GENERAL SANTOS HOPE CHRISTIAN SCHOOL

Block 8, City Heights, General Santos City FIRST PERIODICAL EXAMINATION ADVANCED CHEMISTRY FOURTH YEAR A and B SY: 2013 - 2014 NAME : _______________________ Teacher: ROGELIO B. PONTEJO
.

SCORE Date: ___________

I.

Multiple Choice: Choose the correct answer. Write the answer in the space provided before each item.

______1. Measurement: A) allows us to make quantitative models B) gives us the ability to make statements about quantities of things C) is the association of numbers with some situation D) is all of the above ______ 2. An object has a mass of 200 g and a volume of 125 mL. What is the density in g.mL? A. 0.620 B. 0.750 C. 1.60 D. 3.25

___0___3. It is a temperature reading wherein 0C is equal to 0F? A. 00C B. 40C C. 400C D. 250C

______4. How many cm. in 12 inches? A) 10 cm. B) 14 cm. C) 4.7 cm. D) 30 cm. E) 11.3 cm.

_____ 5. The measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles of a substance is the ____. A. temperature B. heat C. thermal energy D. kinetic energy

______ 6. The freezing point of a substance is ____ the melting point of the same substance. A. greater than B. less than C. equal to D. unrelated to

______7. Write a balanced equation for the reaction between zinc metal and oxygen gas to produce solid zinc oxide. A. B. C. D. E. 2 Zn (s) + O2 (g) 4 Zn (s) + O2 (g) Zn (s) + O2 (g) Zn (s) + O2 (g) Zn (s) + O (g) 2 ZnO (s) 2 Zn2O (s) ZnO (s) ZnO2 (s) ZnO (s)

______8. Calculate the empirical formula of the ionic compound sodium sulfite. Elemental analysis indicates that it contains 36.48% Na, 25.44% S, and 38.08% O.

A. Na3SO3 B. Na2SO3

C. NaS2O4 D. Na2SO4

______9. Butane is used in disposable lighters. Complete combustion of 5.00 mg of butane gas in oxygen gave 15.1 mg of CO 2 and 7.75 mg of H2O. Determine the empirical formula of butane. CxHy + O2(g) CO2(g) + H2O(g)

A. C4H8

B. C4H5

C. C2H5

D. C2H1

______10. How many grams of O2 are needed to react with 18.5 grams of Mg? 2 Mg(s) + O2(g) 2 MgO(s)

A. 6.10 grams O2 B. 24.4 grams O2

C. 12.2 grams O2 D. 48.8 grams O2

______ 11. All known elements are organized into a chart known as the A. element table. B. group table. C. periodic table. D. metal-nonmetal table. _______ 12. The vertical columns of the periodic table are called A. periods. B. rows. ______ 13. A period is A. a horizontal row of elements in the periodic table. B. a vertical column of elements in the periodic table. C. a region of two or more columns in the periodic table. D. another name for the periodic table. ______ 14. Which of the following is not a property of metals? A. malleability B. good electrical conductivity C. groups D. chemicals

C. brittleness D. good heat conductivity ______ 15. Metalloids lie between metals and nonmetals on the periodic table. They tend to be A. nonconductors. B. conductors. ______ 16. The shininess of a metal is called its A. luster. B. color C. streak D. malleability. C. semiconductor D. unreactive

______ 17. The element carbon is classified as a A. metal. B. nonmetal C. metalloid D. noble gas.

______ 18. Which of the following is not true of nonmetals? A. Many are gases. B. Many are ductile. C. As solids, they tend to be brittle. D. Most are poor heat and electrical conductors. ______ 19. Which of the following elements is a metalloid? A. neon B. selenium C. mercury D. silicon

______ 20. Which of these describes noble gases? A. massless B. good heat conductors C. unreactive D. good electrical conductors

______ 21. An experiment was designed to measure the effect of sulfur dioxide emissions from a power plant on the pH of rain falling downwind of the plant. In this experiment, the average pH of rainwater upwind from the plant would be considered A. a model B. a variable C. the hypothesis D. the control

______ 22. Which of these best describes a scientific model? A. a small version of a large object B. the most recent version of a theory C. a way of explaining a complex concept D. a detailed description of a natural event ______ 23. A proposed explanation that is based on observations and that can be tested is known as a(n) A. principle B. experiment C. law D. hypothesis

______ 24. For each investigation, the scientific method

A. requires that the same set of procedures be followed. B. provides a logical set of procedures. C. is abandoned if there are unexpected results. D. helps to predict the results. ______ 25. A theory is accepted as the explanation of an observed phenomenon. Until A. one study contradicts the theory. B. repeated observations conflict with the theory. C. a new method is used to gather data. D. a leading scientist feels that it is invalid. ______ 26. Except for protium, the simplest type of hydrogen atom, all nuclei consist of A. protons and electrons. B. neutrons and positrons. ______ 27. Electrons can be found A. inside protons. B. inside neutrons. C. attached to the nucleus. D. moving rapidly outside the nucleus. ______ 28. We know that objects with like electric charge repel one another. Which statement best explains why protons can remain close to one another in a nucleus? A. There is no electric charge in the nucleus of an atom. B. A short-range force, called the strong nuclear force, binds protons together. C. Protons are balanced electrically by electrons. D. Neutrons cancel out the electric force. ______ 29. Most of an atom is A. dense B. fluid C. empty D. the nucleus C. protons and neutrons D. electrons and positrons

______30. What is the charge of a neutron? A. positive B. negative C. neutral D. None of the above

______ 31. The atomic number of an element is A. the mass of the element. B. 1 mol of the element. C. the number of protons in each atom of the element. D. the number of neutrons in each atom of the element. ______ 32. Hydrogen that is composed of atoms with two neutrons is called A. protium B. deuterium C. tritium D. helium

______ 33. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different A. masses. C. numbers of electrons

B. charges.

D. atomic numbers

______ 34. Mass number is A. the average atomic mass of an element. B. the total number of electrons in an atom of an element. C. the total number of protons in an atom of an element. D. the total number of protons and neutrons in an atom of an element. ______ 35. The isotope uranium-235 has 92 protons and 143 neutrons. Therefore, its mass number is A. 92 B. 235 C. 143 D. impossible to determine.

_____ 36. What is the maximum number of electrons that a single orbital can hold? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

______ 37. What is the total number of orbitals in the fourth main energy level? A. 1 B. 4 C. 9 D. 16

______38. How many electrons can a d sublevel contain? A. 2 B. 6 C. 10 D. 16

_____ 39. The statement that no two electrons in the same atom can have the same four quantum numbers is a restatement of A. Bohrs law B. Hunds rule C. the Aufbau principle D. the Pauli Exclusion Principle

______ 40. According to the Aufbau principle, which of the following sublevels is lowest in energy? A. 3d B. 4s C. 4p D. 5s

______ 41. In a ground-state hydrogen atom in which orbital is the electron? A. 1s B. 2s C. 2p D. 3s

______ 42. How many electrons are present in an atom of calcium that has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s2? A. 6 B. 16 C. 20 D. 36

______ 43. The ground-state electron configuration of neon is 1 s22s22p6. In this arrangement, how many of neons p orbitals are completely filled? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6

_____ 44. Oxygen has an electron configuration of 1s22s22p4. In this arrangement, how many inner-shell electrons does oxygen have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8

______ 45. Which of the following is a noble gas? A. carbon B. oxygen C. sodium D. neon

______ 46. The noble-gas notation for the electron configuration of bromine is [Ar] 3d104s24p5.How many unpaired electrons are there in an atom of bromine in the ground state? A. 0 B. 1 C. 3 D. 5

______ 47. A ground-state atom of which element has one electron in its fourth and outermost main energy level? A. K B. Na C. B D. Ga

______48. Separating unpaired electrons into as many orbitals as possible A. places the electrons farther from the nucleus. B. results in more valence electrons. C. minimizes the repulsion between electrons. D. produces a greater spin quantum number. ______ 49. Oxygen has an electron configuration of 1s22s22p4. In this arrangement, how many inner-shell electrons does oxygen have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8

______ 50. Which of the following is a noble gas? A. carbon B. oxygen C. sodium D. neon

_____51. What are standard temperature and pressure conditions for gases? A. 0C and 0 torr B. 0 K and 760 torr C. -273C and 1 atm D. 0C and 760 torr

______52. If the volume of a confined gas is doubled while the temperature remains constant, what change (if any) would be observed in the pressure? A. It would be half as large. B. It would double. C. It would be four times as large. D. It would be 1/4 as large. ______53. A given mass of gas in a rigid container is heated from 100C to 500C. Which of the following responses best describes what will happen to the pressure of the gas?

A. The pressure will decrease by a factor of five. B. The pressure will increase by a factor of five. C. The pressure will increase by a factor of about two. D. The pressure will increase by a factor of about eight. _______54. Which of the following has the most molecules? A. 1.00 L of CH4 at 0C and 1.00 atm B. 1.00 L of N2 at 0C and 1.00 atm C. 1.00 L of O2 at 20C and 1.00 atm D. 1.00 L of CO at 0C and 1.25 atm _______55. Avogadro stated that equal volumes of gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure have equal A. numbers of molecules. B. numbers of grams. C. molar masses D. atoms

_______56. What volume of CH4 at 0C and 1.00 atm contains the same number of molecules as 0.50 L of N2 measured at 27C and 1.50 atm? A. 0.37 L B. 0.46 L C. 0.68 L D. 0.50 L

_______57.If 3.0 L of helium at 20.0C is allowed to expand to 4.4 L, with the pressure remaining the same, what is the new temperature? A. 702C B. 430C C. 157C D. -30.0C

_______ 58. At what temperature will 41.6 grams N 2 exert a pressure of 815 torr in a 20.0 L cylinder? A. 134 K B. 176 K C. 238 K D. 337 K

_______59. What is the molar mass of a gas which has a density of 1.30 g/L measured at 27C and 0.400 atm? A. 38.0 g/mol B. 48.0 g/mol C. 61.5 g/mol D. 80.0 g/mol

______ 60. What is the chemical formula of a gas if it has a pressure of 1.40 atm and a density of 1.82 g/L at 27C? A. CO2 B. CO C. CH4 D. O2

II.

PROBLEM SOLVING.

61 65. What is the percentage of iron in FeCl 3? The molar mass of FeCl3 is 162.2 g/mol.

66 70. Ammonia is produced on an industrial scale by the reaction of nitrogen gas with hydrogen gas (the Haber process) according to this balanced equation:

How many grams of N2 are necessary to produce 7.50 g of NH3? [ N = 14.00 g/mol].

71 75. An empty flask has a mass of 47.392 g and 47.816 g when filled with acetone vapor at 100. C and 745 mm Hg. If the volume of the flask is 247.3 mL, what is the molar mass of the acetone?

76 80. If we add 450 cal of heat to 37 g of ethanol at 20C, what is the final temperature? [The specific heat of ethanol is 0.59 cal/g C]

81 85. Suppose 12 g of C is mixed with 64 g of O 2, and the following reaction takes place:

What is the limiting reactant? Show your solution.

III. 86. 87. 88.

BALANCING CHEMICAL REACTION HI CH4 + NaOH O2 NaI BaS CO2 + + + H 2O HNO 3 H2O

Ba(NO3)2 + H2S
+

89. 90.

C4H10 Fe +

O2 CO2

CO2 Fe2O3 GOD BLESS

+ +

H 2O CO

______ 51. Elements in the s and p blocks of the periodic table are called A. alloys B. main-group elements ______ 52. Elements in Group 18 have A. very low reactivity B. good conductivity C. very high reactivity D. metallic character C. metals D. transition metals

______ 53. Nonmetallic elements in Group 17 that react with most metals to form salts are A. alkali metals B. halogens C. lanthanides D. noble gas

______ 54. The outer-level electron configuration of a neutral alkaline-earth metal atom consists of A. one electron in the s orbital B. two electrons in the s orbital C. one electron in the p orbital D. two electrons in the p orbital

______ 55. In nature the alkali metals are found only in compounds because they A. have small atoms C. are rare elements B. are very reactive elements D. each have a stable octet ______56. In which group is an element that has an outer-level electron configuration consisting of one electron in the d orbital and two electrons in the ns orbital? A. Group 1 B. Group 2 C. Group 3 D. Group 5

______ 57. What is the correct prefix-based name for selenium(II) fluoride? A. selenium fluoride B. diselenium fluoride C. diselenium difluoride D. selenium difluoride

______ 58. What is the formula for copper(I) oxide? A. CuO B. Cu2O C. CuO2 D. Cu2O2

______ 59. A monatomic ion has an oxidation number A. of zero. B. indicated by the ions prefix. C. equal to the charge of the ion D. equal to its subscript

______60. What is the correct Stock name for SnBr4? A. tin(IV) bromide C. tin tetrabromide

B. tin bromide

D. tin (IV) tetrabromide