AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) HUMAN ANATOMY 1.

. Which of the following passes from one generation to another generation A. Chromatin B. C. Cell membrane Nucleolus On the right, the common carotid arises from the brachiocephalic artery as it passes behind the sternoclavicular joint. On the left, the common carotid artery comes directly from the arch of the aorta in the superior mediastinum. The right common carotid has, therefore, only a cervical part whereas the left common carotid has cervical and thoracic parts. Answer: A. Chromatin Reference: Grays Anatomy, 40/E, p. 19 Explanation: Genetic material or DNA passes from one generation to the next. Chromatin is the DNAprotein complex found within the nucleus. The protein components of chromatin include histone and non histone proteins. Non histone proteins include DNA and RNA polymerase, structural proteins. Euchromatin: uncondensed form of chromatin seen in transcriptionally active cells. Appear as pale staining areas in the nucleus. Heterochromatin: condensed form of chromatin seen in transcriptionally inactive cells and appear as darker staining areas around the periphery of the nucleus. Constitutive heterochromatin: non-coding regions of DNA (ex: centromeric regions) Facultative heterochromatin: DNA that is inactivated maturation in some cells to as they differentiate during development or cell contributes The facultative inactive X heterochromatin.(ex: Explanation: Because majority of the calcium in the blood is in the form of ionic calcium, though it also exists as protein bound both albumin & globulin bound. It is the ionic calcium that functions as second messenger, coagulation, 2. Common carotid artery divides to ICA & ECA at A. Cricoids cartilage B. C. Thyroid cartilage 1st tracheal ring is necessary for blood and muscle contraction, 3. proteins and gene regulatory PHYSIOLOGY Calcium is transported in blood as A. Albumin complex B. C. Globulin complex Bound to ions On both sides, the common carotid artery ascends to the level of the upper border of the thyroid cartilage (C34 junction), and divides into external and internal carotid arteries. The artery may be compressed against the prominent transverse process of the sixth cervical vertebra (Chassaignac's tubercle), and above this level it is superficial and its pulsation can be easily felt.

D. Centriole

D. Hemoglobin complex Answer: C. Bound to ions Reference: Ganong, 23/E, p. 364

chromosome which can be identified in the light microscope as the deeply staining Barr body/ drumstick chromosome).

nerve function. Distribution (mmol/L) of Calcium in Normal Human Plasma

D. Cricothyroid membrane Answer: B. Thyroid cartilage Reference: Grays Anatomy, 40/E, pp. 444-445 Explanation: Origins of the common carotid arteries differ on the right and left sides.

Total Diffusible
Ionized (Ca ) Complexed to HCO-3, citrate etc
2++

1.34
1.18 0.16

Total Non Diffusible (Protein Bound)

Bound to albumin Bound to globulin Total Plasma Calcium 0.92 0.24

1.16

2.50

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) 4. Life time of RBCs is A. 3 days B. C. 2 days 120 days A. Protein lipid synthesis B. C. Protein synthesis Sorting of glycoproteins

D. None Answer: C. Sorting of glycoproteins

D. 6 weeks Answer: C. 120 days Reference: Satyanarayana, 3/E, pp. 1-5 Reference: Guyton, 11/E, p. 426 Explanation: 5. The primary effect of Calcitonin is A. Bone deposition B. C. Bone resorption Increase intestinal absorption of calcium Biochemical functions of sub cellular organelles of eukaryotic cells Sub cellular organelles Plasma membrane Functions Transport of molecules in and out of the cell. Intracellular Lysosome cellular proteins, digestion of like substances

D. Decrease intestinal absorption of calcium Answer: A. Bone deposition Reference: Guyton, 11/E, p. 988 Explanation: Primary effect of calcitonin is inhibition of bone resorption thus shifting the balance towards bone deposition.

carbohydrates,

lipids and nucleic acids. Golgi apparatus Rough endoplasmic Modification and Sorting of proteins Synthesis of proteins

6.

Infusion of hypertonic sodium chloride solution results in A. Increase in intracellular volume B. C. Increase in extracellular volume Decrease in extracellular volume in intracellular volume

reticulum Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Nucleus Mitochondria

Synthesis of lipids Contains material Power house of the cell, synthesis of ATP Contains peroxidase involved and in catalase, fatty acids Contains several enzymes for glycolysis, pathway, urea cycle, etc HMP shunt DNA, genetic

D. Increase in extracellular volume and decrease

Answer: D. Increase in extracellular volume and decrease in intracellular volume Reference: Indu Khuranas Text Book of Medical Physiology, 1/E, p. 9 Explanation: Intravenous infusion of hypertonic saline solution leads to an increase in the plasma osmolality. The rise in plasma osmolality causes water to shift from the interstitium into the plasma, thereby increasing the plasma volume. The increase in osmolality of the ECF causes water to flow out of the ICF, which eventually decreases the volume of the ICF and increases the ECF. Answer: A. Aerobic 8. Cytosol Peroxisomes

oxidation of very long chain

gluconeogenesis,

Krebs cycle occurs in A. Aerobic conditions B. C. Anaerobic conditions Microaerophilic conditions

D. Both Aerobic & anaerobic

Reference: Satyanarayana, 3/E, p. 263 Explanation: BIOCHEMISTRY 7. Golgi bodies function as Krebs cycle operates only under aerobic conditions.

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) The NAD+ and FAD required for the operation of TCA cycle can be regenerated in the electron transport chain only in the presence of oxygen. Therefore Krebs cycle is strictly aerobic in contrast to glycolysis which operates in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 9. Capillaries are more permeable due to lack of A. Tunica media B. C. Tunica intima Tunica adventitia PHARMACOLOGY 11. Epinephrine is contraindicated with L.A. in A. Thyrotoxicosis B. C. Diabetes Congestive heart failure

D. Lamina propria Answer: A. Tunica media Reference: Histology for Pathologists, p. 769 Explanation: Capillaries have neither a muscular media nor elastic lamellae. A single but complete layer of endothelial cells lies on a basement membrane whose thickness varies from site to site. Basement membrane thickness increases with age, almost doubling in muscle capillaries from 10 to 70 years.

D. None Answer: A. Thyrotoxicosis Reference: Tripathi, 6/E, p. 356 Explanation: This combination is to be avoided in patients with ischemic heart disease Comparative properties of important local anaesthetics Safe dose max (inj) Total (mg/k (mg) g) Cocaine Procaine Lidocain e Tetracai ne Bupivac aine Dibucai ne Not injected 400 300 80 100 50 (6) (4.5) (1.2) (1.5) Metabolis m in Plas liv ma er + + + + + + + + Duration of nerve block (min) 30-60 60-120 180-480 180-360 180-600

MICROBIOLOGY 10. Serum sickness syndrome is A. A transplant immunity B. C. An anaphylactic shock Arthus reaction

D. None Answer: D. None Reference: Ananthanarayan, 5/E, p. 152 Explanation: Serum Sickness is placed under Type - III Hypersensitivity and is because of Deposition of Immune complexes. Placed under the same type is Arthus reaction, but serum Sickness is Systemic Form but Arthus reaction is Localized form. Transplant Immunity is A Type IV hypersensitivity. So, the answer is NONE

12. Treatment of Actinomycosis is A. Penicillin B. C. Erythromycin Cephalosporin

D. Clindamycin

Answer: A. Penicillin Reference: Tripathi, 6/E, p. 699

GENERAL MEDICINE

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) 13. Incubation period of hepatitis B is A. 2 5 weeks B. C. 10 days 1 6 months Answer: C. Heating to 700C for 10 min and quenching in H2O Reference: Phillips, 11/E, p. 138 17. Lanolin is added in ZOE paste to A. Decrease flow B. Explanation: Incubation periods HAV:15-45 days(30) HBV: 30-180 days(60-90) HCV: 15-160 days(50) HDV: 30180 days(60-90) HEV: 14-60 days(40) Answer: B. Increase flow Reference: Phillips, 11/E, p. 252 18. Stellite alloy is A. Chrome cobalt alloy B. C. GENERAL SURGERY No Questions asked Aluminum bromide alloy Type II gold alloy C. Increase flow Accelerate reaction D. None

D. 12 days Answer: C. 1 6 months Reference:

D. Decrease irritation due to Eugenol

D. All Answer: A. Chrome-cobalt alloy Reference: ASM Specialty Handbook: Nickel, Cobalt, and Their Alloys, 1/E, p. 364

DENTAL MATERIALS 14. Polishing of composite is problematic due to A. Soft matrix and hard filler particles B. C. Hard filler particles Hardness of matrix & filler particles 19. Thermal conductivity of --- is equal to that of tooth A. Silicate cement B. C. Composite resin Amalgam

D. None

D. Cavity varnish Answer: A. Soft matrix and hard filler particles Answer: A. Silicate cements Reference: Craig, 12/E, p. 203 Reference: Phillips, 11/E, p. 446 15. Hardness of stainless steel orthodontic wire can be increased by A. Work hardening B. C. Age hardening Tempering 20. Cleaning of base metal alloy is done by A. Warm HCL B. C. Cold HF Cold H2SO4

D. Quenching Answer: A. Work hardening

D. Sand blasting with aluminum oxide

Answer: D. Sand blasting with aluminum oxide Reference: Phillips, 11/E, p. 88 Reference: Phillips, 11/E, p. 370 16. Solution heat treatment of gold is done by A. Heating to 1000C for 1 hr and quenching in H2O B. C. Heating to 7000C for 1 hr and quenching in H2O Heating to 7000 C for 10 min and quenching in H2O 21. Chroma is A. Intensity of color B. C. Translucency of enamel Translucency of enamel & dentin

D. None of the above

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) force is responsible for the eruption of tooth. Eruptive force is derived from bone remodeling, root growth, Answer: A. Intensity of color Reference: Phillips, 11/E, p. 41 vascular pressure, ligament traction. There is a good deal of evidence that the eruptive force resides in the dental follicle periodontal ligament complex. 24. Disturbances during calcification of dentin DADH 22. The fibers which continue bone to ligament are A. Sharpeys fibers B. C. Tomes fibers Ray fibers causes A. Cementicles B. C. Dentin dysplasia Interglobular dentin

D. None

D. All of the above Answer: A. Sharpeys fibres Reference: Orbans Oral Histology, 12/E, p. 172 Explanation: Sharpeys Fibres Collagen fibres are embedded into cementum on one side of the periodontal space and into alveolar bone on the other. These embedded fibres are termed as Sharpeys fibres Sharpeys fibres in the primary acellular cementum is completely mineralized but those in the cellular cementum and bone are partially mineralized Few Sharpeys fibres pass uninterrupted through the bone of the alveolar process and continue as principal fibres of the adjacent periodontal ligament. They are termed as Transalveolar fibres These fibres pass through bone only when alveolar process consists of compact bone entirely without Haversian systems The embedded Sharpeys fibres calcify to a certain degree and they are associated with non collagenous proteins like osteopontin and bone sialoprotein They are derived from dental follicle. Interglobular Dentin Interglobular unmineralized dentin Sometimes mineralization of dentin begins in small globular areas that fail to fuse resulting in the formation of irregular called areas of hypocalcified dentin It is found along the incremental lines especially in the crown of teeth in the Circumpulpal dentin Dentinal tubules pass without deviation through interglobular areas Peritubular dentin are absent from dentinal tubules passing through interglobular dentin as interglobular dentin remains uncalcified In dry ground sections a small amount of interglobular dentin may be lost and a space results which appears black in transmitted 23. Tooth eruption is due to A. Osteoclastic activity B. C. Proliferation of cells at crypt Exfoliation of primary tooth light. Hence it as also called interglobular space or globular dentin. This layer shows a high amount of sulphur It is frequently seen in vitamin D deficiency or exposure to high level of fluoride during Dentinogenesis. Answer: D. Eruptive forces Reference: Orbans Oral Histology, 12/E, p. 288 Explanation: Tooth eruption is the axial or occlusal movement of the tooth from its developmental position within the jaw to its functional position in the occlusal position. Eruptive Cementicles Cementicles are round lamellated cemental bodies that lie free in the periodontal ligament space Found along the root and more common in aged persons matrix Interglobular dentin or is the area of hypomineralised dentin Explanation: Answer: C. Interglobular dentin Reference: Orbans Oral Histology, 12/E, p. 93

which persists within the normally mineralized

D. Eruptive forces

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) Dentin Dysplasia Types 1. Radicular 2. Both dentitions are affected Normal eruption pattern Complete obliteration of pulp chambers deciduous teeth Crescent shaped pulpal remnants permanent teeth Show lava flowing around the boulders Coronal Clinical Blue appearance opalescent is normal for appearance for permanent teeth gray deciduous teeth Obliteration of pulp chambers deciduous teeth Large pulp chambers permanent teeth thistle tube in shape 25. Ankylosis is due to deposition of A. Bone B. C. Cementum Bone & Cementum Answer: D. Enamel cuticle Reference: Orbans Oral Histology, 12/E, p. 54 Explanation: Enamel Cuticle/Nasmyths Membrane/Primary Cuticle A non mineralized electron dense structure less membrane seen on the crown of the tooth, adhering firmly to its surface It is formed by an accumulation of basal lamina material produced by the junctional epithelium of the dentogingival junction It is mostly seen in newly erupted teeth and is lost due to mastication It is about 0.5 1.5 mm thick Enamel cuticle is made of 2 cuticles Primary cuticle Secondary cuticle Rootless teeth C. Operculum D. Enamel cuticle

Primary Enamel Cuticle is the last product of the enamel forming ameloblasts and it becomes mineralized Secondary Enamel Cuticle: It covers the primary cuticle and is a product of the reduced enamel epithelium and is not mineralized. It is also known as Dental cuticle and it is structurally described as basal lamina

D. Dentin

Answer: A. Bone Reference: Orbans Oral Histology, 12/E, p. 158 Explanation: Fusion of cementum and alveolar bone with obliteration of periodontal ligament is termed as Ankylosis It may develop after chronic periapical occlusal inflammation, tooth replantation,

27. PDL around mandibular canine is thinned in old patients due to A. Deposition of cementum B. C. Deposition of cementum & bone Deposition of bone only

D. Deposition of dentin

Answer: A. Deposition of cementum Reference: Orbans Oral Histology, 12/E, p. 148 Explanation: Cementum is known to form throughout life and thus it leads to the decrease in the width of the periodontal ligament space around the teeth. 28. Odontoblasts are derived from A. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells B. Histocytes Macrophages C.

trauma, and around embedded teeth Ankylosis results in resorption of root and its gradual replacement by bone tissue As the periodontal ligament is replaced by bone, proprioception is lost It may be seen in case of gingival recession and loss of attachment The cementum become permeable to organic substances, inorganic ions and bacteria Cemental caries can develop

26. The layer present on tooth immediately after eruption of teeth A. Primary cuticle B. Secondary Cuticle

D. Lymphocytes Answer: A. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) Reference: Orbans Oral Histology, 12/E, p. 35 Explanation: Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells are the primary cells in pulp which differentiate to become odontoblasts, fibroblasts or macrophages when need arises. Odontoblasts are present next to predentin layer, derived from ectomesenchymal cells and are known to produce dentin matrix. Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 785 Explanation: ORAL PATHOLOGY & ORAL MEDICINE 29. Fusion or gemination occurs during disturbance in A. Morphodifferentiation B. C. Initiation proliferation Organo differentiation Factor VIII is an Anti Hemophiliac Factor, the deficiency of which causes Hemophilia A, characterized by prolonged coagulation time and hemorrhagic tendencies. The disease is hereditary, X linked recessive trait. Thus it occurs only in males and females are the carriers. 32. Internal resorption is due to Answer: A. Morphodifferentiation Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 39 Explanation: Germination is an attempt at division of single tooth germ by an invagination. Complete or incomplete separation of crowns can be seen. Fusion is the union of two separate tooth germs. It can be complete or incomplete, depending on the stage of development. 30. Eagles syndrome is A. Elongation of sphenoid process B. C. Elongation of styloid process Elongation of sphenoid and styloid process Explanation: Internal resorption is a relatively rare occurrence; most cases develop after injury to pulp tissues, such as physical trauma or caries related pulpitis. The resorption can continue as long as vital pulp tissue remains and result in communication of the pulp with the pdl. 33. Necrotizing sialometaplasia is commonly seen in A. Submandibular salivary gland Answer: B. Elongation of styloid process Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 853 Explanation: Eagles syndrome consists of either the elongation of styloid process or ossification of stylohyoid ligament causing dysphagia, sore throat, otalgia, glossodynia, headache, vague facial pain and pain along the distribution of internal and external carotid arteries. Explanation: Necrotizing 31. A boy complains of bleeding gums, swollen, joints with hemorrhage into joints. His paternal sialometaplasia is a non neoplastic inflammatory condition, most commonly reported in the minor salivary glands of palate. Lesion is usually painless, manifests as swelling with or without Answer: D. Minor salivary gland Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 245 B. C. Sublingual salivary gland Parotid salivary gland Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 65 Answer: C. Chronic inflammation of pulp A. B. C. Pulp necrosis Acute inflammation of pulp Chronic inflammation of pulp Answer: A. VIII and maternal uncle complains of same problem. It is due to deficiency of factor A. VIII B. C. IX X

D. VI

D. None

D. None

D. None of the above

D. Minor salivary gland

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) ulceration. Coagulative necrosis of acini and squamous metaplasia with inflammatory infiltrate are its histologic features. It usually resolves spontaneously and no treatment is required. 34. Moellers glossitis or Hunters glossitis is seen in A. Iron deficiency anemia B. C. Vitamin B12 deficiency Thiamine deficiency 37. Diabetes insipidus, exophthalmos and infections are common in A. Letterer Siwe disease Answer: B. Vitamin B12 deficiency Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 756 Explanation: Glossitis is one of the most common symptoms of pernicious anemia (vitamin B12 deficiency) and is called as Hunters glossitis. Tongue is characterized by smooth, red, atrophied or bald with the loss of papillae. Loss or distortion of taste can also be seen. Answer: B. Hand-Schuller Christian disease Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 744 Explanation: Hand Schuller Christian disease is characterized by widespread skeletal and extra skeletal lesions and a 35. Taurodontism shows A. Opalescent dentin B. C. Calcification of pulp canals Enlarged pulp canals chronic clinical course. Classic triad of areas of punched out bony destruction in skull, unilateral or bilateral exophthalmos and diabetes insipidus. Halitosis, gingivitis, periodontitis, loss of alveolus and thus teeth is seen. B. C. Hand Schuller Christian disease Niemen pick disease Median Rhomboid Glossitis: Occurs due to failure of tuberculum impar to retract or withdraw before fusion of the lateral half of the tongue. Recently it is been proved to be strongly associated with Candidal infection and thus Posterior midline atrophic candidiasis is a more appropriate diagnostic term.

D. Syphilis

D. None

D. Involvement of enamel & dentin 38. Primordial cyst develops Answer: C. Enlarged pulp chamber Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 43 C. Explanation: Taurodontism (Bull like teeth): It is due to the failure of invagination of HERS at proper horizontal level. Three types - Hypo, Meso and Hyper taurodont (by Shaw). Molars are Answer: A. In place of missing teeth Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 683 Explanation: Primordial cyst is considered to originate from cystic degeneration of the enamel organ 36. Median rhomboid glossitis is A. Hereditary B. C. Associated with fungal infection Atrophy of papilla epithelium before the development of dental hard tissue. Therefore it occurs in place of a tooth. Later the name of this is changed in 1992 WHO classification and renamed as odontogenic keratocyst. Thus the existence of primordial cyst is controversial. 39. Which of the following is associated with vital teeth Explanation: A. Periapical granuloma B. Condensing Osteitis commonly involved. It can be either Unilateral or bilateral, rectangle in shape, large pulp chambers and furcation is placed near the apices of the roots. A. In place of missing teeth B. In teeth in which crown completed In periapical region D. In mandibular body development is

D. Vitamin deficiency Answer: B. Associated with fungal infection Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 29

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) C. Periapical scar A. Radicular cyst B. C. Answer: B. Condensing Osteitis Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 494 Explanation: Condensing Osteitis is an unusual reaction of bone to infection, seen in people with high tissue resistance and tissue reactivity. The most common cause of this is caries however it sometimes is idiopathic. It is most commonly observed in younger adults and children. 40. Codmans triangle is seen in A. Osteoradionecrosis B. C. Fibrous dysplasia Osteosarcoma ORAL RADIOLOGY Answer: C. Osteosarcoma Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 172 Explanation: In the long bones affected with Osteosarcoma, the periosteum is elevated over the expanding tumor mass in a tent like fashion. At the point on the bone where the periosteum begins to merge, an acute angle between the bone surface and the periosteum is created. This is called Codmans triangle and is highly suspicious for Osteosarcoma. 41. Most common lesion associated with Gingiva due to irritation is A. Irritation Fibroma B. C. Pyogenic granuloma Giant cell granuloma 43. Most effective method of decreasing radiation is A. E speed film B. C. Decreasing exposure time Decreasing kvp Explanation: Fissural cysts are those which are found along the lines of fusion of various bones of embryonic processes. Median palatine cyst arises from epithelium entrapped along the line of fusion of the palatal processes of the maxilla. Radicular and residual cysts are inflammatory cysts. Answer: C. Fissured cyst Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 63 Residual cyst Fissural cyst D. Periapical cyst

D. None of the above

D. Sq cell carcinoma of lip

D. Decreasing mA Answer: A. E speed film Reference: W & P, 6/E, p. 61 Explanation: Film speed determines the amount of radiation and exposure time required to produce an image on the film. An E film requires less radiation because the film responds quickly. This is due to the fact that the silver halide crystals in the emulsion are larger 44. Image sharpness is increased by A. Decreasing focal spot size B. C. Increasing focal spot size Increasing source film distance

D. None

D. Increasing object-film distance Answer: A. Irritation Fibroma Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 126 Explanation: Irritational Fibroma is the most common connective tissue lesion in the oral cavity. Most commonly seen in buccal mucosa along the plane of occlusion followed by gingiva, tongue etc. 42. Median palatal cyst is Answer: A. Decreasing focal spot size Reference: W & P, 6/E, p. 46 Explanation: Three methods exist for increasing image sharpness: Decreasing focal spot size Increase the distance between the focal spot and the object

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) Increase the distance between the focal spot and the object The most common malposed teeth due to arch length insufficiency are mandibular lateral incisors followed by maxillary canine followed by mandibular II premolar. ORTHODONTICS 45. Growth of oral structures is mainly influenced by. Factors A. Hereditary B. C. Environmental Hereditary influenced by environment Most commonly impacted teeth in the order are third molar (mandibular then maxillary), maxillary mandibular canine, canine, mandibular maxillary premolars, premolars,

maxillary central incisor, maxillary lateral incisor, mandibular second molar. First molars and maxillary second molar are very rarely involved. Most commonly congenitally missing tooth/hypodontia are third molars, second premolars, lateral incisors. Insufficient arch length is the most important cause for malposition or ectopic eruption of teeth. Other causes according to Graber are facial, oral, tongue, Premature loss of deciduous teeth Prolonged retention deciduous teeth Delayed eruption of permanent teeth Abnormal eruptive path Dental caries Improper dental restorations

D. None Answer: C. Hereditary influenced by environment Reference:

Thomas

Rakosis

Orthodontic

Diagnosis (Color Atlas), p. 57

Explanation: The etiology of malocclusion is mostly based on a Multifactorial system with both hereditary and environmental influence. Hereditary abnormalities can be noticed in Neuromuscular Characteristics o o o o o o Size Position musculature. Contractility Size of teeth Shape of teeth Number of teeth

47. Apertognathia is A. Big jaw B. C. Small jaw Open bite

Dental Characteristics

D. Deep bite Answer: C. Open bite Reference: Kharbhandas Orthodontics Diagnosis and Management of Malocclusion and Dentofacial Deformities, 1/E, p. 29 Explanation: Apertognathia - Apertus, open, Gnathos, jaw Open bite malocclusion. George Carabelli (1842), a Viennese professor, was probably the first to describe in any systematic way abnormal relationships of the upper and lower dental arches. The terms edge-to-edge bite and overbite are actually derived from Carabelli's system of classification. He bases his classification on various positions of incisors and canines as: Mordex Apertus (open occlusion) Mordex Normalis (Normal occlusion) Mordex Rectus (edge to edge) Mordex Prosus (protruding occlusion) Mordex Retrosus (retruding occlusion)

Dental Malocclusion o o Tooth position Arch width, arch length

Skeletal Malocclusion o o Class II Div 2 (100% concordance in monozygotic twins) Class III malocclusion: Hapsburg Jaw Autosomal dominant

46. Which tooth is most malposed due to insufficient arch length? A. Mandibular 1st premolar B. C. Mandibular 2 premolar
nd

Maxillary 1st molar

D. Mandibular 1st molar Answer: B. Mandibular 2nd premolar Reference: Antonio Pattis Clinical Success in Early Orthodontic Treatment Explanation:

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) Mordex Tortuosus (zig-zag occlusion) Its characterized by enlargement, thickening and broadening of bones, 48. Speech problems in cleft palate patients are due to A. Lisping of tongue B. C. Inability of soft palate to stop air to go into nasopharynx Inability of learning process D. All of the above Answer: B. Inability of soft palate to stop air to go into nasopharynx Reference: Samuel Berkowitzs Cleft Lip and Palate: Diagnosis & Management Explanation: The cleft of the palate, due to deficient soft palate, can result in hypernasality of speech due to air escape through the incompetent valve; this condition is called velopharyngeal insufficiency The correction of these defects involve either Surgery o o o o o Velar lengthening Intraalveolar muscular reconstruction; Pharyngoplasties Pharyngeal wall augmentation Speech aid appliances 50. In expansion screws, a rotation of 90 causes a bilateral expansion of A. 0.20 mm B. C. 0.10 mm 0.36 mm particularly in the extremities. Enlargement of hands and feet with bowing of spine called kyphosis General overgrowth of body hair. Thyroid, parathyroid and adrenal glands show hyperactivity. Hyperglycemia and hypertension Increased growth of mandible and condyle - Class III malocclusion due to mandibular prognathism. Protrusion of supra orbital ridges Broadening of nose Apertognathia Protrusion of lower jaw Guerrilla face or Acromegalic face Alveolar ridges are thick Teeth in the mandible are usually tipped buccally due to enlarged tongue Spacing and diastema Facial and Oral features

Prosthesis

Lisping of tongue is seen in patients with anterior open bite due to improper lip seal and inability to pronounce sibilants like S, Z

D. 0.09 mm Answer: A. 0.20 mm

49. Acromegaly is associated with A. Class I malocclusion B. C. Class I cross bite Class II malocclusion Reference: Timms Text Book of Rapid Maxillary Expansion, p. 51 Explanation: Unilateral expansion will be 0.10 mm

D. Class III malocclusion Answer: D. Class III malocclusion Reference: Endocrine regulation of craniofacial growth Acta Odontol Scand 1995; 15:179-185 Explanation: Acromegaly is due to hypersecretion of Growth hormone in adults after the fusion of epiphysis with shaft of the bones. Excessive stimulation of condylar causes cartilage by GH/Somatotropin malocclusion. Acromegaly mandibular

Pitch of Screw When the expansion screw given one complete turn, the two halves of the orthodontic appliance advance a distance equal to the space between the neighboring lines often called as thread's height. This distance moved is called pitch of the screw.

prognathism, thus results in skeletal class III

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) Pitch of orthodontic screw is usually 0.8 mm i.e. 360 turn gives 0.8 mm of overall expansion which is 0.4mm per side. Therefore 90 turn gives us 0.2 mm overall expansion and 0.1mm expansion per side When the dental arch, or part of it, is more anteriorly placed than, normal with respect to the orbital plane, it is said to be in protraction. When the arch, or part of it, is more posteriorly retraction. 2. Mediolateral Plane) When the dental arch, or part of it, is nearer to the mid sagittal plane than the normal position, it is said to be in contraction. When the arch, or part of it, is farther away from the mid sagittal plane than the 51. Antero posterior relation of jaws is measured by A. ANB angle B. C. Angle between SN & FH Plane Angle between SN & mandibular plane 3. Vertical Relationships (Frankfurt Plane) When the dental arch, or part of it, is nearer to the Frankfurt plane than the Answer: A. ANB angle Reference: Kharbhandas Orthodontics Diagnosis and Management of Malocclusion and Dentofacial Deformities, 1/E, p. 173 Explanation: Angle ANB Introduced by Dr. Richard Riedel, Steiner used SNA and SNB angles to compare the position of the chin in the lower jaw to the other structure of the cranium and the upper jaw and ANB angle to compare the relative discrepancy between the upper and lower jaws in the antero-posterior relation. 52. Term Superior Protrusion is coined by A. Angle B. C. Simon Cutler C. 53. Class II. Div. 2 malocclusion has A. Deep bite with posterior unilateral cross bite B. Deep bite with retruded centrals & protrusion of laterals Open bite with protrusion of central incisors D. None Answer: B. Deep bite with retruded centrals & protrusion of laterals Reference: Kharbhandas Orthodontics Diagnosis and Management of Malocclusion and Dentofacial Deformities, 1/E, p. 396 Explanation: Features of Class II Division 2 Facial features 1. Anteroposterior Relationships (Orbital Plane) Squarish/round pleasing face normal position, it is said to be in attraction. When the dental arch, or part of it, is farther away from the Frankfurt plane than the normal position, it is said to be in abstraction. Only three of these terms are in frequent useprotraction, retraction, and contraction. For example, an Angle Class II case may be due to maxillary protraction, mandibular retraction, or both. Similarly, a narrowed dental arch is said to be contracted. normal position, it is said to be in distraction. Relationships (Mid sagittal placed than normal with respect to the orbital plane, it is said to be

D. Facial angle

D. Leeway Answer: B. Simon Reference: Moyers Hand Book of Orthodontics, 4/E, p. 189 Explanation: According to Simon, in his classification

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) Prominent chin Deep labiomental sulcus Hyperactive lower lip A high lower lip line, thin upper lip Small gonial angle and horizontal type of face Answer: A. Hyalinization Dental features Class II molar and canine relationship, Deep traumatic bite, Retroclined upper four incisors or retroclined centrals with labial inclination of the laterals Supra erupted, upright lower incisors Upper incisors may have decreased collum angle between the crown and the root Incisors have a shorter root, a longer crown, and axial bending of the incisor, in addition to a reduced labio palatal thickness. 54. Torsi version is A. Rotation of tooth around its own axis B. C. Fusion of cementum Rotation in horizontal direction Teeth subjected to high often has forces than a show teeth definite hyalinization of more Reference: Kharbhandas Orthodontics Diagnosis and Management of Malocclusion and Dentofacial Deformities, 1/E, p. 85 Explanation: A. Hyalinization B. C. Osteoclastic activity around tooth Osteoblastic activity around tooth

D. Crest bone resorption

experiencing light forces, and the development hyalinization zones relationship to the force magnitude. When heavy forces are applied periodontal ligament and cells undergo cellular death, and this zone appears without cells in histological sections so-called hyalinization. The bone resorption starts at a distant site extending towards tooth and so-called rear resorption or undermining resorption. However, it was found that the hyalinization zones have no

D. None Answer: A. Rotation of tooth around its own axis Reference: Moyers Hand Book of Orthodontics, 4/E, p. 189 Explanation: Lischer's nomenclature to describe malposition of individual teeth is in general use. It simply involves adding the suffix "-version" to a word to indicate the direction from' the normal position: Mesioversion mesial to the normal position Distoversion distal to the normal position Linguoversion lingual to the normal position Labioversion or Buccoversion toward the lip or cheek Infraversion away from the line of occlusion Supraversion extended past the line of occlusion (i.e. below in the maxilla and above in the mandible) Axiversion tipped; the wrong axial inclination Torsiversion rotated on its long axis Transversion wrong order in the arch; transposition 55. Heavy forces on periodontal ligament causes

relationship to the rate of tooth movement. 56. Principle V is seen in A. Maxilla B. C. Mandibular ramus Symphysis

D. None Answer: A & B. Maxilla and Mandibular ramus Reference: Enlows Text Book on Essentials of Facial Growth, pp. 24, 91 Explanation: Many facial and cranial bones, or parts of bones, have a V-shaped configuration (or a funnel-shape in three dimensions). Bone deposition occurs on the inner side of the V; resorption takes place on the outside surface. The V thereby moves towards the side of deposition and, at the same time, increases in overall dimensions. The direction of movement is toward the wide end of the V. simultaneous growth Thus, a and movement

enlargement proceeds by additions of bone on the inside with removal from the outside.

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) Explanation: Piaget gave the Cognitive Development theory of Child Psychology which speaks about the cognitive development in a child and its effects on the child behaviour Psychodynamic Theories 1. 2. 3. 1. 2. 3. Maxilla 4. Psychosexual theory Freud (1905) Psychosocial theory Eric Erikson (1963) Cognitive theory Piaget (1952) Classical conditioning Pavlov (1927) Operant conditioning Skinner (1938) Hierarchy of needs Maslow (1963) Social learning theory Bandura (1954)

Behavioral Theories

58. For an avulsed tooth, best medium for transport for long time is A. Patients salvia B. C. Milk Water

D. NaCl solution Answer: B. Milk Reference: Journal of Investigative and Clinical Dentistry (2011), 2, 16 Explanation: Saliva lower osmolality not suitable Mandible Water Hypotonic causes cell lysis NaCl Lacks the essential nutrients 59. In serial extraction procedure if maxillary 1st premolar is extracted then maxillary canine erupts in direction .. A. Downward B. C. Downward backward Downward forward

D. Forward Answer: B. Downward backward Reference: Shobha Tandon, /E, p. 475 PEDODONTICS 57. Piagets classification is based on A. Child behavior B. C. Parental behavior Social Status of parent Explanation: The permanent canine is placed labially in the vestibule. The space created by extracting a premolar is being occupied by canine for which it takes a downward and backward direction.

D. None of the above Answer: A. Child behavior Reference: Shobha Tandon, /E, p. 234

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 60. Determination of periodontal disease in Pontic contact with the ridge should be compact facial to the crest of the ridge slightly wider mesiodistally at the facial and narrower at the lingual aspect. Tissue contact must resemble the letter T whose vertical arm ends at the crest of the ridge. The facial ridge adaptation is essential for natural appearance 63. The use of stress breaker in modern dentistry, is Answer: C. Periodontal Index (P.I.) Reference: Soben Peter, 4/E, p. 328 Explanation: Russells periodontal index was given by A.L Russell in 1956 It was developed over a trial period of 10 years It is a composite index measures both reversible and irreversible components. Answer: B. It affects alveolar ridge Reference: Mc Crackens, /E, pp. 10-11, 140-142 Explanation: PROSTHODONTICS 61. In full tooth borne dentures occlusal rests transmits -------- % of occlusal forces to teeth A. 50% B. C. 70% 80% 64. Peripheral seal in complete dentures is done for A. Posterior palatal seal B. C. Answer: D. 100% Reference: Stewarts, 4/E, p. 97, 223 Explanation: Prosthesis entirely supported by teeth e.g. Kennedy class III arches derive full support from the remaining teeth. Since the remaining ridge does not offer support it may be recorded in its anatomic form. 62. Most appropriate pontic design is A. It should fill the missing teeth area B. C. Greater lingual embrasure Should contact mucosa completely and Should not irritate it D. None of the above Answer: B. Greater lingual embrasure Reference: Shillingburg, 3/E, p. 487; Rosenstiel, 3/E, pp. 628, 629 Explanation: Explanation: 65. Guiding planes are used for A. Assuring predictable clasp design B. C. For path of placement Path of removal Functional moulding of sulcus area Stability It affects the alveolar ridge because most stress breakers effectively dissipate the vertical stresses, but this is at the expense of reduced horizontal stability (excessive ridge resorption, tissue impingement). avoided because A. It affects abutment more B. C. It affects alveolar ridge It affects both abutment and alveolar ride epidemiological survey is done by using A. Gingival Index (G.I.) B. C. Plaque Index (PL.I.) Periodontal Index (P.I.)

D. None

D. None

D. 100%

D. Retention Answer: B. Functional moulding of sulcus area Explanation: Border molding is a process by which the shape of the border of the tray is made to conform accurately to the contours of the buccal and labial vestibules. This essential requirement of the trays fit ensures an optimal peripheral seal.

D. Parallelism of abutment teeth Answer: B. For path of placement Reference: Stewarts, 4/E, p. 215

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) Guiding planes are parallel surfaces of the abutment teeth that direct the insertion and removal of a partial denture. So Probable answers could be B, C or D. But the Most Suitable answer is B. 66. When there is a prematurity in centric occlusion but not in eccentric or other movements then reduce A. Cusps of opposing teeth B. C. Opposing fossa & ridge Cusp inclines of that tooth Reference: Stewarts, 4/E, p. 112 Explanation: An indirect retainer is that component which helps resist rotational and or displacement of a RPD, as a result it is located on the side of the fulcrum line opposite the denture base. The indirect retainer is essential in class I and II RPDs. Because of its position it minimizes the rotation that occurs when the dislodging forces is placed on the distal extension base. 70. If maxillary upper molar is extended into edentulous space of mandibular molar, what is the procedure of bridge preparation 67. Design of F.P.D. in which forces will be least is when A. At different forces are angled from long axis of abutment B. C. Parallel to long axis of abutment tooth Bucco-lingual width of pontic is less than the natural tooth D. Both B and C Answer: B. Parallel to long axis of abutment tooth Reference: Rosenstiel, 4/E, p. 92 Explanation: Forces directed along the long axis of abutment are most favorable 68. Lateral shift (Bennett movement ) influences A. Faciolingual position of teeth B. C. Mesiodistal Position of teeth Both If an opposing tooth intrudes into the edentulous space it is not enough just to replace the missing tooth, to restore the mouth to complete function free of interferences it is often necessary to restore the tooth opposing the edentulous space. In severe cases this may necessitate the devitalisation of the supra Answer: D. None Reference: Okeson Explanation: Bennett movement influences the cuspal height and the groove direction. 69. Heal raising effect of dentures is due to non function of A. Indirect retainer B. C. Occlusal rest Direct retainer Answer: A. Buccal flange of maxillary denture Reference: Bouchers, 12/E, p. 85 Explanation: erupted opposing tooth to permit enough shortening to correct the plane of occlusion. 71. Coronoid process will impinge on A. Buccal flange of maxillary denture B. C. Buccal posterior part of mandibular denture Lingual extension of mandibular denture C. B. A. Extraction of maxillary molar & bridge preparation Adjusting the maxillary molar to required occlusal plane and the proceeding with bridge preparation Preparing the bridge according to the present occlusal conditions D. None Answer: B. Adjusting the maxillary molar to required occlusal plane and the proceeding with bridge preparation Reference: Shillingburg, 3/E, p. 85 Explanation: Answer: A. Indirect retainer

D. Tooth structure of that tooth Answer: C. Cusp inclines of that tooth Reference: Winklers, 2/E, p. 26; Bouchers, 12/E, p. 410

D. None

D. Palatal extension of maxillary denture

D. Major connector

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) The patient should be asked to move the mandible from side to side and then open wide during border moulding and impression 75. Soft tissue curettage is used for A. Shallow pockets with gingivitis B. 72. Swallowing threshold is determined by A. Gestation B. C. Olfaction Salivary flow Answer is C. REF. Answer: A. Shallow pockets with gingivitis Reference: Carranza, 9/E, p. 21 Explanation: Curettage can be performed as part of new attachment PERIODONTICS 73. The mode of treatment in case of periodontal infection with caries in bifurcated root is A. Apical curettage B. C. Curettage & flap surgery Hemi section attempts in moderately deep intrabony pockets located in accessible areas where a type of "closed" surgery is deemed advisable. 76. Gram negative anaerobe is A. Peptococcus B. C. Veilonella Lacto bacillus C. Deep pockets with gingivitis Infrabony pockets making. These movements will record the influence of the coronoid processes on the shape of the buccal vestibules. and adults. It occurs with equal frequency in male and female patients.

D. Edematous Gingiva

D. None

D. Root amputation Answer: C. Hemi section Reference: Carranza, 9/E, p. 831 Explanation: Hemisection is the splitting of a two-rooted tooth into two separate portions. This process has been called Bicuspidization or Separation as it changes the molar into two separate roots. It is most likely to be performed on mandibular molars with buccal and lingual class II or III furcation involvements. 74. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis occurs in A. Below 10 years of age B. C. 20 25 years of age In older patients

D. Streptococci Answer: B. Veilonella Reference: Carranza, 9/E, p.103 Explanation: Veilonella are gram-negative anaerobic cocci. This bacterium is well known for its lactate fermenting abilities. They are normal bacterium in the intestines and oral mucosa of mammals. In humans they have been rarely implicated in cases of osteomyelitis and endocarditis, for example with the species Veilonella parvula. 77. Breakdown of periodontal fibers in periodontitis is due to bacterial enzyme A. Collagenase B. C. Hyaluronidase Coagulase

D. None Answer: A. Below 10 years of age Reference: Carranza, 9/E, p. 303 Explanation: Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is an

D. None Answer: A. Collagenase Reference: Carranza, 10/E, p. 59 Explanation: MMPs are a family of proteolytic enzymes that degrade extracellular matrix molecules, such as collagen, gelatin, and elastin. MMP-8 and

infection of the oral cavity caused by the herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1). It occurs most often in infants and children younger than 6 years of age but it is also seen in adolescents

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) MMP-1 are both collagenases; MMP-8 is released by infiltrating neutrophils whereas MMP-1 is expressed by resident cells including fibroblasts, monocytes/macrophages, and epithelial cells. Collagenase is elevated in tissues and GCF associated with periodontitis, as compared with gingivitis or healthy controls. 78. The bacteria of oral flora which plays major role in periodontitis is A. Actinomyces B. C. Actinomyecetem comitans Spirochetes 81. An apical radiolucent area present in central incisor after 4 months of RCT is due to A. Inadequate obturation & leakage from main canal Answer: A. Actinomyces Reference: Carranza, 9/E, p. 105 Explanation: The bacteria associated with periodontal health are primarily gram positive facultative species and members of the genera Streptococcus and Actinomyces. They are typically found in high numbers at periodontal sites that do not demonstrate attachment loss (inactive sites) but in low numbers at sites where active periodontal destruction occurs. Explanation: A meta-analysis of factors influencing the efficacy of a primary RCT found that the following four factors influenced success: the absence of pretreatment periapical lesion, root canal fillings with no voids, obturation to 2 mm of CONS & ENDO 79. Enamel rods in primary teeth differ from permanent teeth in A. They are inclined horizontally B. C. They are inclined occlusally in cervical 3rd They are inclined incisally the apex, and an adequate coronal restoration (Cohen,10/E ,p. 349). Four choices direct us that the cause of failure here is improper obturation and leakage which then occurred. Obturation of radicular space is necessary to eliminate leakage. Obturation reduces coronal leakage and bacterial contamination, seals apex from periapical tissue fluids, entombs the remaining irritants in the canal. (p. 350) Answer: B. They are inclined occlusally in cervical 3
rd

Explanation: Secondary resistance form in final tooth preparation involves both resistance of the remaining tooth structure against fracture from oblique forces and resistance of restorative material against fracture. Restricting extensions of external walls provides the former; the latter is enhanced by using the gingival margin trimmer to bevel or round the axiopulpal line angle, thereby increasing the bulk of and decreasing the stress concentration within the restorative material.

D. Bacteroides

B. C.

Leakage from accessory canal Leakage from gingival crevice

D. Leakage from access opening

Answer: A. Inadequate obturation & leakage from main canal

D. They are inclined obliquely

Coronal leakage has also been demonstrated to contribute to treatment failure. Success rate for good Endodontics and good restoration was 91%.Techniquely poor Endodontics with good or poor restoration had success rate of 56% & 57% respectively.

Reference: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 798 80. In class II amalgam restoration axiopulpal line angle is A. Double beveled B. C. Right angled Rounded Answer: C. Rounded Reference: Sturdevant, 4/E, p. 705

Although

lateral

canals

are

involved

in

pathosis, accessory canals are common but play a little role in periapical pathosis (p. 355). Thus option is more appropriate than B & C. Leakage from gingival crevice should cause interdental bone loss and radiolucency

D. Sharpened

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) origination at gingival crevice spreading to apex. Hence C. is ruled out. 82. Side effect of light cure system is A. Iritis B. C. Cataract Conjunctivitis double bond (C=C) in the resin monomer, the free radical pairs with one of the electrons of the double bond, converting the other member of the pair to a free radical, and thus the reaction continues. Generation of free radicals is brought about in four different ways. In heat-activated systems, benzoyl peroxide splits under heat exposure and forms free radicals. In chemically activated systems, a tertiary amine (that acts as an Answer: D. Retinal damage Reference: Sturdevant, 4/E, p. 480; Craig, 12/E, p. 206 Explanation: Light-cured materials require the use of curing light units or generators. The use of light sources may cause retinal damage unless appropriate precautions are taken to avoid direct, prolonged exposure to the light source. Quartz tungsten halogen light source Although there is minimal potential for radiation damage to surrounding soft tissue inadvertently exposed to visible light, use caution to prevent retinal damage to the eyes. Because of the high intensity of the light, do not look directly at the tip or the reflected light from the teeth. A number of devices are marketed to filter the visible-light beam so the operator can directly observe the curing procedure and to protect the patient and staff. These orange-tinted devices are available as eyeglasses, flat shields that can be held over the field of vision, and curved shields that attach directly to the hand piece delivering the light beam 83. Initiator in visible light curing system is A. Benzoyl peroxide B. C. Benzoin methyl ether Diacetyl ether 84. Mc Spadden compactor is of ---------- shape A. Reverse blade of K- file B. C. Reverse blade of H file Endosonic instrument Heat activated Chemically activated UV system Light cured system Camphoroquino ne or diketone N,Ndimethylaminoet hyl methacrylate light Benzoyl ether methyl activated Benzoyl peroxide Aromatic tertiary amine UV light electron donor) is used to split the benzoyl peroxide into free radicals. In UV lightactivated systems, a 365-nanometer (nm) UV light source splits benzoin methyl ether (in amounts of 0.2%) into free radicals without the presence of tertiary amines. In light-cured systems, a light source of 468 nm\) excites camphoroquinone (0.03 to 0.09%) or another diketone into a triplet state that interacts with a non aromatic (referred to as aliphatic) tertiary amine, such as N, N- dimethylaminoethyl methacrylate (0.1% or less). The camphoroquinone together with the tertiary amine starts a free radical reaction. Initiator Benzoyl peroxide Activator Heat

D. Retinal damage

D. Diketones

D. None of the above Ans: B. Benzoyl peroxide Answer: B. Reverse blade of H file Reference: Albers H F Tooth Colored Restoratives Principles & Techniques, 9/E, pp. 86-87 Explanation: Initiation systems start the polymerization process through the formation of a free radical, a compound with a reactive unpaired electron. When a free radical collides with a carbon Reference: Ingles Endodontics, 5/E, p. 626 Explanation: Thermo mechanical Compaction of Gutta-percha A totally new concept of heat softening and compacting gutta-percha was introduced by McSpadden in 1979. Initially called the

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May) McSpadden Compactor, the device resembled a reverse Hedstroem file, or a reverse screw design. It fit into a latch-type hand piece and was spun in the canal at speeds between 8,000 and 20,000 rpm. At these speeds, the heat generated by friction softened the gutta-percha and the design of the blades forced the material apically. 85. Migration of odontoblasts into dentinal tubules occurs during A. Cavity preparation B. C. Dehydration Water irrigation Answer: D. Calcium Hydroxide Reference: Sturdevant, 4/E, pp. 172 175, Philips, 10/E, p. 547. Explanation: Liners can be solution liners or suspension liners. Any liner based on nonaqueous solvents that rely on evaporation for hardening is designated as a solution liner (or varnish). Liners based on water have many of the constituent suspended instead of dissolved and Answer: B. Dehydration Explanation: Excessive drying of tooth preparations can cause odontoblasts to be aspirated into dentinal tubules. Dentin must be treated with great care during restorative procedures to minimize damage to the odontoblasts and pulp. Air-water spray should be used whenever cutting with highspeed hand pieces to avoid heat build-up. The dentin should air not be it dehydrated should by compressed blasts; always are called Suspension liners. Most varnish coatings are produced by drying solutions of copal or other resin dissolved in a volatile solvent. Copalite (HJ Bosworth) has been used more widely than most other varnishes and contains 10% copal resin in a combination of ether, alcohol, and acetone. The resin content is kept intentionally low to produce a thin film on drying. Two important aspects of pulpal medication are the relief of pulpal inflammation and facilitation of dentinal bridging for physiologic protection. The materials (eugenol and calcium hydroxide) most commonly used to provide these cavity and crown two functions are not mutually compatible and cannot be used in the same formulation. The main purpose of cavity liners is to use the beneficial effects of calcium hydroxide in accelerating the formation of reparative dentin. Traditionally, it is formulated by dispersing calcium hydroxide in aqueous or resin carrier solutions to facilitate application to the walls of a cavity preparation. The carrier evaporates and leaves a thin layer of calcium hydroxide on cavity walls. Instead of using suspension formulations, several other hard-setting materials are available. They include calcium hydroxide materials, low viscosity ZOE and glass ionomer liners. D. Calcium hydroxide

D. None

maintain its normal fluid content. (Reference: Sturdevant, 4/E, p. 28) Desiccation during preparation has shown to cause aspiration of odontoblastic nuclei into dentinal tubules and pulpal inflammation. As little as 30 seconds of continuous air drying of class V cavities in human molars with uninflamed pulp caused significant displacement of odontoblastic nuclei, pulp inflammation, and even areas of necrosis related to areas that were dried. (Reference: Cohen, 10/E, p 513) When dentin is exposed to a brief air blast, the fluid within the dentinal tubules evaporates to a depth of 0.1 to 0.3 mm. This leads to the aspiration of odontoblasts and nerve fibers within the tubule. The nerve fibers are stretched or even disrupted, with the consequent production of pain. (Reference: Castellucci - Endodontics, vol. 1, p 143) 86. Frequently used liner contains mostly A. Acrylic resin B. C. Polymer Flouropolymers

ORAL SURGERY No Questions asked

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2001 (May)