At 1314 Sample Paper XI - Going To XII - IQ+PCM

FIITJEE Ltd.
, FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
FIITJEE ADMISSION TEST

ONE YEAR Classroom Program
USA UnivQuest One Year Classroom Program
IQ, PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Time: 3 Hours

Maximum Marks: 346

Instructions:

1. Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
2. This Questions paper consists of 4 Sections:
Section I IQ (Q. 1 to 30), Section II Physics (Q. 31 to 50),
Section III Chemistry (Q. 51 to 70), Section IV Mathematics (Q. 71 to 90).
3. All the questions are multiple choice questions having only one correct answer.
Each Double star (**) marked question carries +8 marks for correct answer and -3 marks for wrong
answer. Each Single star (*) marked question carries +5 marks for correct answer and -2 marks for
wrong answer. Each of the rest of questions carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 mark for
wrong answer.
4. You are advised to devote around 45 Minutes on each Section as there will be minimum cutoff
marks in each Section for qualifying.
5. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet.
6. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
7. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic devices, in any form, are not allowed.
8. Write your Name, Registration Number and Test Centre in the space provided below.

Registration Number :
Name of the Candidate : ___________________________________________________________
Test Centre : ___________________________________________________________

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
AT-2013-14-(Sample Paper)-XI (going to XII)-IQ+PCM-2
I IQ Q SECTION I

Straight Objective Type

This Section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If 7 5 4 = 57354 and 8 7 3 = 78563 then 6 8 5 = ?
(A) 86585 (B) 86855
(C) 68485 (D) 86485

2. Find the odd one out from the given alternatives:
(A) 94 7 (B) 42 6
(C) 35 5 (D) 56 8

3. Find the related word/number:
Suggest : Demand : : Take : ?
(A) Give (B) Grab
(C) Receive (D) Gift

**4. Which is the odd number in the pattern given below?
4 32 144 17
28 122 18 64
322 14 602 24
(A) 4 (B) 17
(C) 28 (D) None of these

5. If 87654 stands for GREAT, then 754 stands for
(A) GET (B) TEA
(C) EAT (D) RAT

*6. 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ?
(A) 18 (B) 21

7. 3, 4, 8, 17, 33, ?
(A) 58 (B) 45

Space For Rough Work

**8. Find the missing number
1 4 9 ?
1 2 3 4
2 4 6 ?
(A) 36 and 4 (B) 25 and 5
(C) 16 and 8 (D) 49 and 7

*9.
?

?
ab a
? ?
ba
?
ab
(A) abbba (B) abbab
(C) baabb (D) bbaba

Directions (10-14): Each of the following questions has three rows of figures. From the third row, one
figure is missing. The missing figure is one of the five alternative figures given at the end of each
question. Find the missing figure.
10.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

11.

(A) (B) (C) (D)



12.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

*13.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

**14.
(A) (B) (C) (D)


Directions (1516): In each of the following questions one or more statements have been given followed
by four inferences, A, B, C and D. Find out the inference that definitely follows from the given statement.
15. Soldiers serve their country.
(A) Those who serve their country are soldiers
(B) Women do not serve their country because they are not soldiers
(C) Men generally serve their country
(D) Some men who are soldiers serve their country.

16. Most of the pens in that shop are expensive.
(A) There are no cheap pens in that shop
(B) Some of the pens in that shop are expensive
(C) There are cheap pens also in that shop
(D) Camlin pens in that shop are expensive.

17. Look at the figure given below:

6
5
3
1
6
3
4
3
5
2
4
5

Which number is on the face opposite to 6?
(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 1 (D) 4

18. The next digit in the series 6, 4, 3, 12/5, will be:
(A) 7/3 (B) 9/4
(C) 13/5 (D) 2

**19. In the following question, the wrong term and its substitution by the correct term are indicated as
a pair in the four options to each question. Identify the correct pair.
24, 49, 99, 94, 15, 31, 59, 58
(A) (49, 47) (B) (99, 95)
(C) (94, 101) (D) None of these.

Directions (2022): In each of the questions given below, there is a letter group series with one term
missing as shown by (?). This term is given as one the alternatives among the groups of letters given
under it. Find this term.

*20. (?), PSVYB, EHKNQ, TWZCF, ILORU
(A) BEHKN (B) ADGJM
(C) ZCFIL (D) IMPSV

*21. ACMYA, FHNDF, (?) PRNNP, UWMSU, ZBNXZ
(A) INMKI (B) KMNIK
(C) IMNKI (D) KMMIK


**22. BASTU, (?) DCQVW, DEPXW, FEOXY, FGNZY
(A) CBTUT (B) CBRUV
(C) BCRVU (D) BCTVU

Directions (2325): In the questions given below there are four terms, one of which is missing as shown
by (?). Two terms to the left of : : bear the same relationship as the two terms to its right. Find the missing
term from among the five alternatives given at the end of each question.

**23. ? : JKHI : : TURS : OPMN
(A) MNOP (B) LMNO
(C) OPMN (D) NLMO

24. AEFJ : KOPT : : ? : QUVZ
(A) GLKP (B) GKLP
(C) HKLP (D) HKQL

25. ACEG : ? : : BDFH : KMOQ
(A) NLPR (B) LMNO
(C) JLNP (D) JNLO

26. A rat runs 20 m towards east and turns to right, runs 10 m and turns to right, runs 9 m and again
turns to left, turns to left, runs 5 m and then turns to left, runs 12 m and finally turns to left and
runs 6 m. Now which direction is the rat facing?
(A) East (B) North
(C) West (D) South

*27. Mehrunisa is the 11
th
from the either end of the row of girls, how many girls are there in that row?
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 21 (D) 22

Directions (2830): Choose the correct alternative.

28. If PAINTER is coded as 3528617 which is the correct code for TANRPEI?
(A) 6587312 (B) 6583721
(C) 6587132 (D) 6583712

29. PLANETS is coded as 4823579. Which is the correct code for SNLEPAT?
(A) 9385247 (B) 9384527
(C) 9385427 (D) 9385742

30. If MADRAS is coded as 56, how can CALCUTTA be coded
(A) 8 (B) 38
(C) 81 (D) 76


P Ph hy ys si ic cs s SECTION II



31. A cracker rocket is ejecting 0.05 kg of gases per sec at a velocity of 400 m/s. The accelerating
force on the rocket is
(A) 20 dynes (B) 20 N
(C) 20 kg wt. (D) none of the above

32. A light and a heavy body have equal momentum. Which of them has greater K.E.?
(A) The heavier body (B) The lighter body
(C) Both have equal K.E. (D) data is incomplete

33. Sonar works on the principle of
(A) reflection of sound waves. (B) momentum of sound waves.
(C) energy of sound waves (D) refraction of sound waves.

*34. Which of the curves in figure represents the relation
between Celcius and Farenheit temperature?
(A) (i) (B) (ii)
(C) (iii) (D) (iv)

C
F
(i)
(ii)
(iv)
(iii)

35. In perfectly inelastic collisions, the relative velocity of the bodies
(A) before impact is zero (B) before impact is equal to that after impact
(C) after impact is zero (D) is characterized by none of the above

Space for Rough Work

36. A uniform rope of length L, resting on a frictionless horizontal surface is pulled at one end by a
force F. What is the tension in the rope at a distance A from the free end?
(A) F (B) F |
.
|
\
|
+
L
1
A

(C) F (A/L) (D) F |
.
|
\
|

L
1
A

37. The Youngs modulus of a wire of length L and radius r is Y. If the length is reduced to L/3 and
radius remains r, its Youngs modulus will be
(A) Y/3 (B) Y
(C) 3Y (D) none of these

**38. Two particles one of mass m and the other of mass 2m are
projected horizontally towards each other from the same level
above the ground with velocities 10 m/s and 5 m/s respectively.
They collide in air and sticks to each other. The distance from A
where the combined mass finally falls on the ground is
60m
10 m/s 5 m/s
m
2m
A B

(A) 40 m (B) 20 m
(C) 30 m (D) zero

39. If the range of a gun which fires a shell with muzzle speed v is R then the angle of elevation of the
gun is
(A) cos
1
2
v
gR
| |
|
|
\ .
(B) cos
1
2
gR
v
| |
|
\ .

(C)
2
1 v
2 gR
| |
|
|
\ .
(D)
1
2
1 gR
sin
2
v
| |
|
\ .

*40. The radius of a ring is R and its coefficient of linear expansion is . If the temp of ring increases
by then its circumference will increase by
(A) R (B) 2 R
(C) R/2 (D) R/4


41. A satellite of mass m initially at rest on the earth, is launched into a circular orbit of radius equal
to twice the radius R of the earth. The energy required is
(A) gRm
2
1
(B) gRm
4
3

(C) gRm (D)
4
1
gRm

42. A particle is kept at rest at a distance R (earth's radius) above the earth surface. The minimum
speed with which it should be projected so that it does not return to earths surface
(A)
R 4
GM
(B)
R 2
GM

(C)
R
GM
(D)
R
GM 2

**43. An aluminium rod (length A
1
; coefficient of linear expansion
a
) and a steel rod (length A
2
;
coefficient of linear expansion
s
) are joined such that the total length becomes (A
1
+ A
2
). If the
increase in lengths of aluminium and steel rods is found to be same when the system is raised to
a certain temperature, then the ratio ( )
2 1 1
A A A + .
(A)
a s
(B)
s a

(C) ( )
s a s
+ (D) ( )
s a a
+

**44. A body of mass m, moving on a frictionless surface with speed v
strikes a spring as shown in the figure.
Assertion (A): The speed of the block when it returns back to P is
equal to v
Reason (R): This is so because spring force is a conservative
force.
m
V
P
(A) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(B) Assertion is true but Reason is not true.
(C) Both A and R are wrong.
(D) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A .


*45. The equations of displacement of two waves are given as
y
1
= 20 sin 3 t
3
| |
+
|
\ .
; y
2
= 10 sin3 t 3 cos3 t
(
+

. The ratio of their amplitude is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 1 (D) None of these.

46. The moment of a force is a measure of
(A) the impulse of the force. (B) the stability of the body.
(C) the capacity to turn a body. (D) the change in momentum of a body.

47. A particle is projected up from a point O with a velocity u in a direction making an angle with the
horizontal. After some time at point P it is moving parallel to the horizontal. The time of flight from O to
P is
(A)
u
g Sin
(B)
ucos
g

(C)
u tan
g

(D)
usin
g

*48. A shell is fired from a cannon with a velocity V at an angle with horizontal . At the highest point
in its path, it explodes into two pieces of equal mass. One of the pieces retraces its path to
the cannon then the speed of the other piece immediately after the explosion is
(A) 3V cos (B) 2 V cos
(C)
3
2
V cos (D)
3
2
V cos

49. A string A has double the length, double the tension, double the diameter and double the density
as another string B. Their fundamental frequencies of vibration are n
A
and n
B
respectively. The
ratio
n
A
/n
B
is equal to
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/2
(C) 2 (D) 4

**50. An accelerated system with a vertical wall has co-efficient of friction
between block and walls as shown in the figure. A block M of
mass 1 kg just remains in equilibrium with the vertical wall, when the
system has an acceleration of 20 m/s
2
. The minimum value of co-
efficient of friction will be
(A) 0.10 (B) 0.25
(C) 0.50 (D) 1

Acceleration
M


C Ch he em mi is st tr ry y SECTION III



*51. Which quantum number is used to calculate the energy of electron in any shell of Hydrogen like
atom?
(A) A (B) s
(C) m (D) n

**52. What designation is given to an orbital having n = 2, A = 1?
(A) 2p (B) 3s
(C) 3p (D) 3d

53. Which is the correct electronic configuration of scandium (atomic number = 21) (Sc
+
) ion?
(A) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
6
4s
1
3d
1
(B) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
6
4s
2

(C) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
6
3d
2
4s
1
(D) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
6

54. Which of the species are isoelectronic?
(A) N, O (B) Cl
, K
+

(C) Mg
++
, K
+
(D) H, He

**55. Which is not possible?
(A) n = 3, A = 0, m = 0 (B) n = 3, A = 1, m = 1
(C) n = 3, A = 1, m = 1 (D) n = 3, A = 2, m = 1

56. Which solution will be strongly acidic?
(A) pH = 4.5 (B) pH = 1
(C) pOH = 8.0 (D) pOH = 7.5

**57. Which of the following acts as a Bronsted acid?
(A)
3
HCO
(B) NH
3

(C) Na
2
CO
3
(D) NaCl

**58. The H
+
ion concentration in 1 M CH
3
COOH solution if K
a
of CH
3
COOH is 1.6 10
5
is
(A) 4 10
3
M (B) 0.4 10
3
M
(C) 4 10
4
M (D) 0.4 10
4
M


59. The conjugate base of CH
3
OH is
(A)
3
CH
+
(B)
3
CH

(C) CH
3
O
(D)
3 2
CH OH

60. The conjugate acid of
2
NH
is
(A)
4
NH
+
(B) N
2
H
4

(C) NH
2
OH (D) NH
3

61. The number of moles of sodium in 53 g of Na
2
CO
3

(A) 0.5 mole (B) 1 mole
(C) 2 mole (D) 3 mole

*62. A solution containing 20 g NaOH in 200 cm
3
of volume will have molarity
(A) 1.5 M (B) 2.0 M
(C) 1.0 M (D) 2.5 M

63. A compound having empirical formula C
2
H
3
O
2
and molecular mass of 118 will be having
molecular formula
(A) C
4
H
8
O
4
(B) C
2
H
3
O
2

(C) C
4
H
6
O
4
(D) C
2
H
6
O

*64. Which of the following has zero dipole moment?
(A)
Cl
Cl

(B)
Cl
Cl
(C)
Cl
Cl

(D)
Cl

65. The shape of H
2
O molecule is
(A) tetrahedral (B) planar
(C) pyramidal (D) Vshape


*66. Which bond is the least ionic?
(A) HF (B) HCl
(C) FF (D) ClF

67. The shape of PCl
5
molecule is
(A) tetrahedral (B) linear
(C) trigonal bipyramidal (D) planar

68. Ozone hole refers to the conversion of ozone (O
3
) into
(A) Oxygen (B) CO
2

(C) NO
2
(D) SO
2

69. A colourless and odourless gas produced by incomplete combustion of fuels and is a serious air
pollutant is
(A) carbon dioxide (B) carbon monoxide
(C) oxygen (D) methane

70. Kinetic molecular theory of gases is applicable to
(A) real gases (B) ideal gases
(C) both (D) none


M Ma at th he em ma at ti ic cs s SECTION - IV


71. If x 2, then cos
-1
(cosx) is equal to
(A) x (B)-x
(C) 2 + x (D) 2-x

72. If tan(x + y) = 33 and x = tan
-1
3, then y will be
(A) 0.3 (B) tan
-1
(1.3)
(C) tan
-1
(0.3) (D) tan
-1
(1/18)

73. The perimeter of a triangle ABC is 6 times the arithmetic mean of the sines of its angles. If the
side a is 1, then the angle A is
(A) /6 (B) /3
(C) /2 (D)

**74. If a, b, c are in G.P. then the equations ax
2
+2bx+c=0 and dx
2
+2ex+f=0 have a common root if
c
f
,
b
e
,
a
d
are in
(A) A.P. (B) G.P.
(C) H.P. (D) None of these.
75. The sum to n terms of the series 1+2(1 +
n
1
)+ 3(1+
n
1
)
2
+.... is given by
(A) n
2
+ 1 (B) n(n + 1)
(C) n(1+
1
n
)
2
(D) none of these.

*76. The circle passing through the points (1, t), (t, 1) and (t, t) for all values of t, passes through the
point
(A) (1, 2) (B) (1, 3)
(C) (1, 1) (D) (0, 1)


77. The co-ordinates of the point on the parabola y
2
= 8x, which is at minimum distance from the
circle x
2
+ (y + 6)
2
= 1 are :
(A) (2, -4) (B) (18, -12)
(C) (2,4) (D) None of these

78. The angle between the tangents drawn from the origin to the parabola y
2
= 4a(x - a) is
(A) 90 (B) 45
(C) 60 (D) tan
-1
2.

79. The number of common tangents that can be drawn to the circles x
2
+ y
2
4x 6y 3 = 0 and
x
2
+ y
2
+ 2x + 2y + 1 = 0 is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

80. If the roots of the equation ax
3
x
2
+ ax 16 = 0 from a G.P. then the value of a is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 2 (D) 4

81. Numbers of numbers of more than one digit in which digits are in decreasing order from left to
right is
(A) 502 (B) 512
(C) 1024 (D) 1013

**82. If z
1
and z
2
are two complex number such that , z
1
z
2
, = , , z
1
, , z
2
,,, then argz
1
argz
2
is equal
to
(A) - (B) -/2
(C) /2 (D) 0

*83. The point of intersection of the tangents of the circle x
2
+ y
2
= 10, drawn at end points of the chord
x + y = 2 is
(A) (-5, -5) (B) (-5, -4)
(C) (-4, -5) (D) None of these

84. The maximum distance of the point (4, 4) from the circle x
2
+ y
2
2x 15 = 0 is
(A) 10 (B) 9

**85. The coefficient of x
13
in the expansion of (1 -x)
5
(1 + x + x
2
+ x
3
)
4
is
(A) 4 (B) 4


86. Equation of common tangent to the parabola y
2
= 8x and the hyperbola 3x
2
y
2
= 3 is
(A) 2x + y + 1 = 0 (B) 2x + y + 2 = 0
(C) 2x y 1 = 0 (D) none of these

*87. The inequality Z 4 Z 2 < represents the region given by
(A) Re (Z) > 0 (B) Z+ Z > 8
(C) Re (Z) > 2 (D) Re (Z) > 3

88. The number of lines that can be formed from 12 points in a plane of which 6 points lie on a line is
(A) 45 (B) 52
(C) 50 (D) 46

*89. If u =
( ) ( )
1 1
cot cos tan cos

then sin u equals to
(A) tan
2
(B)
1 cos
1 cos
+

(C)
2
tan
2
(D)
2
cot
2

**90. If the difference between the roots of x
2
+ ax b = 0 is equal to the difference between the roots
of x
2
px + q = 0 then p
2
a
2
in terms of b and q is
(A) 4 (b + q) (B) 4 (b + q)
(C) 4 (b q ) (D) None of these


FIITJEE ADMISSION TEST
for students presently in
Class- XI
IQ, PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
ANSWERS

SECTION I (IQ)

1. D 2. A 3. B 4. B
5. D 6. B 7. A 8. C
9. B 10. D 11. A 12. A
13. B 14. B 15. A 16. C
17. D 18. D 19. B 20. B
21. D 22. C 23. C 24. B
25. C 26. B 27. C 28. A
29. C 30. C

SECTION II (Physics)

31. B 32. B 33. A 34. A
35. C 36. C 37. B 38. A
39. D 40. B 41. B 42. C
43. C 44. A 45. C 46. C
47. D 48. A 49. A 50. C

SECTION III (Chemistry)

51. D 52. A 53. A 54. B
55. C 56. B 57. A 58. A
59. C 60. D 61. A 62. D
63. C 64. C 65. D 66. C
67. C 68. A 69. B 70. B

SECTION IV (Mathematics)

71. D 72. C 73. A 74. A
75. D 76. C 77. A 78. A
79. C 80. B 81. D 82. D
83. D 84. B 85. A 86. A
87. D 88. B 89. C 90. B

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