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Nurse Michelle should know that the drainage is normal 4 days after a sigmoid colostomy when the stool is: a. Green liquid b. Solid formed c. Loose, bloody d. Semiformed 2. Where would nurse Kristine place the call light for a male client with a right-sided brain attack and left homonymous hemianopsia? a. On the clients right side b. On the clients left side c. Directly in front of the client d. Where the client like 3. A male client is admitted to the emergency department following an accident. What are the first nursing actions of the nurse? a. Check respiration, circulation, neurological response. b. Align the spine, check pupils, and check for hemorrhage. c. Check respirations, stabilize spine, and check circulation. d. Assess level of consciousness and circulation. 4. In evaluating the effect of nitroglycerin, Nurse Arthur should know that it reduces preload and relieves angina by: a. Increasing contractility and slowing heart rate. b. Increasing AV conduction and heart rate. c. Decreasing contractility and oxygen consumption. d. Decreasing venous return through vasodilation. 5. Nurse Patricia finds a female client who is post-myocardial infarction (MI) slumped on the side rails of the bed and unresponsive to shaking or shouting. Which is the nurse next action? a. Call for help and note the time. b. Clear the airway c. Give two sharp thumps to the precordium, and check the pulse. d. Administer two quick blows. 6. Nurse Monett is caring for a client recovering from gastro-intestinal bleeding. The nurse should: a. Plan care so the client can receive 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep each night. b. Monitor vital signs every 2 hours.

c. Make sure that the client takes food and medications at prescribed intervals. d. Provide milk every 2 to 3 hours. 7. A male client was on warfarin (Coumadin) before admission, and has been receiving heparin I.V. for 2 days. The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 68 seconds. What should Nurse Carla do? a. Stop the I.V. infusion of heparin and notify the physician. b. Continue treatment as ordered. c. Expect the warfarin to increase the PTT. d. Increase the dosage, because the level is lower than normal. 8. A client undergone ileostomy, when should the drainage appliance be applied to the stoma? a. 24 hours later, when edema has subsided. b. In the operating room. c. After the ileostomy begin to function. d. When the client is able to begin self-care procedures. 9. A client undergone spinal anesthetic, it will be important that the nurse immediately position the client in: a. On the side, to prevent obstruction of airway by tongue. b. Flat on back. c. On the back, with knees flexed 15 degrees. d. Flat on the stomach, with the head turned to the side. 10.While monitoring a male client several hours after a motor vehicle accident, which assessment data suggest increasing intracranial pressure? a. Blood pressure is decreased from 160/90 to 110/70. b. Pulse is increased from 87 to 95, with an occasional skipped beat. c. The client is oriented when aroused from sleep, and goes back to sleep immediately. d. The client refuses dinner because of anorexia. 11.Mrs. Cruz, 80 years old is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following symptoms may appear first? a. Altered mental status and dehydration b. Fever and chills c. Hemoptysis and Dyspnea d. Pleuritic chest pain and cough 12. A male client has active tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following symptoms will be exhibit?

a. Chest and lower back pain b. Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis c. Fever of more than 104F (40C) and nausea d. Headache and photophobia 13. Mark, a 7-year-old client is brought to the emergency department. Hes tachypneic and afebrile and has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute and has a nonproductive cough. He recently had a cold. Form this history; the client may have which of the following conditions? a. Acute asthma b. Bronchial pneumonia c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) d. Emphysema 14. Marichu was given morphine sulfate for pain. She is sleeping and her respiratory rate is 4 breaths/minute. If action isnt taken quickly, she might have which of the following reactions? a. Asthma attack b. Respiratory arrest c. Seizure d. Wake up on his own 15. A 77-year-old male client is admitted for elective knee surgery. Physical examination reveals shallow respirations but no sign of respiratory distress. Which of the following is a normal physiologic change related to aging? a. Increased elastic recoil of the lungs b. Increased number of functional capillaries in the alveoli c. Decreased residual volume d. Decreased vital capacity 16. Nurse John is caring for a male client receiving lidocaine I.V. Which factor is the most relevant to administration of this medication? a. Decrease in arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) when measured with a pulse oximeter. b. Increase in systemic blood pressure. c. Presence of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on a cardiac monitor. d. Increase in intracranial pressure (ICP). 17. Nurse Ron is caring for a male client taking an anticoagulant. The nurse should teach the client to: a. Report incidents of diarrhea. b. Avoid foods high in vitamin K

c. Use a straight razor when shaving. d. Take aspirin to pain relief. 18. Nurse Lhynnette is preparing a site for the insertion of an I.V. catheter. The nurse should treat excess hair at the site by: a. Leaving the hair intact b. Shaving the area c. Clipping the hair in the area d. Removing the hair with a depilatory. 19. Nurse Michelle is caring for an elderly female with osteoporosis. When teaching the client, the nurse should include information about which major complication: a. Bone fracture b. Loss of estrogen c. Negative calcium balance d. Dowagers hump 20. Nurse Len is teaching a group of women to perform BSE. The nurse should explain that the purpose of performing the examination is to discover: a. Cancerous lumps b. Areas of thickness or fullness c. Changes from previous examinations. d. Fibrocystic masses 21. When caring for a female client who is being treated for hyperthyroidism, it is important to: a. Provide extra blankets and clothing to keep the client warm. b. Monitor the client for signs of restlessness, sweating, and excessive weight loss during thyroid replacement therapy. c. Balance the clients periods of activity and rest. d. Encourage the client to be active to prevent constipation. 22. Nurse Kris is teaching a client with history of atherosclerosis. To decrease the risk of atherosclerosis, the nurse should encourage the client to: a. Avoid focusing on his weight. b. Increase his activity level. c. Follow a regular diet. d. Continue leading a high-stress lifestyle. 23. Nurse Greta is working on a surgical floor. Nurse Greta must logroll a client following a:

a. Laminectomy b. Thoracotomy c. Hemorrhoidectomy d. Cystectomy. 24. A 55-year old client underwent cataract removal with intraocular lens implant. Nurse Oliver is giving the client discharge instructions. These instructions should include which of the following? a. Avoid lifting objects weighing more than 5 lb (2.25 kg). b. Lie on your abdomen when in bed c. Keep rooms brightly lit. d. Avoiding straining during bowel movement or bending at the waist. 25. George should be taught about testicular examinations during: a. when sexual activity starts b. After age 69 c. After age 40 d. Before age 20. 26. A male client undergone a colon resection. While turning him, wound dehiscence with evisceration occurs. Nurse Trish first response is to: a. Call the physician b. Place a saline-soaked sterile dressing on the wound. c. Take a blood pressure and pulse. d. Pull the dehiscence closed. 27. Nurse Audrey is caring for a client who has suffered a severe cerebrovascular accident. During routine assessment, the nurse notices Cheyne- Strokes respirations. Cheyne-strokes respirations are: a. A progressively deeper breaths followed by shallower breaths with apneic periods. b. Rapid, deep breathing with abrupt pauses between each breath. c. Rapid, deep breathing and irregular breathing without pauses. d. Shallow breathing with an increased respiratory rate. 28. Nurse Bea is assessing a male client with heart failure. The breath sounds commonly auscultated in clients with heart failure are: a. Tracheal b. Fine crackles c. Coarse crackles d. Friction rubs

29. The nurse is caring for Kenneth experiencing an acute asthma attack. The client stops wheezing and breath sounds arent audible. The reason for this change is that: a. The attack is over. b. The airways are so swollen that no air cannot get through. c. The swelling has decreased. d. Crackles have replaced wheezes. 30. Mike with epilepsy is having a seizure. During the active seizure phase, the nurse should: a. Place the client on his back remove dangerous objects, and insert a bite block. b. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and insert a bite block. c. Place the client o his back, remove dangerous objects, and hold down his arms. d. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and protect his head. 31. After insertion of a cheat tube for a pneumothorax, a client becomes hypotensive with neck vein distention, tracheal shift, absent breath sounds, and diaphoresis. Nurse Amanda suspects a tension pneumothorax has occurred. What cause of tension pneumothorax should the nurse check for? a. Infection of the lung. b. Kinked or obstructed chest tube c. Excessive water in the water-seal chamber d. Excessive chest tube drainage 32. Nurse Maureen is talking to a male client, the client begins choking on his lunch. Hes coughing forcefully. The nurse should: a. Stand him up and perform the abdominal thrust maneuver from behind. b. Lay him down, straddle him, and perform the abdominal thrust maneuver. c. Leave him to get assistance d. Stay with him but not intervene at this time. 33. Nurse Ron is taking a health history of an 84 year old client. Which information will be most useful to the nurse for planning care? a. General health for the last 10 years. b. Current health promotion activities. c. Family history of diseases. d. Marital status. 34. When performing oral care on a comatose client, Nurse Krina should: a. Apply lemon glycerin to the clients lips at least every 2 hours. b. Brush the teeth with client lying supine.

c. Place the client in a side lying position, with the head of the bed lowered. d. Clean the clients mouth with hydrogen peroxide. 35. A 77-year-old male client is admitted with a diagnosis of dehydration and change in mental status. Hes being hydrated with L.V. fluids. When the nurse takes his vital signs, she notes he has a fever of 103F (39.4C) a cough producing yellow sputum and pleuritic chest pain. The nurse suspects this client may have which of the following conditions? a. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) b. Myocardial infarction (MI) c. Pneumonia d. Tuberculosis 36. Nurse Oliver is working in a out patient clinic. He has been alerted that there is an outbreak of tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following clients entering the clinic today most likely to have TB? a. A 16-year-old female high school student b. A 33-year-old day-care worker c. A 43-yesr-old homeless man with a history of alcoholism d. A 54-year-old businessman 37. Virgie with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a chest X-ray. The nurse is aware that which of the following reasons this is done? a. To confirm the diagnosis b. To determine if a repeat skin test is needed c. To determine the extent of lesions d. To determine if this is a primary or secondary infection 38. Kennedy with acute asthma showing inspiratory and expiratory wheezes and a decreased forced expiratory volume should be treated with which of the following classes of medication right away? a. Beta-adrenergic blockers b. Bronchodilators c. Inhaled steroids d. Oral steroids 39. Mr. Vasquez 56-year-old client with a 40-year history of smoking one to two packs of cigarettes per day has a chronic cough producing thick sputum, peripheral edema and cyanotic nail beds. Based on this information, he most likely has which of the following conditions? a. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) b. Asthma

c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis d. Emphysema Situation: Francis, age 46 is admitted to the hospital with diagnosis of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia. 40. The treatment for patients with leukemia is bone marrow transplantation. Which statement about bone marrow transplantation is not correct? a. The patient is under local anesthesia during the procedure b. The aspirated bone marrow is mixed with heparin. c. The aspiration site is the posterior or anterior iliac crest. d. The recipient receives cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) for 4 consecutive days before the procedure. 41. After several days of admission, Francis becomes disoriented and complains of frequent headaches. The nurse in-charge first action would be: a. Call the physician b. Document the patients status in his charts. c. Prepare oxygen treatment d. Raise the side rails 42. During routine care, Francis asks the nurse, How can I be anemic if this disease causes increased my white blood cell production? The nurse in-charge best response would be that the increased number of white blood cells (WBC) is: a. Crowd red blood cells b. Are not responsible for the anemia. c. Uses nutrients from other cells d. Have an abnormally short life span of cells. 43. Diagnostic assessment of Francis would probably not reveal: a. Predominance of lymhoblasts b. Leukocytosis c. Abnormal blast cells in the bone marrow d. Elevated thrombocyte counts 44. Robert, a 57-year-old client with acute arterial occlusion of the left leg undergoes an emergency embolectomy. Six hours later, the nurse isnt able to obtain pulses in his left foot using Doppler ultrasound. The nurse immediately notifies the physician, and asks her to prepare the client for surgery. As the nurse enters the clients room to prepare him, he states that he wont have any more surgery. Which of the following is the best initial response by the nurse?

a. Explain the risks of not having the surgery b. Notifying the physician immediately c. Notifying the nursing supervisor d. Recording the clients refusal in the nurses notes 45. During the endorsement, which of the following clients should the on-duty nurse assess first? a. The 58-year-old client who was admitted 2 days ago with heart failure, blood pressure of 126/76 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute. b. The 89-year-old client with end-stage right-sided heart failure, blood pressure of 78/50 mm Hg, and a do not resuscitate order c. The 62-year-old client who was admitted 1 day ago with thrombophlebitis and is receiving L.V. heparin d. The 75-year-old client who was admitted 1 hour ago with new-onset atrial fibrillation and is receiving L.V. dilitiazem (Cardizem) 46. Honey, a 23-year old client complains of substernal chest pain and states that her heart feels like its racing out of the chest. She reports no history of cardiac disorders. The nurse attaches her to a cardiac monitor and notes sinus tachycardia with a rate of 136beats/minutes. Breath sounds are clear and the respiratory rate is 26 breaths/minutes. Which of the following drugs should the nurse question the client about using? a. Barbiturates b. Opioids c. Cocaine d. Benzodiazepines 47. A 51-year-old female client tells the nurse in-charge that she has found a painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this clients lump is cancerous? a. Eversion of the right nipple and mobile mass b. Nonmobile mass with irregular edges c. Mobile mass that is soft and easily delineated d. Nonpalpable right axillary lymph nodes 48. A 35-year-old client with vaginal cancer asks the nurse, What is the usual treatment for this type of cancer? Which treatment should the nurse name? a. Surgery b. Chemotherapy c. Radiation d. Immunotherapy

49. Cristina undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, N0, M0. What does this classification mean? a. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis b. Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis c. Cant assess tumor or regional lymph nodes and no evidence of metastasis d. Carcinoma in situ, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis 50. Lydia undergoes a laryngectomy to treat laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client how to care for the neck stoma, the nurse should include which instruction? a. Keep the stoma uncovered. b. Keep the stoma dry. c. Have a family member perform stoma care initially until you get used to the procedure. d. Keep the stoma moist. 51. A 37-year-old client with uterine cancer asks the nurse, Which is the most common type of cancer in women? The nurse replies that its breast cancer. Which type of cancer causes the most deaths in women? a. Breast cancer b. Lung cancer c. Brain cancer d. Colon and rectal cancer 52. Antonio with lung cancer develops Horners syndrome when the tumor invades the ribs and affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia. When assessing for signs and symptoms of this syndrome, the nurse should note: a. miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face. b. chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever. c. arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of arm and hand muscles, both on the affected side. d. hoarseness and dysphagia. 53. Vic asks the nurse what PSA is. The nurse should reply that it stands for: a. prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer. b. protein serum antigen, which is used to determine protein levels. c. pneumococcal strep antigen, which is a bacteria that causes pneumonia. d. Papanicolaou-specific antigen, which is used to screen for cervical cancer. 54. What is the most important postoperative instruction that nurse Kate must give a client who has just returned from the operating room after receiving a subarachnoid block?

a. Avoid drinking liquids until the gag reflex returns. b. Avoid eating milk products for 24 hours. c. Notify a nurse if you experience blood in your urine. d. Remain supine for the time specified by the physician. 55. A male client suspected of having colorectal cancer will require which diagnostic study to confirm the diagnosis? a. Stool Hematest b. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) c. Sigmoidoscopy d. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan 56. During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that the Luz has breast cancer? a. Slight asymmetry of the breasts. b. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin c. Bloody discharge from the nipple d. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle 57. A female client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the following is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells? a. Liver b. Colon c. Reproductive tract d. White blood cells (WBCs) 58. Nurse Mandy is preparing a client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule out a spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the following would pose a threat to the client? a. The client lies still. b. The client asks questions. c. The client hears thumping sounds. d. The client wears a watch and wedding band. 59. Nurse Cecile is teaching a female client about preventing osteoporosis. Which of the following teaching points is correct? a. Obtaining an X-ray of the bones every 3 years is recommended to detect bone loss. b. To avoid fractures, the client should avoid strenuous exercise. c. The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a wide variety of foods. d. Obtaining the recommended daily allowance of calcium requires taking a calcium supplement.

60. Before Jacob undergoes arthroscopy, the nurse reviews the assessment findings for contraindications for this procedure. Which finding is a contraindication? a. Joint pain b. Joint deformity c. Joint flexion of less than 50% d. Joint stiffness 61. Mr. Rodriguez is admitted with severe pain in the knees. Which form of arthritis is characterized by urate deposits and joint pain, usually in the feet and legs, and occurs primarily in men over age 30? a. Septic arthritis b. Traumatic arthritis c. Intermittent arthritis d. Gouty arthritis 62. A heparin infusion at 1,500 unit/hour is ordered for a 64-year-old client with stroke in evolution. The infusion contains 25,000 units of heparin in 500 ml of saline solution. How many milliliters per hour should be given? a. 15 ml/hour b. 30 ml/hour c. 45 ml/hour d. 50 ml/hour 63. A 76-year-old male client had a thromboembolic right stroke; his left arm is swollen. Which of the following conditions may cause swelling after a stroke? a. Elbow contracture secondary to spasticity b. Loss of muscle contraction decreasing venous return c. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility of the ipsilateral side d. Hypoalbuminemia due to protein escaping from an inflamed glomerulus 64. Heberdens nodes are a common sign of osteoarthritis. Which of the following statement is correct about this deformity? a. It appears only in men b. It appears on the distal interphalangeal joint c. It appears on the proximal interphalangeal joint d. It appears on the dorsolateral aspect of the interphalangeal joint. 65. Which of the following statements explains the main difference between rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis?

a. Osteoarthritis is gender-specific, rheumatoid arthritis isnt b. Osteoarthritis is a localized disease rheumatoid arthritis is systemic c. Osteoarthritis is a systemic disease, rheumatoid arthritis is localized d. Osteoarthritis has dislocations and subluxations, rheumatoid arthritis doesnt 66. Mrs. Cruz uses a cane for assistance in walking. Which of the following statements is true about a cane or other assistive devices? a. A walker is a better choice than a cane. b. The cane should be used on the affected side c. The cane should be used on the unaffected side d. A client with osteoarthritis should be encouraged to ambulate without the cane 67. A male client with type 1 diabetes is scheduled to receive 30 U of 70/30 insulin. There is no 70/30 insulin available. As a substitution, the nurse may give the client: a. 9 U regular insulin and 21 U neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH). b. 21 U regular insulin and 9 U NPH. c. 10 U regular insulin and 20 U NPH. d. 20 U regular insulin and 10 U NPH. 68. Nurse Len should expect to administer which medication to a client with gout? a. aspirin b. furosemide (Lasix) c. colchicines d. calcium gluconate (Kalcinate) 69. Mr. Domingo with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism. This diagnosis indicates that the clients hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands? a. Adrenal cortex b. Pancreas c. Adrenal medulla d. Parathyroid 70. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the doctor orders bed rest, a wetto- dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client? a. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment. b. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing. c. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention. d. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.

71. Nurse Zeny is caring for a client in acute addisonian crisis. Which laboratory data would the nurse expect to find? a. Hyperkalemia b. Reduced blood urea nitrogen (BUN) c. Hypernatremia d. Hyperglycemia 72. A client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate? a. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered b. Encouraging increased oral intake c. Restricting fluids d. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered 73. A female client tells nurse Nikki that she has been working hard for the last 3 months to control her type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness of the clients efforts, the nurse should check: a. urine glucose level. b. fasting blood glucose level. c. serum fructosamine level. d. glycosylated hemoglobin level. 74. Nurse Trinity administered neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to a diabetic client at 7 a.m. At what time would the nurse expect the client to be most at risk for a hypoglycemic reaction? a. 10:00 am b. Noon c. 4:00 pm d. 10:00 pm 75. The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing which substances? a. Glucocorticoids and androgens b. Catecholamines and epinephrine c. Mineralocorticoids and catecholamines d. Norepinephrine and epinephrine 76. On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, Proserfina exhibits muscle twitching and hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the client reports numbness and tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting a lifethreatening electrolyte disturbance, the nurse notifies the surgeon immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows thyroid surgery?

a. Hypocalcemia b. Hyponatremia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypermagnesemia 77. Which laboratory test value is elevated in clients who smoke and cant be used as a general indicator of cancer? a. Acid phosphatase level b. Serum calcitonin level c. Alkaline phosphatase level d. Carcinoembryonic antigen level 78. Francis with anemia has been admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which assessment findings are characteristic of iron-deficiency anemia? a. Nights sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea b. Dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor c. Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia d. Itching, rash, and jaundice 79. In teaching a female client who is HIV-positive about pregnancy, the nurse would know more teaching is necessary when the client says: a. The baby can get the virus from my placenta. b. Im planning on starting on birth control pills. c. Not everyone who has the virus gives birth to a baby who has the virus. d. Ill need to have a C-section if I become pregnant and have a baby. 80. When preparing Judy with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for discharge to the home, the nurse should be sure to include which instruction? a. Put on disposable gloves before bathing. b. Sterilize all plates and utensils in boiling water. c. Avoid sharing such articles as toothbrushes and razors. d. Avoid eating foods from serving dishes shared by other family members. 81. Nurse Marie is caring for a 32-year-old client admitted with pernicious anemia. Which set of findings should the nurse expect when assessing the client? a. Pallor, bradycardia, and reduced pulse pressure b. Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue c. Sore tongue, dyspnea, and weight gain d. Angina, double vision, and anorexia

82. After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. Nurse Celestina suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse do first? a. Page an anesthesiologist immediately and prepare to intubate the client. b. Administer epinephrine, as prescribed, and prepare to intubate the client if necessary. c. Administer the antidote for penicillin, as prescribed, and continue to monitor the clients vital signs. d. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter and begin to infuse I.V. fluids as ordered. 83. Mr. Marquez with rheumatoid arthritis is about to begin aspirin therapy to reduce inflammation. When teaching the client about aspirin, the nurse discusses adverse reactions to prolonged aspirin therapy. These include: a. weight gain. b. fine motor tremors. c. respiratory acidosis. d. bilateral hearing loss. 84. A 23-year-old client is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After recovering from the initial shock of the diagnosis, the client expresses a desire to learn as much as possible about HIV and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). When teaching the client about the immune system, the nurse states that adaptive immunity is provided by which type of white blood cell? a. Neutrophil b. Basophil c. Monocyte d. Lymphocyte 85. In an individual with Sjgrens syndrome, nursing care should focus on: a. moisture replacement. b. electrolyte balance. c. nutritional supplementation. d. arrhythmia management. 86. During chemotherapy for lymphocytic leukemia, Mathew develops abdominal pain, fever, and horse barn smelling diarrhea. It would be most important for the nurse to advise the physician to order: a. enzyme-linked immunosuppressant assay (ELISA) test. b. electrolyte panel and hemogram. c. stool for Clostridium difficile test. d. flat plate X-ray of the abdomen.

87. A male client seeks medical evaluation for fatigue, night sweats, and a 20-lb weight loss in 6 weeks. To confirm that the client has been infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse expects the physician to order: a. E-rosette immunofluorescence. b. quantification of T-lymphocytes. c. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). d. Western blot test with ELISA. 88. A complete blood count is commonly performed before a Joe goes into surgery. What does this test seek to identify? a. Potential hepatic dysfunction indicated by decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels b. Low levels of urine constituents normally excreted in the urine c. Abnormally low hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels d. Electrolyte imbalance that could affect the bloods ability to coagulate properly 89. While monitoring a client for the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse should take note of what assessment parameters? a. Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time b. Platelet count, blood glucose levels, and white blood cell (WBC) count c. Thrombin time, calcium levels, and potassium levels d. Fibrinogen level, WBC, and platelet count 90. When taking a dietary history from a newly admitted female client, Nurse Len should remember that which of the following foods is a common allergen? a. Bread b. Carrots c. Orange d. Strawberries 91. Nurse John is caring for clients in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following phone calls should the nurse return first? a. A client with hepatitis A who states, My arms and legs are itching. b. A client with cast on the right leg who states, I have a funny feeling in my right leg. c. A client with osteomyelitis of the spine who states, I am so nauseous that I cant eat. d. A client with rheumatoid arthritis who states, I am having trouble sleeping. 92. Nurse Sarah is caring for clients on the surgical floor and has just received report from the previous shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

a. A 35-year-old admitted three hours ago with a gunshot wound; 1.5 cm area of dark drainage noted on the dressing. b. A 43-year-old who had a mastectomy two days ago; 23 ml of serosanguinous fluid noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain. c. A 59-year-old with a collapsed lung due to an accident; no drainage noted in the previous eight hours. d. A 62-year-old who had an abdominal-perineal resection three days ago; client complaints of chills. 93. Nurse Eve is caring for a client who had a thyroidectomy 12 hours ago for treatment of Graves disease. The nurse would be most concerned if which of the following was observed? a. Blood pressure 138/82, respirations 16, oral temperature 99 degrees Fahrenheit. b. The client supports his head and neck when turning his head to the right. c. The client spontaneously flexes his wrist when the blood pressure is obtained. d. The client is drowsy and complains of sore throat. 94. Julius is admitted with complaints of severe pain in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen. To assist with pain relief, the nurse should take which of the following actions? a. Encourage the client to change positions frequently in bed. b. Administer Demerol 50 mg IM q 4 hours and PRN. c. Apply warmth to the abdomen with a heating pad. d. Use comfort measures and pillows to position the client. 95. Nurse Tina prepares a client for peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Assess for a bruit and a thrill. b. Warm the dialysate solution. c. Position the client on the left side. d. Insert a Foley catheter 96. Nurse Jannah teaches an elderly client with right-sided weakness how to use cane. Which of the following behaviors, if demonstrated by the client to the nurse, indicates that the teaching was effective? a. The client holds the cane with his right hand, moves the can forward followed by the right leg, and then moves the left leg. b. The client holds the cane with his right hand, moves the cane forward followed by his left leg, and then moves the right leg. c. The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane forward followed by the right leg, and then moves the left leg. d. The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane forward followed by his left leg, and then moves the right leg.

97. An elderly client is admitted to the nursing home setting. The client is occasionally confused and her gait is often unsteady. Which of the following actions, if taken by the nurse, is most appropriate? a. Ask the womans family to provide personal items such as photos or mementos. b. Select a room with a bed by the door so the woman can look down the hall. c. Suggest the woman eat her meals in the room with her roommate. d. Encourage the woman to ambulate in the halls twice a day. 98. Nurse Evangeline teaches an elderly client how to use a standard aluminum walker. Which of the following behaviors, if demonstrated by the client, indicates that the nurses teaching was effective? a. The client slowly pushes the walker forward 12 inches, then takes small steps forward while leaning on the walker. b. The client lifts the walker, moves it forward 10 inches, and then takes several small steps forward. c. The client supports his weight on the walker while advancing it forward, then takes small steps while balancing on the walker. d. The client slides the walker 18 inches forward, then takes small steps while holding onto the walker for balance. 99. Nurse Deric is supervising a group of elderly clients in a residential home setting. The nurse knows that the elderly are at greater risk of developing sensory deprivation for what reason? a. Increased sensitivity to the side effects of medications. b. Decreased visual, auditory, and gustatory abilities. c. Isolation from their families and familiar surroundings. d. Decrease musculoskeletal function and mobility. 100. A male client with emphysema becomes restless and confused. What step should nurse Jasmine take next? a. Encourage the client to perform pursed lip breathing. b. Check the clients temperature. c. Assess the clients potassium level. d. Increase the clients oxygen flow rate.

Answers & Rationale


Here are the answers & rationale for: Preboard Exam C Test 3: Medical-Surgical Nursing 1. Answer: (C) Loose, bloody Rationale: Normal bowel function and soft-formed stool usually do not occur until around the seventh day following surgery. The stool consistency is related to how much water is being absorbed.

2. Answer: (A) On the clients right side Rationale: The client has left visual field blindness. The client will see only from the right side. 3. Answer: (C) Check respirations, stabilize spine, and check circulation Rationale: Checking the airway would be priority, and a neck injury should be suspected. 4. Answer: (D) Decreasing venous return through vasodilation. Rationale: The significant effect of nitroglycerin is vasodilation and decreased venous return, so the heart does not have to work hard. 5. Answer: (A) Call for help and note the time. Rationale: Having established, by stimulating the client, that the client is unconscious rather than sleep, the nurse should immediately call for help. This may be done by dialing the operator from the clients phone and giving the hospital code for cardiac arrest and the clients room number to the operator, of if the phone is not available, by pulling the emergency call button. Noting the time is important baseline information for cardiac arrest procedure. 6. Answer: (C) Make sure that the client takes food and medications at prescribed intervals. Rationale: Food and drug therapy will prevent the accumulation of hydrochloric acid, or will neutralize and buffer the acid that does accumulate. 7. Answer: (B) Continue treatment as ordered. Rationale: The effects of heparin are monitored by the PTT is normally 30 to 45 seconds; the therapeutic level is 1.5 to 2 times the normal level. 8. Answer: (B) In the operating room. Rationale: The stoma drainage bag is applied in the operating room. Drainage from the ileostomy contains secretions that are rich in digestive enzymes and highly irritating to the skin. Protection of the skin from the effects of these enzymes is begun at once. Skin exposed to these enzymes even for a short time becomes reddened, painful, and excoriated. 9. Answer: (B) Flat on back. Rationale: To avoid the complication of a painful spinal headache that can last for several days, the client is kept in flat in a supine position for approximately 4 to 12 hours postoperatively. Headaches are believed to be causes by the seepage of cerebral spinal fluid from the puncture site. By keeping the client flat, cerebral spinal fluid pressures are equalized, which avoids trauma to the neurons. 10. Answer: (C) The client is oriented when aroused from sleep, and goes back to sleep immediately. Rationale: This finding suggest that the level of consciousness is decreasing. 11. Answer: (A) Altered mental status and dehydration Rationale: Fever, chills, hemortysis, dyspnea, cough, and pleuritic chest pain are the common symptoms of pneumonia, but elderly clients may first appear with only an altered lentil status and dehydration due to a blunted immune response.

12. Answer: (B) Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis Rationale: Typical signs and symptoms are chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Chest pain may be present from coughing, but isnt usual. Clients with TB typically have low-grade fevers, not higher than 102F (38.9C). Nausea, headache, and photophobia arent usual TB symptoms. 13. Answer:(A) Acute asthma Rationale: Based on the clients history and symptoms, acute asthma is the most likely diagnosis. Hes unlikely to have bronchial pneumonia without a productive cough and fever and hes too young to have developed (COPD) and emphysema. 14. Answer: (B) Respiratory arrest Rationale: Narcotics can cause respiratory arrest if given in large quantities. Its unlikely the client will have asthma attack or a seizure or wake up on his own. 15. Answer: (D) Decreased vital capacity Rationale: Reduction in vital capacity is a normal physiologic changes include decreased elastic recoil of the lungs, fewer functional capillaries in the alveoli, and an increased in residual volume. 16. Answer: (C) Presence of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on a cardiac monitor. Rationale: Lidocaine drips are commonly used to treat clients whose arrhythmias havent been controlled with oral medication and who are having PVCs that are visible on the cardiac monitor. SaO2, blood pressure, and ICP are important factors but arent as significant as PVCs in the situation. 17. Answer: (B) Avoid foods high in vitamin K Rationale: The client should avoid consuming large amounts of vitamin K because vitamin K can interfere with anticoagulation. The client may need to report diarrhea, but isnt effect of taking an anticoagulant. An electric razor-not a straight razor-should be used to prevent cuts that cause bleeding. Aspirin may increase the risk of bleeding; acetaminophen should be used to pain relief. 18. Answer: (C) Clipping the hair in the area Rationale: Hair can be a source of infection and should be removed by clipping. Shaving the area can cause skin abrasions and depilatories can irritate the skin. 19. Answer: (A) Bone fracture Rationale: Bone fracture is a major complication of osteoporosis that results when loss of calcium and phosphate increased the fragility of bones. Estrogen deficiencies result from menopause-not osteoporosis. Calcium and vitamin D supplements may be used to support normal bone metabolism, But a negative calcium balance isnt a complication of osteoporosis. Dowagers hump results from bone fractures. It develops when repeated vertebral fractures increase spinal curvature. 20. Answer: (C) Changes from previous examinations. Rationale: Women are instructed to examine themselves to discover changes that have occurred

in the breast. Only a physician can diagnose lumps that are cancerous, areas of thickness or fullness that signal the presence of a malignancy, or masses that are fibrocystic as opposed to malignant. 21. Answer: (C) Balance the clients periods of activity and rest. Rationale: A client with hyperthyroidism needs to be encouraged to balance periods of activity and rest. Many clients with hyperthyroidism are hyperactive and complain of feeling very warm. 22. Answer: (B) Increase his activity level. Rationale: The client should be encouraged to increase his activity level. Maintaining an ideal weight; following a low-cholesterol, low sodium diet; and avoiding stress are all important factors in decreasing the risk of atherosclerosis. 23. Answer: (A) Laminectomy Rationale: The client who has had spinal surgery, such as laminectomy, must be log rolled to keep the spinal column straight when turning. Thoracotomy and cystectomy may turn themselves or may be assisted into a comfortable position. Under normal circumstances, hemorrhoidectomy is an outpatient procedure, and the client may resume normal activities immediately after surgery. 24. Answer: (D) Avoiding straining during bowel movement or bending at the waist. Rationale: The client should avoid straining, lifting heavy objects, and coughing harshly because these activities increase intraocular pressure. Typically, the client is instructed to avoid lifting objects weighing more than 15 lb (7kg) not 5lb. instruct the client when lying in bed to lie on either the side or back. The client should avoid bright light by wearing sunglasses. 25. Answer: (D) Before age 20. Rationale: Testicular cancer commonly occurs in men between ages 20 and 30. A male client should be taught how to perform testicular selfexamination before age 20, preferably when he enters his teens. 26. Answer: (B) Place a saline-soaked sterile dressing on the wound. Rationale: The nurse should first place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the open wound to prevent tissue drying and possible infection. Then the nurse should call the physician and take the clients vital signs. The dehiscence needs to be surgically closed, so the nurse should never try to close it. 27. Answer: (A) A progressively deeper breaths followed by shallower breaths with apneic periods. Rationale: Cheyne-Strokes respirations are breaths that become progressively deeper fallowed by shallower respirations with apneas periods. Biots respirations are rapid, deep breathing with abrupt pauses between each breath, and equal depth between each breath. Kussmauls respirations are rapid, deep breathing without pauses. Tachypnea is shallow breathing with increased respiratory rate.

28. Answer: (B) Fine crackles Rationale: Fine crackles are caused by fluid in the alveoli and commonly occur in clients with heart failure. Tracheal breath sounds are auscultated over the trachea. Coarse crackles are caused by secretion accumulation in the airways. Friction rubs occur with pleural inflammation. 29. Answer: (B) The airways are so swollen that no air cannot get through Rationale: During an acute attack, wheezing may stop and breath sounds become inaudible because the airways are so swollen that air cant get through. If the attack is over and swelling has decreased, there would be no more wheezing and less emergent concern. Crackles do not replace wheezes during an acute asthma attack. 30. Answer: (D) Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and protect his head. Rationale: During the active seizure phase, initiate precautions by placing the client on his side, removing dangerous objects, and protecting his head from injury. A bite block should never be inserted during the active seizure phase. Insertion can break the teeth and lead to aspiration. 31. Answer: (B) Kinked or obstructed chest tube Rationales: Kinking and blockage of the chest tube is a common cause of a tension pneumothorax. Infection and excessive drainage wont cause a tension pneumothorax. Excessive water wont affect the chest tube drainage. 32. Answer: (D) Stay with him but not intervene at this time. Rationale: If the client is coughing, he should be able to dislodge the object or cause a complete obstruction. If complete obstruction occurs, the nurse should perform the abdominal thrust maneuver with the client standing. If the client is unconscious, she should lay him down. A nurse should never leave a choking client alone. 33. Answer: (B) Current health promotion activities Rationale: Recognizing an individuals positive health measures is very useful. General health in the previous 10 years is important, however, the current activities of an 84 year old client are most significant in planning care. Family history of disease for a client in later years is of minor significance. Marital status information may be important for discharge planning but is not as significant for addressing the immediate medical problem. 34. Answer: (C) Place the client in a side lying position, with the head of the bed lowered. Rationale: The client should be positioned in a side-lying position with the head of the bed lowered to prevent aspiration. A small amount of toothpaste should be used and the mouth swabbed or suctioned to remove pooled secretions. Lemon glycerin can be drying if used for extended periods. Brushing the teeth with the client lying supine may lead to aspiration. Hydrogen peroxide is caustic to tissues and should not be used. 35. Answer: (C) Pneumonia Rationale: Fever productive cough and pleuritic chest pain are common signs and symptoms of pneumonia. The client with ARDS has dyspnea and hypoxia with worsening hypoxia over time, if not treated aggressively. Pleuritic chest pain varies with respiration, unlike the constant chest pain during an MI; so this client most likely isnt having an MI. the client with TB typically has a

cough producing blood-tinged sputum. A sputum culture should be obtained to confirm the nurses suspicions. 36. Answer: (C) A 43-yesr-old homeless man with a history of alcoholism Rationale: Clients who are economically disadvantaged, malnourished, and have reduced immunity, such as a client with a history of alcoholism, are at extremely high risk for developing TB. A high school student, daycare worker, and businessman probably have a much low risk of contracting TB. 37. Answer: (C ) To determine the extent of lesions Rationale: If the lesions are large enough, the chest X-ray will show their presence in the lungs. Sputum culture confirms the diagnosis. There can be false-positive and false-negative skin test results. A chest X-ray cant determine if this is a primary or secondary infection. 38. Answer: (B) Bronchodilators Rationale: Bronchodilators are the first line of treatment for asthma because broncho-constriction is the cause of reduced airflow. Beta adrenergic blockers arent used to treat asthma and can cause bronchoconstriction. Inhaled oral steroids may be given to reduce the inflammation but arent used for emergency relief. 39. Answer: (C) Chronic obstructive bronchitis Rationale: Because of this extensive smoking history and symptoms the client most likely has chronic obstructive bronchitis. Client with ARDS have acute symptoms of hypoxia and typically need large amounts of oxygen. Clients with asthma and emphysema tend not to have chronic cough or peripheral edema. 40. Answer: (A) The patient is under local anesthesia during the procedure Rationale: Before the procedure, the patient is administered with drugs that would help to prevent infection and rejection of the transplanted cells such as antibiotics, cytotoxic, and corticosteroids. During the transplant, the patient is placed under general anesthesia. 41. Answer: (D) Raise the side rails Rationale: A patient who is disoriented is at risk of falling out of bed. The initial action of the nurse should be raising the side rails to ensure patients safety. 42. Answer: (A) Crowd red blood cells Rationale: The excessive production of white blood cells crowd out red blood cells production which causes anemia to occur. 43. Answer: (B) Leukocytosis Rationale: Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is characterized by increased production of leukocytes and lymphocytes resulting in leukocytosis, and proliferation of these cells within the bone marrow, spleen and liver. 44. Answer: (A) Explain the risks of not having the surgery Rationale: The best initial response is to explain the risks of not having the surgery. If the client

understands the risks but still refuses the nurse should notify the physician and the nurse supervisor and then record the clients refusal in the nurses notes. 45. Answer: (D) The 75-year-old client who was admitted 1 hour ago with new-onset atrial fibrillation and is receiving L.V. dilitiazem (Cardizem) Rationale: The client with atrial fibrillation has the greatest potential to become unstable and is on L.V. medication that requires close monitoring. After assessing this client, the nurse should assess the client with thrombophlebitis who is receiving a heparin infusion, and then the 58year-old client admitted 2 days ago with heart failure (his signs and symptoms are resolving and dont require immediate attention). The lowest priority is the 89-year-old with end stage rightsided heart failure, who requires time-consuming supportive measures. 46. Answer: (C) Cocaine Rationale: Because of the clients age and negative medical history, the nurse should question her about cocaine use. Cocaine increases myocardial oxygen consumption and can cause coronary artery spasm, leading to tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, myocardial ischemia, and myocardial infarction. Barbiturate overdose may trigger respiratory depression and slow pulse. Opioids can cause marked respiratory depression, while benzodiazepines can cause drowsiness and confusion. 47. Answer: (B) Nonmobile mass with irregular edges Rationale: Breast cancer tumors are fixed, hard, and poorly delineated with irregular edges. A mobile mass that is soft and easily delineated is most often a fluid-filled benign cyst. Axillary lymph nodes may or may not be palpable on initial detection of a cancerous mass. Nipple retraction not eversion may be a sign of cancer. 48. Answer: (C) Radiation Rationale: The usual treatment for vaginal cancer is external or intravaginal radiation therapy. Less often, surgery is performed. Chemotherapy typically is prescribed only if vaginal cancer is diagnosed in an early stage, which is rare. Immunotherapy isnt used to treat vaginal cancer. 49. Answer: (B) Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis Rationale: TIS, N0, M0 denotes carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis is classified as T0, N0, M0. If the tumor and regional lymph nodes cant be assessed and no evidence of metastasis exists, the lesion is classified as TX, NX, M0. A progressive increase in tumor size, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis is classified as T1, T2, T3, or T4; N0; and M1, M2, or M3. 50. Answer: (D) Keep the stoma moist. Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to keep the stoma moist, such as by applying a thin layer of petroleum jelly around the edges, because a dry stoma may become irritated. The nurse should recommend placing a stoma bib over the stoma to filter and warm air before it

enters the stoma. The client should begin performing stoma care without assistance as soon as possible to gain independence in self-care activities. 51. Answer: (B) Lung cancer Rationale: Lung cancer is the most deadly type of cancer in both women and men. Breast cancer ranks second in women, followed (in descending order) by colon and rectal cancer, pancreatic cancer, ovarian cancer, uterine cancer, lymphoma, leukemia, liver cancer, brain cancer, stomach cancer, and multiple myeloma. 52. Answer: (A) miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face. Rationale: Horners syndrome, which occurs when a lung tumor invades the ribs and affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia, is characterized by miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face. Chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever are associated with pleural tumors. Arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of the arm and hand muscles on the affected side suggest Pancoasts tumor, a lung tumor involving the first thoracic and eighth cervical nerves within the brachial plexus. Hoarseness in a client with lung cancer suggests that the tumor has extended to the recurrent laryngeal nerve; dysphagia suggests that the lung tumor is compressing the esophagus. 53. Answer: (A) prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer. Rationale: PSA stands for prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer. The other answers are incorrect. 54. Answer: (D) Remain supine for the time specified by the physician. Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to remain supine for the time specified by the physician. Local anesthetics used in a subarachnoid block dont alter the gag reflex. No interactions between local anesthetics and food occur. Local anesthetics dont cause hematuria. 55. Answer: (C) Sigmoidoscopy Rationale: Used to visualize the lower GI tract, sigmoidoscopy and proctoscopy aid in the detection of two-thirds of all colorectal cancers. Stool Hematest detects blood, which is a sign of colorectal cancer; however, the test doesnt confirm the diagnosis. CEA may be elevated in colorectal cancer but isnt considered a confirming test. An abdominal CT scan is used to stage the presence of colorectal cancer. 56. Answer: (B) A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin Rationale: A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin is common during late stages of breast cancer. Many women have slightly asymmetrical breasts. Bloody nipple discharge is a sign of intraductal papilloma, a benign condition. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle indicate fibrocystic breasts, a benign condition. 57. Answer: (A) Liver Rationale: The liver is one of the five most common cancer metastasis sites. The others are the lymph nodes, lung, bone, and brain. The colon, reproductive tract, and WBCs are occasional metastasis sites.

58. Answer: (D) The client wears a watch and wedding band. Rationale: During an MRI, the client should wear no metal objects, such as jewelry, because the strong magnetic field can pull on them, causing injury to the client and (if they fly off) to others. The client must lie still during the MRI but can talk to those performing the test by way of the microphone inside the scanner tunnel. The client should hear thumping sounds, which are caused by the sound waves thumping on the magnetic field. 59. Answer: (C) The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a wide variety of foods. Rationale: Premenopausal women require 1,000 mg of calcium per day. Postmenopausal women require 1,500 mg per day. Its often, though not always, possible to get the recommended daily requirement in the foods we eat. Supplements are available but not always necessary. Osteoporosis doesnt show up on ordinary X-rays until 30% of the bone loss has occurred. Bone densitometry can detect bone loss of 3% or less. This test is sometimes recommended routinely for women over 35 who are at risk. Strenuous exercise wont cause fractures. 60. Answer: (C) Joint flexion of less than 50% Rationale: Arthroscopy is contraindicated in clients with joint flexion of less than 50% because of technical problems in inserting the instrument into the joint to see it clearly. Other contraindications for this procedure include skin and wound infections. Joint pain may be an indication, not a contraindication, for arthroscopy. Joint deformity and joint stiffness arent contraindications for this procedure. 61. Answer: (D) Gouty arthritis Rationale: Gouty arthritis, a metabolic disease, is characterized by urate deposits and pain in the joints, especially those in the feet and legs. Urate deposits dont occur in septic or traumatic arthritis. Septic arthritis results from bacterial invasion of a joint and leads to inflammation of the synovial lining. Traumatic arthritis results from blunt trauma to a joint or ligament. Intermittent arthritis is a rare, benign condition marked by regular, recurrent joint effusions, especially in the knees. 62. Answer: (B) 30 ml/hou Rationale: An infusion prepared with 25,000 units of heparin in 500 ml of saline solution yields 50 units of heparin per milliliter of solution. The equation is set up as 50 units times X (the unknown quantity) equals 1,500 units/hour, X equals 30 ml/hour. 63. Answer: (B) Loss of muscle contraction decreasing venous return Rationale: In clients with hemiplegia or hemiparesis loss of muscle contraction decreases venous return and may cause swelling of the affected extremity. Contractures, or bony calcifications may occur with a stroke, but dont appear with swelling. DVT may develop in clients with a stroke but is more likely to occur in the lower extremities. A stroke isnt linked to protein loss. 64. Answer: (B) It appears on the distal interphalangeal joint Rationale: Heberdens nodes appear on the distal interphalageal joint on both men and women. Bouchards node appears on the dorsolateral aspect of the proximal interphalangeal joint.

65. Answer: (B) Osteoarthritis is a localized disease rheumatoid arthritis is systemic Rationale: Osteoarthritis is a localized disease, rheumatoid arthritis is systemic. Osteoarthritis isnt gender-specific, but rheumatoid arthritis is. Clients have dislocations and subluxations in both disorders. 66. Answer: (C) The cane should be used on the unaffected side Rationale: A cane should be used on the unaffected side. A client with osteoarthritis should be encouraged to ambulate with a cane, walker, or other assistive device as needed; their use takes weight and stress off joints. 67. Answer: (A) a. 9 U regular insulin and 21 U neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH). Rationale: A 70/30 insulin preparation is 70% NPH and 30% regular insulin. Therefore, a correct substitution requires mixing 21 U of NPH and 9 U of regular insulin. The other choices are incorrect dosages for the prescribed insulin. 68. Answer: (C) colchicines Rationale: A disease characterized by joint inflammation (especially in the great toe), gout is caused by urate crystal deposits in the joints. The physician prescribes colchicine to reduce these deposits and thus ease joint inflammation. Although aspirin is used to reduce joint inflammation and pain in clients with osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis, it isnt indicated for gout because it has no effect on urate crystal formation. Furosemide, a diuretic, doesnt relieve gout. Calcium gluconate is used to reverse a negative calcium balance and relieve muscle cramps, not to treat gout. 69. Answer: (A) Adrenal cortex Rationale: Excessive secretion of aldosterone in the adrenal cortex is responsible for the clients hypertension. This hormone acts on the renal tubule, where it promotes reabsorption of sodium and excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions. The pancreas mainly secretes hormones involved in fuel metabolism. The adrenal medulla secretes the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. The parathyroids secrete parathyroid hormone. 70. Answer: (C) They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention Rationale: For this client, wet-to-dry dressings are most appropriate because they clean the foot ulcer by debriding exudate and necrotic tissue, thus promoting healing by secondary intention. Moist, transparent dressings contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment. Hydrocolloid dressings prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort. Dry sterile dressings protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing. 71. Answer: (A) Hyperkalemia Rationale: In adrenal insufficiency, the client has hyperkalemia due to reduced aldosterone secretion. BUN increases as the glomerular filtration rate is reduced. Hyponatremia is caused by reduced aldosterone secretion. Reduced cortisol secretion leads to impaired glyconeogenesis and a reduction of glycogen in the liver and muscle, causing hypoglycemia. 72. Answer: (C) Restricting fluids Rationale: To reduce water retention in a client with the SIADH, the nurse should restrict fluids.

Administering fluids by any route would further increase the clients already heightened fluid load. 73. Answer: (D) glycosylated hemoglobin level. Rationale: Because some of the glucose in the bloodstream attaches to some of the hemoglobin and stays attached during the 120-day life span of red blood cells, glycosylated hemoglobin levels provide information about blood glucose levels during the previous 3 months. Fasting blood glucose and urine glucose levels only give information about glucose levels at the point in time when they were obtained. Serum fructosamine levels provide information about blood glucose control over the past 2 to 3 weeks. 74. Answer: (C) 4:00 pm Rationale: NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin that peaks 8 to 12 hours after administration. Because the nurse administered NPH insulin at 7 a.m., the client is at greatest risk for hypoglycemia from 3 p.m. to 7 p.m. 75. Answer: (A) Glucocorticoids and androgens Rationale: The adrenal glands have two divisions, the cortex and medulla. The cortex produces three types of hormones: glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens. The medulla produces catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. 76. Answer: (A) Hypocalcemia Rationale: Hypocalcemia may follow thyroid surgery if the parathyroid glands were removed accidentally. Signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia may be delayed for up to 7 days after surgery. Thyroid surgery doesnt directly cause serum sodium, potassium, or magnesium abnormalities. Hyponatremia may occur if the client inadvertently received too much fluid; however, this can happen to any surgical client receiving I.V. fluid therapy, not just one recovering from thyroid surgery. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia usually are associated with reduced renal excretion of potassium and magnesium, not thyroid surgery. 77. Answer: (D) Carcinoembryonic antigen level Rationale: In clients who smoke, the level of carcinoembryonic antigen is elevated. Therefore, it cant be used as a general indicator of cancer. However, it is helpful in monitoring cancer treatment because the level usually falls to normal within 1 month if treatment is successful. An elevated acid phosphatase level may indicate prostate cancer. An elevated alkaline phosphatase level may reflect bone metastasis. An elevated serum calcitonin level usually signals thyroid cancer. 78. Answer: (B) Dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor Rationale: Signs of iron-deficiency anemia include dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor as well as fatigue, listlessness, irritability, and headache. Night sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea may signal acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia may be signs of hepatitis B. Itching, rash, and jaundice may result from an allergic or hemolytic reaction. 79. Answer: (D) Ill need to have a C-section if I become pregnant and have a baby. Rationale: The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is transmitted from mother to child via the

transplacental route, but a Cesarean section delivery isnt necessary when the mother is HIVpositive. The use of birth control will prevent the conception of a child who might have HIV. Its true that a mother whos HIV positive can give birth to a baby whos HIV negative. 80. Answer: (C) Avoid sharing such articles as toothbrushes and razors. Rationale: The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS, is most concentrated in the blood. For this reason, the client shouldnt share personal articles that may be bloodcontaminated, such as toothbrushes and razors, with other family members. HIV isnt transmitted by bathing or by eating from plates, utensils, or serving dishes used by a person with AIDS. 81. Answer: (B) Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue Rationale: Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue are all characteristic findings in pernicious anemia. Other clinical manifestations include anorexia; weight loss; a smooth, beefy red tongue; a wide pulse pressure; palpitations; angina; weakness; fatigue; and paresthesia of the hands and feet. Bradycardia, reduced pulse pressure, weight gain, and double vision arent characteristic findings in pernicious anemia. 82. Answer: (B) Administer epinephrine, as prescribed, and prepare to intubate the client if necessary. Rationale: To reverse anaphylactic shock, the nurse first should administer epinephrine, a potent bronchodilator as prescribed. The physician is likely to order additional medications, such as antihistamines and corticosteroids; if these medications dont relieve the respiratory compromise associated with anaphylaxis, the nurse should prepare to intubate the client. No antidote for penicillin exists; however, the nurse should continue to monitor the clients vital signs. A client who remains hypotensive may need fluid resuscitation and fluid intake and output monitoring; however, administering epinephrine is the first priority. 83. Answer: (D) bilateral hearing loss. Rationale: Prolonged use of aspirin and other salicylates sometimes causes bilateral hearing loss of 30 to 40 decibels. Usually, this adverse effect resolves within 2 weeks after the therapy is discontinued. Aspirin doesnt lead to weight gain or fine motor tremors. Large or toxic salicylate doses may cause respiratory alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis. 84. Answer: (D) Lymphocyte Rationale: The lymphocyte provides adaptive immunity recognition of a foreign antigen and formation of memory cells against the antigen. Adaptive immunity is mediated by B and T lymphocytes and can be acquired actively or passively. The neutrophil is crucial to phagocytosis. The basophil plays an important role in the release of inflammatory mediators. The monocyte functions in phagocytosis and monokine production. 85. Answer: (A) moisture replacement. Rationale: Sjogrens syndrome is an autoimmune disorder leading to progressive loss of lubrication of the skin, GI tract, ears, nose, and vagina. Moisture replacement is the mainstay of therapy. Though malnutrition and electrolyte imbalance may occur as a result of Sjogrens

syndromes effect on the GI tract, it isnt the predominant problem. Arrhythmias arent a problem associated with Sjogrens syndrome. 86. Answer: (C) stool for Clostridium difficile test. Rationale: Immunosuppressed clients for example, clients receiving chemotherapy, are at risk for infection with C. difficile, which causes horse barn smelling diarrhea. Successful treatment begins with an accurate diagnosis, which includes a stool test. The ELISA test is diagnostic for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and isnt indicated in this case. An electrolyte panel and hemogram may be useful in the overall evaluation of a client but arent diagnostic for specific causes of diarrhea. A flat plate of the abdomen may provide useful information about bowel function but isnt indicated in the case of horse barn smelling diarrhea. 87. Answer: (D) Western blot test with ELISA. Rationale: HIV infection is detected by analyzing blood for antibodies to HIV, which form approximately 2 to 12 weeks after exposure to HIV and denote infection. The Western blot test electrophoresis of antibody proteins is more than 98% accurate in detecting HIV antibodies when used in conjunction with the ELISA. It isnt specific when used alone. Erosette immunofluorescence is used to detect viruses in general; it doesnt confirm HIV infection. Quantification of T-lymphocytes is a useful monitoring test but isnt diagnostic for HIV. The ELISA test detects HIV antibody particles but may yield inaccurate results; a positive ELISA result must be confirmed by the Western blot test. 88. Answer: (C) Abnormally low hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels Rationale: Low preoperative HCT and Hb levels indicate the client may require a blood transfusion before surgery. If the HCT and Hb levels decrease during surgery because of blood loss, the potential need for a transfusion increases. Possible renal failure is indicated by elevated BUN or creatinine levels. Urine constituents arent found in the blood. Coagulation is determined by the presence of appropriate clotting factors, not electrolytes. 89. Answer: (A) Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time Rationale: The diagnosis of DIC is based on the results of laboratory studies of prothrombin time, platelet count, thrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and fibrinogen level as well as client history and other assessment factors. Blood glucose levels, WBC count, calcium levels, and potassium levels arent used to confirm a diagnosis of DIC. 90. Answer: (D) Strawberries Rationale: Common food allergens include berries, peanuts, Brazil nuts, cashews, shellfish, and eggs. Bread, carrots, and oranges rarely cause allergic reactions. 91. Answer: (B) A client with cast on the right leg who states, I have a funny feeling in my right leg. Rationale: It may indicate neurovascular compromise, requires immediate assessment. 92. Answer: (D) A 62-year-old who had an abdominal-perineal resection three days ago; client complaints of chills.

Rationale: The client is at risk for peritonitis; should be assessed for further symptoms and infection. 93. Answer: (C) The client spontaneously flexes his wrist when the blood pressure is obtained. Rationale: Carpal spasms indicate hypocalcemia. 94. Answer: (D) Use comfort measures and pillows to position the client. Rationale: Using comfort measures and pillows to position the client is a non-pharmacological methods of pain relief. 95. Answer: (B) Warm the dialysate solution. Rationale: Cold dialysate increases discomfort. The solution should be warmed to body temperature in warmer or heating pad; dont use microwave oven. 96. Answer: (C) The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane forward followed by the right leg, and then moves the left leg. Rationale: The cane acts as a support and aids in weight bearing for the weaker right leg. 97. Answer: (A) Ask the womans family to provide personal items such as photos or mementos. Rationale: Photos and mementos provide visual stimulation to reduce sensory deprivation. 98. Answer: (B) The client lifts the walker, moves it forward 10 inches, and then takes several small steps forward. Rationale: A walker needs to be picked up, placed down on all legs. 99. Answer: (C) Isolation from their families and familiar surroundings. Rationale: Gradual loss of sight, hearing, and taste interferes with normal functioning. 100. Answer: (A) Encourage the client to perform pursed lip breathing. Rationale: Purse lip breathing prevents the collapse of lung unit and helps client control rate and depth of breathing. NCP for jaundice in adults, health teaching plan for pneumonia, fluid and electrolyte questions with rationale, nursing intervention for numbness, nursing diagnosis for pulmonary hypertension, nursing intervention for sleep disturbance related to cough, nursing diagnosis for high cholesterol

Situation: One important legal and safe nursing responsibility is concerned with administration of medications. 1. A pediatric client has been diagnosed with conjunctivitis. The nurse is to administer eye drops 4 times a day. The nurse should administer the medication on to which of the following areas? a. Center of the cornea b. Sclera by the inner canthus c. C. Sclera by the outer canthus d. Lower conjunctival sac 2. While assessing the clients intravenous (IV) line, the nurse notes that the area is swollen and cool, causing the client discomfort. The nurse suspects which of the following problems: a. Infiltration b. Phlebitis c. Infection d. Air embolism 3. The client is receiving a 5% dextrose in 0.45% NaCl intravevenously (IV) and report pain at the site, the nurse assesses the site and notes erythema and edema. What would be the appropriate action for the nurse to take? a. Slow the infusion rate b. Discontinue the IV and apply a warm compress to the IV site c. Apply antibiotic ointment to the IV site d. Gently pull back the IV access device to reposition it within the vein 4. A patients medication order is to take digoxin 0.125 mg p.o. q.i.d. The nurse has on hand Lanoxin 0.25 mg tablet. The best course of action is to: a. Dispense 1 tab b. Dispense tab c. Dispense 2 tablets d. Return the medication to the pharmacy 5. The patient is ordered 2000 ml of Lactated Ringers over 12 hours. The drop factor is 15gtts/ml. The nurse will regulate the IV to how many gtts/min? a. 28 gtts/min b. 42 gtts/min c. 56 gtts/min d. 14 gtts/min Situation: The nurse is caring for a group of hospitalized patients. 6. What should the nurse do first to prevent patient infections? a. Provide small bedside bags to dispose of used tissues b. Encourage staff to avoid coughing near patients

c. Administer antibiotics as ordered d. Identify patients at risk 7. The nurse must collect the following specimens. Which specimen collection does not require the use of surgical aseptic technique? a. Stool for ova and parasites b. Specimen for a throat culture c. Urine from a retention catheter d. Exudate from a wound for culture and sensitivity 8. The nurse identifies that the greatest risk for a wound infection exists for a patient with a: a. Surgical creation of a colostomy b. First degree burn on the back c. Puncture of a foot by a nail d. Paper cut on the finger 9. The nurse understands that the factor that places a patient at the greatest risk for developing an infection is: a. Implantation of a prosthetic device b. Presence of an indwelling catheter c. Burns more than twenty percent of the body d. Multiple puncture sites from laparascopic surgery 10. The nurse is caring for a patient with high fever secondary septicemia. When the physician orders a cooling blanket, the nurse understands that it is used to achieved heat loss via: a. Radiation b. Convection c. Conduction d. Evaporation Situation: The nurse is caring for Mrs. Estrada who has recently diagnosed with advanced cancer. 11. a. b. c. d. Which statement reflects Kubler-Ross stage of denial in the grief process? Why this have to happen to me now? My daughter will live with my sister after I am gone Maybe they mixed up my records with someone elses How could this happen to me when I quit smoking cigarettes?

12. After the physician has informed Mrs. Estrada that her cancer is inoperable and the prognosis is poor, the patient begins to cry. The nurse should: a. Touch the patients hand to provide support b. Leave the room to give the patient privacy to cry c. Telephone the patients family to inform them of the diagnosis d. Ask the patient how she feels to encourage ventilation of feelings

13. is: a. b. c. d.

Mrs. Estrada became withdrawn and depressed. The nursing action that is most therapeutic Assisting the patient to focus on positive thoughts daily Explaining that the patient still accomplish goals Accepting the patients behavioral adaptation Offering the patient advice when appropriate

14. Which is the most appropriate inference made by the nurse when a patient says, Im the same age as my father when he died. Am I going to die of my cancer? The patient is experiencing: a. Grieving associated with perceived impending death b. Powerlessness associated with feelings of loss of control c. Fear associated with perceived threat to biological integrity d. Ineffective coping associated with inadequate psychological resources 15. Mrs. Estrada is now willing to try new therapies. The nurse identifies that the patient is in what stage of Kubler-Ross stages of grieving? a. Denial b. Bargaining c. Depression d. Acceptance Situation: The nurse should be aware of the legal principles associated with nursing practice. 16. a. b. c. d. Licensure of Registered Professional Nurses is required necessarily to protect: Nurses Patients Common law Health care agencies

17. A patient falls while getting out of bed unassisted. When completing and Incident Report, the nurse understands that it main purpose is to: a. Ensure that all parties have an opportunity to document what happened b. Help establish who is responsible for the incident c. Make available data available for quality control analysis d. Document the incident on the patients chart 18. The nurse says. If you do not let me do this dressing change, I will not let you eat dinner with other residents in the dining room. This is an example of : a. Assault b. Battery c. Negligence d. Malpractice 19. An anxious patient repeatedly uses the call bell to get the nurse to come to the room. Finally the nurse says to the patient, If you keep ringing, there will come a time I wont answer

the bell.This is an example of: a. Slander b. Assault c. Battery d. Libel 20. A patient asks the nurse, What is a Living Will? the nurse should respond that it is a document that: a. Instructs a physician to withhold/withdraw life-sustaining procedures if death is near b. Enables a person to request medication to end life in a humane and dignified manner c. Gives consent to perform life-sustaining medical intervention during an emergency d. Wills ones organs to help others who need a transplant to sustain life Situation: As a nurse you must be responsible for the needs of your client. 21. Ms. R has been medicated for her surgery. The operating room (OR) nurse, when going through the clients chart, realizes that the consent form has not been signed. Which of the following is the best action for the nurse to take? a. Assume it is emergency surgery and the consent is implied b. Give the consent form and have the client sign it c. Tell the physician that the consent form is not signed d. Have a family member sign the consent form 22. Ms. R is a client on your medical-surgical unit. His cousin is a physician and wants to see the chart. Which of the following is the best response for the nurse to take? a. Hand the cousin the clients chart to review b. Ask Ms. R to sign an authorization, and have someone review the chart with the cousin c. Call the attending physician and have the doctor speak with his cousin d. Tell the cousin that the request cannot be granted 23. Ms. R has had both wrists restrained because she is agitated and pulls out her IV lines. Which of the following would the nurse observe if Ms. R is not suffering any ill effects from the restraints? That: a. She has difficulty moving her fingers and making a fist b. Her skin is reddened where the limits were tied around her wrist c. Ms. Rs capillary refill is less than two seconds d. The client complains of numbness and tingling in her hand 24. The nurse is in the hospitals public cafeteria and hears two nursing assistants talking about Ms. R in 406. They are using her name and discussing intimate details about her illness. Which of the following actions is best for the nurse to take? a. Go over and tell the nursing assistants that their actions are inappropriate, especially in public place b. Wait and tell the assistants later that they were overheard discussing the client. Otherwise, they might be embarrassed. c. Tell the nursing assistants supervisor about the incident. It is the supervisors responsibility

to address the issue d. Say nothing. It is not the nurses job and she is not responsible for the assistants actions 25. A nurse comes up a motor vehicle accident when driving to work. The nurse administers care to the people involved. Under the Good Samaritan Act, the nurse could be liable: a. For nothing, any action is covered b. For gross negligence c. For not providing the standard care found in the hospital d. For not stopping and offering care
1. Answer D. Administering eye drops should be done in the lower conjunctival sac to ensure that the medication gets to eye. Option A is not done since some medications can irritate the cornea when placed directly in to it. Options B and C are not practiced because doing so cannot hold the medication into the eye. Its tendency would be, the medication would run out or flow out of the eyes. 2. Answer A. Infiltration happens when the intravenous fluid does not enter the veins, instead it is diffused in the areas outside the vein which explains why the area is swollen and cool to touch. Option B happens when there is there is an inflammation of the vein in the site. It is characterized by pain, swelling, redness and it is warm to touch. Option C is manifested by pain, swelling, warm to touch, redness and fever is present in the client. Option D is expected when the client complains of feeling pain in the IV site and that you can see in the IV tubing that it is filled with air. 3. Answer B. It is a priority nursing action to first assess the clients IV site before doing anything. Once there is a report of pain in the site, plus edema and erythema, we check for the patency of the IV site, if it is not patent, then we discontinue the IV and apply warm compress to the IV site to lessen swelling. Options A and D are incorrect because such actions will not relieve the client from pain, edema and erythema. Option C is not indicated because there is no accurate indication that there is a bacterial infection in the site. 4. Answer B. Quantity= desired dose/ available dose 0.125/ 0.25 = 0.5 tab. The nurse should dispense tablet of Digoxin. Options A, C and D are all incorrect answer. 5. Answer B. 41.66 or 42 gtts/min 6. Answer D. When a nurse is caring for quite a number of patients, to prevent the spread of infections among patients, she should know who are the possible carrier of infections and those who are at risk of acquiring one. Options A, B and C are inappropriate infection preventions that are indicated in this situation. 7. Answer A. Stool for ova and parasites does not require a sterile technique because we are after for the presence of ova and parasites. And if we are looking for the presence of bacteria in the stool, sterile technique is not still utilized because normally there will be a lot of bacteria in the stool. Options B, C and D require a sterile technique in order to identify what bacterial growth is present in the specimen. 8. Answer C. The patient is at greater risk of wound infection when he is punctured by a nail in the foot. He is at risk for acquiring tetanus infection once he is not given with tetanus toxoid immunization. The wound the nail creates is quite deep thus there is a great risk for infection. In the case of Option A, patients with colostomy is often given with antibiotics. Options B and D are incorrect because the wound created is not quite deep. 9. Answer C. The skin is the first line of defense of the body against the infections. In cases of burns

more than 20% of the body, this defense is weakened thus the person is greatly predisposed to developing different kinds of infection. Burns does not only affect the ability of the skin to defend the body but it also alters the immunity of the body. Options A, B and D may predispose a patient from the development of infections but cannot be considered as great as compared to burns. 10. Answer C. Heat loss is achieved through different methods. Conduction happens when there is a direct contact of a material in the skin to achieve heat loss. In this case heat loss is achieved with the use of cooling blanket. Option A is achieved when body heat is diffused away from the body into the air via skin. Option B is achieved by moving air away from the body to replace the warmth the body has with the use of a fan. Option D is achieved with the use of water such as in tepid sponge baths. 11. Answer C. The stages of grief includes: Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression and Acceptance. The stage of denial is when the patient is unable to acknowledge the existence of the diagnosis. In this stage, the patient would seek more opinions from other doctors because she cannot accept the fact of her diagnosis. Options A and D are an example of the stage anger, in which she asks a lot of questions regarding the reason of her sickness. Option D shows the acceptance of the patient. 12. Answer A. Touching to provide support is a form of therapeutic communication. The use of touch reinforces caring feelings. Option B is non therapeutic. Option C is incorrect because the nurse is not in the position to tell the patients family of her prognosis. It is only done by the patient or when the patient requests the nurse to do so. Option D may correct but is not the best answer indicated in this situation. 13. Answer C. Mrs. Estrada is undergoing the process of depression which is a normal in coping with the grief process. In order to be therapeutic for this patient, the nurse should accept this behavioural adaptation of the patient, since it is just normal. Options A, B and D are non therapeutic because this conditions do not allow the normal process of grieving. 14. Answer C. The patient is experiencing fear because she herself has seen how her father died in the same age as she has in the present. Options A, B and D may be correct but are not indicated in the situation presented. 15. Answer B. Bargaining is the stage when the patient tries new things in order for her to lengthen her life. She is willing to try therapies ranging from the conventional to non conventional methods of treating her cancer. Other options do not describe the grieving stage that Mrs. Estrada is experiencing. 16. Answer B. The Licensure of Registered Professional Nurses protects its main consumers which are the patients. Other options are not the reason as to why nurses undergo licensing. 17. Answer C. Incident reports are filled out in order to record details of unusual events occurring in the hospital and care of patients. In this case, the incident report is filled out in order to have an available data for quality control analysis and in the future when dealing with legal liabilities. Options A, B and D are incorrect because these are not the reason as to why nurses fill out incident reports. 18. Answer A. Assault is threatening or attempting to inflict injuries to the patient. The verbalization of the nurse clearly shows that it is a case of an assault. Option B is touching the patient without consent. This is done by pinching or slapping the patient. Options C and D are forms of violations that the nurse can commit to a patient in line with the patients profession. 19. Answer B. This is a case where the nurse committed an assault as manifested by the threatening behaviour of the nurse. Option A is achieved when you speak ill of a person. Option B is putting the threatening behaviour into action. Option D is committed when one talks ill of another through writing it

in a published form. 20. Answer C. Living will is a legal document that an individual uses to make known his wishes to prolong his life. It is also known as advanced directives. In this case, a living will gives consent to perform life sustaining medical intervention to prolong life in cases of emergency. Other options presented are incorrect because they do not describe what a living will is all about. 21. Answer C. Consents allow the physician to do the medical procedures indicated for the patient. Prior to procedure, it is the doctors responsibility to obtain the patients consent and it is the responsibility of the nurse to let the patient sign the consent prior to the surgical procedure. Consent unsigned is like consent not given so it is a must that the nurse should tell the situation to the doctor performing the surgery. Options A, B and D are incorrect because they violate the legalities of the consent. 22. Answer B. The owner of the chart is the patient himself so it is a must that before authorizing any individual to view the chart, authorization should secured and have someone review the chart with the patients physician cousin. Options A, C and D are the incorrect way of dealing such situations involving the patients chart. 23. Answer C. When restraints are applied, it is a must for the nurse to assess the quality of the patients skin where the restraint is applied. The priority assessment should be done by assessing the patients capillary refill so as to ensure circulation of the extremity. Capillary refill of less than two seconds shows that there is a good circulation in that area. Options A, B and D are signs that the restraints applied are having negative effects to the patients extremity. 24. Answer A. It is the preferred answer because right there in then you will be able to stop the discussion of the patients case in front of a lot of people. Option B may be correct because you are saving from humiliation the nursing assistance but it is not the preferred answer because doing so will allow further discussion of the case and more harm will be committed. Option C may be correct because in the first place you are not their immediate superior but not appropriate in this situation because it will further the discussion of the case thus allowing a lot of people to overhear it. Option D is the worst thing to do since you will not do anything to prevent it from happening. 25. Answer A.Good Samaritan Act protects those who choose to lend a hand during emergency situations. In this act, the nurse is not liable to any laws once she helps an injured individual during this emergency. Options B, C and D are incorrect because these do not explain what the act is all about.