CA0-001_formatted

Number: 001-150 Passing Score: 650 Time Limit: 180 min File Version: 1.0 PMI CA0-001

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Version: 4.6 PMI CA0-001 Exam Topic 1, Volume A

Exam A QUESTION 1 On what is project baseline development established? A. B. C. D. Approved product requirements Estimated project cost and schedule Actual project cost and schedule Revised project cost and schedule

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 2 Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following? A. B. C. D. Work breakdown structure Organizational breakdown structure Resource breakdown structure Bill of materials

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 3 What is the definition of project plan execution? A. B. C. D. Integrating all planned activities. Performing the activities included in the plan. Developing and maintaining the plan. Execution of deliverables.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 4 What is a tool to improve team performance? A. B. C. D. Staffing plan External feedback Performance reports Co-Location

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 5 Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan? A. B. C. D. Product Cost benefit Stakeholder Research

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 6 Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. What is an output from information distribution? A. B. C. D. Earned value analysis Trend analysis Project records Performance reviews

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 7 Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating? A. B. C. D. Control chart Earned value Variance Trend

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 8

You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective and current? A. B. C. D. Perform periodic project performance reviews. Identify quality project standards. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards Complete the quality control checklist.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The document control plan is an outline or guide on how physical or virtual documents will be managed throughout the life of the project. It provides a road map for tracking documents and for adding, archiving, and removing new documentation from the process. QUESTION 9 Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom? A. B. C. D. Failure to meet intermediate milestones Force of nature, such as a flood Risk threshold target Crashing front loading or fast tracking

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 10 During what process is the quality policy determined? A. B. C. D. Initiating Executing Planning Controlling

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 11 What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing? A. B. C. D. Responsibility assignment matrix Work breakdown structure update Project network diagram Mandatory dependencies list

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 12 Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following? A. B. C. D. Acceptance of the work deliverables. Accuracy of the work deliverables. Approval of the scope statement. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 13 Which of the following is an example of contract administration? A. B. C. D. Negotiating the contract Authorizing contractor work Developing the statement of work Establishing evaluation criteria

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 14 Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented? A. B. C. D. Customers Project sponsors Project management team Insurance claims department

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 15 A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete, and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed.

What is the cost variance? A. B. C. D. -$700 -$200 +$200 +$500

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 16 How is quality control performed? A. By identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them. B. By monitoring specific project results in compliance with relevant quality standards and determining corrective actions as needed. C. By ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes. D. By applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards. Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 17 As part of a mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of total project cost. You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods? A. B. C. D. BAC EAC ETC WBS

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 18 How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique? A. B. C. D. EV less AC AC less PV EV less PV AC less EV

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

QUESTION 19 The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide should: A. B. C. D. Always be applied uniformly Be selected as appropriate by the sponsor Be selected as appropriate by the project team Be applied based on ISO guidelines.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 20 Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them? A. B. C. D. Project sponsor and project manager Project sponsor and functional manager Project manager and project team Project team and functional manager

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The project management processes are presented as discrete elements with well- defined interfaces. However, in practice they overlap and interact in ways that are not completely detailed here. Most experienced project management practitioners recognize there is more than one way to manage a project. The specifics for a project are defined as objectives that must be accomplished based on complexity, risk, size, time frame, project team's experience, access to resources, amount of historical information, the organization's project management maturity, and industry and application area. The required Process Groups and their

constituent processes are guides to apply appropriate project management knowledge and skills during the project. In addition, the application of the project management processes to a project is iterative and many processes are repeated and revised during the project. The project manager and the project team are responsible for determining what processes from the Process Groups will be employed, by whom, and the degree of rigor that will be applied to the execution of those processes to achieve the desired project objective. QUESTION 21 Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all processes needed to meet its requirements? A. B. C. D. Perform Quality Control Quality Policy Perform Quality Assurance Quality Planning

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 22 Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group? A. B. C. D. Cost Control Quality Planning Quantitative Risk Analysis Cost Budgeting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 23 The Define Scope process is in which of the following process groups? A. B. C. D. Initiating Planning Monitoring & Controlling Executing

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 24 Which activity is an input to the select sellers process? A. Organizational process assets

B. Resource availability C. Change control process D. Team performance assessment Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 25 What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle? A. B. C. D. Pareto Ishikawa Shewart-Deming Delphi

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 26 Which of the following methods is a project selection technique? A. B. C. D. Flowcharting Earned value Cost-benefit analysis Pareto analysis

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Selection MethodsThere are various project selection methods practiced by the modern business organizations. These methods have different features and characteristics. Therefore, each selection method is best for different organizations. Although there are many differences between these project selection methods, usually the underlying concepts and principles are the same. Following is an illustration of two of such methods (Benefit Measurement and Constrained Optimization methods).

As the value of one project would need to be compared against the other projects, you could use the benefit measurement methods. This could include various techniques, of which the following are the most common. You and your team could come up with certain criteria that you want your ideal project objectives to meet. You could then give each project scores based on how they rate in each of these criteria, and then choose the project with the highest score. When it comes to the Discounted Cash flow method, the future value of a project is ascertained by considering the present value and the interest earned on the money. The higher the present value of the project, the better it would be for your organization. The rate of return received from the money is what is known as the IRR. Here again, you need to be looking for a high rate of return from the project. The mathematical approach is commonly used for larger projects. The constrained optimization methods require several calculations in order to decide on whether or not a project should be rejected. Cost-benefit analysis is used by several organizations to assist them to make their selections. Going by this method, you would have to consider all the positive aspects of the project, which is the benefits, and then deduct the negative aspects (or the costs) from the benefits. Based on the results you receive for different projects, you could choose which option would be the most viable and financially rewarding. These benefits and costs need to be carefully considered and quantified in order to arrive at a proper conclusion. Questions that you may want to consider asking are in the selection process are: 1. Would this decision help me to increase organizational value in the long run? 2. How long will the equipment last for? 3. Would I be able to cut down on costs as I go along? In addition to these methods, you could also consider Choosing based on opportunity cost - When choosing any project, you would need to keep in mind the profits that you would make if you do decide to go ahead with the project. Profit optimization is therefore the ultimate goal. You need to consider the difference between the profits of the project you are primarily interested in, and the next best alternative. QUESTION 27 While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation? A. Utilize the change control process. B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect. C. Leave the defect in and work around it.

D. Fast-track the remaining development. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 28 Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan? A. B. C. D. Expert Judgment Project Management Methodology Project Management Information Project Selection Methods

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 29 Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process? A. B. C. D. Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 30 Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation through project closure? A. B. C. D. Resource leveling Parametric measuring Pareto chart Earned value

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 31

An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is: A. B. C. D. Organizational Structure Organizational Process Assets Organizational Matrix Organizational Breakdown Structures

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 32 The product scope description is used to: A. B. C. D. Gain stakeholders' support for the project. Document the characteristics of the product. Describe the project in great detail. Formally authorize the project.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 33 What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS? A. B. C. D. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 34 Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope? A. B. C. D. Cost-Benefit Analysis Variance Analysis Reserve Analysis Stakeholder Analysis

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 35 Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization? A. B. C. D. WBS CPI OBS BOM

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 36 Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation? A. B. C. D. Project Quality Plan Project Schedule Network Project Management Software Project Scope Management Plan

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 37 Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition? A. B. C. D. Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown Structure Activity list and Arrow Diagram Change Requests Lists and Organizational Process Assets Project Management Plan and Resource Availability

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Activity definition refers to the process of parsing a project into a number of individual tasks which must be completed before the deliverables can be considered completed. Activity definitions rely on a number of specific input processes. These include enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, the project scope statement, the work breakdown structure, the WBS dictionary, the project management plan (which consists of the project scope management plan and the schedule management plan). Through use of these inputs, the activities that will need to ultimately be completed in order to compete all of the project objectives can be readily defined, and the activity definition can be further accomplished through the utilization of a number of tools and techniques including decomposition, templates, rolling wave planning, expert

judgment, and planning components. The four ultimate outputs of the activity definition process are the activity list, the resulting activity attributes, all requested changes, and any milestones. This term is defined in the 3rd edition of the PMBOK but not in the 4th. QUESTION 38 Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project Time Management process? A. B. C. D. Schedule Control Activity Definition Schedule Development Activity Resource Estimating

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Activity Resource Estimate Assumptions and Breakdown StructuresIn the Estimate Activity Resources process, the key output is activity resource requirements. These requirements describe the types and quantities of resources needed for each project activity.Once you know what resources you need, you can begin to estimate the time each activity will take to complete. In this way, the activity resource requirements list generated by the Estimate Activity Resources process become inputs for the Estimate Activity Durations process. Activity resource requirements listThe activity resource requirements list identifies, for tracking purposes, the activity's code in the work breakdown structure, as well as its name. Vital to generating the project schedule, it details the resources that you've estimated you need to complete the activity, and addresses. Resource description The Resource description column lists each type of resource that is required for the activity. This includes human resources, materials, and facilities. Number required The Number required column identifies the quantity required of each resource. This value can be specified in any measurement unit, such as hours, days, or physical number of units required. Resource assumptions Resource assumptions are important factors to consider when devising the project schedule. Any relevant assumptions about the resource can be included, for example resource availability, skills, or quality. Resource availability The Resource availability column specifies when each resource can be used. This is vital information for putting together the project schedule. Resource dependencies The Resource dependencies column identifies factors that may affect the availability of resources. It's important to identify dependencies when devising the project schedule because any change in an activity that has a dependency can affect the project timeline.The final row of the activity resource requirements list identifies the total resources needed for the activity. The resource totals are important in project scheduling as a base from which to calculate the duration of the activity. Resource Assumptions - It's important to record resource assumptions, as they can help during different stages of a project. Select each project stage to find out how resource assumptions can help. Monitoring Recorded assumptions can affect performance monitoring. For example, if a particular task seems to be taking too long, looking at the assumptions can help you identify the problem. Controlling Recorded assumptions can also help you control performance. Having used the assumptions to identify a problem, you can now make performance adjustments so that the project can run more efficiently. Closing Recorded assumptions can provide insights during post-project assessments at the closing stage. For example, if you had made incorrect assumptions about staff capabilities, looking at the assumptions helps you understand what went wrong. This can then be recorded in the lessons learned file for the project.Failure to record assumptions can also have an impact during the Monitor and Control Project Work process. Resource breakdown structuresAlong with the activity resource requirements list, there's one more main output of the Estimate Activity Resources process the resource breakdown structure.The resource breakdown structure provides a hierarchical diagram of the resources required for a project. This structure is visually simple, showing resource information at a glance breaks resources into categories and resource types helps you to organize a project schedule and report on resource utilization information. Although they look similar, a resource breakdown structure is not the same as a work breakdown structure.

A work breakdown structure, or WBS, decomposes a project into manageable units of work. Elements in a WBS include project phases, tasks, sub-tasks, and work packages. These represent all the activities in a project. Project document updatesThe Estimate Activity Resources process concludes with project document updates the final output of the process. Initially, various project documents are used as inputs for the process. Now that resource estimation is complete, new information may have come to light. For this reason, you may need to update documents so they reflect the latest project information. In the process of estimating resource requirements and creating the resource breakdown structure, it's often necessary to add or delete schedule activities that appear in the activity list.The activity changes have a subsequent effect on activity attributes and resource calendars. Because project activities have changed, you need to document those changes by updating the descriptions of activities and the availability of relevant resources. The first output of the Estimate Activity Resources process is an activity resource requirements list. It's important to record any assumptions you've made about resources in this list, for use in monitoring and controlling project work, and in post-project assessments. A second output of the process is the resource breakdown structure. This is a hierarchical diagram that shows the resources required for the project in a visually simple way. It groups resources by category, and can be used for organizing and reporting on resources. The final output of the process is updates to relevant project documents, such as the activity list, activity attributes, and resource calendars. QUESTION 39 Project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to what Project Time Management process? A. B. C. D. Activity Sequencing Activity Resource Estimating Schedule Development Schedule Control

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 40 Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration? A. B. C. D. Critical path Rolling Wave PDM Parametric

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 41 Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes? A. B. C. D. Analogous Estimating Expert Judgment Optimistic Estimates Reserve Analysis

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 42 Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical? A. B. C. D. Applying calendars Resource Leveling Resource Planning Resource Conflict Management

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 43 Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders? A. B. C. D. Performance organizations Schedule baselines Performance measurements Change requests

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 44 Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process? A. B. C. D. Performance Measure Baseline Schedule Schedule Comparison Variance Analysis

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 45

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes? A. B. C. D. Cost Control Cost Budgeting Cost Estimating Cost Planning

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 46 Analogous Cost Estimating relies on which of the following techniques? A. B. C. D. Expert Judgment Project Management Software Vendor Bid Analysis Reserve Analysis

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 47 The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000 Plan cost = $45,000 Earned value = $40,000 What is the cost performance index? A. B. C. D. 0.80 0.89 1.13 1.25

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 48 The PV is $1000, EV is $2000 and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

A. B. C. D.

1.33 2.00 0.75 0.5

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 49 At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV? A. B. C. D. Positive Zero Negative Greater than one

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 50 Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI? A. B. C. D. EV SPI PV ETC

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 51 Based on the following metrics: EV=$20,000, AC=$22,000 and PV=$28,000, what is the project CV? A. B. C. D. -$8,000 -$2,000 $2,000 $8,000

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: QUESTION 52 What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate? A. B. C. D. Cost right at the estimated value Cost under the estimated value Cost right at the actual value Cost over the estimated value

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 53 Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity? A. B. C. D. Schedule Analysis Checklist Analysis Assumption Analysis Cost-Benefit Analysis

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 54 Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is: A. B. C. D. Cause and effect diagram Control Chart Flowchart Histogram

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 55 Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance? A. B. C. D. Cause and effect diagram Control Charts Pareto Chart Histogram

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 56 Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 Principle? A. B. C. D. Ishikawa diagram Control Chart Run Chart Pareto Chart

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 57 Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan? A. B. C. D. Team performance assessment Roles and responsibilities Staffing management plan Enterprise environmental factors

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 58 Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process? A. B. C. D. Risk register Risk data quality assessment Risk categorization Risk urgency

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 59 Which technique is commonly used for the Quantitative Risk Analysis activity? A. Brainstorming

B. Strategies for Opportunities C. Decision Tree Analysis D. Risk Data Quality Assessment Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 60 Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives? A. B. C. D. Exploit Share Enhance Transfer

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 61 Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities? A. B. C. D. Mitigate Transfer Exploit Avoid

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 62 A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement? A. B. C. D. Plan contracting Request seller responses Select sellers Plan purchase and acquisition

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: QUESTION 63 Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories? A. B. C. D. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 64 Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique? A. B. C. D. Contract plan Procurement plan Closure process Procurement audits

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 65 Which of the following is a project constraint? A. B. C. D. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected. The technology to be used is cutting-edge. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment. The product is needed in 250 days.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 66 A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what? A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment C. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 67 Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration"? A. B. C. D. Changing project specifications continuously Elaborate tracking of the project progress Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 68 What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)? A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations' or the client's overall business objectives. B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly. C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues. D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 69 A project manager is responsible for managing which of the following at the project level? A. B. C. D. Methodology Standards Constraints Interdependencies

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

QUESTION 70 Company A is launching a new communications satellite system. Resource B was assigned combined projects of design, construction, integration, and launch of the satellite. Resource B's role is that of a: A. B. C. D. Project manager Portfolio manager Work breakdown manager Program manager

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 71 Which of the following defines a characteristic of a project? A. B. C. D. Repetitive Unique No outcome Permanent

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 72 Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling and Closing are called: A. B. C. D. process groups. phase gates. knowledge areas. project phases.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 73 Which of the following is the definition of a project? A. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a temporary business process or product B. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result C. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs

D. Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 74 The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) should be considered as a: A. B. C. D. guide to project management processes, tools and techniques. methodology for managing projects. guide for project, portfolio and program management. standard for project, portfolio and program management.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 75 Which of the following is a Process Group? A. B. C. D. Scoping Budgeting Closing Quality

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 76 In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty? A. B. C. D. Functional Projectized Matrix Balanced

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 77 Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as

project time advances? A. B. C. D. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Explanations: Stakeholders and changes versus time in the Project Life Cycle There are lots of common features regarding project life cycles: Most stages of the project follow one after the other and in many cases could be described in technical way. Expenditures and personnel engaged in the task are quite cheap at the beginning of the project, rise in the middle phase and fall significantly in the final stage. The Picture below shows exactly the described model.

At the beginning of the project - in initial stage the risk of failure and not to meet your goals is very high. When this crucial period is over the project comes into an intermediate phase where the situation is more stable and predictable. Stakeholders have a big influence for the project's product in many technical aspects, costs etc. at the beginning of its life cycle. However their impact become lower within duration of the project and cost of changes and other corrections - which are low in initial phase rise considerably as the project continues. The Picture below demonstrates clearly this situation.

In our opinion lots of project life cycles have many similar characteristics but few of them are the same. For example some projects can consist of five stages, others with ten or more? Depend on complexity and duration of the project. One institution's hardware testing can have one individual testing stage whereas another organization can have more phases for this task like: general and detailed testing, error correction, compatibility with different computers etc. Separate life cycles can also cover these subprojects for instance: one team of engineers can analysis and look for any defects of the product and the other team can simultaneously check compatibility with other devices. In conclusion we recommend you to deal with every project separately and especially at big and complex enterprises treat every phase as subproject with an individual life cycle. QUESTION 78 Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as? A. B. C. D. Complete project phase Project life The project life cycle Project cycle

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 79 In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget? A. B. C. D. Functional manager Project manager Program manager Project management office

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 80 At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest A. B. C. D. Final phase of the project Start of the project End of the project Midpoint of the project

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 81 When do stakeholders have the greatest influence? A. B. C. D. At the start of the project At the end of the project During execution Stakeholders have constant influence

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 82 Which of the following provides a comprehensive and consistent method of controlling the project and ensuring its success? A. B. C. D. Stakeholder management Monitoring and controlling Project governance Project management methodology

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 83 Company A is delivering a product in three parts. The contract allows for the parts to be delivered either one after the other or at the same time.

Which type of project phasing will allow for the most flexibility in delivering the full product when product requirements are subject to rapid change? A. B. C. D. Sequencing the delivery phases one after the other Overlapping the delivery phases Delivering the products iteratively Delivering all of the product at the same time

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 84 In which type of organization does a project manager have a moderate-to-high resource availability? A. B. C. D. Functional Weak Balanced Strong

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 85 Which stakeholder is responsible for managing related projects in a coordinated way? A. B. C. D. Sponsor Portfolio manager Program manager Project manager

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 86 In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have full authority on a project? A. B. C. D. Functional Strong matrix Balanced matrix Projectized

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 87 What are three basic types of project phase-to-phase relationships? A. B. C. D. Sequential, Overlapping, Non-overlapping Sequential, Iterative, Overlapping Sequential, Non-overlapping, Iterative Iterative, Overlapping, Non-overlapping

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 88 Which is a true statement regarding project governance? A. B. C. D. Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan. Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it. Once a project has begun, it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase. Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project phase.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 89 A project manager has limited authority in which type of organizational structure? A. B. C. D. Weak matrix Functional Balanced matrix Projectized

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 90 Which of the following is an input to direct and manage project execution? A. Requested changes B. Approved preventive action

C. Work performance information D. Implemented defect repair Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 91 Who selects the appropriate processes for a project? A. B. C. D. Project stakeholders Project sponsor and project stakeholder Project manager and project team Project manager and project sponsor

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 92 A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs? A. B. C. D. Project manager is appointed Stakeholders approve the project Project charter is approved Project sponsor approves the project

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 93 How is the process of collecting requirements defined? A. B. C. D. Defining and documenting project sponsors' needs to meet the project objectives Defining and documenting stakeholders' needs to meet the project objectives Defining and documenting the project teams' needs to meet the project objectives Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

QUESTION 94 Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas? A. B. C. D. Project risk management Project scope management Project time management Project integration management

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 95 Which process group can be performed outside the project's scope of control? A. B. C. D. Planning Monitoring and Control Closing Initiating

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 96 The procurement document is an input to which of the following processes? A. B. C. D. Develop Project Management Plan Develop Schedule Identify Stakeholders Determine Budget

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 97 Which of the following is involved in the initiation process group? A. B. C. D. Develop Project Management Plan Identify Stakeholders Plan Communications Collect Requirements

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 98 Which of the following is defined by a project's life cycle and varies by application area? A. B. C. D. Product Product-oriented processes Project management process groups Project-oriented processes

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 99 How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide? A. B. C. D. 5 8 9 12

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 100 Which of the following must be taken into account for every process, even if they are not explicitly listed as inputs in the process specifications? A. B. C. D. Organizational processes and procedures and enterprise environmental factors Organizational processes and procedures and corporate knowledge base Organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors Corporate knowledge base and enterprise environmental factors

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 101 Perform quality assurance belongs to which of the following process groups? A. Planning

B. Executing C. Monitoring and Control D. Closing Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 102 A project team is in which of the following processes when they finalize all activities across all of the management process groups to formally complete the project? A. B. C. D. Closing Executing Monitoring and Controlling Planning

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 103 Which process group defines the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve? A. B. C. D. Initiating Executing Planning Monitoring and Controlling

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 104 How many process groups are there according to the PMBOK Guide? A. B. C. D. 5 9 10 12

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 105 The Monitoring and Controlling process group contains which of the following processes? A. B. C. D. Plan Quality Perform Quality Assurance Perform Quality Control Identify Stakeholders

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 106 Which process group establishes the total scope of a project? A. B. C. D. Initiating Planning Monitoring and Controlling Executing

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 107 Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed? A. B. C. D. Project team Project manager Project management office Customer or sponsor

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 108 Manage Project Team belongs to which knowledge area? A. B. C. D. Project Integration Management Project Time Management Project Procurement Management Project Human Resource Management

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 109 Where are product requirements and characteristics documented? A. B. C. D. Product scope description Project charter Preliminary project scope statement Communications management plan

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 110 What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed? A. B. C. D. Organizational process assets Enterprise environmental factors Project management processes Project scope management plan

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 111 Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution Process? A. B. C. D. Approved corrective actions Approved contract documentation Work performance information Rejected change requests

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 112 Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS

dictionary? A. B. C. D. Scope plan Product scope Scope management plan Scope baseline

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 113 What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project? A. B. C. D. Build vs. buy Expert judgment Alternatives identification Product analysis

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 114 The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document? A. B. C. D. Schedule management plan Project management plan Quality management plan Resource management plan

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 115 What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type? A. B. C. D. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) Project Breakdown Structure (PBS)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 116 What causes replanning of the project scope? A. B. C. D. Requested changes Project scope statement changes Variance analysis Approved change requests

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 117 Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work? A. B. C. D. WBS directory Activity list WBS Project schedule

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 118 What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables? A. B. C. D. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) Work Performance Information Work Package Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 119 What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions? A. Project boundaries

B. Project constraints C. Project assumptions D. Project objectives Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 120 What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria? A. B. C. D. Decomposition Benchmarking Inspection Checklist analysis

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 121 Which of the following is an output of Define Scope? A. B. C. D. Project document updates Project management plan Scope baseline Product analysis

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 122 What is an output of Control Scope? A. B. C. D. Accepted deliverables Work performance measurements Requirements documentation Work performance information

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: QUESTION 123 The decomposition technique is used to do which of the following? A. B. C. D. Subdivide the estimated costs of individual activities Subdivide project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components Relate the work packages to the performing organizational units Shorten the project schedule duration and the amount of resources needed

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 124 A project manager needs the project team to make a group decision. Which of the following is a method that can be used to reach a group decision? A. B. C. D. Expert judgment Majority SWOT analysis Brainstorming

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 125 Decomposition is a tool and technique used in which of the following? A. B. C. D. Define Scope and Define Activities Collect Requirements and Estimate Activity Resources Create WBS and Define Activities Create WBS and Estimate Activity Duration

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 126 Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Collect Requirements process? A. B. C. D. Group decision making techniques Project management information system Alternative identification Communication requirement analysis

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 127 Which of the following is an input to Collect Requirements? A. B. C. D. Stakeholder register Requirements documentation Prototypes Organizational process assets

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 128 The use of group creativity techniques as a tool and technique is done in which of the following processes? A. B. C. D. Plan Quality Collect Requirements Define Scope Perform Quality Control

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 129 Which is an input to the Collect Requirements process? A. B. C. D. Requirement documentation Organizational process assets Requirements management plan Stakeholder register

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 130 Which of the following can be used to track the requirements throughout the project life cycle?

A. B. C. D.

Requirements traceability matrix Scope management plan Project charter Work breakdown structure

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 131 Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique? A. B. C. D. Delphi technique Unanimity Observation Presentation technique

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 132 Which process includes facilitated workshops as a tool and technique? A. B. C. D. Collect Requirements Plan Communications Develop Project Team Report Performance

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 133 Which of the following is a tool or technique used to verify scope? A. B. C. D. Product analysis Ishikawa diagram Inspection Requirements traceability matrix

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: QUESTION 134 Inspection is a tool and technique for which of the following processes? A. B. C. D. Create WBS Define Scope Control Scope Verify Scope

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 135 What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work can be reliably estimated and managed? A. B. C. D. Work product Work package Project deliverable Scope baseline

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 136 Many organizations categorize requirements into which of the following two categories? A. B. C. D. Project and Product Staffing and Budget Stakeholder and Customer Business and Technical

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 137 Plurality is a type of which of the following? A. B. C. D. Group creativity techniques Group decision making techniques Facilitated workshops Prototypes

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 138 Which of the following events would result in a baseline update? A. B. C. D. Your project is behind schedule and you want your baseline to reflect estimated actual completion. Your customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget. One of the risks identified in the Risk Management Plan occurs resulting in a schedule delay. One of your key project team resources has left your team and no replacement is available.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 139 Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially? A. B. C. D. Crashing Fast tracking Leads and lags adjustment Parallel task development

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 140 Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources? A. B. C. D. Human resource planning Fast tracking Critical chain method Rolling wave planning

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 141 Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A. B. C. D.

Critical path method Variance analysis Schedule compression Schedule comparison bar charts

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 142 What is the minimum a project schedule must include? A. B. C. D. Variance analysis A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity A critical path diagram Critical chain analysis

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 143 What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance? A. B. C. D. Cost aggregation Trend analysis Forecasting Variance analysis

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 144 Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)? EV = $500 PV= $750 AC= $1000 BAC= $1200 A. 0.67

B. 1.50 C. 0.75 D. 0.50 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 145 Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating? A. B. C. D. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases Marketplace conditions and company structure Commercial databases and company structure Existing human resources and market place conditions

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 146 Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages? A. B. C. D. Cost baseline Cost forecasting Cost variance Cost budgeting

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 147 What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000 A. 1.00 B. 0.40 C. 0.50

D. 0.80 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 148 The project manager calculated a schedule performance index of 0.8 and a cost performance index of 1.1 for the project. What is the actual status of this project? A. B. C. D. Behind schedule and over budget Behind schedule and under budget Ahead of schedule and under budget Ahead of schedule and over budget

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 149 EAC (estimate at complete) is typically based on actual cost (AC) for work completed plus an ETC (estimate to complete) the remaining work. Which of the following is a valid formula for calculating EAC? A. B. C. D. EAC = AC + [(BAC-EV) / (Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI)] EAC = BAC - AC EAC = 1 - CPI EAC = EV + [1 - (Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI) / BAC]

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 150 Which of the following equations is used to calculate schedule variance? A. B. C. D. EV/PV PV/EV EV-PV PV-EV

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

QUESTION 151 Which tool and technique uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate estimates? A. B. C. D. Analogous estimating Three-point estimates Parametric estimating Bottom-up estimating

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 152 Which of the following equations is used to calculate cost variance? A. B. C. D. EV-AC AC-EV AC+EV AC/EV

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 153 Given the following values, what is the calculated expected activity cost (CE) when using PERT? CO = $7,000 CM = $10,500 CP = $11,000 A. B. C. D. $ 4,750 $ 9,500 $10,000 $11,500

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 154 What is the expected activity cost for a project having a most likely cost of $140, a best case scenario of $115, and a worst case scenario of $165?

A. B. C. D.

$115 $138 $140 $165

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 155 What does a SPI value greater than 1.0 indicate? A. B. C. D. More work was completed than planned Less work was completed than planned Cost overrun for completed work has occurred Cost underrun for completed work has occurred

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 156 Total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements are derived from: A. B. C. D. funding limit reconciliation scope baseline activity cost estimates. cost baseline.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 157 What is the status of the project whose data is shown in the following S-curve?

A. B. C. D.

Under budget and ahead of schedule Over budget and behind schedule Over budget and ahead of schedule Under budget and behind schedule

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 158 If the earned value (EV) is $1000, actual cost (AC) is $800, and planned value (PV) is $1500, what would be the cost performance index (CPI)? A. B. C. D. 0.66 0.8 1.25 1.5

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 159 Control Charts, Flowcharting, Histograms, Pareto Charts, Scatter Diagrams are tools and techniques of what process? A. B. C. D. Perform Quality Control Perform Quality Assurance Quality Planning Performance Reporting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 160 Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes and procedures? A. B. C. D. Scope audits Scope reviews Quality audits Control chart

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 161 What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate? A. B. C. D. Control chart Flowchart Run chart Pareto chart

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 162 Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance? A. B. C. D. Histogram Quality audits Benchmarking Performance measurement analysis

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 163 In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

A. B. C. D.

Scope Management Time Management Communications Management Quality Management

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 164 What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements? A. B. C. D. Quality metrics Less rework Quality control measurements Benchmarking

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 165 What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production? A. B. C. D. Failure modes and effects analysis Design of experiments Quality checklist Risk analysis

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 166 What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics? A. B. C. D. Scope Quality Specification Grade

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 167 Which of the following provides a basis for assessing project performance? A. B. C. D. Profitability and impact matrix Expert judgment Benchmarking Risk categorization

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 168 Regardless of style, what information is shown in a process flowchart? A. B. C. D. Actions, decision points, and process drivers Activities, decision points, and the order of processing Activities, process drivers, and the order of processing Actions, decision points, and activities

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 169 Which quality assurance tool and technique confirms the implementation of approved change requests, corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions? A. B. C. D. Quality checklists Quality metrics Quality audits Process analysis

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 170 Which tool or technique uses the 80/20 principle? A. Pareto chart B. Cause and effect diagrams

C. Control charts D. Flowcharting Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 171 What is a cost of nonconformance? A. B. C. D. Rework Inspections Training Testing

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 172 What is included in a control chart? A. B. C. D. Baseline Planned value Upper specification limit Expenditure

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 173 What tool and technique includes all costs incurred over the life of a product by investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements? A. B. C. D. Cost of quality Measure of design Statistical control Systematic analysis

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

QUESTION 174 In a control chart, the consecutive measurements are 11, 13, 09, 07, 08, 09, 09, 09, 08, and 12. For the entire process, the goal is 10 and the standard deviation is 1. For this data set, it is correct to say that the process: A. B. C. D. is under control. is out of control. has an increasing trend. has a decreasing trend.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 175 In which tool and technique is it possible to find a correlation between dependent and independent variables? A. B. C. D. Fishbone diagram Control chart Run chart Scatter diagram

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 176 A project manager arranges for project specific training for the new team members. Under which category does this cost fall? A. B. C. D. Appraisal Internal failure External failure Prevention

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 177 Which of the following describes the purpose of the quality control process? A. To identify quality requirements of the project B. To identify ineffective processes and eliminate them

C. To assess performance and recommend necessary changes D. To ensure quality standards are used Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 178 What is an objective of the Developing Project Team Process? A. B. C. D. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness Ground rules for interaction Enhanced resource availability Functional managers become more involved.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 179 Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team? A. B. C. D. Negotiation Roles and responsibilities Recognition and rewards Prizing and promoting

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 180 When managing a project team, what helps to reduce the amount of conflict? A. B. C. D. Clear role definition Negotiation Risk response planning Team member replacement

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

QUESTION 181 Conflict should be best addressed in which manner? A. B. C. D. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 182 What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships? A. B. C. D. Role dependencies chart Reporting flow diagram Project organization chart Project team structure diagram

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 183 Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor? A. B. C. D. Functional manager Project manager Functional manager supported by the project manager Project management office

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 184 What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave? A. B. C. D. Organizational chart Organizational theory Organizational structure Organizational behavior

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 185 In which of the following team development stages does the team meet and learn about the project and their formal roles and responsibilities? A. B. C. D. Forming Storming Norming Performing

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 186 Which of the following is a technique for resolving conflict? A. B. C. D. Collaborating Issue log Leadership Motivation

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 187 Which of the following is a conflict resolving technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference? A. B. C. D. Withdrawing/Avoiding Forcing Collaborating Smoothing/Accommodating

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 188 In which of the team development stages are the teams interdependent and work through issues smoothly and effectively?

A. B. C. D.

Norming Forming Storming Performing

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 189 The resource calendars document is an output of which process? A. B. C. D. Estimate Activity Resources Acquire Project Team Develop Schedule Develop Project Team

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 190 In which of the following team development stages does the team begin to work together, develop trust, and adjust to the work habits and behavior? A. B. C. D. Norming Forming Storming Performing

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 191 Project team members begin to address the project work and technical decisions. The project team is in which of the following stages of team development? A. B. C. D. Storming Forming Norming Performing

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 192 Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team is called which of the following? A. B. C. D. Team training Co-location Team location Organization training

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 193 Emphasizing areas of agreement rather than areas of difference is part which of the following conflict management techniques? A. B. C. D. Smoothing Compromising Avoiding Forcing

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 194 Which knowledge area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information? A. B. C. D. Project Integration Management Project Communications Management Project Information Management System (PIMS) Project Scope Management

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 195 Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

A. B. C. D.

Contract management Performance reporting Project status reports Information distribution

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The project management term or phrase that is used for the purposes of representing the project management process that focuses on taking the facts and happenings in regards to a particular project and disseminating this information to all of the relevant parties, with a particular focus on providing information to those who have a financial stake in the ultimate outcomes of the project. These methods of information dissemination can come in means including regularly scheduled conferences and or meetings, regularly scheduled conference calls in which some or all members of the project team participate, informal written communications such as periodic updates via email and of other short form, less formal means of communications, as well as formal reports that may or may not have been requisite to the completion of the project. Information distribution is essential to assuring that the financial stakeholders are fully aware of the progress throughout as it helps to assure no surprises arise at the time that deliverables are expected to be final. This term is defined in the 3rd edition of the PMBOK but not in the 4th. QUESTION 196 Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process asset updates are all outputs of which process? A. B. C. D. Risk response planning Risk monitoring and control Performance reporting Manage stakeholders

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 197 Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan? A. B. C. D. An organizational chart Glossary of common terminology Organizational process assets Enterprise environmental factors

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 198 Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation,

collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information? A. B. C. D. Project Risk Management Project Integration Management Project Communications Management Project Quality Management

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 199 Approved change requests, approved corrective actions, and updates to organizational process assets are all outputs of which project management process? A. B. C. D. Risk response planning Manage stakeholders Scope definition Performance reporting

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 200 What is a technique used in the performance reporting process? A. B. C. D. Expert judgment Project management methodology Stakeholder analysis Status review meetings

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Performance Reporting is the process for "collecting and distributing performance information" like "status reporting, progress measurement, and forecasting" (comp. PMBOK3, p. 221): On the base of the collected performance information concerning scope, schedule, cost and quality this process generates the reports which are distributed to the stakeholders (comp. PMBOK3, p. 231). Basicly one can determine four types of reports: Forcast reports for describing future trends Progess reports for describing trends from past to presence Status reports for describing actual status Variance reports for describing differences between the planned baseline and the real data QUESTION 201 What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

A. B. C. D.

7 8 14 16

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 202 What information does the stakeholder register contain? A. B. C. D. Communication model Identification information Communication method Identification plan

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 203 Stakeholder analysis identifies what information and relates it to the purpose of the project? A. B. C. D. Requirements, influence, and functional department Interest, requirements, and functional role Requirements, expectations, and influence Interest, expectations, and influence

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 204 Which of the following is a tool and technique to the Manage Stakeholder Expectations process? A. B. C. D. Issue log Change register Stakeholder register Interpersonal skills

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: QUESTION 205 When using the Delphi technique for gathering information, what forecasting method is being used? A. B. C. D. Time series method Casual method Econometric method Judgmental method

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 206 Which of the following is one of the key components of the basic communications model? A. B. C. D. Push Decode Pull Duration

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 207 Which of the following is a tool or technique for distribute information? A. B. C. D. Project management plan Report performance Communications requirements analysis Communication methods

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 208 A project manager convenes a meeting to determine why the time to produce one product according to specifications has increased from one day to three days over the past month. Which tool or technique is used in this case? A. Expert judgment B. Quality assurance C. Quality control

D. Variance analysis Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 209 There are seven members on the project team not counting the project manager and the sponsor. How many communication channels are there? A. B. C. D. 21 28 36 42

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 210 ABC project is at risk for failing to achieve a major project objective due to unresolved stakeholder issues. Team member morale is low. Who is primarily responsible for the project being at risk? A. B. C. D. Team members who have low morale Sponsor who is not actively supporting the project Project manager who is responsible for managing stakeholder expectations Stakeholders who have unrealistic expectations

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 211 When communicating with large audiences, which communication method works most effectively? A. B. C. D. Push Interactive Parallel Pull

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: QUESTION 212 What are assigned risk ratings based upon? A. B. C. D. Root cause analysis Assessed probability and impact Expert judgment Risk Identification

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 213 Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact? A. B. C. D. Qualitative risk analysis Quantitative risk analysis Risk management planning Risk response planning

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 214 Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action? A. B. C. D. Probability and impact matrix Contingency analysis report Risk urgency assessment Rolling wave plan

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 215 Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis? A. Sensitivity analysis B. Probability and impact matrix C. Risk data quality assessment

D. Risk categorization Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 216 When does risk monitoring and control occur? A. B. C. D. At project initiation During work performance analysis Throughout the life of the project At project milestones

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 217 A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process? A. B. C. D. Risk monitoring and controlling Risk response planning Qualitative risk analysis Quantitative risk analysis

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 218 Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of the risk's probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what? A. B. C. D. Risk breakdown structure (RBS) Risk probability and impact Qualitative risk analysis Risk response planning

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 219

What is one of the objectives of project risk management? A. B. C. D. Decrease the probability and impact of event on project objectives. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place. Increase the probability and impact of positive events. Removal of project risk.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 220 Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party? A. B. C. D. Mitigate Transfer Share Avoid

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 221 Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what? A. B. C. D. Transference Avoidance Exploring Mitigation

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 222 What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives? A. B. C. D. Expert judgment Risk registry Risk response planning Interviewing

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 223 What defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired? A. B. C. D. Procurement management plan Evaluation criteria Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) Contract Statement of Work (SOW)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 224 Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract? A. B. C. D. Purchase requisition Purchase order Verbal agreement Request for quote

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 225 Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement Management? A. B. C. D. Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule control Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellers Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 226 Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements Process? A. Risk assessment analysis B. Make or buy analysis C. Contract value analysis

D. Cost impact analysis Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 227 A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract? A. B. C. D. Cost-reimbursable Time and material Fixed price or lump-sum Cost-plus-fixed-fee

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 228 What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses? A. B. C. D. Procurement documents Expert judgment Bidder conferences Contract types

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 229 A contract change control system defines which of the following? A. B. C. D. Process by which the procurement is being satisfied Process by which the procurement can be modified Process by which the procurement can be obtained Process by which the procurement can be disposed

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 230

In what type of contract is the seller reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and receives a predetermined fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives as set forth in the contract? A. B. C. D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee Cost-plus-incentive-fee Firm-fixed-price Fixed-price-incentive-fee

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 231 Who decides buyer and seller roles in a teaming agreement? A. B. C. D. Executive management Project members Project manager Contract administrator

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 232 In which of the following contract types is a price ceiling set and any additional costs above the price ceiling becomes the responsibility of the performing organization? A. B. C. D. Firm-Fixed-Price Contracts (FFP) Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contracts (FPIF) Cost-Reimbursable Contracts Time and Materials Contracts (T&M)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 233 The degree of risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the: A. B. C. D. contract type. sponsors. project manager. stakeholders.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 234 Company A bought a well-defined project deliverable from Company B. Company A will pay a fixed total price plus a percentage premium for the schedule target achieved. For which type of contract have they subscribed? A. B. C. D. Fixed-price-incentive-fee contracts (FPIF) Firm-fixed-price-contracts (FFP) Fixed price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA) Time and material contracts (T&M)

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 235 Negotiated Settlements are an example of a technique used in which Project Procurement Management Process? A. B. C. D. Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 236 Which project management process ensures the seller's performance meets procurement requirements and that the buyer performs according to the terms of the legal contract? A. B. C. D. Plan Procurements Perform Quality Assurance Administer Procurements Conduct Procurements

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

QUESTION 237 Which contract type is typically used whenever the seller's performance period spans a considerable period of years? A. B. C. D. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee contracts (FPIF) Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment contracts (FP-EPA) Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contracts (CPFF) Time and Material contracts (T&M)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 238 The project management information system is used as tools and techniques in which of the following processes? A. B. C. D. Develop Project Charter Develop Project Management Plan Direct and Manage Project Execution Monitor and Control Project Work

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 239 Final product transition is an output of which process? A. B. C. D. Direct and Manage Project Execution Close Project or Phase Perform Integrated Change Control Monitor and Control Project Work

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 240 Which of the following provides a standardized, effective, and efficient way to centrally manage approved changes and baselines within a project? A. Project management information system B. Configuration management system C. Change control board

D. Project management plan Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 241 The approval of which of the following indicates formal initiation of the project? A. B. C. D. Procurement management plan Project management plan Project scope document Project charter

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 242 Which one of the following is true regarding the change control board? A. B. C. D. Describes how changes are managed. Approves or rejects change requests. Needs updated project management plans to approve or reject a change. Describes how changes are documented.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 243 Which document is a narrative description of products or services to be delivered by the project? A. B. C. D. Project charter Contract Business case Project statement of work

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 244 Reviewing, tracking, and regulating the process to meet performance objectives defined in the project

management plan are part of which process? A. B. C. D. Monitor and Control Project Work Direct and Manage Project Execution Monitor and Control Risk Perform Integrated Change Control

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 245 Which document contains initial requirements that satisfy stakeholders' needs and expectations? A. B. C. D. Project charter Project management plan Project statement of work Project scope statement

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 246 The decision to approve or reject a particular change request is made in which of the following processes? A. B. C. D. Perform Integrated Change Control Monitor and Control Project Work Develop Project Management Plan Direct and Manage Project Execution

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 247 Who authorizes a project? A. B. C. D. Sponsor Project manager Project team Buyer

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 248 Providing forecasts to update current cost and schedule information is a part of which process? A. B. C. D. Perform Integrated Change Control Direct and Manage Project Execution Monitor and Control Risks Monitor and Control Project Work

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 249 A business case is an input to which of the following processes? A. B. C. D. Collect Requirements Define Scope Develop Project Charter Develop Project Management Plan

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 250 What should be covered in an implementation when the change is approved? A. B. C. D. Functional requirement Status report Customer need Defect repair

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 251 The Project Integration Management knowledge area includes which of the following set of processes? A. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Perform Integrated Change Control B. Define Project Scope, Create WBS, Close Project or Phase C. Develop Project Charter, Develop Human Resource Plan, Estimate Costs

D. Identify Stakeholders, Plan Communications, Develop Project Management Plan Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 252 What document should be reviewed by a project manager before finalizing the project closure? A. B. C. D. Customer acceptance Statement of work Product report User manual

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 253 Which of the following is a tool and technique for activity duration estimating? A. B. C. D. Parametric estimating Monte Carlo analysis Top-down estimating Bottom-up estimating

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Explanations: An estimating technique that uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables (for example, square footage in construction, lines of code in software development) to calculate an estimate for activity parameters, such as scope, cost, budget, and duration. This technique can produce higher levels of accuracy depending upon the sophistication and the underlying data built into the model. An example for the cost parameter is multiplying the planned quantity of work to be performed by the historical cost per unit to obtain the estimated cost. QUESTION 254 Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships among schedule activities? A. B. C. D. Schedule development Activity sequencing Create WBS Applying leads and lags

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 255 What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level? A. B. C. D. Finish-to-start planning Rolling wave planning Short term planning Dependency determination

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 256 When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model? A. B. C. D. Before constraints have been identified Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method After it has been analyzed by the critical path method After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 257 Which is the duration of the project?

A. B. C. D.

63 65 66 70

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 258 Which tool and technique is used to sequence activities? A. B. C. D. Decomposition Project management software Applying lead and lags Expert judgment

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 259 What tool or technique of Estimate Activity Durations uses parameters such as duration, budget, size, weight, and complexity from a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measure for a future project?

A. B. C. D.

Bottom-up estimating Analogous estimating Parametric estimating Three-point estimates

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 260 Which schedule format usually shows both the project network logic and the project's critical path schedule activities with activity date information? A. B. C. D. Schedule table Schedule network diagram Bar chart Milestone chart

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 261 Which is the total float for the activity G? A. B. C. D. 0 3 5 10

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 262 Which of these are logical dependencies in a precedence diagram method? A. B. C. D. End-to-end Finish-to-end Start-to-end Start-to-start

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 263 In the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely estimate for an activity to complete is 100 days, the optimistic estimate is 60 days, and the pessimistic estimate is 200 days, what is the expected duration in which the activity will be completed? A. B. C. D. 90 days 100 days 110 days 660 days

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 264 Which of the following techniques uses historical information to estimate the activity duration? A. B. C. D. Three-point estimating Organizational process asset Analogous estimating Reserve analysis

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 265 What is a specific advantage of analogous estimating in comparison with other cost estimate techniques? A. B. C. D. Uses contingency reserves Less costly and time consuming Can be applied to segments of work More accurate

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 266 Which of the following is an output of the Estimate Activity Resources process? A. Alternative analysis

B. Bottom-up estimating C. Resource breakdown structure D. Enterprise environmental factors Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 267 In the precedence diagramming method, which of the following is a logical relationship for the activities? A. B. C. D. Finish-to-start Applying leads and lags Activity-on-node Dependency determination

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 268 During the initial stages of the project, what do activity attributes include? A. B. C. D. Activity name, dependencies, assumptions Activity ID, WBS ID, activity name Activity ID, assumptions, constraints Activity name, WBS ID, activity description

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 269 Which of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the Define Activities process? A. B. C. D. Rolling wave planning Dependency determination Schedule network template Applying leads and lags

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

QUESTION 270 Which of the following is a tool and technique to develop the schedule? A. B. C. D. What-if scenario analysis Benchmarking Variance analysis SWOT analysis

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 271 Rolling wave planning is used as a tool and a technique in which of the following processes? A. B. C. D. Estimate Activity Durations Define Activities Develop Schedule Sequence Activities

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 272 Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships. What is the critical path duration for the given schedule network? A. B. C. D. 22 23 24 25

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 273 Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships.

What is the total float on path BEG? A. B. C. D. 0 1 2 3

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 274 If the Schedule Variance (SV) =$55, and the Planned Value (PV) =$11, what is the Earned Value (EV)? A. B. C. D. $0.2 $5 $44 $66

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 275 What is the status of a project if the Cost Performance Index is 1.25 and the Schedule Performance Index is 0.75? A. B. C. D. Under budget and behind schedule Over budget and ahead of schedule Under budget and ahead of schedule Over budget and behind schedule

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 276

CORRECT TEXT
Which of the following will be required to perform simulation for schedule risk analysis? A. B. C. D. Activity list and activity attributes Schedule network diagram and duration estimates Schedule data and activity resource requirements Milestone list and resource breakdown structure

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer: Activity list and activity attributes Answer: Schedule network diagram and duration estimates Answer: Schedule data and activity resource requirements Answer: Milestone list and resource breakdown structure Answer: B QUESTION 277 The risk register contains which of the following? A. B. C. D. Identified risks and potential responses Identified risks and updates to scope baseline Risk management plan Risk related contract decisions

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A Risk Register is a Risk Management tool commonly used in Project Management and organizational risk assessments. It acts as a central repository for all risks identified by the project or organization and, for each risk, includes information such as risk probability, impact, counter-measures, risk owner and so on. It can sometimes be referred to as a Risk Log QUESTION 278 Which of the following is an input to identify risk? A. B. C. D. Organizational process assets Scope management plan Communication management plan Expert judgment

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 279

Which analysis helps to determine the risks that have the most potential for impacting the project? A. B. C. D. Expected monetary value analysis Sensitivity analysis Modeling and simulation Expert judgment

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 280 Which of the following risk management processes uses brainstorming as a technique? A. B. C. D. Identify Risks Monitor and Control Risks Plan Risk Management Plan Risk Responses

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 281 Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which of the following processes? A. B. C. D. Monitor and Control Risks Qualitative Risk Analysis Quantitative Risk Analysis Plan Risk Responses

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 282 What is risk tolerance? A. B. C. D. Ability to manage risks Willingness to accept varying degrees of risks Ability to mitigate risks Willingness to develop a risk management plan

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 283 Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis is commonly used in: A. B. C. D. probability distribution. decision tree diagram. sensitivity analysis. modeling and simulation.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 284 Which of the following is a strategy for positive risks? A. B. C. D. Avoid Transfer Accept Mitigate

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 285 An Ishikawa or fishbone diagram is used for which of the following? A. B. C. D. Identifying causes of risks Identifying frequency of occurrence of risks Developing a resource plan Developing schedule

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 286 Which analysis uses beta and triangular distributions as a tool and technique? A. Quantitative risk analysis B. Qualitative risk analysis C. Perform quality assurance

D. Perform quality control Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 287 What should a project manager do with low-priority risks? A. B. C. D. Ignore low-priority risks Monitor periodically with other low-priority risks Create a mitigation plan for the low-priority risks Increase the contingency reserve

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 288 Which of the following is a technique for Identify Risks? A. B. C. D. Risk categorization SWOT analysis Risk register categorization Risk probability and impact assessment

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 289 The project manager decides to conduct a meeting with the team and management after a new risk has been identified. After the meeting, the decision is to allow the risk to occur. This is an example of which type of risk response strategy? A. B. C. D. Mitigate Accept Avoid Transfer

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

QUESTION 290 The project team reviews identified risks and the risk response strategy. For one of the risks, the team realizes that the implementation of the risk response would generate another risk. This new risk is which of the following types of risk? A. B. C. D. Secondary Primary Residual Tertiary

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 291 What is the first step in preparing the risk register? A. B. C. D. Qualitative risk analysis Quantitative risk analysis Risk response planning Risk identification

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 292 What is Project Portfolio Management? A. Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects. B. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing and controlling. C. Management of all projects undertaken by a company. D. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives. Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 293 When is a project finished? A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C. When the project objectives have been met D. After resources have been released Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 294 Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management knowledge area? A. B. C. D. Time management Cost management Scope management Human resources management

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 295 What characteristic do project and operational work share in common? A. B. C. D. Performed by systems Constrained by limited resources Repetitiveness Uniqueness

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 296 What are the components of the "triple constraint"? A. B. C. D. Scope, time, requirements Resources, time, cost Scope, management, cost Scope, time, cost

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The Project Management Triangle (called also Triple Constraint) is a model of the constraints of

project management. It is often used to illustrate that project management success is measured by the project team's ability to manage the project, so that the expected results are produced while managing time and cost. Like any human undertaking, projects need to be performed and delivered under certain constraints. Traditionally, these constraints have been listed as "scope," "time," and "cost". These are also referred to as the "Project Management Triangle," (also known as the "Iron Triangle") where each side represents a constraint. One side of the triangle cannot be changed without affecting the others. A further refinement of the constraints separates product "quality" or "performance" from scope, and turns quality into a fourth constraint. QUESTION 297 Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge? A. B. C. D. Recognized by every project manager Constantly evolving The sum of all knowledge related to project management A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 298 What do composite organizations involve? A. B. C. D. Functional and project managers Functional managers only Project managers only Technical managers and project managers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 299 Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles? A. B. C. D. Staffing level is highest at the start. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start. The cost of changes is highest at the start.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 300 What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A. B. C. D.

Increases Decreases Stays the same. Has no bearing.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 301 To which process is work performance information an input? A. B. C. D. Contract administration Direction and management of project execution Create WBS Qualitative risk analysis

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 302 Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process? A. B. C. D. Project calendar Communication management plan Requested changes Communication requirement plan

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 303 Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements? A. B. C. D. Develop project management plan Develop project charter Develop preliminary project scope statement Scope planning

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 304 Which process group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget? A. B. C. D. Monitoring & Controlling Executing Planning Initiating

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 305 What process determines which risks might affect the project? A. B. C. D. Qualitative risk analysis Identify Risks Plan Risk Management Quantitative risk analysis

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 306 Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process? A. B. C. D. Develop preliminary project scope statement. Close Project or Phase. Develop project charter. Create WBS.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 307 Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what? A. Project management information system B. Work performance information C. Work breakdown structure

D. Variance analysis Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Work Performance Information Part of the executed project management plan includes the routine collection of work performance information. The information gathered is important, and is useful as input data for quality control measures and programs. It is also useful when audits, quality reviews, and process analyses are conducted. This is especially true of work performance information collected which includes technical performance measures, project deliverables status, required corrective actions, and performance reports. Pertinent work performance Information is essential to the project management plan and includes, but is not limited to: ?Status information on schedule progress. ?Whether deliverables have been completed, or not. ?Start and finish status of schedule activities. ?Quality standards expectation results. ?Authorized costs vs. costs incurred to date. ?Estimated completion time for scheduled activities in progress. ?Percentage of physical completion of inprogress schedule activities. ?Experience based knowledge acquired, documented, and posted to knowledge base. ?Details of resource utilization. Gathering and analysis of work performance information is essential to the project management plan and should be considered a priority. Work performance information contributes to the efficient use of resources, identifies potential trouble spots and problems, and serves as an effective project management tool. This term is defined in the 3rd and the 4th edition of the PMBOK. QUESTION 308 Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work? A. Work performance information "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 111 B. Project management information system (PMIS) C. Activity duration estimates D. Scheduled network analysis Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 309 Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process? A. B. C. D. Performance report Work breakdown structure Requested changes Project scope statement

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 310 When are deliverables accepted or not accepted? A. B. C. D. When the project is initiated. As an output of the scope verification process. When the project is closing. In the contract closure process.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 311 During which process would you obtain stakeholders' formal acceptance of the completed project scope? A. B. C. D. Quality control Scope verification Scope control Close project

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 312 The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique? A. B. C. D. Alternatives identification Scope decomposition Expert judgment Product analysis

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 313 What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category? A. Risk register B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C. Risk management plan D. Risk category Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 314 Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition? A. B. C. D. Templates, forms and standards Change requests Stakeholder analysis Project assumptions

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 315 What is the total float of the critical path? A. B. C. D. Can be any number Zero or positive Zero or negative Depends on the calendar

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 316 Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table?

A. Begin - A - C - D - E - End - B - D B. Begin - A - B - C - D - E - End C. Begin - A - B - D - E - End A - C - D

D. Begin - A - C - D - E - End - B - C Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 114 QUESTION 317 Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account? A. B. C. D. Network reserve analysis Critical chain method Lead and lag adjustment Critical path method

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 318 Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking? A. B. C. D. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased. The critical path will have positive total float. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 319 Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project? A. B. C. D. Analogous Parametric Bottom-up Top-down

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 115 QUESTION 320 Your project has an EV of 100 work-days, an AC of 120 work-days, and a PV of 80 work-days. What should be your concern? A. B. C. D. There is a cost under run. There is a cost overrun. May not meet deadline. The project is 20 days behind schedule.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 321 Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members? A. B. C. D. Work breakdown structure Network diagrams Staffing management plan Responsibility matrix

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 322 When can pre-assignment of project team members occur? A. B. C. D. When the project uses capital expenditures. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 116 QUESTION 323 Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

A. B. C. D.

Risk identification Qualitative risk analysis Risk management planning Quantitative risk analysis

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 324 In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique? A. B. C. D. Qualitative risk analysis Risk monitoring and control Monitor and control project work Risk response planning

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 325 A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan? A. B. C. D. Resource plan Project management plan Cost control plan Expected monetary value plan

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Topic 2, Volume B QUESTION 326 A contract cannot contain _____________. A. B. C. D. Illegal activities deadline for the completion of the work Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A contract cannot contain illegal activities. A contract can contain other options available. QUESTION 327 Which one of the following comes first in the project plan? A. B. C. D. Scope Statement Quality Plan WBS Development Plan

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Scope statement comes first in the project plan. Scope statement is the written statement of project. It contains: Project objectives, Project justification, Project deliverables QUESTION 328 You are project manager of a project. During the process of selecting the sellers, you reject one vendor because it doesn't have the manufacturing capability. This is an example of which selection tool? A. B. C. D. Weighting system Screening system Seller rating system Expert judgment

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A screening system rejects sellers that does not meet minimum requirements for the project. QUESTION 329 ______________ provides details about how the project scope may be changed. A. B. C. D. Control Scope system VeiirV Scope Scope Charter Scope Management plan

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

The scope management plan provides details about how the project scope may be changed. QUESTION 330 Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent further occurrence? A. B. C. D. Root cause analysis Quality audits Project audits Risk audits

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Root cause analysis: A technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent further occurrence. QUESTION 331 Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating? A. B. C. D. Rough order of magnitude Budget estimate WBS estimate Definitive estimate

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The rough order of magnitude is the least accurate approach, as it may vary from -25 percent to +75 percent. QUESTION 332 Who has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders? A. B. C. D. Project Manager Sponsor Team Lead Management

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Project Manager has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders.

QUESTION 333 What is a corrective action? A. B. C. D. An action that brings future project events Into alignment with the project plan An action to correct something in the project An action to prevent something in the project Corrective action is not related to project

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Corrective action: An action that brings future project events into alignment with the project plan QUESTION 334 Assumptions are factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be ______. A. B. C. D. True, real, or certain True, real, or uncertain Real Verbal

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: PMBOK describes assumptions as "factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be true, real, or certain." QUESTION 335 A complete set of indexed project records is called __________. A. B. C. D. Project archives Index sow Project History

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A complete set of indexed project records for archiving by the appropriate parties. QUESTION 336 You are managing a project that will implement a new Insurance software package. Two project team members have difficulty working together. They come to you, for help resolving the issues. You immediately set up a meeting that includes the functional manager. After the meeting you and the functional manager discuss the issues and agree on a solution. What type of organizational structure you are working in?

A. B. C. D.

Functional Balanced matrix Piojectized Strong Matrix

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Balanced matrix: Power is shared between both Functional and Project Manager. In this case you include the functional manager in the meeting therefore it is Balanced matrix organization. QUESTION 337 You have been with the organization; you constantly hear rumours about a certain CAPM failing to live up to the CAPM Code. What you should do? A. B. C. D. You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding Confront the person immediately Ignore the rumours ^ass the rumours along

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding. QUESTION 338 Who is responsible for issuing the project charter? A. B. C. D. The project manager The project sponsor The Team lead The nianagement

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The project sponsor creates and issues the project charter. QUESTION 339 In PMBOK, the seller is ________ to the project team. A. Internal B. External

C. Outside D. Assigned Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: In PMBOK, the seller is External to the project team. QUESTION 340 Project Quality Management includes: A. B. C. D. Customer satisfaction Prevention over inspection Continuous improvement Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Project Quality Management includes : Customer satisfaction, Prevention over inspection, Continuous improvement, Management responsibility QUESTION 341 You are the project manager of the MKTG Project. The project has a budget of $200,000 and is expected to last 2 years. The project is now 20 percent complete and is on schedule. What is the BAC? A. B. C. D. $-00,000 $200,00 $50,000 None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The BAC is the budget at completion (Total budgeted cost), which is $200,000. QUESTION 342 A Risk Register is a part of the ________. A. B. C. D. Project Scope Statement Project Management plan Project Scheduling plan Project Charter

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The Risk Register is detailed part of the project management plan. QUESTION 343 A Risk Register is a part of the ________. A. B. C. D. Project Scope Statement Project Management plan Project Scheduling plan Project Charter

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The Risk Register is detailed part of the project management plan. QUESTION 344 Which type of network diagram is also referred to activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagrams? A. B. C. D. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD) Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM) Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The arrow diagramming method (ADM) is also referred to as activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagramming method. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also referred to as activity-on-node (AON) diagramming method QUESTION 345 Create Procurement document is done in _______. A. B. C. D. Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Create Procurement document is done in Plan Procurements process. QUESTION 346 Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of ____________. A. B. C. D. Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project Integral parts of the SOW Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment Project selection methods

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Projects are seeded from the recognition of a regulatory or business need. Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of benefits measurement methods when selecting a project. Best Option is A. QUESTION 347 Most change requests are a result of _______. A. B. C. D. Value added change (enhancements) Schedule constraints Regulatory constraints Improvement to the project scope

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Most change requests (CRs) are a result of Value added change (enhancements). QUESTION 348 Based on the PMBOK, who is ultimately responsible for the project quality? A. B. C. D. Project team Project manager QA manager Validation engineer

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

Project manager is ultimately responsible for the project quality. QUESTION 349 The end of the project comes after which of the following? A. B. C. D. Project charter F'na' deliverable Schedule QA activities are done

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Project will close after final deliverable. QUESTION 350 The product description of a project can help to create procurement details. Which one of the following best describes product description? A. B. C. D. The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the project customer The product description defines the contracted work The product description defines the requirements for the contract work Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the project customer QUESTION 351 During the planning phase of your project, your project team members have discovered another way to complete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project team, but may cost more for the customer. This is an example of _______. A. B. C. D. Alternative identification "'s^ assessment Alternative selection Product analysis

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Alternative identification is a planning process to find alternatives to completing the project scope. QUESTION 352

What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure? A. B. C. D. Project task w rl< package sow None

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A work package is the lowest level of a work breakdown structure. QUESTION 353 Administrative Closure should occur ___________. A. B. C. D. At the end of each phase of the project At the end of the whole project At the end of 50% of the project At the end of 100% of the project

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Administrative Closure should occur at the end of each phase, not only at the end of the overall project QUESTION 354 In which phase project manager is assigned to a project? A. B. C. D. During the initiation stage During the planning stage After approval of budget After the project is proven feasible

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: output of Initiation process : Project charter PM assigned Constraints Assumptions Project manager is assigned to a project During the initiation stage. QUESTION 355 Who gives project acceptance? A. Sponsor B. Customer

C. Project Manager D. Team Lead Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Customer gives project acceptance. Customer may be person or organization. QUESTION 356 A requirement document is an input of __________ process? A. B. C. D. Collect Requirements Define Scope Integrated Change Control Monitor and Control Project Work

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A requirement document request is an input to Define Sco QUESTION 357 Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. What are the two options? A. B. C. D. Direct ar|d Indirect Tactical and Strategic Management and Project 0n|y Tactical

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. When doing this analysis, it should include both direct and indirect costs so that the final decision is based on comparisons that are equal. QUESTION 358 Which of the following are the inputs of Define Scope? A. B. C. D. Requirements document created in collect requirements process Project files from previous projects Project Charter Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Define Scope - Inputs Requirements document created in collect requirements process, Project Charter and Organizational Process Assets (Project files from previous projects, lesson learned) QUESTION 359 Which document is best suited for tracking the assignment of all resources to specific tasks in a project? A. RACI mAl,x B. sow C. Staffing management plan D)0 CPI Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The RACI matrix lists responsibilities of all resources. The staffing management plan only lists types of resources and timing. QUESTION 360 _________ is the international organization that controls the standards for quality. A. B. C. D. ISO CAPM pMI iscn

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: ISO is the international organization that controls the standards for quality. QUESTION 361 The work breakdown structure is ________. A. B. C. D. Used to break down the project into manageable pieces Set and does not change throughout the project Needed as part of the project charter [Needed as part of the project scope statement

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: Work Breakdown Structure (WBS): A deliverable-oriented grouping of project elements which organizes and defines the total scope of the project. It sub divide the major tasks to minor details. QUESTION 362 If a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell? A. B. C. D. The project is running ahead of the schedule The project is running behind of the schedule Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units None

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The SPI equals the earned value divided by the planned value. SPI = EV/PV A schedule performance index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is ahead of schedule. QUESTION 363 You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. You have assigned the resources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing him or her of your decisions. Which type of organizational structure are you working in? A. B. C. D. Pi'ojectized Strong Matrix Weak Matrix Functional

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Projectized Organization: Any organizational structure in which the project manager has full authority to assign priorities and to direct the work of individuals assigned to the project. Strong Matrix: The project manager is assigned full time and has a full time support staff. Project manager has the preeminent position of authority. Weak Matrix: Power reset with Functional Manager. Functional: In this organization Project Manager has least power and all management is taken care by functional manager like marketing engineer, sales engineer. QUESTION 364 At what point in a project do you have the highest probability that it will fail? A. B. C. D. The beginning of the project ^ust before the end of the project QA Phase Execution phase

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Risk and uncertainty are the highest at the beginning or a project. QUESTION 365 From whom do you need to gain the formal acceptance at project closure? A. B. C. D. The customer The qualify director Project management office Project manager

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: need to gain this formal acceptance at project closure from the customer and sponsor. QUESTION 366 Which statement is true about Bottom-up estimating? A. B. C. D. Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total. Uses the actual cost of a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs. Cost of quality can also be used to prepare the schedule activity cost estimate.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total. It is more accurate. QUESTION 367 Which is not part of Project Plan? A. B. C. D. Project Scope Management Plan Schedule Management Plan Cost Management Plan Project Charter

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

All are part of Project Plan except project charter. QUESTION 368 Which of the following is the most important task of the project manager during the Execution and Control phase? A. B. C. D. Information management Maintain scope statement Maintain Charter Maintain Closing document

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: One of the most important tasks of the project manager during the Execution and Control phases of the project is the management of information. QUESTION 369 Which time estimating tools estimate the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate? A. B. C. D. Parametric estimating Funding limit reconciliation Reserves analysis None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Parametric Estimating: Estimating the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate. QUESTION 370 You are project manager and now in middle of creating RFP (Request for proposal). RFP (Request for proposal) is done in _______. A. B. C. D. Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

RFP (Request for proposal) is done in Plan Procurements process. QUESTION 371 Which of the following statement is true about Strategic planning? A. B. C. D. Strategic planning determines which projects will be choosing in order to achieve the organizational goals Strategic planning determines which projects will be sponsor in order to achieve the organizational goals Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and funded Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Strategic planning determines which projects will be choose or sponsor in order to achieve the organizational goals. Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and funded. QUESTION 372 The Ishikawa diagram, Pareto chart, control charts, and statistical sampling are examples of ________. A. B. C. D. Quality assurance Quality control Quality rules CMM

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The Ishikawa diagram, the control charts, Pareto chart, and statistical sampling are examples of basic tools of quality control. QUESTION 373 Which risk response is most likely to involve contingency reserves? A. B. C. D. Acceptance shaie Mitigate Transfer

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Acceptance is when no change to the project is made for a risk. A contingency can be set aside to offset the impact of the risk.

QUESTION 374 Which of the following does not provided by scope statement? A. B. C. D. Project justification Project product Project manager authority Project objective

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The project charter provides the project manager with authority. QUESTION 375 What is the communication channel delta if the members in the communication plan are increased from 5 to 10? A. B. C. D. 35 5 15 75

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Delta = n*(n-1)/2 - n1*(n1-1)/2 where n = individuals and n1 = new individuals 10-45 = 35 No of communication channels: n*(n-1)/2 where n = individual QUESTION 376 Collect Requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase and uses the outputs of the __________. A. B. C. D. Initiation Process Project closer Process Estimation Process Closing process

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Collect Requirements process starts in "Project Planning Phase" and uses the outputs of the Initiation Process. QUESTION 377 You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction mode. This means that your project

__________. A. B. C. D. Has ended before its stated objective 's st'" cunning but missing resources Will be closed due to lack of resources None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A project that ends in extinction mode is a project that has ended before meeting its stated objectives. QUESTION 378 When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose to add the individual estimates for the activities that comprise each phase. What type of estimation method are you using? A. B. C. D. Parametric estimating Bottom-up estimating Top-down estimating Analogous estimating

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total: It is more accurate. Analogous estimating: Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Parametric estimating: Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs (e.g., price per square meter). QUESTION 379 Who is responsible for the creation of the final project plan? A. B. C. D. Project Manager Team Leader Sponsor Project Team

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Project Manager is responsible for the creation of the final project plan. QUESTION 380

Who has the responsibility for Plan Quality? A. B. C. D. Project manager QA manager Project planner Team 'ead

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Project manager has the responsibility for Plan Quality. QUESTION 381 Assumptions in the project plan should be _________. A. B. C. D. Written down Understandable Not understandable No need to write

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Assumptions that are not written down are the most dangerous. QUESTION 382 Who applies project selection methods to decide whether to accept or reject a project? A. B. C. D. Project sponsor Project team Project manager Senior Management

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The project sponsor must have the authority to select and fund the project. QUESTION 383 Which of the following statement is true about project charter? A. Provides a high level definition of the effort and its stakeholders B. Announces who is the project engineer

C. Tells the newspapers and media when the project will end D. Announces who is the project sponsor Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: project charter: The project charter formally authorizes the project, assigns the project manager, and gives a high-level definition of the projects and its deliverables. QUESTION 384 Which of the following is NOT an input of close project process? A. B. C. D. Project management plan Contract documentation Deliverables WBS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: WBS is NOT inputs of close project process. QUESTION 385 Which of the following is conflict resolution technique? A. B. C. D. Compromise Smoothing Foimal Coercive

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: smoothing is a conflict resolution technique, the rest are forms of leadership power. QUESTION 386 __________ is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near future using the most current information and revisiting future activities when they near their starting dates. A. B. C. D. Rolling wave planning Progressive elaboration Milestone detail planning Expert judgment

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Rolling wave planning is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near future using the most current information and revisiting future activities when they near their starting dates. QUESTION 387 Which of the following activities is not part of Plan Risk Management? A. B. C. D. Updating risk register Determining risk roles and responsibilities Identifying risk categories Developing a risk management plan

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Updating the risk register first happens in Identify Risks phase. Determining risk roles and responsibilities, Identifying risk categories and developing a risk management plan are part of Plan Risk Management. QUESTION 388 PMI discusses procurement focusing on the ______ relationship. A. B. C. D. Buyer or seller Vendor or seller Purchasing Sellino-

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: PMI discusses procurement focusing on the buyer or seller relationship QUESTION 389 Administrative closure is the process that ________. A. B. C. D. Closes all activities pertaining to a specific project Collects user acceptance of the project product or service Includes all the activities needed to validate the project products and services Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Administrative closure: Closes all activities pertaining to a specific project QUESTION 390 You are project manager of a project, which of the following is not your responsibility? A. B. C. D. Quality in the organization Acquiring HR resources for the project team Overall responsibility for risk on the project Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Senior management is responsible for quality in the organization QUESTION 391 Project success can be achieved only if: A. B. C. D. There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy. The project sponsor leads the initiatives. The project manager is an expert in managing resources. Team members like project manager.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: There is no project for the sake of spending money. There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy. QUESTION 392 You are project manager of a project and as part of the team acquisition process; you hire a new employee and assigns him to your project team. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, what needs level he most likely is at? A. B. C. D. Social need Physical need Safety and security Security

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: as new to project he is most likely looking for acceptance and friendship. This comes under Social need. QUESTION 393 Which one of the following is not an output of contract closure? A. B. C. D. c'ose contracts Lessons learned documentation Deliverable acceptance Scope statement

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: All are output of contract closure: Close contracts,Contract file,Lessons learned documentation and Deliverable acceptance. QUESTION 394 The intent of the risk management process group is to ________. A. B. C. D. Increase the probability of positive outcomes in the project Announce project risks Not consider risks affecting the company Announce project deliverables

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The risk management process group serves as the road map used to reduce its impact on the project. QUESTION 395 ISO Stands for __________. A. B. C. D. International Organization for Standardization International Standardized Organization 'n Standardized Organization Indiana Standardized Organization

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: ISO Stands for International Organization for Standardization.

QUESTION 396 The project baseline is _______. A. B. C. D. Original plans plus the approved changes Important in the project initiation phase Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization Original plans and the approved major changes

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The project baseline: original plans plus the approved changes. QUESTION 397 Which of the following is not a form a leadership power? A. B. C. D. Compromise Smoothing Foimal Coercive

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: smoothing is a conflict resolution technique, the rest are forms of leadership power. QUESTION 398 ___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work. A. B. C. D. Procurement Management Planning Management Scope Management Control Management

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Procurement Management is groups of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work. QUESTION 399 You are the project manager of a project. If there are approved changes to the original scope, what you do with the old original scope?

A. B. C. D.

Save the old versions No need to save old version Scrap the old version Old version is not required

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: All the version you should keep in version control system. QUESTION 400 Which of the following subsidiary plan contains the quality objectives for the project? A. B. C. D. Quality baseline Quality management plan Process improvement plan QA checklist

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The quality baseline documents the quality objectives for the project. QUESTION 401 Function of the __________ is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are recorded and agreed to by the stakeholders. A. B. C. D. Project Manager Sponsor Team Lead Management

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Function of the project manager is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are recorded and agreed to by the stakeholders. QUESTION 402 Which of the following is an output of Verify Scope? A. Formal acceptance B. WBS template

C. sow acceptance D. Rework Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Output of Verify Scope is formal acceptance. QUESTION 403 Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the __________. A. B. C. D. Work Breakdown Structure sow Project Charter Project Scope Statement

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the WBS. QUESTION 404 How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating? A. B. C. D. 10 12 4 5

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: No of communication channels: n*(n-1)/2 where n = individual. In this case 5*(5-1)/2 = 10 QUESTION 405 Which of the following project document is best suited for tracking costs of resources? A. B. C. D. Work breakdown structure P'sk breakdown structure Organizational breakdown structure Resource breakdown structure

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The resource breakdown structure organizes all resources in a hierarchical structure, allowing for cost tracking also. QUESTION 406 If a project with a CPI of 0.8, what you tell? A. B. C. D. The project is consuming more resources than anticipated. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated. The project is falling behind. The project is running ahead of schedule.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: If your cost performance index is above 1.0, it indicates that you have costs that are less then estimated. CPI = EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual cost) QUESTION 407 Which monitoring or controlling activities would not result in preventive action being applied? A. B. C. D. Control Scope Manage project team Quality control Manage Scope statement

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Scope, schedule, and Control Costs can all result in corrective action, but not preventive action. QUESTION 408 _______ is the road map for the execution of the project. A. B. C. D. Project plan sow WBS Strategic planning

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Project plan is the road map for the execution of the project. QUESTION 409 You are the project manager of a project and budgeted money to provide cash awards to team members that exceed expectations. A project team member that is motivated by the chance to earn cash reward can most accurately be explained by which theory A. B. C. D. Hierarchy of needs Expectancy theory Achievement theory Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The team member is working hard because he expects to be rewarded so it is Expectancy theory QUESTION 410 Which of the following are input of close project process? A. B. C. D. Project management plan Contract documentation Deliverables Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: All are inputs of close project process. QUESTION 411 The main purpose of project initiation is to ________. A. B. C. D. Assign the project manager to the project Formally describe the project Produce the project charter Formally authorize the project

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

Output of project initiation is formally authorizing the project. Output of project scope initiation is: Project charter PM assigned Constraints and Assumptions. QUESTION 412 Which document formally authorizes a project? A. B. C. D. The project charter Project scope statement The P'oject contract Project closing document

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The project charter is the formal document for authorizes a project. QUESTION 413 Project just went into inclusion mode. This means that project __________. A. B. C. D. Has become part of the business processes Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client Will be closed due to lack of resources None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: inclusion mode: Has become part of the business processes. A contract cannot contain _____________. QUESTION 414 The main purpose of project initiation is to ________. A. B. C. D. Assign the project manager to the project Formally describe the project Produce the project charter Formally authorize the project

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Output of project initiation is formally authorizing the project. Output of project scope initiation is: Project charter PM assigned Constraints and Assumptions. QUESTION 415

Who is responsibility for making sure that a message in the project team is understood A. B. C. D. Project Manager Sender Project coordinator Sponsor

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The sender has to make sure that the receiver acknowledges the receipt and message is understood, and the receiver needs to ensure that the sender received the acknowledgement. QUESTION 416 _________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined. A. B. C. D. Cost plus incentive fee F'xed P|ice Time and material "'s^ 's nc* 'elated to price

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined. Fixed price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined QUESTION 417 How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating? A. B. C. D. 10 12 4 5

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: No of communication channels: n*(n-1)/2 where n = individual. In this case 5*(5-1)/2 = 10 QUESTION 418 Acceptance of the product should be ________. A. Formal

B. Consistent C. Personal D. Verbal Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The acceptance should be formal. QUESTION 419 You are creating your WBS and keep decomposing tasks into smaller units. How can you tell when you are done? A. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably estimate required resources and duration. B. Keep decomposing work until you reach a predetermined number of hierarchy levels to keep the WBS balanced. C. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one DAY. D. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one WEEK. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably estimate required resources and duration. QUESTION 420 If a project with a SPI of 0.8, what you tell? A. B. C. D. The project is running ahead of the schedule The project is running behind of the schedule Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units None

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The SPI equals the earned value divided by the planned value. SPI = EV/PV A schedule performance index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is ahead of schedule. QUESTION 421 If a project with a CPI of 1.2, what you tell? A. The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated

B. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated. C. The project is falling behind. D. The project is running ahead of schedule. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: If your cost performance index is above 1.0, it indicates that you have costs that are less then estimated; so doing good. Option A is BEST fit for this CPI = EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual cost QUESTION 422 What are the inputs for Initiation process? A. B. C. D. Product description and Strategic plan Selection criteria Historical information Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Inputs for Initiation process : Product description Strategic plan Selection criteria Historical information QUESTION 423 Which of the following are parts of project scope management? A. B. C. D. Verify Scope Collect Requirements Control Scope Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: There are following processes which are part of Project Scope Management. Collect Requirements Define Scope Create WBS Verify Scope Control Scope QUESTION 424 Project scope is _____________. A. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service B. The work that must NOT be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions C. Part ftne project charter

D. Part of sow Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Project scope : The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions. QUESTION 425 You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and is expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years the expected worth of the equipment is $2,000. Using straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off each year? A. B. C. D. $600 $1200 $3000 Zero

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item, minus the salvage price of the item, divided by the number of time periods. Calculation is (5000-2000)/5 = $600 Topic 3, Volume C QUESTION 426 Which of the following plans is not done during the writing of a project plan? A. B. C. D. Executive Communication Risk Management Quality Management Scope Statement

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Executive Communication may be a part of your communication process but not in project plan. QUESTION 427 Stakeholder influence is greatest at the ______ of the project. A. Beginning B. Closing

C. Controlling D. Executing Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Stakeholder influence is greatest at the beginning of the project QUESTION 428 Which of the following is not part of project scope management? A. B. C. D. Verify Scope Collect Requirements Create WBS None of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: e are following processes which are part of Project Scope Management. Collect Requirements Define Scope Create WBS Verify Scope Control Scope QUESTION 429 You are the project manager for the software Project. This project must be completed within one year. This is an example of which of the following? A. B. C. D. Schedule Assumption Constraint Planning process

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A project that must be completed by a deadline is dealing with time constraints. A is incorrect since the condition does not offer a schedule. B is incorrect because the condition is not an assumption. D is also incorrect because this is not a planning process. QUESTION 430 The project management plan: A. Identifies all the steps and processes that will be used after a project is initiated B. Steps needed to complete a project task C. Prepared at the beginning and fixed throughout the execution of the project

D. Includes project charter Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Project Management Plan: The project management plan provides the overall plan for executing, monitoring, and controlling, closing the project. QUESTION 431 Which type of network diagram is also referred to Activity-on-Node (AON) diagrams? A. B. C. D. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) Gantt Cnart Diagram (GCD) Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM) Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The arrow diagramming method (ADM) is also referred to as activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagramming method. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also referred to as activity-on-node (AON) diagramming method QUESTION 432 What are common types of cost-reimbursable contracts? A. B. C. D. CPF CPFF CPIF Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Three common types of cost-reimbursable contracts are CPF, CPFF, and CPIF Cost-Plus-Fee (CPF), CostPlus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF) and Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee (CPIF). QUESTION 433 Information should be communicated to __________. A. B. C. D. Everyone in the communication plan Everyone on the team Sponsor Team 'eacl

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: One of the most important tasks of the project manager during the Execution and Control phases of the project is the management of information. All Information should be communicated to everyone in the communication plan. QUESTION 434 You are the project manager of a project. Your project just went into integration mode. This means that your project __________. A. B. C. D. Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client Will be closed due to lack of resources Resources are being assigned to other areas of the business None of the above

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A project that ends in integration mode is the type of project where its resources are being assigned to other areas. QUESTION 435 You are working with an organization and you found that one stakeholder not disclosing all of the costs involved with an upcoming project. Rather, this CAPM is constructing a WBS that does not include all the tasks necessary to get the project done. What you should do? A. B. C. D. Talk to the CAPM about the WBS to see if you can rework it to reflect actual costs of the project Confront the other project manager immediately Mail t0 PMI headquarters Ignore it

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: You can talk to the CAPM about the WBS changes. If he or she refuses to change the WBS, you have a responsibility to go to stakeholders and voice your concerns. QUESTION 436 Which document formally authorizes a project? A. The project charter B. Project scope statement C. The P'oject contract

D. Project closing document Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The project charter is the formal document for authorizes a project. QUESTION 437 You are project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be changed after the contract is signed is ___________. A. B. C. D. Bad practice Unprofessional practice Bacl f r both tne buyer and seller Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: It is both bad and unprofessional to knowingly offer an estimate that is incorrect QUESTION 438 In PMBOK, the buyer is ________ to the project team. A. B. C. D. Internal External Outside Assigned

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: In PMBOK, the buyer is Internal to the project team. QUESTION 439 Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to __________. A. B. C. D. Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates Define a baseline for performance measurement and control Facilitate clear responsibility assignments Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to: Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates. Define a baseline for performance measurement and control. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments. QUESTION 440 Your company create software products, and introducing a new product. To determine the characteristics and features of the new product line, you will have to perform ________. A. B. C. D. Progressive elaboration Stake holder's review p'an project life cycle Fast backing

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The process of determining the characteristics and features of the product of the project is called Progressive elaboration. Progressive elaboration is carried out via steps in detailed fashion. QUESTION 441 You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next? A. B. C. D. Create WBS Vei*<fy Scope Value analysis Control Scope

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope. QUESTION 442 Which process must occur after a project manager has been assigned to the project? A. B. C. D. Collect Requirements Develop the project charter Develop the project statement of work Develop project closing document

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The Collect Requirements process occurs during project planning. Other options occur during project initiation. Option D is associated with project closing. Collect Requirements is the best option. QUESTION 443 You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Define Activities, activity resources estimating, and Estimate Activity Durations processes. Which process have you left out? A. B. C. D. Control Schedule Create WBS Sequence Activities Operations

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The PMBOK places Sequence Activities between Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources. QUESTION 444 Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs? A. B. C. D. Earn Value Analysis Scope Baseline P'sk Register Human Resource Plan

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Earned value analysis is used during the execution of the project to determine resource consumption versus planned QUESTION 445 Which of the following is NOT input of Identify Risks? A. B. C. D. Project Charter Stakeholder Register Pis'* Management Plan Activity Cost Estimates

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Project Charter is NOT input of Identify Risks. QUESTION 446 You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next? A. B. C. D. Create WBS Vei*<fy Scope Value analysis Control Scope

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope. QUESTION 447 If you are project manager for a Project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as possible. Of the following, which is the best source of information for your project? A. B. C. D. Historical information WBS Business plans RBS

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Historical information is the best input of the choices available. B is incorrect since the WBS has not been created at this point of the project. C is incorrect since business plans are not a likely input to the initiation process QUESTION 448 Which of the following activity is not performed as part of the direct and manage project execution process? A. B. C. D. Monitor implementation of approved changes Validate deliverables Staff, train, and manage the project team Manage cisks and implement risk responses

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: In the direct and manage project execution process, approved changes are implemented but monitoring of those changes is part of monitoring OR controlling project work. QUESTION 449 You are the project manager and you have created a contract for your customer. The contract must have ________. A. B. C. D. Offer and consideration Start date and acceptance of start date Signatures and the stamp of a notary public Signatures of all stakeholders

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A contract must have Offer and consideration. Not all contracts demand signatures and notary public involvement. Contract may specify a start date, but the Acceptance of the start date is not needed for all contracts. QUESTION 450 If a project with a CPI of 1.6, what you tell? A. B. C. D. The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated The project is using fewer resources than anticipated. The project is falling behind. The project is running ahead of schedule.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A cost performance index of 1 or greater suggests that project in delivering more with less money; so doing well. Option A is BEST fit for this. CPI = EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual cost) QUESTION 451 Which is the most risky phase of a project? A. B. C. D. Planning Closing Execution Control

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: The Planning phase is the phase with the least risk attached. The Execution phase of the project is when you are using your resources at their highest level . QUESTION 452 Lessons learned session should be held at what point in a project? A. B. C. D. At the project conclusion At key milestones When risk events occur When sponsor want

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Although lessons learned should be held at project conclusion, they should be held throughout the project any time. QUESTION 453 What are the outputs of Initiation process? A. B. C. D. Project charter and PM assigned Constraints Assumptions Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: output of Initiation process : Project charter PM assigned Constraints Assumptions QUESTION 454 Which process group is for detailed resource assignments and responsibilities? A. B. C. D. Human resources management plan Project charter Aplan Project management plan

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Develop Human Resource Plan: Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles,

responsibilities, and reporting relationships to individuals or groups. QUESTION 455 You are the project manager for a Project. Project is a global project. Some peoples are working from US and some are from India. Client says budget should not cost more than $12 million. Because of the global concerns, the final budget must be in U.S. dollars. This is an example of which of the following? A. B. C. D. Internationalization Budget constraint Management constraint Quality constraint

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: This is an example of a budget constraint. The budget must not exceed $12 million. QUESTION 456 You are the project manager of a project. Project is installing AC to hotel rooms. You have done project cost and time estimates, told the customer that the estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms meet the requirements like (wooden coated). This is an example of which of the following? A. B. C. D. Risk Assumption Constraint Budget

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: This is an example of an assumption because estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms meet the requirements like (wooden coated). A and C are incorrect because the scenario did not describe a risk or constraint. QUESTION 457 When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose in a mathematical model to predict estimate. What type of estimation method are you using? A. B. C. D. Parametric estimating Bottom-up estimating Top-down estimating Analogous estimating

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total: It is more accurate. Analogous estimating: Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Parametric estimating: Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs (e.g., price per square meter). QUESTION 458 Purchasing insurance is an example of __________. A. B. C. D. Transfer Acceptances Mitigation Contingency

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Purchasing insurance means transfer the risk to third party. QUESTION 459 How many communication channels exist in a team of 10 members? A. B. C. D. 45 10 30 20

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: formula (N)(N - 1)/2 where N = no of people. Therefore calculation is (10*9)/2. QUESTION 460 The primary output of the project closing process ____________. A. B. C. D. To formalize and distribute all information pertaining to the project closing Lessons learned To get customer and sponsor approval Milestone list

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

The primary output of the project closing process is to formalize and distribute all the information pertaining to the closing of the project. QUESTION 461 Which type of network diagram allows you to depict four types of dependencies (finish-to-start, finish-to-finish, start-to-start, and start-to-finish)? A. B. C. D. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD) Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM) Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The precedence diagramming method (PDM) supports finish-to-start, finish-to-finish, start-to-start, and start-tofinish dependencies. QUESTION 462 Which of the following best describes project scope? A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions B. The description of the project deliverables C. The authorizing document that allows the project manager to move forward with the project and to assign resources to the tasks D. The process of planning and executing all of the required work to deliver the project Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: project scope: The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions. QUESTION 463 In which phase you define the final deliverable? A. B. C. D. Closing Execution Planning Initiation

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

Project will close after final deliverable. Final deliverables are defined in the closing phase. QUESTION 464 The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project schedule is called ___________. A. B. C. D. Project time management Control Schedule Monitoring and controlling Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Control Schedule: The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project schedule. QUESTION 465 Your project team is composed of team members in three countries plus a contractor team in a fourth country. What tool would optimize communication? A. B. C. D. Extranet-based electronic document repository Manual filing system War loom Verbal

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: An electronic document repository allows all team members access to the documents, regardless of location. QUESTION 466 Conformance to specifications document is one description of _________. A. B. C. D. Quality Scope Integration Procurement

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Quality on a project means that you are conforming to a standard that is set before you start the project. QUESTION 467

Customer formally accepts the deliverables of each project phase. This process is known as ________. A. B. C. D. Verify Scope Quality Assurance Quality Control Quality Measurement

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Verify Scope is the process of formally accepting the deliverable of a project or phase. A is incorrect because EVM measures project performance. C is incorrect because quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work, not the acceptance of the work. QA is incorrect because this described the quality program for the organization as a whole. QUESTION 468 _________ is the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined. A. B. C. D. Cost plus incentive fee F'xed P|ice Time and material None

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined. Fixed price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined. QUESTION 469 You are the project manager of a project and the project is a month into the executing phase. There are some cliques forming among the team members. Which leadership style you follow for best outcome? A. B. C. D. Supporting Delegating Coaching Directing

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Situational leadership style is coaching. Coaching is best fit for this situation. QUESTION 470

When the version control numbers should change? A. B. C. D. Any change occurs Major changes are made Any change related to scope only Only if minor changes are made

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: If any change occur, the version control numbers should change. QUESTION 471 How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 10 individual are participating? A. B. C. D. 45 12 10 5

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: No of communication channels: n*(n-1)/2 where n = individual. In this case 10*(10-1)/2 = 45 QUESTION 472 Market conditions are a part of ________. A. B. C. D. Enterprise environmental factors Project management concerns Organizational process assets Cost factor

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Market conditions will influence all factors of procurement. QUESTION 473 Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of: A. B. C. D. Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project Integral parts of the SOW Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment Project selection methods

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Projects are seeded from the recognition of a regulatory or business need. QUESTION 474 Which of the following is an output of Define Scope? A. B. C. D. PBS Project Scope statement WBS Template Constraints

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Output of Define Scope is Project Scope statement. QUESTION 475 The buyer and seller are bound by the ________. A. B. C. D. Contract Responsibilities WBS Identification

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The buyer and seller are bound by the contract. QUESTION 476 Which is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration: A. B. C. D. Contract change control system Contract negotiation Payment system Performance rating

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Contract negotiation is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration. QUESTION 477 Which describes how cost variances will be managed? A. B. C. D. Cost management plan Cost baseline Cost estimate Chart of accounts

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Cost management plan describes how cost variances will be managed. QUESTION 478 A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result. A. B. C. D. Project plan Process Schedule Flowchart

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 479 A Project Cost Management plan is created as a part of: A. B. C. D. Develop Project Management Plan process Control Costs process Determine Budget process Estimate Costs process

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: There is no separate process in the Project Cost Estimation knowledge area to develop a cost management plan. It is devloped in Develop Project Management Plan process. QUESTION 480

__________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model A. B. C. D. Analogous estimating Life-cycle costing Parametric modelling Bottom up estimating

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Parametric modeling : Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs (e.g., price per square foot). QUESTION 481 Adjusting Leads and Lags is a technique for: A. B. C. D. Develop Schedule Estimate Activity Durations Estimate Activity Resources Sequence Activities

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Adjusting Leads and Lags: Since the improper use of leads or lags can distort the project schedule, the leads or lags are adjusted during schedule network analysis to develop a viable project schedule. Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule are : Mathematical analysis,Duration compression,Simulation,Resourceleveling ,Project management software,Adjusting Leads and Lags and Coding structure. QUESTION 482 Analogous Estimate Costs is _________. A. B. C. D. Generally Accurate Generally less accurate Bottom-up estimating None

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Analogous Estimate Costs is Generally less accurate . Analogous Estimate Costs Uses Expert Judgment . It is used when reference projects are similar . It is useful in early phases of the project. QUESTION 483

With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____. A. B. C. D. 30.0 22.5 25.0 27.5

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: mean = (20+30+40)/3= 30 QUESTION 484 You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and is expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years, the expected worth of the equipment is $2,000. Using the straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off each year? A. B. C. D. $600 $1200 $3000 $100

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A is the correct answer. The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item, minus the salvage price of the item, divided by the number of time periods. Calculation is (5000-2000)/5 = $600. QUESTION 485 Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process? A. B. C. D. Formal acceptance WBStemplate SOW acceptance Rework

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Output of Verify Scope is formal acceptance. QUESTION 486 What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.

A. B. C. D.

Resource planning Estimate Costs Determine Budget Control Costs

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Resource planning :Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships to individuals or groups. QUESTION 487 Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report? A. B. C. D. Gantt chart Milestone chart fishbone diagram network diagram

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 488 A Change Control Board should be _______? A. B. C. D. flexible Include the project manager appropriate authority al1 of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: CCB should have all the mentioned characteristics. QUESTION 489 Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of ________ which will adversely affect project objectives. A. B. C. D. Likely events Complex activities Complex schedules Uncertain occurrences

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Uncertain occurrences can affect project objective. QUESTION 490 Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source Selection? A. B. C. D. Contract negotiation Weighting system Payment system Screening system

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Payment system is not a tool or technique for Source Selection. Other options are . QUESTION 491 Which of the following is ensuring that all features and functions are included in a product or service A. B. C. D. Project scope Project verification Project control Product scope

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Project verification ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service QUESTION 492 A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that the activity duration must be _____. A. B. C. D. Statistically dependent Variance distributed Statistically independent Deterministic

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Statistically independent QUESTION 493 Which of the following is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget? A. B. C. D. Management Contingency Reserve Management Overheads Project Management Planing Activity Cost Contingency Reserve

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is Management Contingency Reserve. Management Contingency Reserve is not part of project cost baseline. QUESTION 494 In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is: A. B. C. D. Functional Weak matrix Piojectized Dedicated project team

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Dedicated project team QUESTION 495 Which of the following is not a part of the Earned Value calculations? A. B. C. D. Unknown Unknowns Project Budget Known Unknowns Amount of work completed

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Unknown Unknowns is not part of the Earned Value calculations.

QUESTION 496 What is the purpose of the WBS? A. B. C. D. To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units. To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework. To show the organizational structure of a program. all of the above

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 497 A Project Scope Management includes : A. B. C. D. Initiation Project Plan Execution Overall Change Control Report Performance

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Project scope management includes: Initiation, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Verify Scope and Control Scope QUESTION 498 At which stage, stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project? A. B. C. D. Initial stage Closing stage Execution stage None of the above

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: It is easy to make changes to project goals and approach at the initial stage. Stake holders have maximum influence at Initial stage. QUESTION 499 An activity that consumes no time or resource and shows only that a dependency exists between two activities is called:

A. B. C. D.

A milestone A hammock A dummy activity a and c

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 500 A change requests can occur due to: A. B. C. D. An external event such as a change in government regulation. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project. all of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 501 Another term for top down estimating is:. A. B. C. D. Analogous estimating Life-cycle costing Parametric modeling Bottom up estimating

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 502 A Reserve Analysis is a technique for: A. B. C. D. Estimate Activity Durations Estimate Activity Resources Sequence Activities Define Activities

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: QUESTION 503 The scope management provides: A. B. C. D. A basis for future decisions about the project. A baseline to accomplish verification measures. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 504 A project plan is: A. A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control. B. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplie D. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 505 Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] : A. B. C. D. Start-to-Finish Finish-to-Start Start-to-Start Finish-to-Finish

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 506 When should a project manager be assigned to a project? A. B. C. D. As early in the project as feasible. Preferably before much project planning has been done. At least prior to the start of project plan execution. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 507 Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in a Define Scope Process? A. B. C. D. Product analysis Expert Judgment Alternative Identification All of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 508 Your project has a budget of $240,000 and is expect to last for 1 year, with the work and budget spread evenly across all months. The project is now in the fourth month, the work is on schedule, but you have spent $120,000 of the project budget. What is your COST Variance percentage in this case? A. B. C. D. -50% 50% 40% 20%

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 509 Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions? A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end. and drop rapidly as the project nears completion. B. The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project. C. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project. D. a and b Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

QUESTION 510 A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style: A. B. C. D. Hierarchal Authoritarian Charismatic Associative

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 511 Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan. A. B. C. D. Stakeholder requirements Project performance Control Schedule Project controls

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 512 Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process: A. B. C. D. Sequence Activities Develop Schedule Define Activities Estimate Activity Durations

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 513 Which is the most important element of a Project Management Plan that is useful in the Develop Human Resource Plan process: A. B. C. D. Risk Management activities Activity Resource requirements Budget Control activities Quality Assurance activities

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 514 In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project? A. B. C. D. Projectized organization Balanced Matrix organization Strong Matrix Weak Matrix organization

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 515 In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project? A. B. C. D. Projectized organization Balanced Matrix organization Strong Matrix Weak Matrix organization

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 516 A Trend Analysis is best described as: A. B. C. D. Examining project performance over time Calculating Earned Value Calculating Cost Variance Analyzing performance of similar projects over time

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 517 To calculate the late start and late finish dates for a set of tasks , you must do : A. An analysis of the critical path

B. A forwards pass C. A backwards pass D. a and g Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 518 Which is not included in Performance improvements : A. B. C. D. Improvements in amount of overtime worked Improvements in individual skills Improvements in team behaviours Improvements in team capabilities

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 519 Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the PERT weighted average? A. B. C. D. 6 4 6.3 6.1

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 520 A scope management plan In which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan prepared? A. B. C. D. Initiation Collect Requirements Define Scope Verify Scope

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 521 Project scope is: A. B. C. D. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract. a and b

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 522 The planning processes are: A. B. C. D. Define Scope, Resource planning, Estimate Costs, Schedule development. Define Activities Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk management Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk control Define Scope, Team development, Control Schedule, Budget control, Contract administration

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 523 A Resource Leveling is a technique for: A. B. C. D. Develop Schedule Estimate Activity Durations Estimate Activity Resources Sequence Activities

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 524 A process that is not part of a Project Risk Management is: A. B. C. D. Identification Solicitation Quantification Response Development

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 525 An example of a project is: A. B. C. D. Billing customers Managing an organization Constructing a building Providing technical support

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: