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PHYSICAL SCIENCES 1.

With respect to bonding and electrical conductivity, respectively, sulfur hexafluoride, SF6(g), would be described as: A) covalent and a nonconductor. The passage states that the vast majority of covalent compounds are comprised exclusively of nonmetallic elements, whereas binary ionic compounds are made up of a metal and a nonmetal. Because neither sulfur nor fluorine is a metallic element, sulfur hexafluoride is a covalent compound. The passage also states that aqueous solutions of covalent compounds do not conduct electricity. Sulfur hexafluoride is covalent and a nonconductor. Thus, A is the best answer. 2. Where are nonmetals found in the periodic table? A) Right side The noble gases and halogens are found on the right side of the table. These are nonmetals. Thus, A is the best answer. 3. Which of the following pairs of compounds provides an example of ionic and covalent bonding, respectively? A) HBr(g) and NaCl(s) B) NaCl(s) and NaI(s) C) NaI(s) and NaCl(s) D) NaCl(s) and HBr(g) The passage states that the vast majority of covalent compounds are comprised exclusively of nonmetallic elements, whereas binary ionic compounds are made up of a metal and a nonmetal. Sodium is a metal and chlorine is a nonmetal; consequently, NaCl is an ionic compound. Hydrogen and bromine are both nonmetals, which means HBr is a covalent compound. Thus, D is the best answer. 4. Which of the following compounds has the most ionic character? A) KBr(s) B) CsCl(s) The compound with the greatest difference in electronegativities between the metal and nonmetal has the most ionic character. The data in Table 1 show that electronegativities tend to decrease down a group of the periodic table. Cs would have an electronegativity of approximately 0.8 or lower and Cl has an electronegativity of 3.0. The difference between the electronegativities of these two elements is the greatest of the compounds listed. Thus, B is the best answer.

5. Which of the following statements is consistent with the incorrect conclusion that HCl is an ionic compound? A) It is a gas at room temperature. B) A 1 M solution freezes below 0C. C) A 1 M solution conducts electricity. The passage states that an aqueous solution of an ionic compound conducts electricity. Thus, C is the best answer. 6. According to the passage, the magnitude of B3 at the position of a given hydrogen nucleus is determined by the: A) chemical environment of the nucleus. The passage states that B3 is the vector sum of the magnetic fields of the electrons and other nuclei near the H atom, so the chemical composition of the material around the H nucleus being examined will contribute to B3. Only Foil A relates to the material around the H nucleus. Thus, A is the best answer.

B) mass of the nucleus. C) radius of the nucleus. D) charge of the nucleus.

7. Consider an H nucleus with pointing in a direction 180 from a magnetic field. When the nucleus relaxes, which of the following most likely will result? A) The magnitude of will decrease to zero. Solution B) The magnitude of the magnetic field will decrease to zero. C) The nucleus will emit a photon. Guess Based on the passage, is an intrinsic property of the atomic and subatomic particles, and the magnetic fields are either externally controlled (B1, B2) or intrinsic to the electrons and nuclei (B3). The passage also states that energy is emitted when an H nucleus relaxes, which is compatible only with emitting a photon. Thus, C is the best answer.

D) The nucleus will absorb a photon.

I missed this question because I...

Solution

8. X-ray imaging sometimes requires the use of contrast dyes. In MRI, dyes are: A) less toxic. B) not needed. The dyes used in X-ray imaging must consist of elements from the lower part of the periodic table to take advantage of attenuations being roughly proportional to the atomic numbers of elements contained in the tissue. In contrast, the passage states that adjacent locations with different chemical compositions, when imaged by MRI, already have contrasts of several hundred percent. This implies that a dye is not necessary. Thus, B is the best answer.

Guess

C) needed but not always used. D) always used. I missed this question because I...

9. Human proteins are composed mostly of the elements C, H, O, N, and S. Without dyes, X-ray images of tissue containing different proteins do NOT have high contrasts, most likely because: Solution A) dyes do not bind well to proteins. B) protein bonds are broken by the radiation, resulting in the formation of free radicals. Guess C) the differences in the atomic numbers of the elements are not large enough. Because attenuation is roughly proportional to the atomic numbers of elements contained in the tissue, to see significant differences in the X-ray image one needs a sizable difference in atomic number. Noting that bones, but not much else, easily appear in an X ray of undyed tissue, one can infer that Ca has an atomic number high enough to significantly attenuate X rays. Of the elements C, H, O, N, and S, only sulfur has an atomic number approaching (but still less than) that of Ca. Thus, C is the best answer.

D) proteins are opaque to X rays. I missed this question because I...

10. For a given magnitude of B1, the nucleus with the nonzero precession frequency will be which of the following? A) 4H 2e Solution B) 1 6 O Guess
8

C) 1

9 F 9

Because protons and neutrons have spin just as electrons do, to guarantee a nonzero net spin, an odd number of nucleons is needed. Of the foils, the only element that has an odd number of nucleons is answer. . Thus, C is the best

D) 20 P 8 82b I missed this question because I...

Solution

11. To adjust d of H nuclei, a diagnostician is most likely to vary which of the following? A) B1 Based on the passage, the angular frequency d is

Guess

One can see that B1 is the only externally controllable variable. Thus, A is the best answer.

B) B3 C) h D) I missed this question because I...

12. According to the passage, at resonance, B2 rotates an H nucleus through an angle of: A) 45. Solution B) 90. C) 180. Guess The passage states that to precess at a frequency of d, must be parallel to B1. If the precesssing H atom becomes antiparallel, this means has turned by 180. Thus, C is the best answer.

13. The effect of temperature on the rate of the reaction can best be determined by comparing Tube 5 with which of the following tubes? A) Tube 2 B) Tube 3 C) Tube 4 To determine the effect of temperature on the rate of the reaction, Tube 5 must be compared with another tube in which all conditions were the same, except the temperature. Tube 5 contained 20 mL each of solutions A and B and no water at 32C. Tube 4 contained 20 mL each of solutions A and B and no water at 12C. Thus, C is the best answer.

D) Tube 6

14. The results in Table 1 would most likely NOT be affected if the students had added excess: A) KI(aq) to Solution A. Solution B) Na2S2O3(aq) to Solution A. C) (NH4)2S2O8(aq) to Solution B. D) starch to Solution B. Guess Starch is not a participant in any of the reactions, acting only as an indicator of excess I2. Thus, D is the best answer.

I missed this question because I...

15. In Tube 6, what is the most likely function of CuSO4(aq)? A) Reactant B) Indicator Solution C) Inhibitor D) Catalyst Guess A comparison of the results for Tube 1 and Tube 6, which are identical except for the addition of CuSO4 to Tube 6, shows that it takes longer for the combined solution in Tube 1 to turn dark blue than it takes for the combined solution in Tube 6. Thus, D is the best answer.

I missed this question because I...

16. The solution in Tube 1 turned dark blue more rapidly than did the solution in Tube 4, because the: A) rate of Reaction 2 was slower in Tube 1 than in Tube 4. Solution B) average kinetic energies of I(aq) and S2O8(aq) were greater in Tube 1 than in Tube 4.

Guess

The reaction conditions for tubes 1 and 4 are identical except Tube 1 was run at 22C and Tube 4 was run at 12C. The higher the temperature, the greater the average kinetic energy of the components of the reaction. Thus, B is the best answer.

C) concentrations of I(aq) and S2O8(aq) were greater in Tube 1 than in Tube 4. D) concentration of starch was greater in Tube 1 than in Tube 4. I missed this question because I...

17. Which of the following graphs best shows the number of moles of S4O62(aq) in Tube 6 as time passes? A)
Solution

Guess

B)

The data in Table 1 show that the reaction is complete in 19 sec. The amount of S4O62 would increase for 19 sec and then level off. Thus, B is the best answer.

C)

D)

18. According to the results of Galileos experiments described in the passage, the ratio of d to t2 attained its maximum value when: A) the inclined plane was horizontal. B) the inclined plane was vertical. Because the acceleration of gravity is in the vertical direction, the greatest acceleration of a sphere will occur when the plane is also vertical. Thus, B is the best answer.

C) natural motion began. D) violent motion ceased.

19. As described in the passage, Aristotles theories of motion do NOT deal with which of the following observations? A) An object in a vacuum can move with constant velocity.
Solution

Of the foils, the only situation that does not occur naturally on Earths surface is that of an object in a vacuum. Thus, A is the best answer. Guess

B) An object in free fall can reach a constant velocity. C) A mass on a spring undergoes violent motion. D) A heavy body falls with a greater velocity than a light one. I missed this question because I...

20. When designing his experiment, Galileo could have allowed spheres to drop from a height of 10 m rather than using the 10-m inclined plane described in the passage. The main advantage to using the inclined plane is that on the Solution inclined plane the: A) final velocity of a sphere is smaller. B) final velocity of a sphere is larger. Guess C) spheres take longer to reach the bottom. Ignoring air resistance, rotation, and friction, the final velocity of a sphere that drops is the same as the final velocity of a sphere that moves down the inclined plane. Meanwhile, the path is longer on the inclined plane than in free fall, leading to a longer time for a sphere to reach the bottom. Thus, C is the best answer.

D) spheres take less time to reach the bottom. I missed this question because I...

21. Spheres A, B, C, and D have identical radii and masses of 10 g, 40 g, 20 g, and 30 g, respectively. According to Aristotles theory, if the spheres are dropped to the ground from the same height, which object will have the Solution highest terminal velocity? A) Object A B) Object B Guess Aristotles theory states that an objects time of fall t is inversely proportional to its weight W. Symbolically, this is t 1/W. The question asks one to determine the highest terminal velocity (when striking the ground). The highest terminal velocity should then be inversely proportional to t because spheres AD all fall from the same height. Because the largest mass in this group is Sphere B, its weight will also be

the largest, so Aristotles theory predicts the shortest t for it. Thus, B is the best answer.

C) Object C D) Object D I missed this question because I...

22. Object A has 2 times the density and the volume of Object B. According to Aristotles theory, if A and B are dropped to Earth from the same height, which object will reach Earth first? (Note: Ignore the effects of friction.) Solution A) Object A, because it is denser than object B B) Object A, because it is heavier than object B C) Object B, because it is heavier than object A Guess D) The objects will reach Earth at the same time. Object A is given as having twice the density of Object B (A = 2B) and having half of Object Bs volume (VA = VB/2). To find which object has the shorter time of fall under Aristotles theory (t 1/W), one must determine the weight of each object from its mass. Because W = mg and m = V,

WB = mBg = BVBg, and WA = mAg =AVAg = (2B)(VB/2)g = BVBg

This means that WA = WB, and the time of fall for each object will be the same. Thus, D is the best answer. 23. A sparingly soluble metal hydroxide, M(OH)2 has a molar solubility of S mol/L at 25C. Its Ksp value is: A) S2. B) 2S2. C) 2S3.

D) 4S3. The Ksp for a substance, AaBb, equals [A]a[B]b. The Ksp for M(OH)2 = [M][OH]2. If the solubility of M(OH)2 is S mol/L, then [M] = S mol/L and [OH] = 2S mol/L. The Ksp = S(2S)2 = S(4S2) = 4S3. Thus, D is the best answer.

24. If the quantity of gas remains unchanged while its temperature increases, the volume of the gas will: A) always increase, because volume is directly proportional to temperature. Solution B) always decrease, because volume is inversely proportional to temperature. C) increase if pressure remains constant. Guess The ideal gas law shows that PV = nRT. If n (the quantity of gas) is constant and T (temperature) increases, then PV (pressure volume) will increase. If the pressure remains constant, then the volume must increase. Thus, C is the best answer.

D) decrease if pressure remains constant. I missed this question because I...

25. An astronaut on Earth notes that in her soft drink an ice cube floats with 9/10 of its volume submerged. If she were instead in a lunar module parked on the Moon where the gravitation force is 1/6 that of Earth, the ice in the same soft Solution drink would float: A) with more than 9/10 submerged. B) with 9/10 submerged. Guess The floating ice cube implies that its weight is balanced by the buoyant force on it

Wice = mg = fluidVsubmergedg

Note that both the weight and the buoyant force are proportional to g, making the numerical value of g irrelevant to the volume of the ice cube that is submerged. Thus, B is the best answer.

C) with 6/10 submerged. D) totally submerged. I missed this question because I...

26. A glass fiber carries a light digital signal long distances with a minimum loss of amplitude. What optical property of glass allows this phenomenon? A) Dispersion Solution B) Refraction C) Reflection Guess Light can be carried along a distance within a transparent material by means of total internal reflection. Thus, C is the best answer.

D) Diffraction 27. Reaction 1 is an effective means of decreasing the hardness of an acidic water sample because it: A) increases the pH and decreases the solubility of CaCO3. According to the passage, calcium ions in the water contribute to the hardness of the water and CaCO3 is soluble in acidic solutions. Boiling the water causes Reaction 1 to take place; the solubility of CO2 decreases as the temperature increases. Reaction 1 decreases the hardness of an acidic water sample by removing CaCO3 from the sample and increasing the pH by reducing the amount of CO2 in the sample. Thus, A is the best answer.

B) decreases the pH and decreases the solubility of CaCO3. C) increases the pH and converts HCO3 to water. D) decreases the pH and removes Ca2+ from solution.

Solution

28. What is the effect of a high level of atmospheric CO2 on the hardness of water in limestone regions? A) It would lower the pH and increase the solubility of CaCO3. High levels of CO2 in the atmosphere would result in CO2 dissolved in the water. When CO2 dissolves in water it becomes carbonic acid, causing a decrease in the pH. The passage states that CaCO3 is very soluble in acidic solutions. The pH would be lowered and the solubility of CaCO3 would increase. Thus, A is the best answer.

Guess

B) It would raise the pH and increase the solubility of CaCO3. C) It would lower the pH and decrease the solubility of CaCO3. D) It would raise the pH and decrease the solubility of CaCO3. I missed this question because I...

29. How many grams of CaCO3 would be formed in Reaction 1 if the CO2 evolved occupies 11.2 L at STP? A) 0.5 g Solution B) 11.2 g C) 50 g Guess At STP, 1 mole of gas occupies 22.4 L; therefore, 0.5 mol CO2 was generated. According to Reaction 1, 1 mol CaCO3 forms for every mole of CO2 that forms. There is 0.5 mol CaCO3, which has a formula weight of 100 g/mol. The amount of CaCO3 formed is 50 g. Thus, C is the best answer.

D) 100 g I missed this question because I...

30. If the pH of the water sample were high such that all the carbonate is present as CO32, what would be the concentration of Ca2+? (The Ksp of CaCO3 is 4.8 109.) Solution A) (4.8 109)2 M B) (4.8 109)1/2 M Guess The Ksp of CaCO3 = [Ca2+][CO32] = 4.8 109. If all of the carbonate is in the form of CO32, then [Ca2+] = [CO32] = (4.8 109)1/2 M. Thus, B is the best answer.

C) 4.8 109 M D) (4.8 109)1/3 M I missed this question because I...

31. The addition of excess Ca2+ to a solution containing Ca2+ and CO32 ions causes CaCO3 to precipitate because: A) Ksp for CaCO3 would increase due to the increase in [Ca2+]. Solution B) Ksp for CaCO3 would decrease due to the increase in [Ca2+]. C) [CO32] would increase to maintain Ksp. D) [CO32] would decrease to maintain Ksp. Guess When CaCO3 is in solution, the following takes place: CaCO3(s) Ca2+(aq) + CO32(aq) and Ksp = [Ca2+][CO32]. When excess Ca2+ is added, some CaCO3 precipitates in accordance with Le Chteliers principle. [CO32] therefore decreases and the Ksp is maintained. Thus, D is the best answer.

32. What is the expression for the angular frequency of a pendulum? A) 2mg/L B) (L/g)1/2 C) 2(g/L)1/2 D) (g/L)1/2 Because the frequency f of a pendulum in Hz is

the angular frequency (in rad/s) is

Thus, D is the best answer.

I missed this question because I...

33. The equation for tension used in the passage requires o to be units of radians. How is an angle of 30 converted to radians? A) o = 30 Solution B) o = 30 2 C) o = 30 /180

Guess Because 2 rad = 360, the appropriate conversion factor for degrees-toradians is rad/180. Thus, C is the best answer.

D) o = 30 /360 I missed this question because I...

34. If all the resistors in Figure 3 are 200 , what is the current from the battery when V0 = 12 V? A) 30 mA Solution B) 60 mA Guess There are two branches to this parallel circuit: one passes through R1 and R2 in series, and the other passes through R3 and RSG in series. The total resistance of the parallel circuit is then

Given that R1, R2, R3, and RSG are each 200 , Rtotal is also 200 , and the current Itotal = V/Rtotal is then 0.060 A. Thus, B is the best answer.

C) 120 mA D) 240 mA I missed this question because I...

35. What is the magnitude of the restoring force on the pendulum bob at angle ? A) mg

Solution

B) mgsin The restoring force on a pendulum points along the tangent to the circular arc of its motion. Figure 1 shows the free-body diagram of the pendulum bob, and the only force acting along the direction of motion is mgsin . Thus, B is the best answer.

Guess

C) mgcos D) mgtan I missed this question because I...

36. What mechanism supplies the tension in the string at the molecular level? A) Magnetic forces B) Electron transfer Solution C) Gravitational forces D) Stretching bond lengths Guess Intermolecular forces and the physical structure of the molecules determine the structure of the string at the molecular level. Physically stretching the string affects the intermolecular forces (which are primarily electrostatic) and the bond lengths within the molecules. Thus, D is the best answer. 7. Each lead weight has a volume of 4 106 m3. What buoyancy force does the water exert on a lead weight? A) 4.0 102 N The buoyancy force FB is

Thus, A is the best answer.

B) 4.5 102 N C) 4.1 101 N D) 4.5 101 N I missed this question because I...

38. Which of the following items of information would NOT help in predicting the results shown in Figure 1? A) The number of air molecules inside the balloon Solution B) The thermal conductivity of the rubber C) The variation with depth in the speed of the balloon D) The total mass of the water in the tank Guess The mass of the water in the tank will not have an effect on the temperature of the air or the depth of the balloon. Thus, D is the best answer.

I missed this question because I...

39. Which of the following statements best explains the temperature change shown in Figure 1? A) The work done on the gas by the water pressure decreases its temperature. Solution B) The work done by the gas in expanding decreases its internal energy. Guess The key to understanding the correct statement is to realize that in Figure 1, depth increases to the right. This means that air temperature in a rising balloon will follow the plotted curve from right to left, and temperature falls as the balloon rises. The true statement must reflect the decreasing temperature and pressure in the balloon as it rises. Thus, B is

the best answer.

C) The balloon and water exchange heat, increasing the temperature of the gas. D) The compression of the gas decreases its temperature. I missed this question because I...

40. Air-filled, thin-walled steel spheres were suggested for experiments in the tank instead of rubber balloons. The most likely reason that this idea was rejected is that steel spheres would: Solution A) not be sufficiently flexible. Guess According to the passage, the tank is used to study the effects of pressure on gases. If air-filled, thin-walled steel spheres were used, it would be difficult to vary the pressure on the gases. Thus, A is the best answer.

B) be too heavy. C) not be airtight. D) rust too quickly. I missed this question because I...

41. What vertical forces are acting on a balloon as it ascends? A) Weight only B) Buoyancy force only Solution C) Weight and buoyancy force only Guess The foils list only water pressure, buoyancy, and gravity as acting on a balloon. Of these, gravity and buoyancy act in the vertical direction, while water pressure acts perpendicularly to all surfaces of the balloon. Thus, C is the best answer.

D) Water pressure and buoyancy force only I missed this question because I...

42. If the valve is opened to drain the tank, where is the speed of the flowing water the greatest? A) At the top of the tank Solution B) At the bottom of the tank C) At the wide end of the pipe D) At the narrow end of the pipe Guess For a given volume flow rate, the speed of fluid flow is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area through which the fluid flows. Thus, D is the best answer.

I missed this question because I...

43. A balloon is attached to a weight that keeps it from ascending quickly enough for the air in the balloon to change temperature. When the volume of the balloon has doubled, how has the pressure of the air inside changed? Solution A) It has been reduced to one-quarter the original pressure. B) It has been reduced to one-half the original pressure. Guess The amount of air in the balloon and the temperature of the air will remain constant. Using the ideal gas law, nRT = P1V1 = P2V2. If the volume of the balloon doubles, then V2 = 2V1, P1V1 = P2 2V1, and P2 = P1/2. The pressure therefore reduces by 1/2. Thus, B is the best answer.

C) It has remained at the original pressure. D) It has been increased to twice the original pressure.

44. The process taking place at the cathode was: A) oxidation by a loss of electrons. B) oxidation by a gain of electrons. C) reduction by a loss of electrons. D) reduction by a gain of electrons. According to the passage, H2(g) was produced at the cathode. The reaction taking place at the cathode was 2H+(aq) + 2e H2(g), which means the H+ was gaining electrons and undergoing reduction. Thus, D is the best answer.

I missed this question because I...

45. What is the electron configuration of the metal ion produced when Ca reacted with water in Experiment 1? A) 1s22s22p63s23p64s2 Solution B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1 C) 1s22s22p63s23p6 Guess When Ca is added to water, the following reaction takes place: Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) Ca2+(aq) + 2OH(aq) + H2(g), producing a basic solution. The metal ion produced is Ca2+. Ca has the atomic number 20 and therefore has 20 electrons. Two electrons are removed to form Ca2+, so Ca2+ has 18 electrons. The electron configuration for Ca2+ is 1s22s22p63s23p6. Thus, C is the best answer.

D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d2 I missed this question because I...

46. Which of the following properties is most useful in explaining the trend in the reactivities in Experiment 1? A) Electronegativity Solution B) Ionization potential Guess The metals that reacted in Experiment 1 underwent oxidation. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is the ionization potential. The reactivity of a metal depends on its ionization potential. Among the metals listed in Table 1, potassium has the smallest ionization potential and magnesium has the largest ionization potential. Therefore, potassium reacted the most vigorously and there was no obvious reaction with magnesium. Thus, B is the best answer.

C) Electron affinity D) Polarizability I missed this question because I...

47. Experiment 1 was repeated with 0.40 g of calcium, and the gas that evolved was collected. The identity of the gas, and its approximate volume at 1.0 atm and 27C were: Solution (Note: R = 0.0821 Latm/molK) A) H2, 250 mL. Guess Calcium undergoes the following reaction with water: Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) Ca2+(aq) + 2OH(aq) + H2(g). The gas produced was H2. If 0.40 g calcium reacted, then the number of moles of calcium reacted was equal to (0.40 g)/(40.1 g/mol) = 0.01 mol. The amount of H2 formed was also 0.01 mol. At 1.0 atm and 27C, the volume of 0.01 mol H2 = [(0.01 mol)(0.0821 Latm/molK)(300 K)]/1.0 atm = 0.246 L = 246 mL. Thus, A is the best answer.

B) H2, 500 mL. C) O2, 250 mL.

D) O2, 500 mL. I missed this question because I...

48. When alkali metals are held in a colorless flame, the metals vaporize and impart a brilliant color to the flame. Lithium imparts a bright red color, sodium a yellow color, and potassium a violet color. What is the origin of Solution these colors? A) Excited electrons in the metals drop to lower energy levels and emit specific wavelengths of light. Guess When alkali metals are held in a flame, the electrons in the atoms are excited to higher energy levels. As the excited electrons drop to lower energy levels, they emit specific wavelengths of light. Thus, A is the best answer.

B) Electrons in the metals are raised to higher energy levels by absorbing specific wavelengths of light. C) Electrons in the metals are converted into gases in the flame that emit specific wavelengths of light. D) Specific wavelengths of light are absorbed when the metal is converted from the solid phase to the gas phase in the flame. 49. Consider the phase diagram of water below.

The arrow proceeding from Point A to Point B represents: A) melting. B) sublimation. C) condensation. D) vaporization. In the phase diagram, Point A is in a region where water exists as a liquid and Point B is in a region where water exists as a vapor. The arrow proceeding from Point A to Point B represents the transition from liquid to vapor, or vaporization. Thus, D is the best answer.

I missed this question because I...

50. Which of the following statements best characterizes a material that is a good insulator but a poor conductor? A) The material contains no electrons. Solution B) The magnitude of the electric field inside the material is always equal to zero. C) The atoms in the material can easily move from one lattice site to another. Guess D) Electrons in the material cannot easily move from one atom to another. In insulators, the valence electrons are tightly bound to their atoms, and it takes a great amount of energy to free them from their atomic energy levels. Thus, D is the best answer.

I missed this question because I...

51. An object with a mass of 0.1 kg absorbs 250 J of heat while changing temperature from 20C to 25C. What is the specific heat of the object? A) 125 J/(kgC) Solution B) 250 J/(kgC) C) 375 J/(kgC) D) 500 J/(kgC) Guess Heating that produces only a temperature change obeys the relationship

Given 250 J of heat absorbed by the objects mass of 0.1 kg, the temperature change of 5C implies a specific heat of about 500 J/(kgC). Thus, D is the best answer.

I missed this question because I...

52. At a given temperature, the resistance of a wire to direct current depends only on the: A) voltage applied across the wire. Solution B) resistivity, length, and cross-sectional area. Guess The resistivity relation at a fixed temperature is

Thus, B is the best answer.

C) inductance, length, and cross-sectional area. D) resistivity, length, and capacitance. I missed this question because I...

53. Which of the following electron configurations of nitrogen is the most stable? A) 1s22s12p4
Solution

B) 1s22s22p3 The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. The electrons will begin to fill the lower energy levels first; consequently, the 1s level will fill first with two electrons, followed by 2s with two electrons, and then the 2p level with the last three electrons. The resulting electron configuration is 1s22s22p3. Thus, B is the best answer.

Guess

C) 1s12s22p4 D) 1s22s22p23s1 54. How many sodium ions are in the initial 50.00-mL solution of Na2CO3? A) 1.50 1022 B) 3.00 1022 The solution contains 7.15 g Na2CO310H2O. Dividing by the molar mass will give the number of moles: (7.15 g)/(286.14 g/mol) = 0.0250 mol. Because each mole of Na2CO310H2O contains 2 mol Na+, there is 0.0500 mol Na+. Using Avogadros number, the number of sodium ions is (0.0500 mol)(6.02 1023 ions/mol) = 3.01

1022 ions. Thus, B is the best answer.

C) 6.02 1023 D) 12.0 1023 I missed this question because I...

55. If red litmus paper is dipped into the Na2CO3 solution, it will: A) remain red, because carbonate is an acidic salt. B) remain red, because sodium carbonate is neutral. Solution C) turn blue, because carbonate reacts with water to produce OH. Guess In water, carbonate will undergo the following reaction: CO32(aq) + H2O(l) HCO3(aq) + OH(aq). Red litmus paper will turn blue in a base. Thus, C is the best answer.

D) turn blue, because sodium ions form sodium hydroxide in water. I missed this question because I...

56. What is the maximum number of moles of nickel carbonate (NiCO3) that can form during the precipitation reaction? A) 0.025 mol
Solution

Guess

There is 0.025 mol Ni from NiSO46H2O: (6.57 g)/(262.84 g/mol) = 0.025 mol. There is also 0.025 mol CO32 from Na2CO310H2O: (7.15 g)/(286.14 g/mol) = 0.0250 mol. The maximum number of moles of NiCO3 that can form is 0.025 mol. Thus, A is the best answer.

B) 0.25 mol C) 1.00 mol D) 2.25 mol I missed this question because I...

57. According to the information in the passage, the gas that evolves is: A) sulfur dioxide. B) sulfur trioxide. Solution C) carbon dioxide. Guess According to the passage, the gas is given off when HCl is added to one portion of the slurry. HCl reacts with CO32 to form CO2(g). Thus, C is the best answer.

D) carbon monoxide. I missed this question because I...

58. The ion responsible for the color of the solutions is: A) sulfate, because sulfur has s and p orbitals. B) nickel(II), because it has a charge of +2. Solution C) nickel(II), because it has unfilled d orbitals. Guess The solution containing nickel(II) ions is green-colored. The color arises because nickel(II) ion has partially filled d orbitals and the electrons in the lower energy d orbitals absorb visible light to move to the higher energy d orbitals. Thus, C is the best answer.

D) sulfate, because it is a resonance-stabilized anion.

59. Suppose a scientist tests Metals K, L, and M for use in Plate A of the photoelectric experiment. The work functions of K, L, and M are 5.0 eV, 8.0 eV, and 6.0 eV, respectively. If each metal is struck by a 7.0 eV photon, what will be the maximum kinetic energies (in eV) of the electrons ejected, if any, from K, L, and M, respectively? A) 2.0, 0.0, 1.0 The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is always E W. Note that because Metal L has WL > E, the maximum K = 0 (there are no photoelectrons). Thus, A is the best answer.

B) 2.0, 1.0, 1.0 C) 2.0, 15.0, 0.0 D) 12.0, 15.0, 13.0 I missed this question because I...

60. In the photoelectric experiment, which of the following changes will produce the largest increase in the value for I? A) Plate A is replaced with one having a higher work function. Solution B) The electrical potential of Plate B is made more positive relative to that of Plate A. Guess The current I will be directly proportional to the number of photoelectrons leaving the metal at Plate A. A photoelectron that leaves Plate A will only be counted among the current I if its value of K is greater than the stopping potential. Foil B describes a change that reduces the stopping potential, allowing more photoelectrons to reach Plate B. Thus, B is the best answer.

C) The flux of photons having energies less than W is increased. D) The average frequency of the photons is decreased. I missed this question because I...

61. In Youngs experiment, if wavelength is increased, the bright fringes will become: A) brighter. Solution B) bluer. C) closer together. D) farther apart. Guess In Youngs double-slit experiment, bright fringes appear on the screen as the column of dark spots in the following figure.

For a bright fringe to appear, the difference in distances is equal to an integral number of wavelengths, and the distance from one fringe to the next on the screen reflects a change in the value of that is directly proportional to one wavelength. Thus, D is the best answer.

I missed this question because I...

62. If light is wavelike and if diffractive effects are ignored, the fringes on T3 in Figure 1 should disappear when: A) is increased slightly. Solution B) light intensity is increased. C) S1 is covered. Guess The interference patterns seen in real double-slit experiments also have a characteristic pattern in the intensity of the peaks that is a result of the width of each individual slit. This single-slit interference pattern appears as a result of light diffracting through the slit. Thus, C is the best answer.

D) T3 is moved farther from T2. I missed this question because I...

Solution

63. In Youngs experiment, S produces spherical wave fronts. The light entering S1 and S2 will most likely consist of plane waves if the distance between: A) T1 and T2 is large. Because wavefronts from a spherical source become flatter and flatter as they move away from their source, increasing the distance between T1 and T2 will cause waves from S to become more planar. Thus, A is the best answer.

Guess

B) T1 and T2 is small. C) S1 and S2 is large. D) T2 and T3 is small. I missed this question because I...

64. When Waves A, B, and C meet at the same point on the target screen, Wave

Solution

Guess

A is 180 out of phase with Wave B and 0 out of phase with Wave C. If each of the 3 waves has an amplitude E when it reaches this point, the resulting wave amplitude at the point will be: A) zero. B) E. The principle of superposition allows one to add incoming waves amplitudes together to determine the total amplitude at a point. Based on the passage, if Wave A has amplitude +E, the amplitudes of waves B and C will be E and +E, respectively, and the sum will be +E. Thus, B is the best answer.

C) 2E. D) 3E. I missed this question because I...

65. The wave theory states that for an electron to be ejected from a metal, light of sufficient intensity must be used. Based on the passage, does the particle theory agree with this aspect of the wave theory? Solution A) Yes, because light intensity determines the work function of a metal B) Yes, because light intensity depends only on frequency C) No, because light waves cannot carry sufficient energy to eject an electron Guess D) No, because an electron can be ejected by a single high-energy photon At the core of the photoelectric effect is the concept that even a single photon can release a photoelectron, but only if that photon carries enough energy. Intensity in the photon picture is a measure of how many photons are arriving each second, not how much energy each photon has. This means that photoelectrons can be released even when only a few highenergy photons are present. If, however, the photon energy is too low, even a flood of photons will not release any photoelectrons. Thus, D is the best answer. 66. If Solution A contains Ag+, the anion component must be: A) CrO42. B) Cl.

C) F. According to the passage, the ionic compound in Solution A was completely soluble in water. The information in Table 1 shows that the only Ag+ salt studied that is soluble in water is AgF. Thus, C is the best answer.

D) S2. I missed this question because I...

67. When aqueous solutions of the various anions and cations were mixed, precipitates formed because: A) few aqueous solutions can contain more than one cation or anion. Solution B) the anions precipitated as solid metals. C) the solubilities of cations were decreased by the other cations. D) the solubility product of a compound was exceeded. Guess The amount of a substance that will dissolve in water is described by the Ksp. The Ksp for a substance, AaBb, equals [A]a[B]b. If the amount of the compound present is in excess of the Ksp, then a precipitate would form to maintain the Ksp. Thus, D is the best answer.

I missed this question because I...

68. All of the precipitation reactions in Table 1 can be classified as: A) metathesis reactions. The precipitation reactions in Table 1 are the result of mixing aqueous

Solution

Guess

solutions of cations and anions. The ionic compounds switch the ions with which they are paired. These are reactions of the type AB + CD AD + CB, where one of the products is a precipitate. This type of reaction is a metathesis reaction. Thus, A is the best answer.

B) decomposition reactions. C) hydrolysis reactions. D) oxidation reactions. I missed this question because I...

69. In Table 1, which cation allowed for the greatest number of soluble compounds? A) Ag+ Solution B) Ca2+ Guess According to Table 1, Ag+ had one soluble compound, Ca2+ had three soluble compounds, and Cu2+ and Fe3+ each had two soluble compounds. Ca2+ had the greatest number of soluble compounds. Thus, B is the best answer.

C) Cu2+ D) Fe3+ I missed this question because I...

70. Ba2+(aq) is an ion that is very toxic to mammals when taken internally. Which of the following compounds, mixed in water, would be the safest if accidentally swallowed? Solution A) BaSO4, Ksp = 1.1 1010 Guess The lower the value of Ksp is, the lower the concentrations of the cation and anion in an aqueous solution and the lower the solubility of the compound in water. If mixed with water and accidentally swallowed, the

Ba salt with the lowest value of Ksp would be the safest. Thus, A is the best answer.

B) BaCO3, Ksp = 8.1 109 C) BaSO3, Ksp = 8.0 107 D) BaF2, Ksp = 1.7 106 I missed this question because I...

71. Which one of the following cations or anions would be useful in differentiating between a solution containing FeCl3 and one containing FeF3? A) CrO42 Solution B) Ca2+ Guess According to the data in Table 1, CaF2 will form a white precipitate, but CaCl2 is water-soluble. Using Ca2+, one could differentiate between a solution of FeCl3 and FeF3. Thus, B is the best answer.

C) S2 D) Cu2+ 72. A battery in a circuit has an electromotive force given by E and an internal resistance of r. The battery provides a current i to the circuit. What is the terminal voltage of the battery? A) E B) E ir The terminal voltage is the voltage provided to the external components of the circuit. The battery voltage will be reduced by the voltage required to overcome the internal

resistance, so V = ir. Thus, B is the best answer.

C) E + ir D ) E + i2r I missed this question because I...

73.
Solution

Guess

A beam of light shines into a transparent medium with parallel surfaces. Part of the beam is reflected back into the air as diagrammed above. (The figure is NOT to scale.) The index of refraction of the medium is 1.5. Which of the following is true? A) < and < B) = and > Because the mediums surfaces are parallel, a perpendicular line drawn to the lower surface of the medium will be parallel to both of the perpendiculars shown in the figure. This means that the angle of incidence at the lower surface will also be , as will the angle of reflection at the lower surface, and the beam reflecting from the lower surface of the medium will then be a mirror image of the incoming beam, so = . Further, because airs index of refraction is about 1.0, Snells law would show that > . Thus, B is the best answer.

C) = and < D) > and > I missed this question because I...

74. Although only molecules having much greater than the average kinetic energy can escape from a liquid, the temperature of a liquid in equilibrium with its vapor is found to be the same as that of the vapor. How can this be Solution interpreted? A) The excess kinetic energy is transferred to air molecules. B) The excess kinetic energy is lost in collisions with the walls of the Guess container. C) The higher kinetic energy of the vapor molecules is compensated for by their lower potential energy. D) The excess kinetic energy is expended on overcoming attractive forces exerted by the molecules of the liquid. If the liquid and the vapor have the same temperature, then the average kinetic energy of the liquid and the vapor must be the same. The molecules that escape from the liquid are those with greater than the average kinetic energy. It takes energy for the molecules to escape from the liquid. Thus, D is the best answer.

I missed this question because I...

75. Sound of a known frequency, wavelength, intensity, and speed travels through air and bounces off an imperfect reflector which is moving toward the source. Which of the following properties of the sound remains the same before and Solution after reflection? A) Speed Guess Within still air, the speed of sound remains constant. Thus, A is the best answer.

B) Intensity C) Frequency D) Wavelength I missed this question because I...

76. In order to determine the relative speed of approach of a sound source by Doppler measurements, three of the following items of data are necessary. Which one is NOT required? Solution A) The speed of sound in the medium B) The frequency of the emitted sound C) The frequency of the observed sound Guess D) The distance between source and observer Given that v is the speed of sound in the medium, the Doppler equation for a source that is approaching (receding from) an observer can be written as

Thus, D is the best answer.

I missed this question because I...

Solution

77. Which of the following is equal to a change in momentum of an object? A) Force B) Acceleration C) Velocity D) Impulse

Guess

A change in momentum can be accomplished by the action of a force F over a time interval t. This product, Ft, is referred to as an impulse. Thus, D is the best answer.