MICROBIAL PHYSIOLOGY

1. An actively growing culture (20 ml) of E. coli (l x 105 per ml) was mixed with a total of 100 T4 phage particles, grown further for 40 min and mixed with a few drops of chloroform. Under the conditions used, the generation time of E. coli is 30 min, the infection cycle of phage T4 is 20 min, and the burst size is 100. Assuming that each infection was a successful one, how many plaque forming units would you expect at the end of the experiment? a. 104 b. 103 c. 105 d. 106 2. Among the following which equation denotes the population growth when resources are not limiting. a.
Nt = N0 e
-rt

degrees Celsius) intestinal E.coli?

and

regular

P. Number of cysteins in the proteins Q. Number of methionines in the protein R. Molecular weight of the protein S. GC richness of the genomic DNA T. Richness of saturated fatty acids in plasma membranes a) P and T b) c) d) Q and R R and S P and R

5. Among the following which is source of maximum antibioticsa. Streptomyces b. Penicillin c. Actinomyces d. Bacillus.

b. dN/dt = rt

c.

Nt/Nt = Nt N0. 6. The tetracycline antibiotic that does not require dose reduction in renal failure is a. Doxycycline b. Demeclocycline c. Minocycline d. Oxytetracycline 7. In the global nitrogen cycle, the following microbial organisms are involved in three important process-denitrification, nitrification and nitrogen fixation. a. Rhizobium b. Nitrosomonas c. Nitrobacter

d. dN/dt = Krt

3. A bacterium, having doubling time of 10minutes, fills a cylindrical vessel completely in 3hours. How much time will it take to fill half of the vessel? a. 80min. b. 90min c. 150min d. 170min 4. What properties is/are not expected to be significantly different between hot spring bacteria (that live at 120

d. Pseudomonas e. Azotobacter

E - No antibiotic.

8. A strain of bacteria divides once every hour and takes 12 hours to attain a certain optical density in one liter culture. What will be the time required to attain the same optical density in 500ml volume? a. 10hrs b. 11hrs c. 12hrs d. 9hrs

10. The latest and most effective therapy for AIDS patients includes azidothymidine(AZT), dideoxyinosine (DDI), and saquinavir or similar agents. Use of these three drugs would inhibit which of the following viral processes? a. RNase, DNase b. gp120 formation c. p24 antibody expression d. All membrane synthesis e. Reverse transcriptase, protease
rDNA 1. Cloning is the production of genetically identical copies of DNA, cells, or organisms through some asexual means. DNA cloning can be done to produce many identical copies of the same gene; that is, for the purpose of gene cloning. For which of the following reasons do scientists clone genes? a. To determine the difference in base sequence between a normal gene and a mutated gene b. To use cloned genes to genetically modify organisms in a beneficial way c. To modify a human, a process called gene therapy d. Only a and b are correct e. a, b, and c are correct 2. To clone a human gene, human DNA and bacterial plasmid DNA are cleaved by a specific type of restriction enzyme. Then the human DNA, perhaps containing the insulin gene, is spliced into a bacterial plasmid by the enzyme DNA ligase. Gene cloning is achieved after a bacterium takes up the

9.

Which of the following antibiotics added give the above graph? a. B- chloramphenicol, C- No antibiotic, D- sulfanilamide, E- penicillin. b. B- chloramphenicol, C- No antibiotic, D- penicillin, Esulfanilamide. c. B-No antibiotic, Cchloramphenicol, D sulfanilamide, E- penicillin. d. Bchloramphenicol, Csulfanilamide-, D- penicillin,

recombinant plasmid. If the gene functions normally as expected, the product (e.g., insulin) may be retrieved. In cloning a human gene, which enzyme is used to cleave both human DNA and plasmid DNA? a. DNA ligase b. DNA polymerase c. RNA polymerase d. Restriction enzyme e. Reverse transcriptase 3. The four steps involved in forming a plasmid-carrying recombinant DNA are: Remove plasmid from parent bacterium, use restriction enzyme, use DNA ligase, and introduce plasmid into new host bacterium. What is the function of restriction enzyme in gene cloning? a. Restriction enzyme cleaves both human gene and bacterial plasmid b. Restriction enzyme seals human gene and bacterial plasmid c. Restriction enzyme makes copies of human mRNA d. Only a and b are correct e. a, b, and c are correct 4. Recombinant DNA technology is used to produce transgenic bacteria (genetically modified bacteria), which are grown in huge vats called bioreactors. The gene product is usually collected from the medium. Which of the following biotechnology products are produced by transgenic bacteria? a. Human insulin and clotting factor VIII b. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) c. Human growth hormone (HGH) d. Hepatitis B vaccine e. All of these

5. Restriction fragments of DNA are typically separated from one another by which process? a. filtering b. centrifugation c. gel electrophoresis d. PCR e. electron microscopy 6. A human gene that lacks introns can be made from mRNA. This is done by using the enzyme reverse transcriptase (mRNA + reverse transcriptase = cDNA). The DNA molecule, called complementary DNA (cDNA), does not contain introns. Bacteria may then transcribe and translate the cloned cDNA to produce a human protein because the genetic code is the same in humans and bacteria. Which of the following statements is correct about complementary DNA (cDNA)? a. Complementary DNA (cDNA) is made from mRNA by reverse transcriptase b. Bacteria may transcribe the cloned cDNA to produce a human protein c. Complementary DNA (cDNA) does not contain introns d. Only a and b are correct e. a, b, and c are correct 7. DNA amplified by PCR can be analyzed for various purposes. Analysis of DNA following PCR has undergone improvements over the years. At first, the entire genome was treated with restriction enzymes, resulting in a unique collection of different-sized fragments because each person has their own restriction enzyme sites. During a process called gel electrophoresis, the fragments were separated according to their size, and the result was a pattern of distinctive bands

that identified the person. Now, short tandem repeat (STR) profiling is the method of choice. STR profiling is advantageous because it doesnt require restriction enzymes. The chromosomal locations for STRs are known and, therefore, it is possible to subject only these locations to PCR and use gel electrophoresis to arrive at a band pattern that is different for each person. The band patterns are different because each person has their own number of repeats at the different locations. The new method of doing DNA fingerprints today does away with the need to use gel electrophoresis because the DNA fragments are fluorescently labeled. Which of the following is an application of PCR? a. When the DNA matches that of a virus or mutated gene, it is known that a viral infection, genetic disorder, or cancer is present. b. DNA fingerprinted from blood or tissues at a crime scene is used to convict criminals and to acquit innocent suspects. c. DNA fingerprinting through STR profiling was extensively used to identify the victims of the September 11 terrorist attack. d. Relatives can be found, paternity suits can be settled, and genetic disorders can be detected. e. All of these are applications of PCR. 8. Techniques have been developed to introduce foreign genes into the eggs of animals. When these eggs are fertilized, the resulting offspring are transgenic animals. Using this technique, many types of animal eggs have taken up the

gene for bovine growth hormone (bGH). The procedure has been used to produce larger fish, chicken, cows, pigs, rabbits and sheep. Gene farming, the use of transgenic farm animals to produce pharmaceuticals is being pursued by many firms. Genes that code for therapeutic and diagnostic proteins are incorporated into an animals DNA, and the proteins appear in the animals milk. Plans are underway to produce drugs for the treatment of cystic fibrosis, cancer, blood diseases, and other disorders by this method. Which of the following statements with regard to genetically modified animals is correct? a. Animals are engineered to have a human protein in their milk b. Transgenic animals are produced by introducing foreign genes into their eggs c. Some transgenic animals produce bovine growth hormone which is used to produce larger farm animals d. Gene farming is being pursued by many firms to produce drugs for the treatment of cystic fibrosis and cancer in animal milk e. All of these are correct. 9. Gene therapy is the manipulation of an individuals genes to treat a disorder. Viruses can be used to ferry a normal gene into the body, and so can liposomes. Nasal sprays are also used to introduce genes into patients. On the other hand, sometimes the gene is injected directly into a particular region of the body. During ex vivo gene therapy, the gene is inserted into cells that have been removed and then returned to the body. During in vivo gene therapy,

the gene is delivered directly into the body. Which of the following delivery methods is not used to introduce genes into human beings for gene therapy? a. Liposomes b. Nasal sprays c. Adenoviruses d. Electric currents e. a, b, and c are correct 10.The study of whole genomes is called genomics. A genome is the complete genetic makeup of an organism. Thanks to the Human Genome Project (HGP), researchers now know the sequence of the 6 billion base pairs along the length of the human 46 chromosomes. So far, researchers have found only 20,500 human genes that code for proteins; the rest of our DNA consists of regions that do Genetics
1.

not code for a protein. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the HGP? a. First, investigators developed a laboratory procedure that would allow them to decipher a short sequence of base pairs, and then instruments became available that could carry out sequencing automatically. b. Now, modern instruments can automatically analyze up to two million base pairs of DNA in a 24-hour period. c. The DNA analyzed came from sperm DNA and white blood cells of females. d. The male and female donors of DNA were of European, African, North and South American, and Asian ancestry. e. All of these are correct

2.

C-1 to ribose glycosidic bond Base Pairing in DNA In samples of DNA isolated from two unidentified species of bacteria, X and Y, adenine makes up 32% and 17%, respectively, of the total bases. One of these species was isolated from a hot spring (64 C). Suggest which species is the thermophilic bacterium. a. X b. Y c. Both are from hot springs d. Cannot be determined without further information about its nature. In a classical Mendel cross, we obtained Red and green flowers in 3:1 ratio. If you go to farm and pick up 3 plants in random, what is the probability to obtain 2 Red and 1 Green? a. 1/64

b. 27/64 c. 32/64 d.
3.

In a normal cross between tall and dwarf pea plant, the F2 monohybrid ration is found to be 3:1. If you pick up 3 plants in random, what is the probability that at most 2 plants are tall? a. 37/64 b. 36/64 c. 27/64 d. 9/64

4.

For entertainment on a Friday night, a genetics professor proposed that his children diagram a polynucleotide

strand of DNA. Having learned about DNA in preschool, his 5year-old daughter was able to draw a polynucleotide strand, but she made a few mistakes.

What is the mode of inheritance in the above diagram? a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive a. 9 b. 6 c. 8 d. At least 10 In a DNA molecule, the linking number is 9 and write is -1. Then its twisting number will be a. 10 b. 11 c. 12 d. 9 In some sheep, the presence of horns is produced by an Autosomal allele that is dominant in males and recessive in females. A horned female is crossed with a hornless male. One of the resulting F1 females is crossed with a hornless male. What proportion of the male and female progeny from this cross will have horns? a. of male and of females b. of males and of females c. of males and none of females d. of males and none of females Consider the following pedigree tree c. Sex linked dominant d. Sex linked recessive
8.

5.

6.

Two different triats affecting pod characteristics in garden pea plants are encoded by genes found on chromosome 5. Narrow pod is recessive to normal pod; yellow pod is recesiive to green pod. A true breeding plant with narrow, green pods was crossed to a true-breeding plant with normal, yellow pods. The F1 offsprings were then crossed to plant with narrow, yellow pods. The following results were obtained 144 normal green pods, 150 normal yellow pods, 11 narrow yellow pods, 9 normal green pods. How far apart these two genes? a. b. c. d. 1 mu 12mu 6.4 mu 32.4 mu

7.

9.

Genes X, Y and Z are located on one chromosome. Cross-over frequency Cross over Frequency between three genes is:

Cross over Frequency 36% 10% 26%

Gene pairs X-Z Y-Z X-Y

2. The organelle of C3 plants where glyoxylate is formed is a. Chloroplast b. Peroxisome c. Mitochondria d. Cytosol 3. The number of photons needed for the evolution of one molecule of oxygen is a. 8 b. 2 c. 12 d. 18 4. Quantum yield of photosynthesis is ______. a. 13.5 % b. 8 % c. 13% d. 12.5% 5. The specific energy source for the reaction ADP + phosphate ATP by the enzyme ATP synthetase (CF1 Coupling Factor) in thylakoid membranes is: a. Movement of electrons between Photosystem I and Photosystem II b. Oxidation of Water c. Oxidation of NADPH d. Absorption of photons by chloroplast pigments e. Higher concentration of H+ inside versus outside the thylakoid membranes 6. Light Compensation point in photosynthesis is the light intensity when rate of respiration and rate of photosynthesis exactly balance each other. Consider the following statements. A. A terrestrial plant will have higher light compensation point than an aquatic plant B. An aquatic plant will have higher light compensation point than a terrestrial plant C. A terrestrial plant and an aqueous plant will have equal light compensation points D. Continuous high intensity light increases the rate of photosynthesis

Which one of the following best represents the gene location on the chromosome?

Two genes are located on the same chromosome and are known to be 12 map units apart. An AABB individual is crossed to an aabb individual to produce AaBb offspring. The AaBb offspring are then crossed to aabb individuals. If this cross produces 1000 offsprings. What are the predicted no. of offsprings with each of the 4 genotypes: AaBb, aaBb and aabb? a. 60 Aabb, 440 aaBb, 440 AaBb and 60 aabb
10.

b. 0 Aabb, 0 aabb, 440 AaBb and 440 aabb c. 440 Aabb, 440 aaBb, 60 AaBb and 60 aabb d. 60 Aabb, 60 aaBb, 440 AaBb and 440 aabb Photosynthesis 1. In C4 plants, synthesis of glucose occurs in a. Spongy cells b. Bundle sheath cells c. Mesophyll cells d. Palisade cells

E. Aquatic plants have low light compensation points and low saturation levels Which of the following statements are true? a. A and D b. B and D c. C and E d. A and E 7. CO2 compensation point in photosynthesis is CO2 concentration at which net gaseous exchange is zero for a given light intensity. For most temperate plants CO2 compensation point is 50-100 ppm. Consider the following statements. A. If atmospheric CO2 concentration is 300 ppm, respiration exceeds photosynthesis B. If atmospheric CO2 concentration is 300 ppm, photosynthesis exceeds respiration C. CO2 compensation point for C3 is less than that for C4 D. CO2 compensation point for C4 is less than that of C3 Which of the following statements are correct? a. A and C b. A and D c. B and C d. B and D 8. At low O2 concentration, CO2 compensation point a. In C3 is lower b. In C4 is lower c. In CAM is lower d. CO2 compensation point is independent of O2 concentration 9. Which of the following statement is true? a. C4 plants generally respond less to elevated CO2 levels than C3 plants b. C3 plants generally respond less to elevated CO2 levels than C4 plants c. Long term exposure of high levels of CO2 increases photosynthesis in CAM plants

d. Long term exposure of high levels of CO2 has generally an excitatory effect on photosynthesis 10. Nitric Oxide is capable of regulating the activity of photophosphorylation in chloroplasts. Nitrites and Nitrates do not show any inhibitory effects however Nitric Oxide shows inhibitory effects on photosynthesis which are reversible. Which of the following steps are inhibited by NO in photosynthesis? a. Photolysis of water via oxygen evolving complex b. Generation of Light induced pH gradient c. Exciton transfer from LHCs to reaction center d. Reduction of NADP to NADPH and simultaneous oxidation of Ferredoxin

1.