You will have 45 minutes to complete this section

ACT Test 1 Section 1

Instructions for English Questions In each passage, certain words and phrases are underlined and numbered. The numbers correspond to question numbers. Some questions offer alternatives for the underlined segments in the passage. Choose the alternative that best expresses the idea, makes the statement appropriate for standard written English, or is worded most consistently with the style and tone of the passage as a whole. If you think the original version is best, choose "NO CHANGE". Other questions ask about a section of the passage, or the passage as a whole. These questions do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage. Instead, they correspond to a number in a box. For each question, choose the answer you consider best and fill in its corresponding letter on your answer sheet. [1] People of every civilization throughout history have celebrated the transmutation of life from one state to another. Our wedding, the arrival of our adulthood, our funeral, 1 completions of our education at various levels, birth--each of 1 these significant stages' is proclaimed in some ceremonial 2 fashion, always public, verified by the witness of others, testifying to the perpetualness of some sequence of human history. Validating the uniqueness of the rite of passage, its' 3 separateness from the day's other occurrences. These rituals normally demand pagentry, elaborate dress, the giving of 4
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gifts, and eating and drinking. Funerals ask for my dark 4 5 apparel, christenings and birthdays ask for our gifts and bar 6 mitzvahs make gluttons of us all. Yet, of birth, marriage, and death, oddly enough, only one can claim our conscious attendance completely and fully. The wedding, humankind's 7 most vital rite of passage. And so it is that this indelible imprint is found engraved in civilizations foundation.

[2] The wedding ceremony itself, who prepares an 8 individual's move from one stage in life to another, is organic to the society from which the individual comes. In certain 9 African tribes, a young adolescent male finding himself 10 hurled headlong into a wilderness where he is expected to kill a lion with nothing but his bare hands and intellect. His society judges his value, as a man on the basis of his success 11 in meeting that challenge. In an odd way, the American newlywed experiences a similar rite as they enter a consumer 12 society; the procedures of wedding hoo-hah testifies to 13 commercial, mercantile values, especially in the giving of gifts. Brides buy for the grooms, grooms for the brides, brides for the bridesmaids, ushers for grooms, and on the

procedure goes. Rehearsal dinners, last-fling dinners, 14 showers, the spiraling carnival of splish-splash around the wedding itself. The American wedding celebrates in a rausous fashion a frenzied gluttonous revelry unparalleled by any future event in the life of the American couple.
1

F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J

NO CHANGE gifts because gifts since gifts, and NO CHANGE fully, the wedding. Humankind's fully: the wedding, humankind's fully, the wedding, humankinds NO CHANGE which in which OMIT the underlined portion NO CHANGE their society the society of the individual his/her society NO CHANGE , finding finds found NO CHANGE value as a man value as a man, value-as a man NO CHANGE rite as he or she enters rite as they both enter rite when they enter NO CHANGE testimonied testified testify NO CHANGE goes: rehearsal goes: Rehearsal has gone. Rehearsal

A B

NO CHANGE The completion of various levels of our education, our funeral, wedding, adulthood's arrival, our birth Our birth, the completion of our education at various levels, the arrival of adulthood, our wedding, our funeral Our funeral, the arrival of adulthood, our birth, our wedding, the completion of our education at various levels NO CHANGE stage is stages are stages is NO CHANGE passage its' passage, it's passage, its NO CHANGE appropriate pageantry, elaborate dress, various gifts, and requisite repasts. pageantry, dressing to the nines, an overflow of gifts, food and drink. elaborate dress, displays of pageantry, gift giving, and repasts that will be remembered. NO CHANGE for their with my for our

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F G H J A B C D F G H J

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12

13

A B C D

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Which organizational strategy best describes Paragraph 2?

A B C D

punished. As the decades passed, however, religious toleration developed in the colonies. [3] Because of the strong religious influence in the colonies, especially in New England; religious instruction 22 and Bible reading played an important part in education. In Massachusetts, for example, a law of 1645 required each

Defining a series of unfamiliar terms Explaining the process of becoming a man Comparing an African and an American rite of passage Arguing that American weddings are better than African lion hunts

[1] Life in the American colonial era was harsh, the 16 refinement of the mother country was ordinarily lacking. The 16 colonists, however, soon began to mold it to the fresh 17 environment of a new land. The influence of religion permeated the entire way of life. In most Southern colonies, the Anglican Church was the legally established church. In New England, the Puritans were the big guns; and in 18 Pennsylvania, the Quakers. Especially in the New England colonies. The local or village church was the hub of 19 community life; the authorities strictly enforced the Sabbath. [2] Unfortunately, the same sort of religious intolerance, bigotry, and superstition as that of the European Reformation 20 prevailed in some of the colonies, though on a lesser scale. In the last half of the seventeenth century, fanaticism and hysteria grew under Massachusetts and Connecticut authority. Neither one, nor the other perceived the benefits in 21 diverse religious views. Nonbelievers, dissenters, and those who didnt fit in were sometimes banished or otherwise
3

community with 50 households to establish an elementary school. Two years later the same colony past the Deluder 23 Satan law which required each town of 100 families to maintain a grammar school for the purpose of providing 24 religious, as well as general, instruction. [4] 25 In the Southern colonies, only a few privately endowed free schools existed. Private tutors instructed the sons of well-to-do planters, they completed their educations 26 at English universities. Young males in poor families throughout the colonies were ordinarily apprenticed for vocational education. [5] By 1700, two colleges had been founded, one was 27 Harvard established by the Massachusetts Legislature in 27 1636, and the other, Virginias William and Mary University. 28 Which originated in 1693 under a royal charter. Other 28 cultural activities before 1700 were limited. The few literary

products of the colonists, mostly historical narratives, daily 29 journals, fiery sermons, and religious poetry, were printed in 29 England. The Bay Psalm Book (1640) was the first book printed in the colonies. Artists and composers, who were few, produced an output of relatively simple character.
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22

F G H J A B C D F G H J

NO CHANGE England religious England; yet, religious England, religious NO CHANGE went past have passed passed NO CHANGE school, for the purpose of providing school which would provide school to provide

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F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J

NO CHANGE harsh, refinement , for the refinement , however NO CHANGE the molding of it to mold their life to shape it NO CHANGE Puritans were the big guns. Puritans dominated, Puritans authorized; NO CHANGE colonies, the colonies, where the colonies' the NO CHANGE associated with the Age of the Reformation in Europe which marked Europe's era of religious Reformation which we associated with the European period of Reformation NO CHANGE Neither perceived Neither one nor the other perceive Not one nor both perceives

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17

25

Which of the suggested sentences makes the best introduction to Paragraph 4 and the best transition from Paragraph 3?
A

18

19

D
26

20

Yet it was obvious that the legal precedents set in Massachusetts were also to be enacted in the South. Although religion and education were inseparable in the North, more secular instruction took place in the South. The "Deluder Satan" law harkened back to the religious intolerance of early Massachusetts and Connecticut. Private and individualized education characterized the Southern colonies' schools. NO CHANGE planters; who planter, among whom they planters, who NO CHANGE founded; one was Harvard established founded. One was Harvard, established founded, one was Harvard, established NO CHANGE Mary it Mary, who Mary, which

F G H J A B C D F G H J

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21

A B C D

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A B C D

NO CHANGE narratives involving history, daily journals, a few sermons of a fiery nature, and some poetry, historical-narratives, journals-daily, sermonsfiery; and religious poetry, narratives of history; daily journals; sermons of fire and brimstone; and nonsecular poems,

organic form. [2] Today our chief concern about them relates to how 33 foods are grown and processed. There are no precise, official definitions for these but some have been proposed for legal 34 use and can be useful for the consumer, as well. The term organically grown food means food which has not been subjected to pesticides or artificial fertilizers and which has been grown in soil whose humus content has been increased 35 by the addition of organic matter. The term organically processed food means organically grown food which in its processing has not been treated with preservatives, hormones, antibiotics, or synthetic additives of any kind. [3] Organic material or humus used in growing the plants which we eat directly, or which are fed to the animals that furnish ones meat, includes manures, plant composts, 36 and other plant residues such as peat moss and aged sawdust. Inorganic or store-bought fertilizers contain the same 37 chemical nutrients but in simpler forms and not always in combination with carbon. It is neither accurate nor exact to 38 refer to inorganic fertilizers as artificial just because they have not been made by living cells. 39

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Suppose the writer wished to add the following sentences to the passage: Colonists tried and hanged a few women as witches. Early in the seventeenth century, some other witchcraft persecution occurred in Virginia, North Carolina, and Rhode Island, as well. The new sentences would most logically be placed in which of the following paragraphs?
F G H J

Paragraph 1, because witchcraft is sure to draw the immediate interest of the reader Paragraph 2, because the persecution of witches clearly indicates religious intolerance In a separate paragraph, because interesting information needs to stand out on its own Paragraph 5, because the reader must be left with an important image to remember [1] The words organic, chemicals, natural, and

health are among the most misunderstood, misused, and maligned in our vocabulary, especially when they are applied to food. All organic materials is a complex combination of 31 chemicals and contain one chemical element in common. That element is carbon. But not all chemicals occur in the form of organic material. All of our usual food is in organic form; because it has come from animal or plant sources, and, 32 interestingly enough, most man-made foods are also in
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[4] A plant is not aware of the type of fertilizer, organic or inorganic, that is furnishing the chemicals more for its 40 growth. When it does demand that these building blocks for 41 its nutrients be in inorganic form. Cells of the plant 42 themselves synthesize the complex materials needed for 42 growth rather than absorbing them ready-made from the soil.
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A B C D F G H J

NO CHANGE commercial over-the-counter customer-ready NO CHANGE neither accurate, nor exact not accurate nor exact inaccurate

38

39

Which of the suggested sentences makes the best introduction to Paragraph 3 and the best transition from Paragraph 2?
A

A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J

NO CHANGE are being a complex combination is complex combinations are a complex combination NO CHANGE form because form; Because form; yet, because NO CHANGE it these organic and chemical labels NO CHANGE these, however, some these, but some these; because some NO CHANGE who's whos in which the NO CHANGE one's its our

B C

32

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For these definitions to make sense, we must understand exactly what constitutes organic and inorganic material for food growth. Definitions of organically grown and processed foods are vital for the food processing industry. Inorganic and organic issues with respect to edible plants and meat must be addressed by today's businessmen and businesswomen. Humus in its various forms is essential to the growth of organically labeled plants. NO CHANGE much more inasmuch OMIT the underlined portion NO CHANGE growth; when it does growth. However they do growth; yet, it does NO CHANGE The plant's cells Cells themselves of the plant The cells' plants

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F G H J A B C D F G H J

41

35

42

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43

Which of the following sentences, if added to the end of Paragraph 4, would best relate Paragraph 4 to Paragraph 1, unifying the passage as a whole?
A

45

Suppose the writer wanted to add the following sentences to the passage: Those organic foods given to meat-producing animals include sorghum, maize, a variety of grasses, and commercially developed livestock feeds. Yes, even these latter nutrients are categorized as organic. The new sentences would be most logically placed in which of the following paragraphs?
A B

Plants seem to have figured out their answer to the organic-inorganic labeling quandry; the question is, can humans? Indeed, the plant is not too discerning; however, it has the ability to adapt to whatever form of nutrient it receives. Terminology is indeed an issue in the food industry; for labeling can determine if a product sells or remains standing on the grocer's shelf. Animals nourished on a diet of organically fortified feed yield a meat product essentially no different from those animals nourished by chemically fertilized feed.

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If the writer wanted to strengthen the aspect of the passage relating to the trends in American consumer buying of foods labeled as natural or chemically treated, it would be most logical to put this new material in
F G

Paragraph 1, because all important information has to be introduced immediately A separate paragraph following Paragraph 1, because important new material must be placed alone so it stands out Paragraph 3, because it discusses specific organic materials used as nutrients for edible plants and animals Paragraph 4, because every essay should have an important ending

Paragraph 2, because that paragraph is too technical and needs some simpler material Paragraph 3's place, because that paragraph contains definitions all readers already know and therefore is unnecessary a separate paragraph, because it would be the only one devoted solely to labeling's effect on American buyers Paragraph 4, because it sums up the points made earlier

[1] Survivors are always extraordinary people, seeming to possess qualities that humans in their finest hour have. One particular group of wanderers from Vung Tau Vietnam, 46 fall into this category. Originally natives of Southeast Asia, 46 they were part of an exodus from their homeland, finally ending up in the United States. Consisting mainly of fishermen and their families altogether they number about 1,300 in all. Their most outstanding trait is their ability to 47 survive after having to flee their home. They have done so with unity and togetherness. 48 [2] Originally, these fishermen lived in North Vietnam. Because of the threat of communism they fled their homes in 49 1954 and settled in South Vietnam; when the Vietnam War broke out, once again these people found themselves in a dangerous position. With the fall of South Vietnam comes 50 the need to relocate once more. In 1975 the group moved. 51 This time halfway around the world to the Mississippi Gulf 51 Coast. Although they were newcomers with a chance to begin fresh, their troubles were not over. They found 52 themselves in the process of facing a war of not being 52 accepted by Americans. 52 [3] One particular source of opposition has been the American fisherman. The reason for this bone of contention 53
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is simple. Competition for jobs. The Vietnamese people were 54 55 glad to be here that they would work at any job. A few have 55 managed to survive here. As of 1981, some Vietnamese-like 56 boat owner Ba Ban Nguyen, actually owned part of a 56 shipyard [4] Today the wanderers from Vung Tau want more than menial labor along the docks, they want to compete as fishermen. 57 Gradually, these people have enabled themselves to compete as commercial fishermen. But in the process, they have angered American fishermen who, while simply minding 58 their own business, were crowded by the Vietnamese moving into established fishing areas. After all, the Americans said, it is difficult to buy and sell their catch with so many more fishermen around. [5] 59 Verbal confrontations are common, and, increasingly, physical harassment has occurred. Along the Texas coast, an American fisherman was killed, supposedly by a Vietnamese. Additionally, fishing styles differ. The Vietnamese fish from north to south while Americans fish from east to west. 60

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F G H J A B C D

NO CHANGE Vung Tau, Vietnam, falls Vung Tau Vietnam falls Vung Tau, Vietnam, fall NO CHANGE combined in total OMIT the underlined portion

52

F G H J

47

NO CHANGE The Americans did not accept them. They faced a war of not never being accepted by Americans. They faced not being accepted by Americans who seemed at war with them. NO CHANGE foul-up resistance glitch NO CHANGE simple: competition simple and it is competition simple. Its competition NO CHANGE were ecstatic , were so grateful were so glad NO CHANGE Vietnamese-like boat owner Ba Ban Nguyen, Vietnamese, like boat owner Ba Ban Nguyen, Vietnamese like boat owner Ba Ban Nguyen, NO CHANGE docks; they docks; however, they docks, yet, they NO CHANGE which whom OMIT the underlined portion

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48

Which of the following strategies would best support the assertion made in Paragraph 1, that the fishermen's survival was accomplished through unity and togetherness?
F G H

A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J

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Discussing routes of travel, because group dynamics is unimportant to the reader Discussing the history of communism, because dates make points clearer Discussing group members conferring with each other and coming to unanimous decisions, because examples clarify an issue Discussing irreconcilable disagreements and conflicts among group members that exemplify the fishermen's problems, because this issue is lacking in the passage NO CHANGE communism; they communism, they communism, and they NO CHANGE Vietnam, comes Vietnam came Vietnam, come NO CHANGE moved; this moved, this is moving, this

55

56

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A B C D F G H J A B C D

57

50

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Which of the suggested sentences make the best introduction to Paragraph 5 and the best transition from Paragraph 4?
A B C D

[1] For centuries people have needed to live in cities and towns to find jobs; yet have desired the greenery, the cleaner 61 air, and the opportunity to garden that are available only in rural or suburban fringe areas. [2] Living space has always been at a premium in cities and towns; there has been little green spaceand even less space for gardens. During the Middle Ages, when cities were walled for protection, houses and sheds were packed like 62 sardines within the city walls and because of little inner-wall 62 spaces, gardens flourished in front of city gates. [3] Similarly crowded conditions occurred several hundred years later if the industrial revolution forced rapid 63 city growth. Ground space was at a premium so that there 64 was, squeezed together side by side, houses and townhomes. 64 As conditions worsened, these dwellings were pushed into alleys and inner courtyards or forced upwardsinto fiveand six-story buildings with several apartments on each floor. [4] Many rooms have no outside light. Ventilation was 65 almost nonexistent. Added to this were other poor health conditions, including a general lack of sanitary facilities,

The Vietnamese fishermen are proud of their expertise. Americans' incomes are suffering. Still more problems exist. The market value of fishing is dropping.

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Which of the following sentences, if added to the end of Paragraph 5, would best relate Paragraph 5 to Paragraph 1 to tie together the passage as a whole?
F G H J

Now and then, signs pop up with slogans such as "Vietnamese Go Home." These all add up to even more problems for the wanderers from Vung Tau. The Vung Tau have traveled many miles to reach the United States. The journey through Southeast Asia was a harrowing one.

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inadequate heating, and meager and unwholesome foodall 66 of which were compounded by the terrible crowding as the 66 workers and their families swarmed into the cities. Lack of 67 air, lack of sunlight, and unsanitary, overcrowded conditions 67 were a way a way of life for most working people. [5] One of the measures provided to relieve people 69 living in such unhealthy conditions in England was a law in 69 1819 that provided for leasing land for small gardens to the poor and unemployed. Later other countries in Europe promulgated laws regarding provisions of small- garden areas for city people. [6] Gardens for working people, the poor, and the unemployed were provided as a health measure by citys 70 governments, philanthropists, and some factory owners. 70 Gardens also became a way to better help ensure stability by 71 providing a link to the countryside that the workers had left and a means of improving the quality of life. [7] By the mid-1800s the small-garden movement had appeared in most European countries, neither as an 72 independent effort to meet the local conditions or influenced by work in neighboring countries. The movement not only continued to grow into the early twentieth century. It thrived. 73

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A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D

NO CHANGE jobs yet jobs; yet, jobs; and, yet NO CHANGE snug as a bug in a rug packed like cats and dogs tightly packed together NO CHANGE years later, if years later when years later when, NO CHANGE there was squeezed there was, squeezing there were, squeezed NO CHANGE had will have didn't have NO CHANGE all compounded all being that they were all compounded NO CHANGE Lack of air, lack of sunlight, and lack of unsanitary and overcrowded conditions. Lack of air, sunlight, sanitation, and space Air, sunlight, sanitation and overcrowding

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Which of the following sentences would provide the best introduction to Paragraph 5 and the best transition from Paragraph 4?
F G H J

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If you were grouping essays for a book, under what chapter heading would this essay fall?
F G H J

As a result of space demands, Europe created a series of laws. These workers were often paid poorly. The lack of sunlight was caused by heavy fogs. In 1989, the Clean Air Act was implemented in the United States. NO CHANGE One of the measures which was provided to relieve the English living in such unhealthy living conditions in England One measure to alleviate unhealthy living conditions in England Measuring unhealthy living conditions in England NO CHANGE city governments governments citys' governments of the city's NO CHANGE to really help to help to perhaps help NO CHANGE countries, either countries; neither countries; nevertheless NO CHANGE century, it thrived. century; since it thrived. century and it thrived.

The Best Plants for Your Garden The Evolution of European City Gardens Architectural Design in Medieval England Methods of Keeping Gardens Pest Free

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A B

Suppose the writer wanted to support the assertion in Paragraph 5 that other European countries created laws to provide garden areas for city people. Which of the following strategies would best accomplish this goal?
A B C D

C D

Explaining why a garden is an important nutritional aspect for mankind Comparing England's overcrowding to Spain's Citing some specific examples of non-English European laws providing garden space Listing a variety of beautiful gardens to visit in London

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F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D

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You will have 60 minutes to complete this section

ACT Test 1 Section 2

3

Instructions for Math Questions Solve each problem, choose the correct answer, and then fill in the corresponding letter on your answer sheet. You are permitted to use a calculator. Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should be assumed. 1. Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale. 2. Geometric figures lie in a plane. 3. The word line indicates a straight line. 4. The word average indicates arithmetic mean.

If x-2 9 = 0, solve for x.

A 3 C B

1 3

1 3

D 3

1 3

If a and b are odd integers, which of the following must be an even integer? a+b I. 2 II. ab 1 ab + 1 III. 2
F I only H I and II only K I, II, and III only G II only J II and III only

Evaluate 2 {5 + (2 3) + [2 (3 4)]}
A 5 C -3 E 2 B -5 D 1

If x is an odd integer and y is even, then which of the following must be an even integer? I. 2x + 3y II. xy III. x + y 1
F I only H I and II only K I, II, and III G II only J II and III only

1 1 If b = , then b = 4 3
A C

1 4 13 4

3 4 4 D 3
B

E 12

13

If the cost of a box of 12 pens is $7.20 and a box of 16 pencils costs $4.00, what is the cost of 3 pens and 3 pencils?
F $1.30 H $2.65 K $9.20 G $2.55 J $3.50

10

If 2 x =1, then 3 + x = 3 4 9 4 7 H 4 3 K 4
F G 2 J 1

If

2 3 x = , then x = 7 3
A 6 C 9 E 16 B 7 D 14

11

If x = 3 and y = 2, then
A C E

1 1 2xy + = 2x 3y 3x + 2y
B D

7 5 9 5 12 5

8 5 11 5

What value must x take on in order for the following equation to be true: 7 8 = ? x+3 x+5
F 3 H 7 K 11 G 5 J 8

12

If

7 5 = , then x = x+6 x+4

F 11 H 5 K 11 G 7 J 7

Two statements, p and q, are defined as follows: p: a + b < c + d q: a < c, b < d Which of the following is true?
A p implies q. C q implies p B p and q imply each other. D q is the contrapositive of p.

13

If

3 = (7 a)g, then a = 4 g
A

3 4

C 5 E 17

16 3 25 D 4

E Neither q or p implies the other.

14

14

If 2x 5 = 3, then x =
F 2

1 or 3 2

G 2

1 or 4 2

19

The fraction compactly as

A C

b2a2 1 2 b 2b

may be expressed more

H 1 or 3 K 0 or 3

J 1 or 4

2a b b2

B D

b4 b ba a

15

Find all roots of the equation (x + 1)(x2 + 4x 5) = 0

A {1, 4, 5} C {5, 1, 1} E {1, 2, 3}
20

B {1, 2, 3} D {1, 4, 5}

ab -a 2b 4 E ba2 1 1 y x If xy 0, then 1 1 = 2 y x2
F H K

16

If f (x) = 3x + 5 and 3 < x < 5, then f (x) is between

F 10 and 16 H 14 and 20 K 18 and 24 G 12 and 18 J 16 and 22

xy x+y 1 x+y xy xy

G xy J

xy xy

17

Simplify 8x2 [7x (x2 x + 5y)] + (2x 3y).

A 9x2 6x + 2y C x2 + 2 E 0 B 8x2 x + 2y D 7x2 + 2 + 3y
21

The solution set of

A {8} C {4} E {16, 1}

7 = 1 is x2 + 8x + 23
B {8, 4} D {4, 4}

18

How many integers are in solution set of 2x 6 < 3?

F None H Two K Four G One J Three
22

If

a = 4, then what is a2 16b2? b

F 16 H 0 K 16 G 4 J 4

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2 2 2 If x y = 5 , then 25x 4y =
A 5 C 0 E 5 B 2 D 2
28

2x 8 x+1 3x2 12x x2 1

F

2 x2 2 (16 x) 3 x5 6x

24

If abc 0, then
F

33a3b6(cb)4

3b3a2

=
G

H K

2 G 3x 2 2(x 1) J 3x

11b a3

11 ab8c4

b3a H 11c4
K

1 J 11ab7c4

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If log2 + 2logx = log(4x 2), then x =

A 4 C 0 E 2 B 2 D 1

1 11a3b6c4
E (1 e L ) for t. R Rt

25

Solve the equation I =

A

30

If x2a = (2x)a and a = 1, then x =

F 0 H 1 K 3 G 2 J 2

E Rloge(1 RI ) t= Rlog e

B t = L loge 1 RI R E

)
31

C t = R loge RI + 1 L E E t = loge 1 + RI E
26

)D

t=

L RI loge R E

( )

)
G 4 J 1

The solution of
A x>2

2x + 1 > 0 is x2 4
B x>1 D x > 2 or 2 < x <

If 2(6x8) = 16, then x =

F 2 H 10 K 6

1 C x > 2 or x < 2 E x > 2 or x < 2

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1 2

What is the solution to the pair of equations x 3y = 1 ? 2x + y = 2

27

If f(x) = x + 1, g(x) = 2x 3 and an operation * is defined for all real numbers a and b by the equation a * b = 2a + b ab, then f(3) * g(4) =
A 9 C 1 E 5 B 7 D 0

F x = 1 and y = 0 H x = 3 and y = 1 K x = 0 and y = 2

G x = 2 and y = 0 J x = 0 and y = 1

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If

1 1 = and 2 < a < 5, then a 1 b

A

38

The coordinates of the vertices of a right triangle are (1, 3), (5, 3), and (1, 6). Find the slope of its hypotenuse.
F H

1 1 >b> 2 5

B 2>b> D

1 2

3 4

G J

5 3 1 4

C 5>b>2 E

1 1 >b> 5 2

1 > b > 2 2
39

4 3

K 2

34

The diagonal of a square has endpoints (3, 6) and (1, 2). What is its area?
F 10 H 16 K 40 G 13 J 32

If point P has coordinates (3, 6) and point Q has coordinates (15, 5), the coordinates of the midpoint of the line segment between the two points is
A

( (

1 9, 2

) )

B D

35

Line A passes through point P(6, 5) and makes a 45 angle with the x-axis. The equation of a perpendicular (to line A) line passing through point P is
A y = x 11 C y = x 1 E y = x 11 B y = x + 11 D y=x3
40

C (15, 3) E

1 15, 2

( ) ( )
1 18, 2 1 ,1 2

What is the distance between the line y = 4x + 9 and the point (10, 4)? 8 15 52 H 15 45 K 17
F G 8 J

36

At what point do the lines y = 7x and 3y = 4x + 7 intersect?

F (7, 17) H (0, 7) K G (17, 56) J

85 19

7 1 17 , 17

7 49 17 , 17

41

In which quadrants does the solution of the system lie? y < x + 3 y<x3

37

If y = 3x lies in Quadrants I and III, then y = | 3x | lies in Quadrants

A III and IV. C I and III. E I only. B I and II. D I, II, and III.

A III and IV C II and IV E II and III

B I, III and IV D I, and II

17

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In the system ax + by = 20 bx + ay = 16 the solution is x = 2 and y = 1. What are the coefficients a and b?

45

5 C c

{
a 9 b B 7
B 2 D

F H K
43

a=2 b=1 a=8 b=4 a=9 b=4

G J

a=8 b=7 a=7 b = 14

Circles A, B, and C are tangent to one another. Find the radius of circle A if AB = 7, AC = 5, and BC = 9.
A 1 C E

A circle whose center is at C(4, 1) passes through the point D(2, 2). Find the length of the radius.
A 3 C 5 E 10 B 7 D 13
46

7 2 3 2 D

11 2

44

E A B

A square is inscribe in a circle. The area of the circle is . What is the area of the square? 2 H 2 K 2
F G

ABCD is a parallelogram; AE = 7x 1, and EC = 5x + 5. Find AC.

F 40 H 30 K 10
47

G 20 J 25

3 2

J 2

A triangle has angles measuring x, y, and x + y. The triangle must be

A isosceles. C right. E obtuse. B scalene. D equilateral.

18

48

A square has a diagonal of length r. A second square has twice the area of the first square. What is the perimeter of the second square? H r2
K 4r F r2

52

The greatest area a rectangle whose perimeter is 52 m can have is

F 12 m2 H 172 m2 K 52 m2 G 169 m2 J 168 m2

G r 2 2
J 2r
53

The vertices of ABC are A(3,0), B(3,0), and C(0,2). Triangle ABC is therefore
A equilateral.. C scalene B isosceles. D right angular.

49

Two triangles are similar. The larger one is 4 times larger in area than the smaller one. Find the number by which the corresponding sides of the smaller triangle must be multiplied to equal the sides of the larger triangle. A 3
C 2

E Cannot be determined, due to insufficient information

54

B 2
D 4

E 5
50

s=6 s = 8 Corresponding sides of two similar polygons are 6 and 8, If the perimeter of the smaller is 27, find the perimeter of the larger.
F 29 H 48 K None of the above.
55

G 36 J 40

B In the accompanying figure of a circle centered about point O, the measure of arc AB is 5 radians. Find OBA.
F 36 H 90 K 17
51

B 50 A 30 y x C

G 144 J 72

The ratio of the areas of two circles is 25:16. What number, when multiplied by the smaller diameter, will give the larger diameter?
A

5 4

C 5 E 4

5 2 25 D 4

In the above figure, two chords of the circle intersect, making the angles shown. What is the value of x + y?
A 40 C 80 E 320 B 50 D 160

19

56

The set of points with the property that the distances from each point to two fixed points has constant difference is
F a circle H a hyperbola G an ellipse J a parabola

60

Which of the following is a sketch of y = |sin x| ? y 1

F

K a pair of parallel lines

57

0 1 y 1

2 3 2

For the triangle below, determine sin 2.

2 1 2

0 1

3 2

2 3
B 0 D

y 1
H

C 2 2 E 3 2
58

2 2

0 1 y 1

3 2 2

The product (sin )(cos )(tan )(sec )(cot ) is equivalent to

F sin H cot K csc G tan J cos J

0 1 y 1

3 2 2

59

Find the area of the triangle below.

h = 20 4 A 2 5 C 2 3 E 10 20 B 20 20 D 9 5

0 1

2 3 2

20

You will have 35 minutes to complete this section

ACT Test 1 Section 3

Mrs. Pin. Indeed I was aweary of the Play, but I hugeously the Actors; they are the goodliest, properst Men, Sister. Alith. O, but you must not like the Actors, Sister. Mrs. Pin. Ay, how should I help it, Sister? Pray, Sister, when my Husband come in, will you ask leave for (30) me to go a walking? Alith. A walking, hah, ha; Lord, a Country Gentlewomans leasure is the drudgery of a foot-post; and she requires as much airing as her Husbands Horses. [Aside]
(35)

Instructions for Reading-Comprehension Questions Read the passage. For each question, choose the letter on your answer sheet that corresponds to the best answer. PROSE FICTION: This passage is adapted from William Wycherleys The Country Wife ( 1999 by Research and Education Association). Mrs. Margery Pinchwife, and Alithea: Mr. Pinchwife peeping behind at the door. Mrs. Pin. Pray, Sister, where are the best Fields and Woods, to walk in London?
Line (5)

(25) likd

Enter Mr. Pinchwife to them. But here comes your Husband; Ill ask, though Im sure hell not grant it. Mrs. Pin. He says he wont let me go abroad, for fear of catching the Pox.

Alith. A pretty Question; why, Sister! Mulberry Garden and St. Jamess park; and for close walks the New Exchange.

Mrs. Pin. Pray, Sister, tell me why my Husband looks so grim here in Town? And keeps me up so close, (10) and will not let me go a walking, nor let me wear my best gown yesterday? Alith. Oh, hes jealous, Sister. Mrs. Pin. Jealous, whats that? Alith. Hes afraid you shoud love another Man.
(15)

(40)

Alith. Fye, the small Pox you shoud say. Mrs. Pin. Oh my dear, dear Bud, welcome home; why dost thou look so fropish? Who has nangerd thee? Mr. Pin. Youre a Fool.

(45)

Mrs. Pinch. Goes aside, & cryes. Alith. Faith, so she is, for crying for no fault, poor tender Creature!

Mrs. Pin. How shoud he be afraid of my loving another man, when he will let me see any but himself? Alith. Did he not carry you yesterday to a Play?

Mrs. Pin. Ay, but we sat amongst ugly People, he woud not let me come near the Gentry, who sate under (20) us, so that I coud not see em: he told me, none but naughty Women sate there, whom they tousd and mousd; but I would have venturd for all that. Alith. But how did you like the Play?
21

Mr. Pin. What, you woud have her as impudent as yourself, as errant a Jilflirt, a gadder, a Magpy, and to (50) say all a meer notorious Town-Woman? Alith. Brother, you are my only Censurer; and the honour of your Family shall sooner suffer in your Wife there, than in me, though I take the innocent liberty of the Town.

(55)

Mr. Pin. Hark you Mistriss; do not talk so before my Wife, the innocent liberty of the Town!

Alith. Why, pray, who boasts of any intrigue with me? What lampoon has made my name notorious? What ill Women frequent my Lodgings? I keep no Company (60) with any Women of scandalous reputations. Mr. Pin. No, you keep the Men of scandalous reputations Company. Alith. Where? Woud you not have me civil? Answer em in the Box at the Plays? In the drawing (65) room at Whitehall? In St. James Park? Mulberry garden? or Mr. Pin. Hold, hold, do not teach my Wife, where the Men are to be found; I believe shes the worse for your Town documents already; I bid you keep her in (70) ignorance as I do. Mrs. Pin. Indeed be not angry with her Bud, she will tell me nothing of the Town, though I ask her a thousand times a day.
(75) find?

Mr. Pin. Ay, my Dear, you must love me only, and not be like the naughty Town Women, who only hate (95) their Husbands, and love every Man else, love Plays, Visits, fine Coaches, fine Cloaths, Fiddles, Balls, Treates, and so lead a wicked Town-life. Mrs. Pin. Nay, if to enjoy all these things be a Town-life, London is not so bad a place, Dear.
(100)

Mr. Pin. How! If you love me, you must hate London. Alith. The Fool has forbid me discovering to her he pleasures of the Town, and he is now setting her a gog upon them himself.

(105)

Mrs. Pin. But, Husband, do the Town-women love the Player Men too? Mr. Pin. Yes, I warrant you. Mrs. Pin. Ay, I warrant you. Mr. Pin. Why, you do not, I hope?

Mr. Pin. Then you are very inquisitive to know, I

(110)

Mrs. Pin. No, no, Bud; but why have we no Player Men in the Country? Mr. Pin. HaMrs. Minx, ask me no more to go to a Play.

Mrs. Pin. Not I indeed, Dear, I hate London; our Placehouse in the Country is worth a thousand oft, woud I were there again.
(80) talking

Mr. Pin. So you shall I warrant; but were you not of Plays, and Players, when I came in? You are her encourager in such discourses. Mrs. Pin. No indeed, Dear, she chid me just now for liking the Player Men.

(115) going;

Mrs. Pin. Nay, why, Love? I did not care for but when you forbid me, you make me ast were desire it. [Aside] Alith. So twill be in other things, I warrant. Mrs. Pin. Pray, let me go to a Play, Dear.

Mr. Pin. Nay, if she be so innocent as to own to (85) me her liking them, there is not hurt[Aside] Come my poor Rogue, but thou likst none better than me? Mrs. Pin. Yes indeed, but I do, the Player Men are finer Folks.
(90)

(120)

Mr. Pin. Hold your peace, I wo not. Mrs. Pin. Why, Love? Mr. Pin. Why, Ill tell you. Alith. Nay, if he tell her, shell give him more cause to forbid her that place. [Aside]

Mr. Pin. But you love none better than me? Mrs. Pin. You are mine own Dear Bud, and I know you, I hate a stranger.

(125)

Mrs. Pin. Pray, why, Dear? Mr. Pin. First, you like the Actors, and the Galiants may like you.

22

Mrs. Pin. What, a homely Country Girl? No, Bud, no body will like me.
(130)

Because Alithea defends her honor so quickly, it can be inferred that

A B C D

Mr. Pin. I tell you, yes, they may. Mrs. Pin. No, no, you jestI wont believe you, I will go.

The character named Alithea is

A B C D

an actress in the play. the wife of Mr. Pinchwife. the sister-in-law of Mr. Pinchwife. a family friend of Mrs. Pinchwife.

she has actually been keeping company with men of dubious reputation. many wives suspect her of having an affair with their husbands. this is a conversation she has had many times with her brother. she is afraid her sister-in-law will get the wrong impression of her.

The humor in this conversation is created by which of the following? I. Alithea has already shown her sister-inlaw some of the pleasures of town life. II. The husband, while trying to explain what his wife should avoid, shows her what to look for. III. It is obvious the wife does not want to be kept ignorant by her husband.
F G H J

Mrs. Pinchwife said she yearned to go to the play because

F G H J

she wanted to add to her culture. she wanted to walk among the gentry. she wanted to accompany her husband. her husband would not allow her to go.

In its context, "why dost thou look so fropish" suggests that the husband
A B C D

enters the house in a bad mood. has heard the people gossip about his sister. wants nothing more than to be left alone. frequents bars and play-houses.
7

I only II only I and II only I, II, and III

It can be inferred from her lines that Mrs. Pinchwife is a(n)

F G H J

Mr. Pinchwife's first reaction to his wife's admission to liking the Player Men was an expression of
A B C D

totally arrogant snob. somewhat naive young woman. immoral, adulterous wife. victim of idle social gossip.
8

intense jealousy. mistrust of her morals. confirmation of her innocence. uncontrollable outrage.

Mr. Pinchwife's reference to his wife as a minx indicates that he considers her
F G H J

past her prime. an unattractive animal. pert and saucy. matronly and motherly.

23

Mr. Pinchwife does not want his wife to attend plays because he is afraid she will
A B C D

become used to spending too much of her time away from home. have an affair with one of the actors. spend more money than he can afford. catch him having an affair with one of the actresses.

10

What conditions did Mr. Pinchwife set for loving his wife? I. II. Dislike the country Dislike London

objects of nature, or affecting in the events of human life. But to the men I speak of there is nothing (15) interesting, nothing heroical, but themselves. To them the fall of gods or of great men is the same. They do not enter into the feeling. They cannot understand the terms. They are even debarred from the last poor, paltry consolation of an unmanly triumph over fallen greatness; (20) for their minds reject, with a convulsive effort and intolerable loathing, the very idea that there ever was, or was thought to be, anything superior to themselves. All that has ever excited the attention or admiration of the world, they look upon with the most perfect indifference; (25) and they are surprised to find that the world repays their indifference with scorn. With what measure they mete, it has been meted to them again. Shakespeares imagination is of the same plastic kind as his conception of character or passion. It (30) glances from heaven to earth, from earth to heaven. Its movement is rapid and devious. It unites the most opposite extremes; or, as Puck says, in boasting of his own feats, puts a girdle round about the earth in forty minutes. He seems always hurrying from his subject, (35) even while describing it; but the stroke, like the lightnings is sure as it is sudden. He takes the widest possible range, but from that very range he has his choice of the greatest variety and aptitude of materials. He brings together images the most alike, but placed at (40) the greatest distance from each other; that is, found in circumstances of the greatest dissimilitude. From the remoteness of his combinations, and the celerity with which they are affected, they coalesce the more indissolubly together. The more the thoughts are strangers to each other, and the longer they have been kept asunder, the more intimate does their union become. Their felicity is equal to their force. Their likeness is made more dazzling by their novelty. They startle, and take the (50) fancy prisoner in the same instant. I will mention one which is very striking, and not much known out of Troilus and Cressida. Aeneas says to Agamemnon:
(45)

III. Love him IV. Love none better

F G H J

I and II only II and III only I, II, and III II, III, and IV

Instructions for Reading-Comprehension Questions Read the passage. For each question, choose the letter on your answer sheet that corresponds to the best answer. HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from William Hazlitts On Shakespeare and Milton ( 1999 by Research and Education Association). The great fault of a modern school of poetry is that it is an experiment to reduce poetry to a mere effusion of natural sensibility; or, what is worse, to Line divest it both of imaginary splendour and human (5) passion, to surround the meanest objects with the morbid feelings and devouring egotism of the writers own minds. Shakespeare did not so understand poetry. He did not do interpretation both to nature and art. He did not do all he could to get rid of the one and the other, to fill (10) up the dreary void with the Mood of his own Mind. He owes his power over the human mind to his having had a deeper sense than others of what was grand in the
24

(55)

I ask that I might waken reverence, And bid the cheek be ready with a blush Modest as morning, when she coldly eyes The youthful Phoebus.

Shakespeares language and versification are like the rest of him. He has a magic power over words; they come winged at his bidding, and seem to know their (60) places. They are struck out at a heat on the spur of the occasion, and have all the truth and vividness, which

arise from an actual impression of the objects. His epithets and single phrases are like sparkles, thrown off from an imagination fired by the whirling rapidity of its (65) own motion. His language is hieroglyphical. It translates thoughts into visible images. It abounds in sudden transitions and elliptical expressions. This is the power of Shakespeare, and it goes unequalled in the modern age.
11

14

The passage suggests that Classical Tragedy would not be of interest to the modern school because they
F G H J

The primary distinction made in the first paragraph is one between

A B C D

do not see any difference between the fall of the gods or of great men. hate anything that holds the admiration of the world. cannot deal with the criticism the world has for them. feel compelled to substitute their own dreary world for the real thing.

the poetry of the senses and the poetry of imagination. the modern school of poetry and that of Shakepeare. the poetry of egotism and the poetry of sensibility. the modern school of poetry and the poetry of human mood.

15

The author brings closure to his first paragraph by

A B

12

The critic cited here seems particularly upset by what he terms the modernist's
F G H J

C D

morbid feelings. egotism. human passion. intolerable loathing.

stating that the modernists are as surprised at their reception as he is at their views. implying that the rest of the world is as indifferent to the modernists as the modernists are to the idea of something being superior than themselves. implying that the rest of the world scorns the modernists as much as he does. stating that there is nothing "heroical" in the modernist position.

16

The girdle round about the earth (line 34) is best understood as
F G H J

13

In context, the sentence "He did not do interpretation both to nature and art" (lines 8-9) suggests which of the following?
A B C D

Shakespeare did not espouse the political conservatism of the modernists. Shakespeare was tolerant in matters concerning nature and art. Shakespeare did not understand poetry in the same way as the modernists. The modern age is one of egotism.

Shakespeare's universal appeal. Shakespeare's ability to discuss all topics. Shakespeare's capacity to bring together extremes. Shakespeare's ability to communicate quickly using appropriate symbols.

17

The critic suggests light criticism of Shakespeare for his

A B C D

almost "plastic" conception of character. need to bring dissimilar images together. deviousness in character portrayal. hurrying from one subject to another.

25

18

At the end of the second paragraph, the critic distinguishes between similar images and
F G H J

dissimiliar meanings. indissoluble materials. dissimilar ranges. dissimilar circumstances.

makes, the more potential there is for showing that the world does not, in fact, behave in the way laid down by that theory. A very good theory is one that makes very wide-ranging claims about the world, and which is, consequently, highly falsifiable. This is a (10) theory that resists falsification whenever it is put to the test. This point can be illustrated by means of a trivial example. Consider the two laws:
(15)

(5) theory

19

The author can best be described as being

A B C D

highly critical of Shakespeare and his works. somewhat disconcerted by the works of Shakespeare still being in prominence today. one who recognizes Shakepeare's continued greatness. highly antagonistic toward Shakepeare's hieroglyphical writing.

(a) Mars moves in an ellipse around the Sun. (b) All planets move in ellipses around their Sun.

20

According to the author, Shakepeare can best be described as I. comprehending poetry and its forms. II. able to interpret for others the art of poetry and the natural world about him. III. preoccupied with mood and feeling. IV. adept at recognizing both significant events and majesty in nature.
F G H J

It is clear that (b) has higher status than (a) as a piece of scientific knowledge. Law (b) tells us what law (a) tells us and more. Law (b), the preferable law, is (20) more falsifiable than (a). If observations of Mar should turn out to falsify (a), then they would falsify (b) also. Any falsification of (a) will be a falsification of (b), but the reverse is not that case. Observation statements referring to the orbits of Venus, Jupiter, etc. that might (25) conceivably falsify (b) are irrelevant to (a). If we follow Popper and refer to those sets of observation statements that would serve to falsify a law or theory as potential falsifiers of that law or theory, then we can say that the potential falsifiers of (a) form a class that is a subclass of (30) the potential falsifiers of (b). Law (b) is more falsifiable than law (a), which is tantamount to saying that it claims more, that it is the better law. A less-contrived example involves the relation between Keplers theory of the solar system and (35) Newtons theory of the solar system. Keplers theory consists of three laws of planetary motion. Potential falsifiers of this theory consist of sets of statements referring to planetary positions, relative to the Sun, at specified times. Newtons theory, a better theory that (40) supersedes Keplers, is more comprehensive. It consists of Newtons law of motion, plus his law of gravitation, with the latter asserting that all pairs of bodies in the universe attract each other with a force that varies inversely as the square of their separation. Some of the (45) potential falsifiers of Newtons theory are sets of statements of planetary positions at specified times, but there are many others. These include those referring to the behavior of falling bodies and pendulums, the correlation between the tides and the locations of the Sun (50) and the Moon, and so on. There are many more opportunities to falsify Newtons theory than there are to falsify Keplers theory. As the falsificationists theory goes, Newtons theory is able to resist falsification
26

I and II only II and III only I, II, and III IV only

Instructions for Reading-Comprehension Questions Read the passage. For each question, choose the letter on your answer sheet that corresponds to the best answer. NATURAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from A. F. Chalmers What Is This Thing Called Science? ( 1999 by Research and Education Association). A good scientific law or theory is falsifiable simply because it makes definite claims about the world. For the falsificationist, it follows readily that the more Line falsifiable the theory, the better. The more claims a

(55) Keplers

attempts, thereby establishing its superiority over theory.

24

Highly falsifiable theories should be preferred over less falsifiable ones, provided they have not, in fact, been falsified. This qualification is important to the falsificationist. Theories that have been falsified must be (60) ruthlessly rejected. The enterprise of science consists in the proposal of highly falsifiable hypotheses, followed by deliberate and tenacious attempts to falsify them. We learn from our mistakes. Science progresses by trial and error. Falsifications become (65) important landmarks, striking achievements, and major growing-points in science because of this logical process. This renders impossible the derivation of universal laws and theories from observations, but makes possible the deduction of their falsity.
21 25

Based on the passage, it can be reasonably inferred that a bad scientific theory does which of the following?
F G H J

Limits the advances of scientific knowledge Fails to make definite claims about the world Has been falsified Inaccurately describes planetary motion

According to the author, Newton's theory is superior to Keplar's because of which of the following?
A B C D

According to the author, the most important advances in science occur by

A B C D

Kepler's theory was proven false. Kepler's theory inaccurately describes the motion of Mars. Newton's theory makes broader claims than Kepler's. Newton's theory makes specific claims.

proposing highly falsifiable theories. falsifying existing theories. finding general theories of motion. identifying theories of planetary motion.

26

According to the author, one scientific theory is considered better than another if it does which of the following?
F G H J

22

The author's example in paragraph two is intended to

F G H J

inform the reader of the shape of Mars' orbit. describe how all planets move about the Sun. show how a theory can be falsified. illustrate how a theory can be more falsifiable.

Makes more claims about the world Has been falsified Is limited to descriptions of planetary motion Contains a subset of Newton's theory

27

23

Based on the passage, which of the following is a potential falsifier?

A B C D

An observation statement that falsifies an existing theory A description of a general theory A statement describing a narrowly defined theory A statement describing the shape of Mars' orbit

Based on the passage, which of the following would a falsificationist consider necessary for a very good scientific theory? I. A theory making wide-range claims about the world II. A theory that resists falsification III. A theory containing false claims
A B C D

I only I and II I and III II and III

27

28

The author's suggestion that we learn from our mistakes refers to

F G H J

Instructions for Reading-Comprehension Questions Read the passage. For each question, choose the letter on your answer sheet that corresponds to the best answer. SOCIAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from William Ridgeways The Dramas and Dramatic Dances of Non-European Races ( 1999 by Research and Education Association). Mr. E. W. Hawkes has lately published a valuable account of the ceremonies of the two Eskimo tribes, of the Unaligmiut and Unalaklit on the Isle of St. Line Michael, at the mouth of the Yukon River. In the months (5) of November and December are held local rites, termed the Aiyaguk or Asking festival, and the Teauiyuk (Bladder feast), the last of which is to placate the spirits of animals already slain. But still more important is the Aithukaguk or Inviting-In feast, for it is an (10) appeal to the spirits represented by the masksthe totemic guardiansfor future success in hunting. In the Eskimo ritual this festival is only equalled in importance by the Great Feast of the Dead: One supplies the material wants of the living, the other the spiritual needs (15) of the dead. In St. Michael the Inviting-In feast has lost much of its religious character and is now maintained chiefly for its social utility and as offering an opportunity for trade between two friendly tribes. An old chief remarked that they did not dance for pleasure (20) alone, but to attract the game so that their families might be fed. If they did not dance, the spirits (inua) who attended the feast would be angry and the animals would stay away. The shades of their ancestors would go hungry since there would be no one to feed them, and (25) their own names would be forgotten if no namesake could sing their praises in the dance. There was nothing bad about their dances, which made their hearts good towards each other and tribe friendly with tribe. Dances and Songs. When a feast is arranged, the gather nightly in the Kazgi, the communal house where tribal meetings are held, to rehearse the songs, which are taught to them by an old man, whom they requite with gifts. The people sit in darkness, in order that any spirit which may be attracted by the songs may (35) not be frightened away by the lamps. The chorus usually consists of six men, led by the old man, who calls out the words a line ahead. The women and children can join in after the song is started. Both sexes have dances of their own, but occasionally dance together, the woman being
(30) people 28

the way habits are formed. learning to propose broader theories. the preference for highly falsifiable theories. the trial and error nature of scientific progress.

29

Based on the passage, which of the following is the most falsifiable theory?
A B C D

Judges make decisions based on a small number of environmental cues. Supreme Court justices make decisions based on a small number of environmental cues. Appellate judges make decisions based on a small number of environmental cues. People make decisions based on a small number of environmental cues.

30

According to the passage, which of the following would not be considered a potential falsifier of Kepler's theory?
F G

An observation that Mars was not in the correct place at a given time An observation that neither Mars nor Venus were in the predicted places at a specified time An observation that there was no correlation between the tides and the positions of the Sun and Moon An observation that none of the planets in the Solar System conformed to their predicted positions at any point in time

(40) in

the centre, the men dancing round her. There are intertribal competitions, like the nith contests of the Greenland Eskimo, each tribe putting forth its best actors.

31

The most important festival(s) for the Eskimo tribe is (are)

A B C D

On the first day there were Comic dances, and (45) the tribe won whose performers made the other laugh. On the second day there were Group dances, and on the third day the Totemic dances. In these last the actors went through the same motions as the ordinary dancers, but fitted their movements to the character presented, (50) and the Eskimo believe that these performers are possessed by the spirits of the animals which they representanother instance of our doctrine that the actor was originally a medium. These pantomimes began by a performance in which women appropriately costumed (55) went through the household occupations, such as the curing of skins and the making of garments. Next a Unalaklit man wearing an elaborate walrus mask enacted the life of that animal, its chase, and death. Two young men with appropriate masks and fittings next gave the (60) Red Fox dance, which in turn was followed by the White Fox dance, representing the stalking of a ptarmigan by that beast. Finally, came the famous Raven dance. The dancer came in cawing like that bird, wearing a Raven mask with an immense beak, bordered with fur and (65) feathers. Presently he disappeared and returned dragging a bashful woman similarly attired. They danced for a short time together, the Raven continuing his amatory capers until apparently tired of her, he again disappeared into the crowd, and returned with another bride, (70) evidently younger. The three danced for some time. Then he returned to his first love, who angrily repulsed him as he tried to embrace her, which greatly pleased the audience. This concluded the dance proper. The shaman now donned an inua (mask), and kept running round the (75) entrance with ever-lessening circles, until he collapsed in a trance, while he was communing with the spirit guests, in the fireplace below the Kazgi, as the Eskimo believe. After a time he revived and told the hunters that the inua had been pleased with the dances and promised (80) a successful hunting season. When appropriate offerings of meat, drink, and tobacco had been made to them through the chinks in the floor, the celebrations ended. After the feast is over, the masks used in the dances are burned by the shaman.

the Great Feast of the Dead. the "Inviting-In" feast. the Great Feast of the Dead and the "InvitingIn" feast. the "Bladder feast" and the "Asking" festival.

32

The Inviting-In feast in St. Michael

F G H J

is still an appeal to the spirits represented by the masks for future success in hunting. maintains much of its religious character. is an opportunity for trade between two friendly tribes. has lost most of its social utility.

33

The narrator seems to be

A B C D

indifferent to the tribes described. concerned about depicting the history of the observances. presenting the information from both a historical and a current point of view. dismissive about superstitous beliefs and concerned only about presenting the factual information.

34

The narrator seems to be primarily concerned with the Eskimo tribes from
F G H

a sociological perspective. the standpoint of a religious investigator perhaps a missionary. a biological perspective, since so much attention is given to the rites associated with sex, death, and animals. the standpoint of one concerned with the fine arts, since so much attention is given to the songs, costumes, and dances.

29

35

The word shaman probably means

A B C D

40

The feasts can best be described as: I. completely serious occasions II. occasions in which everyone is equal in importance III. spontaneous affairs without rehearsals IV. occasions which involve some symbolism
F G H J

one who is unable to commute with the spirit guests. a woman who would be given the lowly task of burning the used masks. an honored member of the tribe; a respected elder. a man who has shaved for the first time and is a very quiet, unknown member of the tribe who has no part in the ceremonies.

36

I and IV only I and II only III only IV only

The writer does not make use of

F G H J

descriptions. interviews. statistical research. a secondary source.

37

To make an offering to the spirits, meat, drink, and tobacco

A B C D

are burned by the shaman. are not considered a necessary part of the ritual. are left upon an ice floe. are dropped through the chinks in the floor.

38

The writer can be best described as

F G H J

non-judgmental. judgmental in some respects. objective. reporting from a first-person point of view.

39

The Kazgi for the tribes might be best compared with

A B C D

a church in American society. a medical emergency room. a magistrate in our society. a town hall.

30

You will have 35 minutes to complete this section

ACT Test 1 Section 4

Instructions for Science Reasoning Questions Read the passage. For each question, fill in the letter on your answer sheet that corresponds to the best answer. You are not permitted to use a calculator. Humidity is the term used to describe the amount of moisture content in the air. There aer several methods of expressing humidity. Absolute humidity (g/m3) (the density of water in the atmosphere) is defined as the mass of water vapor per volume of air. However, relative humidity (%) is the most common method of expressing moisture in the atmosphere. It is the ratio of water vapor in the air compared to the amount the air can hold at a specific temperature (F) and pressure. Experiment 1 Weather observations were taken in five areas across the country (Table 1). The temperature, relative humidity, and absolute humidity were measured. Table 1 78 80 Oak Creek

Ft. Collins 86 90 Denver

82 Grand Junction 84

88

84 Cortex 86 Colorado Figure 1 Pueblo isotherms F

Table 2 Temp. F 10 104 90 102 87 100 85 98 96 94 92 90 88 86 84 82 80 78 76 82 79 77 75 73 70 68 66 63 62

Relative Humidty %
20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

98 106 112 120 95 102 108 115 123 92 90 87 84 82 79 76 73 71 68 66 63 60 99 105 111 118 96 101 107 114 93 90 87 84 81 78 76 73 70 67 63 98 103 110 116 95 100 105 111 91 88 85 82 79 76 73 70 67 96 101 106 112 93 98 86 83 80 77 74 70 97 102 108 93 90 86 83 80 76 73 98 102 108 94 90 86 83 79 76 98 103 94 90 86 82 79 98 103 93 90 85 82 97 93 89 85

Location
Phoenix, AZ Newark, NJ Orlando, FL Nome, AK San Diego, CA Experiment 2

Temp. F
110 65 76 24 45

Relative Absolute Humidity Humidity

22 85 94 90 54 17 7 16 2 4

At higher temperatures, the atmosphere can hold larger amounts of water, making it feel warmer than the actual temperature. The Humiture Index (Table 2) combines the temperature and humidity to determine an apparent temperature. Actual temperatures were measured across Colorado and are plotted as isotherms (equal lines of temperature) on the map in Figure 1.
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Which location in Table 1 has the greatest amount of water vapor in the atmosphere?
A B C D

Based on the passage, what would happen to the relative humidity if the temperature increased and the amount of water vapor in the air remained constant?
A B C D

Phoenix, AZ San Diego, CA Orlando, FL Nome, AK

At which two locations would the poorest rate of evaporation occur?

F G H J

The relative humidity would decrease and the absolute humidity would remain constant. The absolute humidity would decrease and the relative humidity would remain constant. Both would remain constant. Both would increase.

Phoenix and Orlando Nome and San Diego Nome and Orlando Newark and San Diego

At which place would the highest amount of water vapor most likely be located?
F G H J

Determine the Humiture index for Denver, Colorado and Cortez, Colorado using the following humidity data: Location Denver, Colorado Cortez, Colorado
A B C D

On a cool beach in autumn In a blizzard In an office building On a hot, humid lakeshore in the summer

Relative Humidity 40 80

40 and 80 90 and 86 88 and 98 108 and 82

Based on the passage, what conclusion could be made about the effect of temperature on the humidity?
F G H J

The temperature does not affect the humidity. The temperature affects only the relative humidity. The temperature affects only the absolute humidity. The temperature affects both the absolute and relative humidity.

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The HIV virus contains RNA inside of a protein coat (or shell). The protein coat is used to carry the virus from cell to cell and to infect cells. Part of the protein coat, the docking region, functions solely to recognize the appropriate receptor, bind to the receptor, and then inject the RNA into the cell. The RNA then incorporates itself into the cells replication process and alters the process to make multiple copies of itself. The viral RNA also programs the cell to produce multiple copies of the protein coat. The new viruses then infect other cells. This virus is also known to change its protein coat, thus several strains of the virus can exist. A chemist is purifying a new protein which may prevent the binding of the AIDS virus to its receptor, the CD3 receptor on T cells. This new molecule is thought to be released by the cell into the extracellular fluid. The molecule must then pass through the cell membrane before it is excreted. Once in the extracellular fluid, the molecule is hypothesized to bind to the protein coat of the HIV virus such that the virus cannot bind to the CD3 receptor. Thus the virus cannot infect the T cell. This new molecule was purified and evaluated in the following series of experiments. Experiment 1 Since the molecule was believed to be excreted, cell media was collected and concentrated. Then, cultured T cells were grown with the HIV virus and different amounts, 50, 100, 500, and 1,000 ul, of the concentrated media. From this it was determined that the HIV infection was prevented when 500 ul and 1,000 ul of concentrated media was added. Experiment 2 Cell media was then separated by column chromatography and the fractions were assayed. Five fractions containing large amounts of protein and two fractions containing no protein were used. Two of the protein fractions prevented HIV infection. The two nonprotein fractions had no effect on the HIV virus. Gel electrophoresis showed the protein fractions to have molecular weights of 23 and 46 kiloDaltons (kD). Experiment 3 The two fractions were further purified and binding assay was performed. It was determined that the 46 kD protein binds in a 1:1 ratio with the HIV virus and the 23 kD protein binds in a 2:1 ratio.

Why was the protein initially purified from the cell media?
A B C

D
8

It was membrane bound and portions of the membrane were left in the media. The cell excreted the protein into the media. The protein was inactive inside the cell but became activated after excretion into the media. The media was the easiest fraction to purify.

What was the motivation for experiment 1?

F G H J

To determine if HIV virus was in the media To determine if T cells could be infected with rhinovirus To determine if the protein excreted in the media could prevent HIV infection To determine the concentration of the protein in the media

Why were different volumes of concentrated media used in Experiment 1?

A B C D

To approximate the effectiveness of the concentrate. To determine the amount of HIV virus. To determine the number of cells needed for HIV infection. To determine the protein concentration of the media.

10

Why did the scientist separate the cell media into different fractions and assay the fractions individually?
F G H J

Small amounts of cell media were needed to prevent HIV infection. Chromatography increased the effectiveness of the molecule. Only molecules of specific molecular weights could be assayed. Isolation of the exact molecule for the cell media allowed it to be identified and studied individually.

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11

Which conclusion can be drawn from Experiment 3?

A

B C

The 46 kD molecules may contain two subunit molecules of 23 kD each which bind to HIV. Non-protein molecules are as effective as the 46kD molecules in preventing HIV infection. Binding assays are not effective in determining the ratios of proteins needed to prevent HIV infection. Gel electrophoresis can be used to separate protein fractions.

Experiment 2 The solvent in which the reaction is performed was changed. Now the reaction was done in a combination of acetic acid and acetone with the nickel catalyst. The yield increased to 7.5 mg of polyacetal for every 25 mg of monomer. The distribution of polymer sizes was the same as with the nickel catalyst and the acid solvent. Experiment 3 The catalyst was then changed to a cadmium sheet. The reaction was still in the acetic acid and acetone solvent. The results were 5.0 mg of product for every 25 mg of monomer used. However of the 5.0 mg, 80% had lengths of 10 or greater, and the remaining 20% had lengths of 8 or more. The remaining 20 mg contained mostly trimers.
13

12

The motivation for Experiment 2 was

F G H J

to determine whether column chromatography had any effect on the HIV virus. to determine whether fractionalizing the virus was effective in killing it. to isolate and separate protein fractions based on size in order to characterize them. to compare the effectiveness of gel electrophoresis with column chromatography.

What is the order of experimental conditions of solvent and catalyst which gives the highest to lowest yields of product?
A B

A chemist is investigating the possible use of catalysts to increase the rate of a reaction. A polymerization reaction is used to make a polyacetal compound which is used in medical prosthetics. Currently, the reaction is done in a solution with an acid solvent. But the reaction is very slow and the product output is low. About 1 mg of polyacetal is produced from every 25 mg of acetal monomer. The remaining 24 mg contain unreacted monomers, dimers (two acetal monomers linked together, and trimers. The desired chain length for the polyacetal is at least 7 monomers linked together. A chain length of 10 is most desired. The current reaction produces 10% of the 10 length, 15% of 8 length, and 60% of 7 units. Experiment 1 The reaction is performed in the presence of a solid nickel catalyst. The polymer is then separated from the nickel beads, and the distribution of chain lengths of monomers is tested. For every 25 mg of monomer used, 2.5 mg of polyacetal, with chain lengths greater than 7, is produced. The chain distribution is 20% greater than 10, 25% of 9 lengths, 20% of 8 lengths, and 3% of 7 lengths. The remaining 20 mg of monomers have either been converted to dimmers, trimers, or unreacted monomers.

Acid > acid solvent + nickel > acid/acetone solvent + nickel > acid/acetone + cadmium Acid solvent + nickel > acetone/acid solvent + nickel > acid solvent > acid/acetone solvent + cadmium Acid/acetone solvent + cadmium > acid/acetone solvent + nickel > acid solvent + nickel > acid solvent Acid/acetone solvent + nickel > acid/ acetone solvent + cadmium > acid solvent + nickel > acid solvent

14

Which conditions produced the highest number of polymers of length 10 or greater?

F G H J

Acid solvent Acid solvent + nickel Acid/acetone solvent + nickel Acid/acetone solvent + cadmium

15

In comparison to the other yields, what yield would you predict under the condition of acid solvent + cadmium?
A B C D

Between 2.5 mg and 5.0 mg Between 1 mg and 2.5 mg Between 5.0 mg and 7.5 mg Greater than 7.5 mg

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16

The surface area of the nickel beads was 10 times greater than the surface area of the cadmium sheet. If the surface area of the catalyst was found to be important in determining the reaction rate and product outcome, then what statement is most likely to be true?
F G H J

Cosmology is the study of the structure of the universe as the whole system of matter and energy in existence everywhere. There are two main theories in modern cosmology: Theory 1: The Big Bang Based on the observation that galaxies are receding away from each other, this theory states that there was a time when all of matter in the universe was close together. At the beginning, the universe was extremely hot and very dense, from which it began to rapidly expand. Expansion from this configuration is known as the Big Bang and seeks to explain the universe as we now see it. Recent evidence suggests that this event occurred around 14 6 billion years ago. This theory predicts a certain abundance of light chemical elements such as deuterium (heavy hydrogen) and helium. It also predicts the existence of the microwave background radiation observed in 1965, which is a relic of the initial expansion. Most astronomers accept the Big Bang theory as the best available cosmological model of the universe. Theory 2: The Steady State In this theory, the large scale structure of the universe looks the same not only in each region of space, but also in different eras of time. Thus, in the Steady State cosmology there is no Big Bang, no beginning, and the universe has looked about the same forever. According to this theory, new galaxies must constantly be forming in spaces vacated as older galaxies recede, and this necessities continuous creation of matter. Some scientists see this theory as a violation of the concept of conservation of mass, but defenders of the theory argue that it is hardly more outrageous than imagining all the mass of the whole universe appearing at once, as in the Big Bang theory. A major argument against the Steady State theory, however, is it fails to predict the observed microwave background radiations.
19

Using cadmium beads would increase the productions of polyacetal. Using a nickel sheet would increase the production of polyacetal. Using cadmium beads would decrease the production of polyacetal. Using a zinc sheet would decrease the production of polyacetal.

17

Compare the effects of the overall use of the catalyst and solvent changes on the production of polyacetal polymers.
A B C D

The solvent change increased production, but the catalyst decreased it. The solvent change decreased production, but the catalyst increased it. The solvent change increased production, and so did the catalyst. The solvent change and catalyst both decreased production.

18

The largest polymer chain lengths for the polyacetal were produced by
F G H J

using the acid solvent alone. using a combination of acetic acid and acetone with the nickel catalyst. using a combination of acetic acid and acetone with the cadmium sheet catalyst. using a combination of the acid solvent and the nickel catalyst.

It can be inferred from the passage that cosmology is

A B C D

the study of the universe's origin. a study of the structure of the universe as a single, orderly system. the Big Bang theory. the Steady State theory.

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20

The Big Bang cosmology can be distinguished from the Steady State cosmology by the phrase:
F G H J

25

According to the Steady State theory, the universe

A B C D

"a static, non-evolving universe" "continuous creation of matter" "the galaxies receding from each other" "the universe expanding from an extremely hot and very dense state"

began in a non-violent manner. has existed forever. will end in a Big Bang. None of the above

21

The Steady State cosmology essentially says

A B C D

the universe is the same at all times. there should be microwave background radiation. galaxies are receding away from each other. the universe began with a rapid expansion.

22

It is reported that quasars (distant bright galaxies known as quasi-stellar objects) are more numerous at great distances (hence, earlier times). This observation
F G H J

supports the Steady State theory. supports the idea of an initial explosion 14 billion years ago. supports the observation of the cosmic microwave background radiation. contradicts the predictions of the Steady State theory.

23

According to the Big Bang theory, the age of the Universe is at least
A B C D

14 billion years. 8 billion years. 20 billion years. 6 billion years.

24

It can be inferred from the passage that most astronomers would

F G H J

support both theories. disapprove of the Big Bang theory. approve of the Steady State theory. agree with the Big Bang theory and disagree with the Steady State theory.

36

We are investigating the pressure vs temperature behavior of new materials for underwater applications. Below is a phase diagram obtained through measurements of the pressure vs. the temperature.
700 600 Pressure in atm 500 400 300 200

26

Which letter on the phase diagram indicates the pressure and temperature where the material exists in all three phases simultaneously?
F G H J

H F A C G
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Point F Point G Point E Point H

Based on Table 1 and the phase diagram, which sequence shows the relationship of the densities among solids, liquids, and gases?
A B C D

B
100

E D
28

Solids > liquids > gases Liquids > solids > gases Gases > liquids > solids Depends on the pressure and temperature of the phase

10 0

20 0

30 0

40 0

50 0

Temperature in Kelvin

60 0

How would a chemist adjust the temperature and pressure in order to liquefy the material at point D?
F G H J

Figure 1
To assist in interpreting the phase diagram, the densities of certain points are recorded in Table 1. This material was shown to exist in two solid phases, one which was more stable than the other. The solid present at 100 K and 100 atm was soft and ductile; the other solid phase was hard and brittle.

At constant pressure, decrease the temperature Increase the pressure while increasing the temperature Decrease the pressure while decreasing the temperature Increase the pressure at constant temperature

Table 1
Point A C H E Density, g/L 10.00 2.00 0.05 1.00

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At which combination of temperature and pressure will the material being studied exist in two phases at the same time?
A B C D

T = 50 K, P = 100 atm T = 600 K, P > 600 atm T = 200 K, P = 550 atm T = 150 K, P = 150 atm

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30

At which point, A or B, is the material in a more stable phase?

F G H J

Concentration

Point A is more stable because it is a solid. Point B is more stable because it is soft. Point A is more stable because it exists at a higher pressure. The stabilities cannot be compared based on the information given.

more difficult because the cohesive bonds formed between the lipid molecules of the membrane must be broken before the molecule can leave the membrane. The passage of lipophillic molecules from one aqueous phase occurs only if the molecules have appropriate energy activation to overcome the lipid barrier. Membrane

Propanol Extracellular Fluid Intracellular Fluid Glycerol

Cell membranes regulate materials passing into and out of the cell. They consist of a lipid bilayer containing associated integral peripheral proteins. Lipid-soluble substances can pass through the membrane by dissolving in the membrane lipids. Although the inner portion of the lipid bilayer is hydrophobic, water and watersoluble materials are able to cross the membrane and enter the cell. One mechanism by which such hydrophillic substances cross the membrane is though aqueous pores within the membrane. For a given group of homologus compounds, rates of membrane penetration are inversely related to molecular size, suggesting that the size of a pore must be at least as large as the molecule passing through it.

Direction of Flow Across Membrane

Figure 1
31

From the data given in Table 1, the energy of activation (H) of the substances
A B

Table 1
Permeant Glycerol Ethylene glycol Diethylene glycol Triethylene glycol 1,2, - Propandiol 1,3, - Propandiol Propanol Thiourea H (kcal/mole) 24 18.5 18.5 20.5 19.5 19 4.5 13.5 Nuumber of Hydrogen Bonds 6 4 4 4 4 4 2 4 32

C D

increases as the number of hydrogen bonds increases. decreases as the number of hydrogen bonds increases. is independent of the number of hydrogen bonds. cannot be determined from this data.

Refer to Figure 1, which illustrates the concentration of substances on either side of a lipid membrane separating two aqueous compartments. Which of the following statements explains why propanol has a higher concentration than glycerol across the cell membrane?
F G

Movement of molecules across cell membranes occuring n response to a concentration gradient is termed "passive transport" and implies that the membrane does not expend any energy. "Passive transport" is misleading. A molecule with high lipid solubility easily enters a cell membrane from the aqueous extracellular space. However, transport of the molecule from the membrane into the aqueous cytoplasm is

H J

Propanol is lipid-insoluble and crosses the membrane via aqueous channels. Glycerol is lipid-soluble and remains solubilized within the membrane rather than entering the aqueous phase. Choices F and G are both true. Neither choice F nor choice G is true.

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33

Refer to Table 1 and Figure 1. Assume that the concentrations of propanol and 1, 3-propandiol are equal in the left compartment (extracellular fluid). Compared to propanol, the concentration of 1, 3propandiol in the right compartment (intracellular fluid) would be
A B C D

higher. lower. the same. cannot be determined

25
m

34

Compared to water-soluble substances, such as glycerol and ethylene glycol, penetration of ethers, ketones, and aldehydes across lipid membranes
F G H J

30

Figure 1 Table 1
Mass of block (kg) 10 Distance (m) 5 10 12 17 20 25 5 10 12 17 20 50 5 10 12 17 20
36

is faster. is slower. is at the same rate. cannot be determined

Roughness Factor 0.001 0.203 0.013 0.001 0.072 0.001 0.203 0.013 0.001 0.072 0.001 0.203 0.013 0.001 0.072

Tension (N) 2.5 17.3 3.7 2.5 9.2 6.6 35.5 9.3 6.3 2.3 12.5 rope broke 18.5 12.5 46

35

For lipophilic substances that cross lipid membranes passively, the amount of energy needed to break cohesive bonds is _________ that of hydrophilic substances.
A B C D

greater than less than equal to cannot be determined

A man pulls a crate at a constant speed of 2 m/s up a hill using a rope inclined at 25 with respect to the 30 incline. The force of friction between the crate and the slope varies with the roughness of the surface over the 20 m long slope. The rope is assumed not to stretch as it is pulled. However, the tension may vary. Table 1 shows the tension in the rope and the roughness of various portions of the surface.

According to the experimental data, if the distance along the slope is constant, the tension in the rope is proportional to
F G H J

the tension of the man. the mass of the block. the roughness of the slope. the angle of the slope.

39

37

According to Table 1, if the mass of the block is held constant, the tension in the rope is proportional to
A B C D

the distance of the slope. the angle of the slope. the strength of the man. the roughness factor.

38

Assuming a constant mass and roughness factor, if the distance along the slope is increased, which of the following would be expected to occur?
F G H J

The tension of the rope would increase. The tension of the rope would decrease. The tension of the rope stays the same. The rope breaks.

39

Which of the following was assumed in the designing of the experiment?

A B C D

The length of the rope will influence the tension in the rope. The length of the rope will not influence the tension in the rope. The mass of the block will not influence the tension in the rope. The tension depends on how hard the man pulls.

40

Which of the following statements summarizes the results of the experiment?

F G H J

On a surface which is uniformly rough, tension is proportional to mass. Roughness is proportional to distance. Mass is proportional to distance. Tension is proportional to distance.

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ACT Test 1 Answer Sheet

Name Teacher Section #1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D

Date Class Section #2

28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J
1

55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E

Section #2 (cont.)
26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K

Section #3
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K A B C D E F G H J K

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D

26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J

Section #4
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D

26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J A B C D F G H J