Edexcel International London Examinations GCE Ordinary Level

Mark Scheme with Examiners Report

London Examinations Ordinary Level GCE in Biology (7040)

January 2004

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April 2004 Order Code UO 014773 All the material in this publication is copyright London Qualifications Limited 2004

BIOLOGY 7040, MARK SCHEME

Symbols used in the mark scheme ; indicates separate mark points / indicates alternatives eq allow for correct equivalent max maximum Paper 1
1. (a) (i) use of an organism; to feed on/prey on/kill/ reduce numbers of a pest; suitable example of named predator; and named pest; reduces the amount of predation / prevents it being eaten/ hunted eq; (2)

(ii)

(2)

(b)

(i)

(1)

(ii) (c)

in the blood (stream) / circulatory / lymp(hatic) system;

(1)

lead to less photosynthesis; more carbon dioxide in atmosphere; less oxygen; more soil erosion / desertification / description of; less transpiration / rainfall; less food / disruption of food chain / extinction / less biodiversityX (i) metamorphosis;

(3 max)

(d)

(1)

(ii)

egg; tadpole; adult;

any order

(3)

(e)

specific / does not affect other organisms; does not build up in food chains; does not pollute (the environment) / does not harm environment; pests do not become resistant;

(2 max)

(Total 15 marks)

2.

(a)

72-58/72 X100 or 14 X72 X100; wrong fraction=0 19.4%; reduction / drop / minus sign given; (-19.4 = 3 marks) (19.4 = 2 marks) (minus ( - ) anything = 1 mark)

(3 marks)

(ii) Heart volume becomes larger/ less beats to transfer same volume of blood / each beat provides more blood; (b) heart volume increases; lung capacity / volume is unchanged; (c) lower resting heart rate therefore larger capacity to increase rate during exercise; larger heart volume therefore more blood / oxygen / glucose (to muscles); greater lung capacity therefore more oxygen (to muscles) / more carbon dioxide removed ; ventilation rate is higher therefore more oxygen in / more carbon dioxide out; respiration can be aerobic therefore more energy released / less lactic acid accumulates;

(1)

(2)

(4 max)

(Total 10 marks)

3.

(a)

FSH / follicle stimulating hormone Oestrogen;

follicle development; oestrogen release; inhibits FSH release; promotes LH release; Repairs / growth of uterus lining; develops secondary sexual characteristics / eg; promotes ovulation; develops / growth of corpus luteum; promotes progesterone release; inhibits FSH release; inhibits LH release; maintains / keeps uterus lining;

LH / luteinising hormone;

Progesterone;

(9 max) (1)

(b)

(i) (ii)

testosterone; deep voice; facial hair; body shape / more muscle pubic / body hair; growth of reproductive organs; Mark first two only

(2)

(c)

range GH treatment; same size / sex / species / age / strain etc; replication / more than 1 cow for each treatment ; measure mass / stated measurement eg height / girth; time more than a month ; same control factor 1 e.g. place / environment / conditions/ housing; same control factor 2 eg food / temperature / water / lighting, etc; (i) insulin; pancreas / islets of Langerhans; lowers blood glucose; (glucose) to glycogen; protein; digested; low less respiration; lack of ATP / energy / tiredness;

(6 max)

(d)

(3 max)

(ii)

high

cells lose water / thirst / dehydration; by osmosis; damaged / crinkle /sticky / block blood vessels; blood viscous /thickens / flows less easily / heart forced to work harder; ======= (4 max)

4.

(a)

stamen; anther; filament; carpel; stigma; style; ovary; ovule; receptacle; petals / corolla / named petal; nectary; sepals /calyx:

(7 max)

(b) pollination; pollen transferred to stigma; from anther; pollen grains germinates; pollen tube grows down style; enters ovule / micropyle; nuclei moves down pollen tube; male gamete / nucleus fuses with female gamete / nucleus / fertilisation; zygote formed; becomes embryo; endosperm formed / integuments become testa / seed coat; ovule becomes seed; (8 max) (c) same number of seeds; same strain / variety / genotype of seeds; same volume of water; same light conditions; method of temperature control; repeat for two stated temperatures; leave for stated days; medium for seeds / soil / cotton wool / paper etc ; count number germinated; (6 max) (d) water / moisture; allow chemical reactions /enzyme action / digestion; oxygen; allow respiration; light; to break dormancy; (4)

5.

(a)

(i)

carbon dioxide; water; chlorophyll; (2) higher temperature; enzymes work quicker; higher carbon dioxide; more light; more photosynthesis ; more carbohydrate made; more respiration; (3 max)

(ii)

(b) Use of water plant; control 1 temperature / mass of weed / availability of carbon dioxide etc; control 2 method of collecting gas / count bubbles / measure volume; for stated time ; using two different light intensities; method of altering intensity / move lamp further away from plant (eq); expected results; (7 max) (c) (i) (ii) (iii) carbon hydrogen oxygen; carbon hydrogen oxygen; carbon hydrogen oxygen nitrogen (sulphur); (1) (1) (1)

(d) in mouth food chewed / masticated / mixed with saliva / bolus formed; swallowed / moved by peristalsis; food churned / mixed by stomach; in small intestine / duodenum; bile added; neutralises stomach acid; provides suitable pH for enzyme action; emulsifies fat / forms tiny droplets; increases surface area for enzymes to act on; lipase; produced from pancreas / wall of small intestine; digests lipid into fatty acids and glycerol; absorbed into villi; villi increase surface area; carried in lacteal / lymphatic system ; (10 max)

SK

E~F=

producers; primary consumers / herbivores; secondary consumers / carnivores; tertiary consumers; scavengers; decomposers / saprophytes / saprotrophsX EQ=~F EF=

EF=

breakdown / digest / decompose / decay / recycle; (ignore feed) dead / non living/organic material; into inorganic / minerals / salts / elements / nutrients; == ============(PF hot + cold / range of temperatures; method of changing temperature eg incubator / oven / refrigerator; control 1; control 2; (eg same wetness / same bread etc) replication; measure area / diameter / radius / mass; time one day to one weekX ESF

EF=

EF=

EF=

===========================EF

bacteria supplied with food or examples / warmth /moisture; digest / breakdown; cellulose /cell walls; enzyme / cellulase; glucose (for sheep); both organisms (bacteria + sheep) benefit; Allow once in (i) or (ii) ERF nitrogen-fixing / Rhizobium; supplied with glucose / minerals / vitamins / amino acids; produce nitrates; needed for plant growth / amino acids / protein; both organisms (bacteria + plant) benefit; Allow once in (i) or (ii) EPF

EF=

named example eg Plasmodium; feeds on / off; host; named example of host; causes harm; EQF

7.

(a) (i)

both down concentration gradient; both increase with increasing gradient; both increase with temperature; (2 max) osmosis movement of water; osmosis requires partially permeable membrane / diffusion does not; red blood cells; transport oxygen; haemoglobin; transport carbon dioxide; plasma; transports substance 1; transports substance 2; (carbon dioxide / hormones / glucose/ amino acids /fatty acids / glycerol / plasma proteins / antibodies / urea / salts / vitamins / cells ) heat; (6 max) white blood cells; lymphocytes; produce antibodies / antitoxins; kill / destroy bacteria / viruses / pathogens; phagocytes / phagocytosis; engulf / eat / feed on bacteria / viruses / pathogens / foreign organisms; platelets; clotting; prevent entry of pathogens; (5 max) large surface area to volume ratio; short distance for diffusion; uses diffusion ; (3) potometer; water tight / vaseline/ set up under water etc.; (cover with oil / etc) two humidity levels stated; method of varying humidity; movement of air bubble / column of water; leave for stated / record time; replication; control other factor eg temperature / light intensity/ same/ similar plant etc; expected results; (7)

(ii)

(2)

(b) (i)

(ii)

========Ec)

(d)

Paper 2

1.

(a)

A- trachea / larynx / voice box / windpipe; B- bronchus / bronchi; C- rib;

(3)

(b)

flat/ down/ lowered/ straightens eq; (ignore contracts/ stretched) relax; lowered / inwards / drops / downwards; (ignore back to normal / not raised) more / high(er) ; low(er) / less; high(er) / more; less/ no oxygen; less / no glucose; less/ no respiration / less energy produced; (reject energy transported) build up of carbon dioxide / no removal of carbon dioxide ; build up of lactic acid; fall in pH; enzymes denatured;

(6)

(c)

(3 max) (Total 12 marks)

2.

(a) (b)

three / C E G; female; albino / white skinned; square; half shaded;

(1) (2) (ignore genotypes) (2) (ignore parents) Probability 1/4

(c)

Description zero A and B having a child with albinism D and Ps next child being a girl D and P having a child with albinism D and P having a female child with albinism 1/8

1/2

One

EPF Eq~=U=~F

3.

(a)

(i)

lines; points x 3;;; key / lines labelled; more ions absorbed with oxygen / group A; at a faster rate; correct reference. to figures; oxygen; (aerobic) respiration; energy available; active transport of ions;

(5)

(ii)

(3)

(iii)

(3 max)

(b)

No / less oxygen (to roots); no / less (aerobic) respiration; no / less absorption of minerals / active transport; roots (cells) die; chlorophyll;

(2 max) (1) (Total 14 marks)

(c)

QK=

(a) (b)

B C F; X;

(1)

osmosis / water moved out / plasmolysed; more water in cell / less water outside cell/ reference to water concentration. gradient/ greater salt concentration outside / external solution has higher osmotic potential / lower water potential; =EPF (Total 4 marks)

5.

(a)

(i) (ii)

glucose / oxygen; carbon dioxide; water;

(ignore ammonia)

(1) (2)

(b) (c)

nitrogen; temperature rise / overheated / eq; fungus killed / no or reduced growth; Enzymes denatured / destroyed; less mycoprotein / less SCP./.single cell protein / less fermentation; ABCD(i) (ii) nucleus; cell wall / chitin; cytoplasm; vacuole; (dietary) fibre; less energy; no / less animal fat; no / less cholesterol; (more )(dietary) fibre; accept converse

(1)

(3 max)

(d)

(4) (1)

(e)

(2 max)

(Total 14 marks) 6. (a) (i) (ii) carbon; photosynthesis; respiration; respiration; combustion / burning; (1)

(4)

(b)

bacteria; fungi; saprobiont / saprotroph / saprophyte; No / less plants / deforestation; No / less photosynthesis / process A; No /less carbon dioxide absorbed / more in environment; No / less respiration / process B; No / less carbon dioxide released / less in environmentX

(2 max)

(c)

(3 max) =====(Total 10 marks)

NM

7.

(a)

(i) (ii) (iii)

2 to 6 (years); 8 (years); young ones escape the net / not allowed to catch (illegal) / released after caught; small in size; few old / big fish; less reproduction / laying of eggs;

(1) (1) (2)

(iv)

(2)

(b) Step Explanation aerobic; respiration; energy (for growth); stop decomposition / decay / break down; by bacteria /eq; prevent reduction of oxygen; prevent eutrophication; reject pollution / cleaning etc stop predators / birds eq; eating / removing fish; stop fish escaping;

The water is kept oxygenated

Faeces is removed from the water

Tanks containing the fish are covered with nets

2 max per box (6) (Total 12 marks)

NN

8.

(a)

upper epidermis; palisade (mesophyll); spongy (mesophyll); lower epidermis; (i) Q more chloroplasts / chlorophyll; absorbs / traps more light; near upper surface / near light source / gets lots of light/ eq.;

(4)

(b)

(3)

(c)

xylem- transports water/ mineral ions; phloem- transports sucrose/ amino acids / translocation; (Ignore food / sugars /glucose)

(2)

(d)

Letter P Q R S

Section number 4 3 1 2

(4) (Total 13 marks)

9.

(a)

(i)

A Mitosis mitotic; B Meiosis / meiotic; fertilisation / fusion; sperm egg zygote white blood cell red blood cell 23; 23; 46; 46; 0;

(2) (1)

(ii) (b)

(5) (Total 8 marks)

10.

(a)

ticks in third, fourth and sixth boxes; ( 4 ticks mark -1, 5/6 ticks zero) (i) (ii) glomerulus / (renal) capsule / (Bowmans) capsule; first / proximal convoluted tubule ;

(3)

(b)

(1) (1) (Total 5 marks)

NO

BIOLOGY 7040, CHIEF EXAMINERS REPORT

PAPER 1 General Comments
The standard of performance of the candidates taking the examination was high with many candidates scoring well across both papers. Few candidates encountered difficulty understanding the questions and there was little evidence of students running out of time on either of the papers. The quality of English on the majority of scripts was good with only a very few candidates having difficulty making their responses clear. One feature that the examiners commented upon this year was the improved response on the experimental design items on the questions in Paper 1 Section B. Section A Question 1 This question required candidates to answer questions based on the printed passage using their knowledge and understanding of biological facts and principles. Good candidates were able to score well with marks of 13 or better being common. (a) This part was generally answered well with even the weakest candidates scoring one mark for use of an organism. Some candidates did not earn the second mark as they did not specify use of an organism to reduce the numbers of a pest. Most candidates were able to give appropriate examples of biological control correctly identifying both control organism and the pest species it is used to control. (b) Most candidates were able to describe the effect of producing toxins and how this would reduce the amount of predation. A few candidates suggested that the toxin would pass to other organs by diffusion or by contact but most correctly suggested the circulation as the means of transport. (c) Many candidates were able to describe the effects of removal of vegetation as soil erosion and effect on the food supply. The best candidates were also able to describe the reduction in photosynthesis and the effects on the oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere. (d) Almost all candidates identified metamorphosis and many also correctly listed egg, tadpole and adult. (e) Candidates knew the advantages of using biological control such as it not affecting other organisms, not polluting the environment and not accumulating in food chains. Question 2 This question required candidates to examine data on the effect of training on a male student using various physiological measures and a comparison with an international athlete. (a) Although most of the candidates were able to calculate the percentage change in heart rate, very few earned full marks since they did not state or show that the change was a decrease or fall in heart rate. Candidates were able to suggest that the change in heart rate was due to an increase in heart volume with the best candidates going on to describe how more blood could therefore be pumped in each beat of the heart. NP

(b) This question was generally well answered with candidates noting the increase in heart volume and that the lung capacity did not change. (c) Several of the best candidates did not gain credit on this section because they failed to link the difference in the measures shown in the table with benefits that the athlete would derive from these differences. For example the larger heart volume would provide more oxygen and glucose to maintain respiration in the muscle tissue. Merely stating the differences in the measures without linking them to improved performance did not earn credit. Section B In this examination series, although a few of the weaker candidates failed to follow the rubric, most answered three questions as instructed. The questions are designed to be of the same demand and each contains approximately the same number of marks requiring knowledge and understanding and requiring skills and processes. Candidates are getting better at being able to describe experiments they could perform. Centres could help candidates by looking at past papers and encouraging students to practise such items. Question 3 This was quite a popular question being answered by approximately 60% of candidates. (a) Most candidates were able to name three hormones correctly but not all of these candidates were correctly able to assign functions to the named hormones. In particular the role of oestrogen in thickening the uterine lining and the role of progesterone in maintaining the uterine lining were confused. (b) Candidates were better at naming the male sex hormone testosterone and most could give two of the male secondary sexual characteristics, facial hair, body hair and deep voice being the most common answers. (c) The weakest candidates did not attempt this part. This is a pity as the mark allocation for this type of investigation credits the same points of experimental design as any laboratory study. So, as can be seen on the mark scheme, candidates should have chosen to investigate two groups of cows. These should be of the same age, sex, size, breed. The cows should be weighed and their mass recorded. They should then be randomly assigned to two equal sized groups. One group of cows would receive a regular injection of GH, the other group no injection. The cows should be kept in the same conditions, the same sized pens, the same amount and type of food, same water supply etc. The cows should be kept in these conditions for six months then reweighed and the percentage change in mass for each cow determined. The mean values can then be calculated and the two groups compared. (d) Candidates were often able to identify the hormone as insulin and give its site of production. They did less well at describing its effects and often merely gave its role as controlling blood glucose rather than lowering blood glucose if its level rose. Only a few candidates described the effect of low or high blood glucose, successfully explaining the lack of energy due to less respiration and the osmotic effects of high blood glucose leading to dehydration and change in the blood viscosity.

NQ

Question 4 This question was the least popular with approximately 25% of candidates answering it. However, those candidates who chose his question often scored very well with many gaining the full 25 marks for their answers. (a) Most candidates drew clear, well-labelled diagrams, correctly identifying the major structures in the flower. (b) The descriptions of the events from pollination to fertilisation were often of a very good standard and those candidates who had carefully learned the material gained full credit. Some weaker candidates confused the terms and events so that pollen grains descended through tubes etc. (c) This experiment design was very variable with some candidates describing a sensible experiment in detail but others choosing the wrong experiment completely. Candidates who scored well were able to describe the method of temperature control such as using a refrigerator to provide cool temperatures and an incubator or an oven to provide warm temperatures. They also described using the same number of seeds in each temperature, grown on the same medium (such as cotton wool), soaked in the same volume of water. The seeds were then left in these conditions for 2 days and the number of seeds germinating at each temperature counted. (d) Most candidates were able to give and explain two requirements for germination. The most common answers given were oxygen for respiration and water to activate enzymes. Question 5 This question was the most popular being answered by 87% of the candidates. (a) Most candidates were able to give two substances required by a plant for photosynthesis. A few suggested sunlight which earned no credit. The second part of this item required candidates to suggest why greenhouse crops grow faster. Some were able to describe how increased temperature, artificial lighting and increasing carbon dioxide concentration would lead to an increased rate of photosynthesis. Other candidates suggested water availability and fertiliser provision but these were not credited as these can be provided outside a greenhouse. (b) Many candidates were able to outline an experiment to show how varying the light intensity provided to a water plant, such as Elodea, could alter the rate of photosynthesis. These accounts often gained full credit. Weaker responses used potted plants kept in dark or light conditions and then tested for starch. These responses earned limited credit. The experiment in which a light source is placed at various distances from a beaker containing pond weed and the rate of oxygen evolution is measured, was the best and simplest solution to this question. (c) Candidates who had learnt the composition of the molecules gained full marks. (d) Many candidates answered this question well with some excellent answers gaining full marks.

NR

Question 6 This question was quite popular being answered by about 58% of the candidates. (a) Most candidates who chose this question were able to list the appropriate terms from a food web. (b) Some responses described the saphrophytic organisms as feeding on decaying organisms. The examiners required a description of the digestion of dead or non living organic material to release elements or minerals. The experimental design item in this question required candidates to describe how varying the temperature might affect the growth of the fungus. The candidates who were able to describe how the temperature could be varied and how the growth of the fungus could be measured earned credit. Providing a time scale and describing control variables led to full marks. (c) Many responses earned high marks with candidates generally better able to describe the relationship for the bacteria of a sheep gut than for the bacteria in the root nodules of a leguminous plant. (d) Responses to this item were very good with many gaining full marks for detailed and accurate accounts. Question 7 This was quite a popular question, being answered by about 57% of candidates. (a) Candidates often described how diffusion and osmosis require a concentration gradient and some earned credit for describing both processes as passive. The differences between the two were often confused. Some gained credit for noting that osmosis is the movement of water but many confused solvent and solution concentrations. Other responses earned credit for describing the presence of a selectively permeable membrane in osmosis. (b) The examiners were impressed by the knowledge shown by many candidates on this item. (c) Here most candidates knew that Amoeba obtains its substances by diffusion with many correctly describing the large surface area to volume ratio as important. (d) Candidates who described use of a potometer to measure the rate of water loss from a cut leafy shoot could gain full credit. As with other items on the paper the examiners were expecting an account of how the humidity could be varied taking suitable measures over time and controlling other variables. Credit was also given for suggesting that the results would show a reduced rate of transpiration as humidity increased.

NS

PAPER 2 Question 1 Most candidates appreciated that A was the trachea and that B was a bronchus. Bronchiole was occasionally seen as the answer for B but was not credited. A surprising number failed to recognise C as a rib suggesting a degree of unfamiliarity with a labelled diagram of the thorax in section. In part (b), the better candidates understood that the position of the diaphragm would be lowered, the external intercostal muscles would relax, the ribcage would be lowered, the volume of the thorax would be more and that the pressure in the thorax decreases during inhalation and increases during exhalation. The weaker students tended to struggle with this latter observation. Candidates need to appreciate that the 3 marks available in part (c) were for three distinct biological points. Most appreciated that a lack of oxygen would be a factor but only the very best gained extra marks by making reference to lack of glucose and respiration, and the build up of carbon dioxide or lactic acid and the consequent effect of low pH on enzyme function. Question 2 Those candidates who looked carefully at the diagram understood that A and B had three children who were homozygous dominant. Genotype phrases in answer to part (b) were not credited. The better candidates stated that F was female for one mark and an albino for the second mark. Once again, candidates are encouraged to look at the mark allocation as a guide to the detail required in their answers. In part (c), one mark was given for a square shape and one mark was given for any shape that was half shaded. So, for example, a fully shaded square was credited with one mark as was a half shaded circle. Most appreciated that the probability of D and Ps next child being a girl was a half and that the probability of having a child with albinism was a quarter, but only the very best candidates understood that the probability of having a girl with albinism was an eighth. Question 3 Most candidates were able to score highly on the graphical component of this question. The most common errors involved joining the points with curved lines instead of straight lines as requested, failure to draw lines to the origin, and failure to label each line in a way that distinguished the line for group A from the line for group B. Very few candidates made plotting errors. In (a) (ii) most candidates recognised that more sulphate ions were absorbed by group A, but only the better candidates supported their description with reference to data and also appreciated that the rate of uptake also differed. Part (a) (iii) was challenging for most candidates with only the stronger ones linking the role of oxygen in respiration to provision of the energy for active uptake of ions. Part (b) was equally challenging as most candidates failed to appreciate that waterlogged soil would be lacking in the oxygen needed. Most candidates recalled that magnesium is needed for the manufacture of chlorophyll. Question 4 Most candidates scored highly on this question. In part (a) a few failed to appreciate that the parts not found in typical animal cells was being asked for. In part (b) most students correctly chose X and understood that water moved out of the cell. Only the better candidates explained why water moved out of the cell by making a correct reference to the water concentration inside and outside the cell.

NT

Question 5 A precise answer was required in (a) (i). As such, glucose or oxygen were accepted, but air was not. Most students recalled that carbon dioxide and water are substances produced by aerobic respiration. In part (b), the element nitrogen was required as the answer and most candidates were aware of this. Part (c) required candidates to apply biological principles to an unfamiliar situation and most successfully appreciated that there would be a temperature rise that would kill or reduce the growth of the fungus by denaturing enzymes, and that these events would result in less mycoprotein. The structure of fungal hyphae is understood by most candidates. The most difficulty was experienced when recalling that A represented a nucleus, perhaps because students are not clear about the multinucleate nature of fungal tissue. This might also explain why some candidates thought that A represented a food storage molecule and then thought that D represented the nucleus. Part (c) was well answered by most students. Question 6 Parts (a) and (b) were well answered with most candidates showing excellent knowledge of the carbon cycle. Part (c) was more challenging but most appreciated the impact of urbanisation on plant populations and the consequent effects on plant photosynthesis and plant respiration. Question 7 In part (a) most candidates interpreted the graphs to state that the age range for fish caught in the area of over-fishing was 2 6 years, and that 8-year-old fish were most at risk of being caught in the area of less fishing. Similarly, most appreciated that young fish are small enough to escape the nets. Those candidates who knew that legislation exists to bar the capture of small fish were credited. Only the better candidates actually used the information in the graphs to explain that the scarcity of older fish would result in a reduction in reproduction. Part (b) examined basic principles of fish farming but only the better candidates scored highly, appreciating that oxygen is important for respiration and that bacterial decomposition of faeces may result in a fatal drop in the level of this important gas. Covering tanks with nets to prevent predation was a concept that half the candidates seemed to appreciate. Question 8 Candidates lost marks in part (a) by failing to name structures P and S precisely. The terms upper and lower epidermis were required, and the term epidermis alone was not credited. The recall of structure Q as the palisade mesophyll and structure R as the spongy mesophyll was successfully achieved by most candidates. In part (b), the better candidates chose region Q and explained that this region had more chloroplasts to absorb light and was near to the upper surface to facilitate this process. Credit of one mark was given to those candidates who chose region R or region P providing they gave a sensible explanation. No marks were awarded to the few candidates who chose region S. While most students know the function of xylem, very few appreciate that the phloem transports sucrose. Answers stating food, sugars or glucose were not credited. Part (d) was well answered by most candidates and gave a spread of marks indicative of a question that discriminates between ability levels.

NU

Question 9 Most candidates knew that mitosis and meiosis were the names of the types of cell division, but only the better candidates correctly chose mitosis for A and meiosis for B. In (a) (i), it was apparent that the process of fertilisation is understood by the majority of students. However, while most students were aware that the haploid number for gametes is 23 and that the diploid number for human cells is 46, very few were aware that red blood cells lack a nucleus and as a result no chromosomes would be found. Question 10 Part (a) discriminated very well with the most able candidates ticking the third, fourth and sixth boxes. Those who ticked all six, or five boxes, were awarded no marks. Those who ticked four boxes were marked according to the mark scheme and then had one mark deducted. Most appreciated the role of the glomerulus and Bowmans capsule in ultrafiltration. However, a large number of candidates believed that selective reabsorption of glucose takes place at the loop of Henle. The correct response of the proximal convoluted tubule was seen less often.

BIOLOGY 7040, GRADE BOUNDARIES

Grade Lowest mark for award of grade

134

113

93

83

58

Note: Grade boundaries may vary from year to year and from subject to subject, depending on the demands of the question paper.

NV

Edexcel Publications, Adamsway, Mansfield, Notts, NG18 4LN, UK Tel + 44 1623 450 781 Fax + 44 1623 450 481 Order Code UO 014773 For more information on Edexcel qualifications please contact us: International Customer Relations Unit, Stewart House, 32 Russell Square, London, WC1B 5DN, UK Tel + 44 20 7758 5656 Fax + 44 20 7758 5959 International@edexcel.org.uk www.edexcel-international.org London Qualifications Limited, Registered in England and Wales No. 4496750 Registered Office: Stewart House, 32 Russell Square, London WC1B 5DN, UK