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Chapter 5 1. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to "LAB_A"?

*Router> enable Router# configure terminal Router(config)# hostname LAB_A

2. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.) *VTY interface *console interface *privileged EXEC mode

3. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible? *Telnet

4. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.) *Set the command history buffer size. *Recall previously entered commands.

5. A router has a valid operating system and a configuration stored in NVRAM. When the router boots up, which mode will display? *user EXEC mode

6. Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit? *clocking for the synchronous link

7. In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.) *SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management. *SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.

8. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.) *host name *domain name *enable secret password

9. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.) *Frame Relay *HDLC *PPP

10. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet? *DNS server IP address

11. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination? *Tab

12. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure? *steady amber

13. Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch? *Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.

14. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.) *platform *connected interface of neighbor device *device ID

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will correctly configure the serial interface on Router2? *Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0 Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.9 255.255.255.252 Router2(config-if)# no shutdown

16. When utilizing SDM Express, which two configuration options allow a router serial interface to obtain an IP address without manually configuring it? (Choose two.) *IP Negotiated *IP Unnumbered

17. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway via the switch console port. The switch VLAN 1 interface is assigned IP address 192.168.5.68/26. What command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch? *X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.126

18. Refer to the exhibit. Users on both SW1 and SW2 report that they are unable to communicate with each other. A network administrator issues show ip interface brief commands on both routers to troubleshoot the connectivity between the two networks. What action will correct the connectivity issue? *Issue a no shutdown command on the s0/0/0 interface on router RB.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show port-security interface fastethernet0/1 command on the switch, which statement about the switch port is true? *There are ten devices with different MAC addresses connected to this port.

20. What step must be completed before port security can be enabled on an interface? *The interface must be in access mode.

21. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to a switch on the same LAN via Telnet for

configuration and management? (Choose three.) *Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192 Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown. *Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15 Switch1(config-line)# password cisco Switch1(config-line)# login. *Switch1(config)# enable secret class.

22. Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.) *This is the default mode on an unconfigured router when first powered up. *Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

23. Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a router? *1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port 2) a rollover cable 3) the router's console port

24. An administrator enters the show ip route command into a router. What type of information will be displayed? *the networks learned from other neighbors

25.A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem? *There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.

Chapter 6
What is the purpose of a routing protocol? *It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers. 2. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols? *Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged. 3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)? *when the company uses two or more ISPs 4. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority? *autonomous system 5. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol? *BGP 6. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data? *border gateway router 7. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions? *destination IP address

8. What statement is true regarding an AS number? *AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use. 9. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs? *BGP 10. Consider this routing table entry: R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1 What type of route is this? *a RIP route 11. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available? *immediately 12. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates? *subnet mask 13. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.) *a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs *a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs 14. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.) *They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes. *They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S 15. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols? *Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. 16. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown? *routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0 17. Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers are running RIP. There are two paths from router A to the 192.168.3.0 network. Based on the output of the show ip route command on router A, which route was entered into the routing table and why? *A,B,C,D because it has the lowest metric 18. What is the purpose of the network command in configuring RIP? *to identify the directly connected networks that will be announced in RIP updates 19. Refer to the exhibit. If connectivity between the two hosts is maintained, what is the maximum number of RIP routers that can be in the path from HostA to HostB? *15 20. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do? *use the default route

Chapter 7
A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client? *identifies the appropriate service from the destination port field 2. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake? *It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers. 3. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.) *low overhead *no flow control *no error-recovery function 4. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair? *source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port

5. What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur? *dynamic 6. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name? *reverse lookup 7. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.) *mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts *forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server 8. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server? *SMTP 9. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from their ISP. The services required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.) *FTP *HTTP *SMTP 10. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.) *availability *reliability 11. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.) *The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model. *The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers. 12. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP? *caching-only 13. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.) *HTTP - 80 *SMTP - 25 14. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.) *It supports authentication. *It encrypts packets with SSL. *It requires additional server processing time. 15. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.) *It utilizes a store and forward process. *SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers. 16. Which three fields do a TCP header and a UDP header have in common? (Choose three.) *source port *checksum *destination port 17. When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which two values will likely be the same in all packets for each session? (Choose two.) *IP address *MAC address 18. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.) *Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability. *Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability. *The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability. 19. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next? *Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1. 20. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination

sockets for this request? *Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80 21. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.) *The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10. *If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address.

Chapter 8 1. Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router? *encryption 2. Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information? *trap 3. What is the term used to describe the area of a network which stores servers that are accessible to any users from the Internet? *DMZ 4. Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data. Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up? *full 5. A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which firewall configuration should be deployed? *stateful packet inspection 6. Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for transmission across the internet? (Choose three.) *IPSEC *SSL *HTTPS 7. What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol used for communication? *IPSEC 8. Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.) *date and time of message *ID of sending device *message ID 9. What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network resources? *authorization 10. A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the administrator take? (Choose two.) *Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs. *Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs. 11. A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access to the network? *The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop NIC. 12. What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network? *It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and access point. 13. hat are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data? (Choose two.)

*Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often. *Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability. 14. Refer to the exhibit. While the user on router A is connected to router B through telnet, the CTRL-SHIFT-6 x keystroke is entered. What effect does this have? *It suspends the connection to router B. 15. What two measures help to verify that server backups have been successfully completed? (Choose two.) *reviewing backup logs *performing a trial restore 16. Which three applications can be used for in-band management? (Choose three.) *HTTP *SNMP *Telnet 17. Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose two.) *ports *protocols 18. Which AAA service provides detailed reporting and monitoring of network user behavior, and also keeps a record of every access connection and device configuration change across the network? *accounting 19. While downloading an IOS image from a TFTP server, an administrator sees long strings of exclamation marks (!) output to the console. What does this mean? *The transfer is working. 20. What does the command copy flash tftp accomplish? *It copies the IOS in flash to a TFTP server.

Chapter 9
1. Refer to the exhibit. What are two possible causes for the interface status? (Choose two.) *The encapsulation type is mismatched. *Keepalive messages are not being received.

2. A network administrator is upgrading a Cisco 1841 router by adding a WIC-2T module card. Which show command can the administrator use to verify that the module is correctly recognized by the router? *show version.

3. Which two conditions identify issues that are confined to Layer 1? (Choose two.) *cables that exceed maximum length. *poor termination of cables.

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.) *FastEthernet0/0 is functioning correctly. *The shutdown command has been applied on Serial0/0. *FastEthernet0/1 is experiencing a Layer 2 network problem.

5. A network administrator plugs a new PC into a switch port. The LED for that port changes to solid green. What statement best describes the current status of the port? *The port is operational and ready to transmit packets.

6. A user is having trouble accessing the Internet. A network administrator begins by verifying that the IP address of the PC is correctly configured. Next the administrator pings the default gateway. Based on this information, what type of troubleshooting method is the administrator employing? *divide-and-conquer.

7. A user can access any web page on the Internet but cannot access e-mail. What troubleshooting method would be most efficient for troubleshooting this issue? *top-down

8. Which problem is associated with Layer 4 of the OSI model? *A firewall is blocking Telnet packets to a host.

9. An administrator is creating a lab to simulate a WAN connection. During the setup, the administrator notices that there are different encapsulation types on each end of the serial connection. At what layer of the OSI model is this problem occurring? *Layer 2.

10. A PC is able to reach devices that are located both inside and outside the network. However, when trying to reach an FTP server that is located on the same subnet, the PC fails to make a connection. The administrator has several other PCs that are located in the same subnet try a connection to the FTP server and they are successful. Which troubleshooting tool can be used to determine the problem between the PC and the FTP server? *protocol analyzer.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is misconfigured and is causing connectivity problems between hosts and servers? *Server2

12. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 10.12.10.0/24 network are unable to access anyone on the 10.10.10.0/24 network. What two problems exist in the network? (Choose two.) *R2 is using a different version of RIP. *R2 has a missing network statement.

13. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is in the process of sending a preconfigured text file to a router. When the administrator pastes the configuration into the router, an error message appears. What is the problem with the IP addressing scheme? *The IP address on FastEthernet0/0 overlaps with the IP on Serial0/1.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Host H1 on the LAN is not able to access the FTP server across the Internet. Which two configuration statements are causing this problem? (Choose two.) *The NAT command on the Fa0/0 interface is applied in the wrong direction. *The NAT command on the S0/0/0 interface is applied in the wrong direction.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is trying to ping router B at 192.168.2.2, but it fails. What is the problem? *The default gateway on the PC should be 192.168.1.1.

16. How many usable host addresses does the 192.168.1.0/25 subnet provide? *126

17. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem? *Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?

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