Test Name : Genius Mock (SmartCAT-10303) No.

of Questions : 60

# 1. Ganesh & Gopal start simultaneously at 7 am from Girish Park & Dumdum respectively towards each other. Every time they reach one end, then return towards the other. Without any stoppage, Ganesh could reach Dumdum at 9 am, while Gopal would take an hour longer to reach Girish Park. However, every time they meet anywhere on the road between Dumdum & Girish Park, they stop by chat for 'n' hours before resuming their journey, 'n' being the number of meetings (when they meet 1st time, they chat for 1 hour, when they meet 2nd time, they chat for 2 hours and so on); in case they meet either right at Girish Park or Dumdum, they chat for 2'n' hours. By what time does Ganesh start travelling after their 3rd meeting? A ) 3 PM B ) 5 PM C ) 10 PM D ) None of these SOLUTION Since Ganesh & Gopal takes 2 hrs and 3 hrs to travel the same distance, their speed ratio = 3:2. Hence on their 1st meeting, Ganesh would travel 3/5th of the entire distance, hence time taken = 120 x 3/5 = 72 minutes. By the time they meet 1st time, they complete 1 round of the entire path. By the time they meet 2nd time, they complete 3 rounds of the entire path, hence would take another 144 minutes (72 x 2) after they start after 1st meeting. When they meet 3rd time, theyll make two more rounds of the entire path, hence, will take another 144 minutes after they start after 2nd meeting. Hence total time taken (assuming no stoppage) = 72 + 144 + 144 = 360 minutes = 6 hours = LCM of (2, 3). Hence it is evident that while 1st and 2nd meetings were in the middle of the path, but 3rd meeting happens at the extreme end of the path (at Dumdum), hence total time for chatting during these 3 meetings = 1 + 2 + 6 = 9 hours. Hence total time = 6 + 9 = 15 hours (from 7 am).

Hence, Option (C).

# 2. In how many ways can 5 boys and 6 girls sit such that the number of persons of both genders on either side of the middle person is same? A ) (5!)2 x 4C2 x 6C3 B ) 5 x (5!) x 4C2 x 6C3 C ) 5 x (5!)2 x 4C2 x 6C3 D ) None of these SOLUTION Solution: The middle position must be taken by a boy, can be done in 5 ways. There must be 2 boys and 3 girls to the liftoff the boy in the middle. These can be selected in 4 C2 x 6C3 ways. The remaining boys and girls must be seated to the right of the boy in the middle. The boys and girls on either side can be arranged among themselves in 5! ways. Total = 5 x (5!)2 x 4C2 x 6C3. Option [C]

# 3. A teacher gives a strange punishment to a student for his lack of attention during the class. He is supposed to write 100 Xs and 100 Ys in his notebook. He then performs the following operation on these letters. He erases a pair of letters and replaces them with one letter such that if the erased letters were identical, he replaces them with X while if they were different, he replaces them with Y. What is the maximum number of Xs that can appear in his copy at any point in time during the entire operation? A ) 100 B ) 101 C ) 150 D ) None of these SOLUTION

Solution Since we need to maximize the number of Xs, we will start by erasing the Ys. For every pair of Y erased, one X is added. So, for 100 Ys erased, 50 Xs will be added. Hence, Maximum number of Xs is 100 + 50 = 150 Option C

# 4. If p is a prime number greater than 3, how many numbers are there of the form p2 + 2p such that they are also prime numbers? A ) only one B ) only two C ) infinitely many D ) None SOLUTION Solution We note that the remainder that is left on dividing a number by 3 is either 1, 0 or -1.Hence when the square of a number is divided by 3 the remainder is either 0 or 1. Since p is a prime greater than 3, p2 on dividing by 3 can leave a remainder of 1 only since a prime number is a natural number which has exactly two distinct natural numbers as factors. Further 2p on dividing by 3 must leave a remainder -1 since p is a prime greater than 3 and hence it must be odd and also 2 when divided by leaves a remainder -1.Hence p2 + 2p is divisible by 3 and is of the form 3k. Hence all such numbers are composite and never prime. Hence the answer is option (D).

Directions for questions 5-7: Answer the questions based on the given data. In Bomanalli Branch of SitiBank, there are 5, 1 & 1 counters for handling Transactions, Customer Complaints and Loan Applications respectively. The following table provides information on Turnaround time (time taken to resolve customer request) taken by the person allocated to the respective counter along with unproductive time.

Unproductive Time (UPT) is defined as time required for organizing cash (if applicable) and/or logging the details of a customer after customer leaves. The same is calculated as a percentage of TAT. Idle time (IT) is when the counter is empty without any customer. Bank opens at 9 am and each employee works for 8 hours a day, including 1 hour of recess time from 1 pm to 2 pm. The following table provides the data of footfall during last 3 days of the April 2013:

# 5. Based on the information on unproductive time, if it is known that C1, C2, C3 & C4 were utilized to the extent possible, then on which day did the bank observe maximum unproductive + idle time? A ) Day 1 B ) Day 2 C ) Day 3 D ) Data insufficient SOLUTION

Thus, as per the above table total no of customers handled by C1 - C4 = 125. Thus it is sufficient if we look at C5, Complaints and Loans:

UPT during customer handling = Number of customers x TAT x upt %. IT = UPT during idle time = 420 minutes [Number of customers x TAT x (100% + upt%)] Option (A) # 6. Which counter had a capacity of handling maximum number of customers? A ) C1 B ) C2 C ) C4 D ) C5 SOLUTION

Clearly, from the table above, C4 had maximum capacity. Option (C). # 7. If no customer visits the bank after 3:30 pm on DAY 1, then what is the least possible time by which all customers are handled? A ) 3:48 PM

B ) 4:15 PM C ) 4.36 PM D ) 5:00 PM SOLUTION Since, C3 is least productive, we can start by utilizing that counter as less as possible. But in that case, after 234 minutes, it is idle. Hence, we can shift 2 customers from each of the other counters to that one to best utilize the time. The calculation will be as follows:

Thus maximum time = 396 minutes = 6 hours 36 minutes. Considering break of 1 hour, earliest time by which all customer can be handled = 9 am + 7 hrs 36 minutes = 4:36 pm. Option (C).

# 8. Consider a triangle PQR with sides PQ, QR and PR having lengths 13, 14, and 15 units respectively. Altitudes PL and QM are dropped on sides QR and PR respectively. It is given that PL and QM intersect at X. Calculate XL : XQ A ) 3:5 B ) 4:5 C ) 7:9 D ) Cannot be determined SOLUTION

Consider the figure given below

We have, PL and QM are perpendiculars on QR and PR respectively. Hence triangles PLR and QMR are right angled triangles sharing the common acute angle R. Hence they must be similar. Further, we note that right angled triangles MQR and LQX share the common acute angle XQL. Hence triangle XQL must be similar to triangle MQR and thereby also similar to triangle RLP. Therefore XL : XQ = LR : PR (1) Now, PQ, QR, and PR are of lengths 13, 14 and 15 units respectively .Hence , using Herons formula, we get that the area of the triangle is 84 square units. But area of triangle . Hence PL = 12 units. By Pythagoras theorem we get LR2 = 152 - 122 = 81 square units. Hence LR = 9. Thus using (A) and the values of LR and PR, we get, the required ratio as 3:5 as given in option (A).

# 9. Given that p, q, x and y are integers such that (p2 - q2)x2 - 4xypq - (p2 - q2)y2 = 1. How may ordered quadruplets (p, q, x, y) satisfy the given equation? A ) Only one B ) Eight C ) Sixteen D ) Infinitely many

SOLUTION Solution The given equation is (p2 - q2)x2 - 4xypq (p2 q2)y2 = 1 or (p2x2 2pqxy + q2y2) - (q2x2 + 2pqxy + p2y2) = 1 or (px - qy)2 (qx+ py)2 = 1 From the above equation we can conclusively say that (px - qy) = 1 and (qx + py) = 0 --- pair 1 Or (px - qy) = -1 and (qx + py) = 0 pair 2 Solving pair 1, we get x = p / (p2 + q2) and y = -q / (p2 + q2) Since p, q, x, y are integers, the only possible values are tabulated below.

Similarly, by solving the 2nd pair, we get

Hence the number of possible solutions in integers is 8 as given by option (B).

# 10. Vyom, a student of Jago-Re Higher Secondary School calculated the value of (5 - 1) x (51 + 52 + 53 + .. + 5(k-1)) as 5k. Then which of the following is true? A ) He was correct B ) He made an error of 51 C ) He made an error of 50 D ) He made an error of (5)-1 SOLUTION Solution: (5 - 1) x (51 + 52 + 53 + . + 5k-1) By applying method of induction, For K = 2, (5-1) x (51) = 20 = 25 5 = 52 - 5 Thus , we can write (5 - 1) x (51 + 52 + 53 + . + 5k-1) = 5k - 5. Hence, option (B).

# 11. Let us consider a positive integer N such that the factors of N, 1 and N inclusive, are given by a1, a2 .. an. Also let a1 + a2 + . an = p. Then which among is the value of ?

A)

B)

C) D ) None of these SOLUTION Solution The given expression is = This is because the denominator comprises of the l.c.m of the factors of N which is N and the numerator comprises of the sum of the complements of ai in N, which basically boils down to finding the sum of the factors of N . Hence the given expression has a value as given by option (C).

# 12. A quadratic function has two values '' and '' between 4 and 7 such that at '' and '', f(x) = 0. Find the probable value of f(4).f(7) among the following :

A)

B)

C)

D ) 81 SOLUTION Solution : As at '' and '' f(x) = 0 that means they are the root of the quadratic function f(x) so the quadratic function can be rewritten as f(x) = x2 - (+)x + Moreover, (7-),(-4),(7- ),(-4) all are positive quantities. (As and lie between 4 and 7). Applying Arithmetic Mean Geometric Mean , we have ...... Eqn (1) and ...... Eqn (2) Taking Eqn (1), or, or, Similarly from Eqn (2), Combining both or, or, or, or, [Since f(x) = x2 - (+)x + ]

Clearly options (a), (c) and (d) are greater than 81/16 so the only possible value of f(4)f(7) is 81/16 Option (B)

# 13. Find the minimum value of the polynomial P(x) = x8- 18x6 + 88x4- 42x3 + 67x2 - 24x + 37 A)1 B ) -1 C)2 D ) -2 SOLUTION Solution The given polynomial P(x) = x8 - 18x6 + 88x4 - 42x3 + 67x2 - 24x + 37 may be rewritten as P(x) = (x8 - 2x49x2 + 81x4) + (7x4 - 42x3 + 63x2) + (4x2 - 24x + 36) + 1 Or, P(x) = (x4 - 9x2)2 + 7(x2 - 3x)2 + 4(x - 3)2 + 1. Thus the given polynomial consists of the sum of three non-negative definite terms and one. Hence the minimum value 1 is attained when each of the other three non negative definite terms become zero at x = 3.Hence the answer is option (A).

Directions for questions 14-16: Answer the questions based on the given data. The following 8 teams will be taking part in the ICC world Cup 2015 in Australia.

The format of the tournament is simple. The teams in each group play each other exactly once. The Top two teams qualify for the semifinals, with the top team of group A playing second team of group B and vice versa. The winner of the S/F plays the finals. Each win gets the team 2 points there are no ties. In case of equal points, the team with higher Net run rate (NRR) is ranked higher. Lalach Modi has launched a cricket betting website called doublematka.com which has calculated the following odds based on past data.

W/R difference for a team is the difference of ranking between the Team and its opponent. For Example to bet on India against West Indies the W/R Diff will be -7 and to bet on West Indies against India it will be +7. If the difference in world rankings is -6 and if you bet - 5 then you on winning you get back -5 plus - 2. If the difference in world rankings is + 4, and if you bet -3 and win you get back -3 + -4.

On every winning bet, doublematka.com takes a commission of 5% on the winnings and pays the remaining to the winner. # 14. If Rohan Tanhai bets $ 6000 on each group match of the West Indies, what is the maximum money that he can hope to win given that West Indies doesnt qualify for the Semi Finals? A ) $ 9,000 B ) $ 15,850 C ) $ 13,000 D ) $ 27,550 SOLUTION Rohan Tanhai bets on WI in every match and exactly $ 6,000 each time. For him to make money WI has to win matches. But it is given that WI doesnt qualify for the SF stage. So best cases is that WI wins 2 matches and loses 1, in which case it is possible that WI doesnt qualify based on run rate. Secondly, to maximize Rohans wins, WI wins should come against countries where the W/R difference is high, i.e. India and Australia (High W/R Diff, High odds and hence greater winnings) So WI wins against India odds are 2:5. Hence winnings are 6,000 x 5/2 = $ 15,000 WI wins against Aus odds are 3:4. Hence winnings are 6,000 x 4/3 = $ 8,000 WI loses against SL. Odds are 1:1. Hence Loss of $ 6,000 Net Commission is 5% of winnings (1,500 + 8,000) = $ 1,150 Net Winnings are 15,000 + 8,000 - 6000 - 1150 = $ 15,850 Hence, Option (B) # 15. Ranil Sattanayake is a compulsive gambler and die-hard Sri Lanka Fan. He bets $ 6,000 on Sri Lankas first group match and doubles the bet amount in each successive match. If Sri Lanka wins the World Cup what is the minimum amount that Ranil would have won? A ) $ 106,500 B ) $ 108,300

C ) $ 216,750 D ) None of these SOLUTION Ranil Sattanayake bets on SL in every match starting with a bet of $ 6,000 and doubling the bet in each match. Now Given SL wins the World Cup how do we minimize the winnings. Group Stage SL should qualify but win least matches. Hence SL should win 1 and lose 2 matches. Also the lone win comes against WI so that winnings are minimum. Lastly the win should be first match so that bet size is minimum. Hence SL Wins WI, Odds of 1:1 Winnings = $ 6,000 SL Loss Ind, Odds of 2:5, Loss = $ 12,000 SL Loss to Aus, Odds of 3:4, Loss = $ 24,000 SF and Final SL has won the world cup implies that they have won both SF and Final. So we can only reduce the winnings by ensuring the odds are lowest, i.e. 1:1 SF: SL Wins Pak/NZ, Odds of 1:1 Winnings = $ 48,000 Final SL Wins WI/NZ/Pak, Odds of 1:1, Winnings = $ 96,000 Commission on Winnings is 5% of (6,000 + 48,000 + 96,000) = $ 7,500 Net Winnings for Ranil is $ 150,000 - $ 12,000 - $ 24,000 - $ 7500 = $ 106,500 Hence, Option (A) # 16. Tarawala, a famous astrologer can see from the stars that either New Zealand or West Indies will win the tournament? If he starts with $ 6000, then what is the maximum amount (approximate) he can win by the end of the tournament? (Assume that commission is not charged for Mr. Tarawala) A ) $ 0.9 Mn

B ) $ 1.2 Mn C ) $ 1.5 Mn D ) None of these SOLUTION Tarawala knows that either WI or NZ will win the world cup. His maximum winnings will occur if he picks the winner and the winner wins all matches. The bet amount for the 1st match would be $ 6,000. And for every successive match he will bet his winnings + Original $ 6,000. Let us say he picks WI Group Stage WI Wins SL Odds of 1:1. Total money (Bet money + Winnings) = 6,000 x 2 which is bet on next match WI Wins Aus, Odds of 3:4. Total Money = 6,000 x 2 x 7/3 (bet on next match) WI Wins Ind, Odds of 7:2. Total Money = 6,000 x 2 x 7/3 x 7/2 SF and Final To get the highest odds (2:5) WI should play SA/Eng in the SF and then Ind/Eng/SA in the final. So Total money at end of tournament = $ 6000 x 2 x 7/3 x 7/2 x 7/2 x 7/2 = 6000 x 2401/12 = 1.2 Mn (approx) Total winnings = 1.2 Mn - $ 6,000. Approx choice is 1.2 Mn Hence Option (B)

# 17. In the given figure, ABC is a right angled triangle, right angled at A. A circle with centre X is inscribed within the triangle. Another circle with centre Y is drawn inside the triangle such that it touches AC , BC and the larger circle . If the radii of two circles are 12 and 5 cm respectively, then find the length AC in cm.

A) B) C ) 12/7(7+ D) SOLUTION Solution:Joining both centres, if we extend the line it will meet C. Let the line AC touch the larger circle at S. )

SQ is the direct common tangent for these circles. SQ = CYQ and CXS are similar triangles.

CQ/CS = QY/SX = 5/12 Or, CQ/ (CQ + SQ) = 5/12 Therefore, while CQ/CS = QY/SX = 5/12, applying dividen do to both sides, (CS - CQ)/CS = (12 - 5)/12 or SQ/CS = 7/12 =>CS = (12/7) SQ or (12/7) . Since AC = CS +AS, AC = 12/7(7 + Option C )

# 18. A)5 B)8 C)9 D ) 12

+ n terms = . Find the value of

SOLUTION + => => => [ 1st term of n th pair => 1st term of nth pair=12 = Hence , n is such that 144 is the nth no of the series 48, 60,72,. Thus 144 = 48 + (n - 1)12 => n = 9. Option (C). =6 + +up to n = ++,, ,, ,, = + .]=

# 19. A person started from his house one morning in a hurry. While leaving instead of looking at his wall clock, he looked at the mirror image on the mirror hanging on the opposite wall. The clock has no numbers on its dial and hence he mixed up the time. He reached the station in 10 minutes, saw a clock on the platform and realized his mistake as well as the fact that the time on the clock at home is exactly 1 hour behind that on the platform clock. What is the time on the platform clock? A ) 5:35 B ) 6:25 C ) 6:35 D ) 5:25 SOLUTION As the time on mirror clock is exactly 1 hour behind the time on platform clock, so both them must have their minutes hand on same position. As he took 10 min to reach station that mean the difference in platform clock and original clock is exactly 10 min. Now we will take the help of the options. According to [A], platform time is 5:35, so original clock time is 5:25, so mirror clock time must be 6:35(mirror vision of 5:25), but it is not 1 hour behind 5:35, so this option is not correct.

According to [B], platform time is 6:25, so original clock time is 6:15, so mirror clock time must be 5:45(mirror vision of 6:15), but it is not 1 hour behind 5:35, so this option is not correct. According to [C], platform time is 6:35, so original clock time is 6:25, so mirror clock time must be 5:35(mirror vision of 6:25), it is 1 hour behind 6:35, so this option is correct. Option C

# 20. ABCD is a trapezium such that CD is the diameter of a circle which touches the side AB at M. Further the circle passes through the midpoint of the diagonals, i.e. the diagonals AC and BD are bisected at the points they are cut by the circle. Calculate angle BDA. A ) 30o B ) 15o C ) 45o D ) Cannot be determined. SOLUTION Solution Consider the following figure. CQ is joined and CP is dropped perpendicular to AB.

We observe that Triangle DQC is a right angled triangle as DC is the diameter of a circle. Considering triangles DQC and BQC, we observe that CQ is common. Angle CQD = Angle CQB and DQ = QB (by question). Hence the triangles CQD and CQB are congruent. Hence CD = CB = 2r, where r is the radius of the circle. DC is parallel to AM and angle CPM is 90o. Hence PCO = 90o. Similarly angle OMP and angle MOC are equal to 90o. Hence OM=CP = r. Triangle CPB is right angled at P. CP = r and hypotenuse CB = 2r. Hence sine (angle CBP) = .. This

implies angle CBP = 30o. Now PBQ = alternate angle QDC and angle QDC = angle QBC (As the triangles CDQ and CBQ are congruent). Hence angle PBQ = Angle QBC = 1/2 Angle CBP = 15oas given by option (B).

# 21. Let XYZ be an equilateral triangle with centroid at O. Let AB be a line parallel to the base XY passing through the centroid cutting the sides XZ and YZ at A and B respectively. Let P be any arbitrary point on AB. Perpendiculars x and y are dropped on the sides XZ and YZ respectively from the point P. If the altitude of the triangle is h, which among the following best describes the relation between x, y, and h? A ) x+y =h B ) x2+y2=h2 C ) (x+y)2=h2 D ) x+y= SOLUTION Solution

Consider the figure given above. The perpendiculars to the triangle from the point P are x and y. We further drop another perpendicular from p to XY and call it z. The altitude of triangle XYZ is h. If P is joined to X,Y,and Z respectively, the triangle XYZ is partitioned off into three triangles which are PXZ , PXY and PZY respectively. Let each side of the XYZ have length = a units. Hence area triangle XYZ = . Hence x + y + z = h. I.e., x + y = h-z= rd (Since AB passes through the centroid, z=1/3 h). Hence the correct answer is given by option (D).

# 22. If log12 27 = a, and log616 = q, find q in terms of a.

A)

B)

C)

D) SOLUTION Solution Given that log12 27 = a , we have =a ; or, log123 = a/3, or; log3 12 = 3/a or, as given by option (A).

Or, 1 + 2log3 2 = 3/a ; or simplifying, we get, Again =

Directions for questions 23-25: Answer the questions based on the given data. Alia Boxwala, a graduate from a premier B School in India, currently a resident of Kolkata, envisaged a unique business opportunity with zero investment. She started lunch delivery service for office goers across the city near to the well connected Sovabazar-Tollygunj metro route. For these, she appointed some undergraduates, who would carry the lunch boxes from the respective residence or caterer in morning and deliver the same to the respective individual by 1 pm. Entire service is decentralized during pick-up and delivery time. The most attractive part was the standard pricing. Irrespective of distance, or weight of the boxes, one has to pay Rs 600 per month. However, an additional charge of Rs 30 per month will be levied if the distance between pick-up and delivery metro stations crosses 10 km. The model works as follows:

She appointed separate manpower for (i) pick-up, (ii) travelling by metro with the boxes and (iii) delivery. Each pick-up and delivery boy was supposed to carry out not more than 30 orders. She appointed 36 additional manpower for travelling with the boxes. 18 among them would start travelling from Sovabazar to Tollygunj, with 2 of them getting down at each destination station collect/handover lunch boxes from the pickup/slash delivery boys, while the other 18 who would travel from Tollygunj to Sovabazar are performing the same functions. Given below are the details for the financial year 2012-2013. Assume that order status is constant across all 12 months. Order Status for a month

She had decided to pull order from a place only if the number of orders from or to that place is at least 10, except for delivery within the same location. For delivery within the same location, she managed without any additional manpower, since the pick-up boys get free after hand-over the boxes at the stations and can manage delivery to the same station after that. Each worker gets a fixed salary of Rs. 3000 per month. Over and above this they would also get an additional commission, which is certain percentage of the revenue earned, as decided by Alia at the end of every month. They are supposed to travel at their own cost.

The distances of the locations (calculated from Sovabazar) are as follows:

# 23. Assuming Alia did not appoint any extra manpower, what is the employee strength of her organization? A ) 89 B ) 94 C ) 56 D ) None of these SOLUTION Manpower can be calculated from the following table:

Number of manpower = Quotient of (Number of orders/30) + 1, if it is not divisible by 30. For calculating number of delivery boys, the entries like Sova-Sova, Giri-Giri etc will not be counted. Thus total manpower = 28 pick-up boys + 25 delivery boys + 36 boys for travelling = 89. Option A # 24. If Alia decides to spend 10% of revenue earned on commission, then what is her profit at the end of the financial year (assuming no additional order and no additional cost)? A ) Rs. 12.3 lacs B ) Rs. 19.4 lacs C ) Rs. 13.9 lacs D ) None of these SOLUTION Total number of orders = 707, within which 53 are Tolly - Sova (11) + Tolly - Giri (19) + Sova Tolly (12) + Sova-Kali ((11). Hence, total revenue = [654 x Rs. 600 + 53 x Rs. 630] x 12 = Rs. 510,9480. Fixed salary = 89 x Rs. 3,000 x 12 = Rs. 3204000. Exp on commission = 10% of revenue, i.e. Rs. 510948. Thus profit = Rs. 1394532 =Rs. 13.9 lacs. Option C # 25. Institute of Sigma, India (ISI), offers prestigious Sigma Three Award to those services that has less than 3 errors in 1 lac of deliveries within the same financial year. On 7th May, due to heavy rain, Suraj, a delivery boy failed to deliver an order on time. Assuming no such error before this one, how many more errors can Alia afford to achieve Sigma Three Award (assume 25 working days each month)? A)9 B)4 C)6 D)5 SOLUTION

Total number of deliveries to be executed in the year = 707 x 25 x 12 = 212100. Thus number of affordable errors < 212100 x 3/100000 = 6.363. Thus 5 more errors are acceptable. Option (D)

# 26. Ravi has recently bought an android phone. It has a screen lock which operates in the following way: there are 9 dots arranged in a 3 x 3 square formation. Unfortunately, after setting the lock, he has forgotten it. The only thing he remembers is that to unlock, one has to tap 4 dots in the correct sequence. What is the probability that he will open the lock in the 37th trial given that he does not repeat any failed trials? A ) 37/3024 B ) 36/3024 C ) 1-(37/3024) D ) None of these SOLUTION Solution: The total number of sequences possible is 9P4 = 3024. The probability of succeeding at the first trial is 1/3024. In the nth trial (assuming the first (n-1) trials are unsuccessful), he will not try out the options tried out in the previous (n-1) trials. Hence, the number of sequences from which he chooses one at random is 3024 (n - 1) or 3025 n. Therefore, the probability of success in the nth trial alone is 1/(3025 - n). The probability of success in the nth trial having failed in the previous (n - 1) trials is 3023/3024 x 3022/3023 x 3021/3022 x ..(3025 - n) / (3026 - n) x 1/(3025 - n). Hence, the probability of success in any trial is 1/3024 Option (D)

# 27. How many A.P.s of 3 terms can be formed from the set of the 1st 40 natural numbers? A ) 40

B ) 380 C ) 760 D ) None of these SOLUTION Soln: All A.P.s must have integral common difference (given that all terms are natural numbers). Every triplet will give us 2 series, one increasing and the other decreasing e.g. (1, 2, 3) & (3, 2, 1). Number of series with common difference 1, e.g., (1, 2, 3), (2, 3, 4), (38, 39, 40) = 38 x 2 (1st term can be anything from 1 to 38) Number of series with common difference 2 = 36 x 2 (1st term can be anything from 1 to 36) Number of series with common difference 3 = 34 x 2 (1st term can be anything from 1 to 34) Number of series with common difference 19 (highest common difference) = 2 x 2 So, total number of series = 2 x (2 + 4 + . + 36 + 38) = 760. Hence Option [C]

# 28. Mamata borrowed a total of Rs. 40,000 from two persons to be repaid at the end of two years, with the interest being compounded annually. She repaid Rs. 31,100 more to the first person when compared to the second at the end of two years. The first persons rate of interest was 10 percentage points more than that of second. Instead, if Mamata borrowed equal amounts from them at the same rates, she would have paid Rs. 4,600 more to the first. Find actually how much was borrowed from the first person. A )Rs. 25,000 B )Rs. 28,500 C )Rs. 30,000 D )Rs. 35,000 SOLUTION

Solution:Let the interest rate charged by first and second person be (r + 10)% and r % respectively. When Mamata borrows equal amounts from the two persons at these rates, the difference in amount repaid is due to difference in interest calculated and equal to 4600, i.e., . Solving the equation above, we get r = 10 Now let us consider that the loans taken from the first and second persons were x and 40,000 x respectively. We are given that the difference between 20% on x and 10% on 40,000 x is 31,100 Formulating the equation as above and solving, we get x = 30,000. Option C

# 29. Triangle PQR is isosceles and has sides PQ = QR = 3 units. A line AB is so drawn such that A lies on PR and B lies on QR and is distinct from Q and it divides the triangle into two parts having equal area as well as equal perimeter. If PR = 4units. Find AR. A ) 2 units B ) 3 units C ) 2.5 units D ) 3.5 units SOLUTION Solution Consider the figure given below

We have, let AR = x then PA= 4 - x. Perimeter of triangle PQR = 3 + 3 + 4 = 10 units. Further, since the perimeters of ABR and APQB are the same and AB is common to both, AR + RB = AP + PQ + QB = 10/2 or 5. Since AR + RB = 5Units, RB = 5 - x units. Now area of triangle QRP = 2x area of triangle ARB (given that the areas of ABR and APQB are equal). Thus ; or,

Solving, we get that x = 2,3. If x = 2, then B would coincide with Q which contradicts the condition given in the problem. Hence x = 3 , i.e. AR = 3 as given in option (B).

# 30. Let us consider a set of 100 distinct positive numbers. From that set, all possible distinct combinations of 99 numbers are selected and their averages computed as A1, A2, , A100. Let X be the average of the complete set of averages so obtained. If Y be the average of the original set of 100 numbers, then which of the following is definitely true regarding the relationship between X and Y? A)X>Y B)X<Y C)X=Y D ) Depends on the 100 numbers selected. SOLUTION Let ni be any number present within the original set of 100 numbers. Out of the 100 possible combinations, this number definitely belongs to 99 distinct combinations. Thus if the sum of the

original numbers is S, then the sum of the sums of each of the individual sets of 99 numbers would be 99S.Then, it is easy to see that S1 + S2 + + S100 = 99S , where Si is sum of the the ith combination of 99 numbers. Dividing both sides by 99, we obtain , A1 + A2 ++ A100 = S; which implies that the average of the complete set of averages obtained would also be the average of the original 100 numbers. Hence X = Y as given in option (3). Alternate explanation for those who find the verbal reasoning difficult: If Ai is the average of all numbers excluding the ith number (Ni) and Y is the original average of the complete set of numbers, 100Y = 99Ai + Ni orAi = (100Y - Ni)/99 X= Ai/100 = (100Y Ni) / (99 x 100) = (100 x 100 x Y - Ni) / (99 x 100) = (100 x 100 x Y 100Y) / (99 x 100) = 99 x 100 x Y/99 x 100 =Y

Directions for questions 31-34: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below it.

The castle-in-the-air theory of investing concentrates on psychic values. John Maynard Keynes, a famous economist and successful investor, enunciated the theory most lucidly in 1936. It was his opinion that professional investors prefer to devote their energies not to estimating intrinsic values, but rather to analyzing how the crowd of investors is likely to behave in the future and how during periods of optimism they tend to build their hopes into castles in the air. The successful investor tries to beat the gun by estimating what investment situations are most susceptible to public castle-building and then buying before the crowd. According to Keynes, the firm-foundation theory involves too much work and is of doubtful value. Keynes practiced what he preached. While London's financial men toiled many weary hours in crowded offices, he played the market from his bed for half an hour each morning. This leisurely method of investing earned him several million pounds for his account and a tenfold increase in the market value of the endowment of his college, King's College, Cambridge.

In the depression years in which Keynes gained his fame, most people concentrated on his ideas for stimulating the economy. It was hard for anyone to build castles in the air or to dream that others would. Nevertheless, in his book The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money, he devoted an entire chapter to the stock market and to the importance of investor expectations. With regard to stocks, Keynes noted that no one knows for sure what will influence future earnings prospects and dividend payments. As a result, Keynes said, most persons are "largely concerned, not with making superior long-term forecasts of the probable yield of an investment over its whole life, but with foreseeing changes in the conventional basis of valuation a short time ahead of the general public." Keynes, in other words, applied psychological principles rather than financial evaluation to the study of the stock market. He wrote, "It is not sensible to pay 25 for an investment of which you believe the prospective yield to justify a value of 30, if you also believe that the market will value it at 20 three months hence." Keynes described the playing of the stock market in terms readily understandable by his fellow Englishmen: It is analogous to entering a newspaper beauty-judging contest in which one must select the six prettiest faces out of a hundred photographs, with the prize going to the person whose selections most nearly conform to those of the group as a whole. The smart player recognizes that personal criteria of beauty are irrelevant in determining the contest winner. A better strategy is to select those faces the other players are likely to fancy. This logic tends to snowball. After all, the other participants are likely to play the game with at least as keen a perception. Thus, the optimal strategy is not to pick those faces the player thinks are prettiest, or those the other players are likely to fancy, but rather to predict what the average opinion is likely to be about what the average opinion will be, or to proceed even further along this sequence. So much for British beauty contests. The newspaper-contest analogy represents the ultimate form of the castle-in-the-air theory of price determination. An investment is worth a certain price to a buyer because she expects to sell it to someone else at a higher price. The investment, in other words, holds itself up by its own bootstraps. The new buyer in turn anticipates that future buyers will assign a still-higher value. In this kind of world, there is a sucker born every minute and he exists to buy your investments at a higher price than you paid for them. Any price will do as long as others may be willing to pay more. There is no reason, only mass psychology. All the smart investor has to do is to beat the gun, get in at the very beginning. This theory might less charitably be called the "greater fool" theory. It's perfectly all right to pay three times what something is worth as long as later on you can find some innocent to pay five times what it's worth. # 31. What does the author mean by this logic tends to snowball? A ) The reasoning that it is better to select what others select, backfires B ) The reasoning that one should select what others are likely to like, puts into action a sequence of similar reasoning which gathers momentum

C ) The reasoning that one should try to predict what the average prediction about a certain prediction is likely to be, is the best one D ) The reasoning which is based on mass psychology about what would be the general prediction, is optimal. SOLUTION Answer (B). The lines A better strategy is to select those faces the other players are likely to fancy. This logic tends to snowball. After all, the other participants are likely to play the game with at least as keen a perception clearly shows that the logic works on cumulative selections which keeps growing bigger and thus leads to the optimal outcomes. To snowball means to accumulate gradually into something big. # 32. Which of the following best paraphrases the concept of castle-in-the-air theory of price determination ? A ) An investment is worth paying for if there is a fool waiting to buy that investment B ) It is irrational to buy something at a certain price if it is considered high by market standards C ) Whatever be the cost price of an investment, it is justified if one understands mass psychology D ) There is no upper limit to the price of an investment as long as there is a growing market for that investment SOLUTION Answer (D). The line It's perfectly all right to pay three times what something is worth as long as later on you can find some innocent to pay five times what it's worth. Indicates d as the answer. # 33. According to Keynes I. The study of the stock market is a short-term phenomenon II. Stock market changes are amenable to long term predictions III. Understanding stock markets require the application of psychology rather than finance IV. The market value of an investment is always higher than its inherent value A ) I and III B ) II, III and IV

C ) I, II and III D ) III and IV SOLUTION Answer (A). According to Keynes , the study of stock market is not with making superior long-term forecasts of the probable yield of an investment over its whole life, but with foreseeing changes in the conventional basis of valuation a short time ahead of the general public." This proves (I) to be true and (II) to be false. Keynes, in other words, applied psychological principles rather than financial evaluation to the study of the stock market. Proves III to be true. In IV , the word always makes it a distortion of the truth. # 34. Which of the following situations most closely follows the castle-in-the-air theory? A ) A professional buying a second house hoping to sell it for a profit knowing that it is overpriced B ) A gambler continuing to wager larger and larger sums in the hope of winning C ) A promoter starting up a project in a remote area which reliable sources predict will take at least 20 odd years to become urbanized D ) An investor buying up the stocks of a company which is set to secure a several big orders in the next few months SOLUTION Answer (A). The Castle-in-the-air theory says An investment is worth a certain price to a buyer because she expects to sell it to someone else at a higher price. The investment, in other words, holds itself up by its own bootstraps. The new buyer in turn anticipates that future buyers will assign a still-higher value. This logic is apt in the situation mentioned in option a . Clearly a second overpriced house is expected to fetch a higher price in the eyes of the buyer. Gambling is about chance and does not apply here. 20 years is a long term business and according to the passage the theory is mostly about short term predictions. Last option is based on financial evaluation which is not the basis of the referred theory.

Directions for question 35 to 37: Answer the questions based on the following data: During the break of one week after the exams at SPAM (School of Private Administration and Management), the batch of 250 students decide to spend the entire week by watching movies.

There are five movies that have been recently released, and every student watches at least one movie. Further, at least three students watch any given combination of movie/movies. The movies released are Incidence, Where Is Little Lulu, Drop Out, To Hear Is Sin and Dead Immortals. # 35. If every film is watched by 120 students, at least how many students watch at most two movies? A ) 55 B ) 56 C ) 101 D ) None of these SOLUTION Solution Let us first find out the number of combinations. We denote the number of instances by the number of tickets that have been bought. It is given that for any combination on movie/movies there are at least three students who watch that movie/movies. Let us therefore find out the minimum number of students who will be present in each category. The same is given in the table below. We see from the above table that there are at least 93 students who are buying 240 tickets. For the questions, let us treat them separately. It is given that each movie is watched by 120 students, which means a total of 600 tickets were sold. Out of these 600, we already know that 240 tickets have been bought by 93 students. So the question is to now distribute the remaining (600-240) = 360 tickets to remaining (250-93) = 157 students, so that students watching exactly 1 or exactly 2 movies is the minimum. We know, (exactly 1)+ (exactly 2) + (exactly 3)+ (exactly 4)+ (exactly 5) = 157. Since we have to minimize the number of students who watch exactly one or exactly two movies, lets start by giving 3 tickets to each of the 157 students, for which we need 157 x 3 = 471 tickets. But there are only 360 tickets. So, we have to take back (471-360) = 111 tickets. Now if we take back 1 ticket from the students, 111 students move from exactly 3 category to exactly 2 category, but if we take back 2 tickets from each student, 55 students will move from exactly 3 to

exactly 1 category. The remaining 1 ticket has to be taken back from the last student, and he moves to the exactly 2 category. So minimum 56 students are moving to the exactly 1 or exactly 2 category. Added to this would the already existing 45 students from the earlier 93 students. So total 101 Option (C). # 36. What is the maximum number of students who can watch all five movies, given each movie is watched by 200 students? A ) 150 B ) 153 C ) 177 D ) 167 SOLUTION Solution Let us first find out the number of combinations. We denote the number of instances by the number of tickets that have been bought. It is given that for any combination on movie/movies there are at least 3 students who watch that movie/movies. Let us therefore find out the minimum number of students who will be present in each category. The same is given in the table below. We see from the above table that there are at least 93 students who are buying 240 tickets. For the questions, let us treat them separately. Since each movie is watched by 200 students, total number of tickets = 200*5 =1000, out of which we already know that 240 tickets have been bought by 93 students. So we are left with 760 tickets to be bought by 157 students, so that maximum number of people buy 5 tickets. Since 760/5 = 152, we can say that maximum 152 students out of the 157 can watch 5 movies. But this also means that the remaining 5 students are not watching any movie, which violates the condition given in the directions. If we assume that 151 students are watching 5 movies, which is just 1 less than 152, that accounts for

151*5 = 755 tickets. Still, we are left with 5 tickets to be distributed to 6 students such that each gets at least 1. This is also not possible. If we now say that 150 students are watching 5 movies, this accounts for 150*5 = 750 tickets, and we are left with 10 tickets to be distributed to 7 students such that each gets at least one. This case is possible. Hence from the 157 students, maximum 150 can watch all 5 movies, and from the earlier 93 students, 3 are watching 5 movies. Total = 150+3 = 153. Option B. # 37. If each movie is watched by a different number of students, at most how many students can watch all 5 movies? A)A B)A C)A D)A SOLUTION Solution Let us first find out the number of combinations. We denote the number of instances by the number of tickets that have been bought. It is given that for any combination on movie/movies there are at least 3 students who watch that movie/movies. Let us therefore find out the minimum number of students who will be present in each category. The same is given in the table below. We see from the above table that there are at least 93 students who are buying 240 tickets. For the questions, let us treat them separately. There is no constraint on the number of tickets, and we have to maximize the number of students watching 5 movies. Let us start by assuming that all 157 students watch 5 movies. But this would also mean that each movie is watched by the same number of people, as these 157 students contribute to the exactly 5 part, and the earlier 93 students are also symmetrically distributed.

Hence, let the 1st movie be watched by 157 students, 2nd movie by 156 students, 3rd movie by 155 students, 4th movie by 154 students and the 5th movie by 153 students. To find the maximum number of students who watch all 5 movies, we have to take the minimum of the above values, which is 153. Additionally, there are 3 students from the earlier 93 students who are also watching 3 movies. So total = 153 + 3 = 156. Option (B).

# 38.

The sentences, A, B, C, and D, below when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. From among the four choices given below the question, choose the MOST LOGICAL ORDER of sentences that constructs a coherent paragraph. A) There is indeed strong evidence that the expansion of bank balance sheets (and private borrowing in general) helps drive economic growth B) Most bankers bristle when asked whether the finance industry is already big enough in relation to the rest of the economy. C) Initially growth in banking assets spurred economic growth, but soon a good chunk of it just inflated the size of the financial sector as banks created ever more securities to buy and sell from one another. D) Surprisingly, though, research indicates that once private borrowing gets close to 100% of GDP it starts to slow down growth A ) ADBC B ) ABDC C ) BADC D ) BACD SOLUTION

Sol: Here both A and B are decent starting sentences. A and D are connected. There is evidence and research indicates. Thus growth in banking assets while initially positive for economic growth later slows it down (AD). C explains why, at higher levels, banking assets fail to spur economic growth. Hence ADC is one unit. Now B may either B be the starting or ending sentence. From choices, BADC. Option C

# 39. From the paragraph below the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. Suspending the Internet may be a blunt instrument but controlling it can be an effective tool. China and Iran like to do this a lot. Other countries are more subtle. Turkey, for instance, constantly adjusts its levels of filtering depending both on the whims of authorities and public demands. As governments come to terms with the changes wrought by free services offered by companies like Google the Internet will inevitably splinter and balkanize.______________ A ) We could very well foresee a dismal future that could include walled-off national Internets, with virtual visas required for entry B ) The Internet is already divided to some extent, with restricted access to the outside world from repressive regimes, and language barriers rendering others, a separate ecosystem. C ) On January 28th 2011 the Mubarak government shut down the Internet in anticipation of protests. D ) Instead of speculating about holographic Avtars and flying cars, we should focus on how technology affects power structures SOLUTION Answer: A. The key here is splinter and balkanize meaning break up into small parts. While both 1 and 2 talk about division, from the last sentence it is clear we are looking at a prediction for the future (1) rather than 2 (current divisions).

# 40. In the sentence below a part of the sentence is underlined. The sentence is followed by four ways of writing the underlined part. Answer choice (A) repeats the original, the other answer choices vary. If you think that the original phrasing is the best choice select option (A). If you think one of the other answer choices is the best, select that choice. Seeming to be one of the few colleges offering a masters program, several students in the vicinity preferred attending Valley High.

A ) Seeming to be B ) Because it seemed to be C ) In that they seemed D ) Although it seemed SOLUTION Answer B A is wrong. The phrase 'seeming to be', incorrectly modifies 'several students'. In C 'they' is wrong. In that it seemed...', would have been correct. D is wrong because although is a misfit

# 41. The sentence below has two blanks followed by four pairs of words as choices. From the choices, select the pair of words that can best complete the given sentence. One of the major forces in contemporary literary criticism and theory is Jacques Derrida, whose ___________ critique on structuralism and the tradition of Western philosophy has ___________a wide range of influential critical activities generally known as deconstruction. A ) meticulous, inaugurated B ) offhand, unveiled C ) dogmatic, given D ) pioneering, disclosed SOLUTION Answer: A. Derridas work is introduced as a major force among critical works. Thus the sentence has a positive tone. If it is a major force then it is one of the insurmountable works in criticism and must have been a detailed analysis that was flawless; hence meticulous. Now to the effect: there was a flurry of critical activities post Derridas critique on structuralism. Hence it was a major force or a great influential factor towards the latter critical works. Hence, the word inaugurated fits. Unveiled and disclosed applies to hidden, cryptic, or secrets getting into light.

Directions for questions 42-44: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below it. Hollywood has always had a tenuous grasp of subjects dealing with mental illnesses. Sure, they herald those films that deal with the insane and disabled as groundbreaking and monumental. An old Hollywood joke is that the only guaranteed way to win an Oscar is to play a retard. And yet, Hollywood, and the world film community at large, never really seems to agree how mental illness should be depicted. Some films, like Sam Fullers Shock Corridor (1963) and Franois Truffauts The Story of Adele H (1975) operated under the fallacy that sufferers of mental illness could turn the crazy on and off as the plot saw fit. Other films, usually character studies like The Rain Man (1988) and A Beautiful Mind (2001), exploit their mentally challenged characters for laughs or tears. By and large, what most filmmakers dont realize is that the mentally ill do not, and cannot, comprehend the world the same way sane people do. Its easier to examine mental patients from the outside looking in. So filmmakers treat the mentally ill as spectacles to observe and study. In the Oscar-winning film The Snake Pit (1948), the leading character, played by Olivia de Havilland, is depicted receiving electroconvulsive therapy, or ECT. De Havillands character, Virginia Stuart Cunningham, stands nervously in a line of female patients who are being assembly lined through the windowless treatment room. As her turn on the laboratory table approaches, her anxiety grows palpably into terror. Efficient but uncaring, the nurses prepare the reclining Virginia by lubricating her temples to apply the electrodes, restraining her arms to prevent thrashing, and inserting a mouth- piece to keep her from injuring her tongue. The director, Anatole Litvak, does not show the mentally ill young woman being shocked, panning instead to the electrotherapeutic machine on a nearby table, its dials and gauges fluctuating menacingly. Along with the more famous One Flew Over the Cuckoo's Nest, these scenes from The Snake Pit are often cited as classic "anti-psychiatric" representations of the brutal and barbarous pseudo-treatments allegedly inflicted on patients in government-run asylums during the 1940s and 50s, when a whole battery of new somatic interventions, including, most deplorably, lobotomy, came into existence. But, viewed carefully, there is more to The Snake Pit's portrayal. In fact, for all her initial fear of the procedure, Virginia responds positively to her ECT sessions: over time, the treatments draw her out of the depths of her psychosis, until she is rational and clear headed enough to undergo psychotherapy with the caring and handsome "Or Kit", which in turn leads to her recovery and return home. These two views of this highly controversial treatment are at the core of Edward Shorter and David Healy's provocative Shock Therapy: A history of electroconvulsive treatment in mental illness. Shorter and Healy, both highly accomplished authors, make a formidable team. Based in Toronto, Shorter is one of the most daring and prolific scholars writing today in the history of medicine, whose History of Psychiatry: From the age of asylum to the age of Prozac (1997) utterly rewrote past Freudo-centric narratives by centering instead the development of past biological theories of the mind and somato-therapeutics . Healy, based at Cardiff University, is now the leading historian of Cho-pharmacology in the world, whose informed and courageous analyses of our "anti-depressant era" have infuriated the global drug industry. # 42. The central idea of the passage may be described as

A ) Review of cinematic works that study the medical processes of the anti-depressant era B ) Psychiatric narrative of a derogatory medical process C ) Study of a controversial therapy process of patients in an asylum D ) Hollywoods failure to understand the perspective of the mentally ill SOLUTION Answer: D is the answer as the passage clearly states that Hollywood has not understood that the mentally ill see the world differently. In fact Hollywood looks at them from the outside. The passage is also a review of works that depict psychiatric therapy of mentally challenged people. It is not B because the passage is not a psychiatric narrative though it does justify a derogatory medical process. Similarly C cannot be the answer because it is not a singular study of a controversial medical approach. A is not the answer as the passage deals with Electro convulsive and Lobotomy and not the anti depressant treatments. # 43. From the passage it can be inferred that the primary assumption of the directors of the film Snake Pit A ) The film should portray derogatory medical processes inflicted upon asylum patients in a bygone era B ) The tone of the film should able to vividly depict the processes of shock therapy on asylum patients C ) The film should be able to silhouette a glum and dark ambience under which asylum inhabitants went through derogatory medical treatment. D ) The film, through its disturbing portrayal, should not only show derogatory medical processes but a transition into positivity, which should be the outcome of such processes SOLUTION Answer: D is the answer because the passage not only talks about one layer of the interpretation of the vivid and disturbing visuals but also shows a transition towards a normal life. The directors of Snake Pit had had wanted to portray such a transition and provide a hopeful picture for all asylum inhabitants and their families. Option c is too much looking into visual portrayal of the asylum ambience and is not an assumption but a suggestion. Option b is tricky because it says that the tone of the film should vividly depict. A tone cannot depict a process; it is the other way round. Processes, plots, and visuals depict the underlying tone of a film. Option a is half the answer of what is completed in d.

# 44. It can be aptly concluded from the passage that Shorter and Healy A ) Have made a clear statement on the so-called derogatory processes inflicted on mentally challenged people B ) Have revolutionized the way medicine should be endorsed and applied to mentally challenged people C ) Have pushed the idea of unhealthy practices conducted by the drug manufacturing industries D ) Have critically challenged the approach doctors take to make use of antidepressant drugs while studying pharmacological methods SOLUTION Answer: A is the answer. Shorter and Healy together have published the work Shock Therapy: A history of electroconvulsive treatment in mental illness, which criticizes the practises followed in treating mental illness. C goes against the context of the passage where these authors are alleged to have fostered the idea of unhealthy medical practices. B is out of context because the authors are not pharmacological scientists and they have not revolutionized the processes of medicine application on mentally challenged people. D is not the answer as it refers to the work done by Healy alone

# 45. The word SHOULDER has been used in four sentences below. Identify the sentence where the word has been INCORRECTLY used. A ) The football fan shouldered his way into the crowd in order to get closer to his favorite footballer and obtain his autograph. B ) Being the eldest of the siblings, he had to shoulder the entire responsibility of the family. C ) Even the police should not be allowed to sit on the shoulder of a road without any lights on as it might be dangerous for them as well as for other motorists. D ) The entire cost of repairs and renovations will be shouldered by the company. SOLUTION Answer (A). Correction should be shouldered his way through the crowd to push or thrust with the shoulder so as to make way. The objective here is not go into the crowd but to go through and reach a target, in this case the football player. In option b, shoulder the responsibility means to assume the burden or responsibility of. Shoulder of

the road refers to the side of the road which may or may not be paved. In d, shoulder the cost means to bear the cost or pay the expenses.

Directions for question 46-48: answer the questions based on the following data. GTV Foodies is a group who is searching for talent via a contest called Cognitive Digestion. It visits various cities and in each city conducts contests. The details of the contest in the city Bhukkarnagar are provided below. The contest is conducted in multiple stages. Each stage has a different value (points) assigned to it, which can also be negative. The difference in points between any two consecutive stages is 1. The contestants keep on moving from one stage to another, not necessarily in any order. The total points of each stage is defined as the product of the Points Value assigned to it and the number of contestants in that stage. When contestants move from one stage to another, the total points of each stage change as explained below. For example, say the points assigned for stage X is 10, and 4 contestants enter and 6 contestants exit stage X. Then, 10*4 = 40 points will be added to and 10*6 = 60 points will be subtracted from the already existing points for stage X. 4 stages, A,E,I,O, out of many stages, occur together but not necessarily in the same order. The following questions deal with the movement of contestants between these stages. However, to conceal the scores from the contestants, the judges code the movements of the contestants in the following way: they mention a 4 letter word, whose middle 2 letters denote the stages and the extremes denote the number of candidates. For example, PQRS would mean P contestants have gone from stage Q to stage R and S candidates have gone from stage R to stage Q, where P and S are the numbers corresponding to the position of the letters in the English alphabet. Moreover, the judges not only mention the words alone but do the same in a sentence. For the movements mentioned, the following sentence was quoted. Sunny Deol said, To roam about in a coat having a coin in the pocket in front of a lion is to eat pies and meat on the mountain peak in vain. # 46. If the value of level O is zero, what is the minimum total change in points after the movement among these 4 stages? A ) 10 B ) 34

C ) 17 D ) cannot be determined SOLUTION Solution The 4 lettered words are deol, said, roam, coat, coin, lion, pies, meat, peak, vain. The table below shows the number corresponding to the alphabets denoting the movements. Based on the above table, we make another table representing the movement of contestants in and out of these four stages. Let us assume that the points for the stages A,E,I,O are p,q,r,s respectively. Therefore, total change T = (-37)p + 7q + 17r + 13s = 7(q p) + 17(r p) + 13(s p) Given s = 0, min total change happens when we assign the following values to the stages (I = -1, A = 0, O = 1, E = 2

Then as per the Equation Total points = 7(2) + 17(-1) + 13(1) = 10 Option (A) # 47. If the points for the 4 stages A,E,I,O are 1, 2, -1 and 0 respectively, what is the total change in points? A ) 46 B ) 40 C ) 37 D ) cannot be determined SOLUTION

Solution The 4 lettered words are deol, said, roam, coat, coin, lion, pies, meat, peak, vain. The table below shows the number corresponding to the alphabets denoting the movements. Based on the above table, we make another table representing the movement of contestants in and out of these four stages. Let us assume that the points for the stages A,E,I,O are p,q,r,s respectively. Therefore, total change T = (-37)p + 7q + 17r + 13s = 7(q p) + 17(r p) + 13(s p) Since the points for the stages are mentioned, we can directly put them in the equation. 7(1) + 17(-2) + 13(-1) = -40. Hence a change of 40 Option (B) # 48. What is the maximum possible change in the total points possible after the movement in these 4 stages? A ) 84 B ) 45 C ) 38 D ) cannot be determined SOLUTION Solution The 4 lettered words are deol, said, roam, coat, coin, lion, pies, meat, peak, vain. The table below shows the number corresponding to the alphabets denoting the movements. Based on the above table, we make another table representing the movement of contestants in and out of these four stages. Let us assume that the points for the stages A,E,I,O are p,q,r,s respectively.

Therefore, total change T = (-37)p + 7q + 17r + 13s = 7(q p) + 17(r p) + 13(s p) To maximize the total change, we assume (r p) =3, (s p) =2, (q p) =1, Hence 7(1) + 17(3) + 13(2) = 84. Option (A)

In early November 1917, a revolutionary socialist party known as the Bolsheviks seized power in Petrograd amidst the ruins of a Russian empire that had come apart months earlier under the pressure of world war. In December 1922, having defeated its adversaries in an apocalyptic civil war, the revolutionary regime was able to announce the creation of a new state, the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics. At the end of the 1920s, proclaiming its goal of building a powerful modern state and economy, this USSR embarked on a program of breakneck industrialization and forced collectivization of agriculture. Over the next 15 years, it imprisoned, exiled, or executed millions of people who were deemed to stand in its way: peasants, ethnic groups, intellectuals, marginals (anything from market traders to down-and-outs), and political enemies of other varieties. The Soviet state then withstood its greatest test when it came through a world war, losing in the process almost 27 million of its citizens. A few years later, in the mid-1950s, the regime of its own accord drastically reduced the violence on which it had hitherto relied so heavily. While the Soviet system became less inhumane, it proved unable to keep up the frenetic growth of the 1930s or to meet the challenges of social modernization and the post-industrial economy. In the mid-1980s, mindful of these problems, the leadership embarked on a tentative program of economic and political reform that soon weakened its control over society and its authority. In December 1991, unable to withstand the pace of events, the Soviet Union found itself signed out of existence. This stark chronological sketch brings to the fore two inescapable facts about the country that forms the subject of this book. First, for the first three decades of its existence, it was the scene of appalling violence and suffering. Second, its history has an obvious narrative shape: revolutionary upsurge, bloody rise of dictatorship, victory and partial vindication in World War II, followed by attenuated liberalization and slide into late industrial obsolescence. These two points have almost overpowering implications for how one might decide to write a book about the USSR. The illiberal and oppressive character of Soviet rule, especially in the period 1917 53, has rightly driven many observers to ask who (or what) was responsible for the violence. And the (now completed) historical trajectory of the Soviet Union seems to follow a bell curve of steep rise, precarious stability, and precipitous fall. Between the 1950s and the mid-1980s, many fine studies of Soviet history were written, but there remained a nagging suspicion that Western scholars might be inferring too much from too little, while the only Russians who were able to comment freely on their own history were

migrs. Then, in the Gorbachev era, most historical taboos were lifted, and by the early 1990s Russian archives were opening their doors to Western researchers and even more remarkably delivering many of the documents that those researchers wanted to see. Soviet history had suddenly become a very different kind of pursuit, and this archival boom promised great insights. # 49. When the author talks about attenuated liberalization in the USSR, the author tries to signify that A ) USSR attempts at liberalization were defeated by large scale corruption B ) USSR undertook rapid and drastic liberalization measures C ) USSR introduced a weak form of liberalization D ) USSR was unable to become globally competitive SOLUTION Answer: C. The passage supports the idea that liberalization was only in words but not in deeds and had virtually no political significance. # 50. It can be inferred that any pursuit to compose a book on modern Russian history will involve A ) An extensive research on how the country sustained so much violence through the three decades of revolutionary politics B ) A grand narrative of the corrupt political upsurge, dreadful violence and genocide and the political decadence of a great nation C ) A compelling portrayal of revolutionary ideals lost in commercial greed D ) A compelling story of a nation built on horrifying violence, rapid growth, forged in war and the slide into decadence. SOLUTION Answer: D. Study the second last passage closely. The choice between B and D is close. Option B is ruled out for two reasons. One, the adjective corrupt upsurge is without any basis. Nowhere does the author suggest that the revolution was corrupt. Secondly the adjective great nation. Again the author does not judge USSR to be a great nation. In fact, he seems to be more critical. Option A talks only of the violent history. C has no basis in the passage. # 51. The author portrays a severe contradiction between the presence of inhuman politics and industrial growth by exemplifying

A ) Russia lost a major mass of its population in the world war and could therefore support the rapid growth of its industry and commerce of the 30s B ) Russias rapid growth in the 30s was based on large scale violence and oppression C ) Russian globalization couldnt stand a chance against the frantic demands of Western industrialization and commerce D ) The revolutionary spirit that generated rapid growth died down by the late 40s SOLUTION Answer: B. The passage mentions that millions were imprisoned, exiled or executed in the pursuit of rapid industrialization and collectivization of agriculture. A is not the answer as the loss of population in the war is not the reason for growth. In fact rapid industrialization etc happened from late 20s, which was before the war. C and D have no basis in the passage

# 52. The sentences, A, B, C, D, and E, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. From among the four choices given below the question, choose the MOST LOGICAL ORDER of sentences that constructs a coherent paragraph. A) When its tribunes take the stage, mainstream pundits titter and shake their heads, dropping words like "paranoid," "demagogue," and "not serious." B) It's enough to make you wonder whether populism means anything at all anymore, beyond a vague willingness to align yourself with the common man. C) Populism is Andrew Jackson's rowdy inaugural ball, with muddy-shoed drunks tromping through the White House, climbing out the windows, and downing wine and ice cream on the lawn. D) Real populism is angry, dangerous, and dclass. E) Hillary Clinton can recite a few lines about the "invisible" masses, but that isn't enough to make her a populist. A ) BDAEC B ) ABCDE C ) ADCBE D ) EBDCA

SOLUTION The its tribunes in (A) is referring to the subject of populism which is present in all other statements. Also (C) and (E) are two contrasting examples so should come together. Between (B) and (D), (B) is raising a qs on the meaning of populism and (D) is providing the answer. Thus BD concomitant. Only choice (1) has this pair plus the cluster of (E) and (C).

# 53. From the paragraph below the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. The falling rate of profit is rooted in the increasing productivity of labour as it develops under capitalism. As Marx explained, "...the level of the social productivity of labour is expressed in the relative extent of the means of production that one worker, during a given time, with the same degree of intensity of labour power, turns into products. The mass of means of production with which he functions in this way increases with the productivity of his labour. But those means of production play a double role. The increase of some is a consequence, that of others a condition, of the increasing productivity of labour. For example, the consequence of the division of labour (under manufacture) and the application of machinery is that more raw material is worked up in the same time, and therefore a greater mass of raw material and auxiliary substances enters into the labour process. That is the consequence of the increasing productivity of labour. __________________ A ) But whether condition or consequence, the growing extent of the means of production, as compared with the labour power incorporated into them, is an expression of the growing productivity of labour. B ) On the other hand, the mass of machinery, beasts of burden, mineral manures, drainpipes, etc., is a condition of the increasing productivity of labour. C ) The increase of the latter appears, therefore, in the diminution of the mass of labour in proportion to the mass of means of production moved by it, or in the diminution of the subjective factor of the labour process as compared with the objective factor. D ) But what is really obtained in exchange for variable capital is living labour which creates more value in production than is paid for in the form of wages. SOLUTION Answer: B. The paragraph talks about increase in means of production with increase in productivity of labour. The paragraph explains that it happens sometimes as a condition and sometimes as a consequence. The last lines explain with an example about consequence. Hence the next line should talk about condition. Hence B. A follows after B and explains it further.

# 54. Five sentences are given below and labelled as A, B, C, D and E. Of these, four statements form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the sentence that does not fit into the paragraph/passage. A) Nanotechnology also has the potential to improve the environment, both through direct applications of nano-material to detect, prevent, and remove pollutants, as well as indirectly by using nanotechnology to design cleaner industrial processes and create environmentally responsible products. B) However, there are unanswered questions about the impacts of nano-material and nanoproducts on human health and the environment, and the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA or the Agency) has the obligation to ensure that potential risks are adequately understood to protect human health and the environment. C) As products made from nano-material become more numerous and therefore more prevalent in the environment, EPA is thus considering how to best leverage advances in nanotechnology to enhance environmental protection, as well as how the introduction of nano-material into the environment will impact the Agencys environmental programs, policies, research needs, and approaches to decision making. D) Our economy will be increasingly affected by nanotechnology as more products containing nano-material move from research and development into production and commerce. E) In December 2004, the Agencys Science Policy Council convened an intra-Agency Nanotechnology Workgroup and charged the group with developing a white paper to examine the implications and applications of nanotechnology. A)A B)B C)C D)D SOLUTION ANSWER: OPTION D. The focus of the paragraph is on the effects on nano technology on the environment, both positive and negative. Sentence D talks about the effects on the economy and is hence the odd man out

# 55. In the sentence below a part of the sentence is underlined. The sentence is followed by four ways of writing the underlined part. Answer choice (A) repeats the original, the other answer choices vary. If you think that the original phrasing is the best choice select option (A). If you think one of the other answer choices is the best, select that choice Though Alexander Solzinithsin's prose proved less popular than Pushkins is and less influential than Roman Jacobson's is, it is no less important. A ) Pushkins is and less influential than Roman Jacobson's is, it B ) Pushkins and less influential than Roman Jacobson's, it C ) Pushkins and less influential than Roman Jacobson's, he D ) Pushkin and not as influential as Roman Jacobson, he SOLUTION Answer: B. The redundant verb 'is' after Pushkins is incorrect as the main verb of the sentence, 'proved' is already established. Also, pronoun 'it' replaces the inanimate noun 'prose'. Hence 'he' is incorrect.

# 56. The sentence below has two blanks followed by four pairs of words as choices. From the choices, select the pair of words that can best complete the given sentence. Although the term organized crime should be used with caution in describing the ______________ industry, Interpol states that extensive evidence is now available which demonstrates that organized criminals and terrorists are heavily involved in planning and ___________ intellectual property related crimes. A ) Counterfeiting, committing B ) Phony, inciting C ) Piracy, encouraging D ) Pharmaceutical, perpetrating SOLUTION Answer: A. The clue is in the last part of the sentence: intellectual property related crimes. Thus the first word has to be counterfeiting. The word is a participle which describes functioning of the noun industry. Though phony is synonymous to counterfeit, it describes the industry to be phony, which is not the correct reference.

The industry is real, the activity is intellectual stealing. Option C piracy is related to intellectual theft but encouraging doesnt fit. Neither does inciting in option D, where Pharma doesnt fit at all.

Directions for questions 57-59: answer the questions based on the following data. Two bikers from Rowdy Circus, Ramesh & Ravi, have become famous since last few years for their extraordinary talents. Last winter, they had pulled huge crowd in Park Circus area in Kolkata to see their daring performance in a game called Well of Death. The hemispherical well was made of 33 wooden horizontal rings (R1, R2, R3 and so on, as shown in the diagram), with a base at the centre

To come closer to the base, one has to travel to the rings closer to the base. Some gifts were located at each of the rings at 2 pairs of opposite corners such that to consecutive gifts (e.g. G1 & G2) were located 90o apart. Ramesh picked up the gifts G2, G7, G12, G17, and so on in that order; while Ravi picked up the gifts G3, G9, G15, G21, and so on in that order. If the gift that both of them target coincide, then neither of them pick up that gift. # 57. From which of the following rings did Ramesh pick up no gift at all? A ) R4, R8 B ) R6, R9

C ) R7, R9 D ) None of these. SOLUTION Solution: Both the persons are picking gifts such that the gift numbers are in AP with common difference of 5 in case of Ramesh & 6 in case of Ravi. Total number of gifts = 33 x 4 = 132. Thus we can find the pattern as follows:

The blue coloured cells (written as 1) on the left of a gift denotes the gifts which were common. Thus, Option (C). # 58. Which are the last gifts Ramesh & Ravi picked up before coming to the base and what is the shortest angle between the locations where those were placed? A ) G124, G128; 90o B ) G128, G124, 180o C ) G130, G131, 90o D ) G132, G129, 90o SOLUTION Solution: Both the persons are picking gifts such that the gift numbers are in AP with common difference of 5 in case of Ramesh & 6 in case of Ravi. Total number of gifts = 33 x 4 = 132. Thus we can find the pattern as follows:

The blue coloured cells (written as 1) on the left of a gift denotes the gifts which were common. Thus, Option (D). # 59. What is the total number of gifts collected by both of them together when they arrived at the base? A ) 35 B ) 41 C ) 47

D ) None of these SOLUTION Solution: Both the persons are picking gifts such that the gift numbers are in AP with common difference of 5 in case of Ramesh & 6 in case of Ravi. Total number of gifts = 33 x 4 = 132. Thus we can find the pattern as follows:

The blue coloured cells (written as 1) on the left of a gift denotes the gifts which were common. we can find no of terms in the respective series, since we know the first term, common difference and last term should not be more than 132. Then we have to subtract the common terms from both the series since they did not pick up those gifts. Option (B).

# 60. The sentence below has two blanks followed by four pairs of words as choices. From the choices, select the pair of words that can best complete the given sentence. Most keenly awaited is __________ that the government is serious about its promise to stop trying to boost consumption and instead __________ investment, currently just 18.4% of GDP. A ) policy, assist B ) evidence, encourage C ) proof, regulate D ) signal, raise SOLUTION Solution For the first blank, the government has already made promises. Now people are looking for proof or evidence whether the government will fulfil those promises. So proof or evidence will work. Policy doesnt fit. Signal doesnt fit grammatically as an article a would be required. For the second blank, we know that investment is currently low and hence raise or encourage would fit. Hence only option (B) fits both blanks.