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MOCK TEST-2012

JNU ENTRANCE M.A. (Economics)


Time : 3 Hrs
Instruction (i) Answer all the 100 questions (ii) Each correct answer carries 1 mark. There will be negative marking and marks will be deducted for each wrong answer.

Marks : 100

1.

Consider an economy wherein equilibrium level of aggregate income (Y) is the sum of aggregate investment expenditure (I) and aggregate consumption expenditure (C). For values of Y 1500 , C=200+0.6Y and any amount of aggregate income in excess of 1500 currency units is entirely saved in the economy. If the full employment level of 1500 currency units is entirely saved in the economy. If the full employment level of Y = 1750, the minimum value of I necessary to ensure full employment in the economy is (a) 500 (b) 550 (c) 600 (d) None of the above

Question Nos. 2-5 are to be answered on the basis of the following information : Consider an economy in which only three goods X, Y and Z are produced. X and Y are consumption goods and the output of Z in a year is used up in production of X and Y in that year. The following table gives the unit prices p X , p Y and p Z rupees respectively) and the number of units produced ( q X , q Y and q Z respectively) of each of the goods for three year I, II and III Year pX qX pY qY pZ qZ I 1 2 2 5 1 2 II 1.5 3 2 6 1.5 4 III 1.5 6 3 6 2 5 2. What is the GDP (in rupees) at current prices in year II? (a) 10.5 (b) 16.5 (c) 22.5 (d) 28.5 If year I is the base year, what is the GDP (in rupees) at prices in year III? (a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 17 (d) 18 constant

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If year I is the base year, what is the value of the GDP deflator in year III? (a) 100 (b) 130.77 (approx.) (c) 141.67 (approx.) (d) 150 What is the rate of growth of real GDP (base year I) in year III?

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(a) 10% (b) 13.67% (approx.) (c) 18.18% (approx.) (d) 20% Questions NOS. 6-7 are to be answered on the basis of the following information: Suppose there is a consumer whose life is divisible into three periods which follow each other consecutivelyyouth, middle age and post-retirement age. The length of each period is 20 years and the consumer earns no labour income on post-retirement. In his youth the consumer earns labour income at the rate of Rs. 2500 per month. In his middle age the consumers earnings are uncertain-there is a 25% probability that he will earn at the rate of Rs. 5000 per month, alternatively, he will earn at the rate of Rs. 10000 per month. The consumer gets to know what his rate of earnings in middle age will be at the end of his youth. Assume that the consumer expects to pay no taxes, the nominal rate of return on saving and the rate of interest is always zero and there is no inflation expected throughout his life. 6. What is the expected value of the consumers earnings (Rs in lakhs) in middle age? (a)18 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) None of the above What is the present discounted value of the consumers expected lifetime labour income (Rs in lakhs)? (a) 24 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 36 Suppose the rate of profit is 20%, profit income is taxed at the rate of 30% and the rate of inflation is 5%. The real post-tax profit rate is (a) 9% (b) 10.5% (c) 15% (d) None of the above Bread and apple are substitute goods. A sudden rise in the supply of flour for making bread will result in (a) fall in the price of bread; and rise in the price of apple (b) fall in the price of bread; and fall in the price of apple (c) fall in the price of bread; and no change in the price of apple (d) None of the above The utility function of a consumer is u = 3( x 1 + x 2 ) , where u, x 1 and x 2 denote utility, amount of good 1, and amount of good 2 respectively. Unit prices of good 1 and good 2 are Re 1 and Rs 3 respectively. Consumers income is Rs. 300. The consumer attains equilibrium at (a) x 1 = 150; x 2 = 50 (b) x 1 = 50; x 2 = 150 (b) x 1 = 0; x 2 = 100 (c) x 1 = 300; x 2 = 0 The production function of a firm is given by Q = X 3 Y , where Q, X and Y denote quantities of output, input 1 and input 2 respectively. The production function exhibits (a) Constant returns to scale (b) increasing return to scale (c) decreasing returns to scale (d) None to scale

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Question 12-15 are to be answered based on your understanding of the following passage from Economic Development and the price level by Geoffrey Maynard: Unless an appropriate relationship exists between the growth rates of agriculture and industry, the terms of exchange between them must alter. Since agricultural prices typically tend to respond much more rapidly than do the prices of industrial products to changes in the balance between supply and demand, their behavior determines in large part the behavior of the general price level. Thus in a situation where agricultural growth is tending to lag to an inappropriate extent behind both the growth of industrial output and the growth of real income, excess demand pressure tend to appear in the agricultural product market. Whether excess demand or excess supply pressures exists in the industrial market depends on the balance between investment and saving; but, in either case, if agricultural prices are more flexible than industrial prices, then the required improvement in the terms of exchange of agriculture tends to be brought about by an absolute rise in agricultural prices, rather than by a fall in industrial prices. This is not just an immediate or short-run effect, for the rise in agricultural prices tends to generate consequential pressures on costs of production in industry, partly through a direct effect on raw material costs in industry, and partly, perhaps, through an induced effect on industrial money wages. Industrial prices may therefore be prevented from falling, even in a market where there tends to be excess supply; and indeed, if the cost pressures are substantial enough, they may even begin to rise. In this way, the improvement in agricultures terms of exchange produced a rise in the general price level. Such a development is more likely to take place as the result of a spontaneous slowing down in the rate at which agricultural output is growing, relatively to other outputs; but it may also occur if the improvement in agricultures terms of exchange is being produced by an acceleration in the rate of growth of industry. For opposite reasons, an acceleration in the rate of growth of agricultural output can produce a fall in the general price level. 12. According to the author, agricultural prices largely determine the behavior of the general price level, because (a) agricultural growth tends to lag behind industrial growth (b) agricultural prices respond to changes in demand-supply balances faster than industrial prices (c) an appropriate relationship exists between agriculture and industry (d) excess demand pressures always appear in this sector Excess demand in the industrial market depends upon (a) the excess demand in agriculture (b) whether agricultural prices are more flexible than industrial prices (c) whether cost pressures are substantial enough (d) the balance between saving and investment The rise in agricultural prices (a) has only a short-run effect on industrial prices

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(b) increases industrial costs of production (c) creates excess supply in industry (d) generates a spontaneous slowing down of agricultural output 15. An improvement in agricultures terms of trade with industry (a) can occur when there is a balance between investment and saving (b) occurs when industrial prices are prevented from falling (c) can produce a rise in the general price level (d) is the result of substantial cost pressures in industry Utensils worth Rs. 1500 are produced with steel costing Rs. 750 and other materials costing Rs. 150. Labour cost of producing these utensils is Rs. 150 and depreciation of machinery is 0. The value added in producing these utensils is (a) Rs. 450 (b) Rs. 600 (c) Rs. 750 (d) None of the above During the last two decades of the 20th century, Indias labour force has grown at the rate of (a) 1.5% per annum (b) 2.5% per annum (c) 3.5% per annum (d) 4.5% per annum The famous book titled, Poverty and Un-British Rule in India was authored by (a) W.C. Bonnerjea (b) Dadabhai Naoroji (c) R. C. Dutt (d) Lal Lajpat Rai An outward shift of the production possibility frontier may be caused by (a) an increase in demand (b) more government spending (c) better training of employees (d) production inefficiency The annual average rate of employment generation in India during the decade of 1990s, compared to 1980s, was approximately (a) thrice (b) twice (c) same (d) half If the marginal cost of producing 4 th unit is greater than the marginal cost of producing 3rd unit, then it follows that (a) the average cost of producing 4 units must be greater than the average cost of producing 3 units (b) the average cost of producing 4 units must be less than the average cost of producing 3 units (c) the average cost of producing 4 units must be equal to the average cost of producing 3 units (d) None of the above If the absolute value of price elasticity of demand for good X is greater than one, then we must have (a) If price increases by 1%, then the quantity demanded will decrease by less than 1%

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(b) If price decrease by 1%, then the quantity demanded will increase by less than 1% (c) If price of X increases, then the expenditure on the good will increase (d) None of the above

23.

Consider the following : Option I : You receive Rs. 112 after one year. Option II : You receive Rs. 55 after nine months and Rs. 56 after one year. Given that the market rate of interest is 12% per annum, it follows that (a) Option I is better than Option II (b) Option II is better than Option I (c) Option I and Option II are equally good (d) No conclusion can be drawn on the basis of the given information

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Suppose the price elasticity of demand for good X is 0.2. If the price of X rises by 2.8%, what effect will it have on the total expenditure on good X? (a) Expenditure on X will fall by 5.6% (b) Expenditure on X will rise by 5.6% (c) Expenditure on X will rise by 2.2% (d) Expenditure on X will fall by 2.2%

Question Nos. 25-28 are to be answered on the basis of the following: The following table shows the marginal cost of producing nth (n = 1, 2, , 10) unit of output by a competitive firm : Output Marginal Cost 1 1.0 2 1.3 3 1.7 4 2.3 5 3.0 6 3.9 7 5.0 8 6.5 9 8.2 10 10.0 It is also given that the total cost of producing 3 units of output is 7. 25. The total cost of producing 5 units of output (correct up to two decimal places) is (a) 15.00 (b) 9.30 (c) 12.30 (d) None of the above The average variable cost of producing 7 units of output (correct up to two decimal places) is

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(a) 2.60 (c) 3.03 27.

(b) 0.71 (d) None of the above

The average cost of producing 9 units of output (correct up to two decimal places) is (a) 3.66 (b) 3.99 (c) 0.91 (d) None of the above The profit-maximizing number of units of output for the firm, if the market price of the good is 6, is (a) 4 (b) 7 (d) 10 (d) None of the above With a positive externality (a) there is underconsumption in the free market (b) there is overconsumption in the free market (c) the government may tax to decrease production (d) society could be made better-off if less was produced The Cash Reserve Ratio refers to (a) The liquid cash that banks have to maintain with the Reserve Bank of India as a certain percentage of their demand and time deposits (b) The cash that banks have to keep in their vaults in order to meet sudden demand from depositors in times of crisis. (c) the cash the households have to keep in reserve to meet sudden increase in the price of essential goods and services (d) the cash that the government keeps in reserve so as to be ready to meet unexpected contingencies The primary deficit refers to (a) the deficit in the primary sector of the economy (b) the deficit in the revenue account of the budget (c) the deficit in the capital account of the budget (d) the fiscal deficit less the interest outgo in the budget The money multiplier in an economy increases with (a) increase in Cash Reserve Ratio (b) increase in Statutory Liquidity Ratio (c) increase in banking habit of the population (d) increase in the population of the country A firm has a production function q = 4x 2 , where q and x denote the quantities of output and input respectively. If the price of the output is Rs. 90 per unit and the price of the input is Rs. 20 per unit, the firm can earn a maximum profit of (a) Rs. 1620 (b) Rs. 3600 (c) Rs. 808 (d) None of the above The short-run supply curve of a competitive firm is given by (a) the marginal cost curve of the firm (b) the marginal cost curve above the average cost curve

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(c) the marginal cost curve above the average variable cost curve (d) the upward sloping part of the marginal cost curve 35. In situation I : Price of good X is twice the price of good Y; and the consumer spends his entire income on buying 6 units of good X and 20 units of good Y. In situation II: Consumers income is double of his income in situation I, price of good Y is twice the price of good Y in situation I, and the price of good X is the same as in situation I. The consumer wants to continue consuming 20 units of good Y in situation II. The maximum number of units of good X that he can purchase in situation II is (a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 6 Let units of good 1 be measured on the horizontal axis and units of good 2 on the vertical axis. Let price of good 1 be p and price of good 2 be q. The slope of the budget line is then given by (a) p/q (b) p/q (c) q/p (d) q/p The market for good X has the demand function D(p) = 100 15p where p is the price of good X. There are ten price taking firms, each having a cost function c( q ) = q 2 , where q is the firms own output. There is no new entry. Prices and costs are in terms of rupees per unit. The equilibrium price in this market is (a) Rs. 20 (b) Rs. 15 (c) Rs. 10 (d) Rs. 5 The market for good X has the demand function D(p) = 100 p and the supply function S(p) = 20 + 3p where p is the price of good X. If the government imposes a sales tax of Rs. 10 per unit of the good on sellers, the equilibrium market price will increase by (a) Rs. 10 (b) Rs. 7.5 (c) Rs. 5 (d) Rs. 0 A monopolist, who can produce output at a cost of Rs. 20 per unit faces an inverse demand curve given by p = 60 2q. The profit maximizing price for the monopolist is (a) Rs. 40 (b) Rs. 20 (c) Rs. 30 (d) Rs. 60 A natural monopoly is said to occur when (a) the long run average cost curve is U-shaped. (b) the long run average cost curve is decreasing (c) the long run average cost curve is flat (d) the long run average cost curve is increasing If everybody in the economy decides to consume a higher proportion of their income, the corresponding IS curve (a) will be flatter (b) will be steeper

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(c) will remain unchanged (d) will become horizontal 42. An increase in the expected rate of inflation will (a) shift the LM curve up (b) shift the LM curve down (c) leave the LM curve unchanged (d) have an ambiguous effect on the LM curve A devaluation of domestic currency will improve the countrys trade balance only if the following is true for price elasticities of demand: (a) the sum of price elasticities of exports and imports equals 1. (b) the sum of price elasticities of exports and imports is less than 1. (c) the sum of price elasticities of exports and imports is greater than 1. (d) the price elasticity of exports exactly matches the price elasticity of imports. Under nominal wage rigidity, the short run aggregate supply schedule will be (a) vertical (b) horizontal (c) upward sloping (d) downward sloping Okuns Law refers to (a) a negative relationship between inflation and unemployment (b) a negative relationship between unemployment and real GDP (c) a negative relationship between interest rate and money demand (d) a negative relationship between inflation and growth A consumer has utility function u ( x 1 , x 2 ) = min{ 2x 1 + x 2 , x 1 + 2x 2 } . Her income is y = 100, the prices are p1 = 20 and p 2 = 30 . The amount of x 1 in the utility maximizing bundle is (a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 0 Consider the same utility function and income as above, but suppose the prices are p1 = 10 and p 2 = 30 . Then the amount of x 1 in the utility maximizing bundle is (a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 2.5 (d) 0 Consider an exchange economy with two agents and aggregate endowment (10, 10). The agents utility functions are u 1 ( x 1 , y1 ) = x 1 + 2y 1 and u 2 ( x 2 , y 2 ) = 2x 2 + y 2 . Examples of efficient allocations are (a) ( x 1 , y1 ) = ( 5,10 ) and ( x 2 , y 2 ) = ( 5, 0) (b) ( x 1 , y1 ) = ( 0,10 ) and ( x 2 , y 2 ) = (10, 0 ) (c) ( x 1 , y1 ) = ( 0, 5) and ( x 2 , y 2 ) = (10, 5) (d) All of the above

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49.

In models where expectations adjust slowly, a progressive income tax schedule is (a) a means to maximize tax revenue (b) a means to ensure tax compliance (c) always an automatic stabilizer in the long run (d) often an automatic stabilizer in the short run Open market operations decrease the supply of base money by (a) selling government bonds (b) selling gold (c) reducing foreign currency holding (d) all of the above If an economy is experiencing hyperinflation, then (a) government seigniorage goes up (b) government seigniorage goes down (c) government seigniorage remains unchanged (d) the impact on government seigniorage is ambiguous When the nominal interest rate changes but the real rate of interest remains unchanged (a) it affects both the investment function as well as the money demand function (b) it affects the investment function but does not affect the money demand function (c) it affects the money demand function but does not affect the investment function (d) neither the investment function nor the money demand function gets affected Ceteris paribus, higher velocity of money circulation leads to (a) an increase in both the real and the nominal demand for money (b) an increase in the real demand for money and a decrease in the nominal demand for money (c) a decrease in the real demand for money and an increase in the nominal demand for money (d) a decrease in both the real and the nominal demand for money If x, y are real number sand it is known that x.y < 2 (the product of x and y is less than 2), then it MUST be the case that (a) x, y are both less then 2 (b) x, y are both positive (c) At least one of x and y is positive (d) At least one of x and y is less than 2. Let x, y and z be arbitrary real numbers. Then we must have (a) if x > y, then x.z > y.z (b) if x > y, then x z > y z (c) if x > y, then x/z > y/z (d) if x > y, then 1/x > 1/y Suppose n observations of a variable yield n different values with median m. Suppose the observations with the maximum value and the

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minimum value are omitted. The median of the remaining n-2 observation is (a) >m (b) m (c) <m (d) None of the above 57. Consider the function y = x 3 defined in the interval I = [ 1 +1], x = 0 is (a) A point of local maximum in I (b) A point of local minimum in I (c) A point of inflexion in I (d) A point of global extremum in I The coefficient of variation of income of people in a country is 5. Due to changes in units of currency, everybodys income in doubled. The coefficient of variation will now become (e) (a) 10 (f) (b) 5 (g) (c) 12 (d) (d) 12/5 Let x > 0, then (a) log x > x always (c) log x is a fixed proportion of x (b) log x < x always (d) None of the above

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If A and B are mutually exclusive events then (a) A and B are independent events (b) P(A) + P(B) = 1 (c) P(A) = P(B) (d) A B = the null set There are two villages A and B. An equal number of households, say 200, live in each village. Total agricultural land in each village is 200 hectares. The median land holding is 0.5 hectares in village A and 1 hectare in village B. What can we say about the inequality of land distribution in A and B? (a) Inequality is more in A than in B (b) Inequality is less in A than in B (c) Level of inequality is same in A and in B (d) Any of the above could be true Two events A and B are equally likely and are independent. The probability of the events occurring simultaneously is 0.36. The probability of event A (a) is 0.9 (b) is 0.6 (c) is 0.4 (d) cannot be computed on the basis of the information given Z is a random variable with mean equal to 2 and variance equal to 2. The variance of the random variable 2Z equals (a) 4 (b) 0 (c) 8 (d) 16

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64.

If z = ln x 2 + y 2 , then (a) 1 (c) 1

2z 2z + is equal to x 2 y 2
(b) 0 (d) None of the above

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If y 3 = x, then (a) 3y 2 (c)

dy =? dx
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1 3x 2/3

1 3x1/2

(d) None of the above

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At x = 1 , the function f ( x ) = x 1 (defined over real values of x 1 ) (a) Has a minimum (b) Has a point of inflection (c) Has a vertical asymptote (d) Ha a maximum The equation of the tangent to the curve y = x 3 3x 2 x + 5 at the point

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( x1 , y1 ) = ( 3, 2) is (a) y 3 = 1( x 2 ) (c) y 3 = 8( x 2 )

(b) 8x y 22 = 0 (d) y = 2x + 5

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Consider an n x n real matrix A with n > 4. Interchanging the positions of two columns (a) Will change the sign of det A (b) Will not change the sign of det A (c) May or may not change the sign of det A, depending on the value of n (d) May or may not change the sign of det A, depending on the positions of the two columns. 10 outcomes of random variable were recorded. The sample mean is 0 and the sample variance is 4. It is discovered that two outcomes were recorded incorrectly: one outcome was recorded as 5 instead of 6 and another outcome was recorded as 11 instead of 12. What is the correct variance? (a) 4 (b) 3.6 (c) 7.4 (d) 5.2 Name a parametric family of distribution which satisfies: (a) The mean must be greater than or equal to variance (b) The mean must be equal to the variance (c) The mean must be less than or equal to the variance (d) The mean must be less than, equal to, or greater than the variance. A pair of random variables x and y is sad to be independent if

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(a) Cov (x, y) = 0 (b) E(xy) = 0 (c) E(xy) = E(x). E(y) (d) p( x, y ) = p x ( x ) p y ( y ) for all x and y, where p(.) denotes the joint probability (density) function, and p x , p y the marginal densities. 72. For any random variable X the difference E X 2 { E( X )} 2 is (a) Negative (b) Zero (c) Non-negative (d) Non-positive Suppose that the probability that any particle emitted by a radioactive material will penetrate a given shield is .01. If ten particles are emitted, what is the probability that exactly one of the particles will penetrate the shield? (a) ( .01) ( 0.99 ) 9 (b) ( 0.1) ( 0.99) 9 (c) 0.1 (d) 1/9 Suppose we flip a fair coin three times. The probability of getting two heads is (a) 2/8 (b) 1/3 (c) 2/3 (d) 3/8 For a distribution that is skewed to the left, usually (a) The mean will be larger than the median (b) The median will be larger than the mean (c) There will be at least two modes (d) The standard deviation will be negative If for a distribution, Median = 18 inches, Q1 = 15 inches and Q 3 = 25 inches, the coefficient of skewness is (a) 0.2 (b) 0.3 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.8 If A and B are mutually exclusive events then (a) A and B are independent events (b) P( A ) + P( B) = 1 (c) P( A ) = P( B ) (d) A B = the null set 78.

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The correlation coefficients between two variables X and Y obtained from the two equation 2x +3y 1 = 0 and 5x 2y + 3 = 0 are 2 2 (a) Equal but have opposite signs (b) and 3 5 1 3 and (c) (d) Cannot say 2 5

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79.

A problem of statistic is given to the three students A, B and C. Their 1 1 1 , and , respectively. probabilities of solving it independently are 3 4 5 The probability that the problem will be solved is 3 2 1 4 (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 5 5 5 25 books are placed at random on a shelf. The probability that a particular pair of books shall be always together is 2 1 1 1 (a) (b) (c) (d) 25 25 300 600
X B( n, p ) . The maximum value of var ( X ) is

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Suppose correlation coefficients between x and y are computed from (i) y = 2 + 3x and (ii) 2y = 5 +8x . Call them 1 and 2 , respectively. Then (a) 1 > 2 (b) 2 > 1 (c) 1 = 2 (d) Either 1 > 2 or 1 < 2 Suppose the correlation coefficient between x and y is denoted by R, and that between x and ( y + x ) , by R 1 . Then, (a) R 1 > R (b) R 1 = R (c) R 1 < R (d) None of these The correlation coefficient r for the following five pairs of observations x 5 1 4 3 2 y 0 4 2 0 1 satisfies (a) r > 0 (b) r < 0.5 (c) 0.5 < r < 0 (d) r = 0 The number of times y = x 3 3x + 3 intersects the x-axis is (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 Suppose the number X is odd. Then X 2 1 is (a) odd (b) not prime (c) Necessarily positive (d) None of the above p and q are positive integers such that p 2 q 2 is a prime number. Then p q is (a) A prime number (b) An even number greater than 2 (c) An odd number greater than 1 but not prime (d) None of these

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The function x x is (a) Discontinuous at x = 0 (b) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 0 (c) Differentiable at x = 0 (d) Continuous everywhere but not differentiable anywhere

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2x 1 + x , 0 < x < 1 , then f If f ( x ) = log 2 equals 1 x 1 + x f (x ) (a) 2f ( x ) (b) 2 (c) ( f ( x ) ) 2 (d) None of these

Question Nos. 90-93 are to be answer on the basis of the following information : Five teachers R, S, T, U, V teach five different subjects Mathematics, History, Sociology, Economics, Literature. Each teacher teaches once a week on a fixed weekday (Monday through Friday); and each one teaches on a different day from others. V does not teach Economics; and does not teach on Tuesdays. S teaches History; and does not teach on a Monday or a Friday. The Mathematics teacher teaches on Thursdays. T does not teach Economics; and teaches on Wednesday The Literature teacher, who is not U, teaches on Fridays. R teaches on Mondays 90. On which day does S teach? (a) Tuesday (c) Friday Which subject does T teach? (a) Economics (c) Mathematics On which day is Economics taught? (a) Monday (c) Wednesday (b) Thursday (d) None of the above (b) Sociology (d) Literature

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(b) Tuesday (d) None of the above

Question Nos. 93 and 94 are to be answered on the basis of the following information : One of A, B, C and D has cheated in the examination with the help of another one of them Here are the statements that these individuals made to the investigator. A : If B is guilty of some wrong-doing, then C must be innocent. B : If A is innocent, then C must be guilty C : If B cheated in the examination, then D must have had nothing to do with any wrong-doing. D : I am innocent.

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The statements of the person who has cheated and his accomplice are false and those of the remaining two are true. 93. The person who cheated in the examination was (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D The accomplice of the person who cheated in the examination was (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Two dice are rolled. We define events E1, E2, E3 and E4 as follows: E1 : Getting a sum equal to 10 E2 : Getting a double E3 : Getting a sum less than 4 E4 : Getting a sum less than 7 Determine which statement is true (a) Events E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive (b) Events E3 and E4 are mutually exclusive (c) Events E2 and E3 are mutually exclusive (d) Events E1 and E4 are mutually exclusive Limits of (a) 0 (c) 97.
e x 1 as x approaches 0 is equal to x (b) 1 (d) None of the above

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if f(x) and g(x) are differentiable functions such that f ( x ) = 3x and


g ( x ) = 2x 2 , then the limit

{ ( f ( x ) + g( x ) ) ( f (1) + g(1) )} ( x 1)

as x approaches 1

is equal to (a) 5 (c) 20 98.

(b) 0 (d) None of the above

Function g and h are given by g ( x ) = ( x 1) and h ( x ) = x 2 + 1 . The composite function ( gh ) ( x ) is given by (a) x (b) x (c) x (d) None of the above Equation x 2 + (a) m = 3 (c) m = 5 1 mx + 1 = 0 has two distinct real solutions, if 2 (b) m = 4 (d) None of the above

99.

100.

Income distribution of most countries follows (a) linear pattern (b) normal distribution (c) sinusoidal curve (d) log-normal distribution

Bliss Point Studies


9811343411 15 9891555578

MOCK TEST-2012

*** All the Best


Ravindra N. Jha Amit Kumar

Bliss Point Studies


9811343411 16 9891555578

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