

recently
begun. Many of these protocols employ which of the following
types
of gene therapy?
A. Somatic cell therapy using adenovirus vectors containing
the CFTR gene.
B. Germ line therapy using adenovirus vectors containing
the
CFTR gene.
C. Immuno-gene therapy using antisera directed to the CFTR
protein.
D. Bronchoscopes used to deliver antisera to the CFTR
receptor.
E. Bronchoscopes used to deliver the CFTR receptor itself.
7. Which of the following statements about melatonin is not true?

A. Melatonin is metabolized by the monoamine oxidase
system.
B. Melatonin is produced in the pineal gland.
C. Melatonin is a peptide hormone generated from the
polyprotein POMC.
D. Melatonin levels vary according to a circadian rhythm.
E. Melatonin levels may be affected by exposure to
sunlight. 277
8. Which of the following is not contained within the HIV-1 virion?
A. reverse transcriptase
B. integrase
C. protease
D. DNA
E. RNA
9. The drug 5-fluorouracil is often used to treat colon cancer.

The
mechanism of action of 5- fluorouracil is
A. inhibits topoisomerase I activity.
B. inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.
C. inhibits tyrosine kinase activity.
D. inhibits thymidylate synthase activity.
E. stimulates the productin of interleukin-1.
10. Clinical treatment of myocardial infarcts in the emergency room

can make use of each of the following for an immediate response
EXCEPT:
A. coumarin
B. tissue plasminogen activator
C. urokinase
D. streptokinase
E. heparin
11. Hyaluronidase, chondroitin sulfate, dermatan sulfate and heparin

contain a repeating disaccharide unit composed of
A. two glucoses
B. a glucose and a fructose
C. N-acetylneuraminic acid and galactose
D. a uronic acid and an amino sugar
E. galactose and an amino sugar
12. A person whose bile duct is blocked might experience a

deficiency
in
A. niacin
B. riboflavin
C. vitamin E
D. thiamine
E. vitamin B12
13. In striated muscle which protein directly binds Ca++ to trigger

contraction?
A. tropomyosin
B. troponin C
C. actin
D. myosin
E. dystrophin
14. The following are TRUE statements concerning catecholamines

EXCEPT:
A. Dopamine cannot pass the blood brain barrier and is
form
of DOPA.
B. The synthesis of epinephrine from phenylalanine requires
tetrahydrobiopterin and SAM as cofactors.
C. Synthesis of epinephrine and norepinephrine takes place
in the adrenal medulla.
D. The same enzyme hydroxylates both phenylalanine and
tyrosine.
E. Catabolism of catecholamines involves oxidative removal
of
the amino groups by monoamineoxidase (MAO) and 278
methylation of
OH-groups by catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT).
15. All of the following statements about glutathione are correct
EXCEPT:
A. In the absence of reduced glutathione, damage to red
cell
membranes results.
B. NADPH is necessary to keep glutathione in the reduced
state.
C. Reduced glutathione functions in red cells in part to
remove peroxides.
D. Glutathione is unusual in that it is a cyclic
tripeptide.
E. Oxidized glutathione consists of six amino acid
residues,
and it contains a disulfide bridge.
16. Plasmin generates

A. fibrin
B. Factor Xa
C. Factor XIIIa.
D. fibrin fragments
E. thrombin
17. All of the following statements regarding the metabolism of

drugs
are true EXCEPT which one?
A. Phase I metabolism is frequently required to provide
groups functional in conjugation reactions.
B. Phase I metabolism may result in the formation of
reactive
intermediates capable of causing cell injury.
C. Phase I metabolism results generally in an increase of
the
hydrophobicity of the parent molecule.
D. Conjugation reactions associated with Phase II
metabolism
enhance the hydrophilicity of drug molecules.
E. Many enzymes involved in Phase I and Phase II metabolism
exist in multiple forms and are inducible by certain
drugs and
xenobiotics.
18. Many human cancers involve mutant P53 genes. Which of the
following is incorrect about P53?
A. It normally inhibits a cell in G1.
B. The mutation results in a gain of function.
C. It is referred to as a tumor suppressor gene.
D. The gene product normally acts as a transcription
factor.
E. It activates P21 which in turn inhibits cyclic/cdk
complexes.
19. A copper deficient diet would cause collagen and elastin to be

defective because of diminished activity of which of the
following
enzymes?
A. lysyl hydroxylase
B. prolyl hydroxylase
C. procollagen peptidase
D. protease
E. lysyl oxidase
20. The formation of biologically active amines from amino acids

requires participation of the coenzyme 279
A. biotin
B. thiamine
C. pyridoxal phosphate
D. NAD+
E. NADP+
21. The ATPase activity involved in striated muscle contraction is

located on the protein
A. myosin
B. actin
C. troponin C
D. tropomyosin
E. myosin light chains
22. In the graph shown above (GRAPH), curve 3 is the oxygen

equilibrium
binding curve of hemoglobin under normal physiological
conditions. If
the pH is decreased from 7.4 to 7.2, which oxygenation curve
would
be obtained for hemoglobin?
A. curve 1
B. curve 2
C. curve 3
D. curve 4
23. The normal storage form of iron in tissues is

A. an iron-transferrin complex.
B. ferritin.
C. hemosiderin.
D. None of the above. Iron is not stored; it must be
supplied daily in the diet.
24. The major regulatory step in the formation of heme by de novo

synthesis is
A. heme oxygenase.
B. cytochrome P450.
C. delta-aminolevulinate synthase.
D. glucuronyl transferase.
E. ferrochelatase.
25. Which of the following is common to heme excretion and drug

detoxification in the liver?
A. decreased levels of cytochrome P450
B. decreased levels of glutathione-S-transferases
C. formation of a glutathione derivative
D. formation of a glucuronide derivative
E. formation of a sulfated derivative
26. All of the following statements about transferrin receptor are

true EXCEPT
A. It is a transmembrane protein.
B. It binds specifically to ferritin.
C. It is taken into the cell by endocytosis.
D. Its mRNA is stabilized by an iron response factor (IRF)
when the iron levels in the cell is low.
E. A drop of pH in the endosome is important for the
release
of iron.
27. A protein found in colon cancer cells that is frequently mutated

is
A. DCC
B. protein kinase A 280
C. protein kinase C
D. src
E. platelet derived growth factor
28. What is the immediate source of the sulfate in chondroitin

sulfate?
A. inorganic sulfate
B. SAM
C. cysteic acid
D. PAPS
E. H2S
29. The antimalarial drug, pamaquine, can cause hemolysis in men

with
mutations in:
A. hexokinase
B. glucose 6-phosphatase
C. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
D. pyruvate kinase
E. cytochrome P450
30. All of the following are true about nitric oxide (NO) EXCEPT:
A. NO is synthesized from arginine by Nitric Oxide
Synthetase.
B. Nitric Oxide Synthetase is activated by cyclic GMP.
C. NO directly activates guanyl cyclase by binding to a
heme
protein.
D. NO causes smooth muscle relaxation.
E. NO is released from nitroglycerin.
BIOCHEMISTRY 520
EXAM 1
August 20, 1998
PART I. (60 points)
Type A. Each of the following statements is followed by five suggested answers or

completions. On the answer sheet, mark the one which is best in each case.
1. Lecithin is which of the following?
A. Phosphatidyl cholin
B. Phosphatidyl serine
C. Phosphatidic acid
D. Sphingomyelin
E. Ganglioside
2. The standard free energy Go' for a reaction is

281
A. less than 1.
B. zero.
C. greater than 1.
D. equal to -RT 1n [Keq].
E. dependent on the concentration of reactants and products
3. Following a myocardial infarction, the blood levels of several

enzymes
become elevated, but a specific diagnosis of MI is best based on
A. LDH-1
B. CK-MM
C. CK-MB
D. Alkaline Phosphatase (AP).
E. Lipase.
4. The maturity of the fetal lung is sometimes assessed by

measurement of which of the following?
A. Phosphatidyl Choline
B. Amylase
C. Creatine Kinase
D. Cholesterol
E. Gangliosides
5. The part of the antigen that is recognized by the antibody is

called
A. The variable region
B. The hypervariable region

282
C. The constant region
D. An epitope
E. The immunoglobulin fold
6. All of the following are true regarding acid-base balance in

humans
EXCEPT:
A. an insulin-dependent diabetic will become acidotic

without
insulin
B. rapid breathing tends to elevate blood pH
C. breathing into a bag tends to decrease blood pH
D. increased reabsorption of bicarbonate ion (HC03-)
by the kidney will increase pH
E. the normal pH in all intracellular and extracellular

cellular compartments is 7.4
7. A solution contained protein A with a pI of six and protein B

whose pI
was nine. At which of the following pH values would both

proteins
migrate to the anode (positive electrode)?
A. pH 4
B. pH 6
C. pH 7
D. pH 9
E. pH 10
283
8. The fluid mosaic model of a membrane includes all of the
following
EXCEPT:
A. movement of proteins within the plane of the membrane
B. proteins which are completely embedded within the lipid

bilayer
C. movement ("flip") of proteins from one side of the

membrane to the other
D. asymmetric distribution of phospholipids
E. amphipathic lipids oriented with their hydrophobic tails
located in the center of the membrane
9. Concerning enzyme catalyzed reactions, all of the following

statements
are true EXCEPT
A. during the course of an enzyme catalyzed reaction an

enzyme-
product complex must exist.
B. enzyme catalyzed reactions show zero order kinetics at

low
substrate concentrations.
C. the maximum velocity of an enzyme catalyzed reaction is

attained
when all of the enzyme exists as an enzyme-substrate

complex.
D. an apoenzyme plus its coenzyme gives a holoenzyme.
E. the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction is maximal at

the pH
optimum of the enzyme.
10. A particular amino group has a pKa of 7.5. What is the ratio of
the concentrations of charged to
uncharged species in a solution at pH 6.5?
A. 100:1 284
B. 10:1
C. 1:1
D. 1:10
E. 1:10
11. The reversible denaturation, under suitable conditions, of

globular
proteins by the chemical guanidine hydrochloride provides

evidence that:
A. hydrogen bonds play little part in protein structures.
B. protein conformation is held together by covalent bonds.
C. hydrophobic interactions play no significant role in

determining
protein conformation.
D. the information specifying final protein conformation is

implicit
in the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chains

of that protein.
12. The phosphorylation of glucose by ATP (ATP + glucose --> ADP +

glucose-6-phosphate) has a
standard free energy change of -4.5 Kcal per mole. The

equilibrium constant for the reaction
A. cannot be determined from the data given.
B. is less than one.
C. is greater than one.
D. changes with the concentration of enzyme.
E. depends on the concentration of ATP.
285
13. The Km for an enzyme is 3 x 10-5 M and the Vmax is 8000 moles of
substrate transformed per minute per mole of enzyme. What is

the initial
velocity of the reaction at a substrate concentration of 3 x

10-5 M
(expressed in moles of substrate transformed per minute per mole

of enzyme)?
A. 16,000
B. 1,600
C. 160
D. 4,000
E. 400
14. In the case of noncompetitive inhibition
A. the inhibitor generally resembles the substrate.
B. the inhibition can be overcome by raising the substrate
concentration.
C. Ki is the concentration of inhibitor required for half

maximal inhibition.
D. a high Ki means that the inhibitor has a high affinity

for
the enzyme.
E. the inhibitor is commonly the product of the enzymatic

reaction.
15. Which of the following properties DOES NOT pertain to peptide

bonds?
A. the bond can be hydrolyzed by proteases

286
B. the bond can be hydrolyzed by strong acids at high
temperatures
C. the peptide bond is planar
D. rotation about the peptide bond is allowed
E. the peptide bond demonstrates electron resonance
16. All of the following contribute to the effectiveness of enzymes

in catalyzing reactions EXCEPT
A. Enzymes increase the effective concentrations of the

reactants.
B. Enzymes provide proper orientation of the reactants.
C. Enzymes can strain certain bonds in reactants.
D. Enzymes can alter the equilibrium constant of a

reaction.
E. Enzymes can lower the energy of activation of a

reaction.
17. The cardiac glycosides such as digoxin and digitalis would cause
which of the following to occcur?
A. increased intracellular Na+
B. decreased extracellular K+
C. decreased intracellular Ca++
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
18. Which of the following enzymes find use primarily as a

diagnostic agent in acute pancreatitis?
A. alpha-amylase
B. alkaline phosphatase
C. lactic dehydrogenase
D. creatine phosphokinase
287
E. troponin I
19. The nerve gas Sarin, an organophosphate compound, would be

expected to inhibit all
of the following enzymes EXCEPT:
A. lysozyme
B. trypsin
C. chymotrypsin
D. blood clotting enzymes
E. acetyl choline esterase
20. The inhibition caused by a non-competitive inhibitor causes

which of the following
alteration(s) in a Lineweaver-Burk plot?
A. no change in the y-intercept, but a decrease in the x-

intercept
B. no change in the y-intercept, but an increase in the x-

intercept
C. no change in the y-intercept, but a decrease in the y-

intercept
D. no change in the x-intercept, but an increase in the y-

intercept
E. increases in both the x- and y-intercepts

correct EXCEPT:
A. a plot of rate of uptake by cells of the pertinent

sustance would be expected
to give a hyperbolic curve

direction across
the membrane

accumulated against a concentration 288
gradient
D. competitive inhibition of the transport is likely to

occur by molecules that
resemble the transported molecule
E. the driving force for the process is entropy
22. All of the following statements about serum lactic acid

dehydrogenase are true EXCEPT:
A. it exists as five different isoenzymes.
B. it consists of identical subunits.
C. different forms of lactic acid dehydrogenase attack the

same substrates but with different
kinetic parameters
D. it gives multiple bands upon electrophoresis.
24. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase has an altered electrophoretic

mobility at pH 8.6 caused by
the mutation of a Val to which of the following amino acids?
A. asn
B. glu
C. ile
D. met
E. ser
25. Why would Bence Jones proteins appear in the urine of a patient
with a myeloma?
A. they are fragments of immunoglobulins over-produced by

the myeloma
B. they represent impaired kidney function

289
C. they are results of a metabolic compensation by the
kidney for acidosis
D. they are pharmaceuticals used to treat myelomas
E. they are endogenous proteins made by the body to combat

myelomas
26. The decrease often seen in the rate of enzyme catalyzed

reactions as the temperature is increased
above 45oC is due to:
A. an increase in the activation energy
B. a change in the equilibrium constant for the reaction
C. a decrease in the activation energy
D. saturation of the enzyme with substrate
E. thermal denaturation of the enzyme

influence enzyme activity by:
A. inducing a conformational change in the enzyme
B. promoting a covalent modification of the enyme
C. binding to the active site of the ezyme
D. reacting with the substrate
E. promoting dephosphorylation of the enzyme
28. Which of the following best describes an ELISA?
A. a method of detecting the location of specific proteins

on an SDS-PAGE
B. an immunoassay which relies on the high specificity and

affinity of immunoglobulins to
detect proteins in fluids.
C. a method of generating large amounts of antibodies

against a single epitope
290
D. a fragment of an antibody which binds single epitopes
E. a fragment of an antibody which can bind and aggregate
antigens
29. The rates of enzymatic reactions in cells can be altered by all

of the following EXCEPT:
A. allosteric effectors
B. phosphorylation of the enzyme
C. degradation of the enzyme
D. difference in free energy between reactants and products
E. presence of specific inhibitors
30. Which types of interactions may be involved in the binding of

substrates to
enzyme active sites?
A. van der Waal's forces
B. hydrogen bonds
C. non-polar interactions
D. electrostatic bonds
E. all of the above
ANSWERS TO PART I
1A 2D 3C 4A 5D 6E 7E 8C 9B
10B 11D 12C 13D 14C 15D 16D 17A 18A
19A 20D 21C 22B 23D 24B 25A 26E 27A
28B 29D 30E
EXAM 2
September 11, 1998
PART I. (60 points)

best
in each case.
1. A reaction that forms GTP directly by "substrate level

phosphorylation" is catalyzed by: 291
A. Succinate thiokinase
B. Mitochondrial ATPase
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. Glucokinase
E. Malic enzyme
2. Some of the enzyme-catalyzed steps in the beta-oxidation of

fatty
acids are chemically similar to those that occur during the
A. Conversion of glucose to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
B. Conversion of succinate to oxaloacetate
C. Oxidation of FADH2 to FAD by the mitochondrial electron
transport system
D. Oxidation of glycogen to 6-phosphogluconate
E. Conversion of citrate to succinate
3. An increase in the concentration ratio of insulin to glucagon in

the blood will most likely lead to
A. Decreased fatty acid synthesis in cardiac muscle
B. Increased beta-oxidation of fatty acids in skeletal
muscle
C. Increased ketone body utilization by brain
D. Increased triacylglycerol synthesis in adipose
E. Increased gluconeogenesis in the liver
4. The hydrolysis of a phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate by

phospholipase C generates which of the following sets of
products?
A. A inositol triphosphate and a diacylglycerol
B. A inositol triphosphate and a phosphatidate
C. Inositol, a ceramide, and inorganic phosphate
D. Inositol, a diacylglycerol, and inorganic phosphate
E. Inositol, a fatty acid, and a phosphatidate
5. NADH is a reactant or product of each of the following enzyme

reactions EXCEPT:
A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
B. Malate dehydrogenase
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
E. Succinate dehydrogenase
6. The enzymes for beta-oxidation of extremely long chain fatty

acids
(>20) function in which cellular compartment?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Golgi complex
C. Lysosome
D. Peroxisome
E. Cytoplasm
7. An individual with a deficiency in the pathway for synthesizing

carnitine from lysine fails to ingest adequate amounts of
dietary
carnitine. During a 24 hour fast, which of the following
indicates how
his blood components would change compared to the levels in a
normal
individual's blood?
A. Increased ketone bodies and glucose
B. Decreased ketone bodies and glucose
C. No difference
D. Increased ketone bodies but decreased glucose
E. Decreased ketone bodies but increased glucose
292
8. Which characteristic(s) of triacylglycerols best describe(s)
the
advantage to the human body of their use as a stored fuel?
A. Direct access to mitochondria in cardiac muscle
B. Easily transported in blood as a complex with albumin
C. Fully reduced structure and anhydrous storage in adipose
D. Immediate precursor of ketone bodies in skeletal muscle
E. Interconvertibility of fatty acid component to glucose
in
liver
9. Which of the following is NOT an intermediate in, or product of,

the pentose phosphate pathway
A. NADPH
B. C02
C. Ribulose-5-phosphate
D. NADH
E. Fructose-6-phosphate
10. The kinetics of protein-mediated transport of D-glucose across a

muscle cell's plasma membrane can be described by which of the
following
velocity-concentration curves?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
11. Both glucagon and epinephrine stimulate __________ and inhibit

____________.
A. Glycogen synthesis............glycogen breakdown
B. Glycogen breakdown.........glycogen synthesis
C. Glycolysis..........................gluconeogenesis
D. Glucose uptake by muscle...glucose release from the
liver
E. cAMP breakdown...............cAMP formation
12. The conversion of pyruvate to phosphoenolpyruvate in

gluconeogenesis requires which of the following enzymes?
A. Lactate dehydrogenase and pyruvate kinase
B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
D. Pyruvate carboxylase and phosphoenolpyruvate
carboxykinase
E. Phosphofructokinase and aldolase
13. Which of the following cannot be used to synthesize glucose in

net
amounts?
A. L-alanine
B. Lactate
C. Citrate
D. Acetyl-CoA
E. Glycerol
14. All of the following are required cofactors in the pyruvate

dehydrogenase complex reaction EXCEPT:
A. Lipoic acid
B. Thiamine pyrophosphate
C. Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)
D. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+)
E. All of the above are required
15. The components of the electron transport chain which are

responsible for oxidative phosphorylation are located
A. On the inner membrane of the mitochondrion 293
B. On the outer membrane of the mitochondrion
C. In the matrix of the mitochondrion
D. In the intermembrane space of the mitochondrion
E. In the cytosol of the cell
16. The most direct source of acetyl CoA for synthesis of fatty
acids
is:
A. Citrate (cytosol)
B. Free fatty acids (cytosol)
C. Free fatty acids (mitochondria)
D. Mitochondrial acetyl CoA
E. Fatty acyl CoA (cytosol)
17. The ackee fruit contains a toxin which inhibits acyl-CoA

dehydrogenase required for beta-oxidation of fatty acids. This
toxin is
dangerous because it can cause
A. impaired -oxidation in the brain
B. fasting hypoglycemia
C. ketoacidosis
D. inhibition of lipolysis in adipose tissue
E. impaired formation of triglycerides in the liver
18. Which of the following would most likely not occur in a

insulin-dependent diabetic who had received too much insulin?
A. blood glucose would be low
B. free fatty acids in the blood would be low.
C. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate levels in the liver would be
decreased
D. glucose uptake by the adipose tissue enhanced
E. glucose uptake by the skeletal muscle would be enhanced
19. Which of the following enzymes utilized by the liver for

glycogen
metabolism is absent in the muscle?
A. phosphorylase kinase
B. glycogen phosphorylase
C. fructose-1, 6-bisphosphatase
D. phosphoglucomutase
E. glucose-6-phosphatase
20. Biotin is not required for which of the following enzymes?

A. pyruvate carboxylase
B. propionyl CoA carboxylase
C. acetyl CoA carboxylase
D. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
E. all of the above enzymes require biotin
21. Di Beatty was in a state of ketoacidosis due to lack of insulin.

The tissue responsible for producing the compounds resulting in
ketoacidosis is the
A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Adipose
D. Muscle
E. Red blood cells
22. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid (i.e. must be

obtained from the diet)?
A. Palmitic
B. Palmitoleic
C. Linolenic
D. Stearic
E. Oleic
294
23. De novo (i.e. from scratch) glycogen synthesis uses as a
primer to
start the process
A. Pre-existing glycogen molecules
B. Lactose
C. Glycogenin
D. Free glucose
E. Glucose-6-phosphate
24. The immediate donor of glucose units in glycogen synthesis is

A. Glucose
B. Glucose-1-phosphate
C. Glucose-6-phosphate
D. UDP-glucose
E. Mannose
25. Ketone bodies circulate in the blood as

A. Water soluble molecules
B. Associated with plasma lipoproteins
C. Esterified to carnitine
D. Bound to albumin
E. Attached to Coenzyme A
26. Hepatic glycogenolysis is a primary source of blood glucose

during
A. The well fed state (2-3 hours after a meal)
B. The early fasted state (3-12 hours after a meal)
C. The fasted state (12-36 hours after a meal)
D. During starvation (more than 2 days without a meal)
E. The early refed state (0 - 2 hours after a meal
27. A deficiency of which enzyme would account for the following in

red blood cells: elevated levels of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate,
2,3-bisphosphoglycerate, and dihydroxyacetone phosphate, and
decreased
concentrations of ATP and pyruvate?
A. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
B. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
C. Hexokinase
D. Glucokinase
E. Phosphoglycerate kinase
28. Intermediates in the pentose phosphate pathway include all of

the
following EXCEPT
A. 4 carbon sugars
B. 5 carbon sugars
C. 6 carbon sugars
D. 7 carbon sugars
E. 8 carbon sugars
29. Which of the following pathways is important in red blood cells?

A. Fatty acid oxidation
B. Citric acid cycle
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Pentose phosphate pathway
E. Oxidation of ketone bodies
30. Decreased levels of plasma cholinesterase are most likely

associated with
A. Glycogen storage disease
B. Organic phosphate poisoning
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Bone cancer
E. Diabetes
295
BIOCHEMISTRY 520
EXAM 3
October 2, 1998
PART I. (60 points)

or
case.
1. Which of the following compounds generally accumulates in the

urine in folic acid deficiency?
A. methionine
B. methylmalonic acid
C. branch chain alpha-keto acids
D. homogentisic acid
E. N-formiminoglutamate (FIGLU)
2. Ammonium ion in the urine arises primarily from

A. the action of glutamate dehydrogenase in the kidney.
B. the action of kidney glutaminase upon the side-chain
amide of blood
glutamine.
C. the direct action of aminotransferases
D. the action of kidney glutaminase on the alpha-amino
group
of glutamine.
E. metabolism of uracil.
3. Thioredoxin is a protein required for the synthesis of

A. ADP.
B. inosinic acid.
C. dADP.
D. carbamoyl phosphate.
E. 5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate.
4. Which of the following excretion products would be increased to

the largest extent after the ingestion of a 12 ounce steak by a
human?
A. Uric acid
B. Urea
C. Asparagine
D. Ammonia
E. Creatine
5. A deficiency in which of the following amino acids would result

in
a Negative Nitrogen Balance?
A. Serine
B. Cysteine
C. Proline
D. Tryptophan
E. Asparagine
6. In PKU, Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD), and genetic defects in

the
urea cycle it is important to avoid periods of fasting because:
A. Fasting makes you deficient in ATP 296

B. Fasting causes ketoacidosis
C. Fasting causes muscle protein catabolism
D. Fasting stimulates gluconeogenesis
E. Fasting causes gout
7. The toxicity of NH3 may be due to depletion of this citric acid

cycle
intermediate
A. alpha-ketoglutarate
B. Citric acid
C. Oxaloacetate
D. Succinate
E. Fumarate
8. What is believed to be the major biochemical consequence in the

normal
individual of LDL uptake by extrahepatic tissues?
A. HMG-CoA Reductase is activated
B. Cholesterol synthesis is suppressed in these tissues.
C. Uptake of HDL particles is suppressed.
D. Lipolysis is stimulated in these tissues.
E. Atherosclerosis is reversed.
9. Which of the following represents a step that is common to the

digestion of fat, glycogen and proteins?
A. All require hydrolysis reactions in the small intestine
before uptake by mucosal cells.
B. All require a Na+ gradient for uptake into the mucosal
cell
C. All involve resynthesis in the mucosal cell before
entering the blood
D. All pass directly from the mucosal cell into the blood
E. All are directed from the mucosal cells to the liver
before encountering other tissues
10. A positive nitrogen balance is observed in which of the

following
conditions?
A. obesity
B. pregnancy
C. menstruation
D. moderate exercise
E. sleep
11. VLDL transports primarily

A. exogenous cholesterol esters.
B. endogenous triglycerides.
C. exogenous triglycerides.
D. endogenous cholesterol esters.
E. apolipoproteins
12. The apolipoprotein important for the activation of lipoprotein

lipase is:
A. Apo A1
B. Apo B48
C. Apo B100
D. Apo CII
E. Apo E
13. The Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome is an inherited disorder associated

with
a virtually complete deficiency of an enzyme of purine
metabolism, which
is
A. adenylosuccinate lyase. 297
B. aspartate carbamoyl transferase.
C. hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase.
D. purine nucleotide phosphorylase.
E. xanthine oxidase.
14. The liver is capable of all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Urea synthesis
B. Gluconeogenesis from glycerol
C. Synthesis of bile salts
D. Oxidation of acetoacetate
E. VLDL synthesis
15. PKU patients are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Elevated levels of phenylalanine
B. Elevated levels of phenyl lactate and phenyl acetate
C. Hyperpigmentation (dark skin)
D. Tyrosine becomes an essential amino acid
E. Need for a phenylalanine-deficient diet for life
16. Caffeine has a purine ring in which each of three nitrogen

atoms
bears a methyl group. The most direct precursor (i.e.,
requiring fewest
reactions) of these methyl groups is
A. a methyl derivative of tetrahydrofolic acid.
B. S-adenosyl-methionine.
C. trimethylglycine.
D. homocysteine.
E. creatine phosphate.
17. Compounds derived from HMG-CoA (b-hydroxy-b-methyl-glutaryl CoA)

include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Male steroid hormones
B. Cholesterol
C. Bile acids
D. Glucose
E. Ketone bodies
18. The principal nitrogenous urinary excretion product in humans

resulting from the catabolism of AMP is:
A. Creatinine
B. Urea
C. Uric acid
D. NH4+
E. Orotic acid
19. Compared to a healthy person, a person with pernicious anemia

A. Produces less intrinsic factor
B. Excretes less methylmalonic acid in the urine
C. Requires less methionine in the diet
D. Has a higher rate of purine biosynthesis
E. Has lower blood levels of FIGLU
20. Which compound mediates most of the transfer reactions involving

the Aone-carbon@ pool in multiple oxidation states?
A. S-adenosyl methionine
B. Pyridoxal phosphate
C. Tetrahydrofolate
D. Vitamin E
E. Biotin
21. The nucleotide that is used to activate choline for transfer to

1,2-diacylglycerol for lecithin synthesis is:
A. ATP
B. GTP
C. CTP 298
D. UTP
E. TTP
A. Directly inhibiting the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase
B. Inhibiting synthesis of folate
C. Directly inhibiting the enzyme thymidylate synthase
D. Blocking absorption of vitamin B12
E. Inhibiting oxidation of folic acid

If
the defect involved a mutation resulting in an increased Km of
the
defective enzyme for its coenzyme, which of the following
vitamins in
megadoses might help?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Folic acid
C. Biotin
D. Thiamine
E. Vitamin B6
24. Respiratory distress syndrome in premature newborns is caused by

A. Sphingomyelin
B. Gangliosides
C. Triacylglycerols
D. Phosphatidylcholine
E. Prostaglandins
25. Diabetes mellitus could be caused by

A. Insufficient secretion of insulin
B. Antibodies to pancreatic b-cells (autoimmune disease)
C. Glucokinase mutation
D. Ineffective insulin receptors
E. All of the above
26. Compounds derived from phenylalanine include all of the

following
EXCEPT:
A. Tyrosine
B. Thyroid hormones T3 and T4
C. Melanin (skin pigment)
D. Epinephrine
E. Serotonin
27. The decarboxylation reactions necessary to synthesize

epinephrine,
GABA, serotonin and histamine require the cofactor:
A. Pyridoxal phosphate
B. Thiamine pyrophosphate
C. Biotin
D. NAD+
E. Tetrahydrofolate
28. Familial hypercholesterolemia is caused by

A. Defective lipoprotein lipase
B. Defective ACAT
C. Defective HMG-CoA reductase
D. Defective LDL receptors
E. Defective HDL particles
29. The end product of purine metabolism in a person taking

allopurinol for gout is
A. Orotic acid 299
B. Hypoxanthine
C. Urate
D. dTMP
E. GMP
30. Which of the following would NOT be characteristic of most

sphingolipid storage diseases, such as Tay-Sachs and Gauchers
disease?
A. A genetic defect
B. A deficiency of a hydrolytic enzyme (hydrolase) in
lysosomes
C. An unaffected synthetic pathway for the sphingolipid
D. An accumulation of the sphingolipid in lysosomes
E. A relatively benign disease with only mild arthritis
developing in old age
99BIOCHEMISTRY 520 Examination #5 - November

9, 1998
PART I. (60 points)

or
completions.
ON THE ANSWER SHEET, mark the one which is best in each case.
1. Aspirin exerts its effects on blood clotting by

A. binding to fibrinogen.
B. activating plasminogen.
C. blocking the action of phospholipase.
D. inhibiting cyclooxygenase.
E. stimulating the formation of thrombin.
2. The steroid hormones act

A. at the cell surface by binding to specific membrane-
bound
receptors.
B. by directly activating a protein kinase.
C. by blocking expression from target genes.
D. through an intracellular receptor that binds to DNA.
E. by directly binding to glucocorticoid responsive
elements
(GREs) near the 5' end of target genes.
3. Which of the reasons listed below is a common likely cause of

iron
deficiency
anemia in adult males?
A. Excessive blood loss.
B. Failure to store iron as ferritin.
C. Lack of iron in the diet.
D. Kidney disease.
E. Hemolytic anemia.
4. von Willebrand's Syndrome is characterized by all of the

following
EXCEPT
A. prolonged bleeding time.
B. deficiency of Factor VIII.
C. normal platelets.
D. normal platelet adhesion.
E. defective release reaction.
5. The rate-limiting enzyme of heme biosynthesis is 300

A. porphobilinogen synthesis.
B. heme oxygenase.
C. delta-ALA synthase.
D. ferrochelatase..
6. Dicoumarol is an anticoagulant which acts by

A. inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K.
B. stimulating the synthesis of vitamin K.
C. stimulating the synthesis of gamma carboxyglutamic acid
in
clotting factors.
D. inhibiting the formation of gamma carboxyglutamic acid
in
clotting factors.
7. The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood coagulation

converge
at the step involving the conversion of
A. prothrombin to thrombin.
B. factor X (Stuart) to Factor Xa.
C. fibrinogen to fibrin.
D. vitamin K to gamma-carboxyglutamic acid.
E. factor XIII to Factor XIIIa (XIII = transamidase).
8. The glycosylation of hemoglobin to form HbA1c

A. occurs only in diabetic patients.
B. requires the participation of an activated sugar such as
UDP-glucose.
C. occurs at the amino termini of the beta chains of HbA.
D. occurs in immature red cells through the action of a
transferase enzyme.
E. involves modification of serine and threonine side
chains.
9. In blood clotting, the enzyme which is responsible for the

cross-linking
reactions that convert a soft clot to a hard clot is:
A. Factor XII
B. Factor II
C. Antithrombin III
D. Factor XIII (Transglutaminase)
E. Protein C
10. In which phase of the mammalian cell cycle is a cell least

susceptible to chemotherapy?
A. Go
B. G1
C. G2
D. M
E. S
11. Hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulfate, dermatan sulfate and

heparin
contain a repeating disaccharide unit composed of
A. two glucoses.
B. a glucose and a fructose.
C. N-acetylneuraminic acid and galactose.
D. a uronic acid and an amino sugar.
E. galactose and an amino sugar.
12. A person whose bile duct is blocked might experience a

deficiency
in
A. niacin
B. riboflavin 301
C. vitamin E
D. thiamine.
E. vitamin B12
13. A copper deficient diet would cause collagen and elastin to be

defective because of diminished activity of which of the
following
enzymes?
A. lysyl hydroxylase
B. prolyl hydroxylase
C. procollagen peptidase
D. protease
E. lysyl oxidase
14. What is the immediate source of the sulfate in chondroitin

sulfate?
A. inorganic sulfate
B. SAM
C. cysteic acid.
D. PAPS
E. H2S
15. All of the following are true about nitric oxide (NO) EXCEPT:
A. NO is synthesized from arginine by Nitric Oxide
Synthetase.
B. Nitric Oxide Synthetase is activated by cyclic GMP.
C. NO directly activates guanyl cyclase by binding to a
heme protein.
D. NO causes smooth muscle relaxation.
E. NO is released from nitroglycerin..

scurvy is improper:
A. assembly of the amino acids in the sequence of pro
alpha-1
chains.
B. formation of disulfide bonds.
C. extent of crosslinking.
D. extent of hydroxylation.
E. cleavage by procollagen peptidase.
17. The oxidized form (Fe+3 ) of iron is required for

A. insertion of iron into the porphyrin ring by
ferrochelatase
B. transport of iron by transferrin.
C. uptake of iron by the intestinal mucosal cells.
D. binding of CO2 by hemoglobin.
E. conjugation of bilirubin to bilirubin diglucuronide.
18. alpha-Thalassemias can arise from:

A. mutations in the heme binding site.
B. point mutations which change a single amino acid.
C. oxidation of the heme iron by xenobiotics.
D. Point mutations which change a codon to a stop codon in
the alpha chains.
E. Deletion of the gene(s) for beta chains.
19. Cellular oncogenes may be

A. activated by chromosomal translocation.
B. related to hormone or growth factor receptors.
C. detected by their ability to alter the growth control of
cells in culture.
D. derived from normal cellular genes by a single point
mutation.
E. all of the above.
302
20. Compared with arterial erythrocytes venous erythrocytes have
all
the following EXCEPT:
A. higher Cl- content.
B. higher HCO-3 content.
C. higher content of CO2 dissolved physically.
D. higher content of free 2, 3 biophosphoglycerate.
E. higher content of deoxyhemoglobin.
21. NADPH-cytochrome P-450 reductase is found principally in the

A. plasma membrane.
B. nucleus.
C. cytoplasm.
D. endoplasmic reticulum.
E. lysosomes.
22. Which of the following statements about HbS is correct?

A. This is a normal hemoglobin found in most adults.
B. This is a form of hemoglobin modified by the addition of
a
cysteine at the C-terminus.
C. Because this is a mutant form of hemoglobin in which a
glutamic acid of each beta chain has been replaced by a
valine, it has a tendency to form insoluble aggregates.
D. This mutant form of hemoglobin makes one more
susceptible
to infection by the
malarial parasite.
E. Aggregation of molecules of this form of hemoglobin is
promoted by high
oxygen concentration.
23. Compounds which may be derived from arachidonate in man include:

A. prostaglandins
B. thromboxanes
C. leukotrienes
D. vitamin E
E. eicosenoids
24. Which of the following would be an example of a paracrine

signalling mechanism?
A. Insulin stimulation of adipose tissue
B. cis-trans isomerization of rhodopsin bound retinal
C. synthesis and release of the sis oncogene product by
tumor
cells
D. release of acetylcholine at a synapse
E. phagocytosis of aged red blood cells by spleen
macrophages
25. The chromophore associated with rhodopsin before light

absorption
is:
A. transducin
B. 11-cis retinal
C. arachidonic acid
D. all-trans retinal
E. heme
26. Heparin has anticoagulant activity due to its ability to

"activate"
A. thrombin
B. plasmin
C. vitamin K
D. fibrinogen
E. antithrombin 303
27. The main function of vitamin A is for
A. vision
B. blood clotting
C. anti-oxidant
D. collagen formation
E. bone formation
28. Cholera toxin catalyzes the ADP ribosylation of

A. elongation factor II (translocase).
B. adenylate cyclase.
C. the insulin receptor.
D. protein kinase A.
E. Gs protein subunit.
29. GTP is essential in the hormone mediated production of cAMP. Its

role is to
A. stimulate the activity of aspartate transcaramoylase.
B. increase the cellular level of ATP by serving as a
substrate in the synthesis of ATP.
C. bind to the G-protein forming a complex which is
necessary
for the activation of adenylate cyclase.
D. bind to EF-tu forming a complex necessary for the
insertion of ATP into the A-site.
E. form cGMP.
30. Heme synthesis

A. occurs mainly in the liver.
B. occurs primarily in mitochondria, but begins and ends in
the cytoplasm.
C. is regulated by the rate of synthesis of the globin
protein.
D. is sensitive to lead poisoning.
304

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BIOC520: Medical Biochemistry

1. If 10 ml of 0.01 M lactate is added to 10 ml of 0.1 M lactic acid

2. Which of the following is not a true statement?

3. The peptide bond is planar because

4. Which of the following statements about an alpha helix is correct?

5. A substrate molecule that causes a conformational change in the

7. "Edman degradation" refers to 1

9. At pH 7.0 which of the following compounds would have a net negative

10. Which of the following represents a protein modification which

11. At their isoelectric point proteins have

12. Which of the following is most likely to cross a membrane by a

13. Secondary structure of proteins

14. The concept (delta)G infers which of the following?

A. (delta)G allows us to predict the rate of a reaction. 2

C. (delta)G depends on whether a reaction occurs in a single step

giving off heat or trapped as chemical energy in a series of

D. when (delta)G = 0, the system is at equilibrium.

E. both B and D are true.

15. All of the following statements about facilitated diffusion are

A. a plot of rate of uptake by cells versus substrate

concentration would be expected to give a hyperbolic curve.

B. depending on conditions, transport could occur in either

direction across the membrane.

C. the process can allow a substance in cells to be accumulated

against a concentration gradient.

D. an interaction between the substance transported and a

component is likely to occur.

E. competitive inhibition of the transport of a substance by its

chemical analogs is likely to occur.

16. The asymmetry associated with biological membranes refers to the

A. degree of lateral mobility of integral membrane proteins.

B. ratio of phospholipid to cholesterol.

C. differences in protein and lipid composition of the outer and

inner leaflet of the membrane bilayer.

D. ratio of peripheral to integral membrane protein. 3

17. The peptide backbone of a protein contains atoms connected in a

18. In considering the 'active site' of enzymes, a fair

A. nearly all the amino acid side-chains of the protein

must directly participate in catalysis.

B. all the amino acid residues which are involved in the

active site are adjacent because they are located on

the same short stretch of the polypeptide backbone.

C. the active site region does not exist at all until

the substrate is bound.

in close proximity because of the specific

three-dimensional conformation the protein has adopted.

E. only one amino acid residue is involved in the active site.

19. Which of the following could be a positive allosteric

C. a compound, other than the substrate, which binds to

the active site

D. a compound, other than the substrate, which binds to the

but not to the active site

E. a covalent modification which leads to a conformational change

(Vmax) of an enzyme catalyzed reaction is true?

A. Vmax is unaltered in the presence of a noncompetitive

B. Vmax is directly proportional to enzyme concentration.

C. Vmax is directly proportional to substrate concentration.

D. Vmax is directly proportional to the measured rate (v).

E. Vmax is directly proportional to Km, being higher for enzymes

with higher Km values for their substrates.

21. Integral membrane proteins

A. are located only at the external surface of the membrane,

they function as a permeability barrier.