RADIOGRAPHIC ANATOMY AND MEDICAL TERMINOLOGIES Prepared by: Hannah F.

Real INSTRUCTION: Select the best answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item. 1. It is the site of growth in bone length. a. diaphysis b. epiphysis c. epiphyseal plate d. periosteum

2. Located in the periosteum and endosteum of bone and functions in the formation, repair and remodeling of bones. a. osteoblasts b. osteocytes 3. Immovable joints a. Synarthrosis b. Amphiarthrosis 4. Joints having limited motion a. Synarthrosis b. Amphiarthrosis 5. Freely movable joints a. Synarthrosis b. Amphiarthrosis 6. Refers to a long pointed process a. styloid b. spine c. malleolus d. coracoid c. diarthrosis d. triarthrosis c. diarthrosis d. triarthrosis c. diarthrosis d. triarthrosis c. osteoclasts d. osteosarcoma

7. Cranial bones consisting of cribriform plate and crista galli. a. frontal b. ethmoid c. sphenoid d. temporal

8. The foramen rotundum, spinosum and ovale are located in what cranial bone? a. frontal c. sphenoid

b. ethmoid

d. temporal

9. Cervical bone having a strong conical process arising from the upper surface of the body. a. atlas b. axis c. vertebra prominens d. typical cervical bone

10. A common infection of the lumen of small intestine that is caused by flagellate protozoan. a. Whipples disease b. celiac disease c. adynamic ileus d. giardiasis

11. A type of body habitus having broad and deep thorax, the stomach and gall bladder almost in horizontal positions. a. sthenic b. hyposthenic 12. Lordotic spines 1. cervical 2. thoracic 3. lumbar 4. sacrum a. 1 & 2 b. 1 & 3 13. They are called primary curves 1. cervical 2. thoracic 3. lumbar 4. sacrum a. 1 & 2 b. 1 & 3 c. 1 & 4 d. 2 & 4 c. 1 & 4 d. 2 & 4 c. asthenic d. hypersthenic

14. Vertebral arch is formed by what parts of a typical vertebra? 1. pedicles 2. lamina

3. body 4. transverse process a. 1 & 2 b. 1 & 3 c. 2 & 3 d. 2 & 4

15. Thoracic apophyseal joints are angled how many degrees from MSP? a. 70 to 75 degrees b. 15 to 20 degrees c. 90 degrees d. cannot determine

16. All carpal bones belong to what type of articulations? a. amphiarthrosis b. synarthrosis 17. Fracture of the distal phalanx a. bartons fx b. baseball fx 18. Fracture of the posterior lip of distal radius a. bartons fx b. baseball fx 19. Fracture of the distal fifth metacarpals a. bartons fx b. baseball fx 20. Fracture of the base of first metacarpal a. bartons fx b. baseball fx 21. Posterior displacement of distal radius a. Colles fx b. Smiths fx 22. Anterior displacement of distal radius a. Colles fx b. Smiths fx c. Monteggias fx d. Hutchinsons fx c. Monteggias fx d. Hutchinsons fx c. bennetts fx d. boxers fx c. bennetts fx d. boxers fx c. bennetts fx d. boxers fx c. bennetts fx d. boxers fx c. diarthrosis d. none of the above

23. Fracture of proximal half of ulna and dislocation of radial head a. Colles fx b. Smiths fx 24. Fracture of the radial styloid process a. Colles fx b. Smiths fx 25. Liver is divided into how many lobes? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 c. Monteggias fx d. Hutchinsons fx c. Monteggias fx d. Hutchinsons fx

26. Inflammation of the bone and cartilages of navicular bone of the foot. a. Osgood Schlatter disease b. Kohlers bone disease 27. Inflammation at the tibial tuberosity. a. Osgood Schlatter disease b. Kohlers bone disease c. Scheuermanns disease d. Legg-Calve Perthes disease c. Scheurmanns disease d. Legg-Calve Perthes disease

28. A condition when developing bones do not harden or calcify. a. Osteosclerosis b. Osteomalacia 29. Outward or lateral turning of the foot. a. Talipes calcaneus b. Talipes equines 30. Inward turning or medial turning of the foot. a. Talipes calcaneus b. Talipes equines c. Talipes valgus d. Talipes varus c. Talipes valgus d. Talipes varus c. Osteopetrosis d. Osteomyelitis

31. Atrioventricular valves between right atrium and right ventricle. a. Bicuspid b. Tricuspid c. Aortic d. Pulmonary

32. Atrioventricular valve between left atrium and left ventricle.

a. Bicuspid b. Tricuspid 33. How many are cranial bones? a. 8 b. 10 34. How many are facial bones? a. 8 b. 10

c. Aortic d. Pulmonary

c. 12 d. 14

c. 12 d. 14

35. The body is the longest portion of the sternum, it is also known as? a. Gladiolus b. Manubrium 36. Primary teeth are also known as? 1. Milk teeth 2. Frenulum 3. Deciduous a. 1 & 2 b. 1& 3 37. Transmit the information toward the cell body. a. Dendrites b. Axon 38. Transmit the information away from the cell body. a. Dendrites b. Axon 39.Talus articulates with how many tarsal bones? a. 2 b. 3 40. Sustentaculum tali belong to what tarsal bone? a. Calcaneus c. Navicular c. 4 d. 6 c. Node of Ranvier d. Schwann Cell c. Node of Ranvier d. Schwann Cell c. 2 & 3 d. All of the above c. Ensifrom d. Cuneiform

b. Talus 41. Principal structures located in thoracic cavity. 1. heart and great vessels 2. lungs 3. trachea 4. esophagus a. 1, 2 & 3 b. 1, 2 & 4 42. Principal structures of abdominal cavity. 1. stomach 2. liver & gall bladder 3. intestines 4. rectum a. 1, 2 & 3 b. 1, 2 & 4

d. Cuboid

c. 1, 3 & 4 d. all of the above

c. 1, 3 & 4 d. all of the above

43. Formed by dividing the abdomen by a transverse and midsagittal plane that intersects at the umbilicus. a. Four quadrants b. Nine regions c. Addisons plane D. Transpyloric plane

44. The two prominent process located on the proximal end of the tibia are called? a. Lateral and medial epicondyles b. Intercondylar eminence 45. Compare to male pelvis, female pelvis is? 1. lighter 2. broader and shallower 3. sacrum is narrower, and curves more anteriorly a. 1 & 2 b. 1 & 3 c. 2 & 3 d. all of the above c. Lateral and medial condyles d. Lateral and medial malleoulus

46. Disease characterized by fusion of the vertebral column. a. Herniated Nucleus Pulposus b. Ankylosing spondylitis c. Spondylolisthesis d. Spondylolysis

47. Forward slipping of one vertebra in relation to another. a. Herniated Nucleus Pulposus b. Ankylosing spondylitis 48. There are how many segments in the right lungs? a. 2 b. 3 48. There are how many segments in the left lungs? a. 2 b. 3 c. 8 d. 10 c. 8 d. 10 c. Spondylolisthesis d. Spondylolysis

49. Medulla Oblangata belongs to what regions of the brain? a. Brainstem b. Diencephalon 50. Formed by pelvic brim and sacral promontory? a. inlet b. oulet c. coxae d. none of the above c. Cerebrum d. Cerebellum

51. Mechanical obstruction caused by telescoping of a loop of intestine into another. a. Volvulus b. Meconium ileus 52. Mastoid process corresponds to the level of? a. c1 b. c3 c. c4 d. c5 c. Ileus d. Intussusception

53. With the head in neutral position, gonion is at the level of? a. c1 b. c3 54. Stenosis c. c4 d. c5

a. Narrowing b. Hardening 55. Stones in gall bladder a. Nephrolithiasis b. Gastrolithiasis 56. Cerebral arterial circle a. Circle of Willis b. Angle of Treitz 57. Formation of bile a. Gall bladder b. Liver 58. An accessory pancreatic ducts a. Langerhans b. Wirsung 59. Smallest muscle a. Stapedius b. Gluteus 60. Difficulty in swallowing a. Dysphagia b. Anosmia 61. Muscle for inspiration 1. Diaphragm 2. Parasternals 3. Scalene a. 1 & 2 b. 2 & 3 62. Muscle for expiration 1. Diaphragm

c. Softening d. New growth

c. Cholelithiasis d. Cystolithiasis

c. Starlings law d. none of the above

c. Pancreas d. Spleen

c. Santorini d. None of the above

c. Sartorious d. Sternocleidomastoid

c. Anorexia d. Dyspnea

c. all of the above d. none of the above

2. Parasternals 3. Scalene a. 1 & 2 b. 2 & 3 c. all of the above d. none of the above

63. Pear shaped sac with a capacity of approximately 2 ounces a. Gall bladder b. Liver 64. Increase calcium in the blood a. hypercalcemia b. hypocalcemia c. hematemesis d. hematuria c. Pancreas d. Spleen

65. Kidneys normally drop about how many centimeters? a. 2.4 b. 2.5 66. Act of voiding or urination a. Micturition b. Micturation 67. Diminished amount of urine a. Oliguria b. Nocturia 68. Involuntary passage of urine through urethra a. Oliguria b. Nocturia 69. Complete cessation of urine a. Oliguria b. Nocturia 70. Azotemia is also called? a. Nocturia b. Urinary incontinence c. Uremia d. Urinary Tract Infection c. Anuria d. Urinary incontinence c. Anuria d. Urinary incontinence c. Anuria d. Urinary incontinence c.Nocturia d. Urticaria c. 1 d. 2

71. Inflammation of capillary loops of glomeruli of kidneys. a. Glomerulonephritis b. Pyelonephritis 72. Depressed fracture is also known as? a. Pingpong fx b. Epiphyseal fx 73. Fracture line radiates from central point a. Pingpong fx b. Epiphyseal fx c. Stellate fx d. Stress fx c. Stellate fx d. Stress fx c. Hydronephrosis d. Renal hypertension

74. Absence of nerves that controls the rhythmic contractions of large intestine a. Crohns b. Wilms 75. Absence of an opening to an organ a. Crohns b. Wilms 76. A typical rib consists of which of the following? 1. head 2. neck 3. shaft 4. tubercle a. 1 2 & 3 b. 1 3 &4 c. 1, 2 & 4 d. all of the above c. Clausaura d. Hirschsprung c. Clausaura d. Hirschsprung

77. It is a fibrous, muscular tube and has C-shaped cartilaginous rings. a. Esophagus b. Trachea c. Larynx d. Pharynx

78. Point where sagittal suture meets the coronal suture. a. Lambda b. Bregma c. Sutural d. Squamosal

79. In infant, lambda is also known as? a. Anterior fontanel b. Posterior fontanel 80. In infant, bregma is also known as? a. Anterior fontanel b. Posterior fontanel 81. Antrum of highmore a. Frontal b. Ethmoid c. Sphenoid d. Maxillary c. Asterion d. Pterion c. Asterion d. Pterion

82. This bone serves as attachment for certain muscles of the throat and tongue a. Mandible b. Maxilla 83. Mental foramina serve as? 1. Transmission of nerves 2. Passage of salivary ducts 3. Passage of blood vessels a. 1 & 2 b. 1 & 3 84. The smooth elevation between superciliary ridges. a. glabella b. nasion c. frontal eminence d. squama c. all of the above d. no function c. Vomer d. Hyoid

85. Uterine tubes terminate in a series of irregular prolonged process called? a. Fallopian b. Fimbrae c. Graafian follicle d. Fundus

86. It collects ova liberated by the ovaries and conveys the cells to the uterine cavity. a. Fallopian b. Fimbrae 87. Prominent process on occipital bone. c. Graafian follicle d. Fundus

1. Internal Occipital Protuberance 2. External Occipital Protuberance 3. Inion a. 1 & 3 b. 2 & 3 88. Bones are classified according to? a. size b. shape 89. Appendicular skeleton is composed of? a. 80 bones b. 86 bones 90. Axial skeleton is composed of? a. 80 bones b. 86 bones 91. Inner portion of bone a. Cancellous b. Compact 92. Foot turned outward a. Eversion b. Inversion 93. Foot turned inward a. Eversion b. Inversion 94. Movement away from central axis of the body a. Adduction b. Abduction c. Hyperextension d. Hyperflexion c. Pronation d. Supination c. Pronation d. Supination c. Periosteum d. Medullary canal c. 120 bones d. 126 bones c. 120 bones d. 126 bones c. origin d. insertion c. 3 only d. 1 only

95. Articulation between the articulation processes of vertebral arches. a. Vertebrosternal c. Zygapophyseal

b. Vertebrochondral 96. False ribs are? a. 1-7 ribs b. 8-10 ribs 97. Pituitary gland a. Hypophysis b. Hyperphysis 98. Astragalus a. Calcaneus b. Talus 99. Unciform a. Trapezium b. Trapezoid 100.Lesser multangular a. Trapezium b. Trapezoid

d. Sternocostal

c. 8-12 ribs d. 11 & 12

c. Apophysis d. Eupophysis

c. Navicular d. Cuboid

c. Capitate d. Hamate

c. Capitate d. Hamate