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Cambridge Pre-U Specimen Papers and Mark Schemes Cambridge International Level 3 Pre-U Certificate in BIOLOGY For use

from 2011 onwards

Cambridge Pre-U Specimen Papers and Mark Schemes

Specimen Materials Biology (9790)


Cambridge International Level 3 Pre-U Certificate in Biology (Principal) For use from 2011 onwards

QAN 500/380/72
www.cie.org.uk/cambridgepreu
1

Cambridge Pre-U Specimen Papers and Mark Schemes

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Syllabus Updates
This booklet of specimen materials is for use from 2011. It is intended for use with the version of the syllabus that will be examined in 2013, 2014 and 2015. The purpose of these materials is to provide Centres with a reasonable idea of the general shape and character of the planned question papers in advance of the first operational examination. If there are any changes to the syllabus CIE will write to centres to inform them. The syllabus and these specimen materials will also be published annually on the CIE website (www.cie.org.uk/ cambridgepreu). The version of the syllabus on the website should always be considered as the definitive version. Further copies of this, or any other, Cambridge Pre-U specimen booklet can be obtained by either downloading from our website www.cie.org.uk/cambridgepreu or contacting: Customer Services, University of Cambridge International Examinations, 1 Hills Road, Cambridge CB1 2EU Telephone: +44 (0)1223 553554 Fax: +44 (0)1223 553558 E-mail: international@cie.org.uk

CIE retains the copyright on all its publications. CIE registered Centres are permitted to copy material from this booklet for their own internal use. However, CIE cannot give permission to Centres to photocopy any material that is acknowledged to a third party even for internal use within a Centre. Copyright University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate 2011

www.cie.org.uk/cambridgepreu

UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS Cambridge International Level 3 Pre-U Certificate Principal Subject

BIOLOGY
Paper 1 Structured Questions SPECIMEN PAPER

9790/01
For Examination from 2013 2 hours 30 minutes

Candidates answer on the Question Paper. No Additional Materials are required. READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on all the work you hand in. Write in dark blue or black pen. You may use a pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough working. Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid. Answer all questions. For Examiner's Use Section A Twenty questions for which you must choose what you consider to be the right answer and record your choice in the appropriate space provided. Marks will not Section A be deducted for any wrong answers. Write your answers in the spaces provided 21 on the Question Paper. Section B Write your answers in the spaces provided on the question paper. The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question. 22 23 24 25 26 Total

This document consists of 31 printed pages and 1 blank page. [Turn over

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2 Section A 1 The resolving power of a microscope depends on the wavelength used by the system. Table 1.1 shows the wavelengths and resolving powers of three types of microscope. Table 1.1 type of microscope light microscope ultra-violet microscope electron microscope wavelength / m 0.8 0.2 0.005 resolving power / m 0.4 0.1 0.0025
For Examiner's Use

Table 1.2 gives details of four biological structures which are investigated using microscopes. The ticks ( ) and crosses ( ) indicate whether or not each structure can be clearly seen with each microscope. Table 1.2 chloroplast, length 5 m Escherichia coli bacterium, length 2 m ribosome, diameter 25 nm thickness of plasma membrane 10 nm

light microscope ultra-violet microscope electron microscope

Which row correctly completes Table 1.2 to show which structures can be clearly seen with an ultra-violet microscope? chloroplast, length 5 m Escherichia coli bacterium, length 2 m ribosome, diameter 25 nm thickness of plasma membrane 10 nm

A B C D

answer
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[1]

3 2 Use your knowledge and the information provided to work out which description of telomeres and telomerase reverse transcriptase (TERT) is correct. telomeres A B C D present in eukaryotes present in eukaryotes present in prokaryotes present in prokaryotes telomerase reverse transcriptase (TERT) uses RNA as a template to make single stranded DNA inhibits the loss of telomeres from DNA during semiconservative replication inhibits the loss of telomeres from DNA during semiconservative replication uses RNA as a template to make single stranded DNA
For Examiner's Use

answer

[1]

The enzyme phosphofructokinase is involved in phosphorylation of hexose phosphate sugars during glycolysis. It is involved in control of the rate of glycolysis and thus respiration, by end-product inhibition. Deduce which of the following is a description of this enzyme. shape of binding site(s) A no allosteric site, active site complementary to ATP and hexose allosteric site complementary to glucose, active site complementary to hexose phosphate allosteric site complementary to ATP, active site complementary to ATP and hexose phosphate no allosteric site, active site complementary to hexose bisphosphate substrate hexose products hexose phosphate

hexose phosphate

hexose phosphate

hexose phosphate

hexose bisphosphate

hexose bisphosphate

two triose phosphate

answer

[1]

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4 4 An action potential arrives at the synaptic knob increasing the permeability of the membranes to 1, which diffuse in and cause vesicles to move to the pre-synaptic membrane and fuse with it. 2 occurs and the 3 moves across the synaptic cleft by 4 and attaches to receptors on the post-synaptic membrane, causing 5 channels to open and a post-synaptic potential to be generated. Which words correctly complete the numbered gaps? 1 A B C D acetylcholine calcium ions calcium ions sodium ions 2 endocytosis exocytosis exocytosis endocytosis 3 transmitter substance acetylcholine transmitter substance acetylcholine 4 active transport diffusion active transport diffusion 5 calcium ion sodium ion sodium ion calcium ion
For Examiner's Use

answer

[1]

The diagram shows the major components of the lac operon.


3

DNA 1

Which statement is correct? A B C D 1 is a ribosome, 2 is a t-RNA molecule and 3 is a phosphorylated amino acid, the activator, so lactose-digesting enzyme can be made. 1 is mRNA polymerase, 2 is -galactosidase, the inducer and 3 is the repressor, so lactose-digesting enzyme cannot be made. 1 is mRNA polymerase, 2 is the repressor and 3 is lactose, the inducer, so lactosedigesting enzyme can be made. 1 is the repressor, 2 is a -galactosidase molecule and 3 is lactose, the promoter, so lactose-digesting enzyme can be made. answer [1]

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5 6 Small samples from crime scenes can be genetically profiled (DNA finger printed). Which are necessary parts of a successful genetic profiling process? crime scene sample A B C D red blood cells saliva semen skin cells Key = used = not used PCR ethidium bromide and X-rays
For Examiner's Use

answer

[1]

A symbiont may be defined as a species in which individuals live in a long-term, intimate and beneficial relationship with hosts of a different species. As the name suggests, endosymbionts live within their hosts. Which statement endosymbionts? A B C D provides evidence that mitochondria and chloroplasts are

Proteins encoded by the nucleus are exported to these organelles. Their inner membrane has different structure from other intracellular membranes. They are surrounded by double membrane. They contain their own ribosomes.

answer

[1]

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6 8 Approximately half of the total protein in a pea seed consists of the storage protein vicilin. Each molecule of vicilin is made up of three identical polypeptides. Each polypeptide is made up of two -pleated sheet regions with linking -helix regions, folded into the shape shown to the right. This allows the three polypeptides to pack together into a compact, flat storage molecule, as shown below.
For Examiner's Use

-pleated sheet regions

-helix regions

Which row correctly describes the structure of vicilin? primary structure secondary structure -helix and -pleated sheet regions of each polypeptide -helix and -pleated sheet regions of each polypeptide amino acid sequence of one polypeptide tertiary structure quaternary structure

amino acid sequence of one polypeptide

association of three polypeptides

folding of each polypeptide

amino acid sequence of one polypeptide

folding of each polypeptide -helix and -pleated sheet regions of each polypeptide

association of three polypeptides

association of three polypeptides

folding of each polypeptide

association of three polypeptides

amino acid sequence of one polypeptide

folding of each polypeptide

-helix and -pleated sheet regions of each polypeptide

answer

[1]

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7 9 The graphs represent the frequency of alleles in species X, Y and Z during and after selection.
For Examiner's Use

key characteristics selected for characteristics selected against X Y Z during selection

allele frequency

range of characteristic(s) regulated by alleles

allele frequency

after selection

range of characteristic(s) regulated by alleles


In which species does evolution take place? A B C D X only Y only Y and Z none of X, Y nor Z

answer

[1]

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8 10 Curve X shows the oxygen dissociation curve for human haemoglobin. Under certain conditions this curve becomes displaced to the right. This is termed the Bohr effect and is shown by curve Y.
For Examiner's Use

100 80 percentage 60 saturation of haemoglobin 40 20 0 0 2

10 12 14

partial pressure of oxygen / kPa


Which change is responsible for the Bohr effect? A B C D a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen a decrease in the temperature of the blood an increase in pH of the blood an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide

answer

[1]

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9 11 Which statements correctly describe the structure and function of prokaryote ribosomes? 1 2 3 4 5 A B C D Prokaryote ribosomes are smaller than eukaryote ribosomes and sediment at 70 S. A prokaryote ribosome consists of two subunits, one of 50 S and one of 30 S. In prokaryotes, ribosomes translate mRNA in the same cellular compartment in which it is transcribed. In prokaryotes, ribosomes can begin translating mRNA before its synthesis has been completed. A prokaryote ribosome can accommodate only one amino acyl-tRNA at a time. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 5 only 2, 4 and 5 only
For Examiner's Use

answer

[1]

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10 12 A snake venom causes death by leading to paralysis of muscles. It exerts its effect at synapses. The statements below were put forward by scientists as possible explanations for the effects of this venom. 1 2 3 4 5 It interferes with the binding of neurotransmitter vesicles to the membranes. It binds with neurotransmitter receptor sites. It blocks calcium and sodium channels. It destroys the myelin sheath of the neurone. It binds with neurotransmitter.
For Examiner's Use

Which statements should be investigated further? A B C D 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 2, 4 and 5 only 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

answer

[1]

13 What happens during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? 1 2 3 4 5 6 A B C D ADP is hydrolysed. ADP is phosphorylated. ATP is hydrolysed. ATP is phosphorylated. NADP is oxidised. NADP is reduced. 1 and 5 only 2 and 6 only 1, 4 and 5 only 2, 3 and 6 only answer [1]

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11 14 One of the many recessive mutations of the CFTR gene changes one amino acid in the region of the CFTR protein that binds ATP. The graph shows the effect of different concentrations of ATP on normal and mutant CFTR proteins.
100 80 percentage of functioning ion channels 60 40 20 0 concentration of ATP mutant CFTR normal CFTR
For Examiner's Use

Which correctly describes individuals who are homozygous for this mutation? 1 2 3 4 Their CFTR protein cannot bind ATP and cannot act as an ion channel. Their CFTR protein binds ATP less readily than normal CFTR protein. They produce CFTR protein that must bind ATP to function as an ion channel. They produce a mixture of normal and mutant CFTR protein, both of which can act as an ion channel. A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only [1]

answer

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12 15 Many plants are not fertilised by pollen from their own flowers. This is known as self-incompatibility. In any individual species a single gene, the S gene, is responsible and it may have many different alleles. If a pollen grain has an S allele which matches an allele in the genotype of the stigma then the pollen grain fails to germinate or the pollen tube fails to grow through the style. The genotype of the stigma of a flower is S3S4. Which pollen grains would germinate?
1 S1 2 S1S3 pollen grain 3 S3 4 S2S4
For Examiner's Use

1 only

2 and 4 only

3 only

3 and 4 only

answer

[1]

16 Molecules can be transported in several ways. 1 2 3 4 cohesion/tension diffusion mass flow osmosis

Which row shows the correct method of transport? into capillaries A B C D 1 2 3 4 in phloem 2 1 4 3 out of stomata 3 4 1 2 in xylem 4 3 2 1

answer

[1]

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13 BLANK PAGE

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14 Questions 17 to 20 The graphs on the opposite page show features of the survival and reproductive success of adult males and females of four different species: A B C D red deer, Cervus elaphus Bewicks swan, Cygnus columbianus dwarf mongoose, Helogale parvula southern elephant seal, Mirounga leonina

Column 1 shows the age-specific survival which is the probability that adult animals of different ages will survive for a further year. Column 2 shows survivorship curves. A survivorship curve shows the proportion of a population that survives to different ages. Column 3 shows the mean annual reproductive success which is the number of offspring produced by adult males and females of different ages. Study the graphs and then for each question identify the most appropriate graph that matches the statements in questions 17 to 20. Record your answer to each question by using a letter for the appropriate species and a number for the appropriate graph, e.g. A1, B2, C3, etc. 17 A species with a higher proportion of females than males in the oldest age groups.

answer

[1]

18 A species with a mortality rate above 60% among juveniles.

answer

[1]

19 A species in which both males and females have the same effective breeding period.

answer

[1]

20 A polygynous species.

answer

[1]

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15
1 age-specific survival 2 survivorship
mean number of offspring per individual

species

3 mean annual reproductive success


2.4 1.8 1.2 0.6 0 0 6 12 age / years 18

A red deer

1.00 0.75 0.50 0.25 0 0 5 10 age / years 15

proportion of original population surviving

age specific survival

0.80 0.40 0 0 5 10 age / years 15

B Bewicks swan

1.00 0.75 0.50 0.25 0 0 5 10 age / years 15

0.50 0.25 0 0 6 12 age / years 18

mean number of offspring per individual

age specific survival

proportion of original population surviving

1.2 0.9 0.6 0.3 0 0 5 10 age / years 15

C dwarf mongoose

1.00 0.75 0.50 0.25 0 0 5 10 age / years 15

0.40 0.20 0 0 5 10 age / years 15

mean number of offspring per individual

proportion of original population surviving

age specific survival

5 4 3 2 1 0 0 2 4 6 8 age / years 10

D southern elephant seal*

1.00 0.75 0.50 0.25 0 0 5 10 age / years 15

0.40 0.20 0 0 5 10 age / years 15

mean number of offspring per individual

proportion of original population surviving

age specific survival

18 12 6 0 0 5 10 age / years 15

key = females = males

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16 Section B Answer all the questions. 21 ATP is a nucleotide that performs many essential roles in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. It is considered to be the major energy currency of cells. Fig. 21.1 shows the structure of ATP.
H 2N N O O P O O O O O O N N O OH OH Fig. 21.1 N
For Examiner's Use

P O P O

(a) Describe the features of a molecule of ATP that make it suitable for its role.

[3]

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17 (b) (i) Explain why ATP is said to be an energy currency.


For Examiner's Use

[1] (ii) Describe an example of ATP acting as an energy currency.

[2]

(c) The enzyme ribonucleotide reductase (RNR) is needed for DNA synthesis. The enzyme catalyses the reaction in which adenosine diphosphate is converted to deoxyadenosine diphosphate (dADP).
RNR

ADP

dADP + H2O NADP

reduced NADP

(i) State how adenosine diphosphate differs from deoxyadenosine diphosphate.

[1] (ii) Suggest how dADP is used in the synthesis of DNA.

[2]

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18 (d) Excess adenosine is deaminated to deoxyinosinol in a reaction catalysed by the enzyme, adenosine deaminase (ADA), which consists of one polypeptide. Fig. 21.2 shows a ribbon model of ADA.
For Examiner's Use

Fig. 21.2
Describe the structure of the enzyme, ADA, as shown in Fig. 1.2. You may add labels to the diagram to help your answer if you wish.

[3]

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19 A deficiency of ADA is a cause of severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID). Children with non-functional adenosine deaminase are at risk of infections as a toxic product builds up inside T lymphocytes (T cells) and kills these cells.
For Examiner's Use

(e) Outline the roles of T lymphocytes in the immune system.

[3]

(f) Gene therapy has been used to treat SCID. Explain the problems encountered in using gene therapy as a treatment for genetic diseases, such as SCID.

[4] [Total: 19]

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20 22 Skin cancer cells may be grown in culture and examined using the technique of immunofluorescence in which antibodies are used to attach fluorescent dyes to specific molecules within the cells. Fig. 22.1 is an immunofluorescent light micrograph of skin cancer cells. The DNA in the large cell nuclei is stained blue. These nuclei are typical of cells undergoing division in cancer. Proteins in the cytoplasm are stained green. There are two cells in the process of dividing. Each of these cells has two areas stained bright yellow, labelled A on Fig. 22.1.
For Examiner's Use

Fig. 22.1 (a) (i) Suggest why proteins in the cytoplasm of the non-dividing cells in Fig. 22.1 are not evenly distributed.

[1] (ii) Suggest the identity of the two areas stained yellow in the dividing cells and outline their function.

[3]

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21 (b) Before the skin cancer cells could be stained with antibodies, the cells had to be fixed and treated with a mild detergent to increase the permeability of the cell surface membranes. (i) State why it is necessary to increase the permeability of the cell surface membranes before staining cells using the technique of immunofluorescence.
For Examiner's Use

[1] (ii) State and explain two advantages of using immunofluorescence in studying the changes that occur in cells during cell division. advantage 1

advantage 2

[4] [Total: 9]

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22 23 Fig. 23.1 is a photomicrograph of the lower epidermis of the leaf of an oleander, Nerium oleander. Fig. 23.2 is a photomicrograph of the lower epidermis of the leaf of a privet, Ligustrum vulgare. Both photomicrographs are to the same scale.
For Examiner's Use

Fig. 23.1

Fig. 23.2

(a) State two ways, visible in Fig. 23.1 and Fig. 23.2, in which the epidermis of oleander differs from the epidermis of privet. In each case explain how oleander is adapted to survive severe drought conditions. 1

[4]

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23 The concentration of three ions, potassium, chloride and phosphate, were determined in guard cells of closed and open stomata. Fig. 23.3 shows these concentrations measured in arbitrary units which are the same for all three ions.
key 7 concentration 6 of K+ ions / arbitrary units 5 4 3 2 1 0 guard cells nuclei region with thick cuticle Fig. 23.3 open stomatal pore 0 concentration of: K+ ions Cl ions PO43 ions 2 concentration of Cl ions and PO43 ions / arbitrary units 1
For Examiner's Use

(b) Suggest a possible mechanism, that can be supported by the data in Fig. 23.3, to account for the changes in stomatal aperture.

[4]

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24 (c) Many plant cells have cytoplasmic connections (plasmodesmata) neighbouring cells, but these are absent from guard cells. Explain how this helps guard cells function efficiently. between
For Examiner's Use

[2] [Total: 10] 24 Fig. 24.1 summarises the reactions which occur in the Calvin cycle.

CO2 enzyme B

compound A

two molecules of glycerate 3-phosphate

step C glucose Fig. 24.1


(a) Where, precisely, in a plant cell do the reactions shown in Fig. 24.1 take place? [1]

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25 (b) Name (i) compound A [1] (ii) enzyme B [1]


For Examiner's Use

(c) Calculate the proportion of carbon atoms from glycerate 3-phosphate molecules which are incorporated into glucose. Show your working.

[2]

(d) Some biologists describe enzyme B as the most important enzyme in our biosphere. Explain why they might hold this opinion.

[2]

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26 (e) The Calvin cycle is part of the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis. These reactions continue when a plant is moved from light conditions to dark conditions, but only for a very short time. With reference to Fig. 24.1, explain why this is the case.
For Examiner's Use

[4]

(f) Evidence suggests that the earliest eukaryotic cells did not carry out photosynthesis. Explain how some eukaryotic cells are thought to have become photosynthetic.

[4] [Total: 15]

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27 25 Fig. 25.1 shows a European starling, Sturnus vulgaris.


For Examiner's Use

Fig. 25.1 (a) Outline the aspects of the biology of S. vulgaris that must be considered when describing the niche of this species.

[4]

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28 The relative contribution of individual species to the biodiversity of communities has been investigated for particular species. Fig. 25.2 shows the effect of different densities of the gastropod mollusc, Littorina littorea, on the number of species of algae in tidal rock pools on the Eastern seaboard of the USA. L. littorea grazes on algae.
14 12 10 number of species of algae 8 6 4 2 0 0 50 100 150 200 250 density of L. littorea / number m2 Fig. 25.2
For Examiner's Use

(b) Describe and explain the results shown in Fig. 25.2.

[5]

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29 The effects of removing all the individuals of a species of predatory starfish on a rocky shore community were investigated. Fig. 25.3 is part of a food web for this community and shows the changes that occurred. The minus symbol () indicates that the numbers of individuals in the species concerned decreased; the plus symbol (+) indicates that the numbers of individuals in the species concerned increased.
predatory starfish
For Examiner's Use

dog whelk 1 species +

chitons 2 species

limpets 2 species

mussel 1 species +

acorn barnacles 3 species

goose barnacle 1 species +

Fig. 25.3 (c) Explain how the results of the study support the idea that the predatory starfish is a keystone species.

[3] [Total: 12]

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30 26 The gene for colour vision in humans is sex-linked. The recessive allele, ch, causes red-green colour blindness. The gene for the ABO blood group system is on chromosome 9. There are three alleles, IA, IB and Io and four possible phenotypes. Fig. 26.1 shows the inheritance of these two genes in a family.
Key for colour blindness affected unaffected
For Examiner's Use

1
I

female male

1
II

AB

1
III

A
Fig. 26.1

(a) State the genotypes of the following people in the family shown in Fig. 26.1. I-2 II-1 II-7 [3]

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31 (b) With reference to Fig. 26.1, explain why (i) the grandfather (I-1) is colour-blind, but neither of his sons is colour-blind
For Examiner's Use

[2] (ii) one grandson (III-3) has inherited colour-blindness but the other (III-1) has not

[2] (iii) there are four phenotypes in the ABO blood group system.

[3]

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32 Nail-patella syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant trait that affects fingernails, toenails, elbows and kneecaps. The locus of the gene for nail-patella syndrome, Np / np, is 10 map units from the ABO locus on chromosome 9. A man with nail-patella syndrome and blood group AB has a family of five children with his wife who does not have the syndrome and is blood group O. Three children do not have the nail-patella syndrome and are blood group A. Two children have nail-patella syndrome and are blood group B. (c) State the genotypes of the father and the mother. father

mother [3]

(d) Explain why there is a small probability of these parents having a child with both blood group A and nail-patella syndrome.

[2] [Total: 15]

Copyright Acknowledgements: Question 22 Figure 22.1 Question 25 Figure 25.1 Immunofluorescent LM of skin cancer cells, Nancy Kedersha/Science Photo Library Starling, Stumus vulagris, Jeroen Stel (rspb.images.com)

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. University of Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

UCIE 2011

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UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS Cambridge International Level 3 Pre-U Certificate Principal Subject

BIOLOGY Paper 1 Structured Questions SPECIMEN MARK SCHEME

9790/01
For Examination from 2013 2 hours 30 minutes

MAXIMUM MARK: 100

This document consists of 8 printed pages. [Turn over

UCIE 2011

2 Section A Question Number 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Question Number 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Key C A C B C D A B B D

Key B A B C A D A2 C2 B3 A3/D3

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3 Section B 21 (a) small molecule, so readily diffusible throughout cytoplasm ; water soluble ; easily regenerated / ADP + Pi ATP / AW ; easy to transfer energy by hydrolysis of terminal bond ; idea that ATP fits into many, parts of the cell / enzymes / proteins ; charged so that it, stays in cell / does not cross membrane ; energy released by hydrolysis can be used in many cell processes ; R high energy bonds

[3]

(b) (i) idea of linking, energy releasing / oxidation, reactions to energy-consuming reactions ; [1] (ii) ATP production substrate-linked phosphorylation / chemiosmosis / ATP synthase ; ATP transfers energy to anabolic reactions / example ; active transport (of molecules and / or ions) ; adding phosphate groups (phosphorylation) / example ; beating / movement of, flagella ; movement of muscle filaments ; bioluminescence ; AVP ; any other type of process NOT an example of any of the above (c) (i) ribose (not deoxyribose) ; ribose / pentose / sugar, has two OH groups / deoxyribose has one ; A ref to C2 (ii) phosphorylated (by ATP) ; dATP ; DNA, polymerase / ligase ; pairs with, T / thymine, on template (strand / polynucleotide) ; (d) secondary structure, alpha helix / beta (pleated) sheet ; areas of non-regular structure / not or ; tertiary structure ; complex folding / AW ; idea of specificity ; R bonding as not shown in figure

[max 2]

[max 1]

[max 2]

[max 3]

(e) type of T cell and outline of role of each helper-T cells + role e.g. activate / direct other immune system cells ; cytotoxic-T / T-killer cells, + role e.g. destroy cells infected with virus ; suppressor-T cells / regulatory-T cells, + role, e.g. suppress / control unwanted immune responses ; memory-T cells + role e.g. remain after antigen exposure and quickly activate after re-exposure ; [max 3]

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4 (f) ref to somatic gene therapy ; inserting genes into cells means that treatment is short-lived ; idea of inappropriate immune response to viral vectors ; gene inserted into the wrong place inducing a tumour ; another problem associated with gene being inserted in, wrong place / into another gene ; child receiving treatment for SCID developed leukaemia ; further detail regarding treatment for SCID ; credit a case study ; [max 4] [Total: 19] 22 (a) (i) protein forms, fibres / (micro)filaments / cytoskeleton ; ref to distribution of endoplasmic reticulum in cytoplasm ; AVP ;

[max 1]

(ii) spindle apparatus / spindle fibres ; Accept spindle / microtubules / tubulin / centrioles / microtubule organising centres / MTOCs [1] function to max 2 attach to chromosomes / kinetochores ; detail of, elongation / structure / shortening, of microtubules ; for movement of chromosomes ; during mitosis ; Accept if centrioles given as identity forms poles of the cell ; organises the spindle ; (b) (i) antibody molecules too large to pass through membrane ; (ii) locate position of specific, proteins / structures ; antibody molecules have complementary shape to target, proteins / structures ; can see distribution of, proteins / structures, in light microscope ; do not need to prepare sections for the electron microscope ; easier to look at a large number of cells than in EM ; higher degree of specificity than using other staining techniques ; idea of variable regions of antibodies giving greater specificity ; [2 + 2] [Total: 9]

[max 2] [1]

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5 23 (a) Oleander lower stomatal density / AW ; less water vapour lost through stomatal transpiration / described ; stomata in pits / stomata below leaf surface / sunken stomata ; longer diffusion pathway for water vapour / ref to boundary layer / ref vapour pressure deficit (VPD) at stomatal opening ; hairs / trichomes, in pits / around stomata ; ref slower air movement / stagnant air / ref VPD at stomatal opening ; thicker cuticle ; less evaporation from leaf surface / epidermis ; A less water loss from leaf surface / epidermis [2 + 2] (b) increase in [K+] when stoma is open ; comparative data quote ; values similar for both guard cells ; active transport of K+ inwards ; further details of K+ pump ; chloride ions diffuse in ; lowers, solute potential / water potential ; water enters by osmosis ; phosphate values very similar ; used in ATP synthesis ; (c) ref to symplast ; K+ would diffuse out of guard cells (to adjacent cells) ; other substance, lost / shared / AW ; e.g. malate further explanation ; e.g. higher rate of active transport would be required AVP ; e.g. further detail

[max 4]

[max 2] [Total: 10]

24 (a) stroma of the chloroplast ; (b) (i) ribulose bisphosphate / RuBP ; (ii) rubisco / ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase (oxygenase) ; (c) award two marks for the correct answer (1/6 or eq) with or without working RuBP = 5, glycerate 3-phosphate = 3, glucose = 6 ; 1/6 / eq ;

[1] [1] [1]

[2]

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6 (d) ref to carbon fixation ; key role in carbon cycle ; only / main, route into food chains for carbon ; the major route out of the atmosphere for carbon dioxide ; (e) ATP and, NADPH2 / reduced NADP ; produced in the light-dependent stage ; production stops after dark ; are required for step C ; will rapidly be used up after dark ; (f) ref to endosymbiosis (in correct context) ; pre-existing prokaryotes could already photosynthesise ; ref to cyanobacteria as putative ancestral chloroplast ; uptake of prokaryotes into other prokaryotes ; to give a symbiotic, union / community ; transfer of some genes to host cell nucleus ; retention of other genes in chloroplast ; idea of so it became an obligate symbiosis ;

[max 2]

[max 4]

[max 4] [Total: 15]

25 (a) biotic factors affecting / abiotic factors affecting / description of, habitat ; trophic level / what it feeds on ; adaptations for feeding / foraging method ; time / places, where it feeds ; where it roosts ; whether / when, living, individually / in small groups / in flocks ; where / when, it reproduces ; predator / what feeds on it ; parasites ; competitors ; AVP ; AVP ; (b) number of species is low when few Littorina ; suggest successful competition by few species of algae ; environment unsuitable for both / AW ; maximum number of algal species when Littorina is at 150 m2 ; Littorina grazes most competitive species reducing their effect ; smallest number of algal species at, highest Littorina density / 250 m 2 ; ref overgrazing ; AVP ; [max 4]

[max 5]

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7 (c) definition of keystone species a species whose presence and role within an ecosystem has a disproportionate effect on other organisms within the system / AW ; removal of the species has profound effects on the, community / ecosystem ; removal of predatory starfish reduces numbers of seven species ; increases numbers of three species ; reduces, species richness / biodiversity ; presence keeps other predators in check ; AVP ;

[max 3] [Total: 12]

26 (a) Accept any sensible symbols Accept without X and Y chromosomes but male must indicate absent allele by using a dash or by putting in a Y chromosome IBIo Ch Ch / IBIo Ch ch / IBIo XChXCh / IBIo XChXCh ; IoIo Ch ch / IoIo XChXCh; IBIo Ch / IBIo XChY ;

[3]

(b) (i) fathers pass on X chromosome to their daughters / fathers never pass on X chromosome to their sons ; mother has (at least one) dominant allele and this has been passed on to the sons ; [2] (ii) III-3 has inherited colour blindness from mother who is a carrier ; she has inherited Xch from, her father / I-1 ; other grandson / III-1, cannot inherit Xch through the male line ;

[max 2]

(iii) multiple alleles / 3 alleles at this locus but each person diploid so can only have 2 ; gives 6 different genotypes / genotypes listed ; codominance between IA and IB, so gives AB ; dominance between IA / IB and Io , so means IA Io is same phenotype as [max 3] IA IA / IBIo is same phenotype as IBIB ; (c) one mark for each genotype, one mark for giving notation for linkage father IA np IB Np mother Io np Io np / (IA np) (IB Np)

(Ionp) (Ionp) [3]

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8 (d) loci are linked so IA and np are likely to be inherited together ; so if blood type A, likely to be free of the disease ; 5% / small, chance, of IA and Np ; as a result of crossing over between loci in father ;

[max 2] [Total: 15]

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UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS Cambridge International Level 3 Pre-U Certificate Principal Subject

BIOLOGY Paper 2 Long Answer SPECIMEN PAPER

9790/02
For Examination from 2013 2 hours 45 minutes

Candidates answer on the Question Paper. No Additional Materials are required. READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST Write your Centre number, candidate number and name on the work you hand in. Write in dark blue or black pen. You may use a soft pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough working. Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid. Section A Answer all questions. Write your answers in the spaces provided on the Question Paper. Section B Answer all questions. Write your answers in the spaces provided on the Question Paper. Section C Answer one question. Write your answers on the Question Paper. available if required.

For Examiner's Use Section A

Separate answer paper will be

Section B 8 9 10 Total

At the end of the examination, fasten all your work securely together. The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

This document consists of 25 printed pages and 3 blank pages.


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2 Section A Data analysis 1 Fig. 1.1 shows an American eel, Anguilla rostrata, which lives for part of its life in the rivers and mountain streams of the Eastern USA. Adult fish migrate to the Atlantic Ocean when they are ready to breed. After breeding the adults die. Young eels migrate from the sea back to the rivers and streams and may live for five years or more before reaching the stage when they are ready to breed. This species of fish has become rare in mountain streams over recent years.
For Examiner's Use

Fig. 1.1 As part of a long-running study to find out more about the biology and behaviour of A. rostrata, mark-release-recapture was used to estimate the population size in one mountain stream in Virginia. Very young eels were not marked. Table 1.1 shows the results of the mark-release-recapture.

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3 Table 1.1 total number of fish caught 334 352 290 180 232 184 1572 total number of fish captured one year later 352 290 180 232 184 number of marked fish recaptured one year later 98 57 25 11 21
For Examiner's Use

year

number of fish marked

population estimate

2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 Totals

279 226 149 76 116 72 918

1002 1150 1073 1603 .

(a) (i) Calculate the population estimate for the year 2004 to complete Table 1.1. Show your working.

Write your answer in Table 1.1. [2]

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4 (ii) Comment on the accuracy of these population estimates.


For Examiner's Use

[3] (iii) Explain the limitations of using mark-release-recapture to estimate the size of populations of animals, such as eels.

[3]

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5 The annual growth of the eels was also measured. Fig. 1.2 shows a box-whisker plot of the results for growth in length and growth in mass of eels in one stream that were marked with tags and then recaptured from 2000 to 2005.
For Examiner's Use

60

50

40 increase in 30 length / mm 20

10

0 80

60

increase in mass / g

40

20

0
2000-2001 2001-2002 2002-2003 2003-2004 2004-2005

year Fig. 1.2


The line in each box represents the median; the top and bottom of each box show 25th and 75th percentiles; the whiskers show the 10th and 90th percentiles.

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6 (b) (i) Describe the results shown in Fig. 1.2.


For Examiner's Use

[3] (ii) Explain the advantage of plotting box-whiskers to show these data rather than bar charts or histograms.

[3]

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7 (c) A. rostrata is not officially recognised as an endangered species, but its numbers are in decline. Discuss the limitations of the results of this study in terms of providing sufficient information to inform the conservation of A. rostrata in Virginia.
For Examiner's Use

[4]

(d) Numbers of eels are not as high in other mountain streams in the area. It is thought this is due to dams downstream that are barriers to migration from the sea. Suggest how the study might be extended to see if this is the case.

[2] [Total: 20]

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8 BLANK PAGE

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9 2 In an investigation into pollen release from Timothy grass, Phleum pratense, the number of pollen grains released into the atmosphere was sampled at hourly intervals, on three consecutive days. Traps sited just above the level of the leaves were used to do this. The wind speed and the relative humidity were recorded at the times of sampling. The results of the investigation are shown in Fig. 2.1
For Examiner's Use

700 600 number of pollen grains collected per hour 500 400 300 200 100 0 2 wind speed / m s1 1 0 100 80 % relative humidity 60 40 20 0 2400 1200 July 10 2400 1200 July 11 Fig. 2.1 2400 1200 July 12 2400

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10 (a) Use the data in Fig. 2.1 to make conclusions about the factors that determine the release of pollen from Timothy grass.
For Examiner's Use

[6]

(b) Discuss how confident you can be that your conclusions about release of pollen from Timothy grass are valid.

[4] [Total: 10]

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11 3 The technique of polyacrilamide gel electrophoresis (PAGE) is used to separate and identify proteins. One method of PAGE involves treating proteins with an ionic detergent to dissociate proteins into their constituent polypeptide subunits. Sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) is often used for this. Proteins treated with SDS have a uniform net charge on each polypeptide so that during electrophoresis they are separated only on the basis of their relative molecular mass. After treatment with SDS, proteins are placed in wells (A to F) cut into the polyacrilamide gel. A dye is added to each sample to show the progress of the samples across the gel. A current is applied to the gel and when the dye reaches a point towards the end of the gel, the current is switched off. The relative mobility of each polypeptide is calculated as follows:
distance travelled by polypeptide band distance travelled by dye front
For Examiner's Use

Six proteins were analysed with SDS-PAGE and the results are shown in Fig. 3.1. The relative molecular mass of one protein, lactate dehydrogenase, was unknown.
A B C D E F well

dye front

Fig. 3.1

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12 (a) (i) Calculate the relative mobility of the proteins in sample wells A, B, C, E and F and add your calculated values to the spaces in Table 3.1. Space for working
For Examiner's Use

Write your answers in Table 3.1 [2] Table 3.1 well A B C D E F protein carbonic anhydrase human albumin lactate dehydrogenase myoglobin egg albumin transferrin relative molecular mass 29 000 68 000 relative mobility

1.00

17 200 43 000 77 000

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13
For Examiner's Use

(ii) Use the graph paper provided to draw a graph of the relative molecular mass plotted against the relative mobility of proteins A, B, D, E and F. [4] (b) Complete Table 3.1 by using your graph to find the relative molecular mass of lactate dehydrogenase. Explain how you arrived at your answer.

Write the relative molecular mass of lactate dehydrogenase in the space in Table 3.1 [2] [Total: 8]
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14 BLANK PAGE

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15 The Planning Task 4 Yeast cells have transport proteins in their cell membranes for the uptake of nutrients from the surroundings. There are separate transport proteins for glucose and for maltose. When exposed to both glucose and maltose the transport protein for maltose is downregulated and is not produced. Plan an investigation to find out whether or not the yeast transport proteins for glucose and maltose function at the same rate. You are provided with the following equipment. Choose your equipment from this list. You may not use any additional equipment. an unlimited supply of 10% yeast suspension an unlimited volume of 10 g dm-3 glucose solution an unlimited volume of 10 g dm-3 maltose solution Benedicts solution dilute hydrochloric acid dilute sodium hydroxide solution and sodium hydrogencarbonate solution for neutralising beakers and flasks of different sizes stop watch or electronic timer colorimeter and tubes centrifuge and centrifuge tubes thermometer thermostatically-controlled water baths pipettes and pipette fillers burettes and burette stands filter funnels and filter paper syringes glass rods for stirring test-tubes and boiling tubes test-tube racks
For Examiner's Use

Your plan should include a clear statement of the hypothesis or prediction identify the key variables give full details and explanations of the procedures that you would adopt to ensure that the results are as precise and reliable as possible show how you would present and analyse your results include a brief risk assessment be written in clear scientific language.

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16
For Examiner's Use

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17
For Examiner's Use

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18
For Examiner's Use

[22]

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19 Section B Read the passage carefully and answer all the questions in the spaces provided. You are advised to spend no more than 50 minutes on this section. Type 2 diabetes the growing threat Diabetes mellitus currently affects at least 2.5 million people in the UK and is a condition in which the body is unable to maintain a normal blood glucose concentration. Many people who have no experience of diabetes think that the more common form is type 1, requiring insulin injections. Yet this is not the case. By far the more common is type 2, which represents approximately 8590% of cases, and is on the increase. Originally thought of as affecting older people it is becoming increasing common among the young. It is thought that obesity is an important risk factor. There is no entirely successful way of treating type 2 diabetes although it can be managed by control of diet, appropriate exercise and the use of medication. Those with the condition, at least initially, produce insulin normally but certain body cells develop insulin resistance. This means that they do not respond to the hormone by taking up glucose from the blood rapidly enough to maintain a normal blood glucose concentration. The permeability of cell membranes is dependent on the presence of transporter protein molecules. Table 5.1 provides information about two types of such transporters, GLUT and SGLT. Table 5.1 distinguishes four types (isoforms) of GLUT. Table 5.1 transporter group type of mechanism isoform mainly present in further information low-level basal glucose uptake required to sustain respiration in the kidney tubule these transport glucose from cells lining the nephron into capillaries probably main glucose transporter in neurones insulin-controlled glucose transporter transport glucose directly from glomerular filtrate into cells lining nephron
For Examiner's Use

GLUT1

all cells cells in small intestine lining, in the liver and in cells of kidney tubules neurones adipose cells and striated muscle cells (skeletal and cardiac)

GLUT (glucose transporters)

facilitated diffusion

GLUT2

GLUT3

GLUT4 SGLT (sodiumglucose linked transporters) secondary active transport along sodium gradient

cells lining the proximal tubule of nephrons

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20 Insulin is produced by the cells of the islets of Langerhans within the pancreas. When the insulin concentration of the blood is low, GLUT4 molecules are removed from the cell membranes of adipose cells and skeletal muscle cells into vesicles in the cytoplasm. Except in the case of type 2 diabetes, an increase in blood insulin concentration means that insulin combines with specific sites on the cell surface membrane. This causes the GLUT4 molecules to be restored to the membrane, making it permeable to glucose. When blood insulin concentration falls the GLUT4 molecules are removed from the membrane into cytoplasmic vesicles again. On the onset of type 2 diabetes the patients cells become insulin-resistant. Initially the pancreas responds by producing extra insulin. This only partially alleviates the problem of insulin resistance and, in time, overworking of the pancreatic cells leads to their death and subsequently a reduction in insulin production. At this stage the patient may need to receive insulin injections, although this offers only a partial solution. 5 (a) After a meal, blood glucose concentration rises above the target concentration (4.55.5 mmol dm3) at which it is normally maintained by homeostasis. With the help of Table 5.1, outline how the glucose concentration is reduced to normal in a person who does not have diabetes.
For Examiner's Use

[3]

(b) In the space below draw a simple labelled diagram showing how protein transporter molecules may form part of a cell surface membrane.

[4]
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21 (c) Explain how the uptake of glucose by cells in the proximal convoluted tubule differs from its uptake by liver cells.
For Examiner's Use

[3]

(d) (i) Suggest a mechanism by which the glucose transporter GLUT4 is restored to the membrane when insulin binds to the cell surface membrane.

[1] (ii) To what extent might the removal of GLUT4 from a muscle cell surface membrane render it impermeable to glucose?

[1] [Total: 12]

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22 6 Table 6.1 presents the results of an experiment comparing rates of glucose production by a group of people with type 2 diabetes and a control group without the condition, during 23 hours of fasting. Table 6.1 controls / mol kg body mass1 min1 8.9 0.5 type 2 diabetic patient / mol kg body mass1 min1 11.1 0.6
For Examiner's Use

glucose production total glucose production glucose from hydrolysis of glycogen in the liver glucose from gluconeogenesis

significance level

p < 0.05

2.8 0.7

1.3 0.2

p < 0.05

6.1 0.5

9.8 0.7

p < 0.01

(a) Discuss the conclusions which can be drawn from the data in Table 6.1.

[6]

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23 (b) In non-diabetic individuals, the blood glucose concentration in the renal vein is only slightly lower than in the renal artery. Explain why one might expect the glucose concentration of the blood in the renal vein to be much lower than in the renal artery and suggest why, in fact, the concentrations are almost identical.
For Examiner's Use

[4] [Total: 10]

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24 7 It is possible to restore insulin secretion in a diabetic patient by transplanting a pancreas or isolated islets of Langerhans, but limited donor organs and risks involved restrict these therapies to a small proportion of diabetics. Recent experiments suggest that it may, in future, be possible to treat diabetes with adult stem cells from the patients own bone marrow. Explain why such an approach, once perfected, is more likely to offer, at least initially, a treatment for type 1 rather than type 2 diabetes and discuss why this approach may be preferable to the use of transplants or embryonic stem cells.
For Examiner's Use

[8] [Total: 8] [Total for Section B: 30]

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25 Section C Answer one question on the lined paper that follows. You are advised to spend no more 50 minutes on this section of the examination. Credit will be given for answers that draw from a wide range of syllabus material and also for evidence of reading around the subject. 8 There is no evolutionary advantage in being multicellular. Discuss this view. 9 All living organisms need to synthesise ATP. Explain the similarities and differences between organisms in the ways in which this is achieved.
For Examiner's Use

10 Why do people get heart disease and what should be done about it?

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26
For Examiner's Use

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27
For Examiner's Use

[30]

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28 BLANK PAGE

Copyright Acknowledgements: Question 1 Figure 1.1 American Eel Andrew J. Martinez/Science Photo Library.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. University of Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS Cambridge International Level 3 Pre-U Certificate Principal Subject

BIOLOGY Paper 2 Long Answer SPECIMEN MARK SCHEME

9790/02
For Examination from 2013 2 hours 45 minutes

MAXIMUM MARK: 120

This document consists of 19 printed pages and 1 blank page.


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2 Section A 1 (a) (i) two marks for the correct answer written into Table 1.1 if incorrect, one mark for working Lincoln index: N = population estimate n1 = number marked and released n2 = total number recaptured m2 = number marked among those recaptured N=
n1 n2 m2 116 184 21

N=

1016 ; ; (ii) numbers of marked fish recaptured in, 2003 / 2004, are small ; estimates based on small numbers are unlikely to be accurate ; over a hundred / many, very young eels caught and not marked ; proportion of those not marked increases from 2000 to 2005 ; total number of fish caught one year on is not adjusted for very young fish ; so population is underestimated ; cannot be repeated within each year to see if estimate is reliable ; AVP ; (iii) marking may injure animal ; alters behaviour / makes it prone to predation / less able to feed / AW ; marks may be lost ; chances of catching fish may vary if marked ; chances of catching fish vary with their age ; A trap happy / trap shy some fish easier to catch than others ; fish unlikely to mix thoroughly in streams ; activity of fish may depend on, environmental conditions / AW ; effect of deaths ; effect of migration, into / out, of streams ;

[2]

[max 3]

effect of any named limitation giving, underestimate / overestimate, of population size ; AVP ; R effect of births (spawning occurs at sea) [max 3]

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3 (b) (i) most increase in, length / mass, in fourth group ; wide range of results ; especially for increase in mass ; 50% of fish in sample are between 25th and 75th percentile ; median increase in mass remained roughly constant (except 4th group) ; comparative data quote ; AVP ; (ii) bar chart may plot the mean (and SD / SE) ; b+w gives more information about the range of results in a sample ; position of median, shows skewness of data / AW ; can show, outliers / anomalous results ; useful if data are not normally distributed ; easier to compare data from different categories than using histograms ; AVP ; (c) no data on migration to and from the sea ; no information on reproduction of eels ; data is only about eels, not about food supply / habitat / niche / AW ; no information on age structure ; no standard against which to compare data on growth ; no information on likely causes of death ; no information on, behaviour / movement, of eels during each year ; AVP ; AVP ; (d) catch eels as they migrate upstream ; mark and release ; recapture at stations below and above the dams ; use, radiotagging / transmitters / AW, to follow movement of eels ; AVP ; [max 3]

[max 3]

[max 4]

[max 2] [Total: 20]

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4 2 (a) majority / most, pollen released between midnight and midday ; very little / none, released between midday and midnight ; ref to, regular / diurnal, pattern ; most pollen released at 0700 each day ; ref to figures for maximum release ; e.g. 500 to 700 pollen grains per hour most pollen released when wind speed low ; maximum pollen released when relative humidity high / ora ; steep decrease in pollen release as relative humidity falls ; ref to figures in support ; very little pollen released when wind speed higher ; ref to data for, wind speed / humidity ;

[max 6]

(b) idea that cannot be sure from the results whether timing or abiotic factors are more important in determining release of pollen ; repeated pattern of release only data from three days ; no information on how many, sites / plants ; data not in form of mean grains collected per hour so not repeated ; not carried out by other people / no data on reproducibility ; link between wind speed and humidity no data with, constant wind speed / wind speed higher at night than during the day ; no data with, constant relative humidity / humidity higher early part of day / AW ; idea that correlation is not cause and effect ; not an experiment as no factors have been controlled ; no hypothesis to test ; data not analysed statistically therefore impossible to assign level of significance / confidence in the conclusions ; [max 4] [Total: 10]

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5 3 (a) (i) well A B C D E F protein carbonic anhydrase human albumin lactate dehydrogenase myoglobin egg albumin transferrin 17 200 43 000 77 000 relative molecular 29 000 68 000 relative mobility 0.86 0.38 0.72 1.00 0.62 0.36 ;;

5 correct = 2 3 or 4 correct / correct working but incorrect answers = 1 0, 1 or 2 correct with no correct working = 0 (ii) x-axis for relative mobility, y axis for relative molecular mass, sensible scales ; axes labelled appropriately ; points plotted correctly ; straight line not extending beyond first and last point ; (b) co-ordinates on graph explained or shown on graph ; answer = approx 34 000 ;

[2]

[4]

[2] [Total: 8]

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6 4 Planning Task P = defining the problem M = methods Analysis, conclusions and evaluation D = Interpretation of data or observations and identifying sources of error C = Drawing conclusions E = Suggesting Improvements and evaluation Sections Expected answer P defining the problem Hypothesis or prediction ; e.g. rate of uptake of glucose is faster than rate of uptake of maltose / Km for uptake of glucose is lower / transport protein has a higher affinity Theory to support hypothesis or prediction ; e.g. glucose is a smaller molecule / does not require to be hydrolysed by enzyme / ref to production of maltase inside yeast cell Outline of strategy and justification / evaluation ; e.g. method of following the uptake of glucose and maltose separately taking samples at intervals and calculating uptake this could be awarded at the end of the plan method of determining (the concentration) of glucose at intervals ; method of determining (the concentration) of maltose at intervals ; (semi) quantitative Benedicts solution At least two control variables ; e.g. temperature, concentration of yeast, pH, volumes used, pre-treatment of glucose Risk assessment ; ref to hazard and precaution some points may be taken from a diagram or a flow or sequence diagram [max 6] Mark

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7 P methods use range of concentrations of glucose and maltose ; and / or use range of concentrations of yeast suspension ; to find suitable concentrations to make comparison dilution table(s) included ; yeast mixed with glucose and maltose solutions ; equilibration in water bath ; staggered start ; samples taken at stated intervals ; filtered to remove yeast ; method of finding concentration of sugars described ; calculate quantity of sugars absorbed knowing initial concentration ; details of calculation ; uncertainty / precision, of results ; plot results and take gradient to give initial rate ; calculate mass of sugar absorbed per unit time ; repeats / replicates ; calculate, standard deviation / standard error / 95%CI ; plot overall graph as a line graph ; state that answer is where rate of uptake becomes constant ; find Km ; find Km ; discussion of affinity of transport proteins ; use, suitable named statistical test ; e.g. t-test / z-test / ANOVA AVP ; AVP ; [max 16] [Total: 22]

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8 Section B 5 (a) conversion to glycogen in liver and muscle ; conversion to, fat / lipid / fatty acids / triglycerides in adipose tissue ; GLUT4 in adipose and muscle ; GLUT2 in liver ; uptake by cells for respiration by all cells due to, GLUT1 / neurones GLUT3 / nephrons / kidney GLUT2 and SGLT ; [max 3] (b) lipid bilayer with heads and tails correctly orientated ; labelled, lipids / fatty acids and glycerol / phosphoglycerides ; transporter molecule passing through the bilayer ; labelled appropriately ; must be drawn as a channel protein

[4]

(c) liver cells facilitated diffusion and PCT cells active transport ; active transport against concentration gradient and facilitated diffusion with the gradient ; active transport requires, respiratory / metabolic energy, ATP, whereas facilitated diffusion does not ; (in the case of SGLT / secondary active transport) the ATP / metabolic energy pumps creates the sodium gradient which causes the glucose molecules to move passively ; (in the case of SGLT) re-absorption of glucose from the proximal tubule is against a steep diffusion gradient / needs to take place quickly as filtrate is passing rapidly along the nephron ; [max 3] (d) (i) by exocytosis / vesicles fuse with (cell surface) membrane ; (ii) still some permeability due to GLUT1 ; [1] [1] [Total: 12]

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9 6 (a) more glucose is produced by a starving person with type 2 diabetes than by a person without the condition / AW ; perhaps because the diabetic is less able to regulate the blood sugar concentration / at a more advanced stage of starvation / reduced fat reserves ; in type 2 diabetes, the main source / a greater proportion (of glucose) is from gluconeogenesis ; gluconeogenesis is the production of glucose from amino acids / proteins ; relatively small amount from glycogen as almost used up (by this stage) ; less from glycogen with type 2 diabetes ; as less to start with ; correct reference to statistical significance in discussion of data ; correct explanation of p < 0.05 ; reference to as (possibly), variation / standard deviation / standard error / indication of good agreement within replicates ; [max 6] (b) one would expect glucose to be used up in respiration in the kidney ; many mitochondria / high rates of respiration in kidney ; providing ATP for sodium-potassium pumps ; ref to, selective reabsorption / active transport ; lack of difference could be due to, gluconeogenesis / amino acids converted to glucose ; could be a great deal of gluconeogenesis in kidney / gluconeogenesis must be, equal to kidneys glucose consumption through respiration ; [max 4] [Total: 10] 7 insulin secreting cells are only found in, pancreas / islets of Langerhans ; reference to cells as the source of insulin ; use stem cells to replace, dysfunctional cells / insulin-producing cells ; so stem cells would only need to be introduced into a specific part of the body ; whereas (in the case of type 2) cells all over the body are dysfunctional ; and so cannot be replaced / much more difficult to replace them all ; use of stem cells may be preferable to transplants as less invasive / fewer side-effects / no need to wait for suitable donor ; use of patients own adult stem cells (instead of transplants or embryonic stem cells) avoids immunological rejection / need for immunosuppressant drugs ; use of adult rather than embryonic stem cells avoids ethical issues about sourcing ; in (advanced cases) of type 2 diabetic patients where pancreas is deteriorating cell transplant may be of benefit but not a complete solution ; need to understand more about what causes type 2 ; [max 8] [Total: 8]

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10 Section C Marking Strategy Sequence of maker activities for each essay 1. 2. 3. 4. Familiarise yourself with the expected content. Read through the essay. Write marginal notes on script, highlight evidence of breadth, exemplification and argumentation as well as major and minor errors of fact and irrelevant material. Apply the general descriptions for 5. Breadth Argumentation Communication Spelling, punctuation and grammar.

Match the content of the essay with a descriptor for Scientific Content (20, 16, 12, 8, 4, 0 as appropriate) and then decide whether all sub-descriptors at that level have been met so that the full mark for that level can be awarded three out of the four sub-descriptors have been met so that intermediate marks can be awarded (18, 14, 10, 6, 2) one or two of the sub-descriptors at that level have been met so that the full mark for the level below can be awarded.

Marks should be written at the end of the essay as follows B = A = C = S = SC = Total = Breadth Mark Descriptors Candidate has: 3 2 1 0 given a balanced account including most of the relevant topic areas and selected a wide range of facts, principles, concepts and / or examples pertinent to the title given a fairly balanced account including some of the relevant topic areas and selected some of the appropriate facts, principles, concepts and / or examples pertinent to the title given an account including a few of the relevant topic areas and selected a few of the appropriate facts, principles, concepts and / or examples pertinent to the title given an account that relies on one topic area alone and selected a few of the appropriate facts, principles, concepts and / or examples pertinent to the title. Maximum 3 marks

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11 Argumentation Mark Descriptors Candidate has: 3 2 1 0 developed and sustained a coherent argument throughout the essay leading to an appropriate conclusion showing insight introduced an argument and partially developed it but has not sustained it coherently throughout the essay shown evidence of an argument, but has not developed it successfully shown no evidence of argumentation Maximum 3 marks

Communication Mark Descriptors Candidate has: 2 1 0

Maximum 2 marks

organised and presented information clearly and used correct terminology in appropriate contexts not organised material very well and not used terminology appropriately so that answer has to be re-read presented an unstructured answer with poor use of terminology

Spelling, punctuation and grammar Mark Descriptors Candidate has: 2 1 0 used spelling, punctuation and grammar accurately

Maximum 2 marks

used spelling, punctuation and grammar accurately, but has made significant errors not used spelling, punctuation and grammar accurately

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12 Scientific Content Mark Descriptors The candidate: a b 20 c d recalls and consistently uses all facts and principles (relevant to the essay) shows sound understanding of all principles and concepts writes accurately with no major errors, very few minor errors gives detail fully in keeping with that expected of candidates at the end of a programme of study designed to prepare candidates for university Maximum 20 marks

a b 16 c d

recalls and consistently uses most facts and principles (relevant to the essay) shows sound understanding of most principles and concepts writes accurately with no major errors, few minor errors gives detail fully in keeping with that expected of candidates at the end of a programme of study designed to prepare candidates for university

a b 12 c d

recalls and consistently uses some facts and principles (relevant to the essay) shows sound understanding of some principles and concepts writes some material accurately with not more than one major error, some minor errors gives detail fully in keeping with that expected of candidates at the end of a programme of study designed to prepare candidates for university

a b 8 c d

recalls some facts and principles (relevant to the essay) shows some understanding of some principles and concepts writes some material accurately with more than one major error or many minor errors gives some detail appropriate for that expected of candidates at the end of a programme of study designed to prepare candidates for university

a b 4 c d

recalls a few facts and principles (relevant to the essay) shows limited understanding of a few principles and concepts writes material including many errors some of which may be major errors gives a little detail appropriate for that expected of candidates at the end of a programme of study designed to prepare candidates for university

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13 a b 0 c d recalls no relevant facts and principles shows no understanding of relevant principles and concepts writes irrelevant material or includes many major errors gives no detail appropriate for that expected of candidates at the end of a programme of study designed to prepare candidates for university

Expected content For each of the questions, guidance is given as to the kind of content from the syllabus that may be appropriate to answering the question. Some candidates will include all of these areas and others may write in more detail about these or may include other relevant topics, in each case reflecting the candidates reading-around the subject and personal research and other interests. Some topics both in the candidates answers and in the following expected content may not be directly on the syllabus, but it is important to credit such responses where they are given and thus they are included here.

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14 8 There is no evolutionary advantage in being multicellular. Discuss this view. Candidates should discuss both points of view implicit in the question drawing on examples across the range of organisms studied. As much emphasis should be put on the biology of unicellular / acellular organisms as that of multicellular. An essay devoted almost entirely to animals, specifically mammals or humans is unbalanced and will not score well. Candidates should have studied several species of unicellular protoctist so should be able to draw on their own observations. The following syllabus sections are most directly relevant: 1.1, 1.2, 2.1, 2.3, 3.1, 5.1. specified range of multicellular organisms to include animals, plants, many fungi, some protoctists e.g. some algae specified range of acellular / unicellular organisms include prokaryotes / bacteria, some protoctists / fungi, e.g. yeasts prokaryotes evolved, first / about 3500 million years ago discussion of meaning of evolutionary advantage / more likely to survive / more successful / abundant / long-lasting / diverse could argue that prokaryotes / unicells are more successful (perhaps) greater biomass than eukaryotes / multicellular organisms greater numbers / more ubiquitous / AW still present and successful (after 3500 million years) (perhaps) more likely to survive natural disasters / survive in wider range/extreme of physical conditions great diversity of types of metabolism amongst prokaryotes / unicells some prokaryotes can both photosynthesise and fix nitrogen / ref unicells forming symbioses with fungi as lichens and their even greater success in these associations all multicellular organisms are eukaryotes ref eukaryotic cells being symbiotic unions of previously separate cells / endosymbiosis (perhaps) suggesting symbiotic unions superior to prokaryotes ref structural diversity of multicellular organisms / complexity / variety of behaviour ref to advantages of division of labour between organs / specialised cells ref to the greater potential of compartmentalisation discussion with respect to evolution evolutionary dogma is that fitness to survive increases with natural selection

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15 therefore most recently evolved life forms should be superior this is a flawed argument because natural selection operates on all species all the time therefore current life forms have equal status in terms of success / can only judge on basis of future possibilities could consider further the particular example of humans humans have more control over environment than any other organism they are a product of an evolutionary trend towards greater complexity perhaps control over environment may be greater evolutionary advantage than adaptation to change 9 All living organisms need to synthesise ATP. Explain the similarities and differences between organisms in the ways in which this is achieved. Candidates should avoid lengthy descriptions of respiration and photosynthesis but should attempt to highlight underlying similarities and difference in whatever it is they are comparing. Comparisons can be made between production of ATP in glycolysis and Krebs cycle by substrate-linked phosphorylation and production in chloroplast and mitochondria by chemiosmosis. Further points can be made by considering chemiosmosis in prokaryotes. Wider consideration can be included by discussing energy sources in different forms of nutrition. The following syllabus sections are most directly relevant: 1.1, 1.5, 2.2, 4.2. Chemotrophs and phototrophs source of energy to make ATP may be chemical (chemotrophs) or light (phototrophs) all animals, fungi and most bacteria are chemotrophic all plants, algae and some bacteria are phototrophic most phototrophs are photosynthetic, using carbon dioxide as a source of carbon aerobic and anaerobic respiration all organisms / cells make ATP as a result of respiration respiration is oxidation of a chemical to release energy which is used to make ATP in aerobic respiration oxygen is final electron acceptor, not in anaerobic a few bacteria are obligate anaerobes, but most organisms can do both anaerobic is less efficient than aerobic in terms of ATP per molecule of glucose, but can be more rapid and is a useful supplement when ATP becomes limiting, e.g. when oxygen shortage

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16 main pathways of aerobic common to all aerobic cells/organisms (glycolysis and Krebs) if respiration is anaerobic only glycolysis occurs, not Krebs dehydrogenation and transfer of hydrogen to coenzyme NAD substrate-linked phosphorylation, described oxidative phosphorylation occurs in aerobic (electron transport linked to synthesis of ATP) hydrogen oxidised to water using oxygen in respiratory chain to release much energy role of hydrogen carriers and respiratory chain ref to numbers of ATP per reduced NAD and per reduced FAD total ATP per glucose for aerobic accept answers within range 30 to 38 per molecule of glucose only 2 ATP per molecule of glucose for anaerobic requires membranes / mitochondria prokaryotes do not have mitochondria use plasma membrane description of chemiosmosis including role of ATP synthase glucose not only source of energy many other carbohydrates, as well as fats (triglycerides) and amino acids / proteins can be used enzymes convert these to intermediates which can feed into common pathways of glycolysis and Krebs anaerobic respiration in fungi (yeast), plants and animals (and bacteria) reduced NAD recycled so glycolysis not prevented (by end product inhibition) pyruvate to lactate in animals pyruvate to ethanal to ethanol in yeast and plants some anaerobic bacteria use an inorganic molecule as a final electron acceptor, e.g. Archaea use carbon dioxide to make methane, Desulfovibrio uses sulfate to make hydrogen sulfide, Escherichia coli uses nitrate to make nitrite. anaerobic respiration in microbes A form of anaerobic respiration in microorganisms in which an organic molecule is the final electron acceptor e.g. pyruvate to lactate (e.g. Streptococcus lactis) e.g. pyruvate to ethanol (ethanal is electron acceptor), e.g. yeast bacteria very versatile many different fermentation products aerobic respiration in prokaryotes / chemoautotrophs (vs chemoheterotrophs) ;
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17

inorganic molecules sometimes used as chemoautotrophic bacteria (chemosynthesis)

electron

acceptors

by

prokaryotes

e.g.

e.g. nitrifying bacteria energy from oxidation of inorganic substances during respiration (ammonia and nitrite) ammonium Nitrosomonas nitrite + ATP Nitrobacter nitrate + ATP

ref to the nitrogen cycle also Rhizobium, Sulfolobus, some sulfur bacteria, deep sea hydrothermal vents, methanogens (Archaebacteria) photosynthesis ATP manufacture as a result of aerobic respiration and light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. Harnessing energy from electron flow / redox reactions on membranes in specialised organelles and requires a hydrogen (electron) donor (e.g. glucose, water, hydrogen sulfide). ATP also made during light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis underlying similarity with respiration is that ATP made on membranes in specialised organelle by process of chemiosmosis as a result of electron flow from electron donor to electron acceptor organelle = chloroplast thylakoids equivalent to cristae energy source is light (not oxidation of chemicals) photophosphorylation water = electron donor to PSII (electron donor usually organic molecule in respiration) cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation in cyclic, PSI (chlorophyll) is electron donor and acceptor final electron acceptor for non-cyclic is NADP (compare NAD in respiration) prokaryotes, algae, C3 and C4 plants photosynthetic bacteria do not have chloroplasts but do have membranes, e.g. blue green bacteria algae have simpler membrane systems than plants (no true grana) C4 plants have larger grana than C3 plants for more efficient use of light energy more ATP needed to drive photosynthesis than C3 plants photoheterotrophs photoheterotrophs a special case organic source of carbon but use light as source of energy e.g. ocean planktonic bacteria
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18 10 Why do people get heart disease and what should be done about it? Answers should be divided between discussion of risk factors for heart disease and ways in which the community (governments, health authorities, etc.) and individuals can reduce incidence / prevalence of heart disease and the methods of the treatment for those with the disease The following syllabus section is most directly relevant: 3.1. risk factors for heart disease e.g. age, ethnicity, sex (males), heredity, smoking, lack of exercise, diet, obesity, diabetes, high blood pressure heart disease and its aetiology coronary heart disease description of supply of oxygenated blood to heart by coronary arteries damage to coronary arteries, e.g. by high blood pressure role of LDLs in transporting fatty acids and cholesterol to organs LDLs accumulate in wall of coronary artery lead to plaque atheroma / atherosclerosis occlusion of lumen / blood flow becomes uneven / plaque bursts increased chance of blood clotting in artery ref to angina / heart attack HDLs transport cholesterol to liver reduce chances of plaque developing explanation of effects of risk factors oestrogen provides protection heredity, e.g. familial hypercholesterolaemia ; platelet glycoprotein receptor gene involved in blood clotting ; apolipoprotein E (APOE) involved in lipoprotein particles treatments inserting stents angioplasty coronary by-pass surgery heart transplants
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19 discussion of pros and cons of different treatments preventive medicine screen for those at risk discussion of thresholds for determining people who need intervention to reduce risk intervention could be determined by individual (e.g. diet, weight loss, etc.) or a medical intervention, such as drug treatment statins to lower blood cholesterol concentrations ref to mode of action: inhibit the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase involved in production of cholesterol in liver warfarin used as an anticoagulant ref to mode of action: vitamin K antagonist (inhibits enzyme that recycles oxidised vitamin K to its reduced form after it has participated in the carboxylation of e.g. prothrombin and factor VII) blockers to reduce blood pressure ref to mode of action: block receptor sites for adrenaline and noradrenaline in heart ref to control of the heart by sympathetic nervous system and endocrine system actions that can be taken by individuals to reduce risk improve diet, reduce weight, have regular check-ups, take exercise, stop smoking actions that can be taken by community to reduce incidence / prevalence of heart disease idea that prevention is cheaper than treatment, but untargeted programmes are often not cost effective provide information to, those at risk / whole population provide facilities for people to take exercise advertise about dangers of choices that put people at risk, e.g. smoking provide funding for drug treatments, e.g. statins fund research to evaluate effectiveness of different preventative measures

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UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS Cambridge International Level 3 Pre-U Certificate Principal Subject

BIOLOGY Paper 3 Practical Examination SPECIMEN CONFIDENTIAL INSTRUCTIONS

9790/03
For Examination from 2013

2 hours 30 minutes Great care should be taken to ensure that any confidential information given does not reach the candidates either directly or indirectly.

This document consists of 5 printed pages and 1 blank page.

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2 Instructions for preparing apparatus These instructions give details of the apparatus and materials required by each candidate for this paper. Sufficient information is given to permit the Centre to set up and test the apparatus and materials so that the candidates can be fairly assessed. No access to the question paper is permitted in advance of the examination. If a candidate breaks any of the apparatus, or loses any of the material supplied, the matter should be rectified and a note made on the supervisors report. Candidates must be provided with a microscope with: Low-power objective lens, e.g. 10 (equal to 16 mm or 2/3) High-power objective lens, e.g. 40 (equal to 4 mm or 1/6) Eyepiece graticule fitted within the eyepiece and visible in focus at the same time as the specimen.

Each candidate should have sole, uninterrupted, use of the microscope for at least 35 minutes. Supervisors are advised to remind all candidates that all substances in the examination should be treated with caution. Pipette fillers and safety goggles should be used when necessary. HEALTH AND SAFETY Supervisors are advised to remind candidates that all substances in the examination should be treated with caution. Only those tests described in the question paper should be attempted. In accordance with the COSHH (Control of Substances Hazardous to Health) Regulations, operative in the UK, a hazard appraisal of the examination has been carried out. Attention is drawn in particular to certain materials used in the examination. The following codes are used where relevant. C = corrosive substance H = harmful or irritating substance T = toxic substance F = highly flammable substance O = oxidising substance N = dangerous to the environment

The attention of Supervisors is drawn to any local regulations relating to safety, first-aid and disposal of chemicals. Hazard Data Sheets, relating to materials used in this examination, should be available from your chemical supplier.

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3 Instructions to Supervisors Each candidate must be provided with the following apparatus and materials for Section A only. To be supplied by the Centre. Question 1 Each candidate will require, for a period of 90 minutes: (i) (ii) 100 cm3 of full fat milk in a beaker labelled milk. 50 cm3 of sodium carbonate solution in a beaker labelled sodium carbonate solution. This must be prepared as follows: Add 95 cm3 distilled or de-ionised water to 0.3 g of anhydrous sodium carbonate, stir to dissolve and then add distilled or de-ionised water to make up to 100 cm3. [F] (iii) (iv) 10 cm3 of phenolphthalein solution in a beaker or dropping bottle labelled phenolphthalein. This solution is flammable. 20 cm3 of 1% lipase solution in a beaker labelled lipase solution. This must be prepared as follows: Dissolve 1 g of lipase in 50 cm3 of cold distilled or de-ionised water and stir thoroughly. Make up to 100 cm3 with more water. The solution must be prepared just before the examination. (v) 20 cm3 of 5% bile salts (sodium tauroglycocholate) solution in a beaker labelled 5% bile salts solution. This must be prepared as follows: Add 95 cm3 distilled or de-ionised water to 5.0 g sodium tauroglycocholate, stir to dissolve and then add distilled or de-ionised water to make up to 100 cm3. (vi) (vii) 50 cm3 of distilled or deionised water provided in a beaker labelled water. Twelve test-tubes (e.g. 12 1.4 cm); test-tube rack or racks; one bung to fit all test-tubes; test-tube holders; one dropping pipette; glass rod; permanent marker pen or other suitable way to label glassware. Five small beakers, e.g. 50 cm3 or 100 cm3 for candidates to prepare their bile salts solutions. Stopwatch, stop clock or bench timer. 2 10 cm3 syringes; 2 2 cm3 syringes and 2 1 cm3 syringes. One 600 cm3 beaker to act as a water bath; thermometer. Candidates must not use thermostatically-controlled water baths, but they should have access to one to collect water at 55 60 C. A beaker of water labelled washing water. Beaker for waste water labelled waste.

(viii) (ix) (x) (xi)

(xii) (xiii)

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4 (xiv) Paper towels.

Centres are advised to have stocks of the milk, lipase solution, sodium carbonate solution and bile salts solution available for candidates. Extra supplies of test-tubes and other glassware should also be available should candidates require them. Sodium tauroglycocholate may obtained from science education suppliers.

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5 Question 2 Each candidate must have sole use of a microscope for 35 minutes. (i) (ii) Hand lens, e.g. 10. Slides R1 and R2. R1 is a transverse section of the spinal cord of a small mammal. R2 is a transverse section of a small mammal cerebellum. Suitable prepared slides may be obtained from science education suppliers. (iii) Candidates must be provided with a microscope with: (iv) Low-power objective lens, e.g. 10 (equal to 16 mm or 2/3) High-power objective lens, e.g. 40 (equal to 4 mm or 1/6) Eyepiece graticule fitted within the eyepiece and visible in focus at the same time as the specimen.

Plastic ruler (mm / cm).

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. University of Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS Cambridge International Level 3 Pre-U Certificate Principal Subject

BIOLOGY Paper 3 Practical Examination SPECIMEN PAPER

9790/03
For Examination from 2013 2 hours 30 minutes

Candidates answer on the Question Paper. Additional Materials: As listed on the Confidential Instructions.

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST Write your Centre number, candidate number and name on all the work you hand in. Write in dark blue or black pen. You may use a pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough working. Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid. Answer all questions. Section A Write your answers in the spaces provided on the Question Paper. Section B Write your answers in the spaces provided on the Question Paper. At the end of the examination, fasten all your work securely together. The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

For Examiner's Use Section A Section B Total This document consists of 13 printed pages and 3 blank pages. [Turn over

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2 BLANK PAGE

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3 Section A Answer all the questions in the spaces provided. 1 You are recommended to spend no longer than 90 minutes on question 1. You should read through the whole of this question carefully and then plan your use of the time to make sure that you finish all the work that you would like to do. The enzyme lipase catalyses the hydrolysis of ester bonds in triglycerides. Its activity is affected by the presence of bile salts. Full fat milk will be used as the source of triglycerides. You are to investigate the effect of different concentrations of bile salts on the rate of hydrolysis of triglycerides in milk. You are provided with a 1% solution of lipase and a 5% solution of bile salts. Proceed as instructed in steps 1 to 9. 1 Use the syringes and the small beakers to prepare a number of different concentrations of bile salts using the 5% bile salts solution and water provided. You will need a maximum of 10 cm3 of each bile salts solution.
For Examiner's Use

(a) Complete the table below to show how you have prepared the different solutions. final concentration of bile salts /% volume of 5% bile salts solution / cm3 volume of water / cm3

[3] (b) Suggest suitable controls for this experiment.

[2]

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4 2 3 Label test-tubes with the concentrations of bile salts you have prepared and for your control or controls. Prepare the labelled test-tubes with milk, sodium carbonate solution, bile salts solutions and phenolphthalein as necessary using the following quantities where appropriate: 4 5 6 7 5.0 cm3 of milk 5.0 cm3 of sodium carbonate solution 1.0 cm3 of the appropriate bile salts solution three drops of phenolphthalein
For Examiner's Use

Put a bung into each test-tube in turn and invert twice so that the contents are a uniform pink colour. Put some warm water in a beaker to act as a water bath. The beaker should be about half-full. Adjust the temperature of the water to 50 oC (+/ 2 oC). Place the test-tubes prepared in step 3 into the water bath. Stir the lipase solution with the glass rod provided. Put 2.0 cm3 of the lipase solution into the same number of labelled clean test-tubes as you used in step 2, and place them in the water bath. Prepare the space on page 5 to record your results.

(c) (i) The pink colour of the phenolphthalein will fade over time. State how this is used to gain information about the rate of hydrolysis of the lipid in the milk by lipase.

[3] (ii) Measure and record the temperature in the water bath at appropriate points during the experiment in the space below.

[1]
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5 9 After the test-tubes have been in the water bath for at least five minutes, add the lipase solution to the test-tubes containing the milk and bile salts solutions. Immediately after adding the lipase solution insert a bung into each test-tube and invert twice to mix the contents. (d) You should record your results to show the effect of bile salts on the rate of triglyceride hydrolysis by lipase in a logical way in the space below. Record and justify any further decisions that you make about your investigation in the space below the table.
For Examiner's Use

[8]

[3]
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6 (e) Plot a graph of your results on the graph paper provided.


For Examiner's Use

[5]
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7 (f) Describe and explain the pattern of results shown by your graph.
For Examiner's Use

[10]

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8 (g) Identify the limitations and sources of error in this investigation. Explain how you would improve the method you used in this investigation to give more accurate and reliable results.
For Examiner's Use

[10] [Total: 45]

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10

Section B
Answer all the questions in the spaces provided. 2 You should not take longer than 60 minutes to complete question 2. You should read through the whole of this question carefully and then plan your use of the time to make sure that you finish all the work that you would like to do. R1 is a transverse section of the spinal cord of a small mammal. (a) (i) Make a low power plan drawing of R1. Label your plan drawing.

For Examiner's Use

[6] (ii) Use a ruler to measure the actual size of the specimen on slide R1 and the size of your drawing between the same points. Put a line on your drawing to show the size that you have measured. Calculate the magnification of your drawing. Show your working.

magnification .

[2]

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11 (b) Use the high power lens of your microscope to locate a cell body of a motor neurone in R1. Make a labelled drawing to show the cell body. Annotate your drawing to indicate the functions of the structures you have drawn. Use the eyepiece graticule and slide micrometer to measure the diameter of the cell body. Indicate the actual diameter on your drawing and show how you have derived your answer.
For Examiner's Use

[8] (c) Slide R2 is a transverse section of part of the brain of a small mammal. Compare, using a hand lens and your microscope, the structure and appearance of R1 and R2. Present your comparison as a table in the space below.

[5]

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12 (d) Fig. 2.1 is an electron micrograph that shows a cross section of a neurone.
For Examiner's Use

Fig 2.1 (i) Describe the appearance of the section of the neurone. You may use drawings or diagrams to illustrate your answer.

[5]

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13 (ii) Explain how the structural features you describe in (i) are related to the function of the neurone.
For Examiner's Use

[4]

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14 (e) Fig. 2.2 is an electron micrograph that shows a junction between two neurones in the brain.
For Examiner's Use

Fig 2.2 Identify structures A and B and relate the appearance of these structures to their function. You may use the space opposite for any diagrams you may wish to draw to illustrate your answer.

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15
For Examiner's Use

[5] [Total: 35]

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Copyright Acknowledgements: Question 2 Figure 2.1 Question 2 Figure 2.2 Myelinated neuron, Road not taken Wikimedia Commons. Synapse nerve junction, Thomas Deerinck, NCMIR/Science Photo Library

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. University of Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

UCLES 2011

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UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS Cambridge International Level 3 Pre-U Certificate Principal Subject

BIOLOGY Paper 3 Practical Examination SPECIMEN MARK SCHEME

9790/03
For examination from 2013 2 hours 30 minutes

MAXIMUM MARK: 80

This document consists of 7 printed pages and 1 blank page. [Turn over

UCLES 2011

2 Section A Question 1 (a) Sections MMO Decision making (b) MMO Decision making (i) MMO Decision making (ii) MMO Collection MMO Collection Indicative material at least five different concentrations of bile salts ; could include 0% control (water) included ; dilutions agree with concentrations chosen ; 0% / water ; use boiled lipase ; Mark

[3]

[2]

(c)

idea of found end point when pink colour just no longer visible ; indicates when pH decreases to certain level ; as fatty acids neutralise sodium carbonate / AW ; temperature within range 50 2 C at every one of at least three readings ; at least five results obtained and recorded in seconds ; times vary across tubes so that lower concentrations generally have longer times ; monotonic sequence of times vs. concentration ; replicates and means included ; data recorded as a single table ; table includes columns for raw data (bile salts concentration, time taken) and calculated values (rate) ;

[3]

[1]

(d)

Presentation of data RDO

appropriate column headings with units in column headings ; e.g. bile salts concentration (%), time taken (s), rate (s1) independent variable (bile salts concentration) in left hand column ; results recorded to same degree of precision within each column ; rates calculated and given to appropriate significant figures ;

[7 max] [1]

Display of calculation and reasoning

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3 MMO Decision making accept three separate decisions even if not justified use of tube without phenolphthalein as colour comparator ; to identify end point ; ref to including bile salts in colour comparator ; as bile salts give colour to milk ; use replicates ; to check on reliability / repeatability ; R accuracy / precision AVP ;; e.g. when to start timer (e) Presentation of data Graph line graph, bile salts concentration on horizontal axis ; ecf if time plotted, not rate axes scaled correctly using at least half the graph paper ; axes titles and units rate (ecf from the table) and concentration ; points plotted accurately ; appropriate line that is not extrapolated beyond highest concentration ; if rate plotted line starts at the origin R if broken axis A not at origin if time plotted increase in, rate / activity, with increase in concentration of bile salts ; A ref to decrease in time as ecf comparative data quote ; % bile salts and rate/time at two different concentrations ref to shape, e.g. straight line / exponential / plateau ; ref to anomalous result(s) ; A no anomalous results [max 3] [max 3]

[5]

(f)

Analysis of data and conclusions Description of patterns and trends Analysis of data and conclusions Making conclusions drawing on theoretical knowledge and understanding

bile salts emulsify fats ; bile salts promote formation of micelles ; ref to hydrophilic and hydrophobic ends of each molecule ; increase surface area of, globules / AW ; effectively increase substrate concentration ; lipase can only act on the surface of globules ; not water soluble ; hydrolysis / breakage, of ester bonds ; release of fatty acids (and glycerol) ; higher concentration of bile salts results in, more emulsification / higher substrate concentration ; AVP ; [max 7]

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4 (g) Evaluation of procedures and data Identifying limitations and sources of Suggesting improvements error reliability only one sample per concentration / ref to at least three samples, mean / no repeats / not enough repeats / standard deviation / standard error ; should have been repeated ; end point difficult to judge ; use colour standard ; R colorimeter so that end point may not have been the same in each case ; stated problem with timing ; note that ref to improved timing method ; R have stopwatch should be started before someone else to start the stopwatch mixing e.g. times all overestimates as started way to slow down the reaction e.g. lower stop watch before adding lipase temperature / more milk ; rates therefore underestimates ; set up separately / staggered start ; indicator ref to drops of phenolphthalein being use, pH meter / pH probe and data logger / inaccurate / AW ; more sensitive indicator ; use set volume of phenolphthalein ; colour changes over a range of pH ; record time to reach constant pH ; stated problem with syringe(s) ; A air bubbles / precision explained R liquid in nozzle ref to, uncertainty / percentage error ; temperature problem with maintaining constant use thermostatically-controlled water bath ; temperature ; data quote from (c) (ii) ; rate of reaction / activity, depends on temperature ; ref to anomalous results ; difficult to identify line of best fit / AW ; ref to, range / error, bars ; not enough intermediate concentrations to determine trend ; not wide enough range of concentrations ; ref to discard / repeat ; use SD / SE / 95%CI as error bars ; stated intermediate concentrations ; use concentrations of bile salts > 5% [10] [Total: 45] use, graduated pipette(s) / burette / micropipette ;

end point / timing

precision in preparation

results

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5 Section B Question 2 (a) (i) Sections Presentation of data RDO MMO Collection Indicative material drawing made with clear, complete lines ; Mark [1]

correct outline ; central canal ; outline of grey matter shown appropriately ; labels grey matter, white matter ; meninges / AW / connective tissue / blood vessel(s) ; dorsal fissure / ventral fissure / dorsal horn / ventral horn ; size of specimen and drawing recorded to nearest mm and calculation given as image size/actual size ; correct answer given for quoted size with no more significant figure than size with lowest number of significant figure ;

[5]

(ii)

Analysis of data and conclusions Display of calculation and reasoning

[1]

[1]

(b)

Presentation of data RDO

drawing made with clear, complete lines ; drawing shows clear cellular detail of the motor neurone cell body ; e.g. nucleus, nucleolus, (Nissl) granules / bodies labels dendron(s) / axon ; nucleus, nucleolus ; (granular) cytoplasm ; annotations reception of impulses from, sensory neurones / interneurones ; initiating impulses to effectors ; [2]

[2]

MMO Collection

[3]

Analysis of data and conclusions Interpretation of data and observations Analysis of data and conclusions Display of calculation and reasoning

diameter of cell body given with appropriate unit with correct derivation ; calibration may be given or may already be known but to gain the mark the calculation showing conversion of eyepiece units to micrometres must be clear accept result in mm/m expressed in standard form notation

[1]

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6 Question (c) Sections Presentation of data RDO MMO Collection Indicative material table with column for features to compare must be direct comparisons ; Mark [1]

max 2 if not direct comparisons between the two sides of the table part of brain vs. entire spinal cord ; much more folded surface of brain vs. few folds in spinal cord surface ; larger surface area (to volume ratio) of brain vs. smaller surface area of spinal cord ; 3 (accept 4) layers in brain vs. 2 layers in spinal cord ; grey matter of brain multilayered / AW vs. homogeneous grey matter of spinal cord ; cell bodies concentrated in lower part of grey matter in brain vs. distributed throughout grey matter in spinal cord ; Purkyne cells / other named cells in brain vs. no such cells in spinal cord ; AVP (other valid comparisons) ;; axon / dendron, surrounded by myelin ; myelin formed from layers of membrane ; membrane is rich in (phospho) lipid ; electron dense / AW for appearance in EM ; Schwann / glial, cell ; with, cytoplasm / nucleus ; section is in, intermodal region / AW ; axon is, thin / 500 1000 nm diameter ; axon contains, mitochondrion / few organelles ; AVP ; e.g. surrounding fibres / collagen myelin is insulator ; tissue fluid excluded from axon membrane ; no action potentials / only occur at nodes ; ref to saltatory conduction of impulses ; high speed ; axon can be thin / thick axons needed for fast conduction in unmyelinated neurones ; idea that saves materials and energy as not necessary to maintain extra cytoplasm and channels and pumps in axon membrane in intermodal regions ;

[max 4]

(d)

(i)

MMO Recording data and observations

[max 5]

(ii)

Analysis of data and conclusions Interpretation of data and observations

[max 4]

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7 (e) Analysis of data and conclusions Interpretation of data and observations A presynaptic (neurone) ; B postsynaptic (neurone) ; accept sensory and motor / interneurone synaptic vesicles in A ; contain neurotransmitter ; impulses only travel in one direction across synapses / AW ; synaptic, gap / cleft ; mitochondria to provide energy ; AVP ; [max 5] [Total: 35]

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8 BLANK PAGE

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University of Cambridge International Examinations 1 Hills Road, Cambridge, CB1 2EU, United Kingdom Tel: +44 1223 553554 Fax: +44 1223 553558 Email: international@cie.org.uk Website: www.cie.org.uk University of Cambridge International Examinations 2011

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