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a) Excitation; Synergistic
b) Excitation; Antagonistic
c) Inhibition; Synergistic
d) Inhibition; Antagonistic
8.1) A trauma patient presents to the Emergency Room in decorticate position. A tonsilar
brain herniation is found. Shortly after, the patient progresses to decerebrate rigidity, and
thus appears with:
a) Head arched back, arms extended by the sides, legs extended
b) Elbows, wrists and fingers flexed, legs flexed and rotated outward
c) Head flexed forward, arms extended by the sides, legs flexed
d) Elbows, wrists and fingers flexed, legs extended and rotated inward
8.2) Which of the following is thought to be important in the rigidity seen in decerebrate
positioning?
a) Alpha motor neurons
b) Gamma motor neurons
c) Type Ia sensory fibers
d) Type II sensory fibers
e) Golgi tendon organs
9) In the normal vestibulo-ocular reflex, turning the head to one side results in ipsilateral
rotation of the eyes. In patients with nystagmus, which of the following is seen?
a) Slow motion away from a target then saccade toward the target
b) Slow motion toward a target then saccade to neutral
c) Saccade away from a target then slow motion toward the target
d) Saccade toward a target then slow motion to neutral
10) Which of the following is controlled by the corticobulbar tract and not the lateral
corticospinal tract?
a) Tongue
b) Lower face
c) Postural muscles
d) Distal extremities
11) Which of the following connected areas receives sensory information from the post-
central gyrus and visual information from the occipital cortex?
a) Pre-motor cortex
b) Posterior parietal lobe
c) Supplementary motor cortex
12) Neglect syndrome occurs with a lesion in the non-dominant hemisphere for language
(usually right), and has what affect?
a) Inability to recognize objects placed in the contralateral hand and inability to
recognize 3D objects
b) Inability to recognize objects placed in the ipsilateral hand and inability to
recognize 3D objects
c) Inability to recognize objects placed in the contralateral hand and inability to
draw 3D objects accurately
d) Inability to recognize objects placed in the ipsilateral hand and inability to
draw 3D objects accurately
13) Which of the following best describes the role of the cerebellum in movement?
1.2) Which of the following are associated with deep levels of sleep?
a) Alpha (8-13 Hz) and Beta (>13 Hz)
b) Beta (>13 Hz) and Delta (<4 Hz)
c) Delta (<4 Hz) and Theta (4-7 Hz)
d) Theta (4-7 Hz) and Alpha (8-13 Hz)
e) Alpha (8-13 Hz) and Delta (<4 Hz)
2.1) What stage of sleep is the deepest?
a) Stage 1 (7-10 Hz)
b) Stage 2 (3-7 Hz with 12-14 Hz bursts)
c) Stage 3 (1-2 Hz higher voltage)
d) Stage 4 (1-2 Hz)
e) Rapid eye movement (REM)
2.2) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of REM sleep?
a) Occurs after 90 minutes of sleep
b) Is a deepening of sleep and has a higher voltage
c) Muscle tone disappears and reflexes are inhibited
d) Reduced blood pressure interrupted by hypertension
e) Dreaming and penile erections
3) Which of the following is usually preceded by an aura, involves loss of consciousness,
and tonic/clonic contractions of muscles on both sides of the body?
a) Partial seizure
b) Generalized seizure
c) Grand mal seizure
d) Petite mal seizure
4) Damage to what region of the brain affects recent memory, which is the process in
which short-term memory is converted to long-term memory?
a) Pons
b) Medulla
c) Substantia nigra
d) Hypothalamus
e) Hippocampus
5) Which of the following types of learning is considered associative learning?
a) Habituation
b) Sensitization
c) Classic conditioning
6.1) Damage to which of the following would result in a diminished ability to speak and
write, with nonfluent speech and vocabulary that is often reduced to expletives?
a) Supramarginal gyri of the temporal lobe
b) Angular gyri of the temporal lobe
c) Posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus
d) Inferior frontal gyrus just anterior to the face
e) A, B, or C
6.2) Damage to which of the following would result in fluent but meaningless speech
with frequent paraphasias and neologisms (words with personal meaning)?
a) Supramarginal gyri of the temporal lobe
b) Angular gyri of the temporal lobe
c) Putamen
d) Olfactory tubercle
e) Caudate nucleus
2.4) Where would primarily GABAergic neurons with high rates of spontaneous activity
be found?
a) Globus pallidus
b) Nucleus accumbens
c) Putamen
d) Substantia innominata
e) Caudate nucleus
2.5) The substantia nigra is divided into the pars compacta, which produces ____, and the
pars reticulate, which has ____-ergic neurons.
a) GABA; Dopamine
b) Dopamine; GABA
c) GABA; Acetylcholine
d) Acetylcholine; GABA
2.6) The direct pathways for basal nuclei ____ flow through the thalamus and has fibers
that use ____ and substance P.
a) Inhibits; Dopamine
b) Inhibits; GAB A
c) Facilitates; Dopamine
d) Facilitates; GABA
e) Facilitates; Enkephalin
2.7) The indirect pathways for basal nuclei includes a loop through the subthalamic
nucleus and the:
a) Globus pallidus
b) Nucleus accumbens
c) Putamen
d) Substantia innominata
e) Caudate nucleus
3.1) Which of the following is centered on the ventral striatum, plays a role in
maintenance of memory, and may be involved in schizophrenia?
a) Motor loop
b) Oculomotor loop
c) Dorsolateral Prefrontal loop
d) Lateral orbitofrontal loop
e) Limbic loop
3.2) Where is the motor loop (basal ganglia modality) centered?
a) Globus pallidus
b) Supplementary motor area (SMA)
c) Putamen
d) Primary motor cortex (MC)
e) Premotor cortex (PMC)
4.1) Which of the following is commonly seen in those with vascular lesions localized to
the contralateral subthalamic nucleus?
a) Akinesia: impaired ability to initiate voluntary movements
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d) Medulla nuclei
e) Pons nuclei
2.1) The vestibulocerebellar module is made of the vestibulocerebellum and the:
a) Fastigial nucleus
b) Globose nucleus
c) Emboliform nucleus
d) Dentate nucleus
2.2) Which of the following cerebellar functional divisions contains the vermis?
a) Vestibulocerebellum (Archicerebellum)
b) Spinocerebellum (Paleocerebellum)
c) Cerebrocerebellum (Neocerebellum)
2.3) The spinocerebellum is able to elaborate proprioceptive input in order to anticipate
the future position of a body part during the course of a movement, in a "feed forward"
manner.
a) True
b) False, that is the role of the vestibulocerebellum/flocculocerebellum
c) False, that is the role of the cerebrocerebellum/pontocerebellum
2.4) The vestibulocerebellum is involved in planning movement that is about to occur and
has purely cognitive functions as well.
a) True
b) False, that is the role of the spinocerebellum
c) False, that is the role of the cerebrocerebellum/pontocerebellum
3) Which of the following would occur with a lesion of the cerebellum?
a) Impaired performance of some previously learned motor behaviors
b) Impaired learning of some new motor behaviors
c) Impaired timing of motor behaviors/movements
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
4.1) Which of the following refers to lesions of the lateral cerebellum resulting in
deterioration of coordinated movement?
a) Dyssynergia
b) Ataxia
c) Dysmetria
d) Intention tremor
e) Dysdiadochokinesia
f) Dysarthria
4.2) Which of the following is shows accentuated movement near a target such as when a
patient is asked to touch their nose with their finger tip and is seen in lesions of the
cerebrocerebellum?
a) Dyssynergia
b) Ataxia
c) Dysmetria
d) Intention tremor
e) Dysdiadochokinesia
f) Dysarthria
4.3) Which of the following would be seen in a vestibulocerebellar lesion?
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a) Dyssynergia
b) Dysdiadochokinesia
c) Dysmetria and decomposition
d) Contralateral ataxia
e) Ipsilateral ataxia
4.4) A patient presents with palatal myoclonus (PM) due to damage to the Triangle of
Guillain-Mollaret. Which of the following is NOT a part of this triangle?
a) Red nucleus
b) Dentate nucleus
c) Globus pallidus
d) Inferior olivary nucleus
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a) Oculomotor nucleus
b) Edinger-Westphal nucleus
c) Trochlear nucleus
d) Abducens nucleus
e) Medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)
2.2) Which of the following contains the cholinergic, preganglionic parasympathetic
motor neurons that control lens accommodation and pupillary constriction?
a) Oculomotor nucleus
b) Edinger-Westphal nucleus
c) Trochlear nucleus
d) Abducens nucleus
e) Medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)
2.3) While examining a patient, eye convergence is intact. When the patient looks to the
left, the left eye goes left but the right eye stays at neutral. Which of the following is the
most likely?
a) CN IV on the right
b) CN VI on the left
c) MLF on the right
d) MLF on the left
e) MLF bilaterally
2.4) Damage to the pontine tegmentum (unilateral lesion of the paramedian pontine
reticular formation) would most likely cause what extraocular movement signs?
a) Bilateral MLF lesion
b) CN VI lesion with MLF ipsilaterally
c) CN VI lesion with MLF contralaterally
d) MLF on the ipsilateral side
e) MLF on the contralateral side
2.5) If a patient is asked to look to the left and then down, and both eyes look left but
only the left eye looks down, what nerve is damaged?
a) CN III on the right
b) CN III on the left
c) CN IV on the right
d) CN IV on the left
e) CN VI on the right
f) CN VI on the left
3) Damage to one side of the sympathetic trunk leads to Horner syndrome, which would
have which of the following signs seen in a patient sitting under a heat lamp?
a) Ipsilateral ptosis; Ipsilateral miosis; Ipsilateral diaphoresis
b) Ipsilateral ptosis; Ipsilateral miosis; Contrlateral diaphoresis
c) Ipsilateral ptosis; Ipsilateral mydriasis; Ipsilateral diaphoresis
d) Ipsilateral ptosis; Ipsilateral mydriasis; Contralateral diaphoresis
e) Contralateral ptosis; Contralateral miosis; Ipsilateral diaphoresis
f) Contralateral ptosis; Contralateral mydriasis; Contralateral diaphoresis
4.1) The horizontal gaze center is found in the pons, surrounding which of the following?
a) Oculomotor nucleus
b) Edinger-Westphal nucleus
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c) Trochlear nucleus
d) Abducens nucleus
e) Medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)
4.2) The vertical gaze center, found in the midbrain, would be affected by what kind of
tumor?
a) Pineal tumor
b) Pituitary tumor
c) Choroidal tumor
d) Medulla tumor
e) Sellar tumor
4.3) What is the role of the nucleus prepositus hypoglossi?
a) Tongue movement
b) Maintaining neural eye position
c) Sending excitatory burst signals for eye movement
d) Sending inhibitory burst signals for eye movement
e) Sending a hold signal for maintaining non-neutral eye position
4.4) Damage to neurons located in the supraoculomotor area would lead to what deficit?
a) No response to light
b) Loss of accommodation reflex
c) Loss of saccades movement
d) Loss of smooth pursuit movement
e) Movement of both eyes into a down and out position
4.5) Lesion of the superior colliculus, which can localize a stimulus, would lead to what
deficit (usually with full recovery)?
a) No response to light
b) Loss of accommodation reflex
c) Loss of saccades movement
d) Loss of smooth pursuit movement
e) Movement of both eyes into a down and out position
4.6) During a caloric ear test, cold water is injected into the external auditory canal.
Which of the following will be seen in relation to the ear being tested?
a) Slow movement ipsilaterally with fast saccade (beat) contralaterally
b) Slow movement contralaterally with fast saccade (beat) ipsilaterally
c) Fast saccade (beat) ipsilaterally with slow movement contralaterally
d) Fast saccade (beat) contralaterally with slow movement ipsilaterally
5.1) You are sitting in a car at a stoplight. The car next to you begins to move and you get
the feeling that you are moving (optokinetic reflex). Which of the following is NOT
required for the reflex circuit?
a) Retinal ganglion cells
b) Accessory nuclei
c) Pontine nuclei
d) Cerebellum
e) Vestibular nuclei
f) Superior olivary complex
5.2) The convergence triad of ocular events requires constriction of the pupils, a ciliary
body (lens movement) and which extraocular muscle?
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a) Superior rectus
b) Inferior rectus
c) Lateral rectus
d) Medial rectus
e) Superior oblique
f) Inferior oblique
5.3) In the pupillary light reflex, the afferent limb is the ____ nerve and the efferent limb
is the ____ nerve.
a) Optic; Oculomotor
b) Oculomotor; Optic
c) Optic; Abducens
d) Abducens; Optic
e) Trochlear; Oculomotor
5.4) In the blink reflex, the afferent limb is the ____ nerve and the efferent limb is the
____ nerve.
a) Trigeminal; Oculomotor
b) Optic; Oculomotor
c) Trigeminal; Facial
d) Facial; Trigeminal
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2.1) Which of the following divisions of the hypothalamus contains the sexual dimorphic
nucleus involved in the release of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)?
a) Preoptic area
b) Lateral zone
c) Medial zone
d) Periventricular zone
2.2) Which of the following nuclei is NOT found in the supraoptic (chiasmatic) region of
the medial hypothalamic zone?
a) Supraoptic
b) Preoptic
c) Paraventricular
d) Suprachiasmatic
e) Anterior
2.3) Which of the following divisions of the hypothalamus contains a feeding center,
which responds to changes in blood glucose?
a) Preoptic area
b) Lateral zone
c) Medial zone
d) Peraventricular zone
2.4) Which of the following hypothalamic areas plays a role in male vocalization, male
sexual mounting, and female sexual lordosis behavior?
a) Arcuate nucleus
b) Ventromedial nucleus
c) Dorsomedial hypothalamic nucleus
d) Pituitary gland
e) Posterior nucleus
2.5) Korsakoff syndrome (amnesic-confabulatory syndrome) is a brain disorder of the
medial hypothalamus caused by a lack of thiamine, which is seen in which of the
following groups of patients?
a) Diabetics
b) Epileptics
c) Stroke patients
d) Chronic alcoholics
e) Cocaine users
2.6) Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is involved in thermoregulation such as
sweating?
a) Medial preoptic nucleus
b) Supraoptic nucleus
c) Paraventricular nucleus
d) Anterior hypothalamic nucleus
e) Suprachiasmatic nucleus
2.7) Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei are involved in release of oxytocin and
vasopressin?
a) Anterior hypothalamic nucleus and medial preoptic nucleus
b) Supraoptic nucleus and paraventricular nucleus
c) Suprachiasmatic nucleus and lateral preoptic nucleus
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a) Caudal/Posterior
b) Rostral/Anterior
c) Lateral
d) Medial
7.3) The supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei are involved in the water reflex, which can
lead to diabetes insipidus with inappropriate secretion of what hormone?
a) Vasopressin (ADH)
b) Prolactin
c) Leutinizing hormone (LH)
d) Growth hormone
e) FSH & TSH
7.4) Damage to which of the following areas will likely lead to endocrine imbalance?
a) Paraventricular nuclei
b) Supraoptic nuclei
c) Mamillary process
d) Infundibulum
e) Posterior hypothalamus
7.5) A patient presents with anosmia and gonad digenesis (sterility) due to Kallman
syndrome. Cells secreting which of the following did not develop for this patient during
embryonic stages?
a) Corticotropin-releasing hormone
b) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
c) Growth hormone-releasing hormone
d) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
e) Leutinizing hormone-releasing hormone
7.6) A lesion to the anterior hypothalamus will most likely lead to what temperature
regulation affect?
a) Hyperthermia
b) Hypothermia
c) Poikilothermia
d) No affect
7.7) A lesion to the posterior hypothalamus will most likely lead to what temperature
regulation affect?
a) Hyperthermia
b) Hypothermia
c) Poikilothermia
d) No affect
7.8) Which of the following areas of the hypothalamus is most involved in appetite?
a) Paraventricular nuclei
b) Ventromedial nuclei
c) Lateral hypothalamic nucleus
d) Dorsomedial hypothalamic nucleus
e) Suprachiasmic nucleus
7.9) Which of the following areas of the hypothalamus is most involved in circadian
rhythms (sleep)?
a) Paraventricular nuclei
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b) Ventromedial nuclei
c) Lateral hypothalamic nucleus
d) Dorsomedial hypothalamic nucleus
e) Suprachiasmic nucleus
7.10) Damage to which of the following hypothalamic areas would most lead to extreme
aggressivity (unprovoked attacks)?
a) Paraventricular nuclei
b) Ventromedial nuclei
c) Lateral hypothalamic nucleus
d) Dorsomedial hypothalamic nucleus
e) Suprachiasmic nucleus
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2.4) A patient presents with diminished emotional response, immobility, inability to talk,
and unresponsiveness (akinetic mutism). Which of the following parts of the cingulated
gyrus was affected?
a) One side of the anterior portion
b) Both sides of the anterior portion
c) One side of the posterior portion
d) Both sides of the posterior portion
2.5) A patient presents with suspected memory loss. A clinician tells the patient three
words to remember and begins an examination. Thirty seconds later, the clinician asks
the patient about the words and the patient cannot even recall being asked to remember
any words (anterograde amnesia). Which structure is likely damaged?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Thalamus
c) Hippocampus
d) Amygdala
e) Nucleus accumbens
2.6) A patient presents with intracellular neurofibrillary tangles and extracellular amyloid
deposits in the subiculum and entorhinal cortex. Which of the following is the most
likely?
a) Akinetic mutism
b) Korsakoff syndrome
c) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
d) Klüver-Bucy syndrome
e) Alzheimer disease
f) Anterograde amnesia
3.1) The amygdala is located directly anterior (rostral) to which of the following?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Thalamus
c) Hippocampus
d) Olfactory bulb
e) Prefrontal cortex
3.2) Which of the following areas are involved in combining uncontrolled olfactory input,
such as pheromones or certain scents, with memories when a person suddenly is able to
bring back “forgotten” memories when they smell certain scents?
a) Thalamus and hypothalamus
b) Hippocampus and amygdala
c) Nucleus accumbens and septal nuclei
d) Prefrontal cortex and olfactory bulb
e) Broca area and Wernicke area
3.3) Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with an amygdala lesion
causing Klüver-Bucy syndrome?
a) Hyperorality
b) Hypermetamorphosis
c) Hyperphagia
d) Hypersexuality
e) Hypervigilance
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3.4) Which of the following would give you an impending sense of danger if you saw a
big person wearing a ski mask and holding a knife in a dark alley?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Thalamus
c) Hippocampus
d) Amygdala
e) Olfactory bulb
4) Which of the following are proposed roles of the nucleus accumbens?
a) Laughter, pleasure, fear, addiction
b) Hunger, satiety, thirst, hunting behaviors
c) Feelings of warmth, cold, shivering
d) Circadian rhythms, sleep, crying
e) Anger, rage, vocalization, sorrow
5) Which of the following is NOT considered a role of the limbic system?
a) Memory
b) Pleasure
c) Fear
d) Sorrow
e) Appetite
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e) Lateral nuclei
2.2) Which of the following thalamic nuclei functions with the limbic system in emotion
and memory?
a) Anterior nuclei
b) Medial nuclei
c) Intralaminar nuclei
d) Reticular nuclei
e) Lateral nuclei
2.3) Which of the following thalamic nuclei connects with the frontal lobe and
hypothalamus to integrate sensory information?
a) Anterior nuclei
b) Medial nuclei
c) Intralaminar nuclei
d) Reticular nuclei
e) Lateral nuclei
2.4) The thalamus acts as a state-dependent gate in that it is a ____ fidelity delay when
someone is in the ____ state.
a) Low; Awake
b) High; Awake
c) Low; Sleep
d) High; Sleep
3.1) A patient presents with lack of concentration, apathy, lack of insight, lack of
cleanliness, loss of social graces, and disinhibition (inappropriate behaviors). Which of
the following is most likely?
a) Wernicke aphasia
b) Broca aphasia
c) Contralateral neglect
d) Damage to prefrontal cortex
e) Damage to corpus callosum
3.2) A lesion to what Brodmann area would result in ageusia (loss of taste sensation)?
a) BA 1, 2, 3
b) BA 6, 8, 9
c) BA 5
d) BA 41, 42
e) BA 43
3.3) Alexia without agraphia, seen in damage to the corpus callosum splenium or even
the occipital lobe (visual agnosia), nearly always involves what artery?
a) Left middle cerebral artery
b) Right middle cerebral artery
c) Left posterior cerebral artery
d) Right posterior cerebral artery
3.4) A patient is asked to raise her right arm and she does so correctly. The patient is able
to speak fluently on her own, but when asked their name the patient responds with, “the
kangaroo ate my toothbrush.” Which of the following is the most likely problem?
a) Wernicke aphasia
b) Broca aphasia
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c) Conduction aphasia
d) Damage to prefrontal cortex
e) Damage to corpus callosum
f) Global aphasia
3.5) A patient presents with damage to the middle cerebral artery. They have great
difficulty recognizing any form of language, including environmental sounds. They make
several attempts at speaking, but the words come out in a random, contextually
inappropriate mix. Which of the following is the most likely problem?
a) Wernicke aphasia
b) Broca aphasia
c) Conduction aphasia
d) Global aphasia
e) Damage to splenium of the corpus callosum
3.6) A patient presents with occlusion to the frontal M4 branches of the middle cerebral
artery. The patient is asked to describe how they came to the hospital for cardiovascular
surgery and responds slowly with, “Yea… uh… Monday… er… Dad… Wednesday…
hospital… ah… nine o’clock… blood… doctors… heart.” Which of the following is the
most likely problem?
a) Wernicke aphasia
b) Broca aphasia
c) Conduction aphasia
d) Global aphasia
e) Damage to splenium of the corpus callosum
3.7) A patient presents with asomatognosia, left-sided astereognosia, alexia, and
agraphia. To test for neglect syndrome, the clinician closes the patient’s right eye and
holds a finger up. The clinician asks if the patient sees the finger and the patient cannot.
The clinician then wiggles the finger and the patient can now see it. Which of the
following areas is most likely damaged?
a) Left temporal lobe
b) Right temporal lobe
c) Left parietal lobe
d) Right parietal lobe
3.8) Damage to which of the following areas would lead to transcortical (ideokinetic)
apraxia, where a patient would be able to move their right arm, when asked to move their
left arm they cannot physically make it happen, but can recognize objects placed in their
left hand (no astereognosia)?
a) Hippocampus
b) Amygdala
c) Pituitary gland
d) Corpus callosum
3.9) Which of the following would NOT be likely seen with damage to the parietal lobe?
a) Receptive aphasia
b) Alexia with agraphia
c) Conduction aphasia
d) Transcortical apraxia
e) Visual aphasia
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3.10) Global aphasia usually involves a “left side blowout” injury affecting which of the
following?
a) Broca area
b) Wernicke area
c) Arcuate fasciculus
d) All of the above
3.11) Conduction aphasia usually involves an injury affecting which of the following?
a) Broca area
b) Wernicke area
c) Arcuate fasciculus
d) All of the above
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b) Hypotension; Central
c) Hypertension; Border
d) Hypertension; Central
5.1) What cranial nerve arises between the posterior cerebral artery and the
quadrigeminal artery?
a) CN II
b) CN III
c) CN IV
d) CN V
e) CN VI
5.2) What cranial nerve arises at the branch point of the pontine and vertebral artery from
the basilar artery?
a) CN II
b) CN III
c) CN IV
d) CN V
e) CN VI
5.3) Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT directly adjacent to the posterior
inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)?
a) CN V
b) CN VII
c) CN VIII
d) CN IX
e) CN X
f) CN XI
6.1) Which of the following arteries does NOT supply the medulla?
a) Anterior spinal artery (ASA)
b) Posterior spinal artery (PSA)
c) Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)
d) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)
e) Quadrigeminal artery (QA)
6.2)Which of the following arteries supplying the pons is the most lateral?
a) Paramedian artery
b) Short circumferential artery
c) Long circumferential artery
d) Basilar artery
6.3) Most of the direct branches supplying the midbrain arise from what artery?
a) Superior cerebellar artery (SCA)
b) Posterior cerebral artery P1
c) Posterior cerebral artery P2
d) Posterior communicating artery
e) Basilar artery
6.4) Which of the following arteries of the deep forebrain (diencephalon) feeds the
putamen, globus pallidus, internal capsule, and basal ganglia?
a) Medial striate artery
b) Lenticulostriate artery
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c) Thalamoperforating artery
d) Medial posterior choroidal artery
e) Thalamogeniculate artery
6.5) Which of the following areas is NOT supplied by the middle cerebral artery?
a) Motor and premotor cortex
b) Somatosensory cortex
c) Auditory cortex
d) Broca and Wernicke areas
e) Association areas
f) Visual cortex
7) Which of the following would NOT be drained by the deep cerebral veins (internal
cerebral vein, basal vein, great cerebral vein)?
a) Basal ganglia
b) Internal capsule
c) Diencephalon
d) Pons
8) Which spinal cord artery feeds most of the grey matter?
a) Anterior spinal artery
b) Posterior spinal artery
c) Supplemental artery
d) Radicular artery
e) Artery of Adamkiewicz
9) A patient is given morphine in an ambulance and nearly immediately vomits on the
paramedic. Which of the following circumventricular organs, which have incomplete
blood-brain barriers, is associated with this reflex?
a) Pineal gland
b) Choroid plexus
c) Median eminence
d) Area postrema
e) Posterior pituitary
f) Subcommisural organ
g) Subfornical organ
10.1) What is the most likely neurological defect seen in thrombosis of the anterior spinal
artery (Beck syndrome) in the cervical level?
a) Loss of pain and temperature sensation below the lesion with flaccid paralysis
of the arms
b) Loss of pain and temperature sensation below the lesion with flaccid paralysis
of the arms, trunk, and legs
c) Loss of pain and temperature sensation above the lesion with spastic paralysis
of the arms
d) Loss of pain and temperature sensation above the lesion with spastic paralysis
of the arms, trunk, and legs
10.2) A patient presents with a clot in the anterior spinal artery, leading to medial
medullary syndrome (Dejerine syndrome). Which of the following clinical symptoms
will be ipsilateral?
a) Babinski sign
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Neuroscience – Part 2 14Mar2009
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Neuroscience – Part 2 14Mar2009
James Lamberg
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Neuroscience – Part 2 14Mar2009
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