Aviation Law

Feedback Paper 2 1. An Examiners authorisation will last no more than: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. 2 years 3 years Expiry of his/her medical certificate Validity of his/her type rating

ATC radar operator cannot distinguish between 7500 and 7700 on the radar display. An aircraft is believed to be tinder Unlawful Interference. Auto display of 7500 and 7700 is not available. The radar controller to confirm suspicion should: (a) (b) (c) (d) Select Select Select Select 7600 7700 7500 7000 followed followed followed followed by by by by 7700 7600 7700 7700

3.

What is a strayed aircraft? (a) (b) (c) (d) One that has gone significantly off-track One that is lost and has reported so to ATC A combination of a and b. One which its position has not been established by ATC

4.

What is a State required to provide to an aircraft subjected to Unlawful Interference? (a) (b) (c) (d) ATC services, navigational aids and permission to land ATC services, navigational aids, permission to land and re-fuelling Arc services, navigational aids permission to land and catering for passengers It must inform all aircraft in the area concerning the Unlawful Interference

5.

In ICAO Annex 17 (Security), what does Security mean? (a) (b) (c) (d) To safeguard international Unlawful Interference To safeguard international To safeguard international jacking To safeguard international terrorism civil aviation operations against civil aviation operations civil aviation operations against hicivil aviation operations against

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6.

Runway edge lights are (not including displaced thresholds): (a) (b) (c) (d) fixed variable white fixed variable white or yellow flashing white fixed red

7.

For what period are SAR services to be provided by a Contacting State? (a) (b) (c) (d) During the hours of operation of an FIR On a 24 hour basis 2 hours before until 2 horns after the first flight arrives and the last departing flight within an FIR During the hours of both commercial and military air operations within the FIR

8.

A proficiency test took place on 15th April. Validity of last test was 30th June. The period for the next test can be up to but not exceed: (a) (b) (c) (d) 30th April next year 15th October same year 30th October same year 31st December same year

9.

What is the distance from the end of a runway that an aircraft should be identified for separation to be applied? (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 nm 1 nm 5 nm 10 nm

10.

The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is carried out: (a) (b) (c) (d) With agreement of the receiving unit Automatically at the control boundary With the agreement of the pilot Through a central control unit

11.

A control zone extends laterally from the centre of an aerodrome or aerodromes in the direction of approaching aircraft for at least: (a) (b) (c) (d) 7 nm 5 nm 15 nm 20 nm

12.

Approach control is provided for: (a) (b) (c) (d) All arriving and departing controlled flights All arriving IFR traffic Traffic within the CIA All VFR traffic

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13.

How will a member State withdraw from the Tokyo Convention? (a) (b) (c) (d) By By By By informing informing informing informing ICAO all member States the UN all Contracting States to the UN

14.

A racetrack is: (a) (b) (c) (d) a right hand circuit pattern taking off and landing traffic the same runway traffic landing and taking-off again within 1 hour and returning to the same airport of the original departure. a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern

15.

An integrated aeronautical information package consists of: (a) (b) (c) (d) AIP and amendment service, supplements to the AIP, NOTAMs. Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries. AIP and amendment service, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs, checklists and summaries. AIP and amendment service, supplements to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and summaries. AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and prefIight bulletins

16.

On an ILS procedure Dead Reckoning may be used. DR track will intersect the ILS localiser at: (a) (b) (c) (d) 30 30 45 45 and and and and not not not not more more more more than than than than 5 nm 10 nm 5 nm 10 nm

17.

The State of design shall ensure a structural integrity programme exists for the airworthiness of aircraft with specific information relating to corrosion protection and control with respect to aircraft (a) (b) (c) (d) up to 5700 kg MTOM over 5700 kg MTOM up to 5700 kg MTOM and MLM over 5700 kg MTOM and MLM

18.

A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: (a) (b) (c) (d) An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations An instrument approach procedure utilising azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR An approach using bearing, elevation and, optionally, distance information

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19.

Between two aircraft on the same localiser, with longitudinal separation, the following radar separation must be provided, for wake turbulence: (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 nm 2.5 nm 2 nm 3 nm

20.

In what section of the AIP are details of SIGMET found? (a) (b) (c) (d) GEN ENR AD COMMS

21.

Low intensity obstruction lights on vehicles and moving objects are (a) (b) (c) (d) Flashing green Flashing yellow Steady red Steady blue

22.

What is the delay for a controlled flight after which a flight plan has to be re-filed? (a) (b) (c) (d) 30 30 60 60 minutes minutes minutes minutes EOBT ETD EOBT ETD

23.

What is the speed to allow 2 minute separation between 2 aircraft departing on the same track? (a) (b) (c) (d) + + + + 40 20 15 70 kts kts kts kts

24.

The maximum speed change on a radar approach is (a) (b) (c) (d) 40 kts 5 kts + 10 kts 20 kts

25.

What is the speed limit below 10 000 ft in Class B airspace? (a) (b) (c) (d) 250 kts TAS 250 kts IAS not applicable 200 kts IAS

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26.

The ground signal to aircraft signifying that all personnel have been found is: (a) (b) (c) (d) LL LLL Y ++

27.

A pilot should set a Flight Level on departure at the: (a) (b) (c) (d) Transition Level Transition Altitude As advised by ATC When the pilot decides to

28.

If a pilot cannot comply with a holding pattern the aircraft Commander should: (a) (b) (c) (d) elect to change informing ATC fly a non-standard holding pattern inform ATC and request an alternative clearance follow loss of communications procedure

29.

The obstacle clearance in the primary area of an intermediate approach is: (a) (b) (c) (d) Not more than 150 m Reduces from 300 m to 150 m Equal to or greater than 300 m 500 m in mountainous terrain

30.

To whom is the alerting service provided? (a) (b) (c) (d) All All All All IFR traffic flight-planned aircraft hi-jacked aircraft traffic known to ATC

31.

What Annex contains information concerning Air Traffic Services? (a) (b) (c) (d) Annex Annex Annex Annex 11 10 14 15

32.

The report of Established when flying an NDB approach should be transmitted when the aircraft is within: (a) (b) (c) (d) Half scale deflection 3 5 10

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33.

Aerodrome Reference Code is dependent on Code Element 1 (aeroplane reference field length) and Code Element 2. What is Code Element 2 dependent upon: (a) (b) (c) (d) Wing span and Fuselage width Fuselage width Wing span and inner main gear wheel span and inner main gear wheel span and outer main gear wheel span outer main gear wheel span

34.

What is the distance on final approach within which the controller should suggest that the aircraft executes a missed approach if the aircraft either disappears from the radar for a significant time or the identity of the aircraft is in doubt? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 2 3 4 nm nm nm nm

35.

The maximum distance from the DER that track guidance for a turning departure must be acquired is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 km after the completion of the turn 10 km after the completion of the turn 15 km before the initiation of the turn 20 km before the initiation of the turn

36.

Voice ATIS is transmitted on a: (a) (b) (c) (d) Discrete VHF frequency only Discrete VHF frequency or on voice on VOR VHF frequency or on ILS frequency ILS only

37.

What is one of the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilots Licence? (a) (b) (c) (d) Act as PiC of any aircraft in commercial air transport operations Act as PiC of any aircraft involved in operations other than air transportation Act as a flying instructor Act as PiC of any single pilot aeroplane in commercial air transport operations

38.

Which Annex covers the requirement of licensing of personnel? (a) (b) (c) (d) 4 1 14 7

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39.

Included in the requirements for 1500 hours, an ATPL holder must have (a) (b) (c) (d) 500 hours multipilot operations 500 hours multipilot operations transport category aircraft 500 hours multipilot operations engineering time 500 hours multipilot operations in transport category aircraft including 250 hours as PiC of including up to 150 hours flight including 200 hours night time

40.

The lowest DH for a Cat 1 system is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 100 ft 200 ft 50 ft 350 ft

41.

A captain is authorised in the event that a passenger has committed an offence or is suspected to be about to commit an offence, to: (a) (b) (c) (d) Disable them Require passengers to assist in restraining Request cabin crew to assist Deliver the person to the appropriate authority

42.

Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase? (a) (b) (c) (d) ATC and the FIR The State and ATC The Area Control and the RCC RCC and the FIR

43.

Annex 17 states that each State is responsible for establishing security at: (a) (b) (c) (d) all aerial locations within the FIR at each aerodrome all international airports all international and commercial airports

44.

Arrival and departure documentation is acceptable in the form of: (a) (b) (c) (d) Typewritten only Electronic form only Typewritten and electronic form only Handwritten in block capitals and in ink

45.

Will an aircraft be allowed to land at an ATZ which has not received permission to enter the Zone? (a) (b) (c) (d) No Yes Only if it expedient to do so Only if the aircraft declares an emergency
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46.

Where in the AIP is a list of Location Indicators to be found? (a) (b) (c) (d) GEN COMMS AD AGA

47.

ICAO Annex 17 lays down the rules to establish security measures for passengers with regards to: (a) (b) (c) (d) Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design Cabin baggage and checked baggage Passenger baggage Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods and access control

48.

What is the minimum radar separation? (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 nm 10 nm 3 nm 1 nm

49.

At 1321 UTC an aircraft on an IFR flight is told by ATC to turn immediately left on a heading of 070. At 1322 UTC the Commander discovers that he/she is no longer in radio contact. The commander must return to the flight-planned tack (a) (b) (c) (d) by the On an On an On an most direct intercept of intercept of intercept of route not more than 10 not less than 10 not more than 15

50.

The Chicago convention was formed in: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1929 1944 1969 1958

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Aviation Law
Feedback Paper 2, Answers

A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44

A B C D 45 46 47 48 49 50

A B C D

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Answers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 b c c a a b b d b a 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 b a a d a d b c a a 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 b a a d c a b c b d 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 a c d b b b d b a b 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 b d c c d a d c b b

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