1) Drug used in central anticholinergic syndrome A) tacrine B) neostigmine C) physostigmine D) 4 amino pyridine 2) Minimum pressure in It.

atrium for development of pulmonary edema A) 15 mm Hg B) 45 mm Hg C) 30 mm Hg D) 20 mm Hg 3) During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, intravenous calcium gluconate is indicated under all of the following circumstances, except: A) Calcium channel blocker toxicity. B) Hypocalcemia. C) After 1 min. of arrest routinely. D) Electromechanical dissociation. 4) In mouth to mouth resuscitation in CPR the oxygen delivered is A) 16% B) 10% C) 25% D) 20% 5) The artery which can be palpated under the mandible near the angle of jaw is : A) Lingual B) Maxillary C) Facial D) Ascending pharyngeal 6) Posterior relation of Winslow's foramen is: A) Inferior Vena Cava B) Liver C) Pancreas D) Duodenum

7) Which of the following muscles is supplied by mandibular nerve: A) Tensor veli palati B) Posterior belly of digastric C) Masseter D) Buccinator 8) Midpalmar space of hand communicates with all except: A) Fascial Sheath of 1st lumbrical B) Fascial Sheath of 3rd lumbrical C) Fascial Sheath of 2nd lumbrical D) Forearm Space 9) Facial skeleton is composed of: A) 8 bones B) 10 bones C) 14 bones D) 22 bones 10) Example for ellipsoid joint is A) Ankle B) Wrist C) Shoulder D) Kenn 11) Which of the following is the remnant of the transverse obliterated ligament : A) Flexor pollicis longus B) Flexor carpi ulnaris C) Flexor carpi radialis D) Flexor digitorum sublimus 12) Oesphagus crosses the diaphragm at level at : A) T B) T C) T D) L2 13) The Glycogen are stored in the: A) Cardiac muscle B) Liver C) Spleen

D) Adipose tissue 14) Cholesterol is a precursor of : A) Bile acids B) Sphinomyelins C) Bile pigment D) Prostaglandin 15) Nissl granules are : A) Mitochondria B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum aggregations C) RNS fragments D) Golgi bodies 16) Which of the following tests is not used for detection of specific aneuploidy? A) RT-PCR B) QF-PCR C) FISH D) Microarray 17) The sequence in respiratory chain in the mitochondria is : A) c-c1-b-a-a3 B) a-a3-b-c-c1 C) b-c-a-a3 D) c1-c-b-b1-a3-a 18) Conversion of proline to hydroxyproline is by : A) Reverse hydroxylation B) Post translation induction C) Proline hydroxylase D) Vit. C mediated hydroxylation 19) The enzyme known to cause spontaneous thrombosis as an adverse reaction is A) aromatase B) collagenase C) tyrosine kinase D) asparaginase 20) Enzyme deficient in Gaucher's disease is : A) Beta-glucosidase

B) Ceramidase C) Beta-galactosidase D) Sphinomyelinase 21) One of the symptoms of vitamin A deficiency is A) Bitot's spot B) nyctalopia C) xerophthalmia D) Keratomalacia 22) Nitric oxide synthase: A) Is inhibited by Ca++ B) Catalyses a dioxygenase reaction C) Accepts electrons from NADH D) Requires NADH, FAD, FMN and heme iron 23) The proteins presents in deoxyribonucleic acid: A) Albumins B) Histone C) Protamines D) Globulins 24) Which one of the following is a precursor of both gonadal and adrenocortical hormones? A) Corticosterone B) Cortisol C) Testosterone D) Progesterone 25) Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are: A) Transferases B) Lysases C) Peptidases D) Oxidases 26) The two nitrogen atoms that are incorporated into the urea cycle. The source of the nitrogen are A) Aspartate and NH3 B)

Glutamate and NH3 C) Glutamate and Aspartate D) Aspartate and Arginine 27) Which one of the following is a good index of the severity of an acute disease? A) Standardized mortality ratio. B) Cause specific death rate. C) Case fatality rate. D) Five year survival. 28) Freshly prepared bleaching powder yields what percent of chlorine: A) 20% B) 50% C) 66% D) 33% 29) Infant mortality does not include: A) Late neonatal mortality. B) Perinatal mortality. C) Post neonatal mortality. D) Early neonatal mortality. 30) Which of the following does not cause indoor air pollution ? A) Radon B) CO C) Mercury vapor D) Nitrogen dioxide 31) Incubation period for measles is : A) 10-14 days B) 3-4 days C) 2-7 days D) 14-28 days 32) People were separated into 5 sub groups. People were selected randomly from these sub groups. What type of sampling was done ? A) Simple random sampling B) Stratified Sampling

C) Cluster sampling D) Systematic sampling 33) Which of the following regarding maternal mortality rate (MMR) is not true? A) It is expressed per 100 B) it is expressed as a rate and not ratio C) Denominator includes still births and abortions D) Numerator includes total number of females deaths within 42 days of delivery 34) Vaccination given under UIP is : A) Hepatitis B B) Measles C) Rubella D) All of the above 35) For calculation of sample size for a prevalence study all of the following are necessary except: A) Power of the study. B) Desired precision. C) Prevalence of disease in population. D) Significance level. 36) Pneumoconiasis is caused by all but one is : A) Soluble dust B) Organic dust C) Insoluble dust D) Inorganic dust 37) Death of children under 5 years/total number of death in a year 100 is: A) Crude death rate B) Case fatality rate C) Specific mortality rate D) Proportional mortality rate 38) A 5 year old boy passed 18 loose stools in last 24 hours and vomited twice in last 4 hours. He is irritable but drinking fluids. The optimal therapy for this child is: A) Intravenous fluids

B) Plain water add libitum. C) Oral rehydration therapy D) Intravenous fluid initially for 4 hours followed by oral fluids. 39) Not a part of national screening program ? A) Fefractive error B) Dental caries C) Diabetes mellitus D) Carcinoma cervix 40) Diagnostic power of a screening test is : A) Specificity B) Sensitivity C) Predictive accuracy D) All of the above 41) Which of the following is the current trend in health care? A) Community Participation B) Equitable distribution C) Primary health care D) Qualitative enquiry 42) Soiling index is an indicator of: A) Sand pollution B) Industrial pollution C) Water pollution D) Air pollution 43) As per WHO TB is said to be under control when : A) < 5% TB cases B) < 1% population is sputum positive C) < 1% population is tuberculin positive. D) < 1% infection in children less than 14 years. 44) The information technology has revolutionized the world of medical sciences. In which of the following year the Information Technology Act was passed by the Government of India? A) 2001. B) 2000.

C) 2003. D) 1998. 45) Denominator while calculating the secondary attack rate includes: A) All the close contacts. B) All susceptibles amongst close contact. C) All the people living in next fifty houses. D) All susceptibles in the whole village. 46) In severe malnutrition , ratio of weight / height is : A) < 50 B) < 70 C) < 80 D) < 60 47) The toxin implicated in lathyrism is : A) Sanguinarine B) Beta oxalyl amino acid C) Pyrrazolidine D) Aflatoxin 48) MCH services can be best assessed by : A) IMR B) MMR C) Perinatal mortality rate D) Child survival index 49) Health education is : A) Disability limitation B) Rehabilitation C) Health promotion D) Specific protection 50) Numerator in neonatal morality is: A) All infants deaths upto28 days. B) All perinatal deaths beyond 28weeks to less than 7 days of a neonate. C) All infants under one year. D) All infant death less than or equal to 7 days. 51) Erythema migrans is seen in : A) Leprosy

B) Borrelia infection C) Tuberculosis D) Sulfa therapy 52) Podophyllin is used for: A) Psoriasis B) Condyloma accuminata C) Palmer wart D) Condyloma lata 53) In pemphigus all are seen except : A) Tense bullae B) Acantholysis on biopsy C) Nikolsky's sign D) Separation of epidermis from dermis on trauma 54) A 33-year-old female has telangiectasias of nose and cheeks and there are papules and pustules over the central face. She reports facial flushing and blushing on drinking red wine. There is a family history of this condition. The diagnosis is: A) Carcinoid syndrome B) Porphyria cutanea tarda C) Acne rosacea D) Seborrhoric dermatitis 55) A 13-year-old boy presented with a 6-year old lesion over his buttock. On examination, the lesion showed scarring at one side and also there was puckering of the overlying skin. The lesion is most likely to be : A) Tuberculosis chancre B) Lupus vulgaris C) Scofuloderma D) None of the above 56) A 55-year-old male, with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and hypertension, developed severe air-borne contact dermatitis. The most appropriate drug for his treatment would be A) Cyclosporine B) Thalidomide

C) Systemic corticosteroids D) Azathioprine 57) The most common cause of occupational skin cancer is : A) UV rays B) Crysolite C) Coal tar D) Aniline dyes 58) An adult female presented with thickening of base of nail plate of all the fingers. The most likely cause for her condition would be : A) Lead poisoning B) Psoriasis C) Pemphigus D) Lichen planus 59) Most common bacterial pathogen associated with acute sinusitis is: A) Staphylococcus B) Klebsiella pneumonia C) Streptococcus pneumonia D) Pseudomonas 60) Cauliflower ear is due to : A) Otitis externa B) Congenital C) Mastoiditis D) Haematoma of the ear 61) Appreciation of sound occurs in: A) Cochlear nuclei B) Basilar membrane C) Transverse temoral gyrus D) Occipital lobe 62) The common problem seen in tracheostomy in children is : A) Vocal cord granuloma B) Tracheal stenosis C) Decannulation D) Vocal cord paralysis

63) Cauliflower ear is seen in : A) Osteophytes in ext. auditary canal B) Squamous cell carcinoma of ear lobe C) Haematoma of auricle D) Impacted wax 64) Conductive deafness occurs in: A) Trauma to labyrinth B) Stapes abnormal at oval window C) High noise D) Traveling in aeroplain or ship 65) A typical hanging is : A) Knot tied in front and feet touching ground. B) Knot tied at back and feet touching ground. C) knot tied at the back and feet not touching ground. D) Knot tied in front and feet not touching the ground. 66) Cutis anserina is seen in : A) Drowning B) Suffocation C) Electrocution D) Lust murder 67) A cognizable offence signifies: A) Imprisonment upto three years + Rs.1000 fine. B) Only fine upto Rs.1000 C) Imprisonment upto two years. D) Arrest without warrant 68) Cross examination is done by : A) Witness B) Public prosecutor C) Defence lawyer D) Magistrate 69) In poisoning, following can be given to induce vomiting : A) CuSO B) Silver nitrate C) Saline (common salt)

D) Apomorphine injection 70) Paradoxical undressing is seen in : A) Voyeurism B) Fetichism C) Bestiality D) Exhibitionism 71) Foamy liver is seen in : A) Putrefaction B) Drowning C) Adiopocere D) Hanging 72) A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia belongs to high risk group if disease develop after: A) Spontaneous abortion B) Hydatidiform mole C) Full term pregnancy D) Ectopic pregnancy 73) Endometrial biopsy is done in which phase of menstrual cycle A) 22-24 days B) 18-20 days C) 12-14 days D) 5-7 days 74) Which of the following conditions is commonly encountered in the female newborn and usually requires no therapy ? A) Prolapsed urethra B) Mucoid vaginal discharge C) Enlarged clitoris D) Labial fusion 75) All of the following appear to decrease hot flushes in menopausal women except A) Androgens B) Raloxifene C) Tibolone D) Isoflavones

76) All of the following tumour metastatize to ovary except A) Gastric carcinoma B) Colonic carcinoma C) Cervical carcinoma D) None 77) Rekha, a 45 years woman, has negative pap smear with +ve endocervical curretage. Next step in management will be: A) Conization B) Vaginal hysterectomy C) Wartheims hysterectomy D) Colposcopy 78) DNA analysis of chorionic villus/amniocentesis is not likely to detect: A) Sickle cell disease B) Duchenne muscular dystrophy C) Hemophilia A D) Tay Sachs disease 79) Gynaecological cancer unusual in young womenA) Cancer cervix B) Cancer ovary C) Chorio carcinoma D) Cancer vulva 80) A 40 year old male had undergone splenectomy 20 years ago. Peripheral blood smear examination would show the presence of: A) Howell-Jolly bodies B) Dohle bodies C) Spherocytes D) Hypersegmented neutrophils 81) Hyperkalemic, acidotic hypertensive renal disease is : A) Distal type 1 B) Distal type 2 C) Distal type 3 D) Distal type 4

82) Characteristic finding in CT in a TB is: A) Exudate seen in basal cistern B) Calcification commonly seen in cerebellum C) Hydrocephalus is non communicating D) Ventriculitis is a common finding 83) Most common symptom of primary biliary cirrhosis is: A) Diarrhoea B) Vomiting C) Jaundice D) Pruritus 84) Treatment of Herpes Zoster complications are all EXCEPT: A) Gabapentin B) Prednisone C) Amitryptyline D) Acyclovir 85) Which of the following is not seen on hemoglobin electrophoresis in sickle cell anemia: A) HbS B) HbA C) HbF D) HbA2 86) Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following, except: A) Myelopathy. B) Optic atrophy. C) Peripheral neuropathy. D) Myopathy. 87) All of the following are the electrocardiographic features of severe hyperkalemia except: A) Peaked T waves

B) Sine wave pattern C) Loss of P waves D) Presence of U waves 88) Digitalis given in atrial flutter produces: A) Atrial bigeminy B) Atrial tachycardia C) Atrial asystole D) Atrial fibrillation 89) Familial hypercholesterolemia is : A) X-linked dominant B) X-linked recessive C) Autosomal dominant D) Autosomal recessive 90) In the presence of vasopressin the greatest fraction of filtered water is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron: A) Collecting duct. B) Proximal tubule. C) Loope of Henle. D) Distal tubule. 91) A 30-year-old menstruating woman developed high fever, vomiting, abdominal pain, sore throat and headache. Two days after the onset of symptoms a maculopapular rash developed over the groin region there was vaginal mucosal erythema was there as well. Most likely diagnosis is : A) Staphylococcaql toxic shock syndrome B) Streptococcal toxic shock like syndrome C) Septicaemia D) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome 92) Strongiloides stercoralis characteristically causes: A) Malabsorption B) Night itching in children C) Resides in striated muscle D) Intestinal obstruction 93) In lung abscess all are done except :

A) Gram stain B) Zn staining C) Culture D) Fluorescent antibody 94) An 18 years old male presents with massive hematemesis. He has history of fever for the past 14 days for which he was managed with drugs. Moderate splenomegaly is present. Diagnosis is: A) NSAID induced duodenal ulcer B) Drug induced gastritis C) Esophageal varices D) None of the above 95) Hepar lobatum is associated with : A) Dengue B) yellow fever hepatitis C) Hepatitis A D) Syphilis 96) Bicuspid aortic value is associated with: A) Down's syndrome B) Patau's syndrome C) Edward's syndrome D) Coarctation of aorta 97) Thrombocytopenia occurs in all except: A) TTP B) Leukemia C) DIC D) Henoch Schonlein purpura 98) Which of the following infestation leads to malabsorption? A) Ascaris lumbricoides. B) Giardia lamblia. C) Ancylostoma duodenale. D) Necater americana. 99) Bone calcium deposition is increased by : A) Bed rest B) Hyper parathyroidism C) Oestrogen

D) Corticosteroids 100) "Chovestek's sign" is seen in: A) Hypercalcemia B) Hypokalemia C) Hyperkalemia D) Hypocalcemia 101) A 40-yr-old male presents with anemia, enlarged spleen. Peripheral smear shows large lymphocytes which are tartarate resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) positive. Most probable diagnosis is : A) Acute myeloid leukemia B) CML C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia D) Hairy cell leukemia 102) Which drug is not given in a setting of acute myocardial infarction? A) ACE inhibitors B) Metoprolol C) Aspirin D) Nifedipine 103) The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by the fetus is: A) IgG B) IgE C) IgA D) IgM 104) Which drug is essential in 'Sheehan's syndrome? A) Cortisone B) Gonadotrophins C) Thyroxine D) Estrogen 105) In a patient with anaemia and blue line on the gums, the blood examination showed microcytic hypochromic anaemia and basophilic stippling. The diagnosis is which poisoning : A) Arsenic

B) Mercury C) Phosphorus D) Lead 106) Streptokinase and urokinase are contraindicated in: A) Thrombophlebitis B) Intracranial malignancy C) Pulmonary embolism D) A V fistula 107) Autosomal dominant disorder is : A) Homozygous state B) Heterozygous state C) Both of the above D) All of the above 108) All of the following is true regarding autosomal dominant inheritance except: A) Manifest in homozygous state. B) Manifests in heterozygous state. C) There is 100% chances that the offspring of an affected heterozygote will inhibit the mutant allele D) Offspring of apparently normal child will no posses the mutant gene. 109) A 68-year-old woman presents with wasting and weakness. She is depressed and apathetic. She has cold and dry skin . On examination she was found to have atrial fibrillation and she is congestive cardiac failure most probable diagnosis is: A) Severe depression B) Thyrotoxicosis C) Her BH levels are high D) Myxedema 110) Normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterised by all except: A) Aphasia B) Ataxia C) Dementia D) Urinary incontinence

D) None of the above 111) Ist sensation lost in leprosy is : A) Touch B) None C) Temperature D) Pain 112) A man presents with fever, weight loss and cough. Mantoux reads an induration of 17 19 mm; sputum cytology is negative for AFB. Most likely diagnosis is: A) Fungal infection B) Pneumonia C) Viral infection D) Pulmonary tuberculosis 113) Dopamine in 5-25 g/kg/minute causes increase in cardiac output by : A) Stimulation of receptors B) Stimulation of dopamine receptors C) Blockade of receptors D) Stimulation of receptors 114) In a 40-year-patient there was pleural fluid. Analysis of this fluid showed a protein ratio of 0.38 and an LDH level of 125 U/L and LDH ratio of pleural fluid to serum of 0.48. The most probable diagnosis is : A) Sarcoidosis B) Congestive cardiac failure C) Esophageal perforation D) Ureamia 115) Which of the following is not seen in sickle cell anemia: A) Leucopenia B) Splenic infarct C) Fish mouth vertebra D) Pulmonary hypertension 116) Shrinking lung syndrome is seen in : A) Rheumatoid arthritis B) Osteoarthritis C) SLE 117) All of the following infections are often associated with acute intravascular hemolysis except: A) Bartonella bacilliformis B) Plasmodium falciparum C) Babesia microti D) Clostridium tetani 118) About lepromin test, which is true? A) Positve in lepromatous leprosy B) Mitsuda reaction is early reaction C) Indicates delayed hypersensitivity to lepra bacilli D) Negative in tuberculoid leprosy 119) The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone is characterized by the following: A) Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. B) Hypernatremia and urine sodium excretion > 20 mEq/l. C) Hyponatremia and urine sodium excretion > 20 mEq/l. D) Hypernatremia and hypokalemia. 120) True about hepatitis B prevention is : A) Screening of blood donors B) Environmental sanitation C) Safe sex D) Chemoprophylaxis 121) Bence Jones proteins are derived from: A) Alpha Globulins B) Beta Globulins C) Delta globulins D) Gamma globulins 122) Which of the following is not seen in acute intermittent porphyria : A) Abdominal pain B) Neuropsychiatric manifestations C) Passing dark coloured urine D) Dermatological manifestations

123) Joints typically affected in osteoarthritis includes: A) Elcows B) Meta carpophalangeal joints. C) Proximal interphalangeal joints of hands. D) Wrists 124) Multiple endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) Type 1 includes all EXCEPT: A) Parathyroid hyperplasia B) Pituitary hyperplasia C) Pheochromocytoma D) Pancreas hyperplasia 125) A young asymptomatic female is observed to have a Midsystolic Click on routine examination. Valves are likely to show: A) Aschoff bodies B) Ruptured chordae tendinae C) Myxomatous degeneration D) Calcific degeneration 126) The only drug available for treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is : A) Thiazide B) Frusemide C) Chlorpropamide D) Desmopressin 127) Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by all EXCEPT: A) Decreases 25% weight B) Distortion of body image C) Self induced vomiting D) Amenorrhea for 3 months 128) Bence Jones proteinuria may be seen in: A) Alpha heavy Chain disease B) Epsilon heavy chain disease C) Mu heavy chain disease D) Gamma heavy chain disease 129) Canon waves are seen in :

A) Complete heart block B) Constrictive pericarditis C) Tricuspid regurgitation D) Atrial fibrillation 130) Which of the following is autosomal dominant disorder : A) G-6-PD deficiency B) Familial polyposis coli C) Colour blindness D) Muscular dystrophy 131) A 25-year-old man presented with fever and cough for two months. CT chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrosis and mediastinal enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Lymphoma B) Sarcoidosis C) Tuberculosis D) Silicosis 132) A 59-year-old man with severe myxomatous mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic, with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 45% and an end-systolic diameter index of 2.9 cm/m2. The most appropriate treatment is: A) Mitral valve repair of replacement. B) Digoxin and diuretic therapy. C) ACE inhibitor therapy. D) No treatment. 133) A 30-year-old female complained of diplopia. On examination it was found that she couldn't move her right eye downward and laterally. The nerve affected is : A) Trochlear nerve B) Abducent nerve C) Oculomotor nerve D) Optic nerve 134) Lisch nodule seen in:

A) Neurofibromatosis B) Tuberous sclerosis C) Tumour metastasis to brain D) Von-Hippal Lindau syndrome 135) A 25 year old person presents with acute onset of fever and focal seizures. MRI scan shows hyperintensity in the temporal lobe and frontal lobe with enhancement. The most likely diagnosis is: A) Meningococcal meningitis B) Herpes simplex encephalitis C) Japanese encephalitis D) None 136) Positive Shicks test indicates that person is: A) Hypersensitive to diptheria B) Susceptible to diptheria C) Carrier of diptheria D) Immune to diptheria 137) All are capsulated bacteria EXCEPT: A) Streptococcus B) Haemophillus C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae D) Neisseria 138) S4 Dane particle refers to A) hepatitis C virus B) hepatitis A virus C) hepatitis E virus D) hepatitis B virus 139) Pityriasis versicolor is caused by: A) M. gypseum B) M. furfur C) T. tansurans D) E. floccosum 140) Moribilliform rash seen in meningitis is due to : A) Proteus B) Neisseria meningitidis

C) Streptococcal D) H. influenzae 141) Malignant pustule is caused by : A) Bacillus cereus B) Clostridium welchii C) Clostridium difficle D) Bacillus anthracis 142) "Human cannibalism" is associated with: A) Sleeping sickness B) Kuru C) Trachoma D) Q fever 143) What is the time for which material is immersed in glutaraldehyde for sterilization without corrosion? A) 2 hours B) 20 minutes C) 1 hour D) 3 hours 144) Polypeptide capsule is seen in A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae B) Clostridium welchii C) Bacillus anthracis D) Staphylococuss aureus 145) Which of the following is used in DNA studies : A) Eastern blot B) Western blot C) Northern blot D) Southern blot 146) The capsule of Cryptococus neoformans in a CSF sample is best seen by: A) Methanamine-silver stain. B) Grams stain. C) Giemsa stain. D) India ink preparation.

147) Bacteria that grow best at temperatures below 20oC are called A) psychrophilic B) thermophilic C) microaerophilic D) mesophilic 148) Pasteur developed the vaccine for : A) Rabies B) Antrax C) Chicken Cholera D) All of the above 149) Which of the fungus is engulfed by mononuclear cells with its buffy coat: A) Coccodiomycosis B) Aspergillum C) Sporotrichum D) Histoplasma 150) About mycobacterium tuberculosis all are true except : A) Zn staining is done. B) Invented by Theobald Kocher. C) Grows well at 37C. D) It produces no pigment. 151) Which of the following may cause biliary obstruction? A) Clonorchis B) Strongyloides C) Entrobius D) Ancylostoma 152) Lophotrichous flagella are seen in A) spirilla B) pseudomonas C) kliebsiella D) vibrio 153) Which of the following immunoglobulins is responsible for allergic reactions? A) IgE B) IgG

C) IgM D) IgD 154) Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of A) infrared rays B) ultrasonic vibrations C) UV rays D) gamma rays 155) Which of the following hematologic changes can be observed in association with the progression of pregnancy? A) the expansion of red blood-cell volume proportionally exceeds that of the plasma volume B) the expansion of plasma volume proportionally exceeds that of the red bloodcell volume C) the red blood-cell volume decreases D) the plasma volume expands while the red blood-cell volume remains constant 156) Vaginal delivery can be allowed in all except A) Dichorionic twins with first vertex and second breech B) Monochorionic, monoamniotic twins C) Extended breech D) Mentoanterior 157) The average duration of the 2nd stage of labor in nulliparous women is: A) 30-50 minutes B) 5-10 minutes C) 120-300 minutes D) 90-120 minutes 158) Ideal contraceptive for lactating mothers is: A) Combined OCP B) Barrier method C) Lactational amenorrhea D) Progesterone only pill

159) The ultrasonographic picture of hydatidiform mole (trophoblastic disease) includes: A) the absence of fetal elements B) echo points around an irregularly shaped amniotic sac C) a diffuse echo pattern (snowfall) all over the uterine cavity; fetal elements are missing D) an unstructured, diffuse echo pattern without fetal elements 160) Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to pregnant women with epilepsy? A) Breast feeding is safe with most anticonvulsants. B) Folic acid supplementation may reduce the risk of neural tube defect. C) The rate of congenital malformation is increased in the offspring of women with epilepsy. D) Seizure frequency increases in approximately 70% of women. 161) The term "uterine tetany" means: A) the uterine musculature is in permanent, intense contraction; individual contractions cannot be distinguished B) partial spastic contraction of the uterine musculature C) spastic contraction of the cervix D) that the basal tone of the uterine musculature is high, contractions occur infrequently and their amplitude is low 162) Deep tranverse arrest is commonly associated with which of the following types of pelvis: A) Android B) Anthrapoid C) Piatypelloid D) Gynecoid

163) Which of the following causes menorrhagia : A) Triphasic pill B) IUCD C) Progestasert D) OCP 164) Meig's syndrome is associated with : A) Brenner's tumor B) Dysgerminoma C) Yolk sac tumor D) Endometrioma 165) Genital abnormality is seen in which of following ovarian tumors? A) Dermoid cyst B) Theca cell tumour C) Granulosa cell tumour D) Dysgeminoma 166) Medical treatment of ectopic pregnancy is done in : A) Unruptured ectopic pregnancy B) Both C) Ruptured ectopic pregnancy D) All 167) Most common benign ovarian tumour is: A) Mucinous cyst adenoma B) Serous cyst adenoma C) Brenners tumour D) Dermoid cyst 168) Most common presentation of genitourinary TB is: A) Menorrhagia B) Secondary amenorrhoea 10% C) Oligomenorrhoea D) Primary amenorrhoae 169) Exposure to vinyl chloride predisposes to : A) Hepatocellular carcinoma B) Hepatoblastoma C) Cholangio carcinoma

D) Angio sarcoma liver 170) Most common cause of first trimester abortion is : A) Hormonal changes B) Uterine defect C) Chromosomal anamolies D) Immunological defects 171) A 36-years-old lady is in labour with 5 cm dilatation and fetal distress. It is decided to take the patient for cesarian section which of the following resuscitative measures you would do except ? A) Increase the IV fluids B) Amino infusion C) Make the patient to lie in supine position. D) Oxygen inhalation 172) Most radiosensitive tumour among the following is : A) Teratoma B) Fibroma C) Choriocarcinoma D) Dysgerminoma 173) Ru-486 is : A) Antiestrogen B) Progesterone agonist C) Antiandrogen D) Antiprogesterone 174) Safe period in menstrual cycle for rhythm method is : A) 14 days before menstruation B) 14 days after menstruation C) 7-21 days of menstrual cycle D) 10 days before and after menstruation 175) Which of the following is an animal model for study of M.leprae: A) Mouse foot pad B) Nine banded almadillo C) Golden hamsters testes

D) All of the above 176) Endometriosis in young women associated primary infertility is treated with : A) Mala-D B) Medroxyprogesterone C) Clomiphene D) Danazol 177) The mother of a one and a half year old child gives history of a white reflex from one eye for the past 1 month. On computed tomography scan of the orbit there is calcification seen within the globe. The most likely diagnosis is: A) Congenital cataract. B) Retinoblastaoma. C) Coats disease. D) Endophthalmitis. 178) Waardenburg's syndrome following are seen except A) Interstital keratitis B) Heterochromia iridis C) Short palpebral fissure D) Widening of the eyebrow 179) In astigmatism which type of ametropia is seen : A) Curvature B) Index C) Axial D) Spherical 180) Can penetrate intact cornea : A) Streptococcus B) Pneumococcus C) Gonococcus D) Meningococcus 181) DOC in angular conjunctivitis: A) Oxytetracycline ointment B) Gentamicin eye drops C) Chloromycetin drops

D) Ciprofloxacin eye scops 182) Subluxation of lens is seen in _________ syndrome : A) Marfan's B) Edwards C) Patau's D) Down 183) Diabetic cataract is : A) Sunflower cataract B) Blue dot cataract C) Rosette-shaped cataract D) Snow flake cataract 184) Most common ocular problem is A) Xerophthalmia B) Refractive error C) Trachoma D) Cataract 185) Depth of normal anterior chamber : A) 6-7 mm B) 4-5 mm C) 10 mm D) 2-3 mm 186) Unilateral papilloedema and contralateral optic atrophy is known as: A) Sturge-Weber syndrome B) Foster-Kennedy syndrome C) Vogt-Koyanagi Harada's syndrome D) Heerfordt's syndrome 187) Wavelength of Nd : Yag laser A) 1040 nm B) 1040 mm C) 1040 cm D) All of the above 188) Rosette shaped cataract is seen is: A) Zonular cataract B) Diabetes C) Trauma

D) Chalcosis 189) A previously healthy 45 years old laborer suddenly develops acute lower back pain with right-leg pain and weakness of dorsiflexion of the right great toe. Which of the following is true: A) Immediate treatment should include analgesics, muscle relaxants and back strengthening exercises B) The appearance of the foot drop indicates early surgical intervention C) If the neurological signs resolve within 2 to 3 weeks but low back pain persists, the proper treatment would include fusion of affected lumbar vertebra D) If the neurological signs fail to resolve within 1 week, lumbar laminectomy and excision of any herniated nucleus pulposus should be done 190) An intervertebral disc prolapse (IVDP) patient, on examination shows normal knee jerk but he has got paraesthesia over dorsum of foot and weakness of extensor hallucis. What would be the level of compression : A) Between L and L B) Between L and L C) Between L and S D) Between L and L 191) All of the following procedures can be done in osteoarthrosis except : A) Synovectomy B) Arthrodesis C) Joint replacement D) Osteotomy 192) In congenital clubfoot, the features are : A) Dorsi flexion of foot, emersion at subtalar joint, adduction of forefoot B) Plantar flexion of foot, emersion at subtalar joint, adduction of forefoot C) Plantar flexion of foot, inversion of subtalar joint, abduction of forefoot

D) Plantar flexion of foot, inversion at subtalar joint, adduction of forefoot 193) Acute osteomyelitis commonly affected in children: A) Vertebrae B) Metaphysis C) Diaphysis D) Epiphysis 194) In tendon repair: A) Tendon should be tied with delayed adsorbable suture B) Sheath should be sutured along with tendon C) Wound should be closed D) Reconstruction by tendon graft is performed if it is a crushed tendon. 195) In a patient with head injury, unexplained hypotension warrants evaluation of: A) Upper cervical spine B) Lumbar spine C) Thoracic spine D) Lower cervical spine 196) All of the following areas are commonly involved sites in pelvic FRACTURE except: A) Alae of ileum. B) Pubic rami. C) Ischial tuberosities. D) Acetabula. 197) Most common primary bone tumour in adult bone is: A) Ewing's sarcoma B) Osteogenic sarcoma C) Chondro sarcoma D) Admintinoma 198) Hyperglycemia is associated with: A) Multiple myeloma B) Ewings sarcoma C) Osteosarcoma D) None

199) How much fluid does a 1-month-old, healthy infant require daily if the body weight is 3,400 g and the external temperature is 25C? A) 500 ml B) 300 ml C) 1,200 ml D) 800 ml 200) All of the following are seen in tetralogy of Fallot except: A) Pulmonary stenosis B) Left ventricular hypertrophy C) Overriding aorta D) VSD 201) Which one of the following statements is false with regard to Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis in children. A) Often affects those younger than 8 years of age. B) Clinical presentation in children is same as in adults. C) It affects the kidney focally more frequently than diffusely. D) Boys are affected more frequently. 202) Cleft lip is associated with: A) Edward's syndrome B) Turner's syndrome C) Down's syndrome D) Patau's syndrome 203) A child presented with intermittent episodes of left sided flank pain. Ultrasonography reveals a large hydronephrosis with dilated renal pelvis and cortical thinning with a normal ureter. Kidney differential function was observed to be 19% which of the following is the bet management: A) Endopylostomy B) Nephrectomy C) Pyeloplasty D) External drainage

204) During first year of a child's life, all of following increase except: A) Glomerular filtraion rate B) Nephron number C) Tublar secretory capacity D) Tubular reabsorptive capacity 205) Hypertonic type of diarrhoea occurs when child is : A) Treated with fluids containing for too much of sodium B) Treated with very dilute ORS C) Treated with ORT rich in potassium D) Given excess of glucose 206) Most common type of Atrial septal defect is: A) Ostium secondom B) Ostium primum C) Endocardial hypertrophy D) Endocardial cushion defect 207) All of the following statements concerning Down's syndrome are correct, EXCEPT: A) males are sterile, females are fertile B) 3-4% of these patients suffer from the translocational type of the disease C) the expected average life span is 20 years if no organ abnormality is present D) the IQ value of the patients ranges considerably but rarely exceeds 60 208) Clinical features of kwarshiorkar include all except: A) Oedema B) Excess growth of eyebrows. C) Desquamated skin D) Discolored hair 209) The adolescent athlete might appropriately be advised to increase muscle mass by :

A) Increasing activity of muscle in the form of exercise B) Prescription of steroids C) Taking ergogenic medication D) Incresing the protein intake by twice the amount 210) Case Study: During the chest x-ray examination of a 6-yearold child, a distinct shadow in the upper part of the anterior mediastinum is detected. The presence of which of the following is the most likely cause? A) goiter B) pericardial cyst C) neuroblastoma D) the thymus gland 211) All of the following statements concerning abnormalities of hormone production in the adrenal cortex are correct, EXCEPT: A) a deficiency of the 17-hydroxylase enzyme is associated with ACTH overproduction B) a deficiency of the 21-hydroxylase enzyme is associated with ACTH overproduction C) a deficiency of the 17-hydroxylase enzyme is associated with mineralocorticoid overproduction D) a deficiency of the 21-hydroxylase enzyme is associated with mineralocorticoid overproduction 212) The chromosomal disorder in patau syndrome is: A) Chromosome 18 B) Chromosome 21 C) Chromosome 13 D) Chromosome 45x/46xx 213) Eisenmenger syndrome is characterized by all except: A) Dilatation of central pulmonary arteries. B) Pulmonary veins not distended. C) Pruning of peripheral pulmonary arteries.

D) Return of left ventricle and right ventricle to normal size. 214) Potts shunt is anastomosis of: A) Descending aorta to left pulmonary artery B) Right subclavian artery to right pulmonary artery C) Left subclavian to left pulmonary artery D) Ascending aorta to right pulmonary artery 215) Which newborn is the least prone to hypoglycemia? A) the newborn of a diabetic mother B) a neonate born at term, with intrauterine retardation C) a premature newborn with normal body weight relative to the gestational age D) a premature newborn with a low body weight relative to the gestational age 216) Commonest cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in children: A) Aqueductal gliosis B) Subarachnoid hemorrhage C) Acqueductal stenosis D) Tubercular meningitis 217) Hall mark of the IgA nephropathy is A) Proteinuria B) Oedema C) Hematuria D) Hypertension 218) All are involved in maintaining normal flow of blood and preventing coagulation except: A) Plasminogen B) Smooth endothelian of blood vessels. C) Natural anticoagulants of blood D) Flow of blood 219) The treatment of choice in pancreatic abscess is : A) Cystoenterostomy B) Cystogastrostomy

C) External drainage D) Antibiotics 220) Fibrocystic disease of breast seen A/E: A) Dilatation of ducts which appear cystic B) Fibrosis C) Adenosis D) Inflammation 221) Which of the following is a T cell malignancy : A) Burkitt's lymphoma B) Hodgkin's disease C) CML D) Mycosis fungoides 222) M4 in the classification of AML denotes which of the following stages: A) Monocytic B) Megakaryocytic C) Promyelocytic D) Myelomonocytic 223) Earliest hematogenous spread is seen in : A) Seminoma B) Choriocarcinoma C) Papillary carcinoma D) Follicular carcinoma 224) Elimination of ethanol is by: A) Exponential kinetics B) Linear kinetics C) Saturation dependent D) Plasma drug concentration dependent 225) All the following drugs action pseudomonas infection EXCEPT A) Carbenicilline B) Peperacilline C) Azlocilline D) Azithromycin 226) In comparison of famotidine to cimetidine. They differ in all of the following except:

A) Oral bioavailability when given along with food B) Duration of action C) Side effects D) Antiandrogenic effect 227) The drug of choice in digitalis induced ventricular arrhythmias is: A) I. V. Lignocaine B) Quinidine C) Phenytoin D) Procainamide 228) About nitrates, all are true except : A) Decreases heart rate B) Increases coronary flow to ischaemic area C) Arteriolar dilatation D) Venodilatation 229) Penicillinase resistant penicillin, are A/E: A) Methicillin B) Nafcillin C) Dicloxacillin D) Ticarcillin 230) All of the following drugs potentiate the action of warfarin except: A) Rifampicin B) Clofibrate C) Metronidazole D) Cimetidine 231) Factors known to affect teratogenicity include all the following except: A) Dosage of agent B) Maternal genotype C) Timing of exposure to agent. D) Paternal genotype 232) Mechanism of action of clavulanic acid is: A) Inhibits cell wall synthesis B) Causes miss reading of DNA C) Inhibits beta lactamase D) Acts on protein synthesis

233) Atropine poisoning causes all the following except : A) Bradycardia B) Restlessness C) Blurring of vision D) Dry, hot skin 234) Most common drug used in Leprosy is: A) Dapsone B) Ofloxacin C) Ethionamide D) Clofazimine 235) Digoxin is used in : A) HOCM B) Ventricular arrhythmias C) Atrial flutter D) Ectopics 236) Carbidopa is used in Parkinsonism because it: A) Inhibits the conversion of levodopa to dopamine in brain. B) Inhibits the peripheral decarboxylation of levo dopa. C) Increases the absorption of levodopa D) Makes basal ganglia cells more sensitive to levodopa. 237) ACE inhibitors act by A/E : A) Increased effect tolerance of heart B) Decreasing afterload and preload C) Increasing O demand D) Decrease in total peripheral resistance 238) Digoxin is used in all the following conditions except : A) Atrial flutter B) CCF C) AV block D) PSVT 239) Drugs used in CHF are all except :

A) Furosemide B) Digitalis C) Spironolactone D) Adenosine 240) Which of the following is drug of choice for persistent TB bacilli : A) INH B) Pyrazinamide C) Ethambutol D) Rifampin 241) Drug of choice for penicillinase resistant staphylococcus aureus is: A) Cloxacillin B) Carbenicillin C) Methicillin D) Clavulanic acid 242) Normal value of FEV1 in an adult male is : A) 80% B) 65% C) 95% D) 50% 243) Secretion of growth hormone is stimulated by all of following except: A) Free fatty acids B) Larginine C) Deep sleep D) Hypoglycaemia 244) All the following cause the secretion of gastric juice during cephalic phase except A) food in the stomach B) food in the mouth C) sight of food D) thought of food 245) A lesion of ventrolateral part of spinal cord will lead to loss (below the level of lesion) of: A) Proprioception on the contralateral side B) Pain sensation on the contralateral side C) Pain sensation on the ipsilateral side

D) Proprioception on the ipsilateral side 246) All are examples of negative feed back EXCEPT A) Regulation of carbon monoxide B) Regulation of blood glucose C) Regulation of blood pressure D) Coagulation of the blood 247) Alpha waves are of which of the following frequencies: A) 10-20 Hz B) 15-25 Hz C) 7-13 Hz D) 4-5 Hz 248) Regarding water absorption in PCT all of the following are seen in except: A) Passive B) Active absorption of solutes C) 60% reabsorbed D) Depends on ADH 249) In a patient who is resting but is awake and has his closed will show which of the following readings in EEG: A) Beta waves B) Alpha waves C) Theta waves D) Delta waves 250) Universal donor is __________ group person : A) B B) O C) A D) AB 251) All of the following statements about alveolar pressure is true except: A) Trans pulmonary pressure is lower. B) During expiration alveolar pressure rises to about +1 centimeter of water.

C) During inspiration alveolar pressure decrease to about -4 centimeter of water . D) Pleural pressure is always lower than the alveolar presure. 252) Maximum fall of resistance in the systemic circulation occurs in : A) Arterioles B) Venules C) Arteries D) Capillaries 253) The parasympathetic effect on bronchial smooth muscle causes: A) Bronchoconstriction B) Increased tital volume C) No effect D) Bronchodilatation 254) Which is not synthesized in liver : A) Transferrin B) Albumin C) Chymotrypsin D) Fibrinogen 255) Maximum absorption of bile occurs at : A) Ileum B) Jejunum C) Colon D) Duodenum 256) Transmitter at neuromuscular junction is : A) Noradrenaline B) Acetylcholine C) Atropine D) Nicotine 257) A 30 year old man since 2 months suspects that his wife us having an affair with his boss. He thinks his friend is also involved from abroad and is providing technology support. He thinks people talk ill about him. His friends tried to convince him but he is not convinced at all. Otherwise he is normal, he doesnt have nay

thought disorder or any other inappropriate behavior. The most likely diagnosis is: A) Persistent delusion disorder B) Schizophrenia C) Acute and transient psychosis D) Paranoid personality disorder 258) The DST (dexamethasone-suppression test) has limited usefulness in the diagnosis of depression because: A) the plasma control levels are subject to diurnal variation B) many medical conditions give false positive results C) the test is too expensive for routine clinical use D) the patient is noncompliant 259) Visual hallucinations are characteristic for which of the following conditions? A) alcohol hallucinations B) Korsakof's syndrome C) delirium tremens D) acute alcohol abuse 260) If praise, attention, and warm affection fail to act as means of reinforcement in a young schoolchild: A) physical punishment should be introduced B) the child should be warned C) alternative means of reinforcement should be introduced, such as praising the child with chocolate and toys D) None of these 261) A person missing from home, is found wandering purposefully. He is well groomed, and denies of having any amnesia. Most likely diagnosis is: A) Schizophrenia B) Dementia C) Dissociative amnesia D) Dissociative fugue

262) To properly develop a good behavior in a child, it is advisable to: A) punish the child B) reward the child C) both of the above D) none of the above 263) Treatment of schizophrenia is based on : A) Antipsychotic drugs act as D1 agonist. B) Antipsychotics block D2 receptors in mesolimbic system. C) They block both NA, HT receptors. D) All of the above 264) The investigation of choice for imaging of urinary tract tuberculosis is A) Plain X-ray B) Intravenous urography C) Ultrasound D) Computed tomography 265) Gold standard for diagnosing pulm embolism A) X-ray chest B) ventilation perfusion scan C) blood gas analysis D) none of these 266) Mediastinal lymph node calcification is seen in which one of the following ? A) sarcoidosis B) metastatic neoplasm C) lymphoma D) bronchiectasis 267) About contrast radiography true is (HIGHLY UNCLEAR ON OPTIONS) A) 3 parts of iodine with 2 parts of solvent B) Injection into artery is associated with 1/3 times more complication than injection into a vein C) Test dose should be performed if a contrast reaction is suspected D) Not recalled

268) Butchers thigh would refer to : A) Lipodystrophy of subcutaneous tissue B) Fracture of femur C) Section of femoral vessels during boning D) Rupture of vastus lateralis 269) Polydioxanone (PDS) sutures get absorbed in : A) 100 days B) 21 days C) 7 days D) 225 days 270) Calcified deposit in a salivary gland called as: A) Sialolith B) Calculus C) Stone D) Sialolithiasis 271) In gastrointestinal tract maximum alkalosis occurs in block at : A) Sigmoid colon B) Cardia C) Ileo-caecal junction D) Pylorus 272) Most common complication of appendicectomy: A) Portal pyemia B) Wound infection C) Faecal fistula D) Subphrenic abscess 273) Most common parotid tumor is : A) Pleomorphic adenoma B) Adenocarcinoma C) Warthin's tumor D) SCC 274) Deep inguinal ring is: A) Condensation of the internal oblique B) condensation of the cremesteric fascia

C) Condensation of the transversalis fascia D) Condensation of the external oblique 275) Chronic subdural haematoma, after sometime of injury is due to: A) Bleeding into tuberculoma B) Slow liquifaction of encapsulated haematoma C) Secondary infection of haematoma D) Continuous bleeding from middle meningeal artery 276) All of the following are associated with thyroid storm, except: A) Surgery for thyroiditis B) Surgery for thyrotoxicosis C) I131 therapy for thyrotoxicosis D) Stressful illness in thyrotoxicosis 277) Commonest benign of oesophagus is : A) Leiomyosma B) Fibrovascular poplyp C) Carcinoid tumour D) Epithelial polyp 278) Most common diaphragmatic hernia in children is: A) Through the foramen of Morgagni B) Eventration of the diaphragm C) Through the foramen of Bochdalek D) Traumatic rupture of the diaphragm 279) The following is ideal for the treatment with injection of sclerosing agents: A) Internal hemorrhoids. B) External hemorrhoids. C) Prolapsed hemorrhoids. D) Strangulated hemorrhoids. 280) A blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates one of the following: A) Breast abscess. B) Fat necrosis of breast. C) Fibroadenoma.

D) Duct papilloma. 281) All of the following statements about acute adrenal insufficiency are true except: A) Acute adrenal insufficiency usually is secondary to exogenous glucocorticoid administration B) Acute adrenal insufficiency presents with weakness, vomiting, fever, and hypotension C) Hyponatremia occurs because of impaired renal tubule sodium resorption D) Hyperglycemia is usually present 282) Cullen's sign: A) Migratory thrombophelebitis B) Subcutaneous fat necrosis C) Bluish discolouration in the umbilicus D) Bluish discolouration of the flanks 283) A 10 months old infant present with acute intestinal obstruction. Contrast enema X-ray shows the intussusception. Likely cause is: A) Mekels diverticulum B) Mucosal polyp C) Peyers patch hypertrophy D) Duplication cyst 284) Which of the following stones is hard to break by ESWL? A) Uric acid B) Calcium oxalate monohydrate C) Struvite D) Calcium oxalate dehydrate 285) A 14 years old girl sustains a steam bum measuring 6 by 7 inches over the ulnar aspect of her right forearm. Blisters develop over the entire area of the bum wound, and by the time the patient is seen 6 hours after the injury, some of the blisters have ruptured spontaneously. In addition to debridement of the necrotic epithelium, all the following therapeutic regiments might be considered appropriate for this patient except:

A) Application of mafenide acetate cream, but no daily washes or dressing B) Heterograft application with sutures to secure it in place and daily washes, but no dressing C) Application of silver sulfadiazine and daily washes, but no dressing D) Application of polyvinylpyrrolidone foam, daily washes and a light occlusive dressing changed daily 286) About carcinoid tumour true is: A) Common in Meckel's diverticulum B) Right hemicolectomy should always be done C) M.C. site is jejunum D) Most common in appendix 287) Most common brain tumour of childhood is: A) Glioblastoma multiforme B) Medulloblastoma C) Meningioma D) Astrocytoma 288) The treatment of locally invasive breast carcinoma is : A) Modified radical mastectomy B) Simple excision C) Chemotherapy D) Radiotherapy 289) In orthotropic liver transplantation, which is the best way to get bile drainage in donor liver? A) Donor bile duct with duodenum of recipient B) Donor bile duct with jejunum of receipt C) Donor bile duct with recipient bile duct or Roux en Y choledochojejunostomy D) External drainage for few days followed by choledochojejunostomy 290) Most common cysts of the spleen are: A) Pseudocyst B) Hydatid Cyst

C) Lymphangioma D) Dermatoid cyst 291) A patient is brought to the emergency as a case of head injury, following a head on collision road traffic accident. His BP is 90/60 mmHg. Tachycardia is present. Most likely diagnosis is: A) Intra-abdominal bleed B) EDH C) Intracranial hemorrhage D) SDH 292) Thyroid cancer arising from C cells is : A) Anaplastic Ca B) Follicular cancer C) Papillary Ca D) Medullary Ca 293) HIV patient with CD4 count less than 100; having fistula in ano, treatment is : A) Seton B) Fistulectomy C) Fistulotomy D) None of the above 294) Most pathognomic in pelvic abscess is: A) Mucopurulent Discharge B) Bleeding C) Constipation D) Loose stool 295) Tamoxifen is used in treatment of which carcinoma : A) Testis B) Ovary C) Prostate D) Breast 296) Which of the following catheter materials is most suited for long-term use is? A) Polyurethane. B) Silicone. C) Latex.

D) Rubber. 297) The term synergistic gangrene of meleneys refers to infection of: A) Clostridia in genitalia B) Gangrene of foot C) Varicose veins spreading to iliac veins D) Anaerobes and non group A streptococci 298) In chronic pancreatitis not seen is : A) Diabetes mellitus B) Hypercalcemia C) Steatorrhea D) Parenchymal calcification 299) Which of the following is not an indication for hospitalization : A) 15% deep burns B) 5% burns in child C) 10% scaled in child D) Electrical burns 300) Commonest complication of meckel's diverticulum : A) Haemorrhage B) Diverticulitis C) Intestinal obstruction D) Perforation