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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 1 Which of the following provides the BEST security and accountability

for a Data Center? A. Entry logging B. Combination locks C. Card keys D. Dead bolts Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2 Which of the following slots, if available, would offer the highest bandwidth? A. AGP B. PCI-E x16 C. PCI-X D. PCI Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3 Which of the following are the FIRST actions to take when an administrator is troubleshooting a server? (Select TWO) A. Make one change at a time and test/confirm the change has resolved the problem. B. Verify full system functionality. C. Replicate the problem. D. Determine if a common element is causing multiple problems. E. Identify any changes to the server. Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 4 Which of the following server types performs the same function as the LMHOSTS file? A. DNS B. DHCP C. WINS "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 2

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. FTP Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5 Which of the following software directly interacts with the hardware and handles hardware resource requests from virtual machines? A. Guest OS B. Virtual Center C. VT D. Hypervisor Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 6 Which of the following must occur when installing SCSI devices into the server? A. Terminate the back end of the chain. B. Set the jumper to device ID 0. C. Terminate both ends of the chain. D. Set the jumper to cable select. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7 A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. Which of the following fault tolerant RAID levels would allow the maximum amount of data to be stored? A. RAID 1 +0 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 0 D. RAID 1 Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 8

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following RAID levels can withstand the simultaneous loss of two physical drives in an array? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9 Which of the following is the BEST place to find the latest BIOS upgrade of the server system board? A. Third-party vendor B. BIOS manufacture website C. Operating system manufacture website D. Server's manufacture website Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10 Which of the following technologies was created to reduce cost, increase cable length, and uses 3.3v across the line? A. Wide-Ultra2 SCSI-3 B. High-Voltage Differential C. Low-Voltage Differential D. Fibre Channel Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 11 Which of the following is the MOST common problem that occurs in server rooms? A. Excessive cooling B. Dust buildup C. Poor ground wires

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Wet floors Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 12 Which of the following is the FINAL step in the backup process? A. Load differential tape B. Verify backup C. Load new tapes D. Perform a full backup Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 13 Which of the following internal storage media types has the GREATEST storage capacity? A. Compact flash drive B. SATA hard drive C. Blu-Ray drive D. SDLT Tape drive Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 14 An administrator is adding memory to a server. Once the system boots up, the same amount of memory appears as before the upgrade. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. The memory is not the correct CAS latency. B. The memory is not installed in the correct slot. C. The memory does not have the correct timing. D. The memory is not the correct speed. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is an advantage of SMP? A. Smaller initial investment B. Doubles memory requirements C. Higher simultaneous thread processing D. Decreases overhead Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 16 An administrator is upgrading memory on the server. Once the server in turned back on, the administrator notices that the memory has not changed. The system board website says the board should accept the new amount of memory. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST? A. Replace memory chips with known good memory chips. B. Reset the memory chips. C. Update the BIOS. D. Upgrade the server OS Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 17 A server consists of two 72GB SCSI drives and four 146GB SCSI drives. All drives are attached to a RAID controller. The system administrator has decided to configure all six drives in a RAID 5 array. How much usable disk space will this array have? A. 288GB B. 360GB C. 432GB D. 728GB Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 18 A user selects their proper domain and is unable to log into their Windows computer. The error states: system cannot log you on to the domain because the system's computer account in its primary domain is missing or the password on that account is incorrect? Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this error? "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 6

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. The computer's account was removed from Active Directory. B. The user's account was removed from Active Directory. C. The computer was disjoined from the domain. D. The user typed in the wrong password Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19 A user calls the system administrator and states that they can no longer access the file server they had been working on all morning. To troubleshoot this problem, which step should the administrator take FIRST? A. Reboot the file server. B. Ask the user what they were doing when they noticed the problem. C. Ask the user to reboot their PC. D. Ask the user to ping the default gateway and report the response times back to the administrator. Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 20 Which of the following is the BEST way to allow web software through the server firewall? A. Implement an application exception. B. Implement an access control list (ACL). C. Open the corporate firewall to allow port 80. D. Implement port blocking on port 80. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 21 After a virus outbreak, which of the following can be used to deploy a hotfix in a Microsoft environment? (Select TWO) A. WSUS B. Terminal services C. Remote management cards D. Group policy "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 7

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam E. SNMP Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 22 An administrator has been having problems with server security. Many of the servers have been infected with viruses in the past. Which of the following can be done to ensure that systems avoid OS exploits? A. Implement an intrusion detection system (IDS). B. Implement a dual-factor authentication method. C. Implement a patch management process. D. Implement stronger user passwords. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 23 A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. Which of the following RAID levels would provide the FASTEST performance? A. RAID 5 B. RAID 1+0 C. RAID 0 D. RAID 1 Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 24 Which of the following are benefits of the HCL? (Select TWO) A. Enhanced stability B. Vendor supported C. Higher number of available component choices D. Lower cost E. Enhanced security Answer: B

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 25 A company's legal and regulatory departments have drafted a new policy in which emails must be retained for no longer than three years. Which of the following locations should an administrator configure when complying with the new policy? (Select THREE). A. Local workstations B. Backup tapes C. Domain controllers D. Email server E. SMTP gateway F. Proxy server Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 26 Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of RAID 0? A. High fault tolerance B. Ease of failure recovery C. High performance D. No configuration Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 27 Which of the following is a best practice that can be used to ensure consistency when building systems? A. Server build checklist B. Server baselining tools C. Architecture diagrams D. Hardware compatibility list Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 28 Which of the following disaster recovery sites requires power and cabling to be run before it can be used? "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 9

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Hot site B. Cold site C. Warm site D. Failover site Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 29 An administrator has a malfunctioning uninterruptible power supply (UPS). Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Battery needs to be replaced B. Light switch is turned off C. Smart cable is disconnected D. UPS needs a firmware update Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 30 Which of the following is the major advantage of PCI-e over PCI-X? A. Sensitivity to background noise B. Height of the card C. Shared bus topology D. Point-to-point bus topology Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 31 When installing external SCSI devices, terminators are required on: (Select TWO) A. the SCSI adapter. B. each device. C. the first device. D. the last device. E. the server's parallel port. Answer: D

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 32 Which of the following describes the FINAL step in the troubleshooting process? A. Verify full system functionality. B. Implement the change. C. Test the theory to determine the cause. D. Root cause analysis. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 33 Which of the following is the MOST likely connection type for a backup external modem? A. IEEE 1394 B. SCSI C. Serial D. SATA Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 34 Which of the following tools restricts device installation? A. Default domain policy B. Group Policy C. Disk Management D. File share properties Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 35 Which of the following would allow an administrator to incorporate a new Windows service pack into an installation when the media does not include the service pack? A. Templates

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. RIS C. Ghost D. Slipstreaming Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 36 An administrator needs to implement a security patch policy on the network that adheres to an internal SLA. Which of the following actions BEST achieves this task? A. Define a test server group, install the patches and if successful schedule installation on production servers. B. Define a test server group, schedule installation on production servers and then install all updates and patches. C. Install the patches during a non-working hour. D. Send an email to all company users and request the best time for installation. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 37 A server has a single, half height, PCI-X 3.3v slot available. Which of the following cards can fit in this slot? (Select THREE) A. Half Height, Universally Keyed PCI card B. Full Height, 3.3v PCI-X card C. Half Height, x16 PCI Express Card D. Half Height, 3.3v PCI card E. Half Height, Universally Keyed PCI-X card F. Full Height, Universally Keyed PCI card G. Half Height, x8 PCI Express Card Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION NO: 38 Which of the following key sequences will allow a technician to install third party drivers during a Windows installation? A. Press F6 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 12

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Press ESC C. Press any key D. Press Alt+F8 Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 39 Which of the following would be an advantage to using a blade server as opposed to a rack mount server? A. Blade servers allow for internal tape drives B. Blade servers offer more rack density C. Blade servers are typically faster D. Blade servers allow for more RAM Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 40 An administrator has just upgraded a server from non-hot plug storage to all hot plug storage. The administrator powers up the server, during POST the RAID controller is recognized but none of the drive lights flash. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST to troubleshoot the problem? A. Check the backplane cabling. B. Check the server BIOS. C. Update the RAID controller firmware. D. Install the latest hard drive firmware Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 41 An administrator has just installed a new NIC into the server. The system POSTs fine and the NIC is recognized by the OS, but it does not receive an IP address. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this? A. The NIC is not on the HCL. B. The driver is incorrect on the server. C. The patch cable has not been seated properly. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 13

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. The NIC is not seated properly. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 42 Which of the following storage protocols would be suitable for transport across an IP network? A. SAS B. SCSI C. iSCSI D. SATA Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 43 Which of the following RAID levels provides the HIGHEST fault tolerance possible? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 6 D. RAID 10 Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 44 An administrator has just installed a web server for the company's Internet site. After bringing the system online, customers notify the administrator that they cannot connect to the server. The administrator tests the web server from a workstation and can access the website. The customers continue to report issues. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. The server's firewall is misconfigured. B. The server's timeout feature is set incorrectly. C. The web server was not installed properly. D. The company firewall is misconfigured Answer: A

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 45 When load balancing traffic between two web servers, which of the following technologies provides the LOWEST cost solution? A. Active/passive cluster B. Active/active cluster C. Log shipping D. DNS round robin Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 46 When an administrator is troubleshooting a system, which of the following describes the NEXT course of action if a change does not solve the problem? A. Establish a new theory of probable cause. B. Reverse the change. C. Implement the next logical change. D. Perform a root cause analysis. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 47 Which of the following memory types is located in the processor chip? A. EDO B. L1 C. xD D. DDR Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 48 A new storage array must be configured for a database server. This array will store transaction logs that are always being written. Which of the following RAID solutions would provide fault tolerance and fast write operations without the use of parity? A. RAID 0 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 15

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. RAID 3 C. RAID 6 D. RAID 10 Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 49 An IT manager is concerned about server administrators having to be cross-trained to work on every server. Which of the following is the BEST way to correct this problem? A. Ensure that server baselines are documented for each server. B. Ensure that all server documentation is completed and up to date. C. Ensure that each server is accessible via a KVM over IP. D. Ensure that each server is processed through the change control board. Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 50 A workstation is added to a newly created subnet using 192.168.100.0/24. A DHCP server is available on subnet 192.168.101.0/24. The user is unable to lease an address from the DHCP server. Which of the following would BEST resolve the problem? A. Assign the workstation a static IP address. B. Add a second DHCP server to the 192.168.101.0/24 subnet. C. Add a DHCP relay to the 192.168.100.0/24 subnet. D. Add a DHCP server to the 192.168.100.0/24 subnet Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 51 Which of the following is a differentiating feature of file permissions as compared to share permissions? A. File permissions are less granular than share permissions. B. Full control can only be set using file permissions. C. File permissions are more granular than share permissions. D. Full control can only be set using share permissions.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 52 An administrator attempts to install the latest security patches for an older server. When the administrator runs the patch installer, the install fails. The administrator tries again, and the installer fails again. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. The administrator improperly configured the virtual memory settings on the server. B. The administrator is using incorrect patch switches for the install. C. The administrator is trying to install security patches for software that is not installed. D. The administrator is trying to install patches that require hard drive encryption on the server Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 53 Which of the following server types performs the same function as the HOSTS file? A. FTP B. DHCP C. DNS D. WINS Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 54 SMP is considered to be a form of: A. mail protocol. B. monitoring protocol. C. mapped printer. D. multi-processing. Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 55 Which of the following is a benefit of application virtualization?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. The need for multiple licenses of any software is unnecessary B. Interoperability of disparate programs is easily attained. C. Server loads are greatly reduced from lowered traffic. D. Applications are easily accessible from anywhere on the LAN. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 56 Which of the following server virtualization features would BEST allow an administrator to quickly prepare a virtual server so that it is ready for use? A. Remote configuration B. No physical hardware to setup C. Native RIS integration D. Clone the machine from a template Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 57 Multiple expansion cards are installed in a rack mount 1U server. All expansion cards stop working simultaneously. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Motherboard B. Operating system C. Expansion cards D. Riser cards

QUESTION NO: 58 Which of the following assists with airflow in a server? (Select TWO) A. Riser cards B. Water cooling C. Shroud D. Baffle E. Heat sinks Answer: D,E

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 59 Which of the following BEST describes a DAS? A. A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through dedicated channels. B. A collection of disks presented as storage to a single server through an existing network. C. A collection of disks presented as storage to a single server through directly attached technologies D. A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through an existing network. Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 60 Which of the following storage technologies connects by TCP/IP and is separate from the company LAN? A. Tape library B. NAS C. Optical jukebox D. SAN Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 61 Which of the following memory technologies has the HIGHEST cost to implement? A. ECC B. RAID C. Pairing D. Registered Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 62 Which of the following statements is true about L3 cache? A. L3 cache operates faster than the system processor B. L3 cache runs at the speed of the processor. C. L3 cache can deliver data in as little as 15ns. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 19

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. L3 cache runs at the speed of the system bus. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 63 Which of the following factors is the MOST likely cause of a power supply fan failure? A. Extreme temperature variances B. Extreme humidity variances C. Power stability fluctuations D. Excessive dust accumulation Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 64 Which of the following is the minimum number of drives required for a RAID 10 array? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 10 Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 65 When running a Windows server, which option is used with the ping command to convert numerical addresses to host names? A. -r B. -a C. -v D. -n Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 66

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which switch should be used with the ipconfig command if an administrator wants to test the functionality of a DHCP server? A. /renew B. /flushdns C. /release D. /all Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 67 Memory utilization by the print spooler process is constantly climbing after users begin to print to a certain type of printer. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Corrupted print spooler software B. Memory leak in one of the print drivers C. The disk drive is out of free space D. Memory leak in the print spooler Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 68 After a server has been installed into a rack, an administrator must ensure which of the following? A. Warm air flow is permitted through the front bezel B. The system is labeled so that it can be identified C. Verify the change control process can be implemented D. Determine the correct power requirements Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 69 A user is unable to connect to the company's intranet server by FQDN, but can connect by IP address. Other users are not having a problem. An administrator verifies that the user can successfully ping the server by IP address and can properly resolve the FQDN using nslookup. The problem is persisting after running ipconfig /flushdns. Which of the following should the administrator do NEXT?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Examine the Imhost file. B. Flush the cache on the DNS server. C. Flush the cache on the WINS server. D. Examine the hosts file Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 70 Which of the following are possible SCSI ID ranges on a wide SCSI adapter? A. 1-7 B. 1-16 C. 0-7 D. 0-15 Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 71 Which of the following describes a server that is hosting only an Anti-virus program? A. Distributed Application Server B. Dedicated Application Server C. Peer-to-Peer Application Server D. File and Print Server Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 72 Which of the following can occur if the maximum rated load is exceeded on an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)? A. There is a fire hazard potential if a power outage occurs. B. The last system plugged into the UPS will not be provided any power. C. The UPS will draw more power from the circuit to compensate. D. The runtime of the UPS will be insufficient if a power outage occurs. Answer: D

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 73 Which of the following memory types has the FASTEST speed? A. SODIMM B. SDRAM C. DDR3 D. DDR2 Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 74 Several reports are logged stating that an application server is performing slowly. During the investigation, the administrator notices that the hard drives on the server appear to have a high level of activity. Which items should the administrator monitor using performance monitoring tools? (Select TWO). A. Page File B. Disk Utilization C. System Temperature D. Processor Utilization E. Network Utilization Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 75 Which of the following file types can Microsoft servers package for remote installation by default? A. .exe B. .Ini C. .msi D. .dll Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 76 Which of the following components channels air flow through a server chassis? A. Fan "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 23

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Heat sink C. Shroud D. Radiator Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 77 Which of the following backup methodologies is MOST time efficient for restoring data? A. Incremental B. Differential C. Full D. GFS Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 78 Deploying an operating system using WDS without a boot disk would require which of the following? A. FTP server B. PXE support C. CUPS D. Installation CD Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 79 Which of the following technologies can provide geographically based load balancing with high availability between two web servers with static content? A. Multicast B. Active/passive cluster C. Active/active cluster D. DNS round robin Answer: D

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 80 An administrator has encountered a problem with a particular piece of software installed on the server and begins the troubleshooting process. Which of the following is the FIRST place the administrator should look for specific information about the problem? A. The supporting documentation B. The vendor website C. The Internet D. The server event logs Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 81 Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that all users receive a mapping to multiple shared drives? A. Configure individual user accounts B. Logon scripts C. Local policy D. Set NTFS permissions Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 82 A power loss during a firmware update would MOST likely result in which of the following? A. Increased heat output B. Damage of the hardware C. Loss of storage data D. Decreased performance Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 83 An administrator notes that after a recent power outage, some open files were corrupted on one affected file server. Which of the following items should the administrator consider to determine the cause of this corruption?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. The server's memory B. The server's RAID controller battery C. The server's processor D. The server's NIC teaming configuration Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 84 A company has implemented a wireless network for its employees. Since implementing the new network, individuals have been receiving duplicate IP addresses causing network issues. Which of the following would resolve this issue? A. Add another wireless access point. B. Add another DHCP server. C. Disable the wireless DHCP server. D. Change the default gateway of the wireless router Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 85 An administrator is planning an upgrade of a major software package on an application server. The software has been tested successfully in a test environment and it is ready to go into production. Which of the following steps should the administrator take next? A. Identify necessary operating system updates B. Implement the change C. Document the change D. Schedule system down time Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 86 When cabling a rack, which of the following is BEST practice? A. Use rack specific cabling hardware B. Let cables hang loosely behind the servers C. Channel all power cables down the sides, and all network cables down the center D. Keep cables close to the front of the rack for better access "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 26

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 87 Which of the following servers would dynamically allocate IP addresses to workstations? A. NTP B. DHCP C. DNS D. SNMP Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 88 Which of the following BEST describes a virtualized server environment? A. A physical server environment utilizing only RAM storage with no physical disk medium to enhance performance. B. Multiple operating systems sharing the same physical hardware to leverage higher usage. C. A distributed computing environment where many lower cost machines are combined to increase processing power and overall performance D. A single operating system using multiple physical hardware chassis to leverage higher availability. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 89 An administrator is creating a comprehensive backup system to backup a single web server. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide full restore? A. Take an image backup nightly while the server is online. B. Take an incremental backup while the server is offline. C. Take a monthly snapshot backup while the server is online. D. Take a differential backup while the server is online. Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 90 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 27

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The server room that an administrator manages has just caught fire. Which of the following is the FIRST thing that the administrator should do? A. Evacuate all personnel. B. Notify staff of the potential service outage. C. Use fire suppression techniques until the fire department arrives. D. Grab the backup tapes and exit the server room. Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 91 Which of the following is a connection oriented transport layer protocol? A. TCP B. UDP C. TFTP D. SNMP Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 92 How many wire pairs are in a standard CAT6 cable? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 93 An administrator has just finished physically replacing the system board in a Windows domain controller. Which of the following must be done before booting the server back into Windows? A. Update the time and date in the BIOS. B. Update the firmware on the SCSI controller. C. Update the firmware to the latest version. D. Configure IPMI on the new board.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 94 A company's computer policy dictates that all users' workstations must use the company corporate web page as their default home page. Which of the following methods should an administrator use to BEST comply with this policy? A. Configure a logon script to set the homepage at logon. B. Set the default homepage to the corporate website in Group Policy. C. Manually configure the homepage on all workstations and setup trace logs to ensure compliance. D. Set the default homepage to the corporate website on the base computer image. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 95 After performing a copy backup of a file server, the archive bit on the backed up files will be which of the following? A. Deleted B. Unchanged C. Set D. Copied Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 96 Which of the following could BEST be used to recover a failed RAID 1 disk after it has been replaced? A. Tape restore utilities B. Imaging utilities C. Partitioning utilities D. Array management utilities Answer: B

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 97 A company utilizes the GFS backup standard. Which of the following describes this backup method? A. Greatest, Final, Sequential B. Full, Partial, Incremental C. Monthly, Weekly, Daily D. Full, Differential, Incremental Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 98 RAID 5 can be BEST described as which of the following? A. Mirroring with striping B. Striping with dedicated parity C. Striping with distributed parity D. Independent disks with shared parity Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 99 While troubleshooting a video problem on an application server, the system administrator has determined that the video firmware should be updated. Which of the following sources should be used to locate an appropriate update for this hardware? (Select TWO). A. Third-party manufacturer B. Video chipset manufacturer C. Server manufacturer D. Operating system manufacturer E. Shareware file sharing site Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 100 An administrator is configuring one server to monitor hardware level information on a second Windows server. Which of the following should be setup on the Windows server to allow the monitoring server to access this information? (Select TWO). "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 30

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. WMI B. RIS C. DNS D. SNMP E. SMTP Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 101 Which of the following will corrupt the BIOS? A. Applying the BIOS settings in the incorrect order B. Power being lost during the upgrade process C. Installing the OS before applying the BIOS upgrade D. Imaging the system after performing a BIOS upgrade Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 102 An administrator reboots a ten drive server, with a RAID 10 array, after a power failure and receives an error logical drive failed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. Corrupt file system table B. Backplane failure C. Multiple drive failure D. Bad cable Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 103 Which of the following RAID levels would provide the BEST performance with no fault protection? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 3 D. RAID 5 Answer: A

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 104 Which of the following internal storage technologies has the HIGHEST single drive storage capacity? A. SAS B. SATA C. Flash D. SCSI Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 105 Which of the following backup types will not reset the archive bit on backed up files? A. GFS B. Full C. Differential D. Incremental Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 106 A server has been assigned the 192.168.100.127/25 IP address. The server is experiencing strange network connectivity related problems. Which of the following would BEST describe the problem? A. IP address is classful. B. IP address is a subnet broadcast address. C. IP address is a subnet network address. D. IP address is classless Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 107 An administrator is planning to bring a newly purchased server online. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST? "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 32

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Follow the pre-installation plan and procedures. B. Review the system logs to check for errors. C. Notify all users that the old system will be taken offline. D. Apply all security updates to the system. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 108 Which of the following describes the purpose of a network topology diagram? A. To display the logical layout this can differ from the physical layout B. To enhance a user's understanding of the datacenter layout C. To create a physical map of the datacenter to provide to guests D. To provide a blueprint for recreating the same server setup for another client Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 109 Which of the following are ways to transport SAN traffic? (Select TWO) A. SATA B. iSCSI C. SCSI D. Fiber channel E. PAT A Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 110 Which of the following can limit cabling mistakes? A. Proper labeling B. Asset management C. Keeping good vendor logs D. Keeping up-to-date repair logs Answer: A

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 111 In which of the following configurations should a SAS hard drive jumper be placed for single drive operation? A. The jumpers should be placed in the single/master position. B. There are no configuration jumpers needed on a SAS hard drive. C. The jumpers should be placed to give the drive a SCSI ID of 1. D. The jumpers should be placed in the slave position. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 112 An administrator has purchased monitoring software that can be configured to send alerts when hardware and applications are having issues. Which of the following must be installed on the monitoring server so that it can properly monitor details on vendor specific devices? A. MIBs B. SMTP C. WMI D. DHCP Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 113 A server will not power on. Which of the following devices should the administrator use FIRST to determine the problem? A. Loop back plugs B. Power supply tester C. System logs D. TDR Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 114 When troubleshooting hardware issues with a server, which of the following is MOST likely to cause a problem in receiving vendor support?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Third party cables B. Third party memory C. Signed drivers D. Server type Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 115 Which of the following is BEST described as a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through a fiber channel? A. JBOD B. SAN C. DAS D. NAS Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 116 Which of the following file systems are native to *nix? A. FAT B. EXT3 C. NTFS D. FAT32 Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 117 Which of the following will allow a server to continue to function if a stick of memory fails? (Select TWO) A. Chipkill B. Memory RAID C. Registered memory D. ECC E. Hot spare

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 118 An administrator is running proprietary server software that requires services to be reconfigured every time the server is upgraded to the latest vendor version. Which of the following is the BEST solution to address this problem? A. The current system configuration should be documented for future use. B. Server diagramming and environmental topologies should be documented. C. A copy of the latest pre-installation plan should be developed and utilized. D. Vendor support should be contacted so that they can correct the issue. Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 119 An administrator identifies that a server is shutting down. The administrator powers up the server and OS loads but after a few minutes it powers down again. Which of the following is the cause? A. Redundant power supply failure B. CPU overheating C. Memory failure D. Hard disk failure Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 120 A new array of hard drives has been added to an existing server; however, when the server is booted into the Windows OS the new drives fail to appear in My Computer. From which of the following locations can the new storage drives be added? (Select TWO). A. Format command B. Hypervisor C. Computer Management D. Disk Management E. Virtual Center Answer: C,D

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 121 Which of the following RAID arrays performs mirroring of the disks first, then striping of the disks? A. RAID 1 B. RAID 0+1 C. RAID 6 D. RAID 10 Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 122 A server is experiencing an undetermined problem. Which of the following steps should the technician take in order to identify whether it is a software or hardware problem? A. Reseat all main components B. Try to replicate the problem C. Flash the BIOS D. Reinstall the operating system Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 123 After applying a new driver to a NIC, the server reboots and fails to restart. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve the problem? A. Boot using recovery console and restore the previous driver. B. Boot the server, press F8 and access last known good configuration. C. Restore the server using last backup tape. D. Boot the server with ASR option. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 124 Which of the following should an administrator utilize FIRST after installing a new HBA? A. New Technology File Systems (NTFS) B. Digitally signed device drivers C. Virtual machine components "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 37

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Multiple RAID configurations Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 125 An administrator is required to backup 250GB nightly utilizing a single LTO2 tape. The administrator reports that the tape drive is running out of available space before the job completes. Which of the following would allow the administrator to backup this data? (Select TWO). A. Enable compression on the LTO2 drive B. Utilize LTO3 tapes in the existing drive C. Reduce the amount of data on the backup D. Replace the LTO2 with LTO3 drive and tapes E. Divide the data and back up half one night and half the next Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 126 Which of the following bottlenecks would MOST likely cause excessive hard drive activity? A. Inadequate RAM B. Slow processor C. PCI bus D. Excessive network traffic Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 127 A technician has found that the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) connected to a server does not have sufficient battery power to allow the server to shutdown gracefully. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective way to allow this server to shutdown gracefully? A. Install a second UPS. B. Increase the size of the swapfile. C. Increase the size of the pagefile. D. Install an extended battery pack into the UPS Answer: D

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 128 Fibre channel requires which of the following elements? A. FC Initiator B. Multi-Mode fibre C. Physical Adapter D. Fibre Target Management Agent Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 129 Which of the following is an environmental server maintenance task that should be performed every three months? A. Replace the rubber mats in the server room B. Clean the servers to limit dust buildup C. Wash the outside of the servers D. Replace the server fans Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 130 Which of the following is a disadvantage of RAID 10? A. Poor performance B. No fault tolerance C. Not supported by many RAID controllers D. Higher cost Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 131 Which of the following will allow devices to be added without turning the server off? A. Plug and Play

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Warm site C. Hot plug D. Hot site Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 132 Which of the following is a bus mastering method? (Select TWO). A. A device transfers data directly to the memory. B. A device handles mediation between the northbridge and the processor. C. A device connects to another device without involving the processor. D. A device transfers data to the processor and then on to the memory. E. A device handles mediation between thesouthbridge and the processor Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 133 Which of the following would an administrator use to configure a server's BIOS settings even if the OS crashes? A. VPN B. KVM over IP C. Telnet D. Remote Desktop Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 134 A technician wants to increase the reliability of a DHCP server. Which of the following components should be installed to increase the server's uptime on the network? A. Increase the amount of RAM B. Use a lower voltage power supply C. Add a hardware firewall D. Install redundant NICs Answer: D

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 135 Which of the following should be done before and after a service or repair is performed on a server? A. Defrag B. IPCONFIG /release C. Firmware update D. Baseline Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 136 A SAN attached production file server is required to be backed up nightly according to company policy. Recently the data to be backed up has increased to approximately 4TB. Currently, the server has a single attached LTO2 tape drive. Which of the following should the server administrator do to provide enough backup capacity for the nightly job? A. Replace the backup software with a more efficient application. B. Reduce the amount of data to be backed up. C. Replace the LTO2 tape drive with an LTO3 tape drive. D. Replace the single tape drive with a tape library Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 137 Weekly backups of the system are done on Sundays, and daily backups are done the rest of the week. Which of following backup methods were used if the system crashes on Friday and only requires two backup sets to recover the system? A. Incremental and snapshot B. Full and differential C. Full and incremental D. Differential and incremental Answer: D

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 138 Which of the following is a public IP address? A. 172.31.254.40 B. 10.100.11.1 C. 192.168.100.1 D. 172.15.16.76 Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 139 A tape drive containing a jammed tape must be taken off-site to be repaired. Which of the following should be considered FIRST? A. Downtime necessary to reinstall the repaired drive B. Data security policies and procedures C. Potential cooling problems due to the missing drive D. Redundant or replacement data backup solutions Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 140 Which of the following BEST describes RAID 0? A. Striping with parity B. Striping with mirroring C. Mirroring D. Striping Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 141 A user is reporting that access to a file server is much slower than it has been. The system administrator completes a test of the server using a system monitoring tool and compares it to the previously taken baseline. The comparison shows that there are no significant changes in the use of system resources. Which of the following actions should be taken to resolve this user problem? A. Add additional RAM to the user PC "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 42

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Troubleshoot the user PC C. Add additional RAM to the server D. Add additional hard drive space to the server Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 142 A server has a processor that allows it to calculate two applications at the same time. Which of the following describes this capability of the processor? A. Dual processing B. Multi-processing C. Multi-tasking D. Multi-threading Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 143 An administrator recently installed a new array controller into a server. When the server is running POST the controller does not appear as present. Which of the following could be the reason for this? A. The server BIOS firmware is out-of-date. B. The server does not have the correct drivers. C. The server hard drives have not begun to spin. D. The server has too little memory installed. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 144 A system administrator needs to maintain 1.2TB of storage for a database server. There are six 250GB drives available in the server for storage space. Which of the following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice given that performance and fault tolerance are important factors? A. RAID 1 across drive pairs totaling 3 pairs B. RAID 5 across all 6 drives C. RAID 10 across all 6 drives D. RAID 0 across all 6 drives "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 43

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 145 Which of the following offers the MOST redundancy for a system but is also very costly? A. RAID implementation B. Disk-to-disk replication C. Server-to-server clustering D. Hot site replication Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 146 Which of the following RAID levels would be the BEST choice if performance was the only determining factor? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 147 At which of the following times should the administrator refer to the HCL? A. Prior to purchasing hardware B. Before installation C. When installing drivers D. After installation Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 148 Which of the following Windows Server 2003 technologies can help with making backups of open files?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Differential backup B. Snapshot C. VSS D. Incremental backup Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 149 Which of the following defines memory interleaving? A. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L1 cache B. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs in one bank C. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the processor D. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L2 cache Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 150 Which of the following BEST describes RAID 10? A. Mirroring with striping B. Mirroring with fault tolerance C. Striping D. Striping with distributed parity Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 151 An administrator is creating a redundant environment for a current data center. A backup site must be available if the entire data center site should become unavailable. To reduce costs, this backup site does not need to be up and running at all times ready for failover. It must contain equipment and the ability to restore data from the data center. Which of the following site types should be considered to meet these requirements? A. Hot site B. Warm site C. Cold site D. Active failover site "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 45

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 152 Which of the following is the BEST recovery method for a server that only aggregates report data and stores data on separate servers? A. Full B. Disk imaging C. Incremental D. Tape backup Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 153 Which of the following will attach to an EIDE connector? A. SATA-2 B. SAT A C. ATA-2 D. SCSI Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 154 According to best practices, which of the following should be the FIRST step after a full boot into a newly installed Windows Server OS? A. Remove the Internet Explorer Enhanced Security configuration. B. Disable the Guest account. C. Apportion additional storage. D. Apply all relevant updates and patches. Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 155 A technician wants to compare a new server performance over a period of time. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 46

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Monitor processor performance logs B. Constantly check the task manager C. Use performance server logs D. Establish a baseline for the server Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 156 Which of the following is the MOST important factor when considering environmental factors? A. Server room access should be limited to authorized personnel. B. Servers should be kept in a warm and dark environment. C. Remove the floppy drives from the system. D. The server administrator should ensure adequate levels of cooling. Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 157 In a workgroup, all of the following steps are required for a DHCP server EXCEPT A. activate the scopes. B. authorize the server. C. configure the scopes. D. install DHCP service. Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 158 Which of the following technologies causes a single processor to appear as multiple processors within System Properties in a Windows Server? A. RISC B. Multicore C. Symmetric multi-processing D. Hyper-V Answer: D

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 159 A company would like to upgrade an old server to a multi-processor box. The server currently has a single 3.0GHz 1Mb cache processor in it with a single empty socket. The only processor that is available from a manufacturer is a 3.0GHz 2Mb cache model. Which of the following is the BEST reason why this upgrade will not work? A. The socket size does not match B. The cache is from a different manufacturer C. The processors do not match D. Processors cannot be upgraded after server has been deployed Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 160 A user cannot access files on /deps/it directory, the administrator verifies permissions are set for the directory. Which of the following actions need to be performed to only grant read access to the user on the IT directory? A. Set folder permissions to 760. B. Set folder permissions to 770. C. Set folder permissions to modify D. Set folder permissions to full control Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 161 A server is having problems booting into the operating system. Which of the following can provide important information to begin to troubleshoot the cause? A. System logs B. Firmware updates C. POST messages D. Application logs Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 162

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam An administrator is troubleshooting a problem on an application server, but has not determined the cause of the problem and is not able to replicate the problem. Which of the following should the administrator do prior to escalating the issue? A. Gather information from users. B. Reboot the server. C. Apply the latest service packs to the operating system. D. Perform a root cause analysis Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 163 In order to provide the lowest access latency, the optimal place for the system swap file is on A. an external USB 1.1 4200RPM drive with 8MB of Cache. B. the fastest storage device available in the system. C. a10K RPM SCSI Drive with 2MB of Cache. D. the operating system partition. Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 164 Which of the following is the correct term for a virtual machine? A. Hypervisor B. Guest OS C. Virtual Center D. Host OS Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 165 Which of the following actions will prevent a driver from being reinstalled automatically? A. Run the disable command. B. Disable the device using Device Manager. C. Review manufacturer manual. D. Reboot the server, logon in Safe Mode, uninstall the driver.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 166 Which of the following is an appropriate reason for adjusting the SNMP thresholds? A. To eliminate excessive alerts B. To increase the number of threads C. To monitor use of VPN traffic D. To allow more email to come through Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 167 Which of the following storage interface protocols has the FASTEST speeds? A. Ultra2 SCSI B. SAT A C. Ultra320 SCSI D. SAS Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 168 Which of the following protocols is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to MAC addresses? A. DHCP B. ARP C. DNS D. RARP Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 169 Users have reported that they cannot access certain Internet sites. An administrator wants to test that the sites are properly resolving to an IP address. Which of the following tools would allow the administrator to test name resolution? "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 50

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. net view B. ipconfig C. dig D. ifconfig Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 170 Which of the following expansion cards would be necessary to increase fault tolerance in a VoIP server? A. Second Modem B. Second CPU C. Second HBA D. Second PBX card Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 171 An administrator needs to add fault tolerance capabilities to a server. Which of the following is the BEST solution to accomplish this? A. Move the architecture from 32-bit to 64-bit. B. Install a PBX card. C. Install a second NIC card. D. Install a fail-over cable. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 172 A NAS differs from a SAN because NAS: A. is attached to a local disk controller. B. does support multipath I/O. C. never uses an IP address for network connectivity D. always uses an IP address to access data. Answer: D

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 173 A company has had problems with their HVAC system being able to cool their datacenter as they have grown. Which of the following could BEST be used to help reduce the load on the HVAC system? A. Replacing the CAT5 cables with CAT6 cables B. Replacing traditional racks with water cooled racks C. Turning off non-critical application servers during non-business hours D. Taking the second power supply out of non-critical servers Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 174 Which of the following is the FIRST thing that should be done in order to begin reinstalling TCP/IP on the server? A. Configure netsh settings in case of backup B. Restart the server C. Notify users D. Uninstall TCP/IP Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 175 A data center has had a power outage. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST once the power is restored? A. Identify which systems are the most critical and bring them up by level of importance. B. Retrieve the latest backup tapes for immediate system restore using the GFS rotation. C. Identify the least critical systems and then power those systems on first. D. Determine the cause of the power outage and install UPS systems to prevent its reoccurrence. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 176

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following backup methods should be used nightly to ensure backups capture all necessary data in the LEAST amount of time? A. Daily B. Incremental C. Normal D. Differential Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 177 Which of the following types of DNS records enables support for email? A. A B. MX C. PTR D. AAAA Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 178 Click on the Exhibit button. Which of the following connectors is image D? A. 80 Pin SCSI Connector B. 68 Pin SCSI Connector, High Density C. 50 Pin SCSI Connector, High Density D. 50 Pin SCSI Connector, Low Density

QUESTION NO: 179 An administrator replaces the network card in a web server. After replacing the network card some users can access the server but others cannot. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should check? A. Default gateway B. The ports on the switch C. Port security on the server's switch port D. Ethernet cable

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 180 A Windows file server has run out of space. In the interim the administrator is moving several archived confidential folders that have been encrypted off the file server and onto an older server file shares. After the move, a manager reports that they are able to access and modify some of the items that have been moved. Which of the following is the MOST likely issue? A. The temporary server was formatted as NTFS. B. The manager is a power user on the temporary server. C. The temporary server was formatted as FAT32. D. The manager is an administrator on the temporary server Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 181 A mail server keeps shutting down. The administrator gets an error message over temperature error? Which of the following should the administrator replace FIRST? A. Power supply fan B. CPU fan C. Heat sink D. Case fan Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 182 An administrator is notified that all network printers are not printing. The administrator reviews the server and the print service is started. Which of the following is the cause of the problem? A. The drivers for the printers are failing. B. The spool folder is full. C. The spool folder is not on the C drive. D. A network printer was disconnected. Answer: B

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 183 A user reports that they are getting an error when trying to save a video file to a share on a server running Windows Server 2003. The administrator looks at the file and finds that it is 5GB. The administrator checks the server and finds that the server has 100GB of free space. This file needs to be saved on the server. Which of the following should the administrator do to accomplish this? A. Convert the filesystem to EXT3. B. Convert the filesystem to VMFS. C. Convert the filesystem to NTFS. D. Convert the filesystem to FAT32 Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 184 A small push button typically found on the inside of a server case is MOST likely used for which of the following purposes? A. UID switch B. Power switch C. Cooling fan switch D. Chassis intrusion switch Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 185 Which of the following archiving methods only backs up data that has changed since the previous full backup? A. Snapshot B. Incremental C. Copy D. Differential Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 186 For client computers to access the Internet when using DHCP, the DHCP server must have configurations for at LEAST which of the following? (Select TWO). "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 55

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Gateway address B. SNA server C. Mail server D. Web server E. Subnet mask Answer: A,E

QUESTION NO: 187 Which of the following must be configured on printers so that the server can properly monitor details on page counts? A. WMI B. DHCP C. SNMP D. MIB Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 188 Which of the following server types translates NetBIOS names to IP addresses? A. DNS B. WINS C. FTP D. DHCP Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 189 Which of the following is the MOST effective method to restrict staff members from accessing a service on a company server? A. Implement ACLs. B. Disable accounts for staff members who do not require server access. C. Implement anti-spam software on the server. D. Implement anti-virus software on the server.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 190 A server is configured with two network cards. To utilize the bandwidth of both network cards at the same time without assigning more than one IP address, which of the following load balancing techniques should be used? A. Clustering B. NIC teaming C. OSPF D. VLAN tagging Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 191 Which of the following technologies when implemented allows for the GREATEST fault tolerance for memory? A. RAID B. Registered memory C. ECC D. Memory pairing Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 192 An application server is running slowly. After viewing performance monitoring data it is detected that the disk queue length is high. Which of the following could BEST resolve the situation? A. Add more disk drives. B. Increase the amount of virtual memory. C. Add a faster processor. D. Add more memory to stop paging to disk. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 193 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 57

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following storage tools could be used to initiate the rebuilding of a failed hard drive? A. RAID array management B. CHKDSK C. Monitoring agents D. Partitioning management Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 194 Which of the following allows an administrator to recover the MOST data? A. System image B. Incremental backup C. System state restore D. Differential backup Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 195 Two file servers have run out of local disk space. The internal drives are at capacity and the company has traditionally only used local disks for storage. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective solution to add storage to both servers? A. Install fiber cards into the servers and add direct attached storage. B. Install fiber cards into the servers and implement a SAN solution. C. Attach a USB drive to one of the servers. D. Add a NAS to the environment Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 196 An administrator will replace five current servers. Which of the following is the MOST important to review before installing new servers? A. Verify uninterruptible power supply (UPS) load B. Verify if server consumes 220V C. Verify CPU load

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Verify if server consumes 110V Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 197 Which of the following internal storage devices has the GREATEST storage capacity and is WORM media? A. CD-RW B. CD-R C. DVD-RW D. Flash Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 198 Which of the following cable types can be used to decrease susceptibility to electronic eavesdropping? A. Fiber optic B. Fast Ethernet C. Coaxial D. Thicknet Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 199 Which of the following memory technologies allows for single bit errors to be detected and subsequently fixed? A. RAID B. ECC C. CAS D. SDRAM Answer: D

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 200 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed in a server to allow the server to connect to a SAN via a fiber channel? A. SATA B. iSCSI C. SCSI D. HBA Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 201 Which of the following would an administrator follow when disposing of equipment for a financial institution? A. Local laws and regulations B. Escalation procedure regulations C. Manufacturer's regulations D. Server OEM regulations Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 202 An administrator is attempting to use Hyper-V on a server with an AMD processor but is receiving an error. Which of the following should be enabled to resolve the error? A. XD B. NX C. VT D. Hyperthreading Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 203 Which of the following RAID arrays should be used to achieve the BEST fault tolerance? A. Four drives with RAID 0 B. Four drives with RAID 3 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 60

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Four drives with RAID 5 D. Four drives with RAID 10 Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 204 A full backup is performed every Sunday and incremental backups are performed daily Monday through Saturday. How many tapes would be required to perform a full restore if a complete failure occurred on Thursday before the incremental backup? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 205 Which of the following is the MOST likely reason that a feature is not available in a virtualized environment? A. Multiple types of network cards were used. B. The environment is outside of the DMZ. C. Hardware used is not on the HCL. D. Internal hard drives were used for storage instead of external hard drives. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 206 Which of the following media types is the MOST durable in harsh environments? A. Disk B. Tape C. Optical D. Flash Answer: D

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 207 An administrator is attempting to start a server from a bootable Linux disk but instead the server boots into Windows. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. The system needs to boot to Windows first, prior to booting into Linux. B. The OS settings are not set properly for Linux support. C. The boot order is set incorrectly in the BIOS. D. The Linux disk is not supported in a Windows environment. Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 208 A server failed Thursday evening before the nightly backup. The backup scheme in place was full backups every Sunday, incremental backups on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday, and differential backups on Tuesday, Thursday, and Saturday. To fully restore the server, which of the following is the LEAST amount of backup sets required? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 209 Which of the following MOST likely causes problems with SCSI communication? A. Low communication latency B. Maximum drive capacity is exceeded C. Improper termination D. Too many SCSI devices on one system Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 210 An administrator needs to maintain 1TB of storage space for a server. A performance critical application will use this storage space for a database. The database will be replicated between multiple servers. Cost and performance are the most important considerations. Which of the "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 62

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice for the storage array? A. RAID 6 with six 250GB hard drives B. RAID 5 with five 250GB hard drives C. RAID 0 with four 250GB hard drives D. RAID 10 with eight 250GB hard drives Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 211 Users are having trouble printing in terminal services. The administrator finds that whenever a certain user prints the print spooler crashes. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem? A. The user is using a PostScript driver. B. The printer is not on the HCL. C. The user does not have the appropriate permissions to print. D. The printer driver is not installed on the terminal server. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 212 Which of the following tools can an administrator use to get a server baseline? A. System Resource Monitor B. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) C. Replication Monitor D. Performance Monitor Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 213 An administrator needs to grant privileges to other server staff members to run archive utilities on a default Windows installation. The administrator needs to set the minimum permissions to: A. remote users. B. account operators. C. server operators. D. backup operators

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 214 An administrator has purchased monitoring software that can be configured to alert administrators when hardware and applications are having issues. All devices are configured with SNMP, but the administrator wants to further secure the SNMP traffic. Which of the following settings would BEST provide additional monitoring security? (Select TWO). A. Setting up a custom community name B. Configuring the network to block traffic on port 161 C. Configuring the Windows Firewall to block port 161 D. Setting SNMP to read only on the devices E. Installing new MIBs Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 215 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide iSCSI SAN connectivity? A. HBA B. PBX C. VoIP D. NIC Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 216 Which of the following is the MOST important physical consideration when deploying a new server? A. Humidity monitors, Biometrics, and fire suppression B. Cooling, rack space, and power requirements C. Service level agreements, uninterruptible power supply (UPS) deployment, and CCTV D. Biometrics, fire suppression, and power requirements Answer: B

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 217 While installing a new PCI card the administrator touched the motherboard. While powering on the server, a series of beeps were emitted and the server did not POST. Which of the following could be done to prevent this problem? A. Use ESD equipment. B. Verify correct voltages are being supplied. C. Use a system board tester to check for compatibility issues. D. Install compatible PCI cards Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 218 An administrator installs a driver, reboots the DC, and logs in to configure the NIC. Once the administrator opens the NIC properties, the server bluescreens and now will no longer boot into Windows. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should do? A. Boot into Last Known Good Configuration. B. Reseat the NIC. C. Boot into Safe Mode. D. Boot into Directory Services Restore Mode Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 219 When configuring a DHCP server, which of the following can the administrator define for DHCP users? (Select THREE) A. Database server B. NTP server C. DHCP server D. SQLServer E. DNS server F. Domain name Answer: C,E,F

QUESTION NO: 220 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 65

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is MOST important to include on the disaster recovery documentation? A. Emergency exits B. The test plan C. Payroll D. All IT contact numbers Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 221 An administrator receives a call from a user who is unable to receive email. After troubleshooting the administrator is able to resolve the issue and verify that user is able to access email again. Which of the following is the NEXT step that the administrator should take? A. Implement preventative measures. B. Close the issue. C. Document the outcome. D. Question other users to make sure they are not having the same issue Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 222 When adding another server to an existing rack mount system, which of the following should the administrator consider FIRST? A. Load on UPS B. Rack temperature C. Room temperature D. Ease of access Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 223 Which of the following BEST describes RAID 5? A. Fault tolerance and failure recovery B. Fault tolerance and zero configuration C. Zero configuration and high performance

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. High performance and fault tolerance Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 224 Which of the following BEST describes the difference between RAID 5 and RAID 6? A. RAID 5 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 6 does not. B. RAID 6 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 5 does not. C. RAID 6 uses more parity drives than RAID 5. D. RAID 5 uses more parity drives than RAID 6. Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 225 An administrator has shut down a server to install additional memory. When the administrator restarts the server after the upgrade, it times out. Which of the following could be the cause of the problem? (Select TWO). A. Processor failure B. Third party memory C. Disk drive failure D. ESD during the upgrade E. Backplane failure Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 226 Which of the following is an advantage of a virtualized server environment? A. Higher administrative complexity B. Increased level of security C. More effective usage of computing resources D. Improved performance for users Answer: C

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 227 Which of the following is a benefit of NAS over SAN? A. Higher data integrity B. Lower cost of implementation C. Higher redundancy D. Increased performance Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 228 Which of the following is the BEST sequence to bare metal restore a server? A. Determine backups available, restore backups, and verify data. B. Restore applications, restore data, and verify data. C. Restore OS, restore system applications, and restore data. D. Contact end users of outage, restore backup data, and verify data. Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 229 A datacenter has exceeded the load on the central uninterruptible power supply (UPS) for the room and is causing power load problems. Additional power is available, but not using the central UPS. Which of the following is the BEST temporary solution for adding new servers until an upgrade of the central UPS can occur? A. Continue plugging into the central UPS, but put the UPS on bypass to avoid load problems. B. Plug the servers directly into the power that is not on the UPS. C. Add stand alone UPSs for new servers not wired off the central UPS. D. Continue plugging into the central UPS because the actual load supported is actually higher than stated Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 230 There is a power outage and all servers are shut down properly by the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) software. When one of the servers starts up it displays a logical drive failed error. This server has two processors, 16GB of memory, and a RAID 5 array with 10 drives. Which of the "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 68

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam following is the MOST likely cause? A. A failed RAID controller B. Two failed processors C. Two failed sticks of memory D. Two failed drives Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 231 When implementing a solution to a problem, which of the following is the BEST course of action to take? A. Replace all components simultaneously to ensure that the system is functional. B. Replace all hardware associated with the problem first to eliminate the possibility of hardware and move onto software C. Purchase new parts for the system to confirm that they function. D. Implement one change at a time, reversing the change if it has not resolved the problem. Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 232 Which of the following provides the MOST storage capacity without fault tolerance? A. RAID 1 B. SAS C. SAT A D. JBOD Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 233 Which of the following is the GREATEST environmental concern for a server operating environment? A. Temperature B. Lighting C. Structural columns

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Elevation Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 234 The operating system partition on a server is nearly out of space on a Windows 2003 Server. The administrator notices that the file pagefile.sys is taking up nearly 2GB of space. Which of the following would BEST resolve this problem? A. Move the page file to a free drive. B. Delete the file. C. Add more memory. D. Remove the page file from system properties Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 235 Which of the following can be used to manage a server BIOS remotely? (Select TWO) A. Remote desktop software B. Dedicated management card C. Telnet session D. IP KVM E. VPN Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 236 A bare metal backup requires which of the following backup methodologies? A. Full B. Differential C. Incremental D. Database Answer: A

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 237 Which of the following protocols would MOST likely be used in the establishment of an IPSec VPN tunnel? A. AES B. TKIP C. 802.1q D. ISAKMP Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 238 Which of the following should be kept in uninterruptible power supply (UPS) documentation records? (Select TWO) A. Antivirus software version B. Battery replacement date C. Wire shelving diagram D. IP address for network printer E. Shutdown delay timing Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 239 Which of the following RAID levels supports fault tolerance by writing parity to only one drive in the array? A. RAID 3 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 6 D. RAID 10 Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 240 An administrator installs a new network card in a properly functioning DC. During the Windows boot up process the DC bluescreens. Which of the following is the NEXT step?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Press F8 and boot to Directory Services Restore Mode. B. Press F8 and boot to Last Known Good Configuration. C. Reboot the server again. D. Press F8 and boot to Safe Mode. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 241 All of the following are contained in a server baseline document EXCEPT A. number of users. B. number of files. C. memory usage. D. average disk I/O. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 242 Which of the following information would be on a system classification list? A. Disk drive size B. IP address C. Acceptable outage time D. Operating system version Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 243 Which of the following is the FIRST course of action before implementing a change to a server? A. Survey users to get their response to the potential server change. B. The change should be approved by management. C. Switch over to the alternate site so users are not affected. D. Implement RAID so the server does not go offline. Answer: C

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 244 An administrator is adding additional memory into a server that registers 1GB of memory in the OS and notices that the system has 2GB of memory physically installed; however, the server only shows 1GB of memory during POST. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. The OS does not support more than 1GB of memory. B. The system memory has different manufacture dates. C. Two of the memory sticks are defective. D. The server is using memory interleaving Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 245 In a Windows Server 2003 environment using PKI, a user encrypts several documents on a shared file server. That user account is then accidentally deleted. Which of the following must be configured in order to decrypt those files? A. Key recovery administrator B. Key recovery agent C. Trusted root certificate store D. Root certificate store Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 246 Which of the following connects the L2 cache to the processor? A. PCI B. Frontside bus C. Backside bus D. System I/O bus Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 247 Which of the following is the MOST important step in creating a system classification list? A. Verifying the OS manufacturers "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 73

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Locating a hosting facility C. Consulting with the system manufacturers D. Interviewing system owners Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 248 Which of the following ensures that air is passed through a server chassis correctly? A. U-size templates B. Phase changers C. Baffles D. Molex connectors Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 249 Which of the following is a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through an iSCSI connection? A. JBOD B. DAS C. NAS D. SAN Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 250 Which of the following technologies can detect and fix single bit memory errors? A. RAID B. Registered memory C. SDRAM D. ECC Answer: D

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 251 A company has 100GB of data that needs to be automatically backed up daily, and needs to be stored for 20 years. Which of the following backup media is the BEST solution for archiving the server data? A. Tape B. SAN C. Flash D. Optical Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 252 Which of the following is the LEAST intrusive? A. Firmware update B. Remote management card C. Diagnostic LEDs D. Multimeter Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 253 A server has five hot pluggable SCSI disk drives in a RAID 5 array. The server OS crashed and the server will not boot. The administrator noticed that all of the disk drives have gone offline. Which of the following components would MOST likely have caused the problem? A. Memory B. SCSI backplane C. SCSI drives D. Motherboard Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 254 When disposing of computer equipment, which of the following can present an environmental hazard?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Bezel B. SATA cable C. Cat5 cable D. CRT monitor Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 255 An environment has a DC server and an Exchange server. The administrator needs to install a patch and restart both servers while minimizing downtime. Which of the following is the BEST way to restart the servers? A. Restart both servers at the same time so the servers are down at the same time. B. DC server first, then the Exchange server second. C. The order in which the servers are restarted does not matter. D. Exchange server first, then the DC server second. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 256 A server was recently updated with the latest antivirus definitions. Immediately after the update, the server begins to report file not found? errors for a mission critical application. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. The update was done incorrectly and now the server needs to be restarted. B. The update has discovered viruses on the server and removed those virus files. C. The update requires a reboot for the files to process correctly. D. The update has quarantined files that are false positives. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 257 Which of the following describes how to calculate the amount of storage in a RAID 5 array? A. Number of drives X capacity of the smallest drive B. (Number of drives 2) X capacity of the smallest drive C. Number of drives X capacity of the largest drive D. (Number of drives 1) X capacity of the smallest drive "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 76

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 258 Which of the following is designed to guarantee that once data is written it cannot be modified? (Select TWO) A. Flash B. DLT4 tapes C. CD-R D. SDLT tapes E. WORM Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 259 An administrator is installing Windows Server 2003 via CD on a new server with an SAS RAID array. When the administrator reaches the option to select the target installation drive, there are no drives listed. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should do? A. Restart the installation via WDS. B. Shut down the server and check that all RAID drives are connected properly. C. Restart the installation from CD and press F6 to install RAID drivers. D. Go into the BIOS and set all RAID drives to compatibility mode Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 260 Which of the following is the BEST support channel for server software and hardware? A. Online troubleshooting tools B. Service Level Agreement (SLA) C. Vendor website D. Support forums Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 261 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 77

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is a benefit of RAID 1? A. Higher capacity B. Higher performance C. Fault tolerance D. Multiple failure fault tolerance Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 262 A Windows 2003 Server is no longer able to access its internal SCSI drive. The cables are connected, the drive has power, and the drive shows up in Device Manager; however, the My Computer window does not show the drive that was previously working and formatted with NTFS. Which of the following would be the FIRST step in regaining access to the drive? A. Reformat the NTFS partition. B. Recreate the partition that was deleted. C. Rewrite the MBR. D. Run a check disk on the drive Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 263 Which of the following is the EASIEST way to centrally deploy software? A. Network share B. PXE C. USB D. Optical media Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 264 A server configured with RAID 5 has recently suffered from two simultaneous disk failures. Which of the following would be required to bring the server back to operational status? (Select TWO). A. Break mirror array B. Replace cache battery

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Replace hot standby D. Restore from back up E. Replace defective hard drives Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 265 Which of the following keystrokes allows installation of third party storage drivers during a Windows set-up? A. F6 B. F7 C. F8 D. F9 Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 266 Which of the following provides the MOST redundancy for a corporate server network? A. Server-to-server replication B. Server clustering C. Hot site D. Disk-to-disk replication Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 267 Which of the following is the FIRST thing to consider when designing an email retention policy? A. Local laws and industry regulations B. Company policies and guidelines C. Project guidelines given by stakeholders D. Mail server and backup capacity Answer: A

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 268 Which of the following are benefits to server virtualization? (Select THREE) A. Better server hardware leverage B. Increased application security C. Smaller backup window needed D. Lower power consumption E. Smaller datacenter footprint F. Little to no maintenance needed Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION NO: 269 An administrator needs to update the anti-virus, security patches, BIOS, and the web server software on a production system. Which of the following is the BEST method to accomplish this? A. Update anti-virus, security patches, BIOS software, and then the web software. B. Update the web software, security patches, anti-virus, and then the BIOS. C. Update security patches, BIOS, web software, and then the anti-virus. D. The order does not matter, only one change at a time should be done. Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 270 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide fiber channel SAN connectivity? A. HBA B. USB C. UAC D. NIC Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 271 Which of the following technologies allows a single physical processor to do the work of multiple processors?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Symmetric multi-processing B. Multicore C. 64-bit processing D. Hyper-V Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 272 Which of the following BEST describes RAID 1? A. Mirroring B. Striping C. Striping with parity D. Striping with mirroring Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 273 Which of the following is the MOST important consideration before making a change to a server? A. Explore the ramification of the change before implementation. B. Determine the service level agreement in place before implementation. C. Review the equipment disposal procedures and policies before implementation. D. Notify all staff members of the planned system outage before implementation. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 274 Which of the following replication methods is MOST fault tolerant? A. Hot site B. Active/passive clustering at the same site C. Disk-to-disk replication in the same server D. Warm site Answer: C

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 275 Which of the following settings is the jumper set to when installing a DVD-RW as the second device on an IDE cable? A. ID0 B. ID2 C. Cable select D. Master Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 276 A server connects to iSCSI presented SAN storage array through a dedicated NIC; however, the SAN traffic is passed on the same switches as the Ethernet network and VoIP traffic. The size of the presented drive is 700GB. The administrator has noticed a decrease in storage performance. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. The server power supply is starting to fail and causing the iSCSI NIC to intermittently lose power. B. There are too many users attempting to access the iSCSI presented disk. C. The other network traffic is causing packet delays in the iSCSI network. D. The SAN is nearing capacity and should be expanded Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 277 Which of the following are types of biometric devices used in server rooms? (Select TWO) A. Mantraps B. Fingerprint scanners C. CCTV systems D. Retina scanner E. Proxy card readers Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 278

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A new server was installed. Most clients are located in the same subnet as the server and can successfully access the server. Clients located on different subnets have been unable to access the server, but have no trouble accessing other servers on their subnet. Which of the following is the reason that these clients are unable to access the server? A. DHCP has assigned the wrong addresses. B. Incorrect default gateway on the server. C. DNS entries were not created. D. WINS server is not responding

QUESTION NO: 279 Which of the following statements about the Level 1 cache is true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Also known as external cache, it is included in every CPU. B. Also known as internal cache, it is included in every CPU. C. It eliminates the need to wait for the data to be fetched from DRAM. D. It uses low-speed memory chips for caching. Answer: B,C Explanation: The Level 1 cache is a type of RAM that is included in a CPU. All the commands for the CPU go through the cache. It stores a backlog of the commands so that, if a wait state is encountered, the CPU can continue to process data by using the commands from the cache. It improves computer performance by eliminating the need to wait for data to be fetched from DRAM. The Level 1 cache is also known as internal cache. What is wait state? Wait state is a condition in which a microprocessor waits for DRAM to get information. This slows down computer operations. When a computer runs without encountering a wait state, it runs faster. This is known as a zero wait state operation. Answer option A is incorrect. The Level 2 cache is mounted directly on the motherboard, outside the CPU. It is also known as external cache. Answer option D is incorrect. Cache RAM uses high-speed memory chips, known as SRAM, for caching.

QUESTION NO: 280 Which of the following should be included in the server baseline document? A. Date of server purchase B. Server response time C. Disk performance statistics

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Network bandwidth Answer: B,C Explanation: The following should be included in the server baseline document: Server response time Disk performance statistics Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Answer options A and D are incorrect. The dates of server purchase and server response time have nothing to do with the server baseline.

QUESTION NO: 281 Which of the following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being compromised? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Putting a lock on the server room's door B. Using a phrase for the server password C. Using personal information in the server room password D. Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder Answer: C,D Explanation: The following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being compromised: Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder Using personal information in the server room password. The personal information, such as phone number and date of birth, can be guessed easily by unauthorized users. Answer options B and A are incorrect. Using a phrase for the server password and putting a lock on the server room's door are good practices for keeping your server secure.

QUESTION NO: 282 When you start your computer, Windows operating system reports that the hard disk drive has bad sectors. What will be your first step in resolving this issue? A. Run DEFRAG on the hard drive. B. Run SCANDISK with the Thorough option. C. Run the FORMAT command from DOS prompt. D. Replace the data cable of the hard disk drive. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 84

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: Running SCANDISK with the Thorough option should be your first step in resolving this issue. With Thorough option, SCANDISK checks files and folders for errors. It also checks the physical integrity of the disk surface. When SCANDISK encounters a bad sector, it tries to fix the sector. Answer option A is incorrect. DEFRAG, a Windows-based utility, is used to reorganize files on a disk to optimize disk performance. Answer options C is incorrect. The FORMAT command is used to format disks. It will not help in resolving the issue. Answer option D is incorrect. The data cable is used to transfer data. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "How ScanDisk Fixes Bad Sectors [Q103956]"

QUESTION NO: 283 Which of the following protocols is used to send e-mail between two mail servers? A. NNTP B. SMTP C. IMAP D. SNMP Answer: B Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send e-mail between two mail servers. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-mail messages between servers. Emailing systems use this protocol to send mails over the Internet. SMTP works on the application layer of the TCP/IP or OSI reference model. The SMTP client typically initiates a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to the SMTP server on the well-known port designated for SMTP, port number 25. However, e- mail clients require POP or IMAP to retrieve mails from e-mail servers. Answer option D is incorrect. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which allows users to manage the network. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. Answer option A is incorrect. NNTP stands for Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). It is a simple ASCII text-based protocol used to post, distribute, and retrieve network news messages from NNTP servers and NNTP clients on the Internet. Answer option C is incorrect. IMAP stands for Internet Message Access Protocol. This protocol helps to retrieve e-mail messages stored on a shared e-mail server. Through this protocol, a user can use a client e-mail program/Mail User Agent (MUA) for downloading an e-mail from the shared server. A user can also use this protocol to edit or delete an e-mail from the shared e-mail server. An example of the IMAP protocol is the POP3 protocol that is quite simple and used for retrieving e-mails from a mail server. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Simple_Mail_Transfer_Protocol" "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 85

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 284 What other backup mode must be used while creating a differential backup? A. Daily backup B. Incremental backup C. Sequential backup D. Full backup Answer: D Explanation: Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. It needs only one tape to restore data. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed, or are new, since the last incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 12 - Backup"

QUESTION NO: 285 Which of the following serial bus specifications is also known as Firewire? A. DIN B. RS-232 C. IEEE 1394 D. IEEE 1284 Answer: C Explanation: IEEE 1394 is a high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. These devices include consumer audiovisual components, traditional PC storage devices, and handheld devices. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. Answer option A is incorrect. DIN is a type of connector that is used in standard 101-key IBM-style keyboards. Answer option B is incorrect. RS-232 standard is a specification for serial communication ports, also known as COM ports, serial ports, or RS- 232 ports, and is used to connect RS-232 compatible serial devices, such as modems and pointing devices to a computer. Answer option D is incorrect. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 86

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1284 is a specification of a printer cable used to take advantage of bi-directional printing. Typically, bi-directional cables have the number 1284 printed on them.

QUESTION NO: 286 Which of the following statements is true about a polymorphic virus? A. This type of virus hides system files. B. It copies itself onto the boot sector of hard disk drives. C. It has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. D. It is a type of virus that removes access permissions from files. Answer: C Explanation: Polymorphic virus has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. This virus is very complicated and hard to detect. When the user runs the infected file in the disk, it loads virus into the RAM. The new virus starts making its own copies and infects other files of the operating system. The mutation engine of polymorphic virus generates a new encrypted code, this changes the signature of the virus. Therefore, polymorphic viruses cannot be detected by the signature based antivirus. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Security Threats"

QUESTION NO: 287 Which of the following cables are used to connect one computer to another? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. SCSI cable B. 10Base2 cable C. Parallel cable D. Serial cable Answer: B,C,D Explanation: You can connect computers to communicate with each other using any one of the following cables: 10Base2 cable Parallel cable Serial cable What is 10Base2? 10Base2 is a type of cable, also known as Thinnet Coax. The maximum length of a 10base2 cable network can be 185 meters . 10Base2 cable is used in Bus topology. 10Base2 network uses the British Naval Connector (BNC) along with the T connectors to connect to the LAN card. What is a parallel data cable? A standard parallel data cable consists of twenty-five wires that transfer data one byte at a time. Each wire terminates in a connector called a pin, so it is often referred to as a 25-pin connector. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 87

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The 8-bits that make up each byte travel in parallel mode across eight of the twenty-five wires. The parallel channel is fast, reliable and preferred way to connect printers and other external devices to a computer. A standard parallel data cable has a DB-25 connector on one end and a Centronics connector on the other end. Answer option A is incorrect. SCSI cable is used to connect mass storage devices to a computer. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.

QUESTION NO: 288 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. During the boot process, a server displays a POST error. Which of the following actions can Mark take to identify the problem? A. Check the security log of the operating system for the BIOS error code. B. Call the helpdesk of the operating system's vendor. C. Check the system log of the operating system for the BIOS error code. D. Refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code. Answer: D Explanation: In order to identify the problem, Mark can refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code. The server documentation contains information about BIOS error codes. The manufacturer of the server provides the server documentation. Answer option C is incorrect. The system log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes. The system log is used to store events logged by the operating system components. For example, events such as driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log. Answer option A is incorrect. The security log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes. The system log is used to store security-related events. Answer option B is incorrect. The helpdesk of the operating system's vendor cannot provide any help regarding a BIOS error.

QUESTION NO: 289 Which of the following statements is true about the hot swap technology? A. It allows to install a new operating system without restarting the system. B. It allows a new computer to join the network automatically. C. It allows to install a new device, or remove and replace a failed device, without powering off the system.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. It allows to store more than one file using the same name. Answer: C Explanation: The hot swap technology is used to install a new device, or remove and replace a failed device, without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system. Using this technology, a device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the computer using it remains in operation. The replacement can be due to a device failure, or for storage devices, etc. The hot swap facility is available for both SCSI and IDE hard drives. This technology is also available for Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID).

QUESTION NO: 290 What will be the maximum SCSI bus length, if you connect four devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface? A. 3 meters B. 1.5 meters C. 12 meters D. 6 meters Answer: B Explanation: If you connect more than three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface, the maximum SCSI bus length will be 1.5 meters . Answer option A is incorrect. If you connect up to three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface, the maximum SCSI bus length will be 3 meters . Answer options D and C are incorrect. The Ultra SCSI interface does not support these bus lengths. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.

QUESTION NO: 291 Which of the following statements defined by IEEE for a UPS battery is true about the term "end of useful life"? A. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 25 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 89

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 50 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. C. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 10 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. D. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 80 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. Answer: D Explanation: A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energy into electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time. The IEEE defines "end of useful life" for a UPS battery as being the point when it can no longer supply 80 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. For example, A UPS battery that supports a full load for 20 minutes when new, will support the same load for only about 15 minutes when it reaches its defined "end of useful life". What is IEEE? Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is an organization of engineers and electronics professionals who develop standards for hardware and software.

QUESTION NO: 292 Which network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. % Network utilization B. Pages/sec C. Total frames received/second D. Broadcast frames received/second Answer: A,C,D Explanation: The following network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic: % Network utilization: This counter indicates how close the network is to full capacity. The threshold of the network traffic depends on the network infrastructure and topology. A value of higher than 40 percent for this counter indicates excessive network traffic. Total frames received/second: This counter indicates when bridges and routers might be flooded. Broadcast frames received/second: This counter is used to create a baseline. Since each computer processes every broadcast, high broadcast levels mean lower network performance. Answer option B is incorrect. The Pages/sec is the memory object's counter that indicates the number of pages read from or written to the hard disk. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Monitoring Performance"

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 293 Which of the following statements about memory interleaving is true? A. It is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes up to 640 KB. B. It is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in RAM. C. It is a technique in that the CPU can access alternative memory sections immediately without waiting for memory to be cached. D. It is a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to and from memory without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU). Answer: C Explanation: Memory interleaving is a technique for compensating the relatively slow speed of DRAM. The CPU can access alternative memory sections immediately without waiting for memory to be cached. Multiple memory banks take turns supplying data. It is helpful on high-end systems, especially servers, that have to process a great deal of information quickly. The Intel Orion chipset is one that does support memory interleaving. Answer option D is incorrect. Direct Memory Access (DMA) is a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to and from memory without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU). Using DMA, the computer can move data directly from the network adapter card's buffer to the computer's memory without CPU intervention. The number associated with DMA indicates the direct memory access channel that the component or device uses to transfer data to and from the memory. Answer option B is incorrect. Virtual memory is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in the RAM. When the physical memory (RAM) is exhausted, operating systems (such as Windows 95/98, NT, and 2000) move the data corresponding to older processes from the RAM to the virtual memory area on the hard disk. Hence, space is created in the RAM for the newer processes. Virtual memory is simulated RAM created by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file. Although this extends the computer's capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not sufficient, it slows down the processes and programs that use virtual memory and those that need to read and write to the hard disk.

QUESTION NO: 294 Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NeTech Inc. He wants that whenever he boots his computer, the computer should first search for the boot files on the floppy disk drive and then switch to IDE master hard disk drive. How will he accomplish this? A. Disable the hard disk drive. B. Remove the boot files from C: drive. C. Change the boot sequence to C:, A:.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Change the boot sequence to A:, C:. Answer: D Explanation: To accomplish the task, Andrew will have to change the boot sequence to A:, C: in the BIOS. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip, known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip, on the motherboard.

QUESTION NO: 295 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. You are installing Windows 2000 Server on a new computer. Which volume types does Windows 2000 Server support? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. RAID-5 B. Dynamic C. Spanned D. Basic E. Mirrored F. Parity Answer: A,C,E Explanation: Windows 2000 Server supports Raid-5, spanned, and mirrored volumes. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. If a portion of a physical disk fails, the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume, while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. What is spanned volume? A spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical disk. It is used to combine free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order to create a large logical volume. It can be created on dynamic disks only. It supports two to thirtytwo disk drives. A spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped. In Windows 2000/2003, users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives by using a spanned volume. What is mirrored volume? Mirrored volume is a fault-tolerant volume that keeps same data on two physical disks. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. In case of failure of one disk, the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. You can create mirrored volumes only on dynamic disks. Answer options B and D are incorrect. Basic and dynamic are disk types and not volume types. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Configuring "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 92

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Dynamic Volumes"

QUESTION NO: 296 Under which environmental conditions is the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD) the highest? A. High humidity B. Low humidity C. High temperature D. Low temperature Answer: B Explanation: Low humidity increases the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD). Dry air is a poor conductor of electricity and it increases the risk of ESD Humidity reduces the risk ESD because water molecules carry static electric charge away. Clothing, footwear, and flooring material are important considerations in evaluating the potential for ESD To reduce the risk of ESD, you should take the following precautions while installing new hardware: Work on a tile floor instead of carpeting. Remove your shoes, if possible, and roll up your shirt's sleeves. If you set the component down, do not let the component touch the table before your hand touches the table. What is ESD? ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone, you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems, consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on.

QUESTION NO: 297 Which of the following memory modules have 184 pins? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. DDR DIMM B. SIMM C. SO-DIMM D. RIMM Answer: A,D Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 93

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Rambus Inline Memory Module (RIMM) has 184 pins. It was developed by Rambus, Intel, and Kingston . This module only supports Rambus memory and fits on its own slot. Double Data Rate Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory module that also comes with 168 and 184 pins. DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base. The 184-pin DIMMs are for DDR SDRAM modules that are available in Pentium III, Pentium 4, and Athlon systems. 184-pin DIMMs are available in PC2100, PC2700, PC3200, PC3500 and faster. The number of chips on a 184pin DIMM may vary, but they have 92 pins on both sides of DIMM for a total of 184. 184-pin DIMMs are 5.375" long and 1.375" high, and the heights may vary. DIMMs have a small notch on the bottom of the module. Answer option C is incorrect. Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module (SO-DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in 72 pins and 144 pins. The 72-pin SO-DIMM supports 32-bit transfers, and the 144-pin SO-DIMM supports 64-bit transfers. It was introduced for laptops. SO- DIMMs come in smaller packages, consume lesser power, but are more expensive than DIMMs. Answer option B is incorrect. Single Inline Memory Module (SIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in two types, 30-pin and 72-pin. A 72-pin SIMM can be easily identified by a single notch on its base. A 30-pin SIMM does not have a notch on its base.

QUESTION NO: 298 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. Your company has a Windows NT 4.0 TCP/IP-based network. You want to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IP addresses. Which of the following utilities will you use? A. NBTSTAT B. NETSTAT C. TRACERT D. TELNET "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 94

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A Explanation: NBTSTAT with /c switch is used to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IP addresses. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections, update the NetBIOS name cache, and determine the registered names and scope IDs. NBTSTAT helps you view, remove, and correct the dynamic and static entries in the NetBIOS name cache. Answer option B is incorrect. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Answer option D is incorrect. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default. Answer option C is incorrect. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Troubleshooting tools and Strategies"

QUESTION NO: 299 In which of the following slots can ISA cards be inserted? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. VESA B. EISA C. PCI D. ISA Answer: B,D Explanation: You can insert ISA cards in Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) and Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) bus slots. What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit expansion bus that provides an interface from devices on expansion cards to the computer's internal bus. A later version of ISA bus comes with a 16-bit expansion slot. What is an EISA bus? Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) is a 32-bit PC expansion bus designed as a superset of a 16- bit ISA bus. The EISA bus is designed to increase the speed and expand the data width of the legacy expansion bus while still supporting older ISA cards. This is accomplished by providing the slot with two layers of connectors. The top layer is identical to a 16-bit ISA slot. The bottom layer is used by an EISA device but ignored by an ISA device. Therefore, both ISA "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 95

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam and EISA devices can work in an EISA slot. Answer options C and A are incorrect. You cannot insert ISA cards in PCI and VESA bus slots. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance, 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements, such as the display subsystem. What is a VESA bus? VESA is an expansion bus standard developed by Video Electronics Standards Association to provide highperformance video and graphics capabilities.

QUESTION NO: 300 Your company uses a Novell Netware 6 server for the purpose of file storage. Which of the following commands will you use to shut down the server without a prompt? A. DOWN -f B. Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) C. Shutdown -rst D. fdisk Answer: A Explanation: Answer option A is correct. In order to shut down the Novell Netware 6 server without a prompt, you will have to run the DOWN -f command. Answer option B is incorrect. The Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) is a tool for managing group policies in Windows Server 2003. It provides administrators a single consolidated environment for working on group policy-related tasks. GPMC provides a single interface with drag-and-drop functionality to allow an administrator to manage group policy settings across multiple sites, domains, or even forests. GPMC is used to back up, restore, import, and copy group policy objects. It also provides a reporting interface on how group policy objects (GPOs) have been deployed. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no such command as shutdown -rst. Answer option D is incorrect. The fdisk command is a menubased command available with Linux for hard disk configuration. This command can perform the following tasks: Delete a partition on a hard disk. Create a partition on a hard disk. Change the partition type. Display the partition table. Note: The sfdisk command-line utility is an alternative to the fdisk command. Reference: "http://www.novell.com/documentation/oes/sos__enu/?page=/documentation/oes/sos__enu/data/h enuk mm4.html"

QUESTION NO: 301 Which of the following utilities will you use to capture and view packets that are received by your Windows NT computer?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. IPCONFIG.EXE B. NETSTAT.EXE C. Performance Monitor D. Network Monitor Answer: D Explanation: Network Monitor is used to analyze traffic. Because of the nature of the data, it is often useful to have some of the frames for review. NETSTAT will show TCP/IP connections, but not data information. Performance Monitor is used for gathering statistical information, however, it will not show the contents of any data. IPCONFIG will display your IP settings and DHCP information, but again, will not show the contents of any data.

QUESTION NO: 302 Which of the following statements about software RAID-5 are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. It uses a minimum of two hard disk drives. B. It uses a minimum of three hard disk drives. C. It has a better read performance than mirrored volumes. D. It has a slower read performance than mirrored volumes. Answer: B,C Explanation: A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. If a portion of a physical disk fails, the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume, while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. Answer option A is incorrect. Two hard disks are used in mirrored volumes. A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. Both the partitions must be of same size. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume, striped volume (RAID-0), or striped volume with parity (RAID-5).

QUESTION NO: 303

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam You work as a Network Administrator. One morning, users complain that they are unable to connect to the server. You check the server and find that it is working properly but is unable to connect to the rest of the workstations on the network. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A. Users are providing incorrect passwords. B. A faulty hub. C. Users are providing incorrect usernames. D. Network cable is not attached properly to the network card on the server. Answer: B,D Explanation: There can be two most likely causes for a connection failure. Either the network cable is not attached properly to the network card on the server or the hub, which connects all the workstations and the server, is faulty. If the server is not physically connected to the network, the workstations on the network cannot access the server. Incorrect usernames or passwords are not the cause of the problem as all users are having this problem.

QUESTION NO: 304 You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. You are configuring an Internet connection for your company. Your Internet service provider (ISP) has a UNIX-based server. Which of the following utilities will enable you to access the UNIX server, using a text-based connection? A. TELNET B. IPCONFIG C. PING D. TRACERT E. FTP Answer: A Explanation: TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default. Answer option C is incorrect. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 98

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer option E is incorrect. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a primary protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which is used to transfer text and binary files between a host computer and a server computer over the Internet. Answer option B is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway etc., of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Answer option D is incorrect. TRACERT is a routetracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Mail Server"

QUESTION NO: 305 Derek tries to install a Windows 2000 Server on his Pentium-II machine but the installation fails. When he examines the problem, he suspects that it may be due to a boot sector virus. How will he confirm this? A. Boot with the MS-DOS and format the hard disk. B. Boot with Windows 2000 Server installation CD-ROM and run a third party Antivirus software. C. Check the partition with the startup disk. D. Run MAKEDISK.BAT file on the Windows 2000 Server installation CD-ROM to create diskette. Boot the computer with the diskette. Answer: D Explanation: MAKEDISK.BAT utility is used to check if the boot sector is infected with virus. The MAKEDISK.BAT utility creates a diskette to check the boot sector for virus. Once the diskette is created, boot the computer with that diskette. This will run a boot sector virus check. After completing the check, remove the diskette and proceed to the next pre-installation step. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Installing and Configuring MS Windows 2000 Server"

QUESTION NO: 306 Which of the following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. B. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes. C. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in floppy disks.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored onsite only. Answer: A,B Explanation: The following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true: The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. A disaster recovery documentation for a small organization may be simply a printed manual stored safely away from the primary work location, containing the names, addresses, and phone numbers for crisis management staff, general staff members, clients, and vendors along with the location of the offsite data backup storage media, copies of insurance contracts, and other critical material necessary for organizational survival. Answer option C is incorrect. It is not recommended to store disaster recovery plan (DRP) documents in floppy disks, as it is considered less reliable media than other storage media. Answer option D is incorrect. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. If the documents are stored on an offsite location, it will be safe in case of any disaster.

QUESTION NO: 307 Which of the following processors use Slot 1? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Pentium II B. Pentium III C. Pentium pro D. AMD K6 Answer: A,B Explanation: Pentium III and Pentium II processors use Slot 1, instead of a socket. Slot 1 type CPU connector, also known as single edge connector (SEC), is similar to an expansion card. Answer option D is incorrect. AMD K6 processors use Socket 7. Answer option C is incorrect. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8.

QUESTION NO: 308 Which of the following statements is true about the battery on a RAID controller? A. It prevents loss of data stored in the write cache. B. It prevents loss of the drive array configuration settings. C. It provides power backup to the server connected to the RAID controller. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 100

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. It prevents loss of the BIOS configuration of the server connected to the RAID controller. Answer: A Explanation: The battery on a RAID controller prevents loss of data stored in the write cache. When power to the disk array is discontinued, the data stored in the cache memory that is not written on the disk are cached in memory in write-back mode by getting power from the battery on the RAID controller. Battery modules can support cache memory for several days and save unwritten data in the cache. Answer option C is incorrect. The battery on a RAID controller does not provide power backup to the server that is connected to the RAID controller. Answer option D is incorrect. The CMOS battery prevents loss of the BIOS configuration of the server. What is a CMOS battery? A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration, date, and time settings when a computer's main power is off. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery. Answer option B is incorrect. The battery on a RAID controller cannot prevent loss of the drive array configuration settings.

QUESTION NO: 309 Which of the following counters of the TCP object are used to monitor network bottlenecks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. Write Copies/sec B. Segments Received/sec C. Segments Retransmitted/sec D. Segments Sent/sec Answer: B,C,D Explanation: The following counters of the TCP object are used to monitor network bottlenecks: Segments Received/sec Segments Sent/sec Segments Retransmitted/sec The Segments Received/sec counter shows the rate, in incidents per second, at which segments were received, including those received in error. The Segments Sent/sec counter shows the rate at which segments were sent. Segments Sent/sec is a subset of Segments/sec. The Segments Retransmitted/sec counter shows the rate at which segments containing one or more previously transmitted bytes were retransmitted. Answer option A is incorrect. The Write Copies/sec counter shows the rate at which page faults were caused by attempts to write that were satisfied by copying the page from elsewhere in physical memory. Reference: "http://technet.microsoft.com/eses/library/cc778758(WS.10).aspx"

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 310 Which of the following backup types backs up files that have been added and all data that have been modified since the most recent backup was performed? A. Differential backup B. Daily backup C. Full backup D. Incremental backup Answer: D Explanation: added and all data that have been modified since the most recent backup was performed. Incremental backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full or incremental backup. Incremental backup provides a faster method of backing up data than most other backup methods. Restoring data from an incremental backup requires the last full backup and all subsequent incremental backups. Incremental backups must be restored in the same order as they were created. If any incremental backup in the incremental backup set is damaged or becomes corrupt, the data backed up after corruption cannot be restored. Answer option C is incorrect. Full backup, also known as normal backup, involves backing up the entire hard disks and files of a machine. When the full backup type is set up, a user should choose which files, folders, and hard disks are to be backed up. After a full backup is performed, all archive bits are reset to 0. Answer option A is incorrect. Differential backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full backup. It requires minimum space to backup data. Differential backup requires only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. It is faster as compared to full backup. Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such type of backup as daily backup. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Incremental_backup"

QUESTION NO: 311 Which I/O address range is used by a hard disk controller? A. 278-27F B. 3F0-3F7 C. 1F0-1F8 D. 3F8-3FF Answer: C Explanation: A hard disk controller uses the I/O address range 1F0-1F8. The CPU sends instructions to the hard disk controller on this I/O address. Answer option D is incorrect. COM1 serial port uses the I/O address range 3F8-3FF. Answer option B is incorrect. A floppy disk controller uses the I/O "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 102

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam address range 3F0-3F7. Answer option A is incorrect. LPT2 port uses the I/O address range 27827F . What is I/O address? I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. The CPU needs a memory address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to communicate with any peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. Resources such as I/O addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. Whenever a component, such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC, its I/O address, IRQ, and DMA channels must be correctly configured.

QUESTION NO: 312 What is the height of the 8U server rack? A. 21 inches B. 31.5 inches C. 14 inches D. 26.25 inches Answer: C Explanation: The 8U server rack has a height of 14 inches . Answer option A is incorrect. The 12U server rack has a height of 21 inches . Answer option D is incorrect. The 15U server rack has a height of 26.25 inches . Answer option B is incorrect. The 18U server rack has a height of 31.5 inches .

QUESTION NO: 313 Which of the following is a consequence of configuring shadow RAM in the computer BIOS? A. Data stored in RAM and adapter cards are copied to the extended memory. B. BIOS routines are copied into the RAM at computer startup. C. Data stored in conventional memory are copied to the extended memory. D. BIOS routines are stored twice in the memory for redundancy checking. Answer: B Explanation: Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. When you configure shadow RAM, a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from readonly memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. This allows faster access to BIOS information. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60-100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. The primary "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 103

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. But, it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Shadow RAM Basics [Q78528]"

QUESTION NO: 314 You want to find the BIOS version ID of your computer. Where will you look for it? A. In BIOS setup program B. On the microprocessor C. On the computer case D. On the motherboard Answer: A Explanation: You can find the BIOS version ID in the BIOS setup program. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip, known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip, on the motherboard.

QUESTION NO: 315 Which of the following devices fall under the SCSI-3 standard? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Fast-Wide SCSI B. Fast SCSI C. Ultra 160 SCSI D. Ultra 320 SCSI Answer: C,D Explanation: The following devices fall under the SCSI-3 standard: Ultra 160 SCSI Ultra 320 SCSI Answer options A and B are incorrect. The following devices fall under the SCSI-2 standard: Fast-Wide SCSI Fast SCSI What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SCSI" "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 104

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 316 Which of the following tools can be used to detect the network adapter causing broadcast storm on the network? A. LAN Analyzer B. Reliability Monitor C. Time Domain Reflectometer D. DXDIAG Answer: A Explanation: LAN Analyzer is a tool that can be used to detect the network adapter causing broadcast storm on the network. What is a broadcast storm? A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic on the network. Broadcast storms occur due to a faulty network interface card (NIC) on the computer. The faulty NIC can be detected either by using the Network Monitor software or by the elimination process. Answer option C is incorrect. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling. TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable. Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it measures and determines the distance of the fault. TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI model. Answer option B is incorrect. The Reliability Monitor, a tool introduced in Windows Vista, is used to detect the reasons for computer failure. This tool is very helpful for detecting any intermittent failure. The Reliability Monitor tool is used to get an overview of the reasons of failures over a configurable period of time. The Reliability Monitor reports the following events: Software installation and removal Application failure Hardware failure Windows failure Miscellaneous failure The Reliability Monitor can be accessed by clicking Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Reliability and Performance > Monitoring Tools > Reliability Monitor. Answer option D is incorrect. DirectX Diagnostic Tool (DXDIAG) is a troubleshooting tool used to find errors related to DirectX files and fix them. The Display tab of the tool shows your current display settings, provides tests for both DirectDraw and Direct3D, and allows you to enable or disable hardware acceleration. This tab also displays warning messages if there are any problems.

QUESTION NO: 317 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network has a storage area network (SAN) that uses Fibre Channel technology. The servers on the network must connect to the SAN. Which of the following must the servers use in order to connect to the SAN?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) B. Fibre Thicknet Bus C. SCSI bus D. Fibre Channel fabric Answer: D Explanation: Fibre Channel fabric is a fibre channel communication network topology. A Fibre Channel fabric uses a Fibre Channel switch to provide direct connections between node pairs. A Fibre Channel switch intelligently manages connections between ports, routing frames dynamically. It allows multiple exchanges of information to occur at the same time between ports. A switch offers better system throughput than a hub. Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such technology as Fibre Thicknet Bus. Answer option C is incorrect. As the storage area network (SAN) is using Fibre Channel technology, the servers must use a Fibre Channel fabric. Answer option A is incorrect. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cannot be used for connecting SANs to the server. The connection between servers and SANs requires high data transfer rate. PSTN cannot provide such a high speed connection.

QUESTION NO: 318 Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network consists of a Windows NT 3.5 Server, working as a file server. He decides to remove the Windows NT 3.5 Server files and install Windows NT 4.0 Server. The server contains critical files. Andrew takes full backup of the critical files on a cartridge tape drive. What should be his first step before installing Windows NT 4.0 Server? A. Format the system partition B. Install the latest network operating system updates C. Verify backed-up data D. Recreate the partition Answer: C Explanation: As a precautionary measure, Andrew should first verify that backed-up data is correctly stored before installing Windows NT 4.0 Server. If Andrew removes the critical files on the server and the backed-up data gets corrupted, he will loose the files. Answer options A and D are incorrect. Formatting or recreating the partition should not be done unless the backup is verified. You may loose files if the backup gets corrupted. Answer option B is incorrect. Andrew cannot install operating system updates before installing the operating system. FactWhat is full backup? Full backup backs up the entire database including the transaction log. Taking a full backup daily is impractical, as it is time consuming. Instead, a well-defined backup strategy should be "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 106

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam implemented as a weekly full backup and a daily differential backup.

QUESTION NO: 319 Which of the following models of a processor uses Socket 7? A. Pentium Pro B. Pentium II C. 486DX D. Pentium Answer: D Explanation: Pentium processors with 321 pins use Socket 7. Answer option A is incorrect. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8. Answer option C is incorrect. 486DX processors use Socket 0. Answer option B is incorrect. Pentium II processors use a Single-Edge Connector (SEC) interface, also known as Slot 1, instead of sockets.

QUESTION NO: 320 Which of the following statements are TRUE about Performance Monitor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. It measures the processor utilization on the computer. B. It captures network traffic. C. It detects viruses on the computer. D. It monitors hard disk utilization. Answer: A,C Explanation: Performance Monitor measures the processor utilization and monitors hard disk utilization. Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers, over time. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. Create reports for use in analyzing performance, over time. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. The Alert, View, and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. Answer options B and D are incorrect. Performance Monitor does not capture network traffic and detect viruses. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 107

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 321 You are creating a network for Net World Inc. You decide to implement a star network. After you complete the wire connections, you want to test the wires for attenuation. Which of the following devices will you use to accomplish the task? A. Tone generator B. Media tester C. Wire crimper D. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) Answer: B Explanation: In order to accomplish the task, you will have to use a media tester. What is a media tester? A media tester, also called a media certifier, is an electronically programmed device that is used to perform a variety of tests on an installed cable. It tests for shorts, open circuits, transposed wire pairs, attenuation, and various types of crosstalk. A media tester compares the results with standards programmed into the unit, and displays the result in the form of pass or fail readouts for each test. Answer option D is incorrect. You cannot use OTDR with copper cables. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device, which is used to locate many different types of cable breaks and manufacturing faults on fiber optic cable connections. It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively. It is an expensive device that costs around $30,000. Answer option A is incorrect. A tone generator is an electrical cable testing device that can determine if the problem is an open circuit, a transposed wire pair, a short cable, or some other problem. Answer option C is incorrect. Wire crimper is a device that is used to attach connectors to the cables.

QUESTION NO: 322 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. The company has a Windows NT domainbased network. You want to create a measurement baseline using Performance Monitor. Which of the following views will you use? A. View B. Chart C. Log D. Alert Answer: C

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: You will have to use the Log view to create a performance baseline using Performance Monitor. What is Performance Monitor? Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers, over time. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. Create reports for use in analyzing performance, over time. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. The Alert, View, and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Monitoring and Optimizing Internet Information Server"

QUESTION NO: 323 Which of the following file systems cannot be used to install an operating system on the hard disk drive? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. High Performance File System (HPFS) B. Compact Disc File System (CDFS) C. Log-structured file system (LFS) D. Windows NT file system (NTFS) E. Novell Storage Services (NSS) Answer: B,C Explanation: The Compact Disc File System (CDFS) and the Log-structured file system (LFS) are file systems that cannot be used to install operating systems. The CD-ROM file system standard is intended for making CD-ROMs readable on many different platforms. Answer options A and D are incorrect. The HPFS and NTFS file systems are used on hard disk drives to install operating systems. What is HPFS? The High Performance File System (HPFS) was first introduced with OS/2 1.2 to allow greater access to larger hard drives. HPFS is only supported under Windows NT versions 3.1, 3.5, and 3.51. Windows 2000 and Windows NT 4.0 do not support and cannot access HPFS partitions. What is NTFS? NTFS is an advanced file system designed for use specifically in Windows NT, Windows 2000/2003, and Windows XP operating systems. It supports file system recovery, large storage media, long file names, and other features. NTFS offers features such as disk quotas, distributed link tracking, compression, and mounted drives. NTFS also offers security features, such as encryption and file and folder permissions. These features are not available on FAT volumes. Answer option E is incorrect. Novell Storage Services (NSS) is a file system used by Novell's Netware operating system. It has recently ported to Linux.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 324 What precaution should be taken while installing a video-card with on-board video RAM? A. Unplug other cards from the motherboard. B. Remove the Switch Mode Power Supply from the cabinet. C. Wear wrist strap. D. Switch on the computer. Answer: C Explanation: As a precaution, you should always wear the wrist strap attached to the computer case while installing a video-card. Wrist strap provides protection against Electrostatic discharge (ESD) that can damage electronic components, such as, chips on the motherboard or adapters. The wrist strap maintains charge equalization between your body and the computer parts. What is ESD? ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone, you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems, consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Answer option B is incorrect. Removing the Switch Mode Power Supply from the cabinet will not help in protecting the computer parts. Answer option D is incorrect. You should never turn the power on while installing hardware components on a computer. Answer option A is incorrect. You are not required to unplug other cards from the motherboard while installing a video-card. What is video RAM? Video RAM is a type of memory that stores information about the images that are displayed on the monitor screen. All types of video RAM are special arrangements of dynamic RAM (DRAM). It works as a buffer between the computer processor and the display and is often called the frame buffer.

QUESTION NO: 325 What is width of the data bus for a 486DX4 processor? A. 16 B. 64 C. 32 D. 8

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: The Intel 486 series microprocessor has a 32-bit width data bus. Intel Pentium microprocessors are also based on a 32-bit data bus. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor has a 64-bit data bus. The Intel 80286 processor has a 16-bit data bus.

QUESTION NO: 326 As a Network Administrator, you are concerned about fault tolerance. You are using a RAID5 volume across six drives as your fault-tolerance solution. The next day, you find that one of the drives has failed. What will you do? A. Replace the failed drive, use Disk Management, select a new area of free space and then regenerate the volume. B. Use Disk Administrator to break the RAID5 volume, replace the drive, and then regenerate the stripe set. C. Replace the drive, recreate the RAID5 volume, and then restore data from the tape backup. D. Use Disk Administrator to break the RAID5 volume and then restore data from the tape backup. Answer: A Explanation: When a member of a mirrored volume or a RAID5 volume fails, the failed disk becomes an orphan. Data for the orphaned member can be regenerated from the remaining members. A new area of free space of the same size, or larger than the other members of RAID5 volume, should be selected in Disk Management and then the data should be regenerated. The fault-tolerance driver reads the information from the stripes on the other member disks, and then re-creates the data of the missing member and writes it to the new member on restarting the computer. To regenerate a RAID5 volume, the volume must be locked by the operating system. All network connections to the volume are lost when a volume is regenerated. What is the function of the Disk Management tool? he Disk Management tool is used to create partitions and format new disks. Take the following steps to create partitions and format disks : Go to Start menu > Programs > Administrative Tools > Computer Management. In the console tree under Storage, click on Disk Management, go to Action menu and click Rescan Disks. Then create partitions and format new disks. Note: If Disk Management does not detect a new disk after Rescan Disks, you may have to restart your computer. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD: Disaster protection

QUESTION NO: 327 Which of the following can cause a broadcast storm on the network? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 111

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Slow workstation systems B. A down network server. C. Faulty NIC on a networked computer. D. Voltage fluctuation Answer: B,C Explanation: A faulty Network Interface Card (NIC) and down server, which serves network resources to the network client computer, can cause a broadcast storm on the network. A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic. In case of a faulty NIC that sends a jabber packet, you can detect the faulty NIC through the network monitor software or by the elimination process. In case of a server that is down, another computer on the network may attempt to communicate with the server by sending frequent requests, thus generating traffic on the network, which may result in a broadcast storm. Slow workstation or low fluctuation cannot cause a broadcast storm on the network.

QUESTION NO: 328 Your corporate network uses a Proxy Server for Internet access. An SMTP server is installed on the internal network. Which one of the following tools will help you determine where the SMTP traffic is coming from? A. Performance Monitor. B. Web Proxy logs. C. Windows NT system log. D. Network Monitor. Answer: D Explanation: The Network Monitor can capture frames from the network, which can be analyzed to determine the protocol, IP address, port etc. Incoming TCP traffic that is destined for port 25 is addressed to the SMTP server. The Performance Monitor cannot provide source IP addresses. The Web Proxy service log contains information about client requests for HTTP, FTP or Gopher objects, whereas SMTP traffic is redirected by the WinSock Proxy service. The Windows NT system log contains information about various system events, and cannot be used to monitor SMTP traffic. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Using the Microsoft Network Monitor"

QUESTION NO: 329

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam While installing a high capacity hard disk drive on an older machine, what will you have to upgrade? A. The motherboard B. The hard disk controller C. RAM D. The System's BIOS Answer: D Explanation: A BIOS upgrade is required, if you want to install a high capacity hard disk drive on an older machine, which is not supported by an older BIOS. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip, known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip, on the motherboard.

QUESTION NO: 330 Which of the following statements is true about IRQ? A. IRQ is a section of the system's memory used by devices. B. IRQ is an infrared communication device. C. IRQ allows devices to communicate directly with the memory without using the CPU. D. IRQ is a series of standard signals used by devices to request for attention from the CPU. Answer: D Explanation: IRQ is a series of standard signals used by devices to request for attention from the CPU. In general, only one device should be assigned to each IRQ. Reference: TechNet, Contents: Chapter 1 - Administering Windows NT Systems

QUESTION NO: 331 Which of the following devices is used to resolve the low voltage problem? A. SMPS B. UPS C. Surge protector D. Switch

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: To resolve the low voltage problem, you should attach uninterruptible power supply (UPS) to a computer. Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage, using battery backup. It also provides protection against power surges. When power surge occurs, only the UPS charging circuit is affected, while the computer gets normal power. Answer option C is incorrect. A surge protector is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipments from power surges. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/- 170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. Answer option D is incorrect. A switch is a network connectivity device that brings media segments together in a central location. It reads the destination's MAC address or hardware address from each incoming data packet and forwards the data packet to its destination. This reduces the network traffic. Switches operate at the data-link layer of the OSI model. Answer option A is incorrect. Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic equipment. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 4 - Planning a Reliable Configuration"

QUESTION NO: 332 Which of the following options will you use to minimize ESD problems? A. A plastic CPU cover. B. A wrist strap. C. Wearing synthetic clothes in the computer lab. D. An antiglare screen. Answer: B Explanation: To minimize Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) problems, you should wear a wrist strap when you are working on computer components. A wrist strap is a simple wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a clip on the other end. The clip is connected to a common ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Answer option D is incorrect. An antiglare screen on the monitor is used to protect the eyes from radiation. Answer option C is incorrect. Wearing synthetic clothes can make the ESD problem worse. Synthetic clothes can transfer ESD charges from your skin when they rub against your clothes and can damage the computer components. It happens when your body or clothes come in contact with computer components. Answer option A is incorrect. A plastic CPU cover cannot decrease the ESD problem.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 333 Which of the following are the benefits of implementing a blade server? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. It requires zero administration. B. It consumes less power. C. It takes less space than conventional servers. D. It improves network performance. Answer: B,C Explanation: A blade server takes less space and consumes less power than the conventional servers. Blade servers are stripped down computer servers with a modular design optimized to minimize the use of physical space. Whereas a standard rack-mount server can function with (at least) a power cord and network cable, blade servers have many components removed to save space, minimize power consumption and other considerations, while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer. A blade enclosure, which can hold multiple blade servers, provides services such as power, cooling, networking, various interconnects and management. Though, different blade providers have differing principles around what to include in the blade itself. Answer options A and D are incorrect. A blade server requires administration and does not improve network performance. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blade_server"

QUESTION NO: 334 Which of the following is an advantage of AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)? A. AGP enables high speed for 3D graphics and full motion videos. B. AGP provides improved server performance through load sharing. C. AGP enables quick file transfer to a remote system. D. AGP provides improved network performance. Answer: A Explanation: AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed for high performance graphics and video support. It allows a video card to have direct access to a computer's RAM, which enables fast video performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2,133 MB/second. Therefore, answer options C, D, and B are incorrect. Reference: "Upgrading and Repairing PCs" by Scott Mueller, Contents: "Motherboard and Buses"

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 335 Which of the following materials is used in a Coaxial cable for the insulation and the cable jacket? A. Plenum B. PVC C. Cotton ribbon D. Fiber Answer: B Explanation: Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a type of plastic used to construct the insulation and the cable jacket for a cable. PVC is used in most coaxial cables. PVC coaxial cable is flexible and can be easily routed in the exposed areas of an office. However, when it burns, it emits poisonous gases. Answer option A is incorrect. A plenum is the short space in many buildings between the false ceiling and the floor above. Plenum rated cable has slow-burning, fire-resistant casing that emits little smoke. Plenum cable can be used in the plenum area and in a wall without conduit.

QUESTION NO: 336 Which of the following can happen in an event of processor fan failure? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Computer hangs B. Floppy drive failure C. Processor damage D. Hard drive failure Answer: A,C Explanation: In an event of processor fan failure, the heat generated by the processor will cause computer hang up and processor damage. Answer options D and B are incorrect. Processor fan failure does not affect the hard disk drive or the floppy disk drive. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 5 Keeping Connected"

QUESTION NO: 337 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a server that has a dual processor motherboard and a RAID-5 disk array with four hard disk drives. The server contains a database that is used by Intranet users on the company's network. The server also runs the DNS service. Users report that when they query the database or update data, it responds "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 116

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam slowly. Which of the following steps can Mark take to improve the performance of the server? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three. A. Move the DNS service to another server. B. Add a hard disk drive to the RAID-5 array. C. Move the paging file to another partition on the RAID-5 array. D. Implement the RAID-1 disk array instead of RAID-5 on the server. Answer: A,B,C Explanation: In order to improve the performance of the server, Mark can take the following steps: 1.Add a hard disk drive to the RAID-5 array. This will improve the read-write performance of the disks. 2.Move the DNS service to another server. This will reduce the work load on the server and hence improve its performance. 3.Move the paging file to another partition on the RAID-5 array. Paging files do not need fault-tolerance, and some fault-tolerant systems suffer from slow data writes because they write data to multiple locations. Administrators should avoid putting a paging file on a fault tolerant drive such as a RAID-1 or RAID-5 volume. Answer option D is incorrect. Implementing RAID-1 on the server will not improve the performance of the server. The read-write performance of RAID-1 is slower than RAID-5. FactWhat is mirrored volume (RAID-1)? A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. Both the partitions must be of same size. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume, striped volume (RAID-0), or striped volume with parity (RAID-5).

QUESTION NO: 338 What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for a RAID5 array, including a spare hard disk drive? A. Four B. Thirty-three C. Five D. Two Answer: A Explanation: A minimum of three disks are required for RAID5 array. Since one hard disk drive is included as a spare disk, four disks is the right choice. A RAID5 array is a fault-tolerant volume, with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. If a portion of a physical disk fails, you can re-create the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 117

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume, thus if the data is stored on five hard disks only one additional disk is required to provide fault tolerance. However in case of RAID1 array, mirror can be establish between two disks. You will require five additional disks of same size to provide fault tolerance. RAID5 array has a better read performance, than RAID1 array. RAID1 array is also known as Mirroring. Reference: Windows 2000 Help, Content: 'Using RAID5 volumes', 'Using mirrored volumes'

QUESTION NO: 339 Which of the following are the three basic components of hard drive geometry? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. Cylinders B. Heads C. Sectors D. Cluster Answer: A,B,C Explanation: The hard drive geometry has three basic components Cylinders, Head and Sectors. Cylinders and sectors are used by an operating system for hard disk organization. Heads are used to read and write data on the hard disk.

QUESTION NO: 340 Which of the following statements about the SMP (Symmetrical Multi-Processing) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. Each processor shares the same memory. B. It is easier to implement than Asymmetric Multi-Processing (ASMP). C. Each processor has its own memory address space. D. Each processor runs all tasks in parallel. Answer: A,B,D Explanation: Symmetrical Multi-Processing (SMP) is a type of multi-processor architecture. In this architecture, multiple processors share the same memory and handle tasks in parallel. The processors share a common front side bus (FSB) to access memory from which to collect and export data. SMP is most commonly found on the x86-based architecture, which includes Pentium II, Pentium III, AMD Athlon MP, etc. The lower-scale systems use Symmetrical Multi-Processing more commonly due to its low costs. SMP is easier to implement, as it has multiple processors and other components "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 118

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam are shared by them such as the memory, I/O subsystem, operating system, etc. On the other hand, in Asymmetrical Multi- Processing (ASMP), each processor has its own memory address space and the program tasks are divided on the basis of the tasks that the processors perform. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Symmetric_multiprocessing"

QUESTION NO: 341 What is the use of the LBA mode on older computers? A. It allows computers to use more physical memory. B. It allows computers to access disk drives over 40 MB. C. It allows computers to access disk drives over 504 MB. D. It allows computers to access data faster. Answer: C Explanation: Logical Block Addressing (LBA) mode allows older computers to access disk drives larger than 504MB.

QUESTION NO: 342 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Mark is testing the disaster recovery plan of the company. During the testing of the recovery plan, he finds that some servers have been restored with another server's dat a. What will Mark do to improve the disaster recovery plan? A. Implement the cluster server. B. Maintain a printed tape backup report. C. Remember which tape drive stores which server's data. D. Maintain a hard copy of the data stored on the server. Answer: B Explanation: In order to improve the disaster recovery plan, Mark will have to maintain a printed tape backup report, so that it can be confirmed that the data is getting stored on the appropriate server. Answer option D is incorrect. Maintaining a hard copy of the data stored on the server will not improve the disaster recovery plan. It will increase the administrative burden. Answer option A is incorrect. Implementing the cluster server has nothing to do with this issue. What is a cluster? A cluster is a group of two or more servers working together as a single system. All the computers in a cluster are grouped under a common name i.e., a virtual server name, which is used to access and manage the cluster. Each member server of the cluster is called a node. A cluster provides redundant operations in the event of hardware or application failure. Answer option C is incorrect. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 119

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Remembering which tape drive stores which server's data is not a good practice, as it is possible that another administrator could work in place of Mark when the need arises.

QUESTION NO: 343 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has offices at different locations of a city. You decide to use 100BaseFX full-duplex Multimode Fiber-optic cabling for interconnecting the offices. What is the maximum length of cable you can use for this network? A. 2000 meters B. 100 meters C. 10 meters D. 1000 meters Answer: A Explanation: 100BaseFX is a fast Ethernet network that runs at the speed of 100 Mbps using Multimode Fiberoptic (MMF) cable with segment lengths of up to 412 meters for half duplex connections and 2000 meters for full duplex connections. The similarity between 100BaseFX and other fast Ethernet specifications are the use of star topology. The following table lists the 100BaseFX specifications: Maximum segment length (half duplex) 412 meters Maximum segment length (full duplex) 2000 meters Speed 100 Mbps Topology Star Cable Fiber Optic

QUESTION NO: 344 Which of the following commands runs the shutdown without a prompt on the Novell Netware 6 server? A. Restart Server -na B. DOWN-f C. Restart Server -ns D. DOWN-fs Answer: B Explanation: The DOWN-f command forces the server to shutdown without prompting. Answer option D is incorrect. There is no such command as DOWN-fs. Answer option C is incorrect. The Restart Server -ns command restarts the server without using the startup.ncf file. Answer option A is incorrect. The Restart Server -na command restarts the server without using the autoexec.ncf file.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 345 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. Your company has a TCP/IP-based network. You want to get the protocol statistics and the active TCP/IP network connections of your computer. Which of the following will you use? A. NETSTAT B. SNMP C. ARP D. NBTSTAT E. IPSTAT Answer: A Explanation: The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Answer option D is incorrect. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections, update the NetBIOS name cache, and determine the registered names and scope IDs. Answer option C is incorrect. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite. It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card (NIC). The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its corresponding IP address. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and providing address conversion in both directions. ARP is limited to physical network systems that support broadcast packets. Answer option B is incorrect. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which allows users to manage the network. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. Answer option E is incorrect. There is no utility such as IPSTAT.

QUESTION NO: 346 Which of the following is used to recover the operating system in Windows Server 2003? A. Automated System Recovery (ASR) B. NTDSUTIL utility C. Windows Backup utility D. Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) Answer: A

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Automated System Recovery (ASR) is a feature of Windows Server 2003. It is used to perform a restore of the system state data and services in the event of a major system failure. An ASR restore includes the configuration information for devices. ASR backs up the system data and local system partition. It does not back up folders and files. How to create an ASR set? Show Answer option D is incorrect. Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) is a floppy disk that contains critical system files necessary to recover a Windows NT computer in case of failure. These files are stored in compressed format. ERD includes portion of the registry, computer's default profile (NTUSER.DAT), and computer's configuration files (SETUP.LOG, AUTOEXEC.BAT, and CONFIG.SYS). ERD can be created through the RDISK.EXE utility. To start RDISK, go to Start menu > Run, type RDISK, and click OK. ERD is not self bootable. To restore the information from ERD, boot with NT Setup diskettes and select the Repair option and insert ERD to restore the information. Answer option C is incorrect. The Windows Backup utility cannot be used to recover the operating system in Windows Server 2003. Answer option B is incorrect. NTDSUTIL.EXE is a command-line tool that is used to manage Active Directory. This utility is used to perform the following tasks: Performing database maintenance of Active Directory. Managing and controlling operations master roles. Removing metadata left behind by domain controllers. Note:The NTDSUTIL utility is supposed to be used by experienced administrators.

QUESTION NO: 347 Monica monitors various performance counters on a Proxy Server computer that has one CPU and one hard disk. She discovers that the percent Processor Time is 75%, the current Disk Queue Length is 4, the Cache Hit Ratio is 90%, and Network Interface Output Queue 9Length is 1. Based on this information, which of the following devices are possible bottlenecks? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A. Network adapter B. Hard disk C. CPU D. Memory Answer: A,D Explanation: % Processor Time value of 90, or less, is considered normal and is not a sign of a CPU bottleneck. A current Disk Queue Length value that is greater than 2 indicates that the disk is subjected to excessive amount of input/output, and cannot satisfy all the requests in a timely fashion. Therefore, Monica should add another disk or replace the existing disk with a faster one. The best configuration for running a Proxy Server is a computer with a high amount of content cache on multiple disks that are attached to separate SCSI controllers, and arranged in a RAID configuration to increase speed. On the other hand, an excessive amount of input/output to the "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 122

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam hard disk can be caused by insufficient memory. To determine if memory is a bottleneck, the memory Pages/sec counter should be monitored. A Cache Hit Ratio of 90% indicates that the cache is correctly configured, and that most of the client requests are serviced from the cache. Network Interface: Output Queue Length value of less than 2 is a sign that the network interface is working properly. Reference: TechNet, Contents:Chapter 8 - Monitoring Performance

QUESTION NO: 348 Andrew adds a hard disk drive to a computer. When he powers on the computer, a blank screen is displayed. What is the most likely cause? A. HDD cable is not inserted properly in the hard disk drive. B. Floppy drive cable is not inserted properly in the floppy drive. C. BIOS configuration error. D. Incompatible hard disk drive. Answer: A Explanation: The question clearly states that when Andrew powers on the computer after adding the hard disk drive, a blank screen is displayed. The most likely cause for this is that the HDD cable is not inserted properly in the hard disk drive. While adding a hard disk drive to a computer, make sure that the HDD cable is inserted properly at both ends, i.e., the HDD and IDE controller ends. Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. An improperly inserted floppy drive cable, BIOS configuration error, and an incompatible hard disk drive have nothing to do with this problem.

QUESTION NO: 349 Which of the following counters of the memory object shows the rate at which pages were read from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults? A. Pages/sec B. Pages Outout/sec C. Pages Writes/sec D. Pages Input/sec Answer: A Explanation: The Pages/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were read from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults. Answer option B is incorrect. The Pages Outout/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were written to disk to free up space in physical memory. Answer option C is incorrect. The Pages Writes/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were written to disk to free "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 123

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam up space in physical memory. Answer option D is incorrect. The Pages Input/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were read from disk to resolve hard page faults. Reference: "http://technet.microsoft.com/es-es/library/cc778082(WS.10).aspx"

QUESTION NO: 350 You are installing two hard disk drives on a computer. Which of the following are the possible combinations that can be used? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Install both hard disks on the secondary IDE controller and designate both hard disks as Slave. B. Install both drives on the primary IDE controller and designate one as Master and the other as Slave. C. Install both hard disk drives on the primary IDE controller and designate both drives as Secondary. D. Install the drives, one each on the primary and secondary IDE controllers and designate both as Master. Answer: B,D Explanation: While installing two hard disk drives on a computer, any one of the following two combinations can be used: 1.Install the drives, one each on the primary and secondary IDE controllers and designate both as Master. 2.Install both drives on the primary IDE controller and designate one as Master and the other as Slave. What are the jumper settings on IDE/EIDE drives? Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master, Slave, and Cable Select types of jumper settings. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. If two drives are attached to one controller, one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master, or Slave, none of them will work. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no such setting as Secondary.

QUESTION NO: 351 Your company has recently purchased a motherboard that supports eight processors. Which of the following operating systems will you select to take full benefit of hardware? A. An operating system that supports SNMP B. An operating system that supports SMP C. An operating system that supports Plug and Play functionality D. An operating system that supports SCSI devices

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: In order to take full benefit of hardware, you have to select an operating system that supports Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP). Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) is a technique that involves a multiprocessor computer architecture where two or more identical processors can connect to a single shared main memory. Most common multiprocessor systems today use an SMP architecture. In the case of multi-core processors, the SMP architecture applies to the cores, treating them as separate processors. SMP systems allow any processor to work on any task no matter where the data for that task are located in memory. With proper operating system support, SMP systems can easily move tasks between processors to balance the workload efficiently. Answer options A, C, and D are incorrect. An operating system supporting SNMP, Plug and Play, or SCSI device will not be able to take advantage of hardware mentioned in the scenario. What is SNMP? SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is exclusively used in TCP/IP networks. SNMP provides a means to monitor and control network devices and to manage configuration, statistics collections, performance, and security. What is Plug and Play? Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support, which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system, Basic Input/Output System (BIOS), devices, and device drivers. When a Plug and Play device is connected to a computer, the Plug and Play compliant operating system automatically detects it, installs the required drivers, and configures the device appropriately. All versions of Windows above Windows 9x support the Plug and Play feature. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Symmetric_multiprocessing"

QUESTION NO: 352 What will happen when shadowing is enabled in the ROM BIOS of a computer? A. Instructions stored in the hard disk will be copied into the extended memory. B. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into hard disk. C. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into conventional memory. D. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into the extended memory. Answer: D Explanation: Shadowing is a method that improves system performance by copying code in ROM BIOS to the extended memory. The hardware code is typically stored in ROM. As ROM is relatively slower than RAM, the system performance can suffer each time the hardware code is executed from the ROM BIOS. Many BIOSs allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. But it should be done only as the last resort, because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. What is conventional memory? Conventional memory, also known as low-DOS or base memory, "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 125

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes upto 640 KB. It is used to load and process data needed by the active programs. Reference: TechNet, Contents: Shadow RAM Basics [Q78528]

QUESTION NO: 353 Which of the following can occur if the power cable runs along with the computer network cable? A. ESD B. Surge C. Broadcast storm D. EMI Answer: D Explanation: If the power cable runs along with the computer network cable, radiation from the power cable, known as electromagnetic interference (EMI) , may be inducted into the computer network cable affecting the signals that pass through it. Answer option A is incorrect. ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone, you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems, consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Answer option B is incorrect. Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/- 170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. Answer option C is incorrect. Broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly, thereby increasing the traffic. A faulty network interface card (NIC) that sends jabber packets can be detected by the network monitor software. A faulty NIC can cause a broadcast storm on the network. Broadcast storms caused by a faulty network interface card can be resolved by disabling or replacing the card.

QUESTION NO: 354 How many devices can be connected together from a standard SCSI controller? A. Nine devices, excluding one host bus adapter card. B. Six devices, including one host bus adapter card. C. Eight devices, including one host bus adapter card.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Two devices, including one host bus adapter card. Answer: C Explanation: A SCSI controller allows up to eight devices to be connected to the SCSI bus, including one host bus adapter and up to seven drive controllers.

QUESTION NO: 355 Which of the following servers provides remote access through a dial-up connection? A. DHCP server B. RAS server C. DNS server D. Database server Answer: B Explanation: A Remote Access Service (RAS) server provides remote access though a dial-up connection. A RAS (Remote Access Service) server is a specialized computer which aggregates multiple communication channels together. Because these channels are bidirectional, two models emerge: multiple entities connecting to a single resource, and a single entity connecting to multiple resources. Both of these models are widely used. Both physical and virtual resources can be provided through a RAS server: centralized computing can provide multiple users access to a remote virtual operating system. Access Providers often use RAS servers to terminate physical connections to their customers, for example customers who get Internet through some form of modem. Answer option C is incorrect. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings, IP address-to-host name mappings, information about the domain tree structure, etc. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. Answer option A is incorrect. A DHCP server does not provide remote access through a dial-up connection. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a TCP/IP standard used to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers, so that they can communicate with other network services. It reduces the complexity of managing network client IP address configuration. A DHCP server configures DHCP-enabled client computers on the network and runs on servers only. It also provides integration with the Active Directory directory service. Note: If the DHCP server is offline, a user cannot obtain necessary addresses from the server. Hence, without valid TCP/IP addresses from the DHCP server, the user will not be able to communicate with anyone on the network or access network resources. Answer option D is incorrect. A database server does not provide remote access through a dial-up connection. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Remote_Access_Service"

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QUESTION NO: 356 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Soft Inc. You are designing a data backup plan for your company's network. The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy recovery of dat a. Which of the following options will you choose to accomplish this? A. Take a full backup daily with one tape taken offsite weekly. B. Take a full backup on alternate days and keep rotating the tapes. C. Take a full backup daily with the previous night's tape taken offsite. D. Take a full backup on Monday and an incremental backup on each of the following weekdays. Keep Monday's backup offsite. E. Take a full backup daily and use six-tape rotation. F:Take a full backup on Monday and a differential backup on each of the following weekdays. Keep Monday's backup offsite. Answer: C Explanation: The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy recovery of data. Therefore, you should take a full backup daily with the previous night's tape taken offsite. Full backup is a good choice because it makes data restoration easier as compared to differential or incremental backup. For safe storage, a backup tape less than twenty-four hours old should be kept offsite. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. It needs only one tape to restore data. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed, or are new, since the last incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Description of Full, Incremental, and Differential Backups [Q136621]"

QUESTION NO: 357 What does SCSI stand for? A. Small Component Systems Interface. B. Small Computer Serial Interface. C. Small Computer Systems Interface.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Serial Computer Systems Interconnect. Answer: C Explanation: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CDROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 19 - Device Management"

QUESTION NO: 358 Which of the following steps will you take to run the TELNET client on a Windows 2000 Server computer? A. Type the telcli command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. B. Go to Start > Programs > Accessories > Terminal. C. Go to Start > Programs > Communication > Terminal. D. Type the telnet command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. Answer: D Explanation: In order to run the TELNET client on a Windows 2000 Server computer, you will type the telnet command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such command as telcli. Answer options C and B are incorrect. These steps will not help in running the TELNET client on the computer. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Telnet"

QUESTION NO: 359 Which of the following statements is true about Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) ? A. ESD occurs between two objects that have the same electric potential. B. ESD occurs due to electric fluctuation. C. ESD occurs between two objects that have no electric potential. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 129

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. ESD occurs between two objects that have different electric potential. Answer: D Explanation: Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) occurs when two objects of different electric potential come in contact with one another and exchange the charge in order to standardize the electrostatic charge. ESD protection is based on charge equivalence. If you touch any sensitive electronic component, like an adapter or drive, with your hand, there will be no static difference between them that can cause ESD.

QUESTION NO: 360 How will you determine that the CMOS battery in the computer has failed or discharged? A. The computer will take time to reboot. B. The computer will hang frequently. C. The computer's processing speed will slow down. D. The computer will start losing the date and time. Answer: D Explanation: When you turn off the computer and turn it on again, you find that the date and time, and few other settings are lost. These symptoms indicate that the system's CMOS battery has failed. What is a CMOS battery? A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration, date, and time settings when a computer's main power is off. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery.

QUESTION NO: 361 Which two of the following utilities are similar in function? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. IPCONFIG B. NETSTAT C. PING D. TRACERT Answer: C,D

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: PING and TRACERT are similar in function. Both are diagnostic utilities used to diagnose a TCP/IP configuration and use ICMP echo requests to diagnose network connection problems. PING sends ICMP echo requests from a computer to a remote computer to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. TRACERT traces the path taken by TCP/IP packets from a computer to a remote computer by sending ICMP echo requests and replying to messages. Answer option A is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway etc., of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Answer option B is incorrect. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Answer option B is incorrect. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Networking - TCP/IP"

QUESTION NO: 362 You are upgrading your server. According to its manual, the motherboard supports only same type of memory module. What does this indicate? A. Same size of all memory modules on the motherboard. B. Same type, like DIMM or SIMM, of all memory modules on the motherboard. C. Same manuurer of all memory modules on the motherboard. D. Same slot of all memory modules on the motherboard. Answer: B Explanation: The correct answer is, "Same type, like DIMM or SIMM of all memory modules on the motherboard." The motherboard supports only same type of memory module, like SIMM or DIMM. You can install multiple memory module of same type with different sizes on the motherboard. It is not important that there are different manuurers for same type of RAM.

QUESTION NO: 363

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Why do we use fans inside the Central Processing Unit (CPU) box? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. To keep CPU temperature low. B. To improve performance of the computer. C. To improve air circulation in the CPU box. D. To make CPU faster. Answer: A,C Explanation: High temperature can be harmful for a computer's peripheral devices. The fans inside the CPU box throw the hot air out of the CPU box and therefore help in keeping the CPU temperature low. Fans are also used to improve air circulation in the CPU box. Answer options D and B are incorrect. Fans cannot make CPU faster or improve performance of a computer. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 5 Keeping Connected"

QUESTION NO: 364 Which of the following RAID levels creates a stripe set but does not provide data redundancy? A. Level 5 B. Level 1 C. Level 0 D. Level 3 Answer: C Explanation: RAID level 0 is commonly known as disk striping. It uses a disk file system called a stripe set. Data is divided into blocks and spread in a fixed order among all the disks in the array. Disk striping offers the best overall performance among all the Windows NT Server disk management strategies. However, like volume sets, it does not provide fault tolerance. If any partition in the set fails, all the data is lost. Answer option B is incorrect. RAID level 1 is also known as disk mirroring and provides data redundancy. What is mirrored volume (RAID-1)? A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. Both the partitions must be of same size. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume, striped volume (RAID-0), or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). Answer options A and D are incorrect. RAID levels 3 and 5 provide data redundancy. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a faulttolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. If a portion of a "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 132

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam physical disk fails, the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume, while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Redundant_array_of_independent_disks"

QUESTION NO: 365 How many devices does the EIDE system support? A. Eight B. Two C. Four D. One Answer: C Explanation: The Enhanced Integrated Device Electronics (EIDE) system supports four devices and the Integrated Drive Equipment(IDE) system supports two devices.

QUESTION NO: 366 You have installed a SCSI adapter device driver on a file server in the network. After installing the device driver, you restart the server. You find that the server is unable to boot. Which of the following actions will you take to enable the server to boot properly? A. Reinstall the SCSI adapter device driver. B. Increase RAM on the server. C. Run the Scandisk utility on the server. D. Disable the SCSI adapter BIOS. Answer: D Explanation: In order to enable the server to boot properly, you will have to disable the SCSI adapter BIOS. After installing the device driver for the SCSI adapter, the server is unable to boot. It indicates that the recently installed device driver is creating problems in the server. Therefore, you need to disable the SCSI adapter BIOS so that the driver is not loaded during boot process. Answer option A is incorrect. You cannot reinstall the device driver because the server is unable boot. Answer option B is incorrect. Increasing RAM will not help the server boot properly. It can only improve the performance of the server if the server is in use. Answer option C is incorrect. If the server is not booted, the Scandisk utility cannot be run on the server. What is SCANDISK? SCANDISK is a "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 133

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. This helps in improving the performance of a computer.

QUESTION NO: 367 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. You install a new UPS and connect it to a server through a serial cable. You discover that the server is not communicating with the UPS. What is the most likely cause? A. The UPS software is not properly configured. B. The battery of the UPS is not fully charged. C. UPS is not configured to a power source. D. UPS is not connected to the server's parallel port. Answer: A Explanation: The most likely cause of the server not communicating with the UPS is that the software provided with the UPS is not properly configured. Answer option D is incorrect. UPS and server always use serial port and not the parallel port to communicate with each other. Answer option B is incorrect. A fully charged UPS battery is not required for a server to communicate with the UPS. Answer option C is incorrect. UPS cannot be configured to a power source. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage, using battery backup. It also provides protection against power surges. When power surge occurs, only the UPS charging circuit is affected, while the computer gets normal power.

QUESTION NO: 368 Which of the following statements about SRAM are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. SRAM is more expensive than DRAM. B. SRAM is made of capacitors. C. SRAM is made of a special circuit called a flip-flop. D. SRAM is used for caching. Answer: A,C,D Explanation: Static RAM (SRAM) is a type of memory chip made of a special circuit known as flip-flop. It is significantly faster than DRAM. Unlike DRAM memory chip circuits, it does not have to be "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 134

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam refreshed because it uses the flip-flop circuit to store each bit. SRAM memory chips are generally used for caching. It has a disadvantage that it is more expensive than DRAM. Answer option B is incorrect. Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) memory chip circuits are made of tiny capacitors. DRAM is slower than SRAM, as it needs to be refreshed.

QUESTION NO: 369 HOTSPOT In the image of the motherboard given below, identify the area to which you connect a hard disk drive.

Answer:

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

Explanation:

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Hard disk drive uses 40 or 80 wire cables to connect to a motherboard that has an integrated IDE controller. A hard disk drive can also connect to a 40-pin connector on an IDE controller adapter using 40 or 80 wire cables. Hard disk drives are magnetic storage devices that contain several disks, known as platters. These platters are attached to the spindle motor. The read/write heads are responsible for reading and writing to the platters. The read/write heads are attached to the head actuator, which is in charge of moving the heads around the platters. What is a motherboard? A motherboard is the physical arrangement in a computer that contains the computer's basic circuitry and components. On the typical motherboard, the circuitry is imprinted or affixed to the surface of a firm planar surface and usually manuured in a single step. The most common motherboard design in desktop computers today is the AT, based on the IBM AT motherboard. A more recent motherboard specification, ATX, improves on the AT design. In both the AT and ATX designs, the computer components included in the motherboard are as follows: The microprocessor Memory Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) Expansion slot Interconnecting circuitry The structure of a motherboard is shown in the figure below:

QUESTION NO: 370 Which of the following services provide name resolution service? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. WINS B. IIS C. Browser service D. DNS

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A,D Explanation: The DNS and WINS services provide name resolution service. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings, IP address-to- host name mappings, information about the domain tree structure, etc. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a name resolution service that registers and resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses used on the network. WINS is a Microsoft standard and is used only on networks comprising Windows hosts. Answer option C is incorrect. The Computer Browser service is used by Windows-based computers on the network. Computers designated as browsers maintain an up-to-date list of computers and provide the list to applications when requested. When a user attempts to connect to a resource in the network, the Browser service is contacted to provide a list of available resources. Answer option B is incorrect. Internet Information Services (IIS) is a software service that supports Web site creation, configuration, and management, along with other Internet functions. Microsoft Internet Information Services includes Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP), File Transfer Protocol (FTP), and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Reference: "http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc755374(WS.10).aspx"

QUESTION NO: 371 Mark has purchased a computer that has an ATA-66 motherboard with a single ATA-66 hard drive on the primary IDE interface. In order to store data and get a better data transfer rate, he purchases an ATA-100 disk drive and connects it to the primary IDE interface. What will be the maximum data transfer rate of both drives? A. They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-100 drive. B. They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. C. They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-166 drive. D. The ATA-66 hard drive will operate at its maximum data transfer rate, and the ATA-100 hard drive will operate at its maximum data transfer rate. Answer: B Explanation: Both drives will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. If an ATA-100 hard disk is installed on an ATA-66 motherboard, the maximum data transfer rate will be 66 MB/sec due to the chipset limitation. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no such motherboard or hard disk as the ATA-166. Answer option D is incorrect. The ATA-100 hard drive will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive, as the motherboard chipset is not compatible with the ATA-100 data transfer rate.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 372 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based Windows NT network. You are configuring a computer that will be used as a file server on the network. You have to decide the disk configuration for the computer to obtain better performance. A fault tolerant disk configuration is not a requirement. Which of the following RAID levels will you choose to fulfil the requirement? A. RAID-1 B. RAID-5 C. RAID-0 D. RAID-4 E. RAID-3 Answer: C Explanation: RAID-0, also known as stripe set, stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. Stripe set does not provide fault tolerance, but offers better performance as compared to mirror set (RAID-1) and stripe set with parity (RAID-5). Stripe set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. Answer option A is incorrect. RAID-1, also known as mirrored set, is a fault tolerant disk subsystem that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. Both the partitions must be of the same size. Mirrored set is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. Among the three RAID levels, RAID-1 has the poorest performance. Answer options E and D are incorrect. Windows NT does not support RAID-3 and RAID-4. Answer option B is incorrect. RAID-5, also known as stripe set with parity, is a fault tolerant disk subsystem with data and parity information striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Stripe set with parity uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. If a portion of a physical disk fails, you can re-create data on the failed portion from the parity information. It has better performance than a mirror set. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "NT Server and Disk Subsystem Performance"

QUESTION NO: 373 Which of the following is unique for each device in a SCSI chain? A. I/O address B. LUN C. Master/Slave setting D. SCSI Identification

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: D Explanation: The SCSI ID is unique for each device in a SCSI chain. Each device on a SCSI bus must have a SCSI ID different from that of other devices. The IDs assigned to the devices on a SCSI bus are important to the performance of the computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device gets access to the bus. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use ID 0 to 7, and wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use ID 0 to 15. SCSI IDs of wide SCSI buses are divided into two groups, 0 to 7 and 8 to 15. 0 to 7 has priority over 8 to 15. Higher ID numbers in the group have higher priority within that group. Therefore, SCSI ID 7 has top priority. The host adapter generally uses highest ID (7 or 15) and hard disk drives typically use IDs 0 and 1. Answer option C is incorrect. Master/Slave setting is used on IDE drives. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. Answer option B is incorrect. A logical unit number (LUN) is a sub classification within a SCSI ID. It enables multiple devices to use a single ID. Answer option A is incorrect. I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. The CPU needs a memory address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to communicate with any peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. Resources such as I/O addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. Whenever a component, such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC, its I/O address, IRQ, and DMA channels must be correctly configured. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Managing File Systems and Drives"

QUESTION NO: 374 Which of the following is unique for each device in a SCSI chain? A. I/O address B. LUN C. Master/Slave setting D. SCSI Identification Answer: D Explanation: The SCSI ID is unique for each device in a SCSI chain. Each device on a SCSI bus must have a SCSI ID different from that of other devices. The IDs assigned to the devices on a SCSI bus are important to the performance of the computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 140

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam gets access to the bus. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use ID 0 to 7, and wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use ID 0 to 15. SCSI IDs of wide SCSI buses are divided into two groups, 0 to 7 and 8 to 15. 0 to 7 has priority over 8 to 15. Higher ID numbers in the group have higher priority within that group. Therefore, SCSI ID 7 has top priority. The host adapter generally uses highest ID (7 or 15) and hard disk drives typically use IDs 0 and 1. Answer option C is incorrect. Master/Slave setting is used on IDE drives. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. Answer option B is incorrect. A logical unit number (LUN) is a sub classification within a SCSI ID. It enables multiple devices to use a single ID. Answer option A is incorrect. I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. The CPU needs a memory address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to communicate with any peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. Resources such as I/O addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. Whenever a component, such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC, its I/O address, IRQ, and DMA channels must be correctly configured. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Managing File Systems and Drives"

QUESTION NO: 375 DRAG DROP You are designing a TCP/IP-based network. You have to connect various offices in a premise. The major concern is to choose the appropriate technology that supports your requirement. Drag and drop the maximum cable lengths supported by their networking technologies to their respective boxes.

Answer:

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Explanation:

The maximum cable lengths supported by different technologies are shown in the table below: TechnologiesMaximum Cable Length 1000BaseSX550 meters 100BaseFX2000 meters 100BaseTX100 meters 1000BaseCX25 meters 1000BaseT100 meters

QUESTION NO: 376 HOTSPOT In the image, identify the interface used to connect a USB modem to a computer.

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Answer:

Explanation:

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Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Universal Serial Bus Support for Windows CE"

QUESTION NO: 377 Which of the following can be configured in the BIOS of a computer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Mouse type B. RAM size C. Boot sequence D. Shadow RAM E. Hard disk drive parameters F. Date and time G. Floppy disk drive parameters Answer: C,D,E,F,G

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: The following can be configured in the BIOS: Hard disk drive parameters Floppy disk drive parameters Boot sequence Shadow RAM Date and time When you boot the computer, the hardware is checked according to the BIOS configuration. If the hardware is not configured according to the BIOS configuration, the BIOS will issue a warning. What is shadow RAM? Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. When you configure shadow RAM, a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from readonly memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. This allows faster access to BIOS information. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60-100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. But, it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably.

QUESTION NO: 378 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2000based application server that serves applications to the users. Mark is concerned about the performance of the application server. He is installing a thirdparty application on the server. What will Mark do next after installing the application properly? A. Monitor disk utilization. B. Create a new server baseline. C. Check the security log to ensure the successful installation of the application. D. Print the server hardware configuration. Answer: B Explanation: After the installation of the application, Mark should create a new server baseline. As he is concerned about the performance of the application server, the server baseline will be helpful to analyze the server performance after the installation of the application. What is baseline? Baseline measures maximum system capacity and performance, used to compare different configurations. Once a baseline for network usage has been determined, the additional bandwidth available for the highest streaming traffic can be estimated. Answer option D is incorrect. There is no need to take a printout of the hardware configuration, as there is no change in the hardware of the server. Answer option A is incorrect. The next step should be creating a baseline instead of monitoring disk utilization so that Mark can compare the server performance using the previous and new server baselines. Answer option C is incorrect. The security log does not store log about success or failure of application installations.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 379 Which of the following can occur in a high humidity environment? A. Hardware resource conflict B. General protection fault C. A broadcast storm on the network. D. Damage of electronic components resulting in short circuit. Answer: D Explanation: Damage of electronic components due to high humidity can cause the electrical current to flow around the chips and result in short circuit. Answer option B is incorrect. The general protection fault does not occur due to humidity. Answer option A is incorrect. Hardware resource conflict occurs when the hardware on a system is assigned to use resources already being used by other devices. Answer option C is incorrect. A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic on the network. Broadcast storms occur due to a faulty network interface card (NIC) on the computer. The faulty NIC can be detected either by using the Network Monitor software or by the elimination process. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. Network interface cards provide a dedicated, full-time connection to a network.

QUESTION NO: 380 Which of the following are the parts of the pre-installation plan? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Configure a subnet mask on the computer. B. Check hardware compatibility with the operating system. C. Create a backup strategy. D. Plan the installation. Answer: D Explanation: The following are the parts of the pre-installation plan: Plan the installation. Check hardware compatibility with the operating system. Answer options C and A are incorrect. Creating a backup strategy and configuring a subnet mask on the computer are not part of the pre- installation plan.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 381 Which of the following have many components removed to save space, minimize power consumption and other considerations, while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer? A. Microcomputers B. Blade servers C. Mainframes D. Minicomputers Answer: B Explanation: Blade servers are stripped down computer servers with a modular design optimized to minimize the use of physical space. Whereas a standard rack-mount server can function with (at least) a power cord and network cable, blade servers have many components removed to save space, minimize power consumption and other considerations, while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer. A blade enclosure, which can hold multiple blade servers, provides services such as power, cooling, networking, various interconnects and management. Though, different blade providers have differing principles around what to include in the blade itself. Answer options D, C, and A are incorrect. No components are removed from these. Mainframes are computers used mainly by large organizations for critical applications, typically bulk data processing, industry and consumer statistics, ERP, and financial transaction processing. A minicomputer is a class of multi-user computers that lies in the middle range of the computing spectrum, in between the largest multi-user systems (mainframe computers) and the smallest single-user systems computers). Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blade_server"

QUESTION NO: 382 Which of the following components does a modern motherboard contain? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. CMOSBattery B. PCI Slot C. Hard disk drive D. ROM BIOS E. Floppy disk drive Answer: A,B,D Explanation: A modern motherboard has several components built in. Most modern motherboards have the following major components: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 147

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Processor-slot/socket Chipset ROM BIOS SIMM/DIMM/RIMM(RAM memory)Sockets ISA/PCI/AGP bus slots CPU voltage regulator Battery Answer options C and E are incorrect. Hard disk drives and floppy disk drives are not part of the motherboard. They are separate units.

QUESTION NO: 383 Which of the following is the height of the 1U rack unit? A. 1.75 inches B. 35 inches C. 1.85 inches D. 5.25 inches Answer: A Explanation: The 1U rack unit has a height of 1.75 inches . U is the standard unit of measure for designating the vertical usable space, or height of racks. Answer option B is incorrect. The 20U rack unit has a height of 35 (1.75 x 20) inches.

QUESTION NO: 384 HOTSPOT In the image of the motherboard given below, identify the area showing the Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) slots.

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Answer:

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation:

You can identify an EISA bus on the motherboard by its black colored slots. These slots are larger than PCI or VESA slots. PCI slots are usually white in color. An EISA bus has 32-bit data path. EISA slots provide two layers of connectors that maintain backward compatibility with ISA. EISA bus uses 8Mhz clock speed of an ISA slot to ensure compatibility with ISA cards. What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit expansion bus that provides an interface from devices on expansion cards to the computer's internal bus. A later version of ISA bus comes with a 16-bit expansion slot. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance, 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements, such as the display subsystem. What is a VESA bus? VESA is an expansion bus standard developed by Video Electronics Standards Association to provide highperformance video and graphics capabilities. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Appendix C - Hardware Support"

QUESTION NO: 385 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a database server. Mark wants to improve the server's performance by upgrading the RAM. He wants to use a type of RAM that can operate at 1200 Mhz and transfer data up to 10.7 GB/sec. Which of the following types of RAM will he install on the server to accomplish the task? A. SRAM B. DDR SDRAM C. RDRAM D. EDO RAM "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 150

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: Mark will have to install RDRAM on the server. RDRAM can operate at 1200 Mhz and supports bandwidths from 1.6 GB/sec to 10.7 GB/sec. Answer option B is incorrect. With a bus frequency of 200 MHz, DDR SDRAM gives a maximum transfer rate of 3.2 GB/sec. Answer option D is incorrect. EDO RAM does not operate at 1200 Mhz and cannot transfer data up to 10.7 GB/sec. Answer option A is incorrect. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. Unlike DRAM, SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM.

QUESTION NO: 386 Which version of SNMP adds security capabilities? A. SNMP v1 B. SNMP v3 C. SNMP v2 D. SNMP v6 Answer: B Explanation: SNMP v3 defines a security capability to be used in conjunction with SNMP v2 features. What is SNMP? Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which allows users to manage the network. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. Answer options A and C are incorrect. SNMP v1 and v2 have a number of common features, but SNMP v2 offers enhancements, such as additional protocol operations. SNMP v2 uses the simple and unsecure password-based authentication feature. Answer option D is incorrect. There is no such version of SNMP as SNMP v6.

QUESTION NO: 387 You are installing Windows 2000 Server. You decide to use RAID-5 volume disk configuration for fault tolerance. What is the minimum number of disk drives required for implementing RAID-5 volumes? A. One B. Two

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Three D. Thirty-two Answer: C Explanation: A minimum of three disks are required for RAID-5 volumes. RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped across three or more physical disks. In case of a physical disk failure, you can recreate the data that was on the failed disk from the remaining data and parity. Note: You can create RAID-5 volumes only on dynamic disks. RAID-5 volumes cannot be mirrored or extended.

QUESTION NO: 388 Which of the following are good password policies? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Do not reuse passwords. B. Store the password. C. Change the password regularly. D. Discuss the password with anyone. Answer: A,C Explanation: The following are good password policies: Change the password regularly. Do not reuse passwords. While you are changing the password, do not reuse the previous password. Answer options B and D are incorrect. Storing a password and discussing it with anyone are not good password policies.

QUESTION NO: 389 What is the height of the 30U server rack? A. 14 inches B. 21 inches C. 31.5 inches D. 52.5 inches Answer: D Explanation:

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The 30U server rack has a height of 52.5 inches . Answer option A is incorrect. The 8U server rack has a height of 14 inches . Answer option B is incorrect. The 12U server rack has a height of 21 inches . Answer option C is incorrect. The 18U server rack has a height of 31.5 inches .

QUESTION NO: 390 Which of the following is used by Intel Celeron processors? A. Slot 2 and Socket 370 B. Slot 1 and Socket 370 C. Slot 2 and Socket 7 D. Slot 1 and Socket A Answer: B Explanation: Intel Celeron processors use Slot 1 and Socket 370. Answer options C and A are incorrect. Pentium III Xeon processors use Slot 2. Intel's Pentium, Pentium MMX, and AMD's K6, and some K5 model processors use Socket 7. Answer option D is incorrect. AMD's Athlon (Thunderbird) and Duron processors use Socket A.

QUESTION NO: 391 What is the difference between SRAM and DRAM? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. DRAM is faster than SRAM. B. DRAM is used in Cache memory and SRAM is used in Video memory. C. SRAM has in-built switches and does not have to be refreshed but DRAM needs to be refreshed. D. SRAM is faster than DRAM. Answer: C,D Explanation: Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) has in-built switches that do not have to be refreshed. Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) uses capacitors instead of switches that need constant refresh signals to keep information in the memory. DRAM requires more power than that of SRAM, therefore, SRAM is mostly used in desktop computers. With an access time of 15 to 30 nanoseconds, SRAM is faster than DRAM that has an access time of 80 nanoseconds or more. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 153

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QUESTION NO: 392 Which of the following parts of a personal computer stores instruction for Power On Self Test? A. EDO RAM B. Motherboard C. Microprocessor D. ROM BIOS Answer: D Explanation: The ROM BIOS, a type of chip plugged in on the system's motherboard, stores instruction for Power On Self Test. When you turn on or restart a computer, it begins a Power On Self Test (POST) routine. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components, such as the keyboard. Answer option C is incorrect. The microprocessor does not store instruction for the POST operation. Answer option B is incorrect. The motherboard is the main board on the computer. It does not store instruction for the POST routine. Answer option A is incorrect. EDO RAM, a type of random access memory, is plugged in on the computer's motherboard. It does not store instruction for the POST operation.

QUESTION NO: 393 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. A server in the network is unable to load the network operating system. You find that a POST error has occurred. You want to use a POST diagnostic hardware adapter to diagnose the error. How will you use it? A. Insert the card into an open bus slot. Boot the computer. The error codes will display on the adapter. B. Insert the card into an open bus slot. Boot the computer. The error codes will print. C. Insert the card into an open bus slot. Boot the computer using the floppy disk provided by the card manuurer. The error codes will be stored on a floppy disk. D. Connect the card to a serial port. Boot the computer. The error codes will be stored in a memory buffer created by the card. Answer: A Explanation: POST diagnostic hardware cards display error codes on the adapters. Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. Post does not store error codes on a floppy disk or on memory. It also does not print error codes. What is POST? Power On Self Test (POST) is a function performed by a chip known as ROM BIOS that is plugged into a computer's motherboard. When a computer is turned on or "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 154

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam restarted, it begins the Power On Self Test (POST) routine. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components, such as keyboard.

QUESTION NO: 394 You are making boot diskettes for your Windows NT system. Which file is required if your system uses a SCSI controller with BIOS disabled? A. SCSIBOOT.SYS B. SCSIBIOS.SYS C. NTBOOTDD.SYS D. SCSI.SYS Answer: C Explanation: NTBOOTDD.SYS file is required for a Windows NT system, when using SCSI controller with BIOS disabled.

QUESTION NO: 395 Which of the following devices can be used to test breakage in fiber optic cables? A. Tone generator B. Optical time domain reflectometer C. Media tester D. Punch down tool Answer: B Explanation: Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device, which is used to locate many different types of cable breaks and manuuring faults on fiber optic cable connections. It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively. It is an expensive device that costs around $30,000. Answer options C, D, and A are incorrect. Media tester, punch down tool, and tone generator are all used on networks that use copper cables.

QUESTION NO: 396 You purchase a new 4GB hard disk to replace an older 500MB hard disk. But your system does not support the 4GB hard disk. So you decide to upgrade the BIOS. What will you do to upgrade "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 155

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam the BIOS? A. Replace the motherboard. B. Purchase a new hard disk of smaller capacity. C. Install a new operating system. D. Replace the ROM BIOS chip on the motherboard. Answer: D Explanation: The BIOS software is contained in a ROM chip that is plugged in on the motherboard. ROM BIOS chip can be upgraded by replacing it with a newer version. If your motherboard is using an Electrically Erasable Programmable ROM (EEPROM) chip, you can upgrade by the Flashing method. In this method, you can upload new BIOS software to the EEPROM chip by using a special software provided by the BIOS manuurer. After uploading the software and rebooting the machine, new BIOS will be functional.

QUESTION NO: 397 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. The network has a Windows 2000 server. The server has eight 40GB hard disks. Six hard disks on the server are configured as a single striped volume. Mark wants to reconfigure the six hard disks into a fault tolerant volume, and the volume should have the maximum space for storing data. What will he do to accomplish this? A. Configure the disks to a spanned volume. B. Configure the disks to a RAID5 volume. C. Configure the disks to an active partition. D. Configure the disks to a mirrored volume. Answer: B Explanation: To support fault tolerance, Mark will have to configure the disks to a RAID5 volume. First he must backup the data on the striped volume and delete the striped volume. Then he must create a RAID5 volume using six disks, and restore the data to the new RAID-5 volume. A RAID5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. If a portion of a physical disk fails, it is possible to re-create the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity. RAID5 provides data redundancy at a cost of only one additional disk for the volume, while a mirrored volume uses another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. A RAID-5 volume has a better read performance than a mirrored volume. Answer option C is incorrect. An active partition is one that is read at startup and is expected to contain the necessary system files to boot the computer. If no partition is set as Active, a computer "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 156

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam does not boot from the hard disk drive. There can be only one active partition in a computer. Only the primary partition can be marked as the active partition. Answer option A is incorrect. A spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical disk. It is used to combine free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order to create a large logical volume. It can be created on dynamic disks only. It supports two to thirty-two disk drives. A spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped. In Windows 2000/2003, users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives by using a spanned volume. Reference: Windows Help Contents: "Using RAID5 volumes", "Using mirrored volumes"

QUESTION NO: 398 Which of the following refers to a condition in which a hacker sends a bunch of packets that leave TCP ports half open? A. Hacking B. PING attack C. SYN attack D. Spoofing Answer: C Explanation: A SYN attack is a common denial of service (DoS) technique. Using this technique, an attacker sends multiple SYN packets to the target computer. For each SYN packet received, the target computer allocates resources and sends an acknowledgement (SYN-ACK) to the source IP address. Because the target computer does not receive a response from the attacking machine, it attempts to resend the SYN-ACK. This leaves TCP ports in a half open state. When an attacker sends TCP SYNs repeatedly, the target machine eventually runs out of resources and is unable to handle any more connections, thereby denying service to legitimate users. Answer option B is incorrect. When a computer sends ICMP echo requests repeatedly to another computer, it is known as a PING attack. Answer option D is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to hide his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet, chatting on-line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. Answer option A is incorrect. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer or network. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Building a Secure Marble OFX Gateway"

QUESTION NO: 399

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network has a file server that uses the TCP/IP protocol for all communication. The server has a dual processor motherboard and a 10/100 Mbps network card. The server is connected to the network through a 10/100 Mbps switch. Mark wants to increase the speed of the server's network connection. What will he do to accomplish this? A. Install one more network adapter on the server and configure adapter teaming. B. Add one more higher capacity hard disk drive to the server. C. Add more RAM to the server. D. Add a processor to the server's motherboard. Answer: A Explanation: In order to accomplish the task, Mark will have to install one more adapter on the server and configure adapter teaming. Adapter teaming offers better network throughput by distributing traffic efficiently between the network adapters. It also improves network uptime by protecting the network in the event of a network adapter failure. Answer option D is incorrect. Adding a processor will improve the performance of data processing on the server. It will not increase the network connection speed. Answer option C is incorrect. Adding more RAM to the server will not help in improving the server's network connection speed. It can only help in improving the server's data processing performance. Answer option B is incorrect. Adding a higher capacity hard disk drive to the server will not affect the server's network connection speed.

QUESTION NO: 400 Which of the following SCSI interface disk subsystems supports the fastest data transfer rate? A. Ultra 160 SCSI B. Ultra 900 SCSI C. SCSI-2 D. Ultra 320 SCSI E. SCSI-3 Answer: D Explanation: Ultra 320 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 320 MB/sec. Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such SCSI interface as Ultra 900 SCSI. Answer option A is incorrect. Ultra 160 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 160 MB/sec. Answer option C is incorrect. SCSI-2 has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 20 MB/sec. Answer option E is incorrect. SCSI3 has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 40 MB/sec.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 401 Which of the following counters of the memory object shows the amount of physical memory immediately available for allocation to a process or for system use? A. Committed Bytes B. Cache Bytes Peak C. Available Bytes D. Commit Limit Answer: C Explanation: The Available Bytes counter of the memory object shows the amount of physical memory immediately available for allocation to a process or for system use. Answer option D is incorrect. The Commit Limit counter of the memory object shows the amount of virtual memory, in bytes, that can be committed without having to extend the paging file. Answer option A is incorrect. The Committed Bytes counter of the memory object shows the amount of committed virtual memory, in bytes. Answer option B is incorrect. The Cache Bytes Peak counter of the memory object shows the maximum number of bytes used by the file system cache since the system was last started. Reference: "http://technet.microsoft.com/es-es/library/cc778082(WS.10).aspx"

QUESTION NO: 402 You work as a Network Administrator for InfoNet Inc. You upgrade a server's processor. After the upgrade, the server does not start on Power On Self Test (POST) checking. What is the most likely cause? A. The jumper settings on the processor are incorrect. B. The original cache size in the BIOS differs from the new processor's cache size. C. The processor is not correctly inserted in the slot. D. The BIOS is not flashed. Answer: C Explanation: Since the server was working before the upgrade, the most likely cause is that the processor is not correctly inserted in the slot. Therefore, it does not start the Power On Self Test (POST). Answer option D is incorrect. There is no need to flash the BIOS to upgrade a processor. Answer option A is incorrect. Processors do not have jumpers. Answer option B is incorrect. Cache size is not a requirement for starting Power On Self Test (POST). What is POST? Power On Self Test (POST) is a function performed by a chip known as ROM BIOS that is plugged into a computer's "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 159

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam motherboard. When a computer is turned on or restarted, it begins the Power On Self Test (POST) routine. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components, such as keyboard.

QUESTION NO: 403 Which of the following counters is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks? A. Bytes Total/sec B. Current Bandwidth C. Output Queue Length D. Current Bytes/sec Answer: B Explanation: The Current Bandwidth counter of the network interface object is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks. It displays the amount of bandwidth the network interface has. Answer option C is incorrect. The Output Queue Length counter provides the number of packets waiting to be transmitted by the network interface. Answer option A is incorrect. It measures the total amount of data (in bytes) moved between a computer and the network. Answer option D is incorrect. There is no such counter as Current Bytes/sec. Reference: "http://www.sql-serverperformance.com/faq/performance_monitor_network_interface_p1.aspx"

QUESTION NO: 404 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network contains a file server, which reboots when the workload reaches a certain level. Some weeks ago, the server was handling the same level of workload without any problem. Which of the following steps can Mark take to resolve the issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. Check the cooling components inside the server cabinet. B. Examine the server log. C. Add more RAM. D. Run the hardware diagnostic utility. E. Restore recent data on the file server from the tape backup. Answer: A,B,D Explanation: Server rebooting problems mostly occur due to malfunctioning hardware such as RAM failure, loose hardware contact, malfunctioning add-on cards, and the failure of cooling devices such as "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 160

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam the fans inside the server cabinet. These problems can be identified by taking the following steps: Examine the server log for entry of any configuration error or hardware failure. Run the hardware diagnostic utility for a hardware checkup to see if it is working properly. Check the cooling components such as heat sink, processor fan, and SMPS fan. The administrator has to check that the heat sink is in contact with the chip to transfer the heat. He also has to check whether the fans attached with the processor and SMPS are running properly. Answer option C is incorrect. Rebooting problems mostly arise due to malfunctioning hardware. Hence, adding more RAM cannot help to resolve the issue. It can be useful to improve server performance. Answer option E is incorrect. Restoration of the data is useful when data on a disk is corrupt or lost due to any accident or disaster. Moreover, corrupt data cannot be a reason for server reboot.

QUESTION NO: 405 Which of the following uses RJ-45 8-pin male connector? A. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cable B. Serial port C. VGA/SVGA video adapter D. 10BaseT Ethernet cable Answer: D Explanation: A 10BaseT Ethernet cable uses RJ-45 8-pin male connector to connect to the network adapter jack on a computer. An RJ-45 connector is similar to an RJ-11 telephone connector but larger in size. An RJ-45 connector has eight conductors while RJ11 has only four conductors. Answer option A is incorrect. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cable uses RJ-11 4-pin male connector. Answer option B is incorrect. Serial port uses DB-9 9-pin male connector. Answer option C is incorrect. VGA/SVGA video adapter uses DB-15 15-pin female connector. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Building a Home Network, Part 1"

QUESTION NO: 406 You work as a Network Administrator of a TCP/IP network. You are having DNS resolution problem. Which of the following utilities will you use to diagnose the problem? A. TRACERT B. IPCONFIG C. NSLOOKUP D. PING

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues, verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone, and debugging other server-related problems. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel. Answer option D is incorrect. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer option B is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility used to display current TCP/IP network configuration values and update or release the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allocated leases. It is also used to display, register, or flush Domain Name System (DNS) names. Answer option A is incorrect. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Description of the PING and TRACERT Tools [Q217014]"

QUESTION NO: 407 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. The company's business hours are Monday to Friday - 9 AM to 5 PM. You are planning a data backup plan for the company's network. The management does not want the backup plan to interfere with the network during business hours. The size of data to be backed up is 45GB. You configure a tape drive having a data transfer rate of 2.11GB/hour. On which of the following days can you perform a full backup? A. Monday B. Wednesday C. Friday D. Tuesday E. Thursday Answer: C Explanation: The question states that the size of data to be backed up is 45GB, and data transfer rate of the tape drive is 2.11GB/hour. This means that it will take approximately 23 hours to perform a full backup. If you plan to start the backup at 5 PM on any day except Friday, it will run on the following day and will therefore interfere with the business hours of the company. What is the "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 162

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. It needs only one tape to restore data. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed, or are new, since the last incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Description of Full, Incremental, and Differential Backups [Q136621"

QUESTION NO: 408 David configured a system as a print server on the network. When he prints a Word document, the page is printed with junk characters. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Printer cable is loose B. Faulty printer cartridge C. Faulty RAM on print server D. Faulty printer driver Answer: A,D Explanation: The two most likely causes of printing junk characters are as follows: Faulty printer driver Loose printer cable Other answer options will not produce junk characters.

QUESTION NO: 409 You have installed a new hard disk drive as slave, on your system. When you boot the system with a bootable floppy disk, you access the hard disk as D: drive. When you run the DIR command on D: drive, you receive an error message. What is the most likely cause? A. Hard disk drive cable is faulty. B. Hard disk drive has no partition. C. Hard disk drive is not formatted. D. Hard disk drive is not configured in BIOS. E. Wrong IRQ is assigned to the hard disk drive.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: The most likely cause of the error message is that the hard disk drive is not formatted. The question clearly states that you access the hard drive as D: drive. If the hard disk is not partitioned, you cannot access the hard disk as D: drive. Therefore, this option is incorrect. BIOS configuration and faulty cable are not the cause of the problem because, in that case you cannot access the hard disk drive as D: drive.

QUESTION NO: 410 Which of the following categories of UTP cables has a maximum data transfer rate of 100 Mbps? A. Category 1 B. Category 3 C. Category 4 D. Category 5 Answer: D Explanation: Category 5 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 100 Mbps. It consists of four twistedpairs of copper wire. Answer option C is incorrect. Category 4 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 16 Mbps. It consists of four twisted-pairs. Answer option B is incorrect. Category 3 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 10 Mbps. It consists of four twistedpairs with three twists per foot. Answer option A is incorrect. Category 1 refers to the traditional Unshielded Twisted-Pair (UTP) telephone cables, which can carry voice but not data.

QUESTION NO: 411 You want to create an Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) on your Windows NT server. Which utility will you use? A. RDISK B. NTBACKUP C. BACKUP D. ERD /NT Answer: A Explanation: Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) is a floppy disk that contains critical system files necessary to recover a Windows NT computer in case of failure. These files are stored in compressed format. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 164

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam ERD includes portion of the registry, computer's default profile (NTUSER.DAT), and computer's configuration files (SETUP.LOG, AUTOEXEC.BAT, and CONFIG.SYS). ERD can be created through the RDISK.EXE utility. To start RDISK, go to Start menu > Run, type RDISK, and click OK. ERD is not self bootable. To restore the information from ERD, boot with NT Setup diskettes and select the Repair option and insert ERD to restore the information. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Description of Windows NT Emergency Repair Disk [Q156328]"

QUESTION NO: 412 Your company's network has a file server. You have installed a new application on the server. You have checked and verified that the application is working properly. What should you do next? A. Install the latest service pack on the server. B. Run Disk Defragmenter on the server. C. Create a new server baseline. D. Add more RAM to the server. Answer: C Explanation: After installing a new application on the server, you should create a new server baseline. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Answer options D, B, and A are incorrect. All these steps can be taken before installing the application on the server.

QUESTION NO: 413 Which of the following servers provides network file storage? A. Proxy server B. NAS server C. DNS server D. DHCP server Answer: B Explanation: The Network-attached storage (NAS) server provides network file storage. Network-attached storage (NAS) is file-level computer data storage connected to a computer network providing data access to heterogeneous clients. A NAS unit is a computer connected to a network that only provides file-based data storage services to other devices on the network. Although it may "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 165

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam technically be possible to run other software on a NAS unit, it is not designed to be a general purpose server. For example, NAS units usually do not have a keyboard or display, and are controlled and configured over the network, often using a browser. Answer option D is incorrect. A DHCP server is used to provide IP addresses to computers in the network. Answer option A is incorrect. A proxy server is a server (a computer system or an application program) that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers. A client connects to the proxy server, requesting some service, such as a file, connection, web page, or other resource, available from a different server. The proxy server evaluates the request according to its filtering rules. If the request is validated by the filter, the proxy provides the resource by connecting to the relevant server and requesting the service on behalf of the client. A proxy server may optionally alter the client's request or the server's response, and sometimes it may serve the request without contacting the specified server. Answer option C is incorrect. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings, IP address-to-host name mappings, information about the domain tree structure, etc. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Network-attached_storage"

QUESTION NO: 414 What is the meaning of parity error? A. Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the hard disk. B. Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the memory. C. Parity error indicates the problem of BIOS. D. Parity error indicates the problem of a bad sector in a floppy disk. Answer: B Explanation: Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the memory. Parity is a basic check of information integrity. Each byte (eight bits) of RAM storage actually takes nine bits of information. Eight bits are used for the data and the last bit, the "parity bit", is used to store the parity of the data. The processor is in charge of checking the accuracy of the parity bit. A parity error can be caused by different circumstances, but it is almost always a hardware problem. Parity error occurs due to faulty memory. The most foolproof way to resolve this problem is to swap out each piece of memory, until the problem disappears. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Parity Errors in Windows 3.x [Q93521]"

QUESTION NO: 415 Which of the following counters of the network interface object provides the number of bytes sent and received per second by the network interface adapter? "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 166

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Current Bandwidth B. Output Queue Length counter C. Disk Queue Length D. Bytes Total/sec Answer: D Explanation: The Bytes Total/sec counter of the network interface object provides the number of bytes sent and received per second by the network interface adapter. Answer option C is incorrect. The Disk Queue Length is not a counter of the network interface object. Answer option A is incorrect. The Current Bandwidth counter of the network interface object is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks. Answer option B is incorrect. The Output Queue Length counter of the network interface object provides the number of packets waiting to be transmitted by the network interface. Reference: "http://www.enterprisenetworkingplanet.com/netsysm/article.php/10954_3328281_2/Keep- Tabson-Your-Network-Traffic.htm"

QUESTION NO: 416 In Windows NT/2000, which of the following RAID levels refers to mirroring? A. Level 1 B. Level 0 C. Level 3 D. Level 5 Answer: A Explanation: Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a method for standardizing and categorizing fault-tolerant disk systems. Windows NT/2000 supports the following three RAID levels: Level 0 or disk striping, which is not fault-tolerant. Level 1 or mirroring. Level 5 or disk striping with parity. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Planning a Fault-Tolerant Disk Configuration."

QUESTION NO: 417 Your computer is not connected to the UPS. What can happen in an event of power failure? A. CMOS battery failure. B. Damage of components. C. Distorted display. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 167

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. BIOS configuration is reset. Answer: B Explanation: If your computer is not connected to the UPS, power failure may cause damage to peripheral components. You can avoid such problems by using UPS and surge protector. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage, using battery backup. It also provides protection against power surges. When power surge occurs, only the UPS charging circuit is affected, while the computer gets normal power. Answer option D is incorrect. In an event of power failure, BIOS takes backup power from the CMOS battery to preserve information stored in the CMOS chip. Answer option A is incorrect. Power failure does not cause CMOS battery failure. Answer option C is incorrect. Distorted display does not occur due to power failure. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/- 170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Glossary"

QUESTION NO: 418 You are designing a TCP/IP-based network for SoftTech Inc. The company wants to use Small Form or (SFF) fiber-optic cables for the backbone of its network. Which of the following connectors can you use? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. RJ-45 B. RJ-11 C. LC D. MT-RJ Answer: C,D Explanation: The MT-RJ and LC connectors can be used with the SFF fiber-optic cables. What is an MT-RJ connector? The MT-RJ connector is the most recent type of small form or fiber optic connector. The MT-RJ fiber connector is less than half the size of the SC duplex connector and transceiver, so it doubles the port density of fiber-optic LAN equipment. The connector is a 2-fiber connector and takes up no more room than an RJ-45 jack.

QUESTION NO: 419 What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for implementing RAID-5?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Three B. Two C. Thirty-two D. Four E. Five Answer: A Explanation: RAID-5, also known as stripe set with parity, is a fault tolerant disk subsystem with data and parity information striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Stripe set with parity uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. If a portion of a physical disk fails, you can re-create data on the failed portion from parity information. It has better performance as compared to a mirror set. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Using RAID-5 volumes"

QUESTION NO: 420 Which of the following statements is true about out-of-band management? A. It is used for taking backups. B. It involves the use of a dedicated management channel for device maintenance. C. It involves the use of regular data channels (usually through Ethernet) to manage devices. D. It is used for auditing the network activities. Answer: B Explanation: Out-of-band management involves the use of a dedicated management channel for device maintenance. It allows a system administrator to monitor and manage servers and other network equipment by remote control regardless of whether the machine is powered on. To manage network servers and routers remotely, administrators need network access when problems occur. However, the same problems that cause the network to go down also result in the loss of management access to those devices. Out-of-band management addresses this limitation by employing a management channel that is physically isolated from the data channel. Answer option C is incorrect. In-band management is the use of regular data channels (usually through Ethernet) to manage devices. Unlike out-of-band connection, in-band connection is available only when the server is initialized and functioning properly. In-band connection relies on operating-system network drivers to establish computer connections. The most common in-band remotemanagement hardware device is the network adapter. Users can use remote-access connections to manage servers. The remote-access connection is made through the in- band port that resides on the target server. Answer options A and D are incorrect. Out-of-band management is not used for taking backups or auditing network activities. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Out-of-band_management" "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 169

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 421 Which of the following is a 32-bit processor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. 8088 B. 80386 C. 80486 D. Pentium Answer: B,C,D Explanation: 80386, 80486 and Pentium are 32-bit processors. 80386 processors were introduced in computer models such as 386SX, 386DX. 80486 processors were introduced in computer models such as 486SX, 486DX, 486DX2 and 486DX4. Pentium processors were introduced as Pentium and Pentium MMX.

QUESTION NO: 422 You have got a complaint that data retrieval on Linux-based servers is very slow in the network. Which utility can you use to find out the segment of the network or server that is causing the slow retrieval? A. Ping B. TRACERT C. TRACEROUTE D. NSLOOKUP Answer: C Explanation: The TRACEROUTE utility can be used to find out the segment of the network or server that is causing the slow retrieval. TRACEROUTE is a route-tracing utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach its destination. It uses Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Answer option D is incorrect. NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues, verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone, and debugging other serverrelated problems. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 170

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer option B is incorrect. TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. Answer option A is incorrect. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Traceroute"

QUESTION NO: 423 You install a SCSI adapter on your system to control both the external and internal devices. How will you achieve this? A. The terminating resistor must not be disabled on the adapter. Terminate both the last internal and last external devices. B. The terminating resistor must be disabled on the adapter. Terminate both the last internal and last external devices. C. Terminate all external SCSI devices. D. Terminate only the internal SCSI device. Answer: B Explanation: The terminating resistor must be disabled on the adapter. The first and last devices in the SCSI bus should be terminated. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.

QUESTION NO: 424 Which of the following statements is true about Network Interface Card (NIC)? A. NIC is a software installed on a computer and is used to communicate with Web servers. B. NIC is a hardware device used to expand a network in several geographic locations. C. NIC is an expansion card installed in a computer. It provides interface for connecting the computer to Local Area Network (LAN). D. NIC is an expansion card installed in a computer. It provides interface for connecting the computer to auxiliary devices. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 171

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: Network Interface Card (NIC) is an expansion card installed in a computer. It provides interface for connecting the computer to Local Area Network (LAN). NIC is also known as network adapter. Reference: TechNet, Content: Glossary

QUESTION NO: 425 Which of the following statements about brownout is true? A. It is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line. B. It is an in-series device that protects a WLAN device from an indirect lightning strike. C. It is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipment from power surges. D. It is a voltage increase that occurs over a longer period of time, such as for one or two seconds. Answer: D Explanation: A brownout shows that the demand of the electrical power exceeds the capability of the electrical power supply system and reduces the voltage for everyone. It indicates there is enough power on the grid to prevent blackout or a total power loss but there is not enough power to meet the current electrical demand. It frequently occurs during informal weather conditions such as suddenly cold or hot spell. Brownouts are quite harder for computer equipments than blackouts. A brownout lasts longer than a power sag and corrupts more data. Answer option C is incorrect. A surge protector is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipments from power surges. Answer option A is incorrect. A power spike is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line. The primary cause of the power spike is lightning strikes. Lightning carries millions of volts, and if a home or office takes a direct hit, a PC along with other devices are likely to be heavily damaged. Direct striking is a rare event but a strike within a mile can create a sudden spike in the electrical current near the strike. Answer option B is incorrect. A lightning arrestor is an in-series device that protects a WLAN device from an indirect lightning strike. It is installed after an antenna and prior to the transmitter or receiver. This device does not provide protection from a direct lightning strike; rather it helps in protecting against an indirect lightning strike. When the induced current from a lightning strike travels to the antenna, the lightning arrestor shunts the excess current to the ground and protects the system from damage. The typical lightning arrestor, also known as surge arrestor, has a high voltage terminal and a ground terminal. When a lightning surge, or switching surge, travels down the power system to the arrestor, the current from the surge is diverted around the protected insulation in most cases to the earth. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brownout_(electricity)"

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 426 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. You want to increase memory in a database server on the network, without replacing the motherboard. What will be your first step before purchasing memory? A. Verify the availability of memory slot. B. Count the pins of the memory you are purchasing. C. Check the memory size on POST. D. Verify compatibility of the purchased memory with the existing memory. Answer: A Explanation: You must verify the availability of a memory slot on the motherboard of the server before purchasing memory. If a blank memory slot is not available on the motherboard, you will have to replace the motherboard to increase memory on the server. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no need to check the size of the memory on Power On Self Test (POST) to increase memory on the server. Answer option B is incorrect. There is no need to count the memory pins to increase memory on the server. Answer option D is incorrect. Although you should check the compatibility of the purchased memory with the existing memory, it is the second step. You should purchase memory only after verifying that a blank memory slot is available on the motherboard. Otherwise, you will have to change the existing memory.

QUESTION NO: 427 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the correct connector names in the boxes provided below the connectors as shown in the image.

Answer:

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation:

The image displays the following connector types: F-type: An F-type connector is a threaded medium performance coaxial signal connector, which is used in TVs and VCRs. The pin of the connector is actually the center conductor of the coaxial cable. It is an inexpensive connector.

QUESTION NO: 428 Which of the following are the default ports used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. 80 B. 162 C. 443 D. 161 Answer: B,D Explanation: The default ports used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) are 161 and 162. What is SNMP? Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which allows users to manage the network. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. Answer option C is incorrect. By default, Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses port 443 for secured communication. Answer option A is incorrect. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 174

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam HTTP uses port 80 as the default port.

QUESTION NO: 429 Which of the following statements are true about Universal Serial Bus (USB) ? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. You can connect up to 127 peripheral devices to a single USB port. B. USB does not support Plug n Play installation. C. USB supports hot plugging. D. You can connect up to 16 peripheral devices to a single USB port. Answer: A,C Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a standard-based, external bus for a computer that brings the Plug and Play capability of hardware devices. You can use a single USB port to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, including speakers, CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners, and cameras. USB supports hot plugging, which means that you can install or remove a USB device while the computer is running and the operating system automatically reconfigures itself accordingly. USB eliminates the need to install internal cards into dedicated computer slots and reconfigure the system. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD, Topic: Appendix C Hardware Support

QUESTION NO: 430 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network contains a file server. The file server has an external DLT tape backup drive and a hard disk drive. Both the drives are connected to a common SCSI card in the server. On a Monday morning, Mark comes to his office and starts the server. He finds that the server does not recognize the tape drive, even though the hard disk drive is working properly. What is the most likely cause of the issue? A. The SCSI card is faulty. B. The tape drive has no power supply. C. The RAM on the server is faulty. D. The SCSI card driver is not installed. Answer: B Explanation: The most likely cause of the issue is that the tape drive has no input power to operate. Answer option D is incorrect. The hard disk drive that is connected to the SCSI card is working properly. This indicates that the SCSI card driver is installed properly. Answer option A is incorrect. The "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 175

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam SCSI card is not faulty, as the hard disk drive connected to the card is working properly. Answer option C is incorrect. A faulty RAM will cause the server to hang up.

QUESTION NO: 431 What is the purpose of using Logical Block Addressing? A. To allow use of Digital Video Disc (DVD). B. To allow use of hard disk drive of more than 504MB. C. To allow use of RAM of more than 512MB. D. To allow use of zip drives. Answer: B Explanation: Logical Block Addressing (LBA) is used to allow DOS and Windows operating systems to use hard disk drives of more than 504MB. LBA uses a different method to identify the sectors on a hard disk drive. Instead of using cylinders, heads, and sectors, it assigns a unique identifier to each sector on the drive. In order to work, LBA must be supported by both the system BIOS and the hard disk drive. LBA is the most common method of addressing used these days. Answer options D, A, and C are incorrect. Since zip drive, DVD, and RAM have their own addressing method, LBA is not used with them. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Logical Block Addressing (LBA) Defined [Q122052]"

QUESTION NO: 432 Monica works as a Network Administrator for Blue Well Inc. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of two Windows NT servers, Server1 and Server2. Monica wants to upgrade the device driver for the SCSI disk controller installed on Server1. She installs a new device driver for the controller. Now, Server1 is unable to boot properly. Monica has to restore Server1 to its previous state as quickly as possible. What should she do to accomplish this? A. Run setup in Recovery mode on Server1 using the Windows NT Server CD. After setup completes, restart Server1. B. Boot Server1 with the Last Known Good Configuration. C. Use a parallel installation of Windows NT Server to restart Server1. D. Use the Recovery Console to restart Server1. Use an old copy of the SCSI driver file to overwrite the new file. Restart Server1. Answer: B Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 176

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Whenever a user logs on to a computer, the configuration of the computer is saved in the registry. One can boot the computer by using this configuration through the Last Known Good Configuration. Server1 is not booting properly because Monica has changed its configuration by installing a new SCSI device driver. Therefore, she should use the Last Known Good Configuration to boot with the previous configuration. What is Last Known Good Configuration? The Last Known Good Configuration is a copy of the system state stored when a user last successfully logged on. This configuration is stored in the HKLMSystemCurrentControlSet registry key. Last Known Good Configuration is the quickest way to resolve problems caused by faulty drivers. Note: All system setting changes made after the last successful startup are lost, if an operating system is restored using the Last Known Good Configuration option. Answer options C and A are incorrect. As the problem can be resolved immediately using the Last Known Good Configuration, reinstalling Windows NT Server is not required. Answer option D is incorrect. Recovery Console is a feature of Windows 2000 and is not applicable here. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Troubleshooting and Support", "Knowledge Base", "Windows NT", "Recovering Windows NT After a Boot Failure on an NTFS Drive [Q129102]"

QUESTION NO: 433 Which of the following statements is true about the installation of Universal Serial Bus (USB) devices? A. A computer has to be restarted to install a USB device. B. Software drivers are not required for USB devices. C. A USB device can be plugged to a computer without restarting it. D. USB devices are non-Plug and Play. Answer: C Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD- ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Answer option B is incorrect. Software drivers are required for USB devices. It is possible, though, that the drivers for your USB devices are already available on the computer. In this case, you do not need to provide a device driver separately. Answer option A is incorrect. It is not required to restart the computer to install USB devices. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Universal Serial Bus Support for Windows CE"

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QUESTION NO: 434 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. Rick, a Sales Manager, reports that his computer was working properly till last evening. However, when he turned on his computer this morning, it displayed the following error message: Invalid System Disk What is the most likely cause? A. Floppy drive failure. B. Media failure on the hard disk drive. C. The computer is infected with virus. D. A non-bootable floppy disk is inserted in drive A:. Answer: D Explanation: The most likely cause of the Invalid System Disk error message is that a non-bootable floppy disk is inserted in drive A:. According to Rick, his computer was working properly till last evening and he got the Invalid System Disk error message only when he started his computer this morning. It is possible that he inserted a floppy disk in the floppy drive and forgot to remove it after finishing his work. The next time he turned on the computer, the computer searched for operating system files on the floppy drive first. When the computer did not find the system files on the floppy disk, it showed the Invalid System Disk error message. Answer option C is incorrect. In most cases, virus attacks deteriorate computer performance or increase the size of the system files. What is a virus? A computer virus is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without the permission or knowledge of the owner. Viruses can increase their chances of spreading to other computers by infecting files on a network file system or a file system that is accessed by another computer. Viruses can be divided into two types based on their behavior when they are executed. Nonresident viruses immediately search for other hosts that can be infected, infect those targets, and finally transfer control to the application program they infected. Resident viruses do not search for hosts when they are started. Instead, a resident virus loads itself into memory on execution and transfers control to the host program. The virus stays active in the background and infects new hosts when those files are accessed by other programs or the operating system itself. A virus can infect boot sector, networking files, and system files. Anti-virus applications/programs are used for disinfection. Answer option A is incorrect. If a floppy drive fails at the time of booting, the computer shows the Floppy Drive Failure error message. Answer option B is incorrect. Although media failure on the hard disk drive can cause this message to occur, it is rare.

QUESTION NO: 435 What is the purpose of jumper settings on the network interface card? "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 178

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. To configure data transfer speed. B. To configure transceiver type. C. To configure MAC address. D. To configure I/O address. Answer: D Explanation: The jumper settings on the network interface card are used to configure I/O address. Nowadays most expansion cards do not use jumpers or DIP switches. They use software setup programs instead. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. Network interface cards provide a dedicated, full-time connection to a network. What is I/O address? I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. The CPU needs a memory address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to communicate with any peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. Resources such as I/O addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. Whenever a component, such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC, its I/O address, IRQ, and DMA channels must be correctly configured. Answer option C is incorrect. The Media Access Control (MAC) address is built-in on the network interface card and cannot be changed by users. What is MAC address? Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique 48-bit address assigned to the network interface card (NIC) by the NIC manuurer. This physical address assigned to NIC is used for mapping in TCP/IP network communication.

QUESTION NO: 436 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. The network is connected to the Internet through a firewall. A user complains that he is unable to access the abc.com site. However, he can access all other sites. Which of the following tools will help you diagnose the problem? A. IPCONFIG B. TELNET C. TRACERT D. ROUTE Answer: C Explanation: The TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 179

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam host. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. Answer option B is incorrect. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default. Answer option A is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway etc., of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Answer option D is incorrect. ROUTE is a command-line utility used to view or modify a route table. Print, Add, Delete, and Change are some of the important command switches that are used with the ROUTE command.

QUESTION NO: 437 Which of the following is the height of the 4U rack unit? A. 1.75 inches B. 7 inches C. 35 inches D. 21 inches Answer: B Explanation: The 1U rack unit has a height of 1.75 inches . Therefore, the height of the 4U rack unit would be 7 (4 x 1.75) inches. Answer option D is incorrect. The 12U rack unit has a height of 21 (1.75 x 12) inches. Answer option C is incorrect. The 20U rack unit has a height of 35 (1.75 x 20) inches. Answer option A is incorrect. The 1U rack unit has a height of 1.75 inches .

QUESTION NO: 438 Which of the following processors have 64-bit data bus width? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. 386SX B. AMD Athlon C. AMD K6 D. Pentium 4

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B,C,D Explanation: The following processors have 64-bit data bus width: AMD K6 Pentium 4 AMD Athlon Answer option A is incorrect. The 386SX processor has 16-bit data bus width.

QUESTION NO: 439 David works as a Network Administrator for Blue Wells Inc. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of five Windows NT servers and hundred Windows NT workstations. One of the servers is configured as a File and Print server and has a Pentium-133 MHz processor with 32 MB RAM and a 2 GB SCSI hard disk drive. Employees complain about the poor performance of this server. David runs Performance Monitor on the server and gets the following results: % Processor Time70% Memory Usage100% Bytes Total/sec84364 % Disk time70% What will he do to enhance server performance? A. He will add another processor to the server. B. He will add more memory to the server. C. He will use disk striping. D. He will add another network card to the server. Answer: B Explanation: Performance Monitor statistics shows 100% usage of memory. This indicates a bottleneck in memory. Therefore, David will add more memory to the server to enhance its performance. Answer option C is incorrect. Disk striping is used to improve disk performance. Since the problem is not due to disk performance, disk striping is not required. What is stripe set (RAID-0)? Stripe set (RAID-0) stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. Stripe set does not provide fault tolerance, but offers better performance as compared to mirror set and stripe set with parity. Stripe set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. Answer option A is incorrect. The system processor indicates a bottleneck if the % Processor Time is more than 80%. Since there is no bottleneck in the processor, there is no need to add another processor. What is %Processor Time? The %Processor Time counter is used to monitor processor statistics of a computer. This counter reports the percentage of time the processor is busy. A bottleneck in the processor occurs, when the value of this counter exceeds 80%. To overcome this, either the processor should be upgraded or another processor should be added. Moving some applications to another server can also resolve the issue. Answer option D is incorrect. Since the problem does not occur due to high network usage, there is no need to add another network card. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Performance Analysis and Optimization of MS Windows NT Server"

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 440 How will you designate a hard disk drive as a Master or a Slave drive in an IDE system? A. By setting a jumper on the motherboard B. By setting a jumper on the hard disk drive C. By changing the CMOS setting D. By adding an add-on card Answer: B Explanation: You can set the Master/Slave designations by setting a jumper on the hard disk drive. What are the jumper settings on IDE/EIDE drives? Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master, Slave, and Cable Select types of jumper settings. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. If two drives are attached to one controller, one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master, or Slave, none of them will work.

QUESTION NO: 441 Edward Inc. has recently added John's computer as a part of the network. All the required hardware has been installed on John's computer. But some hardware may have been missed during the installation, due to which John is unable to connect to the network. Which hardware is missing? A. Networking protocol stack B. Network device driver C. Network client software D. Network interface card Answer: D Explanation: As the question states, John has been installed all required hardware on the computer. But due some missing hardware he is unable to connect to the network. So this is the problem of missing network interface card in the computer. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. Network interface cards provide a dedicated, full-time connection to a network.

QUESTION NO: 442 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 182

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Tom works as a Network Administrator for Tech Media Inc. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of a Windows NT Server and 500 Windows NT workstations. The server has two 40 GB hard disk drives configured as mirror set. Tom configures the server with a 25 GB DAT drive. He tries to take full backup of the server on the DAT drive but fails to do so as the DAT drive runs out of space. Which of the following backup strategies will Tom implement to accomplish this task? A. He will purchase another 25 GB DAT drive, so that he can take a full backup every night using both drives. B. He will use the original 25 GB DAT drive and take a full backup on Monday afternoon, and a differential backup every night. C. He will use the original 25 GB DAT drive and backup different 25 GB portions of the server's hard disk drive, everyday. D. He will purchase two more 25 GB DAT drives, so that he can take a full backup every night using all three drives. Answer: A Explanation: Since Tom has to backup the 40 GB hard disk drive of the server , he must use at least two 25 GB DAT drives. This will provide him enough space and will not cause any problem during backup. Therefore, he should purchase one more 25 GB DAT drive. Answer option C is incorrect. Backing up different 25 GB portions of the server's hard disk drive everyday is a manual process and will increase the administrative burden. Answer option B is incorrect. It is not possible to take a full backup of the server's 40 GB hard disk drive on a 25 GB DAT drive. Answer option D is incorrect. Since purchasing one additional DAT drive can solve the problem, it is unnecessary to purchase two DAT drives.

QUESTION NO: 443 Which of the following statements is true about a two-node cluster? A. If one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power, the other shuts down automatically. B. If one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power, the other takes over the job. C. If one node of the cluster experiences a bottleneck, the other node provides resources. D. It prevents viruses from corrupting user data. Answer: B Explanation:

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam In a two-node cluster, if one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power, the other takes over the job. What is a cluster? A cluster is a group of two or more servers working together as a single system. All the computers in a cluster are grouped under a common name i.e., a virtual server name, which is used to access and manage the cluster. Each member server of the cluster is called a node. A cluster provides redundant operations in the event of hardware or application failure. Answer option D is incorrect. A two-node cluster does not prevent data from being corrupted by viruses. Answer option C is incorrect. In case of a bottleneck on a node, the other node cannot provide its own resources to the bottlenecked node.

QUESTION NO: 444 Which of the following slots is longer than PCIe? A. PCI-X B. CNR C. DMR D. AMR Answer: A Explanation: PCI extended (PCI-X) is a computer bus and expansion card standard that enhances the 32-bit PCI Local Bus for higher bandwidth demanded by servers. It is a double-wide version of PCI, running at up to four times the clock speed, but is otherwise similar in electrical implementation and uses the same protocol. PCI-X is often confused with PCI Express, commonly abbreviated as PCIe. Visually there is no such similarity. Also PCI-X slots are longer than PCIe. PCI-X has been replaced in modern designs by the similar-sounding PCI Express. Answer option B is incorrect. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR) is a hardware device developed by Intel. It plugs into the motherboard and holds chips for the functioning of devices such as modems and audio devices. It supports V.90 analog modem, multi-channel audio, phone-line-based networking, and 10/100 Ethernet-based networking. CNR also minimizes electrical noise interference through the physical separation of noise-sensitive elements from the motherboard's communication systems. Answer option D is incorrect. The audio/modem riser (AMR), also known as an AMR slot, is an expansion slot. It is found on the motherboards of some Pentium III, Pentium 4, and Athlon personal computers. It was designed by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog functionality, such as sound cards and modems, on an expansion card. It has two rows of 23 pins each, making a total of 46 pins. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no such slot as DMR. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PCI-X"

QUESTION NO: 445

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following operating systems support 64-bit processing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Windows Server 2003Enterprise Edition B. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition C. Sun Solaris 10 D. Mac OS X Panther E. Red HatEnterprise Linux 4 Answer: A,C,D,E Explanation: The following operating systems support 64-bit processing: Mac OS X Panther Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition Red Hat Enterprise Linux 4 Sun Solaris 10 Answer option B is incorrect. The Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition supports 32-bit processing.

QUESTION NO: 446 Which of the following operating systems support 64-bit processing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Red Hat Enterprises Linux 3 B. Windows 2000 Server C. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition D. Sun Solaris 9 Answer: A,D Explanation: Following are the operating systems that support 64-bit processing: Sun Solaris 9 Red Hat Enterprises Linux 3 Mac OS X Panther Answer options C and B are incorrect. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition and Windows 2000 Server do not support 64-bit processing.

QUESTION NO: 447 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network has a server that is used for backup purposes. The server was recently upgraded from a Digital Audio Tape (DAT) to a Digital Linear Tape (DLT) tape backup system. Due to a substantial loss of data, Mark wants to restore data from an older DAT tape. What will he need in order to accomplish the task? A. A DLT tape drive and its driver B. A DAT to DLT converter and its driver

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. A DAT driver D. A DAT tape drive and its driver Answer: D Explanation: In order to restore data from an old DAT tape, Mark needs a DAT tape drive and its driver. Using the DAT tape drive, the old DAT tape can be read and restore data on the server. Digital Audio Tape (DAT) is a type of magnetic tape that is used to record data. A DAT cartridge is a little larger than a credit card in width and height. It can hold up to 24GB of data. The DAT tape can support data transfer rates of about 2 MBps. DATs are sequential-access media. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no need of a DLT tape drive, as it cannot read a DAT tape. Digital Linear Tape (DLT) is a type of magnetic tape storage device developed by DEC. It is 0.5 inches wide and the cartridges come in several storage capacities from 20GB to 40GB. A DLT drive is faster than most other types of tape drives. It has data transfer rates of up to 2.5 MBps. Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such device as a DAT to DLT converter. Answer option C is incorrect. Mark also needs a DAT tape drive. Only a DAT driver will not accomplish the task.

QUESTION NO: 448 Which of the following key combinations would you press to start the CMOS setup program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Ctrl + Alt + Esc B. Ctrl + Alt + Shift C. Del D. Shift + Alt +Del Answer: A,C Explanation: You can start the CMOS setup program by pressing the Del key or Ctrl + Alt + Esc at the time of system startup during Power On Self Test (POST). In CMOS, you can change the configuration of your computer using a menu driven application. Note: Some types of systems uses floppy based setup programs to change the CMOS settings. What is CMOS? CMOS stands for Complimentary Metal Oxide Semiconductor. It is a chip installed on the motherboard, which stores hardware configuration of the computer. When the computer is booted, the hardware is checked according to the CMOS configuration. If the hardware is not configured according to the CMOS configuration, BIOS issues a warning. The following information is stored in CMOS: Date and time CPU type and memory size Floppy disk drive parameters Hard disk parameters such as cylinders, heads, and sectors CMOS setup program can be started by pressing the DEL key or CTRL+ALT+ESC at the time of system startup during Power On Self Test (POST). In CMOS, the computer configuration can be changed using a menu driven application. If a user forgets the password for CMOS "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 186

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam configuration, he will not be able to change the CMOS configuration. To remove the password assigned, he will have to short the CMOS jumper. However, on some new motherboards, the user can remove the password by removing the CMOS backup battery for a few seconds, instead of shorting the CMOS jumper.

QUESTION NO: 449 Which of the following are types of UPS? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Offline UPS B. Line conditioner UPS C. True-online UPS D. Standby Power Source (SPS) UPS Answer: C,D Explanation: Standby Power Source (SPS) UPS provides a backup power source that remains on standby while the main power is within an acceptable range. If the main power varies outside the range, the power supply switches from the mains to the battery circuit and the load of the computer and other devices gets disconnected from the mains and connected to the battery. The time required to switch from mains to battery is called switch over time and it should not be less than 6 milliseconds. Today most UPS are of the SPS type. The True-online UPS has continuous load on the battery. A true-online UPS requires more maintenance because the circuitry is always under a load and the battery is always being charged. A true-online UPS will not have any switch over time. The Trueonline UPS is more expensive than the SPS. Answer options A and B are incorrect. Offline UPS and Line conditioner UPS are not types of UPS.

QUESTION NO: 450 Which of the following specification cables will you use to take advantage of bi-directional printing? A. IEEE 1284 B. IEEE 1394 C. RS-232 D. DB-9 Answer: A Explanation: To take advantage of bi-directional printing, you must have an IEEE 1284 specification compliant printer cable, a bi-directional printer, and a correctly configured port. Typically, bi-directional cables "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 187

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam have the number 1284 printed on them. Answer option D is incorrect. A DB-9 connector is used by the serial interface. It is a 9-pin, two rows, male connector, on the back of a PC used for connecting mouse, modem, and other serial devices to the personal computer. It is also known as serial port. Answer option C is incorrect. RS-232 standard is a specification for serial communication ports, also known as COM ports, serial ports, or RS- 232 ports, and is used to connect RS-232 compatible serial devices, such as modems and pointing devices to a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 is a standard for high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. These devices include consumer audiovisual components, traditional PC storage devices, and handheld devices. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire.

QUESTION NO: 451 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. You have installed an external Ultra2 SCSI RAID storage unit with a new Web server. Which of the following practices will keep the system working properly? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. Not powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on. B. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to30 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. C. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. D. Not connecting the RAID subsystem to the server while it is powered up. Answer: A,C,D Explanation: The following practices will keep the system working properly: Not powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on. Powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on can be a cause of data corruption or data loss. Not connecting the RAID subsystem to the server while it is powered up. Connecting the subsystem to the server while it is powered up can render the subsystem or server hardware to a malfunctioned state. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to 25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. Answer option B is incorrect. The maximum differential cables length limit is 25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet.

QUESTION NO: 452 How many devices, excluding the SCSI adapter, does a Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus support? A. 127

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. 15 C. 4 D. 7 Answer: B Explanation: A Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus supports 15 devices excluding the SCSI adapter. Fast-Wide SCSI-2 has a 16-bit bus. The adapter is usually preset to ID 7. SCSI-1 and Fast SCSI-2 have an 8-bit bus with device numbers ranging from 0 to 7, including the SCSI adapter and seven other devices. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) Bus Configuration [Q103436]"

QUESTION NO: 453 Which of the following counters is used to measure the usage of CPU? A. Processor: %Processor Time B. Processor: %Privilege Time C. System: System Calls/sec D. System: Processor Queue Length Answer: D Explanation: The System: Processor Queue Length counter is used to measure the usage of CPU. Answer option A is incorrect. The Processor: %Processor Time counter provides a measure of how much time the processor actually spends working on productive threads and how often it was busy servicing requests. Answer option C is incorrect. The System: System Calls/sec counter is a measure of the number of calls made to the system components and Kernel mode services. Answer option B is incorrect. The Processor: %Privilege Time counter is the amount of time the processor was busy with Kernel mode operations. Reference: "http://technet.microsoft.com/enus/library/cc768048.aspx"

QUESTION NO: 454 Your Windows 2000 Server has a stripe set with parity with a basic disk configuration. These partitions use the FAT file system. You want to change the existing stripe set with parity with the "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 189

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam dynamic RAID5 volumes. What will you do to accomplish this with minimum effort? A. Break stripe set with parity and then create RAID volumes. B. Upgrade stripe set with parity with RAID5 volumes. C. Change stripe set with parity to a volume set. D. Upgrade basic disk to dynamic disk. Answer: D Explanation: On upgrading a basic disk to a dynamic disk, the existing partitions on the basic disk become simple volumes on the dynamic disk. Any existing mirrored volumes (mirror sets), striped volumes (stripe sets), RAID5 volumes (stripe sets with parity), or spanned volumes (volume sets) become dynamic mirrored volumes, dynamic striped volumes, dynamic RAID5 volumes, or dynamic spanned volumes, respectively. Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such option to upgrade stripe set with parity with RAID5 volumes. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such facility to break stripe set with parity. Answer option C is incorrect. According to the question, you want to change the existing stripe set with parity to the dynamic RAID5 volumes and not to a volume set. What is a basic disk? A basic disk is a physical disk that contains primary partitions and extended partitions with logical drives. It can also contain spanned, mirrored, striped, and RAID-5 volumes created using Windows NT 4.0 or earlier. Basic disks can be accessed by MS-DOS and all Windows-based operating systems. What is a dynamic disk? A dynamic disk is a physical disk that is managed by the Disk Management tool of Windows 2000. It can only contain volumes created through Disk Management. A dynamic disk cannot contain partitions or logical drives. It cannot be accessed by MS-DOS, Windows 95/98, and any version of Windows NT. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD, Windows 2000 Server Manual, Article "Storing data"

QUESTION NO: 455 Which of the following statements are true regarding the installation of equipment in a server rack? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the bottom of the server rack. B. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the top of the server rack. C. A hardware location chart is helpful to administrators who want to plan the installation of equipment in the server rack. D. The lightest weight equipment should be installed at the bottom of the server rack. Answer: A,C Explanation: It is recommended that the administrator install the heaviest equipment at the bottom of the server rack such as the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) unit. Installing heavy equipment as near as "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 190

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam possible to the bottom of the server rack will be helpful while changing the location of other equipment on the upper side of the rack. A hardware location chart helps administrators to plan the location of hardware in the server rack. Answer option B is incorrect. Installing heavy equipment at the top of the server rack will create problems while changing the location of the equipment. Moreover, placing heavy equipment at the top will put unnecessary load at the top of the rack.

QUESTION NO: 456 Which of the following statements is true about CAS latency? A. It is a system of adding redundant data, or parity data, to a message, such that it can be recovered by a receiver even when a number of errors (up to the capability of the code being used) were introduced, either during the process of transmission, or on storage. B. It is the delay time between the moment a memory controller tells the memory module to access a particular memory column on a RAM memory module, and the moment the data from the given array location is available on the module's output pins. C. It is a type of memory module that comes with 168 and 184 pins. D. It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve high levels of storage reliability from low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components, via the technique of arranging the devices into arrays for redundancy. Answer: B Explanation: Column Address Strobe (CAS) latency is the delay time between the moment a memory controller tells the memory module to access a particular memory column on a RAM memory module, and the moment the data from the given array location is available on the module's output pins. In general, the lower the CAS latency, the better. Answer option A is incorrect. An ECC (errorcorrecting code) or forward error correction (FEC) code is a system of adding redundant data, or parity data, to a message, such that it can be recovered by a receiver even when a number of errors (up to the capability of the code being used) were introduced, either during the process of transmission, or on storage. Since the receiver does not have to ask the sender for retransmission of the data, a back-channel is not required in forward error correction, and it is therefore suitable for simplex communication such as broadcasting. Error-correcting codes are frequently used in lower-layer communication, as well as for reliable storage in media such as CDs, DVDs, hard disks, and RAM. Answer option D is incorrect. RAID is described as a redundant array of inexpensive disks. It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve high levels of storage reliability from low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components, via the technique of arranging the devices into arrays for redundancy. RAID is now used as an umbrella term for computer data storage schemes that can divide and replicate data among multiple hard disk drives. The different schemes/architectures are named by the word RAID followed by a number, "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 191

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam as in RAID 0, RAID 1, etc. Various designs of RAID involve two key design goals: increased data reliability or increased input/output performance. When multiple physical disks are set up to use RAID technology, they are said to be in a RAID array. This array distributes data across multiple disks, but the array is seen by the computer user and operating system as one single disk. RAID can be set up to serve several different purposes. Answer option C is incorrect. Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes with 168 and 184 pins. A DIMM slot is larger than a SIMM slot. DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base. 184-pin DIMMs are for DDR SDRAM modules which are available in Pentium III and Pentium 4 and Athlon systems. 184-pin DIMMs are available in PC2100, PC2700, PC3200 and PC3500 and faster. The number of chips on a 184-pin DIMM may vary, but they have 92 pins on both side of DIMM for a total of 184. 184-pin DIMMs are 5.375" long and 1.375" high, and the heights may vary. DIMMs have a small notch on the bottom of the module. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CAS_latency"

QUESTION NO: 457 Which of the following protocols is used to resolve IP address to MAC address? A. FTP B. ARP C. SNMP D. SMTP Answer: B Explanation: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite. It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card (NIC). The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its corresponding IP address. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and providing address conversion in both directions. ARP is limited to physical network systems that support broadcast packets. Answer option C is incorrect. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which allows users to manage the network. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. Answer option A is incorrect. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the primary TCP/IP protocol used to transfer text and binary files between computers over a TCP/IP network. Answer option D is incorrect. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending email messages between servers over the Internet. Reference: MSDN, Contents: "Test IP-addressto-MAC-address Resolution by Using ARP", "How to Troubleshoot Basic TCP/IP Problems"

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 458 How many devices can be connected to an IDE channel? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 7 Answer: A Explanation: An IDE channel can support two devices, first as a Master and second as a Slave. You can configure a device as Master or Slave using jumpers. You can connect devices such as hard disk drive, CD-ROM drive, etc. to an IDE channel. Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master, Slave, and Cable Select types of jumper settings. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. If two drives are attached to one channel, one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master, or Slave, none of them will work. Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. An IDE channel cannot support more than two devices. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Performance Tuning for Windows NT Workstation 4.0"

QUESTION NO: 459 Which of the following devices does SCSI support? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. CD drive B. Tape drive C. Sound card D. Hard disk drive E. Modem Answer: A,B,D Explanation: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) supports CD drive, tape drive, and hard disk drive. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Storage Management Operations Guide" "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 193

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 460 Which command lets you test and verify TCP/IP based network connections by sending an ICMP echo request and ICMP echo reply? A. NETSTAT B. TRACERT C. PING D. IPCONFIG Answer: C Explanation: PING sends ICMP echo requests to verify that TCP/IP is configured correctly. What is the ping utility? The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer option A is incorrect. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Answer option D is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway etc., of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Answer option B is incorrect. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. References: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 3 - TCP/IP Troubleshooting"

QUESTION NO: 461 Which of the following utilities provides information as per the format given below?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. NETSTAT B. PING C. NBTSTAT D. TRACERT Answer: D Explanation: TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. The TRACERT utility tells how many hops (maximum 30) away the target device is.

TRACERT shows where the break in your packets route is at. This helps administrators to isolate the problem there. Answer option C is incorrect. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections, update the NetBIOS name cache, and determine the registered names and scope IDs. Answer option A is incorrect. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Answer option B is incorrect. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 3 - TCP/IP Troubleshooting"

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 462 Which of the following statements about RAID-0 is true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. It uses a minimum of three hard disk drives. B. It does not provide fault tolerance. C. It provides fault tolerance. D. It uses a minimum of two hard disk drives. Answer: B,D Explanation: Striped volumes are dynamic volumes that contain disk space from two to thirty-two hard disks. Data that is written to a striped volume is divided by the operating system into chunks of 64KB. The operating system stores each chunk on a separate disk. Since, in a striped volume, a large amount of data is divided into identical portions, it is faster to read or write the data from a striped volume than from a spanned volume. Striped volumes are not fault tolerant. RAID-0 volumes are also referred to as striped volumes. Answer options A and C are incorrect. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three hard disk drives. It also provides fault tolerance. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. If a portion of a physical disk fails, the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume, while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes.

QUESTION NO: 463 Which of the following RAID levels support fault tolerance under the Windows NT Server 4.0 implementation? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A. RAID 1 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 2 D. RAID 4 E. RAID 5 F. RAID 0 Answer: A,E Explanation: RAID level 1 (mirroring and duplexing) and RAID level 5 (stripe set with parity), are the two RAID levels which support fault tolerance. RAID level 0 (stripe set) enhances disk performance but does "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 196

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam not support fault tolerance.

QUESTION NO: 464 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. One morning, users report that the network has become quite slow. Files on the remote computers are taking a long time to open. Mark examines the network and suspects that a computer's network card appears to be causing a network broadcast storm. Which of the following tools can Mark use to identify the malfunctioning network card? A. Ampere meter B. Time Domain Reflectometer C. LAN analyzer D. Voltmeter Answer: C Explanation: In order to identify the malfunctioning network card on the network, Mark will have to use a LAN analyzer.LAN analyzer is a hardware or software device that captures packets transmitted in a network for identifying problems on the network and the source of the problem. This device is also known as packet sniffer. It analyzes the packets in real-time that helps administrators to troubleshoot the problems. LAN analyzer can be plugged into a port of a network switch or hub. It reads the data packets traveling on the network and decodes one or more protocols into a humanreadable format. LAN analyzer can also store data packets on storage media for future analysis. Answer option B is incorrect. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling. TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable. Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it measures and determines the distance of the fault. TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI model. Answer option A is incorrect. Ampere meter is an instrument for measuring the strength of an electrical current in amperes. Answer option D is incorrect. Voltmeter is an instrument for measuring the voltage between two points in an electrical circuit.

QUESTION NO: 465 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company's network has a database server. The server has two microprocessors on a dual processor motherboard and a RAID-5 disk array. The server's performance is decreasing day by day. The server is also responding slowly to database queries. You find that the Pages/sec counter is 35 and the memory utilization is high. What will you do to improve the server's performance?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Reboot the server. B. Add one more microprocessor. C. Add more RAM. D. Change the network card with a high speed card. Answer: C Explanation: The Pages/sec counter statistics indicates the problem, as the Pages/sec value is quite high. The Pages/sec value should not be more than 5. However, in the question, the value is 35. This suggests that there is not enough memory to cache information. Adding more RAM to the server will reduce this value and hence improve the performance of the server. Answer option D is incorrect. The symptom mentioned in the question indicates that there is a bottleneck in the server's memory. Therefore, there is no need to change the network card. Answer option B is incorrect. The question clearly states that the server has a dual processor motherboard. Therefore, another processor cannot be installed on the motherboard. Answer option A is incorrect. Rebooting the server will not help in accomplishing the task. The problem is due to shortage of RAM.

QUESTION NO: 466 Your company has decided to purchase a new rack mount server. An existing equipment rack in the server room has only 11.5 inches space available. Which of the following is the maximum size of the server that can be installed into the rack? A. 7U B. 9U C. 4U D. 6U Answer: D Explanation: A rack unit is a unit of measure used to describe the height of equipment intended for mounting in a 19-inch rack or a 23-inch rack. One rack unit is 1.75 inches ( 44.45 mm ) high. A rack unit is also known as U. Hence, a 1U product has a vertical measurement of 1.75"; 2U is 3.5"; 3U is 5.25" and so on. The rack unit size is based on a standard rack specification as defined in EIA-310. According to the scenario, 11.5 inches space is available in existing rack. Hence, the maximum size of the server that can be installed in the rack is 6U (i.e. 6 x1.75 = 10.5). Answer options A and B are incorrect. The servers of size 7U and 9U will be bigger for the available space in the existing rack. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rack_unit"

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 467 Prudential Insurance Company of America serves nearly forty million customers worldwide, offering a variety of products and financial services. The company uses Windows 2000 Server for networking and NTFS partition on their disks. One of the users complains that his Windows 2000 Server is not starting. You find that the NTFS-formatted system volume with corrupted or deleted system files is preventing the computer from starting. Which tool will you use to resolve this problem? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Network Monitor B. Safe Mode boot C. Recovery Console D. Performance Monitor Answer: B,C Explanation: Microsoft Windows 2000 uses the Safe Mode and the Recovery Console for resolving the problem on the operating system files. What is Safe Mode? Safe Mode is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic drivers, such as mouse, keyboard, etc. It bypasses blocking issues, such as system corruption, or installation of incompatible drivers or system services, enabling the Administrator to resolve such issues. What is the use of Recovery Console in Windows 2000 operating system? In Windows 2000 operating system, Recovery Console is used by the Administrator to copy system files from the operating system CD and troubleshoot other systems without installing a second copy of the operating system. What is Network Monitor? Network Monitor is a tool used to monitor data sent and received by the local computer. Network Monitor can perform the following functions: Capturing or tracing data and filtering it based on different attributes. Monitoring throughput based on bytes or frames. Monitoring bandwidth based on percentage of the network used. Monitoring errors, which can be a possible consequence of an overloaded network. What is Performance Monitor? Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers, over time. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. Create reports for use in analyzing performance, over time. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. The Alert, View, and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. Reference: Microsoft TechNet CD Chapter 17 - File Systems

QUESTION NO: 468

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following statements about SRAM are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. SRAM is used for cache memory. B. SRAM is faster than DRAM. C. SRAM is used for main memory. D. SRAM is used for permanent storage of information and is also known as ROM. Answer: A,B Explanation: Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. Unlike DRAM, SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. What is the function of DRAM? Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) is used as the primary memory for computers and workstations. It requires having its storage cells refreshed or given a new electronic charge every few milliseconds. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 3 - Capacity Planning"

QUESTION NO: 469 Which of the following steps can be taken for a server's security for entrance purposes? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Implement an entrance password to enter the server room. B. Install a firewall on the server. C. Put a lock on the door of the server room. D. Lock the server on the server chassis. Answer: A,C Explanation: The following steps can be taken for a server's security for entrance purposes: Put a lock on the door of the server room. Implement an entrance password to enter the server room. Answer options D and B are incorrect. Installing a firewall on the server and locking the server on the server chassis cannot prevent unauthorized persons from entering the server room. What is a firewall? A firewall is a combination of software and hardware that prevents data packets from coming in or going out of a specified network or computer. It is used to separate an internal network from the Internet. It analyzes all the traffic between a network and the Internet, and provides centralized access control on how users should use the network. A firewall can also perform the following functions: Block unwanted traffic. Direct the incoming traffic to more trustworthy internal computers. Hide vulnerable computers that are exposed to the Internet. Log "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 200

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam traffic to and from the private network. Hide information, such as computer names, network topology, network device types, and internal user IDs from external users.

QUESTION NO: 470 In what order are SCSI ID numbers prioritized? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. 8 = lowest B. 7 = lowest C. 1 = highest D. 7 = highest E. 8 = highest F:1 = lowest Answer: A,D Explanation: SCSI ID 8 provides lowest priority while SCSI ID 7 provides highest priority to a device. SCSI IDs determine device priority on a SCSI bus. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use IDs 0 to 7, while wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use IDs 0 to 15. Higher ID numbers have higher priority. SCSI IDs are split into two groups, with numbers 0 to 7 having priority over 8 to 15. Therefore, SCSI ID 7 has the highest priority. The ID priority order on a SCSI bus is as follows: 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 0, 15, 14, 13, 12, 11, 10, 9, 8. The SCSI ID assigned to a device on a SCSI bus can be important to the performance of a computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device gets access to the bus. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.

QUESTION NO: 471 Which of the following cache memory levels is integrated with the microprocessor? A. Level 3 B. Level 4 C. Level 2 D. Level 1 Answer: D Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 201

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Level 1 cache memory is integrated with the microprocessor. Cache memory is used to store frequently used information, so that the microprocessor can access this information without delay. Answer option C is incorrect. Cache memory on the motherboard is known as level 2 cache. Answer options B and A are incorrect. There are no cache memory levels such as level 3 and level 4. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 3 - Capacity Planning"

QUESTION NO: 472 Which of the following could be the reasons for updating the baseline? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. A new application is installed on the server. B. Hiring more employees C. Adding more RAM to the server D. A network device has failed due to power surge. Answer: A,B,C Explanation: Following are the reasons for updating the baseline: Adding more RAM to the server Hiring more employees A new application is installed on the server. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Answer option D is incorrect. The failure of a network device due to power surge cannot be a reason for updating the baseline. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/- 170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge.

QUESTION NO: 473 Which of the following units is used to measure the capacity of a UPS battery? A. Ohm B. Volt Ampere C. Hertz D. Ampere hours Answer: D Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 202

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energy into electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time. The ampere hours (AH) is the unit for measuring the capacity of a UPS battery. If a battery can provide one ampere ( 1 A ) of current for one hour, it means that it has a capacity of 1 AH. Answer option A is incorrect. Ohm is the standard unit of electrical resistance. Answer option B is incorrect. Volt Ampere (VA) is a measurement of power in a direct current (DC) electrical circuit. Answer option C is incorrect. Hertz is a unit of frequency. It is not used to measure the capacity of a UPS battery.

QUESTION NO: 474 Which of the following should the administrator ensure during the test of a disaster recovery plan? A. Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility. B. Ensure that the plan works properly C. Ensure that all the servers in the organization are shut down. D. Ensure that all client computers in the organization are shut down. Answer: A,B Explanation: The administrator should ensure the following during the test of a disaster recovery plan. Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility. Ensure that the plan works properly. What is disaster recovery? Disaster recovery is the process, policies, and procedures related to preparing for recovery or continuation of technology infrastructure critical to an organization after a natural or human-induced disaster. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking) and other IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT related infrastructure recovery / continuity. Answer options C and D are incorrect. Shutting down all servers or clients will not help in testing the disaster recovery plan.

QUESTION NO: 475 Which of the following is the most likely situation requiring an old BIOS upgrade? A. When replacing a CD-ROM drive with a DVD writer. B. When the computer does not recognize the keyboard. C. When adding a hard disk with a capacity of more than 504 MB. D. When replacing the monitor.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: An old BIOS cannot support a hard disk having more than 504 MB capacity. In this situation, an upgrade of BIOS is required. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip, known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip, on the motherboard. Answer options B, A, and D are incorrect. These situations do not require upgrading the BIOS.

QUESTION NO: 476 Andrew asks a technician to replace a fast SCSI controller with a new Ultra2 SCSI controller on his computer. The computer has an external fast SCSI tape drive installed. Andrew does not want to replace the existing tape drive. He asks the technician about compatibility issues. What will be the technician's answer? A. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra2 speed. B. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at single-ended speed. C. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra speed. D. The new configuration will not work. Answer: C Explanation: The technician will reply that the new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra speed. Ultra2 SCSI controllers provide backward compatibility and support fast SCSI tape drives. Answer options B and A are incorrect. For a SCSI device to operate at Ultra 2 SCSI speed, it should support Ultra 2 speed and be connected to an Ultra2 SCSI controller. Since the tape drive is not an Ultra2 SCSI device, it will operate only at Ultra speed. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards. SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.

QUESTION NO: 477 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He runs a performance test on one of the servers of the network and finds the following statistics. CounterValue Pages/sec250 % Disk Utilization65% Average Disk Queue Length1 % Processor Time23% Which of the following "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 204

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam objects has a bottleneck? A. Network subsystem B. Disk C. Processor D. Memory Answer: D Explanation: The Pages/sec counter investigates the paging settings. The recommended value for the Pages/sec counter of the memory object is less than 5. According to the value in the question, the memory object of the server has a bottleneck. What is Pages/sec counter? The Pages/sec counter indicates the number of times per second data is moved from RAM (Random Access Memory) to disk and vice versa. The recommended value for Pages/sec is less than 5. If the Pages/sec counter is high, the system RAM should be increased. Answer option B is incorrect. If the % Disk utilization counter of the disk object is less than 90%, it indicates that the disk does not have a bottleneck. Furthermore, the Average Disk Queue Length counter shows that it does not have a bottleneck. The Average Disk Queue Length value in excess of 2 indicates that the disk has a bottleneck, which could be one of the causes of slow performance on a computer. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such counter related to the Network subsystem object. Answer option C is incorrect. If the % Processor Time counter of the Processor object is less than 85%, it indicates that the processor does not have a bottleneck.

QUESTION NO: 478 What does zero wait-states indicate? A. The speed of the processor is faster than that of the memory. B. The speed of the processor is slower than that of the memory. C. The speed of the memory is faster than that of the processor. D. The speed of the processor matches that of the memory. Answer: D Explanation: Zero wait-states indicates that the speed of the processor matches the speed of the memory. When the processor processes data faster than the system RAM can deliver, it goes into a wait state. This slows down system performance. When a system is running without encountering wait states, it is known as zero wait-states operation. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Hardware Cache Architecture and MS Windows 95/Windows NT"

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 479 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company purchases three computers with identical hardware. Mark installs Windows XP on all the three computers. On one of the computers, the operating system installation fails, while on the others, the OS installs successfully. What can Mark do to resolve the issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Use a hardware diagnostic utility to identify faulty hardware and then replace them. B. Re-install the operating system on the computer. C. Remove the network cable from the computer's network adapter port. D. Remove and replace add-on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time to identify faulty hardware. Answer: A,D Explanation: In order to resolve the issue, Mark can take any of the following steps. Remove and replace addon cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time to identify faulty hardware. By removing and replacing add-on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time, he can identify the faulty hardware. Use a hardware diagnostic utility to identify faulty hardware and then replace them. Answer option C is incorrect. Removing the network cable from the computer's network adapter port will not help resolve the issue. The network cable has nothing to do with installing operating systems on a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. As the operating system is installed properly on the other two computers having identical hardware, it indicates that there is some hardware problem in the other computer in which the operating system has failed. Therefore, re-installing the operating system will not help resolve the issue.

QUESTION NO: 480 Which of the following are provided by a DHCP server? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Preferred DNS server address B. Internet connection sharing C. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask, and gateway D. Network address translation Answer: A,C Explanation: The following are provided by a DHCP server. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask, and gateway Preferred DNS server address Preferred WINS server address Answer option "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 206

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B is incorrect. Internet connection sharing is not provided by a DHCP server. Internet connection sharing can be done with almost any kind of connection, including cable modems, DSL, modems, ISDN, dial-up, satellite, fixed wireless, etc. Internet connection sharing (ICS) provides the ability to connect a home network or a private network to the Internet. Answer option D is incorrect. Network address translation (NAT) is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses. NAT is configured at the server between a private network and the Internet. It allows the computers in a private network to share a global, ISP assigned address. NAT modifies the headers of packets traversing the server. For packets outbound to the Internet, it translates the source addresses from private to public, whereas for packets inbound from the Internet, it translates the destination addresses from public to private. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Host_Configuration_Protocol"

QUESTION NO: 481 What is the full form of ESD? A. Extended System database B. Electrostatic Discharge C. Electrostatic Disk D. Enhance System drive Answer: B Explanation: The static electricity that we generate everyday creates Electrostatic Discharge (ESD). If you walk across a carpet and touch someone you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge transfers from one charged entity to another that is sensitive to that charge.

QUESTION NO: 482 Which type of memory chip has 168 pins? A. SIMM B. DIP C. DMA D. DIMM Answer: D Explanation: The Dual inline memory module (DIMM) has 168 pins. 168-pin Dual inline memory module (DIMM) "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 207

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 483 Which of the following statements about Serial ATA (SATA) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. SATA cable uses either a 40-conductor or an 80-conductor wire and is limited to46 cm length. B. It is a point-to-point connection that eliminates master/slave configuration issues. C. SATA cables provide better airflow than ATA cables. D. It supports hot plugging and hot swapping. Answer: B,C,D Explanation: SATA is a point-to-point connection that eliminates master/slave configuration issues. SATA cables provide better airflow than ATA cables. SATA supports hot plugging and hot swapping. The Serial ATA (SATA) computer bus is a storage-interface for connecting host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives. SATA offers several compelling advantages over the older parallel ATA (PATA) interface, such as reduced cable-bulk and cost, faster and more efficient data transfer, full duplex, and hot swapping. It is designed to replace the older ATA (AT Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). All SATA devices support hot plugging and hot swapping. SATA supports Native Command Queuing (NCQ) for enhanced performance. Answer option A is incorrect. Parallel ATA (PATA) is a standard interface for connecting storage devices such as the hard disk and CD-ROM drive inside a computer. It is the most common and least expensive interface for connecting storage devices. A PATA ribbon cable uses either a 40conductor or an 80-conductor wire and is limited to 46 cm length. The new 80-wire ribbon cable appeared with the introduction of the Ultra DMA/66 mode. All forty additional wires in the new cable are ground wires, interleaved with the previously defined wires. The extra forty conductors "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 208

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam are all ground lines, placed there to provide additional shielding and protection against crosstalk between conductors. A maximum of two devices can be connected to a PATA port. Parallel ATA (PATA) 133 has a data transfer speed of 1064 Mbps. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Serial_ATA"

QUESTION NO: 484 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network has Windows 2000 and Unix servers. Mark wants to connect to a server using a TELNET client from a remote Windows 2000 server. What will he do to run the TELNET client on Windows 2000? A. Go to Start > Programs > Accessories, and click Terminal. B. Go to Start > Programs > System Tools, and click TELNET. C. Type TELNET on the command prompt. D. Type TEL on the Run dialog box. Answer: C Explanation: In order to run the TELNET client, Mark will have to type TELNET on the command prompt. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default.

QUESTION NO: 485 Your Windows 2000 Server has striped volumes with dynamic disk configuration. These partitions use FAT file system. As an Administrator, you want to extend the existing striped volumes since the amount of existing data is large. But you are unable to do it. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A. You cannot extend volumes formatted using FAT or FAT32. B. Striped, mirrored, and RAID5 volumes cannot be extended. C. You are not logged on as an Account Operator. D. The new disk has no file system. Answer: A,B Explanation: The volumes formatted with FAT or FAT32 cannot be extended. A volume can be extended only if it contains no file system or is formatted using NTFS. Striped, mirrored, and RAID5 volumes "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 209

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam cannot be extended. You have to be logged on as an Administrator or a member of the Administrators group to be able to extend volumes. What is file system? In an operating system, file system is the overall structure in which files are named, stored, and organized. FAT, FAT32, and NTFS are the different types of file systems. What is NTFS? Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Storing data"

QUESTION NO: 486 Which of the following fire suppression agents cause the least damage to equipments in a data center? A. Carbon dioxide (CO2) B. FM-200 C. Halon D. Water (H2O) Answer: A,B,C Explanation: Halon, carbon dioxide (CO2), and FM-200 can be used as a fire suppression agent at the data center. These fire suppression agents cause the least damage to equipments in a data center. What is Halon 1301? Halon 1301 is chemically known as Bromotrifluoromethane. It is an effective gaseous fire suppression agent. It is used around valuable materials, such as aircraft, mainframe computers, and telecommunication switching centers, and data centers. Halon 1301 is dangerous for environment and health. It is considered a good practice to avoid all unnecessary exposure to Halon 1301, and to limit exposures to concentrations of 7 percent and below to 15 minutes. Before the dangers of Halon 1301 as an ozone depleter were known, many industrial chillers used it as an efficient refrigerant gas. Currently, use of Halon 1301 is restricted in many countries. What is FM-200? FM-200 is a colorless, odorless, gaseous halocarbon. It is chemically known as heptafluoropropane and commonly used as a gaseous fire suppression agent. It can be used as a fire suppression agent for the safety of medical equipment, production equipment, libraries, and data centers. Answer option D is incorrect. Using water as a fire suppression agent at the data center is harmful for the equipments. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/FM-200"

QUESTION NO: 487 Your computer has an internal SCSI hard disk drive and an external SCSI CD drive connected to a SCSI controller. Where will you place the terminators? A. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the internal hard disk drive. B. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the external CD drive.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller. D. Place one terminator at the end of each drive. E. Place one terminator on the internal hard disk drive. Answer: D Explanation: If you have two SCSI devices, internal and external, you should place one terminator at the end of each drive. The SCSI controller will be placed in between the SCSI devices. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards. SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.

QUESTION NO: 488 Which of the following statements about memory interleaving are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. It is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-toanalog converter on a video card. B. It increases bandwidth by allowing simultaneous access to more than one block of memory. C. It allows faster access to BIOS information. D. It works by dividing the system memory into multiple blocks. Answer: B,D Explanation: Memory interleaving is a technique to improve memory performance. It works by dividing the system memory into multiple blocks. It increases bandwidth by allowing simultaneous access to more than one block of memory. Simultaneous accessing to more than one block of memory improves performance because the processor can transfer more information or data to and from memory in the same amount of time that helps to reduce the processor's memory bottleneck. Memory interleaving is not generally supported by most computer motherboards due to high cost. It is helpful on high-end systems such as servers that have to process a large amount of information in lesser time. Answer option C is incorrect. Shadow RAM allows faster access to BIOS information. What is shadow RAM? Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. When you configure shadow RAM, a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from read-only memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. This allows faster access to BIOS information. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60- 100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 211

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam memory for use by other programs. But, it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. Answer option A is incorrect. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. Unlike DRAM, SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM.

QUESTION NO: 489 Which of the following provides the first instruction to a computer during startup? A. AUTOEXEC.BAT B. ROM BIOS C. BOOT.INI D. Hard disk Answer: B Explanation: When you start a computer, the ROM BIOS provides the first instruction to the computer. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware, and allows the operating system to communicate with the various components of the computer. The BIOS software is stored in a ROM integrated circuit (IC) on the motherboard, also known as the Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. Answer options C, A, and D are incorrect. The first instruction during startup is initiated by BIOS instead of the hard disk, BOOT.INI, or AUTOEXEC.BAT file. What is BOOT.INI file? BOOT.INI file describes the location of the boot partitions specified using Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) naming conventions. BOOT.INI contains information that NTLDR reads for loading the operating system. If multiple operating systems exist on a computer, BOOT.INI provides the choice of selecting an operating system. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Chapter 5 - Setup Technical Discussion"

QUESTION NO: 490 What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for implementing a RAID 0+1 on a server? A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A Explanation: RAID 0+1 is a striped set in a mirrored set that requires a minimum of four disks. It provides fault tolerance and improved performance but increases complexity. The key difference from RAID 1+0 is that RAID 0+1 creates a second striped set to mirror a primary striped set. The array continues to operate with one or more drives failed in the same mirror set, but if the drives fail on both sides of the mirror, the data on the RAID system is lost. Answer option B is incorrect. RAID-0 and RAID1 require a minimum of two disks. What is RAID-1? RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault- tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. In mirroring, data is kept on two physical disks. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. If a disk fails, the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. The data writing operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk. The mirror disk has identical data image of the primary disk. This type of disk system provides best fault tolerance, but lower writing performance. What is RAID-0? RAID-0, also known as disk striping, is made up of a disk set in which data is divided into blocks and spread equally in each disk. It provides best performance because data read and data write operations are not limited to a single disk, but to a set of disks. It does not provide data redundancy. Data once lost cannot be recovered. Answer option C is incorrect. RAID-5 requires a minimum of three disks. What is RAID5? RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. It contains a minimum of three disks. In this disk system, data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks. When a file is written to a RAID-5 volume, the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk. The final disk contains the parity information. This parity information allows the disks in the array to keep functioning, in case a disk in the set fails. Due to data redundancy, RAID-5 provides fault tolerance. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RAID"

QUESTION NO: 491 You work as a Network Administrator. Just before noon, a remote access server is disconnected from the network. You perform the following steps to troubleshoot the problem. Re-installed the network interface card driver. Re-installed TCP/IP protocol. Pinging the remote access server resulted in proper response. Pinging the default gateway IP address failed What will be your next step to resolve this problem? A. Purchase a new server B. Validate physical link integrity C. Re-install operating system D. Check the server's subnet mask Answer: B Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 213

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam To resolve this problem, validation of physical link integrity will be the right step because there is no problem with the operating system. The only problem is that the remote access server is disconnected from the network. You have checked the network card by pinging the server's IP address, and re-installed the network interface card driver. The subnet mask cannot change automatically, so there is no need to check the server's subnet mask. So the broken physical link or connection will be the most likely cause of the remote access server being disconnected from the network.

QUESTION NO: 492 You purchase a new computer. After partitioning and formatting your hard disk, you install the Windows 95 operating system. Now, when you restart the computer, you receive the following message. "NO ROM BASIC, SYSTEM HALTED" and the computer halts. What is the most likely cause? A. Windows 95 is not installed properly. B. The computer's Random Access Memory is faulty. C. The display card is faulty. D. The hard disk has no active partition. Answer: D Explanation: This message "NO ROM BASIC, SYSTEM HALTED" appears when you do not select an active partition. You have to select an active partition in addition to partitioning and formatting your hard disk. To select an active partition, choose the "Set Active Partition" option on the FDISK utility's main menu. Answer option B is incorrect. If the computer has faulty RAM, it will hang up the computer frequently, and display a blue screen. Answer option C is incorrect. If the display card has a problem, nothing will appear on the screen. Reference. TechNet, Contents. Err Msg When Booting System. NO ROM BASIC [Q67365]

QUESTION NO: 493 HOTSPOT Mark the ST connector in the image given below.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer:

Explanation:

The image displays the following connectors. ST. A straight tip (ST) connector is a fiber-optic connector used with multimode fiber. An ST connector has a 2.5mm shaft and bayonet locking ring, and allows quick connect and disconnect of 125 micron multi-mode fiber.

QUESTION NO: 494 Mark works as an Administrator for a Novell Netware 6.5 server. He wants to shut down the server immediately without being prompted. Which of the following commands will he use? A. DOWN -f B. SHUTDOWN -p C. RESTART SERVER -ns D. RESTART SERVER -na Answer: A Explanation: The DOWN -f command is used to restart the server without prompting the user. Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such command as SHUTDOWN -p. Answer option C is incorrect. The RESTART SERVER -ns command is used to restart the server without using the startup.ncf file. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 215

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer option D is incorrect. The RESTART SERVER -na command is used to restart the server without using the autoexec.ncf file.

QUESTION NO: 495 Which of the following caches web pages for future retrieval? A. DHCP server B. Proxy server C. DNS server D. Index server Answer: B Explanation: A proxy server caches web pages for future retrieval. A proxy server exists between a client's Web-browsing program and a real Internet server. The purpose of the proxy server is to enhance the performance of user requests and filter requests. A proxy server has a database called cache where the most frequently accessed Web pages are stored. The next time such pages are requested, the proxy server is able to suffice the request locally, thereby greatly reducing the access time. Only when a proxy server is unable to fulfill a request locally does it forward the request to a real Internet server. The proxy server can also be used for filtering user requests. This may be done in order to prevent the users from visiting non-genuine sites. Answer option D is incorrect. Index server is used to enable Web searching on corporate intranets and Internet sites. Once installed, it automatically builds an index of a Web server that can be easily searched from any Web browser with the sample query forms. Indexing maps words to Web pages, and to locations within Web pages. The index process occurs behind the scene, requiring no user input and minimizing demand on system resources. Index Server for Windows and Wide Area Information Server (WAIS) for UNIX are some of the popular index servers. Answer option A is incorrect. A DHCP server is used to provide dynamic IP configuration to computers in the network. Answer option C is incorrect. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings, IP address-to-host name mappings, information about the domain tree structure, etc. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proxy_server"

QUESTION NO: 496 Which of the following terms is used for a processor's internal memory? A. Cache memory B. Virtual memory

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. RAM D. ROM Answer: A Explanation: The memory internal to a processor is called cache memory. It is also known as level 1 cache. Cache memory is used to store frequently used information, so that the processor can access this information without delay. Cache RAM on the motherboard is called level 2 cache. Answer options C and D are incorrect. The terms Random Access Memory (RAM) or Read Only Memory (ROM) are not used for internal memory. Answer option B is incorrect. Virtual memory is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in the RAM. When the physical memory (RAM) is exhausted, operating systems (such as Windows 95/98, NT, and 2000) move the data corresponding to older processes from the RAM to the virtual memory area on the hard disk. Hence, space is created in the RAM for the newer processes. Virtual memory is simulated RAM created by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file. Although this extends the computer's capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not sufficient, it slows down the processes and programs that use virtual memory and those that need to read and write to the hard disk. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Chapter 3 - Capacity Planning"

QUESTION NO: 497 Which of the following error codes indicate problems related to memory? A. 5xx B. 6xx C. 2xx D. 3xx Answer: C Explanation: Error codes beginning with 2xx indicate problems related to memory. Answer option B is incorrect. Error codes beginning with 6xx indicate problems related to floppy disk drive. Answer option A is incorrect. Error codes beginning with 5xx indicate problems related to color monitor or video. Answer option D is incorrect. Error codes beginning with 3xx indicate problems related to keyboard. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "IBM PC, XT, AT, and PS/2 Error Codes [Q35436]"

QUESTION NO: 498 Which of the following should be created before placing a server in the network for service?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. System log B. Performance baseline C. Users list D. Application backup Answer: B Explanation: An administrator should create a performance baseline before placing a server in the network to be accessed by the users. It helps administrators measure server performance. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Answer options D, A, and C are incorrect. There is no need to create an application backup, a system log, and a users list before placing a server in the network to be accessed by the users. The system log is used to store events logged by the Windows 2000/2003 Server system components. For example, events such as driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log. The event types logged by system components are predetermined by the Windows 2000/2003 operating system.

QUESTION NO: 499 Andrew works as a computer technician. He wants to boot a computer from a floppy disk. He inserts a bootable floppy disk in the floppy drive of a computer and starts the computer. He finds that the computer is not booting from the floppy disk. What can be the likely causes for this? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. The head of the floppy disk drive is dirty. B. There is already a bootable partition on the computer's hard disk drive. C. The computer's hard disk drive has no active partition. D. The boot sequence in the computer's BIOS is incorrect. Answer: A,D Explanation: A computer fails to boot from a bootable floppy disk because of any one of the following reasons. If the head of a floppy disk drive is dirty, it cannot read the boot files from the floppy disk. This will prevent the computer from booting through the floppy disk. The floppy disk drive should be cleaned using a floppy disk drive head cleaner to resolve the issue. If boot sequence in the BIOS is incorrect or is not set to boot from floppy disk first, the computer will not read the operating system file through the floppy disk drive. This will prevent the computer from booting through the floppy disk. Answer option B is incorrect. The bootable partition on a computer's hard disk cannot prevent the computer from using a floppy disk for booting. Answer option C is incorrect. The active "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 218

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam partition has nothing to do with this issue.

QUESTION NO: 500 Which of the following refers to the emulation of the identity of a network computer by an attacking computer? A. Hacking B. Spoofing C. PING attack D. SYN attack Answer: B Explanation: Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet, chatting on-line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. Answer option D is incorrect. A SYN attack affects computers running on TCP/IP protocol. It is a protocol- level attack that can render a computer's network services unavailable. A SYN attack is also known as SYN flooding. Answer option C is incorrect. When a computer repeatedly sends ICMP echo requests to another computer, it is known as a PING attack. Answer option A is incorrect. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer or network. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Security Threats"

QUESTION NO: 501 Which of the following statements is true about the peer-to-peer network model? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. It provides centralized administration. B. In this model, all the computers act as both clients and servers. C. It provides user-level security. D. It does not support centralized administration. Answer: B,D Explanation: A peer-to-peer network model, also known as workgroup model, provides a way to connect a small group of computers, so that users can share printing resources and files. In this model, all the computers act as both clients and servers. This model does not support centralized "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 219

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam administration or provide user-level security. It is inexpensive and can be easily setup. Answer options C and A are incorrect. The domain-based network model provides centralized administration and user-level security.

QUESTION NO: 502 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. You plan a backup policy for the network dat a. One tape cartridge is sufficient to backup all the network data. Which of the following can you choose if you have only two tape cartridges available to backup data? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Full and incremental backup B. Full and decremental backup C. Full and differential backup D. Daily full backup Answer: C,D Explanation: You can implement a daily full backup or a full and differential backup plan. The full backup backs up all the selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time to backup. It needs only one tape to restore data. The incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed or are new, since the last incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. The differential backup is the fastest backup strategy and takes the least amount of space on a hard disk or network drive, as compared to full backup or incremental backup. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created, or have changed since the last full backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Answer option B is incorrect. There is no backup method such as decremental backup. Reference. TechNet, Contents. Description of Full, Incremental, and Differential Backups [Q136621]

QUESTION NO: 503 Adrian uses a Windows 2000 system. While working on multiple applications, one of the applications hangs. He wants to terminate this erring application by using the Task Manager. Which of the following methods can he use to access the Task Manager? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Press CTRL + ALT + TAB and then click Task Manager. B. Press CTRL + ALT + DELETE and then click Task Manager. C. Right-click the Start menu > Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Task Manager.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Press CTRL + SHIFT + ESC. Answer: B,D Explanation: The two methods of accessing the Task Manager mentioned in the answers are. By pressing CTRL + SHIFT + ESC, and by pressing CTRL + ALT + DELETE and then clicking Task Manager. You can also select Task Manager by rightclicking the Taskbar and selecting Task Manager. The Task Manager utility is not available in the System Tools option in the Control Panel. Pressing CTRL + ALT + TAB keys does not open up the Task Manager, and therefore, it is not the correct answer option.

QUESTION NO: 504 Which of the following data transfer protocols are most commonly used for IDE devices? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. Direct Memory Access (DMA) B. Programmed Input/Output (PIO) C. Extended DMA D. Ultra DMA Answer: A,B,D Explanation: The most commonly used data transfer protocols by IDE devices are. Programmed Input/Output (PIO) Direct Memory Access (DMA) Ultra DMA Ultra DMA protocol's mode 0,1 and 2 are supported by ATA-4 but are not available for ATA, ATA-2 and ATA-3 Interface standards. Extended DMA data transfer protocol does not exist.

QUESTION NO: 505 Which tools are used for monitoring performance of the system in Windows 2000? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Disk Manager B. Performance console C. Network Optimizer D. Task Manager Answer: B,D

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Performance console and Task Manager are the primary monitoring tools in Windows 2000. What is Task Manager? Task Manager is a monitoring tool provided in Windows 2000. It is used for an immediate overview of system activity and performance. What is Performance console? Performance console is a monitoring tool provided in Windows 2000. It provides detailed information about system's performance. This information can be used for troubleshooting and analysis of bottlenecks. Reference. Microsoft TechNet CD, Chapter 27 - Overview of Performance Monitoring

QUESTION NO: 506 Which of the following is the maximum data transfer rate of Ultra2 Wide SCSI? A. 80 MBps B. 5 MBps C. 160 MBps D. 4 MBps Answer: A Explanation: The maximum data transfer rate of Ultra2 Wide SCSI is 80 MBps. Answer option B is incorrect. Synchronous SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 5 MBps. Answer option C is incorrect. Ultra3 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 160 MBps. Answer option D is incorrect. Asynchronous SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 4 MBps.

QUESTION NO: 507 Which of the following should be backed up using the Windows Backup utility? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Microsoft SQL Server files B. System state data C. System boot files D. Application files Answer: B,C Explanation: System state data and system boot files should be backed up using the Windows Backup utility. Following are the files included in the System State data. Boot files, including the system files and all files protected by Windows File Protection (WFP) Active Directory (on domain controller only) SYSVOL (on domain controller only) Certificate Services (on certification authority only) Cluster "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 222

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam database (on cluster node only) Registry IIS metabase Performance counter configuration information Component Services Class registration database

QUESTION NO: 508 James works as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows NT based network consisting of four Windows NT servers. One of the servers named Server1 is configured for a daily full backup at 5.00PM. James wants to implement a new backup strategy for Server1 to minimize the number of tapes to be backed up. He also wants to minimize the number of tapes to be restored in case of server failure. Which of the following backup strategies will he implement to accomplish this task? A. He will perform a full backup every weekend and a differential backup on weekdays. B. He will perform a full backup on weekdays and a differential backup every weekend. C. He will perform a full backup on weekdays and an incremental backup every weekend. D. He will perform a full backup every weekend and an incremental backup on weekdays. Answer: A Explanation: What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. It needs only one tape to restore data. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed, or are new, since the last incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. To minimize the number of tapes to be backed up, James should perform a full backup every weekend (instead of weekdays). On weekdays, a differential backup will reduce the number of tapes to be restored. In case of server failure, James has to restore only the last full backup and the last differential backup. Answer options B and C are incorrect. A full backup takes maximum time and space. Performing full backup on weekdays will not reduce the number of tapes to be backed up. Answer option D is incorrect. In case of server failure, James will have to restore the last full backup and all the incremental backups since the last full backup. This will increase the number of tapes to be restored. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Windows Product Family", "Windows NT", "Windows NT Server", "Manuals", "Concepts and Planning Manual" Chapter. "Backing Up and Restoring Network Files" Topic. "Types of Backup"

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 509 What does BIOS do when a Plug and Play card is installed? A. It checks the processor's internal cache. B. It reads a device driver for the card. C. It uninstalls the device drivers of other cards during the installation. D. It consults the chipset to determine which system resources are available for the card and then configures the new device. Answer: D Explanation: At the time of the installation of a Plug and Play card, Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) first determines the available system resources and then configures the new device. What is Plug and Play feature? Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support, which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system, Basic Input/Output System (BIOS), devices, and device drivers. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip, known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip, on the motherboard. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Guided Tour for Administrators"

QUESTION NO: 510 You want to attach two IDE drives to an IDE controller on your server system. Which settings are important on the IDE drives? A. Place a terminator on the IDE controller. B. Configure hardware ID C. Place a terminator on the back of the hard disk drive. D. Master and Slave jumper settings Answer: D Explanation: If you want to attach two IDE drives to a particular controller, you have to set one drive as the Master and the other as the Slave. If you have two IDE drives in your system, and both are set as Master , or both are set as Slave , none of them will work. Each IDE drive must support the Master, Slave, and Cable Select settings. The Master and Slave setting is accomplished by jumper, a set of pins on the hard disk drive. If you are installing only one drive through the IDE controller, you should install it with the Master setting. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 224

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 511 Which of the following protocols provides the highest level of VPN security with a VPN connection that uses the L2TP protocol? A. IPSec B. TFTP C. PPP D. PPPoE Answer: A Explanation: Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security. IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the networking layer. It is used for VPN connections that use the L2TP protocol. It secures both data and password. IPSec cannot be used with Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). Answer option D is incorrect. Point to Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) is a specification for establishing PPP connections through Ethernet network adapters. It connects users on an Ethernet to the Internet through a common broadband medium, such as a single DSL line or cable modem. PPPoE is described in RFC 2516. Answer option C is incorrect. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a remote access protocol commonly used to connect to the Internet. PPP supports compression and encryption and can be used to connect to a variety of networks. It can connect to a network running on IPX, TCP/IP, or NetBEUI protocol. PPP supports multiprotocol and dynamic IP assignments. Answer option B is incorrect. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a file transfer protocol, with the functionality of a very basic form of File Transfer Protocol (FTP). TFTP can be implemented in a very small amount of memory. It is useful for booting computers such as routers which did not have any data storage devices. It is used to transfer small amounts of data between hosts on a network, such as IP phone firmware or operating system images when a remote X Window System terminal or any other thin client boots from a network host or server. The initial stages of some network based installation systems (such as Solaris Jumpstart, Red Hat Kickstart and Windows NT's Remote Installation Services) use TFTP to load a basic kernel that performs the actual installation. TFTP uses UDP port 69 for communication.

QUESTION NO: 512 How many devices can be connected to a Universal Serial Bus (USB) port? A. 8 B. 127

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. 256 D. 1 Answer: B Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Reference. "Upgrading and Repairing PCs (Academic Edition)" by Scott Mueller Contents. "Chapter 13 - I/O Interfaces from Serial and Parallel to IEEE- 1394 and USB", "USB Technical Details"

QUESTION NO: 513 Which of the following is used by a Pentium II processor? A. Socket 8 B. SEC C. Slot A D. Socket 7 Answer: B Explanation: Pentium II processors use single edge connector (SEC). A single edge connector (SEC), also known as Slot 1, is similar to an expansion card. Answer option C is incorrect. AMD Athlon processors use Slot A. Answer option A is incorrect. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8. Answer option D is incorrect. Pentium processors use Socket 7.

QUESTION NO: 514 How many bits is the width of the system data bus for Pentium Processors? A. 64 B. 32 C. 16 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 226

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. 128 Answer: B Explanation: Intel Pentium microprocessors are based on 32-bit data bus width microprocessors. The Intel 486 series microprocessor also has a 32-bit data bus. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor has a 64bit data bus. The Intel 80286 microprocessor has a 16-bit data bus.

QUESTION NO: 515 Which of the following statements about I/O address is true? A. An I/O address is a method of transferring information directly from a disk drive to a memory location. B. An I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. C. An I/O address is the display adapter address on the CPU. D. An I/O address is an event, which requires processor's attention. Answer: B Explanation: I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. The CPU needs a memory address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to communicate with any peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. Resources such as I/O addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. Whenever a component, such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC, its I/O address, IRQ, and DMA channels must be correctly configured.

QUESTION NO: 516 Which of the following RAID arrays continues to operate with up to two failed drives? A. RAID 1 B. RAID 0 C. RAID 6 D. RAID 5 Answer: C Explanation:

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID 6 is known as a striped set with dual distributed parity. It provides fault tolerance from two drive failures. This type of disk array continues to operate with up to two failed drives. This makes larger RAID groups more practical, especially for high availability systems. RAID 6 becomes increasingly important because large-capacity drives lengthen the time needed to recover from the failure of a single drive. Single parity RAID levels are vulnerable to data loss until the failed drive is rebuilt. The larger the drive, the longer the rebuild will take. Dual parity gives time to rebuild the array without the data being at risk if a (single) additional drive fails before the rebuild is complete. Answer options D and A are incorrect. These arrays cannot continue to operate with up to two failed drives What is RAID-5? RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. It contains a minimum of three disks. In this disk system, data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks. When a file is written to a RAID-5 volume, the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk. The final disk contains the parity information. This parity information allows the disks in the array to keep functioning, in case a disk in the set fails. Due to data redundancy, RAID-5 provides fault tolerance. What is RAID-1? RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault- tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. In mirroring, data is kept on two physical disks. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. If a disk fails, the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. The data writing operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk. The mirror disk has identical data image of the primary disk. This type of disk system provides best fault tolerance, but lower writing performance. Answer option B is incorrect. RAID 0 does not provide fault tolerance. What is RAID-0? RAID-0, also known as disk striping, is made up of a disk set in which data is divided into blocks and spread equally in each disk. It provides best performance because data read and data write operations are not limited to a single disk, but to a set of disks. It does not provide data redundancy. Data once lost cannot be recovered. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RAID"

QUESTION NO: 517 Which of the following statements is true about a brownout? A. It is a device used to filter out the effects of voltage spikes and surges. B. It is a brief decrease in voltage at the power source. C. It is the situation of voltage drop in power supply. D. It supplies power to the devices in case of a power failure. Answer: C Explanation: A brownout is the situation of voltage drop in power supply. The overloading of a primary power source can cause brownouts. Answer option A is incorrect. The surge protector is a device used to smooth out power variations by filtering out the effects of voltage spikes and surges that are present in commercial power sources. Answer option B is incorrect. Sag is a brief decrease in "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 228

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam voltage at the power source. Answer option D is incorrect. Uninterrupted Power Supply (UPS) continues to supply power to the devices in case of power failure. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage, using battery backup. It also provides protection against power surges. When power surge occurs, only the UPS charging circuit is affected, while the computer gets normal power.

QUESTION NO: 518 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network has a file server with a Novell Netware operating system. Users on the network report that the file server responds very slowly. Which of the following tools can Mark use to diagnose the issue? A. NSSMU B. DOWN -f C. RESTART SERVER -na D. MONITOR Answer: D Explanation: In order to diagnose the issue, Mark can use the MONITOR tool. The MONITOR tool is used to view the operational status of the server memory and disks. Using this information, the problem can be diagnosed. By typing MONITOR at the server console, the administrator can view the operational status such as the number of Current Disk Requests and the number of Open Files. Answer option B is incorrect. The DOWN -f command is used to restart the server without prompting the user. Answer option A is incorrect. The Novell Storage Services Management Utility (NSSMU) is a console-based utility for managing NSS storage media on a server. NSSMU is the interface that is used to set up basic NSS storage solution during the NetWare installation. Answer option C is incorrect. The RESTART SERVER -na command is used to restart the server without using the autoexec.ncf file.

QUESTION NO: 519 Which of the following is an error detection technique, consisting of a cyclic algorithm performed on each block of data by both sending and receiving modems? A. DARPA B. FTP C. EDI D. Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC)

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: D Explanation: Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC) is a procedure performed on transmitted data at the data-link level and used for detecting errors. When the sending modem has accumulated a buffer full of data for transmission, it applies a formula to the data block for calculating a value. When the receiving modem gets the data block, it goes through the same calculation. If there is a transmission error, the second CRC value will not equal the original one, and the receiving modem transmits a negative acknowledgment. The originating modem then re-transmits the data block. If these two CRCs match, the receiving modem transmits a positive acknowledgment. Answer option B is incorrect. FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. The application protocol offers file service in the Internet suite of protocols. Answer option C is incorrect. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI), is computer-to-computer exchange of data related to commercial transactions using agreed upon formats and networks. Answer option A is incorrect. DARPA stands for Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency. The Internet suite of protocols was developed under DARPA auspices. DARPA was previously known as Advanced Research Project Agency (ARPA), when ARPANET was built. Reference. TechNet, Contents. A Primer on Asynchronous Modem Communication

QUESTION NO: 520 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network has a file server that contains eight 20GB hard disk drives with a hot spare disk drive. One of the hard disks fails in the array. What will Mark do to ensure that the disk array continues to work properly? A. Ensure that the array has completed rebuilding using the hot spare drive, and then replace the failed disk from the array. B. Replace all the disks of the array, recreate a RAID-5 array, and then copy data from the backup. C. Copy data to the hot spare disk from the backup manually, and then add this disk to the RAID5 array. D. Activate the hot spare disk drive before rebuilding the array. Answer: A Explanation: In order to keep the disk array working after the failure of one of the disk drives, Mark will have to ensure that the array has completed rebuilding using the hot spare drive, and then replace the failed disk from the array. A hot spare disk is a disk or group of disks used to automatically or manually (depending on the hot spare policy) replace a failing or failed diskin a RAID configuration. The hot spare disk is active and connected as part of a working RAID. When a disk fails, the hot spare disk is switched into operation. The hot spare disk reduces the mean time to repair a RAID redundancy group, thereby reducing the probability of a second disk failure and the attendant data loss that would occur in any single redundant RAID disk, such as RAID-1, RAID-5, "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 230

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID-10. Answer option B is incorrect. There is no need to replace all the disks of the array, as all but one are working properly. Mark needs to remove only the failed disk. Answer option D is incorrect. There is no such facility to activate a hot spare disk drive. Answer option C is incorrect. This method will not help Mark to add a disk to the RAID-5 array.

QUESTION NO: 521 Which of the following utilities is used to view the contents of a packet traveling on a network? A. PING B. Protocol Analyzer C. TRACERT D. IPCONFIG Answer: B Explanation: Protocol Analyzer is a utility used to view the contents of a packet traveling on a network and diagnose network related issues such as, slow performance etc. Answer option C is incorrect. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Answer option A is incorrect. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer option D is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway etc., of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "SMTP. Err Msg. Read. (52) Network Dropped Connection or Reset [Q100706]"

QUESTION NO: 522 Which of the following features allows you to install a new disk drive, or remove and replace a failed disk drive, without shutting down the system? A. Full duplex B. Hot swap C. ReadyBoost

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Plug and play Answer: B Explanation: The hot swap technology is used to install a new device, or remove and replace a failed device, without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system. Using this technology, a device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the computer using it remains in operation. Answer option D is incorrect. The Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support, which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system, Basic Input/Output System (BIOS), devices, and device drivers. Answer option A is incorrect. Full-duplex transmission is a two-way electronic communication that can send and receive data simultaneously. Full-duplex is a hardware feature that is available in many sound and network cards. Answer option C is incorrect. ReadyBoost is a feature of Windows Vista, which helps to provide inexpensive methods to improve performance where RAM is a bottleneck.

QUESTION NO: 523 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. You are developing a backup policy for the company and want to accomplish the following goals. The number of tapes required to back up data should be minimized. The number of tapes required to restore data should be minimized. Which of the following backup policies will you choose? A. A full backup every Friday and incremental backups from Monday to Thursday B. A full backup once a month and an incremental backup daily C. A full backup every Friday and differential backups from Monday to Thursday D. A differential backup every night Answer: C Explanation: In order to minimize the number of tapes required to back up data, you should perform a full backup every Friday. Performing differential backups from Monday to Thursday will reduce the number of tapes required to restore data. This is because in the event of data loss, you will have to restore only the last full backup and the last differential backup. What is differential backup? Differential backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full backup. It requires minimum space to backup data. Differential backup requires only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. It is faster as compared to full backup.

QUESTION NO: 524

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following supports soft power on switch? A. I/O B. ATX C. AT D. DIN Answer: B Explanation: ATX is a type of motherboard that supports soft power on switch. ATX motherboards have had several modifications on the electrical side. These changes were made to improve efficiency and safety. An ATX motherboard has a single 20-pin power connector. The 20-pin plug can only plug in one way, which prevents users from putting it backwards by mistake. An ATX motherboard has a logic switch, which controls the power supply. Answer option C is incorrect. AT motherboards are older motherboards that do not support soft power on switch. Answer options D and A are incorrect. I/O and DIN are not types of motherboards. I/O stands for Input/Output; DIN is a type of connector.

QUESTION NO: 525 Sam works as a Software Developer for SamTech Inc. He creates an XML Web service, named WebService1, using Visual Studio .NET. WebService1 uses the .NET Framework security class libraries to implement security. It implements rolebased authorization based on a SQL Server database containing user names. Sam adds the following statements to the Web service code. using System.Security.Principal; using System.Threading; Sam wants to ensure that only validated users are permitted to access WebService1 by entering their user names and passwords in TextBox controls, named Text1 and Text2. He wants to implement imperative security check on WebService1. He also wants to ensure that users are assigned the Manager role and the Subordinate role by default. Which of the following classes will Sam use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A. WindowsIdentity B. WindowsPrincipal C. GenericIdentity D. GenericPrincipal Answer: C,D Explanation: The GenericPrincipal class represents a generic principal. The GenericIdentity class represents a generic identity. Both GenericPrincipal and GenericIdentity classes are used in conjunction with each other to create an authorization scheme. These two classes can be used to prompt users for "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 233

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam their user names and passwords, to check these values against a database, and to create principal and identity objects. Answer option B is incorrect. WindowsPrincipal is a class of the .NET Framework class library, which is used to check the Windows group membership of a Windows user. It can be used to check whether or not a user belongs to a domain user group. Answer option A is incorrect. The WindowsIdentity class represents a Windows user. It cannot be used to check the group membership of a user. What is imperative security check? Imperative security check is a security check that occurs on calling a security method within the code being protected. It works by instantiating security classes and using them directly. It can be isolated within an object or method. Imperative security check supports dynamic determination of permissions, required in a given execution context. It is used when security decisions are to be taken on the basis of ors that are known only at runtime. What is declarative security check? Declarative security check is a security check performed on the declarative information in metadata. It uses attributes to place security information into the metadata of application code. These attributes are used to indicate the type of demand or request, and can be placed at the assembly, class, or member level. Declarative security check allows developers to invoke specified security functionality. It can be performed either at load time or at runtime. It is used when the requested action and permission attributes are static. Declarative security check provides optimized runtime execution of the application, as it checks the declarative information in the metadata. Reference. Visual Studio .NET Combined Collection, Contents. "WindowsIdentity Class", "WindowsPrincipal Class", "GenericIdentity Class", "GenericPrincipal Class"

QUESTION NO: 526 You are designing a TCP/IP-based network for Net Perfect Inc. The company's offices are in different buildings within a local premise. You decide to use 100BaseTX cabling to interconnect the offices. What is the maximum length of cable that you can use? A. 200 meters B. 1000 meters C. 100 meters D. 2000 meters Answer: C Explanation: The 100BaseTX networks are known as fast Ethernet. These are the most widely used networks now-a-days. 100BaseTX Ethernet uses twoof the four wire-pairs in the category 5 UTP cable. The number 100 used in the name indicates that these networks run at the speed of 100 Mbps using category 5 UTP cable. The topology used in these networks is star. The maximum cable segment length of 100BaseTX is 100 meters . The following table lists the 100BaseTX specifications. Maximum segment length100 meters Speed 100 Mbps Topology Star Cable UTP (Cat. 5)

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QUESTION NO: 527 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network has a file server with the following configuration. 1GB RAM 600MHz Processor 10/100 mbps Ethernet NIC Hardware RAID5 subsystem You want to reconfigure the file server as a database server. What will be the first step you will take to improve performance? A. Add more RAM. B. Add a tape drive. C. Add an additional NIC. D. Add an additional processor. Answer: D Explanation: As the first step, you should add an additional processor on the database server. In a database server, processors are used extensively for data processing. Therefore, having a single processor can be a bottleneck. Answer option A is incorrect. The server has 1GB RAM, which is sufficient for a database server. Hence, there is no need to add more RAM. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no need to add an additional NIC on the server, as a database server generates less traffic on the network as compared to a file server. Answer option B is incorrect. Adding a tape drive will not provide better performance. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. Network interface cards provide a dedicated, full-time connection to a network.

QUESTION NO: 528 Which methods help you to recover your data in the event of a system or hard disk failure? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Install and use a tape backup unit B. Use data encryption C. Install UPS systems on all important devices D. Install a RAID system Answer: A,D Explanation: RAID is a fault-tolerant disk configuration in which part of the physical disk-storage capacity of a server contains a redundant data set. The redundant information enables automatic regeneration of data if either of the following occur. A disk or its access path fails. A sector on the disk cannot "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 235

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam be read. A tape backup can help by giving back the data, which was backed up on the tape, earlier. Reference. TechNet, Contents. Planning a Fault-Tolerant Disk Configuration.

QUESTION NO: 529 Which of the following is a backup method that clears the archive bit of files after performing backup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Sequential B. Differential C. Full D. Incremental Answer: C,D Explanation: Full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit of files after performing backup. Windows maintains a marker, for each file, called the archive bit to allow backup programs to mark the files after backing them up. When a file changes later, Windows marks the file as requiring to be backed up again. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. It needs only one tape to restore data. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed, or are new, since the last incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Answer option B is incorrect. Differential backup does not mark files as having been backed up, i.e., it does not set the archive bit. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no backup method such as sequential backup. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Description of Full, Incremental, and Differential Backups [Q136621]"

QUESTION NO: 530 Which of the following is a backup method that clears the archive bit of files after performing backup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Sequential B. Differential

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Full D. Incremental Answer: C,D Explanation: Full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit of files after performing backup. Windows maintains a marker, for each file, called the archive bit to allow backup programs to mark the files after backing them up. When a file changes later, Windows marks the file as requiring to be backed up again. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. It needs only one tape to restore data. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed, or are new, since the last incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Answer option B is incorrect. Differential backup does not mark files as having been backed up, i.e., it does not set the archive bit. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no backup method such as sequential backup. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Description of Full, Incremental, and Differential Backups [Q136621]"

QUESTION NO: 531 You want to upgrade your machine from Windows NT Workstation 3.51 to Windows NT Workstation 4.0. Your machine has Intel 80386-33 MHz processor. How will you proceed? A. You must run CONVERT.EXE to convert HPFS partition to NTFS. B. You cannot upgrade this computer to Windows NT Workstation 4.0. C. You must run CONVERT.EXE to convert FAT partition to NTFS. D. You must upgrade the single speed CD-ROM. Answer: D Explanation: Minimum hardware requirements for Microsoft Windows NT Workstation 4.0 are. 12MB RAM VGA level video support Keyboard IDE, EIDE, SCSI, or ESDI hard disk 486/25 processor or better CDROM drive, floppy disk drive, or active network connection Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Hardware requirement" + "Workstation", "Windows NT 4.0 Setup Troubleshooting Guide"

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 532 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company's network has a file server. The server has two microprocessors on a dual processor motherboard. After three months, the performance of the server has deteriorated. The server responds slowly while users try to open their files. What will you do to improve the server's performance? A. Increase the paging file size on the file server. B. Change the network adapter on the file server with a high speed card. C. Run the SCANDISK utility on the file server. D. Run the Disk Defragmenter utility on the file server. Answer: D Explanation: In order to improve the performance of the server, you will have to run the Disk Defragmenter utility on the file server. The server has become slow after three months of working due to fragmentation of data on the file server's hard disk drive. Due to fragmentation, file data is written in contiguous blocks in a hard disk. Over time, however, file data breaks into discontiguous fragments. Although the hard disk is still able to read the file data, it takes a longer time. Therefore, running the Disk Defragmenter utility on the hard disk of the file server will improve its performance. What is Disk Defragmenter? Disk Defragmenter is a system tool used to consolidate the fragmented files stored on the hard disk of a computer. The fragmented files are those files that are saved or stored in different areas of the hard disk. The tool arranges such files and stores them on the hard disk in contiguous blocks. The operating system can access these files at a faster rate than the fragmented ones. When this utility is run on a computer, it first analyzes the hard disk and determines the portion of fragmented files, contiguous files, unmovable files, and the total space available on the computer's hard disk as shown below.

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As per the analysis, it recommends the user whether or not the hard disk needs to be defragmented. A message appears automatically after the analysis of the hard disk is completed, and a user can take appropriate action accordingly. Answer option A is incorrect. Increasing the size of the paging file will increase the space occupied by it. This will not improve the performance of the file server, as the server has slowed down due to fragmentation of data on the hard disk drive. Answer option C is incorrect. Running the SCANDISK utility will not resolve the issue. What is SCANDISK? SCANDISK is a Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. This helps in improving the performance of a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. According to the question, the server has slowed down after working for three months. This clearly indicates that the network card cannot be the reason of slow performance. The problem is due to fragmentation of data on the server's HDD.

QUESTION NO: 533 On your dual booting computer, you want to set Windows 98 as the default operating system at startup. In which file will you define this? A. BOOTSECT.DOS B. NTBOOTDD.SYS C. BOOT.INI D. NTDETECT.COM Answer: C

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: You can define the default operating system at startup in the BOOT.INI file of a dual booting computer. BOOT.INI file describes the location of the boot partitions specified using Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) naming conventions. BOOT.INI contains information that NTLDR reads for loading the operating system. If multiple operating systems exist on a computer, BOOT.INI provides the choice of selecting an operating system. Answer option A is incorrect. BOOTSECT.DOS is a Windows NT/2000 file with hidden, system, and read-only attributes. NTLDR uses BOOTSECT.DOS when a computer is configured to multiboot option with MS-DOS, Windows 3.x, and Windows 9x. This cannot be used to configure the default operating system. Answer option B is incorrect. NTBOOTDD.SYS is the driver for a SCSI drive that does not have its BIOS enabled. Answer option D is incorrect. NTDETECT.COM file is one of the Windows NT/2000 startup files. It is located in the root of the startup disk. This file along with the NTBOOTDD.SYS file performs the initial hardware detection during the setup process and then passes the control to the kernel. The other files located in the root of the startup disk are NTLDR, BOOT.INI, and BOOTSECT.DOS (this file is available on a multiple boot system). Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Chapter 7 - Troubleshooting"

QUESTION NO: 534 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has two database servers with external hard disk drives. One server works as a primary server and the other as a failover server. Mark notices that the failover server takes over the primary server. However, the primary server is working properly. What will Mark first check in this condition? A. The heartbeat cable through which both servers are connected B. The failover server's IP address C. The primary server's IP address D. The DNS server on the network Answer: A Explanation: Mark needs to check that the heartbeat cable is not cut or damaged and is connecting both servers properly. When the primary server is on, the failover server is in standby mode. The heartbeat cable is used to send messages from the failover server to the primary server. When the heartbeat cable no longer gets a reply message from the primary server, it switches the failover button on the external hard drives to the failover server. Within a few seconds, the failover server takes over and runs the hard drives. Answer options C and B are incorrect. Mark needs to first check the heartbeat cable that connects both servers to each other. Checking IP addresses could be a secondary option. Answer option D is incorrect. A DNS server has nothing to do with this issue.

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QUESTION NO: 535 Which of the following are the most likely causes of a virus attack? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Downloading a file from an unknown Website B. Using a floppy, a compact disk, or a pen drive from an unreliable source C. Installing a .DLL file from an unreliable source D. Installing an application from an unreliable source Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation: The following are the most likely causes of a virus attack. Using a floppy, a compact disk, or a pen drive from an unreliable source Downloading file(s) from an unknown Website Installing an application or a .DLL file from an unreliable source A virus is a program code that is written for the destruction of data. This program requires writable media. A virus can infect boot sectors, data files, and system files. A computer virus passes from one computer to another on the network in the same way as a biological virus passes from one person to another.

QUESTION NO: 536 Which of the following are coaxial cable connection hardware used in the networks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. BNC T connector B. The BNC terminator C. RJ-45 connector D. BNC barrel connector Answer: A,B,D Explanation: BNC T connectors joins the network interface card in the computer to the coaxial network cable. The BNC barrel connector is used to join two lengths of Thinnet coaxial cable to make one of longer length. Answer option C is incorrect. RJ-45 is a type of connector that is used with Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable and not with coaxial cable.

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QUESTION NO: 537 Which of the following techniques automatically moves data between high-cost and low-cost storage media? A. Failover clustering B. Datafile striping C. Storage area network (SAN) D. Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) Answer: D Explanation: Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) is a data storage technique which automatically moves data between high-cost and low-cost storage media. HSM systems exist because high-speed storage devices, such as hard disk drive arrays, are more expensive (per byte stored) than slower devices, such as optical discs and magnetic tape drives. While it would be ideal to have all data available on high-speed devices all the time, this is prohibitively expensive for many organizations. Instead, HSM systems store the bulk of the enterprise's data on slower devices, and then copy data to faster disk drives when needed. In effect, HSM turns the fast disk drives into caches for the slower mass storage devices. The HSM system monitors the way data is used and makes best guesses as to which data can safely be moved to slower devices and which data should stay on the fast devices. Answer option B is incorrect. Datafile striping, also referred to as striping, is a technique used to enhance the I/O of datafiles. In this technique, a large datafile is split into smaller datafiles and the latter are then stored on separate disks. Answer option C is incorrect. A storage area network (SAN) is a technique to attach remote computer storage devices (such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes) to servers in such a way that the devices appear as locally attached to the operating system. Answer option A is incorrect. Failover clustering is a technique used in the Windows Server 2008 environment to provide high availability of applications. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hierarchical_storage_management"

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QUESTION NO: 538 You want to change the hardware configuration settings in the registry of your Windows 2000 computer. Which of the following utilities will you use? A. REGEDT32.EXE B. HARDREG.EXE C. REGEDIT.EXE D. REGEDITOR.EXE Answer: A Explanation: You should use the REGEDT32.EXE registry editor to edit registry entries of your Windows 2000 computer. Although both REGEDT32.EXE and REGEDIT.EXE are installed during the setup of Windows 2000, the former is recommended for use in Windows 2000. REGEDIT.EXE is not recommended because it does not have a security menu or a read-only mode. Note. Incorrect use of registry editor can cause serious problems in your computer. Therefore, it is recommended that you modify configuration settings using either the Control Panel or Administrative Tools. But if the registry editor has to be used to modify configuration settings, it is suggested that you either save a backup copy or open the file in read-only mode to prevent accidental modifications in the configuration data. The Registry Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Registry Editors Installed by Windows NT 4.0 [Q155267]"

QUESTION NO: 539 Which of the following counters of the Physical Disk object indicates how many I/O operations are waiting for the hard disk to become available? A. % Free Space B. Current Disk Queue Length C. % Disk Time D. Disk Writes/sec Answer: B Explanation: The Current Disk Queue Length counter of the Physical Disk object indicates how many I/O operations are waiting for the hard disk to become available. Answer option D is incorrect. The Disk Writes/sec counter of the Physical Disk object shows the rate at which write operations were performed on the disk. Answer option C is incorrect. The % Disk Time counter of the Physical Disk object is used to measure I/O bottlenecks on a physical disk array. Answer option A is incorrect. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - Guaranteed 243

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The % Free Space is not a counter of the Physical Disk object. It is a counter of the Logical Disk object. Reference. "http.//www.microsoft.com/technet/prodtechnol/exchange/guides/ExMgmtGuide/d145e28c- 4740473b-b335-0d221994f685.mspx?mfr=true"

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