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Ondansetron HCL is used for : a- Hypertension b- Angina pectoris c- Prophylaxis of migraine d- Anti-emetic It is used as anti-emetic with patients receiving cytotoxics due to its serotonin antagonism. Ondansetron is [ Zofran 2 , 4 mg. Tab & Amp. ]

All These are side effects of Chloramphenicol except : a- Irreversible a plastic anemia b- optic neuritis c- peripheral neuritis d- iron deficiency anemia

Ticlopidine is used for : a- Anticoagulant b- Antibiotic c- anticholinergic d- Antiplatelets

All these drugs are fibrinolytic except : a- Dipyridamole b- Steptokinase c- urikinase

All These drugs cause anti-metabolic effect except : a- Methotrexate b- Flurouracil C- Cytabrin d- Azothioprine e- Cyclophosphamide

All These drugs can be used for Parkinsonism except : a- Selgitine HCL b- Carbidopa c- Pergolide d- Nedocromil Sod.

all These cases not cure with thiazides except : a- Hypernatrimia b- hyperglycemia c- Hypokalaemia d- hyperuricaemia

Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except : a- Ephedrine b- Ledocaine c- Propranolol d- Normal saline

Insulin which can be given I.V. is : a- Regular type b- 30/70 type c- NPH type d- Non of the above

10 Drug is used for Leishmania :

a- Sod. Stiboglyconate b- Sod. Cromoglyconate c- Mebendazole


11 All These drugs are anti-bacterial except :

a- Zalcitabine b-Lomefloxacin c- Cefprazone

12 All These are natural Estrogens except :

a- Mestronol b- Oestrone c- Oestriol d- Oestradiol


13 Co-Trimethoxazole contains ;

Trimethopirm + Sulphmethoxazole
14 Which one of the following has vasodilator effect :

a- Nicotine b- Cholestyramin c- urikinase d- Vit. A


15 One of the following is not from Quinolone group :

a- Nalidixic acid b- Quinine c- Eoxacin d- Norfloxacin


16 One of the following is not for Epilepsy :

a- Clorizepam b- Phenytoin c- Primidone d- Imipramine

17 All of these can be used for Leprosy except :

a- Dapson b- Rifampcin c- Clofazinine d- INH


18 Sumatriptan is used for :

a- Hypertension b- Treatment of migraine c- Angina Pectoris d- Control of Epilepsy


19 Which one of the following is enzyme inducer :

a- Rifampcin b- Cimetidine c- Chloramphenicol d- Vit. C


20 All of the following for prophylaxis of asthma except :

a- Ketotifen b- Nedocromil Sod. c- Sod. Cromoglycate d- Salbutamol

21 All of the following is NSAH [ non sedating antihistamine ] except :

a- Loratidine b- Cetrizine c- Astemizol d- Azotodin


22 All of the following are controlled drugs except :

a- Rivotril b- Epanutin c- Sresolid d- Diazepam


23 All These drugs are anti-viral except :

a- Amantadine b- Zidovudine c- Acyclovir d- Aluerin [ anti-spasmodic ]


24 Which one of the symptoms does not occur with morphine :

a- Diarrhea b- Respiratory depression c- Constipation d- Vomiting

25 Which one of these drugs is not used for acute pain :

a- Naproxen b- Colchicine c- Codeine d- Prednisolone


26 Which one of these drugs is drug of choice for Myxodema

[ Hypothyrodism ] a- Carbimazole b- iodine c- thyroxin sod. d- propyl thiouracil


27 Benzyl peroxide is a local treatment for Acne Vulgaris 28 Vit. A daily dose is 30,000 - 50,000 IU for the correction of

deficiency and for therapy from 100,000 - 200,000 IU / daily


29 The drug of choice for the treatment of amoebae :

a- Chloramphenicol b- Tetracycline c- Gentamycin d- Metronidazole

30 To prevent more absorption of the toxic drug we use :

a- Water b- Salt Sol. c- Saline d- Charcoal


31 Hepatitis Vaccine dose is :

a- Once / year b- Twice / Year c- Three times / Year


32 Which one is OTC drug :

a- Simple analgesic b- Warfarin c- Ciprofloxacin


33 Anti-coagulant effect of Warfarin is decreased by :

a- Rifampcin b- Aspirin c- Vit. K d- Verapamil


34 One of the following is given once daily

a- Amorphous Insulin b- Protamine Zinc Insulin c- Neutral insulin d- Regular Insulin

35 The steady state conc. Of the drug in the plasma depends on :

a- Direct proportion to the rate of administration b- Indirect proportion to the rate of administration c- Indirect proportion to the rate of elimination d- Direct proportion to the rate of elimination
36 All these are Anti-Coagulants except :

a- Warfarin b- Ancord c- Heparin d- Dipyridamol


37 All these are Anti-Platelets except :

a- Dipyridamol b- Aspirin c- Streptokinase d- Presantin e- Ticlopidine


38 Ferrograde is :

a- Ferrous Sulphate b- Ferrous Citrate c- Ferrous gluconate d- Ferrous Fumarate


39 Procainamide is :

a- Ca channel blocker b- Nifedipine c- Lisinopril d- Qunidine

40 What is the mechanism of action of Vit. K ?

Vit. K has an essential role in the synthesis of coagulation factors by hepatic cells.
41 Thiazide diuretics cause all the following except :

a- Hypokalamia b- Hypercalcemia c- Hyperuricamia d- Hyponatrimia e- Hyperglycemia f- Hypernatremia


42 Treatment with anti-arrhythmic drug depends on except :

a- Type of medication b- Period of medication c- Patient sex


43 Elimination of Digoxin is mainly by :

a- Kidney b- Liver c- Both d- None of the above


44 Dobutamine is given I.V. because :

a- It is not stable in the gastric PH b- It is needed in large quantities in case of oral route c- It is eliminated very quickly
45 Amilorid as trimetren causes :

a- CNS disturbances b- Hyperkalamia c- Hypokalamia d- Not affect K [ Potassium ]

46 What is the most drug can cause damage if it is given OTC ?

a- Captopril b- Warfarin c- Chlorothiazide d- Rifampcin


47 Drug physical dependence is as same as drug abuse

a- True b- false
48 Mention two Thiazide diuretics ?

1- Chlorothiazide

2- Hydrochlorothiazide

49 What is the difference between QID & Q6H ?

QID = 4 times / day Q6H = every after 6 hours


50 What is the difference between the following anti-fungal ?

Miconazole = local & systemic Amphotercin = parenteral only Griseofulvin = oral


51 Give the indication of the following drugs :

1- Gimfibrazole 2- Cisapride 3- Fluoxetin 4- Carbimazole 5- Imipramine 6- Ipratropium Br.

for hyperlipidaemia for gastro-oesophegyal reflux SSRI [ selective serotonin reuptake inh.] ( Antidepressant ) for hyperthyrodism Tricyclic anti-depressant Anti muscarinic as broncho-dilator

52 All are anti-metabolic except :

a- Methotrexate b- Flurouracil c- Cytabrin d- Azothiopin e- Cyclophosphamide


53 Cefaclor is :

a- Ist, Generation Cephalosporin b- 2nd, generation Cephalosporin c- 3rd, generation Cephalosporin d- None of the above
54 Which Aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally ?

a- Gentamycin b- Neomycin c- Amikacin d- Tobramycin


55 Teicoplanin antibiotic has similar effect on Gram positive as :

a- Vancomycin b- Jamicacin c- Gentamycin d- Kanamycin


56 Which one is not Tetracycline ?

a- Minocycline b- Demeclocycline c- Doxycycline d- Clindamycin

57 Which one is not Ca channel blocker ?

a- Verapamil b- Deltiazem c- Amlodipine d- Cinnarzine


58 Mesalazine is used for the treatment & maintenance of remission

of Ulcerative Colitis
59 Mention 4 lipid soluble vitamins ?

Vit. A, D ,E & K
60 Imipenam [ Carbapenam ]

It is the first Thiemamycin Beta - Lactam anti-biotic


61 All These medications are used in treating T.B. except :

a- Cyclosporin b- INH c- Cycloserin d- Rifampcin


62 All These drugs are anti-cholinergic except :

a- Iprotropium b- Atropine Sulphate c- Benzatropine Methylate d- Dobutamin


63 All Of These are antibiotics except :

a- Zalcitabin b- Cefaprozil c- loefloxacin d- Cefopodoxin

64 There is one drug is used for HIV :

a- Zalcitabin b- Kinasterdin c- Cefaprozil d- Enoxacin


65 Which one is Suprax ?

a- Cefixime b- Itraconazole
66 Which one is Sporanox ?

a- Cefixime b- Itraconazole
67 All of These can be used in treating leprosy except :

a- Dapson b- Rifampcin c- Clofazimine d- INH


68 One of these is not like the others :

a-Timolol b- Acebutalol c- Labetolol d- Betaxolol

Non - selective Selective Beta Blocker Non - selective Non - selective

69 Which is not Aminoglycoside ?

a- Netilimicin b- Tobramycin c- Kanamycin d- Lymecyclin

70 Betahistine HCL

a- For Mieniere disease b- Antihistamine c- Analgesic d- a & b


71 Which one is not 5HT3 antagonist ?

a- Tropisetron b- Ondansetron c- Domperidone [ Motilium ] d- Granisetron


72 Which is not oral anti-coagulant ?

a- Warfarin b- Enoxaprine c- Phenidione d- Nicoumolone


73 Which is correct ? Diazepam

a- Can cause muscle spasm b- Is taken I.M. only c- Is derivative from Morphine d- Is not used for long term
74 Maximum dose of Paracetamol is 4 Gm / day 75 The duration of treatment of T.B. by CTC is :

[ CTC is Tuberculosis Committee Thoracic Society ] a- One week b- Two months c- One month d- 6 months
76 Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist

acts centrally by blocking Vomiting Center [ V.C. ] and peripherally acts on the Chemo-Receptor Trigger Zone [ CTZ ] to be used as anti-emetic.

77 Which one is contra-indicated in pregnancy :

a- Sucralfate b- Ethambutol c- Chlorphenramine d- Ciprofloxacin


78 What is the definition of Bioavailability of the drug ?

Is the quantity of the active constituent of the drug absorbed by the blood through the intestine or any other route in a certain period of time . OR : It is the conc. of the drug in the blood in a certain period of time
79 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Hepatotoxicity ?

1- Paracetamol 3- Rifampcin

2- Ketoconazol 4- Quinolones

80 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Nephrotoxicity ?

Aminoglycosides as Gentamycin
81 Give the anti-dote for each of the following :

Heparin Paracetamol Warfarin Morphine

Protamine Sulphate Acetyl cystine Vit. K Naloxone

82 What is the generic name of Vit. B 12 ?

Cyanocobolamine
83 Zidovudine is used for HIV 84 What is the meaning of poor patient compliance ?

The patient did not take the medication properly [ not proper dose, not proper time ] may be due to the dose regimen is not easy or the dose is high, or the side effects is clear
85 Fluxotine is :

Prozac
86 Omeprazole is

is selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor

Losec

is a proton pump inhibitor

87 Mention two diseases cause Edema ?

1- Renal Failure

2- Congestive Heart failure

88 Give examples of drug - drug interactions ?

1- Warfarin 2- Insulin 3- Heparin 4- Warfarin 5- Warfarin 6- Spironolactone 7- ACEI


89 Generic name of :

Aspirin B-Blockers Aspirin & Ampicillin Vit. K Phenobarbital Digoxin Pot. Sparing diuretics

Vit. B1 Vit. B2 Vit. B6 Vit. B12

Thiamine Riboflavin Pyridoxin Cyanocobolamine

90 All of these are the components of Calamine lotion B.P. except :

a- ZnO b- calamine c- Sod. Citrate d- Bentonite

e- Sod. Sulphate
91 Terbinafine is used topically for :

a- Eczema b- Candida c- Fungal infections


92 Which one is not contra-indicated in pregnancy ?

a- Captopril b- Enalpril c- Lisinopril d- Methyldopa


93 PCP [ Pneumocystis Corini Pneumonia ]

a- Virus b- Bacteria c- Parasite d- Mycobacterum


94 Which of the following is not antibiotic ?

a- Erythromycin b- Cefprozil c- Ceprodoxin d- Finasteride

95 Which one is used for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia [ BPHP ]

a- Flumazenil b- Cefprozil c- Mivacurim d- Finasteride


96 All of these are third generation Cephalosporin except :

a- Cefixime b- Cefopodoxime c- Ceftriaxone d- Cefotaxime


97 Which of the following is not mucolytic ?

a- Bromohexin b- Carbocistene c- Ambroxol d- guaphenesin e- Dextromethorphan


98 Which one is anti-platelet ?

a- Ticlopidine b- Desfluron c- Aldesleukin d- Atovaquon


99 All of these anti-neoplastic except :

a- Aldesleukin b- Teniposide c- Pentostatin d- Amlodipine

100 Which is not Benzodiazepine ?

a- Temazepam b- Nitrozepam c- Loprazolam d- Clozapine


101 Potassium supplement must not be given with Triametren

1- False

2- True

102 Misoprostol inhibit gastric acid by blocking the hydrogen potassium

adenosine triphosphate enzyme system of gastric cell [ Misoprostol is Cytotic ] 1- False 2- True

103 MMR vaccine is Measles - Mumps - Rubella vaccine 104 Oral re-hydrate solution is one of the following :

a- Sod. Citrate - Pot. Chloride - Glucose b- Sod. Citrate - Pot. Chloride - Sod. Chloride c- Sod. Chloride - Pot. Citrate - Sod. Citrate - glucose d- Sod. Chloride - Pot. Chloride - NaHCO3 - Citric acid
105 Gemfibrazile

a- Increase HDL & Triglycerides b- Increase HDL & decrease Triglycerides c- Decrease HDL & LDL d- Increase LDL & Triglycerides.
106 Nitroprusside Sod. Is :

a- Potent vasodilator b- potent diuretic c- potent vasoconstrictor d- Anti-arrhythmic agent.

107 4 drugs need monitor for their serum level

1- Amikacin 2- Theophyllin

3- Warfarin 4- Digoxin

108 For Fluxacillin, all these statments are wrong except :

a- It is activated by Penicillinase enzyme b- It is taken by oral route only c- It is base stable d- It is better absorbed than Cloxacilin
109 What are the instruction for patient taken Metamucil

Or any other bulk foaming laxative as Bran, methyl Cellulose & Psyllum : The adequate fluid intake should be maintained to avoid intestinal obstruction
110 Cytotec

Is used for gastric & duodenal ulcer. It is contra-indicated in pregnancy.


111 Mention two drugs from HMG - COA- reductase inhibitors

Simvastatin - Provastatin - Fluvastatin


112 HMG-COA-Reductase Inhibitor is

[ 3-hydroxy. 3- methyl Glutoryl COA Reductase inhibitor ]


113 Source of Human Insulin is E-Coli by :

Recombinant DNA Technology


114 Zinnat contains :

Cefuroxime
115 Thiabendazole is one of Thiazides diuretics

1- False

2- True

N.B. Thiabendazole is anthelmintic

116 Praziquantil is :

a- Cause loss of intracellular calcium of worms b- Used for malaria c- Biltracid is the trade name d- a & c
117 Nitrofurantoin is indicated for :

a- Viral infection b- GIT Infection c- Urinary tract infection [ UTI ] d- URI


118 Vit. K

a- Increase formation of clotting factor b- Increase conversion of Vit. K to the active form c- Prevent conversion of Vit. K back to the active form d- Non of the above
119 Quinidine Sulphate is :

a- Anti-arrhythmic agent b- Anti-malarial agent c- Anti-hypertensive agent d- a & c


120 ACE stands for :

a- Converting Ag11 to vasoconstrictor Ag1 b- Converting Ag1 to vasoconstrictor Ag11 c- Converting Ag1 to vasodilator Ag11 d- Converting Ag11 to vasodilator Ag1
121 One of these side effects not occur with Thiazide diuretics

a- Hypernatraemia b- Hypoglycemia c- Hypokalamia d- Hyperuricamia

122 Ipeca is emetic agent which induce emesis through :

a- Stimulation of the stomach b- Stimulation of the CTZ c- a & b d- Inhibition of the stomach through CNS
123 Theophyllin is

a- Bronchdilator b- B2 agonist c- Cause Bradycardia d- All of the above


124 Schedule of immunization for HBV is :

a- Single dose b- Two doses c- Three doses d- Five doses


125 Itraconazol

is antifungal
126 Treatment of anaphylactic reaction is initiated by immediate :

a- Hydrocortisone b- Cimetidine c- Human albumin d- Epinephrine


127 Introduction of emesis is not indicated in the following except :

a- Caustic substance ingestion b- CNS c- Seizures d- paracetamol poisoning

128 all of these are anions except :

a- Phosphate b-Acetate c- Sodium d- Chloride


129 Astemizole

is long acting non sedating anti-histamine


130 Triazole is

a- Antifungal b- Trade name of clotrimazole c- Trade name of amphotercin B d- Nystatin


131 With Minoxidil, all these parameters should be monitored except :

a- Urine flow rate b- B.P. c- Pulse rate d- Body weight


132 Aspirin is recommended with one of the following :

a- Anti-coagulant b- Chicken box c- Influenza symptoms d- Dys-menorrhoea


133 Which is not true with Tetracycline

a- Broad spectrum bacteriostatic b- Broad spectrum bactericidal c- Inhibit protein synthesis d- Used for acne
134 Give 2 indications for allopurinol

1- prophylaxis of Gout 2- Treatment of uric acid & Ca Oxalate renal stones


135 Give an ex. Of non sedating anti-histamines

Loratidine - Cetrizine- Terfenadine

136 Famotidine is H2 antagonist used for :

Treatment of gastric & duodenal ulcers


137 What are the effects of Captopril

1- Decrease conversion of Ag1 to Ag11 2- Effective hypotensive when others are contra-indicated [ B blockers & diuretics ]
138 Type 2 Diabetics is characterized by :

a- Lack of response to Insulin b- Lack of response to sulphonylurea c- Respond to dietary therapy alone d- Slowly increasing sulphonylurea requirement
139 Give 2 side effects of Aminoglycosides ?

Ototoxicity - Nephrotoxicity
140 Mention 2 quinolones

Ciprofloxacin

Norfloxacin

141 Give 3 drugs as Pot. Sparing diuretics

Trimetren - Spironolactone - Amilorid


142 Acetazolamide is a diuretic used for Glaucoma by inhibition of

carbonic anhydrase enz. This reduce the carbonate in the aqueous humor leads to reduction of I.O.P.
143 Which one reduces the metabolism of other drugs in the liver :

a- Rifampcin B- Vit. C c- Cimetidine d- Metronidazole


144 All of these can be dispensed without prescription except :

a- Aspirin d- Tegretol

b- Maalox

c- Bisacodyl

145 Simvastatin is used for hypolipidemic action

146 Acetohexamide is hypoglycemic 147 List the trade name of the following :

Pindolol Baclofen Omeprazol

Visken Lioresal Losec

148 What is the meaning of each of the following :

POM BID ECG G.6.PD BPC

Prescription Only Medicine Twice Daily Electro Cardio Gram Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase British Pharmacopial Codex

149 Which of these is Pro-drug

a- Ampicillin b- Erythromycin c- Pivampicillin d-All of the above


150 500 ml Normal saline 0.9 % contains 4.5 gm. NACL 151 Mention 3 ACEI

Captopril - Enalpril - Cilazapril


152 Levodopa with Cardiodopa for the treatment of Parkinsonism

153 Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitor are used as :

a- Antihistaminic b- Antidepressant c- Antihypertensive d- Antiemetic


154 Which of these has no vasodilator effect :

a- Methyl dopa b- Hydralazine c- Enalpril d- Prazocin


155 Enalpril is the prodrug of :

Enalprilate
156 Mention 3 drugs contraindicated in pregnancy :

1 NSAI 2 Co-trimoxol 3 Antiepileptic


157 List 3 drugs used to treat T.B. :

1 INH [ Isoniazide ] 2 Rifampcin 3 Ethambutol


158 Calcipotriol is indicated for :

a- Psoriasis b- Hypertension c- Calcium supplement d- Acne

159 List 8 side effects of Corticosteroids :

1 Water & sod. Retention 2 Cushing syndrome 3 Gastric ulcer 4 Hypertension 5 Pot. Loss 6 DM [ diabetes mellitus ] 7 Glaucoma 8 Osteoporosis
160 Maximum dose of Captopril is 150 mg / day 161 Amantadine is used for all of the following except :

a- Antiviral b- For influenza A c- Anti-parkinsonism d- For influenza B


162 All are viral infections except :

a- Hepatitis B b- Influenza c- Herpes Zoster d- Rikettsia


163 At the cardiac arrest [ shock ] . The drug of choice is :

a- Epinephrine b- Propranolol c- Hydrocortisone d- Saline sol.


164 Give ae example of cardio selective B blocker ?

a- Atenolol b- Bisoprolol c- Esmolol d- Betaxolol e- Metoprolol f- Acebutolol

165 Drugs to pass B.B.B. should be :

a- Unionized hydrophilic b- Ionized hydrophilic c- Unionized lipophilic d- Ionized lipophilic


166 All of these are anti-parkinsonism except :

a- Amantadine b- Apomorphine c- Bromocriptine d- Primidone

e- Lysuride f- Pergolide g- Levodopa h- Selegiline

167 All of these are anti-metabolite [ cytotoxic ] except :

a- Methotrexate b- Cylarabin c- Cyclophosphamide

d- Azothioprin e- Mercaptopurine f- Flurouracil

168 All of these are antichlonergic except :

a- Atropine sulphate b- Hydroatropine c- Mebeverine

d- Iprotropium bromide e- Butrepium bromide

169 All of these are corticosteroids except :

a- Ondansetron b- Prednisolone c- Triamcinolone

d- Beclomethasone e- Dexamethazone f- Methyl prednisolone

170 When newly married do not want child. How to arrange

a- Arrange contraception. b- Send wife to the family doctor c- Send the wife to her mother
171 Side effects of Insulin ?

1 Local reaction [ urticaria ] 2 Hypoglycemia 3 Fat dystrophy at site of injection

172 One of the following is the main side effect of insulin :

a- Hypoglycemia b- Fluid retention c- Hyperglycemia d- All of the above


173 The only aminoglycoside can be taken orally is :

Neomycin sulphate
174 Chloramphenicol affect liver inhibitory enzyme. So

a- Decrease metabolism & increase response b- Decrease metabolism & decrease response c- Increase metabolism & increase response d- Increase metabolism & decrease response
175 OTC simple analgesic is paracetamol 176 Enteric coated tab

a- Pass the stomach & release in the intestine b- Pass the stomach & intestine c- Release in the stomach
177 All of these are true for Levodopa except :

a- precursor of dopa b- Does not pass B.B.B. c- Effective in parkinsonism d- Stimulate dopamine
178 Morphine & Morpin are similar in addiction 179 Cytocin is one of the posterior pituitary hormones 180 The conc. Of the drug on Exp. Date is :

a- Not less than 100% b- Not less than 90% c- From 90-110% d- Non of the above

181 If you have prescription contains Inderal and the patient is

wheezing. What is your advice ? Call the doctor


182 Bioavailability means :

a- Rate b- Extent c- Rate & extent d- Non of the above


183 Pharmacokinetics means :

a- Effect of the body on the drug b- Drug - receptor reaction c- Non of the above
184 Surfactant not used orally

a- Tween b- Spon c- Na lauryl sulphate d- B & C 185 Type 1 Diabetes. advise to use : a- Insulin B- Glibneclamide c- a & b c- Non of the above. 186 Type 11 Diabetes. advise to use : a- Diet control b- Insulin c- Sulphonyl urea d- All of the above 187 One of the following is the main side effect of insulin : a- Hyperglycemia b- Hypoglycemia c- Fluid retention C- All of the above

188 Pentobarbital differs from Phenobarbital in : a- Longer b- Faster C- Not use very much d- a & b 189 Morphine & morpin are similar in : a- Miosis b- Addiction C- Analgesic d- All of the above 190 Theophyllin dose in children. a- Increased metabolism & dose must be increased . b- Decreased metabolism & dose must be increased . c- Decreased metabolism & dose must be decreased .
191 Biotransformation

a- More lipid soluble b- Less lipid soluble.


192 Phenylephrine is used for :

a- Decongestant b- For runny nose c- Sympathomimetics. d- All of the above.


193 Oxytocin produces all the following except :

a- Progestron release b- Uterine stimulation c- Labor induction d- Mammalian glands stimulation


194 Binding to the plasma protein , means :

a- Increase half life b- Decrease half life.

195 New & best therapy for peptic ulcer is :

a- Antacid + H2 antagonist. b- Use more than one H2 antagonist. c- Four medicines including antibiotic.
196 In case of Osteoarthritis & peptic ulcer of elderly patients use :

a- Paracetamol b- Strong NSAI c- Aspirin


197 Give names of drugs that change the color of urine ?

1 Nitrofurantoin 2 Phenazopyridin 3 Rifampcin


198 The drug of choice for Febril Convulsion in children is :

Diazepam 250 microgram / kg.


199 Cyproteron [ Androcur ] is used for :

Increasing the sexual abilities.


200 Immunocompetent means ?

Control resistant to infections.


201 Immunocompromised means ?

Low resistant to infections.


202 Which of the following is not cardio-specific B blocker ?

a- Atenolol b- Acebutolol c- Satolol d- Labetolol


203 Controled released drug delivery depends on :

a- Body fluid interaction b- Enzymatic reactions c- Ready programmed & no influece of the body fluid d- Stomach PH.

204 The conc. Of the drug on exp. Date is :

a- Not less than 100% b- Not less than 90% c- From 90 - 110% d- Not of the above
205 Type 11 Diabetes. Advise to use :

a- Diet control. b- Insulin c- Sulphonyl Urea. d- All of the above.


206 All of these are antichlonergics except :

a- Atropine Sulphate b- Hydro-atropine. c- Mebeverine. d- Iprotropium Bromide. e- Butrepium Bromide.


207 Pharmacokinetics means :

a-Effect of the body on the drug. b- Drug - Receptor reaction c- Non of the above.
208 Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used as :

a- Anti-histaminic b- Anti-depressant c- Anti-hypertensive d- Anti-emetic


209 Type 1 Diabetes. Advise to use :

a- Insulin b- Glibneclamide c- a & b d- Non of the above.


210 Biotransformation

a- More lipid soluble

b- Less lipid soluble

211 Pentobarbital differs from Phenobarbital in :

a- Longer b- Faster c- Not use very much d- a & b


212 Which one of these can not be used in pain crisis :

a- Morphine b- Naproxine c- Codeine d- Colchicin [ used mainly in gout pain ]


213 All of the following are Ca ++ channel blockers except :

a- Mesalamine b- Verapamil c- Cinnarzine d- Amlodipine


214 One of the following is not used for Parkinson disease :

a- Pergolide b- Selegline c- Amantadine d- Disulfiram


215 All the following are ACE inhibitors except :

a- Captopril b- Ramipril c- Lisinopril d- Isradipine


216 Quinidine Sulphate Is :

a- Anti-arrhythmic b- Anti-malarial c- Anti-hypertensive d- a & b

217 All the following are used as Anti-tussive except :

a- Guaifenesin b- Dextromethorphane c- Codeine Phosphate d- Morphine Hydrochloride


218 Nitrous Oxide is used in anaesthesia because :

a- It is non explosive & non inflammable b- It induces rapid induction & rapid recovery c- It is potent muscle relaxant d- All of the above
219 All of the following have GIT upset except :

a- Phenytoin b- Phenobarbiton c- Ethosux - Pn 7 de d- Benzodiazepam


220 A patient has a prescription of Erythromycin 500 mg tablets every 6 hours.

and you do not have this anti-biotic. You can phone the doctor to change it with : a- Clarithromycin b- Amoxicillin c- Clindamycin d- Ampicillin
221 A child of 41 degrees centigrade, when his father ask you about him,

you must tell him to : a- Go to hospital which is 30 m. distance. b- Sponge by tap water and go to hospital. c- Take 1 GM. Paracetamol d- Go to home.
222 The patient under the prescribing drug.

when he comes to you , Then you must tell him : a- All the drug side effects. b- Some relatively side effects. c- Another side effects. d- Non of the above

223 A patient has a prescription of Enalpril + KCL,

what are you ask him ? a- Any product of K do you need. b- You take any other anti-hypertensive c- You need syrup or tablets. d- Not of all
224 ACE inhibitors are used for the treatment of :

a- Asthma b- Migraine c- Hypertension d- All of the above


225 New non sedative anti-histaminics act through :

a- H1 antagonist b- H2 antagonist c- Muscarinic receptors d- B1 antagonist


226 All of the following are B antagonists except :

a- Salbutamol b- Metoprolol c- Nadolol d- Atenolol


227 B agonist causes :

a-Increasing of Oxygen consumption b- Increasing of ectotopic effect c- Increasing of inotopic effect d- All of the above
227 Atropine is used as pre-anaesthetic to :

a- Give skeletal muscle relaxation b- Decrease saliva c- Treat the side effects of anesthesic. d- Help the sleeping effect of anaesthetic

228 A patient weighing 10 kilograms is given a paracetamol

one teaspoon full every 4-6 hours. you should call doctor and tell him that : a- The dose is very high b- The dose must not exceed 180 mg daily c- The dose is not sufficient d- There is no need to call the doctor.
229 Malignant hypothermia is usually a side effect of :

a- Anaesthesia b- Azathropin c- Phenytoin d- Aspirin


230 The common side effect of Sulphonylurea is :

a- GIT upset b- Thyrotoxosis c- Hypoglysuris d- All of the above


231 Vasopressine is used for the treatment of :

a- Diabetes insipidus b- Diabetes mellitus type 1 c- Diabetes mellitus type 2 d- Anti-hypertensive


232 Pseudomembraneous colitis is a side effect of :

a- Vancomycin b- Clindamycin c- Reserpine d- INH

233 Phenobarbiton induces liver microsomal enzymes

when taken with Warfarin anti-coagulant leads to : a- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes so, decreasing the activity of Warfarin b- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes so, increasing the activity of Warfarin c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes so, decreasing the activity of Warfarin c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes so, increasing the activity of Warfarin
234 Tetracycline, when taken with metals such as Calcium, Iron & Aluminium

from a chelate which is : a- Inactive & not absorbed b- Active & poorly absorbed c- Inactive & poorly absorbed d- Active & absorbed
235 Disulfiram is used for :

a- Treatment of chronic alcohol dependence b- Protection of liver cells from alcoholism c- Prevention of conversion of acetaldehyde to acetic acid d- All of the above
236 The drug transfer through the cell membrane by :

a- Aqueous diffusion b- Osmotic pressure c- Lipid dissolve d- Non of the above

237 Protein bound drugs forming a compound which is :

a- Inactive while the free part is active b- Highly active while the free part is inactive c- Less active while the free part is active d- Active while the free part is more active
238 The drug metabolism in the body occurs in :

a- GIT & Plasma b- Gut wall during absorption c- Gut wall during absorption & in plasma stream d- Liver , Kidney & bowel mucosa
239 Clonidine is used as :

a- A drug that prevents the recurrence of Migraine b- Anti-hypertensive acting centrally c- a & b d- Non of the above
240 Dolomol is :

a- Paracetamol with analgesic & anti-inflammatory b- Paracetamol with analgesic & without anti-inflammatory c- Non Paracetamol with analgesic & anti-inflammatory d- Non Paracetamol with analgesic & without anti-inflammatory
241 Metoclopramide gives its anti-emetic through :

a- Peripheral action b- Dopaminergic receptors c- Muscarinic receptors d- All of the above


242 Dobutamine is used as :

a- Parasympathomimetic b- In cardiac surgery c- Hypotensive agent d- All of the above

243 The following are the indications of Diazepam except :

a- Anti-Psychotic b- Epelipsy c- Analgesic d- Hypnotic


244 The diuretic which is used with Captopril is :

a- Aldactone b- Ethacrynic acid c- Furosemide d- Non of the above


245 The following drugs are used for the treatment of anxiety except :

a- Propranolol b- Diazepam c- Homatropine d- Mebrobamate


246 All the following are macrolides except :

a- Clarithomycin b- Roxithromycin c- Erythromycin d- Clindamycin


247 The main use of Metronidazole is :

a- Anti-amoebiasis b- Anthelmintic c- Anti-biotic d- Anti-malarial

Ondansetron HCL is used for : a- Hypertension b- Angina pectoris c- Prophylaxis of migraine d- Anti-emetic It is used as Ondansetron is

All These are side effects of Chloramphenicol except : a- Irreversible a plastic anemia b- optic neuritis c- peripheral neuritis d- iron deficiency anemia Ticlopidine is used for : a- Anticoagulant b- Antibiotic c- anticholinergic d- Antiplatelets All these drugs are fibrinolytic except : a- Dipyridamole b- Steptokinase c- urikinase All These drugs cause anti-metabolic effect except : a- Methotrexate b- Flurouracil C- Cytabrin d- Azothioprine e- Cyclophosphamide All These drugs can be used for Parkinsonism except : a- Selgitine HCL b- Carbidopa

1
6

c- Pergolide d- Nedocromil Sod.


7

all These cases not cure with thiazides except : a- Hypernatrimia b- hyperglycemia c- Hypokalaemia d- hyperuricaemia Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except : a- Ephedrine b- Ledocaine c- Propranolol d- Normal saline Insulin which can be given I.V. is : a- Regular type b- 30/70 type c- NPH type d- Non of the above

10 Drug is used for Leishmania :

a- Sod. Stiboglyconate b- Sod. Cromoglyconate c- Mebendazole


11 All These drugs are anti-bacterial except :

a- Zalcitabine b-Lomefloxacin c- Cefprazone


12 All These are natural Estrogens except :

a- Mestronol b- Oestrone c- Oestriol d- Oestradiol


13 Co-Trimethoxazole contains :

14 Which one of the following has vasodilator effect :

a- Nicotine b- Cholestyramin c- urikinase d- Vit. A


15 One of the following is not from Quinolone group :

a- Nalidixic acid b- Quinine c- Eoxacin d- Norfloxacin


16 One of the following is not for Epilepsy :

a- Clorizepam b- Phenytoin c- Primidone d- Imipramine


17 All of these can be used for Leprosy except :

a- Dapson b- Rifampcin c- Clofazinine d- INH


18 Sumatriptan is used for :

a- Hypertension b- Treatment of migraine c- Angina Pectoris d- Control of Epilepsy


19 Which one of the following is enzyme inducer :

a- Rifampcin b- Cimetidine c- Chloramphenicol d- Vit. C


20 All of the following for prophylaxis of asthma except :

a- Ketotifen

b- Nedocromil Sod. c- Sod. Cromoglycate d- Salbutamol


21 All of the following is NSAH [ non sedating antihistamine ] except :

a- Loratidine b- Cetrizine c- Astemizol d- Azotodin


22 All of the following are controlled drugs except :

a- Rivotril b- Epanutin c- Sresolid d- Diazepam


23 All These drugs are anti-viral except :

a- Amantadine b- Zidovudine c- Acyclovir d- Aluerin [ anti-spasmodic ]


24 Which one of the symptoms does not occur with morphine :

a- Diarrhea b- Respiratory depression c- Constipation d- Vomiting


25 Which one of these drugs is not used for acute pain :

a- Naproxen b- Colchicine c- Codeine d- Prednisolone


26 Which one of these drugs is drug of choice for Myxodema

[ Hypothyrodism ] a- Carbimazole b- iodine c- thyroxin sod.

d- propyl thiouracil
27 Benzyl peroxide is a local treatment for 28 Vit. A daily dose is

29 The drug of choice for the treatment of amoebae :

a- Chloramphenicol b- Tetracycline c- Gentamycin d- Metronidazole


30 To prevent more absorption of the toxic drug we use :

a- Water b- Salt Sol. c- Saline d- Charcoal


31 Hepatitis Vaccine dose is :

a- Once / year b- Twice / Year c- Three times / Year


32 Which one is OTC drug :

a- Simple analgesic b- Warfarin c- Ciprofloxacin


33 Anti-coagulant effect of Warfarin is decreased by :

a- Rifampcin b- Aspirin c- Vit. K d- Verapamil


34 One of the following is given once daily

a- Amorphous Insulin b- Protamine Zinc Insulin c- Neutral insulin

d- Regular Insulin
35 The steady state conc. Of the drug in the plasma depends on :

a- Direct proportion to the rate of administration b- Indirect proportion to the rate of administration c- Indirect proportion to the rate of elimination d- Direct proportion to the rate of elimination
36 All these are Anti-Coagulants except :

a- Warfarin b- Ancord c- Heparin d- Dipyridamol


37 All these are Anti-Platelets except :

a- Dipyridamol b- Aspirin c- Streptokinase d- Presantin e- Ticlopidine


38 Ferrograde is :

a- Ferrous Sulphate b- Ferrous Citrate c- Ferrous gluconate d- Ferrous Fumarate


39 Procainamide is :

a- Ca channel blocker b- Nifedipine c- Lisinopril d- Qunidine


40 What is the mechanism of action of Vit. K ?

41 Thiazide diuretics cause all the following except :

a- Hypokalamia

b- Hypercalcemia c- Hyperuricamia d- Hyponatrimia e- Hyperglycemia f- Hypernatremia


42 Treatment with anti-arrhythmic drug depends on except :

a- Type of medication b- Period of medication c- Patient sex


43 Elimination of Digoxin is mainly by :

a- Kidney b- Liver c- Both d- None of the above


44 Dobutamine is given I.V. because :

a- It is not stable in the gastric PH b- It is needed in large quantities in case of oral route c- It is eliminated very quickly
45 Amilorid as trimetren causes :

a- CNS disturbances b- Hyperkalamia c- Hypokalamia d- Not affect K [ Potassium ]


46 What is the most drug can cause damage if it is given OTC ?

a- Captopril b- Warfarin c- Chlorothiazide d- Rifampcin


47 Drug physical dependence is as same as drug abuse

a- True b- false
48 Mention two Thiazide diuretics ?

49 What is the difference between QID & Q6H ?

QID = Q6H =
50 What is the difference between the following anti-fungal ?

Miconazole = Amphotercin = Griseofulvin =


51 Give the indication of the following drugs :

1- Gimfibrazole 2- Cisapride 3- Fluoxetin 4- Carbimazole 5- Imipramine 6- Ipratropium Br.


52 All are anti-metabolic except :

a- Methotrexate b- Flurouracil c- Cytabrin d- Azothiopin e- Cyclophosphamide


53 Cefaclor is :

a- Ist, Generation Cephalosporin b- 2nd, generation Cephalosporin c- 3rd, generation Cephalosporin d- None of the above
54 Which Aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally ?

a- Gentamycin b- Neomycin c- Amikacin d- Tobramycin

55 Teicoplanin antibiotic has similar effect on Gram positive as :

10

a- Vancomycin b- Jamicacin c- Gentamycin d- Kanamycin


56 Which one is not Tetracycline ?

10

a- Minocycline b- Demeclocycline c- Doxycycline d- Clindamycin


57 Which one is not Ca channel blocker ?

a- Verapamil b- Deltiazem c- Amlodipine d- Cinnarzine


58 Mesalazine is used for

59 Mention 4 lipid soluble vitamins ?

60 Imipenam [ Carbapenam ] is

61 All These medications are used in treating T.B. except :

a- Cyclosporin b- INH c- Cycloserin d- Rifampcin


62 All These drugs are anti-cholinergic except :

11

a- Iprotropium b- Atropine Sulphate c- Benzatropine Methylate d- Dobutamin

11

63 All Of These are antibiotics except :

a- Zalcitabin b- Cefaprozil c- loefloxacin d- Cefopodoxin


64 There is one drug is used for HIV :

a- Zalcitabin b- Kinasterdin c- Cefaprozil d- Enoxacin


65 Which one is Suprax ?

a- Cefixime b- Itraconazole
66 Which one is Sporanox ?

a- Cefixime b- Itraconazole
67 All of These can be used in treating leprosy except :

a- Dapson b- Rifampcin c- Clofazimine d- INH


68 One of these is not like the others :

12

a-Timolol b- Acebutalol c- Labetolol d- Betaxolol


69 Which is not Aminoglycoside ?

12

a- Netilimicin b- Tobramycin c- Kanamycin d- Lymecyclin


70 Betahistine HCL

a- For Mieniere disease b- Antihistamine c- Analgesic d- a & b


71 Which one is not 5HT3 antagonist ?

a- Tropisetron b- Ondansetron c- Domperidone [ Motilium ] d- Granisetron


72 Which is not oral anti-coagulant ?

a- Warfarin b- Enoxaprine c- Phenidione d- Nicoumolone


73 Which is correct ? Diazepam

a- Can cause muscle spasm b- Is taken I.M. only c- Is derivative from Morphine d- Is not used for long term 13 74 Maximum dose of Paracetamol is Gm / day 13

75 The duration of treatment of T.B. by CTC is :

[ CTC is Tuberculosis Committee Thoracic Society ] a- One week b- Two months c- One month d- 6 months
76 Metoclopramide is

77 Which one is contra-indicated in pregnancy :

a- Sucralfate b- Ethambutol

c- Chlorphenramine d- Ciprofloxacin
78 What is the definition of Bioavailability of the drug ?

79 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Hepatotoxicity ?

13-

24-

80 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Nephrotoxicity ?

14
81 Give the anti-dote for each of the following :

14

Heparin Paracetamol Warfarin Morphine


82 What is the generic name of Vit. B 12 ?

83 Zidovudine is used for 84 What is the meaning of poor patient compliance ?

85 Fluxotine is :

86 Omeprazole is

87 Mention two diseases cause Edema ?

1-

2-

88 Give examples of drug - drug interactions ?

15

123456789 Generic name of :

15

Vit. B1 Vit. B2 Vit. B6 Vit. B12


90 All of these are the components of Calamine lotion B.P. except :

a- ZnO b- calamine c- Sod. Citrate d- Bentonite e- Sod. Sulphate


91 Terbinafine is used topically for :

a- Eczema b- Candida c- Fungal infections


92 Which one is not contra-indicated in pregnancy ?

a- Captopril b- Enalpril c- Lisinopril d- Methyldopa


93 PCP [ Pneumocystis Corini Pneumonia ]

a- Virus b- Bacteria

c- Parasite d- Mycobacterum
94 Which of the following is not antibiotic ?

16

a- Erythromycin b- Cefprozil c- Ceprodoxin d- Finasteride


95 Which one is used for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia [ BPHP ]

16

a- Flumazenil b- Cefprozil c- Mivacurim d- Finasteride


96 All of these are third generation Cephalosporin except :

a- Cefixime b- Cefopodoxime c- Ceftriaxone d- Cefotaxime


97 Which of the following is not mucolytic ?

a- Bromohexin b- Carbocistene c- Ambroxol d- guaphenesin e- Dextromethorphan


98 Which one is anti-platelet ?

a- Ticlopidine b- Desfluron c- Aldesleukin d- Atovaquon


99 All of these anti-neoplastic except :

17

a- Aldesleukin b- Teniposide c- Pentostatin d- Amlodipine

17

100 Which is not Benzodiazepine ?

a- Temazepam b- Nitrozepam c- Loprazolam d- Clozapine


101 Potassium supplement must not be given with Triametren

1- False

2- True

102 Misoprostol inhibit gastric acid by blocking the hydrogen potassium

adenosine triphosphate enzyme system of gastric cell [ Misoprostol is Cytotic ] 1- False


103 MMR vaccine is 104 Oral re-hydrate solution is one of the following :

2- True

a- Sod. Citrate - Pot. Chloride - Glucose b- Sod. Citrate - Pot. Chloride - Sod. Chloride c- Sod. Chloride - Pot. Citrate - Sod. Citrate - glucose d- Sod. Chloride - Pot. Chloride - NaHCO3 - Citric acid
105 Gemfibrazile

a- Increase HDL & Triglycerides b- Increase HDL & decrease Triglycerides c- Decrease HDL & LDL d- Increase LDL & Triglycerides.
106 Nitroprusside Sod. Is :

a- Potent vasodilator b- potent diuretic c- potent vasoconstrictor d- Anti-arrhythmic agent.


107 4 drugs need monitor for their serum level

18

18

12-

34-

108 For Fluxacillin, all these statments are wrong except :

a- It is activated by Penicillinase enzyme b- It is taken by oral route only c- It is base stable d- It is better absorbed than Cloxacilin
109 What are the instruction for patient taken Metamucil

Or any other bulk foaming laxative as Bran, methyl Cellulose & Psyllum :

110 Cytotec

Is used for

111 Mention two drugs from HMG - COA- reductase inhibitors

112 HMG-COA-Reductase Inhibitor is

113 Source of Human Insulin is E-Coli by :

19
114 Zinnat contains :

19

115 Thiabendazole is one of Thiazides diuretics

1- False

2- True

116 Praziquantil is :

a- Cause loss of intracellular calcium of worms b- Used for malaria c- Biltracid is the trade name d- a & c
117 Nitrofurantoin is indicated for :

a- Viral infection b- GIT Infection c- Urinary tract infection [ UTI ] d- URI


118 Vit. K

a- Increase formation of clotting factor b- Increase conversion of Vit. K to the active form c- Prevent conversion of Vit. K back to the active form d- Non of the above
119 Quinidine Sulphate is :

20

a- Anti-arrhythmic agent b- Anti-malarial agent c- Anti-hypertensive agent d- a & c


120 ACE stands for :

20

a- Converting Ag11 to vasoconstrictor Ag1 b- Converting Ag1 to vasoconstrictor Ag11 c- Converting Ag1 to vasodilator Ag11 d- Converting Ag11 to vasodilator Ag1
121 One of these side effects not occur with Thiazide diuretics

a- Hypernatraemia b- Hypoglycemia c- Hypokalamia d- Hyperuricamia


122 Ipeca is emetic agent which induce emesis through :

a- Stimulation of the stomach b- Stimulation of the CTZ c- a & b d- Inhibition of the stomach through CNS
123 Theophyllin is

a- Bronchdilator b- B2 agonist c- Cause Bradycardia

d- All of the above


124 Schedule of immunization for HBV is :

a- Single dose b- Two doses c- Three doses d- Five doses


125 Itraconazol

21

Is
126 Treatment of anaphylactic reaction is initiated by immediate :

21

a- Hydrocortisone b- Cimetidine c- Human albumin d- Epinephrine


127 Introduction of emesis is not indicated in the following except :

a- Caustic substance ingestion b- CNS c- Seizures d- Paracetamol poisoning


128 all of these are anions except :

a- Phosphate b-Acetate c- Sodium d- Chloride


129 Astemizole is

130 Triazole is

a- Antifungal b- Trade name of clotrimazole c- Trade name of amphotercin B d- Nystatin


131 With Minoxidil, all these parameters should be monitored except :

22

a- Urine flow rate b- B.P. c- Pulse rate d- Body weight


132 Aspirin is recommended with one of the following :

22

a- Anti-coagulant b- Chicken box c- Influenza symptoms d- Dys-menorrhoea


133 Which is not true with Tetracycline

a- Broad spectrum bacteriostatic b- Broad spectrum bactericidal c- Inhibit protein synthesis d- Used for acne
134 Give 2 indications for allopurinol

12135 Give an ex. Of non sedating anti-histamines

136 Famotidine is

137 What are the effects of Captopril

1- Decrease conversion of Ag1 to Ag11 2- Effective hypotensive when others are contra-indicated [ B blockers & diuretics ]
138 Type 2 Diabetics is characterized by :

23

a- Lack of response to Insulin b- Lack of response to sulphonylurea c- Respond to dietary therapy alone d- Slowly increasing sulphonylurea requirement
139 Give 2 side effects of Aminoglycosides ?

23

140 Mention 2 quinolones

1 2
141 Give 3 drugs as Pot. Sparing diuretics

142 Acetazolamide is

143 Which one reduces the metabolism of other drugs in the liver :

a- Rifampcin B- Vit. C c- Cimetidine d- Metronidazole


144 All of these can be dispensed without prescription except :

a- Aspirin d- Tegretol
145 Simvastatin is used for 146 Acetohexamide is

b- Maalox

c- Bisacodyl

147 List the trade name of the following :

24

Pindolol Baclofen Omeprazol


148 What is the meaning of each of the following :

24

POM BID ECG G.6.PD BPC

149 Which of these is Pro-drug

a- Ampicillin b- Erythromycin c- Pivampicillin d-All of the above


150 500 ml Normal saline 0.9 % contains 151 Mention 3 ACEI

gm. NACL

152 Levodopa with Cardiodopa for the treatment of 153 Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitor are used as :

a- Antihistaminic b- Antidepressant c- Antihypertensive d- antiemetic


154 Which of these has no vasodilator effect :

25

a- Methyl dopa b- Hydralazine c- Enalpril d- Prazocin


155 Enalpril is the prodrug of :

25

156 Mention 3 drugs contraindicated in pregnancy :

1 2 3
157 List 3 drugs used to treat T.B. :

1 2 3
158 Calcipotriol is indicated for :

a- Psoriasis b- Hypertension c- Calcium supplement d- Acne


159 List 8 side effects of Corticosteroids :

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 26 160 Maximum dose of Captopril is mg / day 26

161 Amantadine is used for all of the following except :

a- Antiviral b- For influenza A c- Anti-parkinsonism d- For influenza B


162 All are viral infections except :

a- Hepatitis B b- Influenza c- Herpes Zoster d- Rikettsia


163 At the cardiac arrest [ shock ] . The drug of choice is :

a- Epinephrine b- Propranolol c- Hydrocortisone d- Saline sol.


164 Give ae example of cardio selective B blocker ?

a- Atenolol b- Bisoprolol c- Esmolol

d- Betaxolol e- Metoprolol f- Acebutolol


165 Drugs to pass B.B.B. should be :

27

a- Unionized hydrophilic b- Ionized hydrophilic c- Unionized lipophilic d- Ionized lipophilic


166 All of these are anti-parkinsonism except :

27

a- Amantadine b- Apomorphine c- Bromocriptine d- Primidone

e- Lysuride f- Pergolide g- Levodopa h- Selegiline

167 All of these are anti-metabolite [ cytotoxic ] except :

a- Methotrexate b- Cylarabin c- Cyclophosphamide

d- Azothioprin e- Mercaptopurine f- Flurouracil

168 All of these are antichlonergic except :

a- Atropine sulphate b- Hydroatropine c- Mebeverine

d- Iprotropium bromide e- Butrepium bromide

169 All of these are corticosteroids except :

a- Ondansetron b- Prednisolone c- Triamcinolone

d- Beclomethasone e- Dexamethazone f- Methyl prednisolone

170 When newly married do not want child. How to arrange

a- Arrange contraception. b- Send wife to the family doctor c- Send the wife to her mother
171 Side effects of Insulin ?

1 Local reaction [ urticaria ] 2 Hypoglycemia

28

3 Fat dystrophy at site of injection


172 One of the following is the main side effect of insulin :

28

a- Hypoglycemia b- Fluid retention c- Hyperglycemia d- All of the above


173 The only aminoglycoside can be taken orally is :

174 Chloramphenicol affect liver inhibitory enzyme. So

a- Decrease metabolism & increase response b- Decrease metabolism & decrease response c- Increase metabolism & increase response d- Increase metabolism & decrease response
175 OTC simple analgesic is 176 Enteric coated tab

a- Pass the stomach & release in the intestine b- Pass the stomach & intestine c- Release in the stomach
177 All of these are true for Levodopa except :

a- precursor of dopa b- Does not pass B.B.B. c- Effective in parkinsonism d- Stimulate dopamine
178 Morphine & Morpin are similar in

29 179 Cytocin is
180 The conc. Of the drug on Exp. Date is :

29

a- Not less than 100% b- Not less than 90% c- From 90-110% d- Non of the above

181 If you have prescription contains Inderal and the patient is

wheezing. What is your advice ?

182 Bioavailability means :

a- Rate b- Extent c- Rate & extent d- Non of the above


183 Pharmacokinetics means :

a- Effect of the body on the drug b- Drug - receptor reaction c- Non of the above
184 Surfactant not used orally

30

a- Tween b- Spon c- Na lauryl sulphate d- B & C 185 Type 1 Diabetes. advise to use : a- Insulin B- Glibneclamide c- a & b c- Non of the above. 186 Type 11 Diabetes. advise to use : a- Diet control b- Insulin c- Sulphonyl urea d- All of the above 187 One of the following is the main side effect of insulin : a- Hyperglycemia b- Hypoglycemia c- Fluid retention C- All of the above

30

188 Pentobarbital differs from Phenobarbital in : a- Longer b- Faster C- Not use very much d- a & b 189 Morphine & morpin are similar in : a- Miosis b- Addiction C- Analgesic 31 d- All of the above 190 Theophyllin dose in children. a- Increased metabolism & dose must be increased . b- Decreased metabolism & dose must be increased . c- Decreased metabolism & dose must be decreased .
191 Biotransformation

31

a- More lipid soluble b- Less lipid soluble.


192 Phenylephrine is used for :

a- Decongestant b- For runny nose c- Sympathomimetics. d- All of the above.


193 Oxytocin produces all the following except :

a- Progestron release b- Uterine stimulation c- Labor induction d- Mammalian glands stimulation


194 Binding to the plasma protein , means :

32

a- Increase half life b- Decrease half life.


195 New & best therapy for peptic ulcer is :

32

a- Antacid + H2 antagonist. b- Use more than one H2 antagonist. c- Four medicines including antibiotic.
196 In case of Osteoarthritis & peptic ulcer of elderly patients use :

a- Paracetamol b- Strong NSAI c- Aspirin


197 Give names of drugs that change the color of urine ?

1 Nitrofurantoin 2 Phenazopyridin 3 Rifampcin


198 The drug of choice for Febril Convulsion in children is :

199 Cyproteron [ Androcur ] is used for :

200 Immunocompetent means ?

33
201 Immunocompromised means ?

33

202 Which of the following is not cardio-specific B blocker ?

a- Atenolol b- Acebutolol c- Satolol d- Labetolol


203 Controled released drug delivery depends on :

a- Body fluid interaction b- Enzymatic reactions c- Ready programmed & no influece of the body fluid d- Stomach PH.
204 The conc. Of the drug on exp. Date is :

a- Not less than 100% b- Not less than 90% c- From 90 - 110% d- Not of the above
205 Type 11 Diabetes. Advise to use :

34

a- Diet control. b- Insulin c- Sulphonyl Urea. d- All of the above.


206 All of these are antichlonergics except :

34

a- Atropine Sulphate b- Hydro-atropine. c- Mebeverine. d- Iprotropium Bromide. e- Butrepium Bromide.


207 Pharmacokinetics means :

a-Effect of the body on the drug. b- Drug - Receptor reaction c- Non of the above.
208 Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used as :

a- Anti-histaminic b- Anti-depressant c- Anti-hypertensive d- Anti-emetic


209 Type 1 Diabetes. Advise to use :

a- Insulin b- Glibneclamide c- a & b d- Non of the above.


210 Biotransformation

35

a- More lipid soluble b- Less lipid soluble

35

211 Pentobarbital differs from Phenobarbital in :

a- Longer b- Faster c- Not use very much d- a & b


212 Which one of these can not be used in pain crisis :

a- Morphine b- Naproxine c- Codeine d- Colchicin [ used mainly in gout pain ]


213 All of the following are Ca ++ channel blockers except :

a- Mesalamine b- Verapamil c- Cinnarzine d- Amlodipine


214 One of the following is not used for Parkinson disease :

a- Pergolide b- Selegline c- Amantadine d- Disulfiram


215 All the following are ACE inhibitors except :

36

a- Captopril b- Ramipril c- Lisinopril d- Isradipine


216 Quinidine Sulphate Is :

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a- Anti-arrhythmic b- Anti-malarial c- Anti-hypertensive d- a & b


217 All the following are used as Anti-tussive except :

a- Guaifenesin b- Dextromethorphane

c- Codeine Phosphate d- Morphine Hydrochloride


218 Nitrous Oxide is used in anaesthesia because :

a- It is non explosive & non inflammable b- It induces rapid induction & rapid recovery c- It is potent muscle relaxant d- All of the above
219 All of the following have GIT upset except :

a- Phenytoin b- Phenobarbiton c- Ethosux - Pn 7 de d- Benzodiazepam


220 A patient has a prescription of Erythromycin 500 mg tablets every 6 hours.

37

and you do not have this anti-biotic. You can phone the doctor to change it with : a- Clarithromycin b- Amoxicillin c- Clindamycin d- Ampicillin 37
221 A child of 41 degrees centigrade, when his father ask you about him,

you must tell him to : a- Go to hospital which is 30 m. distance. b- Sponge by tap water and go to hospital. c- Take 1 GM. Paracetamol d- Go to home.
222 The patient under the prescribing drug.

when he comes to you , Then you must tell him : a- All the drug side effects. b- Some relatively side effects. c- Another side effects. d- Non of the above
223 A patient has a prescription of Enalpril + KCL,

what are you ask him ?

a- Any product of K do you need. b- You take any other anti-hypertensive c- You need syrup or tablets. d- Not of all
224 ACE inhibitors are used for the treatment of :

a- Asthma b- Migraine c- Hypertension d- All of the above


225 New non sedative anti-histaminics act through :

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a- H1 antagonist b- H2 antagonist c- Muscarinic receptors d- B1 antagonist


226 All of the following are B antagonists except :

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a- Salbutamol b- Metoprolol c- Nadolol d- Atenolol


227 B agonist causes :

a-Increasing of Oxygen consumption b- Increasing of ectotopic effect c- Increasing of inotopic effect d- All of the above
227 Atropine is used as pre-anaesthetic to :

a- Give skeletal muscle relaxation b- Decrease saliva c- Treat the side effects of anesthesic. d- Help the sleeping effect of anaesthetic
228 A patient weighing 10 kilograms is given a paracetamol

one teaspoon full every 4-6 hours. you should call doctor and tell him that : a- The dose is very high

b- The dose must not exceed 180 mg daily c- The dose is not sufficient d- There is no need to call the doctor.
229 Malignant hypothermia is usually a side effect of :

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a- Anaesthesia b- Azathropin c- Phenytoin d- Aspirin


230 The common side effect of Sulphonylurea is :

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a- GIT upset b- Thyrotoxosis c- Hypoglysuris d- All of the above


231 Vasopressine is used for the treatment of :

a- Diabetes insipidus b- Diabetes mellitus type 1 c- Diabetes mellitus type 2 d- Anti-hypertensive


232 Pseudomembraneous colitis is a side effect of :

a- Vancomycin b- Clindamycin c- Reserpine d- INH


233 Phenobarbiton induces liver microsomal enzymes

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when taken with Warfarin anti-coagulant leads to : a- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes so, decreasing the activity of Warfarin b- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes so, increasing the activity of Warfarin c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes so, decreasing the activity of Warfarin c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes so, increasing the activity of Warfarin

40

234 Tetracycline, when taken with metals such as Calcium, Iron & Aluminium

from a chelate which is : a- Inactive & not absorbed b- Active & poorly absorbed c- Inactive & poorly absorbed d- Active & absorbed
235 Disulfiram is used for :

a- Treatment of chronic alcohol dependence b- Protection of liver cells from alcoholism c- Prevention of conversion of acetaldehyde to acetic acid d- All of the above
236 The drug transfer through the cell membrane by :

a- Aqueous diffusion b- Osmotic pressure c- Lipid dissolve d- Non of the above


237 Protein bound drugs forming a compound which is :

a- Inactive while the free part is active b- Highly active while the free part is inactive c- Less active while the free part is active d- Active while the free part is more active
238 The drug metabolism in the body occurs in :

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a- GIT & Plasma b- Gut wall during absorption c- Gut wall during absorption & in plasma stream d- Liver , Kidney & bowel mucosa
239 Clonidine is used as :

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a- A drug that prevents the recurrence of Migraine b- Anti-hypertensive acting centrally c- a & b d- Non of the above
240 Dolomol is :

a- Paracetamol with analgesic & anti-inflammatory

b- Paracetamol with analgesic & without anti-inflammatory c- Non Paracetamol with analgesic & anti-inflammatory d- Non Paracetamol with analgesic & without anti-inflammatory
241 Metoclopramide gives its anti-emetic through :

a- Peripheral action b- Dopaminergic receptors c- Muscarinic receptors d- All of the above


242 Dobutamine is used as :

a- Parasympathomimetic b- In cardiac surgery c- Hypotensive agent d- All of the above


243 The following are the indications of Diazepam except :

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a- Anti-Psychotic b- Epelipsy c- Analgesic d- Hypnotic


244 The diuretic which is used with Captopril is :

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a- Aldactone b- Ethacrynic acid c- Furosemide d- Non of the above


245 The following drugs are used for the treatment of anxiety except :

a- Propranolol b- Diazepam c- Homatropine d- Mebrobamate


246 All the following are macrolides except :

a- Clarithomycin b- Roxithromycin c- Erythromycin d- Clindamycin

247 The main use of Metronidazole is :

a- Anti-amoebiasis b- Anthelmintic c- Anti-biotic d- Anti-malarial

DEFINITIONS DRUG Is any small molecule that when introduced into the body affect the functions. PHARMACODYNAMIC : Is the interaction between the drug & the body. OR : The effect [ desired & undesired ] of the drug on the body PHARMACOKINETIC : Is the way of the body to handle the drug. [ through absorption, distribution, metabolism & excretion ] EFFICACY : Is the relation between occupancy of receptor sites & the pharmacological response. OR : Is the degree of response regardless the dose. POTENCY : Is the dose or concentration of the drug required to produce a given response. OR : Is the minimal dose required for the needed response. THERAPEUTIC INDEX : Is the ratio between TD50 : ED50. TD50 is toxic dose that produce undesired effect. ED50 is effective dose that produce desired effect.

IDIOSYNCRASY : Is unusual drug response. i.e. single individual may respond differently to the same drug at different times during the course of treatment. HYPERSENSITIVITY : Is allergic or any other immunological response to the drug TOLERANCE : Is the decreasing of the intensity of response during the treatment. [ the patient feels to increase the dose of the drug to get the same response ] TACHYPHYLAXIS : When responsiveness decreases rapidly after drug administration BIOAVAILABILITY : Measure of speed & completeness of absorption from the site of administration. CLEARANCE : Is the measure of the ability of the body to eliminate the drug through the urine[ relative to the plasma drug conc. ] VOLUME OF DISTRIBUTION : Is the measure of the space in the body available to contain the drug.

HALF LIFE : Is the time required to attain 50% of steady state OR : Is the time to decay 50% of the steady state. MAINTENANCE DOSE : The dose needed to maintain a chosen steady state. LOADING DOSE : Is the amount of the drug needed to achieve a given steady state conc. In the plasma. XENOBIOTICS : Substances absorbed across the lungs, skin or ingested with food or drinks or drugs for recreational purposes.

ORPHAN DRUGS ; Drugs for rare diseases. 1- What is the mechanism of drug permeation ? There are 4 mechanisms : 1- Aquous diffusion through gut or cornes. 2- Lipid diffusion through cell membranes. 3- Special carriers as B.B.B. 4- Pinocytosis drugs of exceptional large size 2- What are the factors that affect the drug distribution ? 1- Protein binding 2- Blood flow 3- Membrane permeability 4- Tissue solubility Diabetes Mellitus [ DM ]

IDDM Insulin Dependant DM Type 1 Type 1 : Is a severe form. Mainly in juveniles & rare in adults ( non obese & elderly ) Occurs due to infections as mumps or exposure to destructive substance as Cytotoxics. There is ketosis.

NIDDM Non Insulin Dependant DM Type 11 Type 11 : Mainly in adults ( obese ) insulin is insufficient or the tissue sensitivity to insulin is low or B cells impaired to respond to Glucose.

* Insulin Structure : It is 51 amino acids in two chains [ A & B ] linked by disulphide bridges. Beef insulin is differ in 3 amino acids. But Pork is differ in one only. Human Pancreas has Islets of Langerhams which has 4 types of cells A cells [ alpha ]
secretes glycogen

B cells [ beta ]
secretes Insulin

D cells [ delta ]
secretes somatostatin

F cells [ PP ]
secretes pancreatic polypeptides

* Insulin preparations ; 1- Short acting Insulin : a- Regular type [ crystalline zinc ] clear sol. & the only one can be taken I.V. b- Semilente [ amorphous crystalline ] 2- Intermediate acing Insulin : a- Lente type is mixture of [ 30% semilent & 70% ultralent ] b- NPH [ protamine zinc - Isophane ] ex. most common use one is 30/70 type ( NOVOLIN ) from Squibb it is 70% NPH & 30% regular type. 3- Long acting Insulin : ex. Ultralente

* Complications of Insulin Therapy ; 1- hypoglycemia [ treated by sugar intake ] 2- lipodystrophy at the site of injection. 3- Two immunopathology disorders a- Insulin allergy local & systemic urticaria b- immuno insulin resistance the tissues sensitivity to insulin decreased due to IgG anti-insulin antibody neutralize the action of insulin.

** Oral Hypoglycemics : 1- Sulphonyl Ureas mainly are used for type 11 DM as Tolbutamide - Glibenclamide [ Daonil ] - Tolazamide Acetohexamide - Glipizide - Chlorpropamide
Mechanism of action
a- Stimulate B cells to release Insulin b- Decrease the serum glycogen c- Potentiate the action of Insulin on the target tissues.

2- Biguanides : It decreases the level of glucose in the blood as Phenformin [ Glucophage ] - Metformin - Buformin Bronchodilators & Asthma Drugs used to treat asthma are : 1- Cromolyn Sod. ex. Sod. Cromoglycate for prophylaxis. 2- Methyl Xanthines ex. Theophylline - Theobromine - Caffeine Aminophylline [ theophylline + ethyldiamine ] Pentoxyfylline [ Trental ] 3- Sympathomimetics : ex. Ephedrine - Epinephrine - Isoproternol [ non specific B agonist ] B2 selective agonists as : a- Terbutaline [ Bricanyl ] b- Metaproternol [ Alupent ] c- Albuterol [ Salbovent , Ventolin ] 4- Anti-muscarinic drugs : ex. Atropine - Ipratropium [ Atrovent 5- Corticosteroids : ex. Beclomethasone - Dexamethazone - Triamcinolone.

AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM [ ANS ] Q- What is the difference between ANS & endocrine system ? ** Is in the mode of transmission in case endocrine system via blood - borne hormones. in case ANS via chemical transmission as acetylcholine & nor-epinephrine And both of them is used to control & integrate the body functions. Q- The nervous system is two divisions : a- Autonomic b- Somatic What is the difference ? ** The autonomic to control the activities that are not under conscious as blood flow , cardiac output The somatic to control the activities that under conscious. as respiration , exercise.

Q- The autonomic nervous system is sub-divided into : a- Sympathetic b- Parasympathetic What is effect on the body activities of both of them ?
Organ 1- Heart Sub-organ
action

Sympathetic
receptor action

Parasympathetic
receptor

Vascular muscles contractility

constrict contract Relax Relax contract ****** ejaculation Relax Relax contract Increase Increase contract contract

alpha alpha B2 B2 Alpha **** alpha B2 B2 alpha M alpha alpha alpha

relax relax contract contract Relax Increase erection

Muscarinic/M M M M M M M

2- Lungs 3- G.I.T.

bronchial muscles walls sphincters Secretions

4- Sex Organs Penis uterus 5- Urinary t. Bladder wall sphincters 6- Skin sweat glands Heat stress 7- Eye Radial muscles circular muscles [ mydriasis ]

contract Relax

M M

Relax Relax [ miosis ]

M M

A- PARASYMPATHOMIMETICS :

A- Direct acting
muscarinic nicotinic

B- Indirect acting
reversible 1- Carbamates 2- Edrophonium

Cholinesterase inhibitors

irreversible
Phosphates

esters 1- Acetylcholine 2- Bethanchole 3- Methacholine 4- Carbachol

alkaloids as Muscarine & Nicotine

3- Neostigmine 4- Phtsostigmine{ eserine }

** The main uses of Parasympathomimetics : 1- Glaucoma There are two types of glaucoma
1- Primary 2- Secondary
It is caused by surgical procedures ( chronic ) Angle closure ( Acute ) Open angle ( chronic )

* for the closure angle type :


is kind of emergency & needs medication then surgery.

as Pilocarpine , physostigmine , Carbachole & Methacholine.


* for the open angle type :
only use medication

2- Postoperative ileus & Congenital megacolon Use Bethanichole & Neostigmine 3- Myasthenia Gravis : Use Edrophonium & Neostigmine *** Antidote : 1- Atropine

2- Pralidoxime

B- PARASYMPATHOLYTICS : They are contraindicated in Glaucoma & in elderly patients with urinary retention. Examples : 1- Anti-muscarinics : Atropine - Homatropine - isopropamide Cyclopentolate - Hyoscyamine Scopolamine - Propanthine 2- Ganglion Blockers : Mecamylamines - Hexamethonium - Trimethaphan 3- Cholinesterase regenerator : Pralidoxime 4- Sympathomimetics : Nor-epinephrine ** It is used to treat Mashroom poisoning also Atropine is used before anesthesia to reduce secretions & retina examination & as anti-spasmodic. C- SYMPATHOMIMETICS : mainly this group has positive effect on the heart & C.V.S. This group is classified according the selectivity on Alpha & Beta receptors.

Alpha Agonists
1- Epinephrine 2- Nor-epinephrine 3- Phenylephrine 4- Methoxamine

B1 & B2 non-selective
1- Epinephrine 2- Isoproternol

B2 selective
1- Albuterol ( ventolin ) 2- Terbutaline ( Bricanyl 3- Metaproternol ( Alupent ) 4- Ritodrine

B1 selective
1- Norepinph.. 2- Dobutamine

** Main Uses : 1- Hypotension 2- Heart block 3- Bronchodilators 4- Retinal examination

D- SYMPATHOLYTICS : mainly are used for treating hypertension.

Alpha blockers
1- Prazocin ( Minipress ) 2- Phenoxybenzamine 3- Phentolamine 4- Tolazoline ( Priscoline ) 5- yohimbine ( for sex disorders )

Beta blockers
1- Propranolol ( Inderal ) 2- Timolol 3- Nadolol ( Corgard ) 4- Pindolol ( Visken )

B1 blockers
1- Metoprolol ( Lepressor ) 2- Acebutolol ( Sectral ) 3- Atenolol ( Tenormin ) 4- Esmolol 5- Alprenol

B2 blockers
Butoxamine

N.B.

Levobunolol ( Betagan liquifilm )

Betaxolol

( Betoptic )

** Uses : 1- Hypertension 2- Pheichromocytoma 3- Glaucoma 4- Ischemic heart disease 5- Cardiac arrhythmia 7- Hyperthyroidism.

ANTIMICROBIAL DRUGS ** Mechanism Of Action Antimicrobial action 1- Through inhibition of cell wall synthesis 2- Through inhibition of cell membrane 3- Through inhibition of protein synthesis 4- Through inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis Q- What is the definition of Cross Resistance ? When micro-organisms resistant to a certain drug may also be resistant to other drugs. CEPHALOSPORINS Antimicrobial group Penicillin's, Cephalosporins, Bacitracin Cycloserin, Vancomycin Amphotericin B, Nystatin, Imidazoles Polymyxines Chloramphenicol, Erythromycin's, Tetracycline's, Aminoglycosides Quinolones, Rifampin, Sulfonamides.

Ist, generation Gr.


1- Cephalexin ( Keflex ) 2- Cephalothin ( Keflin ) 3- Cephradin ( Velosef ) 4- Cefazolin ( Kefzol ) 5- Cefadroxil ( Ultracif )

2nd, generation Gr.


1- Cefaclor ( Ceclor ) 2- Cefuroxime ( Zinacef - Zinnat ) 3- Cefoxitin 4- Cefonicid

3rd, generation Gr.


1- Cefoperazone ( Cefobid ) 2- Cefotaxime ( Claforan ) 3- Cefotetan 4- Ceftizoxime ( Cefizox )

CHLORAMPHENICOL
** Side Effects : 1- G.I.T. disturbances. 2- Bone Marrow Disturbances [ aplastic anemia ] 3- Newborn infants toxicity [ gray syndrome ]

TETRACYCLINE'S
** Side Effects : 1- G.I.T. side effects 2- It affects the bony structures & teeth. 3- Liver & kidney toxicity. 4- Photosensitization [ specially Demecycline ] * examples of tetracycline's :
1 Doxycycline ( Vibramycin ) 2 Minocycline ( Minocin ) 3 Oxytetracycline ( Terramycin ) 4 Tetracycline

AMINOGLYCOSIDES
* Examples :
1- Amikacin ( Amikin ) 2- Gentamycin ( Garamycin ) 3- Neomycin 4- Sreptomycin 5- Tobramycin ( Nebcin )