SECTION I

Sub-section I-A: Number of Questions = 30

Note: Questions 1 to 30 carry one mark each. DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Four students, Aang Lee, Brett Lee, Chang Lee and Ding Lee appeared in 3 exams each. There were 50 questions in each exam. Each question, if rightly attempted, fetched 1 mark but for every wrong attempt,
1 1 1 , , marks were deducted in exams I, II and III respectively. Unattempted questions dont carry any 4 3 2 marks. Following cumulative graph shows the numbers of correct attempts by each student in the three exams. Number of questions attempted wrongly by Chang Lee in each exam ranges from 8 to 14.

30 Ding Lee 28 Chang Lee 32 Brett Lee 36 Aang Lee 0 20 40 55

60

84

89 62 68 94 96

60

80

100

120

Number of correct Answers

Exam I 1. 2.

Exam II

Exam III

Out of the given four students, at most how many students can have equal marks in all the three exams? 1. 4 2. 1 3. 2 4. 3 If the total marks obtained by Chang Lee considering all the three exams, is an integer, then what can be the maximum number of questions marked wrongly by Chang Lee across all the three exams? 1. 38 2. 39 3. 40 4. 42 If the four given students attempted maximum possible number of questions in all the three exams such that their marks in each exam is an integer, then among the four students who has the maximum difference of marks in any two exams? 1. Aang Lee 2. Brett Lee 3. Ding Lee 4. Both Aang Lee and Ding Lee If the number of wrongly attempted questions by Brett Lee in all three exams are equal and non zero, then what is the ratio of maximum marks obtained by Brett Lee in any exam to the minimum marks obtained by him in any exam such that marks obtained in any of the exams is integer? 1. 29: 26 2. 14:13 3. 29: 25 4. 28: 25

3.

4.

000

DIRECTIONS for Questions 5 to 9: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a fruit shop, only three kinds of fruits namely apple, mango and orange are sold. The weight of every apple, every mango and every orange available in the fruit shop is 1 gm, 2 gms and 3 gms respectively. The price of an apple, a mango and an orange is Rs. 2, Rs. 3 and Rs. 4 respectively. Vardha, Madhvi and Samridhi went to this fruit shop to buy fruits. The total weight of fruits bought by Vardha, Madhvi and Samridhi is 15 gms, 12gms and 17 gms respectively. The amounts spent by Vardha, Madhvi and Samridhi on buying fruits is Rs.24, Rs.17 and Rs.28 respectively. 5. If the aggregate number of mangoes bought by Vardha, Madhvi and Samridhi is 15, then find the aggregate number of apples bought by them. 1.8 2. 7 3. 6 4. None of these. If the aggregate number of oranges bought by Vardha, Madhvi and Samridhi is 9, then find the ratio of number of apples bought by Vardha to the number of apples bought by Samridhi. 1. 2 : 3 2. 1 : 2 3. 3 : 4 4. None of these Find the minimum possible absolute difference between the number of apples and number of mangoes that Samridhi bought. 1. 0 2. 1 3. 2 4. 3 Find the minimum possible number of apples that can be bought by Vardha. 1. 5 2. 4 3. 3 4. 2 If Vardha bought at least 5 apples and aggregate number of apples bought by Vardha, Madhvi and Samridhi is 10, then find the number of mangoes bought by Samridhi. 1. 2 2. 4 3. 6 4. Cannot be determined

6.

7.

8. 9.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 10 to 14: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a trade promotion scheme, Cellular phones are distributed among four dealers P, Q, R and S; such that the following conditions always hold true after distributing all the cellular phones. Initially P, Q, R and S did not have any cellular phone with them. Conditions: I. The number of cellular phones with P is at least equal and at most twice the number of cellular phones with Q. II. The number of cellular phones with Q is atleast twice and atmost thrice the number of cellular phones with R. III. The number of cellular phones with R is atleast equal and atmost thrice the number of cellular phones with S. 10. Which of the following could not be a possible ratio of the number of cellular phones that S and Q can have? 1. 1 : 2 2. 1 : 9 3. 1 : 10 4. 2 : 5 Which of the following could be a possible ratio of the number of cellular phones that P and S can have? 1. 19 : 1 2. 18 : 1 3. 20 : 1 4. 21 : 1 If an aggregate of 88 cellular phones are distributed, find the difference between the maximum and minimum possible number of cellular phones that Q can have. 1. 14 2. 17 3. 21 4. 18

11.

12.

000

13.

If 186 cellular phones are distributed in all and P got 108 cellular phones out of them, then find the number of cellular phones with S. 1. 6 2. 7 3. 8 4. Cannot be determined If R has 37 cellular phones after distribution of all cellular phones, then find the number of cellular phones with Q. 1.75 2. 58 3. 63 4. Cannot be determined

14.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 15 to 18: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In an office, a telephone-operator handles an EPABX machine which is connected to 6 extensions (i.e. telephone sets) numbered from 21 to 26. All the calls received by the Telephone-operator are supposed to be transferred to the desired extension. However, due to some technical problem with the EPABX machine, some calls were not accurately transferred to the desired extension. Also, all extensions were interconnected such that if a person receives a call, which is not meant for him, on a particular extension, he can transfer that call to any of the other extensions. But due to the persisting problem in the system, even some of these calls were not transferred accurately. A call is called rightly directed call if it reaches the person for whom it was intended, otherwise it is called a misdirected call. A particular phone call, once forwarded to another extension, can never come back to the preceding extension(s). Number of misdirected calls to any extension in any time slot is a multiple of 4 only. Following table provides information about the calls received at different extensions at different time slots on a day. Every call reaches the desired extension within the same time slot in which it was made.
Time slots 9 AM to 11 AM 11 AM to 1 PM 1 PM to 3 PM 3 PM to 5 PM Extension 21 Extension 22 5 8 14 4 4 12 2 6 Extension 23 9 4 12 6 Extension 24 13 6 8 10 Extension 25 4 5 4 10 Extension 26 2 7 6 2

15.

What is the minimum number of calls received that reached the person for whom it was intended between 9AM and 11 AM? 1. 1 2. 13 3. 5 4. 15 Find the minimum number of rightly directed calls from 9 AM to 5 PM to extension 26. 1. 4 2. 7 3. 9 4. 17 What can be the least number of total rightly directed calls during time slot 11 AM to 1 PM to ensure that at least 1 of those calls was rightly directed to extension 22? 1. 30 2. 34 3. 12 4. 14 Which of these cannot be the total number of rightly directed calls to the extension 25 from 9 AM to 5 PM? 1. 9 2. 3 3. 7 4. 11

16. 17.

18.

000

DIRECTIONS for Questions 19 to 22: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. State assembly elections were held in three states- Uttaranchal, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh. Four parties Bharat Mata Party (BMP), Bharat Pita Party (BPP), Indian Peoples Party (IPP) and Hindustani Awami League (HAL) contested the elections in each of these three states. Before the declaration of the actual results of the elections, each party projected the number of seats that it was likely to win in the three states. The projections were as shown in Table-1.After the declaration of the results, the state wise actual results of each party was tabulated as in Table-2. The actual names of the parties were disguised as A, B, C and D, in no particular order. When the actual results of each party was compared with its projected one, it was observed that in atleast one state, each party won the same number of seats as projected earlier. No other party contested the elections. Table-1: Pre-Poll Projection (Number of Seats)
States Chhattisgarh Jharkhand Uttaranchal BPP 60 25 60 BMP 65 25 75 IPP 25 40 60 HAL 50 70 25

Table: 2 Actual Poll Results (Number of Seats)

States Chhattisgarh Jharkhand Uttaranchal A 65 25 60 B 60 25 75 C 25 70 25 D 50 40 60

19.

What can be said regarding the following two statements? Statement 1: Hindustani Awami League won 60 seats in Uttaranchal. Statement 2: Indian Peoples Party won 25 seats in Chhattisgarh. 1. If statement (1) is true then statement (2) is necessarily true. 2. If statement (2) is true then statement (1) is necessarily false. 3. Statement (1) is necessarily false irrespective of statement (2). 4. Statement (2) is necessarily false irrespective of statement (1). What can be said regarding the following two statements? Statement 1: Bharat Pita Party won 60 seats in Uttaranchal. Statement 2: Bharat Mata Party won 65 seats in Chhattisgarh. 1. If statement (1) is true then statement (2) is necessarily true. 2. If statement (2) is true then statement (1) is necessarily false. 3. Statement (1) is necessarily false irrespective of statement (2). 4. Statement (2) is necessarily true irrespective of statement (1). What can be said regarding the following two statements? Statement 1: The party disguised as A won exactly the same number of seats as projected, in only one State. Statement 2: The party disguised as D won exactly the same number of seats as projected, in two States. 1. Both the statements could be true. 2. Exactly one of the statements is true. 3. At most one of the statements is true. 4. Both the statements are necessarily false.

20.

21.

000

22.

If Indian Peoples Party won a total of 150 seats in these three states and Bharat Mata Party won the highest number of total seats in the three seats, then which of the following is correct? 1. Bharat Mata Party won the highest number of seats in the Chhattisgarh state assembly. 2. In each of the three state assemblies, Bharat Mata Party won more than double the seats won by Hindustani Awami League. 3. Hindustani Awami League won the lowest number of seats in the Chhattisgarh state assembly. 4. None of these.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 23 to 26: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following table shows the rankings of 10 cricket players for the current year and compares this years rankings with that of the previous year. Only players who have played 5 or more test matches in a calendar year would be included in the ranking list for that year. Positive change means that the rank has improved. Rank 1 is the best rank. There were only 60 players who have played 5 or more test matches in the current year and 9 out of the 10 people in the given list were in the rankings from 51 to 60 in the previous year as well.
Rank for the current year 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 Name Shoaib Zaheer Nathan Ntini Agarkar Harmison Anderson Kaneria McGrath Monty Change in the rank over the previous year * +3 +4 +6 -2 +2 -1 A B C NA

* If NA is indicated it implies that the player did not figure in the last years rankings. A, B, C are the values not known. 23. 24. What is the maximum value of |A| + |B| + |C| ? 1. 14 2. 16 3. 15 4. None of these

The number of people who have definitely improved their rankings vis--vis last years from the above list is 1. 4 2. 5 3. 6 4. 7 None of the three players, Anderson, Kaneria or McGrath has improved in his rankings in the current year. Which of the following can be the values of B, C respectively ? 1. 5, 7 2. 7, 6 3. 5, 1 4. None of these Among the given players, what could have been the maximum difference between the current year rank and the previous year rank of any player? 1. 4 2. 5 3. 8 4. 9

25.

26.

000

DIRECTIONS for Questions 27 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. On a day during 8 PM to 9 PM, four commercial Ad breaks of 60 sec each are aired on each of the four TV channels shown in the graph. Commercial Ads are of duration 5 sec, 10 sec and 15 sec only. Following graph shows the price (in Rs.) of Ads of different time durations on the four TV channels. During each Ad break at least 1 Ad of each time duration is shown on each TV channel. From 8 PM to 9 PM at most 9 Ads and at least 6 Ads of each of three given time durations are aired on each of the four TV channels.

25000 20000 Rupees 15000 10000 10000 5000 0 Tony TV Lee TV Star Minus TV channels Miscovery 8000 20000 18000 15000 15000 12000 20000 18000 15000 12000 8000

5 sec

10 sec

15 sec

27.

If 9 Ads of duration 15 sec are aired during 8 PM to 9 PM on one TV channel, then at most how many Ads of 10 sec duration can be aired during 8 PM to 9 PM on the same TV channel? 1. 7 2. 6 3. 8 4. 9 What is the difference between the maximum and minimum amount received by Tony TV during any Ad break? 1. Rs. 15000 2. Rs. 20000 3. Rs. 25000 4. Rs. 10000 A company X has its Ads of duration 5 sec, 10 sec and 15 sec. It wanted its brand to be advertised for 30 sec at a stretch on one channel. But due to some technical problem two Ads of 15 sec duration cannot be aired. What can be the lowest possible price that company X has to pay to any channel for 30 sec airtime? 1. Rs. 36000 2. Rs. 35000 3. Rs. 38000 4. Rs. 39000 If equal number of Ads of each time duration are aired on all TV channels then what can be the maximum ratio of revenue earned by Ads of duration 15 sec to revenue earned by Ads of 5 sec duration on one TV channel? 1. 9:4 2. 2:1 3. 5:3 4. 15:8

28.

29.

30.

000

Sub-section II-B: Number of Questions = 10

Note: Questions 31 to 40 carry two marks each. DIRECTIONS for Questions 31 to 33: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A and B have 10 marbles each. They start playing taking steps one by one, such that in each step one of them encloses 1 or 2 or 3 marbles in his fist and asks the other person to guess the number of marbles in his fist. If one person guesses incorrectly then he has to give the other person the marbles equal to number of marbles in his fist, if 1 or 3 marbles are hid in the fist. If 2 marbles are hid then the person has to give 4 marbles. If 1 or 3 marbles are hid in the fist and is guessed correctly then the person who hide marbles has to give all the marbles in his fist to the other person. Whereas if 2 marbles are hid then the person who guessed correctly receives 4 marbles from the other person. A person cannot hide number of marbles that the other person hid in the previous step. 31. After some steps the sum of marbles that were hid by A and B taken together is 5. What can be the maximum difference between the total number of marbles with them after those steps? 1. 20 2. 18 3. 16 4. 14 A starts the game and after few steps number of marbles with A is 5. Find the minimum possible sum of marbles that were hid by A and B taken together during these steps? 1. 7 2. 5 3. 3 4. 6 If after few steps number of marbles with B is 0, then what is the minimum number of steps required? 1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5

32.

33.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 34 to 36: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. There is a huge forest where identical palm trees are arranged in a proper grid. Segment of that forest is shown below. The distance between any two adjacent palm trees in east, west, north or south direction is 1 m. A canary flew on these trees in a particular fashion. It jumped 4 trees north and 3 trees west or east in each minute. It started from palm tree A and reached palm tree B finally.

North

West

East

South

34.

If the canary flew for 9 minutes, then which of the following could be the distance between the trees A and B? 1. 39 m 2. 42 m 3. 46 m 4. 33 m

000

35. 36.

If the distance between the trees A and B is 2340 m, for how much time did the canary possibly fly? 1. 480 minutes 2. 512 minutes 3. 540 minutes 4. 585 minutes Which of the following could never be the distance between the trees A and B? 1. 12 m 2. 16 m 3. 20 m 4. 24 m

DIRECTIONS for Questions 37 to 40: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. All the employees of a company Z are divided into four groups namely A, B, C and D. Each employee belongs to only one group. The employees in each of the groups are further divided into six sub groups namely Red, Green, Blue, Yellow, White and Black. Each employee in a particular group belongs to only one sub group. The following graphs provide information about the employees in each sub group as a percentage of the aggregate number of employees in that particular group.
Group A Black 14%
Group B Black 15% Red 16% Green 8% White 29%

Red 13%

White 22%

Green 15%

Yellow 24%

Blue 12%
Yellow 17%

Blue 15%

Group C Black 16% White 17% Red 15% Green 13%

Group D Black 11% Red 7%

White 9%

Green 16%

Yellow 30%

Blue 9%

Yellow 36%

Blue 21%

000

The following table provides partial information about the number of employees of a particular sub-group in each group as a percentage of the aggregate number of employees belonging to that particular sub group.
Yellow 15% White 17.40% 6.80% 24% Blue 18% 22.50%

Group A Group B Group C Group D

37.

What is the ratio of the total number of employees in groups A and C to the total number of employees in groups B and D? 1. 5:6 2. 25:31 3. 20:27 4. 18:25 What is the ratio of number of employees in sub groups Yellow, White and Blue? 1. 25:24:60 2.15:12:30 3. 24:25:10 4. None of these If the difference between the number of employees who are in both group B and sub group Green and the number of employees who are in both group D and sub group Yellow is 11400, then find the difference between the number of employees in groups A and C? 1. 10500 2. 13500 3. 15000 4. 12500 Which sub group has the maximum number of employees? 1. Yellow 2. Black 3. White 4. Cannot be determined

38. 39.

40.

000

SECTION II
Sub-section II-A: Number of Questions = 30
Note: Questions 41 to 70 carry one mark each. DIRECTIONS for Questions 41 and 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A company XYZ engages three small companies P,Q and R to manufacture 100 cricket bats per day. Every person in companies P,Q and R can manufacture 2, 3 and 8 cricket bats per day respectively. Companies P, Q and R charge Rs. 20, Rs. 25 and Rs. 15 respectively for every bat manufactured by them. The number of persons involved in manufacturing bats for company XYZ from company P is not greater than the total number of persons involved in manufacturing bats from companies Q and R. At least one person from each of the companies P, Q and R is involved in making bats. 41. 42. Find the minimum possible expenditure incurred by the company XYZ to manufacture 100 bats. 1. Rs. 2460 2. Rs. 2380 3. Rs. 2310 4. None of these Find the difference between the number of persons involved from company Q and R in manufacturing bats for company XYZ such that the expenditure incurred by the company XYZ is minimum in manufacturing 100 bats. 1. 11 2. 10 3. 9 4. 8 Find the sum of all the possible values of K for which the equation 2(K 1)x2 + Kx + (K + 3) = 0 has only one solution (K 1). 1. 44.
16 7

43.

2. 2

3.

11 5

4. None of these

10 parallel lines of length 5 cm each are drawn such that the distance between any two consecutive lines is 1 cm. One line is selected randomly and its ends are marked as A and B. One other line is selected and its midpoint is marked as M. Find the sum of the areas of all the possible triangles ABM. 1. 975 cm2 2. 525 cm2 3. 675 cm2 4. 825 cm2 Given, 3.5 a 7.5and 7.5 b 5.5. If c = a |b| then find the least value of a c. 1. 196.875 2. 309.375 3. 421.875 4. Zero What will be the 12th digit from the left in (6007)3? 1. 0 2. 1 3. 2 4. 3

45.

46.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 47 and 48: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A tank of capacity 1000 cubic centimeter is being filled with water by 3 pipes A, B and C. The areas of crosssection of the pipes A, B and C are in the ratio 3: 2: 4. Water is flowing through each of these pipes at a different rate (in cm/min). It was found that the time taken to fill the tank, which was initially empty, by the pipes A, B and C individually is 20 min, 50 min and 25 min respectively. 47. Find the approximate time taken to fill an empty tank when all the three pipes are opened simultaneously? 1. 9.1 min 2. 11.1 min 3. 10 min 4. 12 min Find the ratio of the rates of flow of water through the pipes A and C? 1. 20 : 9 2. 5: 3 3. 3: 5 4. 9: 20

48.

10

000

49.

At how many different points on the X-Y plane do the graphs of the equations (x4 + 8x3 + 17x2 + 10x 36) and (x4 + 5x3 4x 2 20x 36) intersect? 1. 3 2. 2 3. 1 4. 0 In the given triangle ABC, points P, Q and R divide the sides BC, CA and AB in the ratios 1:2, 3:2 and 3:2 respectively. Find the ratio of the area of quadrilateral ARPQ to the area of the triangle ABC.

50.

A Q R

B
7 15 2 3

P
3.
2 5

C
38 75

1. 51.

2.

4.

A person working with his wife can complete a task in 10 days and completes the same task in 6 days if he works with his son. If his wife alone can complete the task in 18 days, then in how many days all of them working together can complete the same task? 1. 4 days 2. 3.5 days 3. 4.5 days 4. Data insufficient For real numbers x, y, z, not all of which are simultaneously zero, it is known that
x y z = = = k | k | . What is the value of k? 2y + 2z 2z + 2x 2x + 2y

52.

1. 53.

1 4

2. 1 2

3. 1 2

4. Either (2) or (3)

A three digit number is such that when it is written in the reverse order and added to the original number, it gives another three-digit number. Which of the statement is necessarily true about the threedigit number obtained after addition? 1. The number cannot be a prime number. 2. The digits at units place and hundreds place are odd. 3. The digit at tens place is even or zero. 4. The digit at tens place is greater than one. How many integral pairs (x, y) satisfy the following set of equations and inequalities?
x 2y = 0 x +2y6 y 3x 3 x 3y 6

54.

1. 6

2. 3

3. 2

4. None of these

000

11

55.

P C1 S C2 C3 C4

In a rectangle PQRS, four identical circles with centres C1, C2, C3 and C4 are drawn as shown in the figure. PQ and RS are tangents to all the four circles and PS and QR are tangents to the circle with center C1 and C4 respectively. Find the ratio of the area of the region of the rectangle which is not common to any of the four circles to the area of the rectangle. 1.
20 4 2 3 20

2.

20 3 4 3 20

3.

20 4 3 3 20

4.

20 3 5 3 20

56.

If , x =

1 2+ 1 2 1 2+ 1 2 1 2 + ........

, then find the value of x

1. 57.

2 1

2.

2 +1

3. 1

4. Cannot be determined uniquely

A solid sphere is melted and moulded to form a few identical cones, where the height as well as the radius of each cone is equal to the radius of the original sphere. If one out of these identical cones is melted and moulded to form a sphere, then what is the ratio of the surface area of this sphere to the surface area of the original sphere? 1.
1 1:23

2.

4 1:23

3.

1 1 : 43

4.

3 1 : 42

58.

Given that a and b are real numbers and a = b + 1. Find the largest value of x that satisfies the inequality given below.
( a b)
1 1 x

a+ b

x +1

(x 0)

1. 3 +2 2 59.

2.

2 1

3. 3 2 2 3. 1243

4.

2 +1

What is the sum of all the factors of 540? 1. 1680 2. 1170

4. None of these

12

000

DIRECTIONS for Questions 60 and 61: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A REAL test contains 3 sections: QA, VA and DI. A student taking the test have to attempt at least one section. When the data of test takers was assimilated, it shows that the 74% of students attempted QA, 91% attempted VA and 77% attempted DI section. 60. 61. What could be the minimum percentage of students who attempted all the three-sections? 1. 37% 2. 22% 3. 42% 4. None of these If the percentage of students who attempted all the three sections is found to be 71%, then find the possible percentage of students who attempted only two sections. 1. 58% 2. 21% 3. Zero 4. Cannot be determined In the figure given below, radii of the three circles is 1 cm each. P, Q, R are the mid points of the sides BC, CA and AB respectively. Find the area of the triangle ABC.
A

62.

B
1. 6 + 4 3 cm 2

2. 24 + 16 3 cm 2 4. 9 + 6 3 c m 2

3. 63.

3 + 3 cm 2 2

If and are the roots of the equation x2 9x + 5 =0. then find the equation whose roots are
and . 2 2
2 1. 10x 122x 61 = 0 3. 20x2 122x 61 = 0

2. x 2 122x 61 = 0 4. None of these

64.

S is a two-digit number. If the number of factors of S is prime, how many numbers S are possible? 1. 5 2. 24 3. 26 4. 30

000

13

65.

P1 Q1 Q4 O Q5 Q6 Q3 P2 Q2

Arc P1P2 is the quadrant of the circle with center O. A square Q1Q2Q3 O is drawn and similarly a quadrant Q 1Q3 with center O is formed. Q 4Q5Q6O is another square drawn and this process is continued infinitely. Find the sum of areas of all the squares so formed if the radius of the circle having quadrant P1P2O is r units. 1. 66.
2r sq.units
2

2.

2r2

sq. units

3.

r2 2

sq. units

4. r2 sq. units

For which of the following values of k does the given pair of equations yield a real solution? x 2 + y2 = 3 y = kx + 2. 1.
2 5

2.

1 2

3.

3 7

4.

3 5

67.

1 If a! = b!, then what is the value of (b!)a! (a!)b! ? 2 1. 2 2. 1 3. Zero

4. Cannot be determined

68.

ABCD is a rhombus. Points P, Q and R divides the sides BC, CD and DA of the rhombus in the ratio 1:1, 1:2 and 1:3 respectively. Find the area of the rhombus ABCD, if the area of the triangle PQR is A units. 1.
34 A units 7

2.

22 A units 5

3.

14 Aunits 3

4. 24 A units 5

69.

Given that ax + by = 4, ax2 + by2 = 2 and ax3 + by3 = 3. Find the value of (2x 1) (2y 1). 1. 4 2. 3 3. 5 4. Cannot be determined
3 7 There are 5 points in a plane viz. A, B, C, D and E whose coordinates are (2,0), (0,2), (2,0), 2 , 2 and (2, 4). How many distinct circle(s) can be drawn such that they pass through at least 3 of these points? 1. 10 2. 7 3. 6 4. 1

70.

14

000

Sub-section II-B: Number of Questions = 10

Note: Questions 71 to 80 carry two marks each.

71.

C1

P1

P2

C2

C1 and C2 and centres of two identical semicircles with radius r units. The ratio of C1P1 to PQ is 1 : 7, as shown in the figure. Find the radius of the circle inscribed in the region common to the identical semi-circles, given that the circle touches the two semi-circles and the line segment P1P2. 1. 7r 32 72. 2. 3r 16 3. r 4 4. None of these

There are n students in a class. The average age of a student of this class is A years. Two students left the class and were replaced by 4 new students. Incidentally, the average age of the students in the class did not change. The sum of the ages of these 6 students (who left or joined the class) was 72 years. Find the value of A. 1. 36 years 2. 24 years 3. 12 years 4. Data Inadequate

DIRECTIONS for Questions 73 and 74: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A and B start simultaneously from P and reach R via Q along the same road. A travels at 15 km/hr from P to Q and at 20 km/hr from Q to R. B travels at 20 km/hr from P to Q and at 15 km/hr from Q to R. A reaches R 10 min before B. 73. How much more distance A has travelled at 20 km/hr as compared to the distance travelled at 15 km/hr? 1. 5 km 2. 10 km 3. 15 km 4. Data Insufficient If the time taken to cover PQ to the time taken to cover QR by B is in the ratio 1:2, find the distance between P and R. 1. 31.66 km 2. 50 km 3. 55 km 4. Data Insufficient. Given that g(h(x)) = 2x2 + 3x and h(g(x)) = x2 + 4x 4 for all real values x. Which of the following could be the value of g(4)? 1. 1 2. 1 3. 2 4. 2 The height of a right pyramid with a regular hexagonal base is 12 cm and the inradius of the base is
16 3 c m . Find the volume of the pyramid.

74.

75.

76.

1. 3072 3 c m 3

2. 12288 3 c m 3

3. 6144 3 cm 3

4. 18432 3 c m 3

000

15

DIRECTIONS for Questions 77 to 79: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Four digits a, b, c, d are such that The sum of (b, c, d) is a multiple of 9. The sum of (c, d, a) is a multiple of 8. The sum of (d, a, b) is a multiple of 5. The sum of (a, b, c) is a multiple of 23. 77. 78. 79. 80. Find the value of (a b). 1. 24 2. 35 Find the value of (c d). 1. 3 2. 1 The largest number is 1. a 2. b 3. 40 3. 8 3. c 4. 48 4. 9 4. d

The figure given below is the metallic grid of interconnected wires, where the straight lines indicate the plastic coated insulated wires. A particular section of the grid lost the insulation due to high-voltage electrical current (shown as the wavy lines), and thus a spider cannot touch that wavy portion of the grid. The spider can move only in the forward direction or downward direction along the wires. Along how many distinct routes it can reach point Q from point P?
P Downward

Forward

1. 32

2. 150

3. 26

4. 174

16

000

SECTION III
Sub-section III-A: Number of Questions = 40
Note: Questions 81 to 120 carry one mark each. DIRECTIONS for Questions 81 to 84: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. 81. There are one or two certainties on Today. You know that a story about cruelty to animals will always get a bigger reaction than one about cruelty to children. You know particular subjects will stir great passion in the chests of a certain section of Radio 4 listeners: elf n safety rules; political correctness gone mad; anything about the Union Jack and, of course, anything about the English language. We all care about language. __________ 1. All of us. 2. You and I and the slightly menacing young hoodie hanging around on the street corner. 3. Your concern may be different from the young hoodies. 4. It is one thing we have in common. Sometimes, out and about, I catch a stranger fixing me with a gimlet eye. Does she recognize me? Perhaps. I wrote a first-person story for Washingtonian magazine back in 1989 about getting a facelift with before-and-after mug shots on the cover. Maybe that stranger stashed it in a bedside drawer. I imagine her fishing it out after one of those blood-freezing flashes when she spots her own reflection in a shop window and thinks her mothers come to town.__________. 1. But millions more have surrendered to the knife, and a charming new vocabulary has been born. 2. Over the intervening 17 years, my own visage has slid back into its pre-lift contours. 3. Mind-boggling new technologies have blossomed: lasers, microsurgeries, wrinkle fillers, etc. 4. At its core, of course, the rage for age management is a ghastly business. In recent times, a number of attempts have been made to determine the position of aesthetics. Thinkers such as Schelling and Nietzsche in their own ways sought to rehabilitate aesthetics to the degree that they even claimed this neglected field to be the highest form of philosophy. To most philosophers, however, reflections about aesthetics seem to be less important than epistemology or ethics. __________ 1. However, it is in Kants system that aesthetics was for the first time assigned an autonomous place as a discipline within philosophy. 2. Even in the philosophy of Immanuel Kant, it seems at first sight as if aesthetics came as an afterthought. 3. The importance of aesthetics to philosophy can, on reflection, not be denied. 4. Why do we, for instance, claim that a sunset is beautiful?

82.

83.

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84.

Naming has always been a tricky business in astronomy. When Galileo discovered four planets accompanying Jupiter, he intended to name them Medicean stars, after his hoped-for patron. He got the job, but lost on the names. Kepler introduced the word satellites, and Medicean never stuck. William Herschel tried to name his new planet Georgium Sidus for King George III, but the international astronomy community would have none of that, calling it Uranus instead.__________ 1. Yet controversy finally caught up with Pluto in 2006. 2. Pluto, it had turned out, was not a massive object influencing Uranus and Neptune in their courses. 3. Lowell Observatory in Flagstaff, Ariz., was luckier with Pluto, which incorporated the initials of Boston Brahmin Percival Lowell. 4. It was a dwarf, smaller than our moon, and 400 times less massive than the earth.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 85 to 98: Each of the three passages given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Passage 1
Students in our colleges and universities live constantly in a tension between two authority systems: one more or less vaguely associated with science and the other with religion. Both systems impose edicts on thought and behavior that are never, for the vast majority of people, reduced to anything close to understanding, verification, or proof. An illustration comes from a recent experience reported by one of my students. This student was walking across campus with a professor whose field is religious studies. In their conversation, the student happened to mention the resurrection of Christ. The professors response: The resurrection is inconsistent with the laws of physics. Now, in fact, the laws of physics lie at a considerable conceptual distance from phenomena such as human death and decay and their possible reversal. This particular professor in any case, would have little if any idea where to begin showing that resurrection conflicts with physicsor why it matters, if it does conflict. Indeed, who would? Very few, I would imagine. Science was vaguely invoked to end the discussion, just as in other contexts; religion is used for the same purpose. But then the professor probably will never be confronted with the task of actually demonstrating how the resurrection is inconsistent with the laws of physics. The student in question, an extremely bright as well as devout young man, was too gracious (and perhaps stunned) to force the issue; and certainly he would have found it difficult to show that the resurrection and physics are not inconsistent or why it doesnt matter if they are. It is painful to observe that our culture provides no friendly meeting place for the authorities of science and religion to engage in good-faith efforts to understand the truth about our life and our world. How many people seek or find the preparation required to deal profitably with issues such as resurrection and the laws of physics? To be genuinely open to truth and able to seek it effectively is surely one of the greatest human attainments. I am convinced that it can come only as a gift of grace. It implies faith in a cosmic context where one no longer feels the need to hide, to invoke explanations that really explain nothing at all but simply enable one to hold a position with an appearance of reasonableness. The professor who invoked physics is surrounded constantly with things and events for which no physical explanation yet exists, nor even the beginnings of one. Just look at the physics texts and see. A most obvious case is the existence of the physical universe itself, as well as of life and human consciousness. When confronted with the de facto inability of physics in this respect, the academically sanctified dodge is to invoke chance,

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along with huge spans of time, for everything to work, and further, to invoke the promise of what science (really, physics) supposedly will be able to explain in the future as it continues to make progress. But chance is not something that can produce or explain anything. Rather, it is invoked precisely at the point where there is no known explanation or cause. And if something is, indeed, impossible, it will not help to have more time to get it done. We need a demonstration of the possibility, for example, of lifes emerging from the inorganic, and then we can talk about time. But the assumptions of this scientific evasion are so complicated and culturally protected that most people confronting it do not realize they have been handed intellectual sawdust instead of bread. Unfortunately, religion frequently invokes its own non-explanations as a means of holding its ground. Usually these involve the idea that Gods power is so great that we can say with reference to anything simply that He did it and thus have an explanation that protects us. Theres no need to look further or think further. Now Gods act as an explanatory principle has an advantage over chance in that we all know something of what it is like for an act or choice to bring something about. Nothing comparable can be said of chance. Personality is a source of energy and causation with an intelligible structure. It simply is not a physical structure. But there is no good reason it should be, and once you think about it, every reason it should not. For if it were, the fundamental feature of human life and consciousness would be destroyed or reduced to illusion. As long as we recognize that knowledge does not reduce to physics, and as long as we understand that science is just knowledge, we have every right to speak of the possibility of a science that encompasses consciousness in divine and human forms along with the physical and whatever else there may be. The impasse of authorities confronting authorities (or intimidating others) begins to dissolve when prepared and thoughtful people devote themselves to the humble examination of facts and evidence rather than to defending their positions. It is difficult to imagine anything more necessary and Godlike than this. We must escape the cultural deadlock that is turning universitiesand churchesinto places of right views, rather than thought and knowledge, and producing a Christian personality split into a religious side and a professional, intellectual side, which never come into contact. 85. The author wants to prove by giving the example of the student walking with his professor 1. that professors nowadays are not competent enough to handle intelligent queries posed by students 2. that it does not fall within the domain of science to explain away such religious phenomena as Resurrection 3. that religion and science are largely incompatible 4. that proponents of both science an religion dogmatically espouse their own explanations as the final say Personality, according to the author 1. is an essentially corporeal entity 2. is reducible to a series of chimeral assumptions 3. has a metaphysical aspect to it 4. derives from the knowledge one gains An appropriate title for the passage will be 1. Blind Science vs. Blind Faith- breaking the deadlock 2. Religion vs. Science- which side will win? 3. Religious bigotry- a blow to science 4. Religion or science- a subjective choice

86.

87.

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88.

It can be inferred that 1. The promise that science holds for the future is not something that can be banked upon now 2. Religion has been reduced to nothing more than a punching bag by supporters of science 3. Academic status quo has ensured that chance is acceptably invoked where no scientific explanation is possible 4. Churches have now become institutes that now perpetrate debauchery and vice in the name of religious beliefs

Passage 2
History, contrary to popular assumption, is not the past. The terms are commonly, but incorrectly, used interchangeably. The past, simply put, is what happened. History, in contrast, is the historians interpretation of what happened. As Michael Howard stressed, history is merely what historians write. Carl Becker, the renowned American historian of the early 20th century, put it somewhat differently when he noted that history is little more than the collective memory of things said and done. Thus, history is just like human memoryfallible and prone to selective recall. As such, it is also highly idiosyncratic, and inevitably imperfect. Hence, as E. H. Carr, a British historian of considerable note, warned, one must study the historian before studying the facts. The rub for historians is that the available evidence concerning the past is rarely sufficient, or is too abundant, to permit of only one interpretation. (Of course, one could say the same of the present.) Indeed, historians sometimes resort to educated guesses to fill the gaps left by insufficient evidence. Natalie Zemon Davis, a respected historian at Princeton University and author of the widely acclaimed historical work Return of Martin Guerre, used her historical imagination to compensate for a lack of evidence about the feelings and motives of her central character, Martin Guerres wife. Davis essentially invented what Guerres wife said and did based on her assessment of the attitudes of other women of that period; Davis remains convinced that her historical imagination, cultivated by extensive immersion in the available sources, led her to a correct interpretation. However, the lack of hard evidence to support her view means that other interpretations are certainly possible. Thus, while historians may be certain of the correctness of their interpretations, those views are not necessarily universal and would not necessarily hold up under cross-examination. The fundamental problem for historians is that, aside from being able to refer to such demonstrable facts as do exist, they have no objective references for determining (beyond a reasonable doubt) to what extent the histories they write either capture or deviate from the past. Put differently, they have nothing resembling the scientific method to aid them in determining whether what they have written is somewhat right, mostly right, or altogether wrong about the past. Quantitative history, intellectual history, history from below, and oral history, for example, each employ different methods. Yet none of those procedures can lay claim to the reliability of the scientific methodthat is, developing a question or a hypothesis, conducting experiments to test it, revising the original hypothesis, then conducting further experiments to confirm the revised hypothesis, and finally reaching a conclusion. Although historians may begin their research with a question or hypothesis, they cannot conduct the various experiments necessary to determine whether the main conclusions they have drawn about what happened are in fact valid. They cannot duplicate Picketts charge at the battle of Gettysburg with all the variables exactly as they were, for instance, and then change a few of them to determine whether the Confederate assault might have succeeded under different circumstances: earlier or later in the day, perhaps, or further to the left, or more to the right.10 Nor can they isolate the variables in a past event for closer study in the same way scientists

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chemists, for examplecan separate the key elements in a compound. Removing all the elements surrounding Picketts charge does not make the charge any easier to understand. In fact, without the historical context, the past is likely to remain essentially mute, unable to tell us much about itself. We might not be able to recognize Picketts charge itself as a charge. To be sure, historians do have recourse to certain subjective measuressuch as their abundant reviews of each others books and access to the advice of other, perhaps more accomplished, historiansto aid them in capturing the past. However, subjective measures tend merely to reinforce a veritable Cartesian circle of interpretation: historians write what they do based in part on the fragments of the past, but how they see those fragments is largely influenced by knowledge they have gained in the present, including the works of other historians who may indeed only be offering their best guesses as to what those fragments mean. This proved to be the case with historical interpretations of military thinking before the First World War; historians tended to view that eras military theory and doctrine through a lens colored red by the seemingly prolonged and futile slaughter of 1914-18, and thus reinforced one another in a series of misunderstandings.11 In addition, the impact of recent events or experiences sometimes causes historians to focus on factors and values that are quite different from what the historical actors had in mindperhaps giving those factors and values an artificial existence. Hence, the present, as historian Christopher Bassford once noted, serves as prologue to the past.1 As Carl Becker said, Left to themselves, the facts do not speak. . . . . Thus, historians tend to see in the past what they have been trained to see, orfor those inclined to buck convention (which requires a certain training of its own)what they want to see. Neither tendency is necessarily wrong. Yet neither is necessarily right, either. 89. It can be inferred from the passage that 1. Historical Truth remains in the eye of the beholder 2. Statements made by historians can be seldom relied upon 3. The ambiguity of Historical Truth makes historical training a thing of little use 4. Search for Historical Truth has now given way to the search for Plausibility To whom does the passage attribute the statement Study the historian before studying the facts? 1. Michael Howard 2. Natalie Zemon Davis 3. E.H. Carr 4. Christopher Bassford The statement Left to themselves, the facts do not speak implies 1. There is no fact until someones interpretation is affirmed as one 2. A truth remains hidden to humanity until someone uncovers it 3. A fact needs to be publicized before it gains public acceptance 4. None of the above According to the author, history lags behind science in 1. not having the same level of training imparted to its practitioners 2. its inability to confirm its hypotheses through experimentation 3. its failure to adopt an interdisciplinary approach 4. the inability of historians to be as open-minded as scientists are

90.

91.

92.

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93.

An appropriate title for the passage will be 1. Difference between History and the Past 2. The Subjective nature of History 3. History- Reliable no more 4. Looking beyond the Past

Passage 3
In December of 1923 a piece of doggerel appeared in Punch, poking fun at Albert Einsteins newly famous theory of relativity. The piece was unsigned, but years later A.H. Reginald Buller stepped forward to claim authorship. He was a fellow of the Royal Society of Canada and came from a different field of science: he was editor of the sevenvolume Researches in Fungi. In the early years, experimental support for relativity theory was meager: full vindication of Albert Einsteins ideas was still to come. Relativity theory had drawn startling conclusions concerning the four most basic physical quantities-length, time, mass, and energy. In the course of the century, these results would receive direct and very striking experimental confirmation. The relativistic effects also became the basis for new technologies, such as Global Positioning Systems (GPS), whose continued functioning would verify these effects every day and every passing hour. The disruption of time was the most fundamental conclusion. Both in Einsteins technical paper of 1905 and in Relativity Clear and Simple , the relativity of simultaneity formed the basis for all subsequent discussion. In particular, Einstein showed that moving clocks as compared with stationary clocks would run slow as a result of their motion. As Einstein was philosophically committed to the idea that time was nothing more nor less than what you could measure with standardized clocks, he necessarily concluded that time itself passed more slowly in a moving frame of reference and the faster the motion of the reference frame, the slower the passage of time. This was called time dilation: time slows down, stretches out, in a moving reference frame. This was the most revolutionary conclusion of relativity theory. It was also, for a period of more than thirty years, completely unsupported by any direct experimental evidence. Critics of relativity theory, of course, jumped on Einstein: Wasnt it ridiculous to make the claim on the basis of no direct evidence whatsoeverthat time itself could slow down? And wouldnt various paradoxes and absurdities result from this kind of elasticity of time? Would an astronaut who traveled in a rocket ship at high velocity age less than his twin who stayed at home? If time could slow down as a result of motion at high speed, would time reverse if one went fast enough? Discussion of time dilation left the realm of the fanciful when it became possible to verify this effect in a direct manner. This first occurred in 1941, when time dilation was detected in experiments on cosmic rays. The earth is continually bombarded by atomic particles from outer space. These swiftly moving particles are the primary cosmic rays. When the particles reach the top of the atmosphere, they collide with atomic nuclei. Subatomic debris is produced, constituting the secondary cosmic rays, which then travel downward toward the surface

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of the earth. In particular, particles called muons are produced in the upper atmosphere and move downward toward the surface. Muons are highly unstable particles, having an average lifetime of about a millionth of a second. Given the short lifetimes of the muons and the long distances they have to travel to get down to the surface of the earth, one can calculate that, given the velocities at which they travel, very few of them should actually make it down to sea level. However, large numbers can be detected- many more than expected. It appears that, somehow, the moving muons have longer lifetimes than expected, so that they can travel longer distances than expected. This is exactly what would be expected on the basis of time dilation. The muons are traveling at velocities comparable to the velocity of light, and their internal clocks should slow down as a resultin accordance with Einsteins predictionso that many more are able to reach the surface of the earth than would be otherwise expected. Precise experiments on muons gave results exactly in accord with Einsteins equation for time dilation, verifying the effect quite convincingly. Experimental technologies used in particle physics have come to rely on time dilation for their successful day-to-day operation. For those who are not particle physicists, verification of time dilation has become possible with the development of a device known as an atomic clock, which can measure time intervals to a precision of one part in a trillion. Consider flying in an airplane at five hundred miles per hour. This produces minimal time dilation, and air travelers have not noticed their watches running slow as a result of this effect. Calculations on the basis of Einsteins equation for the time dilation, however, show that the expected effort is a slowing down by about one part in a trillion, which should be measurable by an atomic clock. In 1971, a team of scientists who were experts in the use of atomic clocks set out to detect and measure time dilation and other relativistic effects. The research team was able to devise a cheap and effective plan, which received some support from the Office of Naval Research. We are told that the researchers purchased three around-the-world tickets on regularly scheduled commercial airliners-two tickets for the accompanying scientists and one for an array of four atomic clocks. The clock array had its own seat; it sat, belted in for safety, between its two caretakers. Before leaving on the trip, the clocks were synchronized with a master clock at the U.S. Naval Observatory. The four clocks then went around the world, following which they were compared again with their counterpart, which had stayed behind at the Naval Observatory. After correcting for the rotation of the earth and the variation of the force of gravity with altitude, it was found that the clocks that had been in motion in their journey around the earth had in fact slowed as compared with the clock at the Naval Observatory, and by exactly the amount predicted by the theory of relativity. The result was further confirmed in a second around-the-world flight in the opposite direction. 94. It can be inferred that 1. the functioning of GPS has unarguably proved that the veracity of the Relativity Theory is under doubt. 2. experiments in recent years have to major extent verified the conclusions of the Relativity theory. 3. relativity Theory, though proven to be right, has been of little practical use in advanced technologies. 4. the Relativity Theory still continues to be ridiculed by many scientists worldwide. Which of the following statements about muons is validated by the passage? 1. They have an average life span of about a second 2. Very few muons actually travel down to the surface of the earth 3. They travel at velocities comparable to that of light 4. They are the only known stable elementary particle

95.

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96.

Which of the following statements about the experiment conducted by scientists in 1971 is supported by the passage? 1. Although successful, the experiment turned out to be a very costly affair 2. The experiment proved that time dilation happens only under laboratory-induced conditions 3. The results of the experiment were verified by another similar one 4. The experiment was conducted by scientists from the Office of Naval Research According to the passage, Einsteins theory 1. sees time as an entity that transcends what can be measured with standardized clocks 2. considers relativity of simultaneity as the basis for any discussion on time 3. concludes that faster the motion of the reference frame, faster is the passage of time 4. drew startling conclusions about all the basic physical quantities except mass It became possible to verify the conclusions that Relativity Theory had reached in the year 1. 1941 2. 1971 3. 1923 4. 1905

97.

98.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 99 to 102: In each of the following questions four possible meanings are given for the phrase on top of the table. Choose the option which most appropriately defines the phrase. 99. a poker face 1. a face with no expression; showing no emotion 2. a face strewn with marks 3. a face exhibiting shame and utter embarrassment 4. a face full of deceit

100. water down 1. reducing flood waters 2. exposing weaknesses 3. add water to dilute 4. to soothe or calm someone 101. a shot in the arm 1. a direct insult 2. energy, encouragement, a lift 3. a minor injury 4. to extend a helping hand 102. a tempest in a teapot 1. a lot of excitement about a small problem 2. enemy in or disaster from unexpected quarters 3. hidden luck 4. deceit or lure from the least expected front

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 103 to 106: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. 103. A. And it is typical Buffett: rational, original, breaking the mold of how extremely rich people donate money. B. I know what I want to do, he said, and it makes sense to get going. C. On that spring day his plan was uncertain in some of its details; today it is essentially complete. D. Buffett has pledged to gradually give 85% of his Berkshire stock to five foundations. 1. BCAD 2. ABCD 3. DBAC 4. DCAB 104. A. In the fast receding glimmer of the night, the spectator finds himself standing on the mound bedewed with sparkling frost, plunged in hush and silence and steeped in frigid cold. B. The elevation of Ghoom is 7,407 feet from sea level, while the altitude of the top of this hill exceeds that of Ghoom by 1,100 feet. C. A traveller whose vision has not been entertained with the two sights, the Taj Mahal by moonlight and sunrise from Tiger Hill, has missed a pleasure that does not lend itself to be substituted. D. The trip to the summit of the hill is through Ghoom, the highest railway station on the D.H. Ry. 1. DABC 2. DBAC 3. CABD 4. ADBC 105. A. Ararat is the great prize however for mountain collectors, not only because it is the highest summit in Turkey but also for its historical significance. B. We were lucky to visit it in 1988, a period of relative calm, when the area was being promoted as a tourist destination. C. Our ascent was preceded by a visit to a recent discovery, thought by some to be the remains of Noahs Ark, although actually most probably a natural rock phenomenon with the shape of an enormous ship. D. We acclimatised in the Kackar mountains, which are still accessible to visitors and in many ways more attractive to mountain walkers since they comprise a complete range of mountains, rising to 3932m, rather than the isolated volcanic cone of Ararat. 1. ADBC 2. BADC 3. ACDB 4. BDAC 106. A. She was a quiet girl who kept to herself and liked to day dream. B. Evas three sisters had secured good marriages and as for Eva, Juanas plans for her went no further than finishing primary school, then helping out in her new boarding house. C. But Eva had other ideas. D. In October of 1933, Eva was given a small part in a school play, an emotional, flag waving melodrama. 1. ABCD 2. BDCA 3. CADB 4. DACB

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 107 to 109: Each question consists of four sentences on a topic. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Select the option that indicates the grammatically incorrect and inappropriate sentence(s). 107. 1. Jonathan Swift wrote Gullivers Travels with intent of entertaining many people. 2. Entertainments through satire is what Swift had in mind. 3. Some of the literary devices that Swift uses in Gullivers Travels are lampoonery and irony. 4. Swift wrote the novel as a parody of travel books and an indictment of mankind. 1. 1 2. 1 & 2 3. 4 4. 3 108. 1. Compare the cinema with theatre. 2. Both are dramatic arts. 3. Theatre brings actors before public and every night during the season they re-enact the same drama. 4. Deep in the nature of theatre is a sense of ritual. 1. 1 2. 2 & 3 3. 1 & 3 4. 4 109. 1. Pseudoscience focused on the attempt to change base metals into gold. 2. Ancient alchemists believes that, under the correct astrological conditions, lead could be perfected into gold. 3. They tried to hasten this transformation by heating and refining the metal in variety of chemical processes, most of which were kept secret. 4. Alchemy was practiced in much of the ancient world, from China and India to Greece. 1. 1 & 2 2. 3 3. 2 & 3 4. 4 DIRECTIONS for Questions 110 to 112: In each question, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways, numbered 1 to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE. 110. Show
1. 2. 3. 4. Does my slip show? In spite of his promise he didn't show down. He frowned on the slightest show of emotion. The actor's tears had the show of grief.

111. Above
1. 2. 3. 4.

His performance was above description. The dam was positioned ten miles above the city. The above will certainly stand trial. He is above all trickery.

112. Apart
1. 2. 3. 4. The building was falling apart from decay. Our birthdays are three days apart. Apart for a few scratches, the bike was unharmed. You must keep some money apart for your education.

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 113 to 116: In each of the following sentences, part of the sentence is left blank. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of completing the sentence are indicated. Choose the best alternative from among the four. 113. A ________ of rain is all it takes to set off some earthquakes. 1. knell 2. spate 3. fitful

4. gale

114. The universe constantly expanding renders each ________ element of that universe smaller. 1. unguent 2. inordinate 3. tempestuous 4. discrete 115. The artists ________ is to create art an object for the viewers contemplation. 1. manifesto 2. benediction 3. dnouement 4. prerogative 116. Films and other media ________ all those who are no longer young. 1. excoriate 2. extirpate 3. marginalize 4. ferret DIRECTIONS for Questions 117 to 120: For each of the words below, a contextual usage is provided. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most appropriate in the given context. 117. froward: A froward child is likely to be wilfully insubordinate. 1. lachrymose 2. acquiescent 3. recalcitrant

4. clamorous

118. recreancy: A person exhibiting recreancy will be extremely coward. 1. tergiversation 2. disavowing 3. recusant 4. pusillanimity 119. inveigle: Those who attempt to inveigle you will lead you astray. 1. wile 2. sodden 3. blithe 4. contemn 120. deprecate: If someone deprecates something, he would disapprove strongly of it. 1. impetrate 2. squelch 3. laud 4. reprehend

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Sub-section III-B: Number of Questions = 5

Note: Questions 121 to 125 carry two marks each.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 121 to 123: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Passage
Capgemini, one of the worlds foremost providers of Consulting, Technology and Outsourcing services, and Kanbay International, a global IT services firm focused on the financial services industry, announced today that they have entered into a definitive merger agreement. Under the terms of the merger agreement, Capgemini will acquire all of the outstanding common shares of Kanbay for $29 per share in cash. This represents a premium of 15.9% to Kanbays closing share price on Wednesday October 25 and 28.3% to the average price during the month prior to announcement. The transaction values Kanbays share capital including vested stock options, warrants and restricted shares at $1.25 billion. The Boards of Directors of Capgemini and Kanbay have approved the transaction. The transaction is subject to customary closing conditions, including Kanbays shareholders approval and anti-trust clearance. It is expected that the transaction will close by early 2007. In addition, Capgemini has entered into share purchase agreements to acquire 14.9% of Kanbays outstanding shares from certain core shareholders. This acquisition is fully in line with Capgeminis expansion strategy, namely, it significantly increases Capgeminis presence in India (+89% based on Q3 figures). The combined company would have headcount reaching 12,000 employees by the end of 2006 in India which would therefore become the second largest country (with 16% of total headcount); it strengthens Capgeminis presence in North America and confirms the Groups ambition in this market; it positions Capgemini as a leader in the Financial Services sector - which accounts for 22% of the global IT market and enhances its domain expertise. This transaction is expected to have a positive impact on Capgeminis earnings per share. The anticipated EPS accretion is in excess of 5% in 2007 and 10% in 2008. Capgemini is in a position to fully finance this transaction with its significant end of year net cash position. It doesnt exclude to raise up to 500 million euros in equity to rebuild room for manoeuvre and participate to a possible further movement of consolidation. Both decision and timing will be subject to the then prevailing market conditions. Raymond J. Spencer, Chairman and Chief Executive Officer of Kanbay, will join the top management of Capgemini. Mr. Spencer stated: The combination of Kanbay with Capgemini is very exciting news for our shareholders, customers and employees. While this transaction creates excellent value for shareholders, Capgemini also shares our existing vision and stated strategy. Thus, this deal represents a continuation of our existing approach. In addition, the two organizations will benefit from complementary business philosophies and cultures. Capgemini Chief Executive Officer, Paul Hermelin noted: The acquisition of Kanbay, a world-class IT services provider, supports our growth strategy and significantly enhances our global Banking, Financial Services and Insurance (BFSI) practice, particularly in North America and India, where Kanbay has over 5,000 associates. The acquisition also gives us valuable capabilities in Consumer and Industrial Products, Telecommunications, Media, Life Sciences and the Travel & Leisure verticals.

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The acquisition of Kanbay is excellent news for our shareholders, our clients and our people. It fits in perfectly with the Groups expansion program called I cubed which focuses on three levers: industrialization, intimacy with our clients and innovation underlines Mr. Hermelin. This acquisition occurs in a context of strong momentum for Capgemini: after releasing good H1 results, the Group posts a 13.5% revenue growth at constant rates and perimeter in the 2006 third quarter. The combination of Kanbay and Capgemini creates a top-tier global IT services firm with unparalleled domain knowledge in the financial services vertical, seamless consulting and technology expertise, and market leading offshore resources. Paul Hermelin and Raymond Spencer concluded: We believe this is a landmark transaction in the global IT services industry. This event can fundamentally transform the professional services industry by enabling efficient global services delivery via an integrated single point solution delivered in a seamless fashion resulting in a lower total cost of ownership for the client. Lazard Freres and Morgan Stanley acted as financial advisors to Capgemini in connection with the transaction. Skadden, Arps, Slate, Meagher & Flom LLP, and Latham & Watkins (as special anti-trust counsel) acted as legal advisers to Capgemini in connection with the transaction. UBS Securities LLC acted as financial adviser to Kanbay and provided a fairness opinion in connection with the transaction. Winston & Strawn LLP acted as legal adviser to Kanbay in connection with the transaction. 121. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the above paragraph? 1. An anti-trust clearance is mandatory for a merger agreement. 2. Kanbay and Capgemini individually are in complementary lines of businesses. 3. The merger is a landmark event in the IT services industry 4. The fundamental values of Kanbay and Capgemini overlap each other. 122. According to the passage after the transaction is concluded: 1. Kanbay International will probably cease to exist as an entity 2. Capgemini will undergo a change in branding 3. the new entity will realize its expansion programmes 4. none of the above will take place. 123. One of the prime reason behind Capgeminis acquisition of Kanbay is 1. the strong presence Kanbay commands in India. 2. the expected rise in EPS of Capgemini post-merger. 3. the strong presence Capgemini commands in North America. 4. the lower total cost of ownership for the client post-merger.

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 124 and 125: Four alternative summaries are given below each text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
124. Of course, peace and stability are also the dearest wish of the Uygurs, since there is no people who likes to live in an environment not peaceful and stabile. However, if we look at real situation in Eastern Turkistan, we realize that it was the Chinese government who was destabilizing and breaking peace in this territory and has been greatly benefiting from that - and this is well known to the world. For example, in the December 2005 edition of the famous magazine Economist in America there is an article Western district under Chinese pressure and in this article it is written: in Uygurs territory because of rise of dissatisfaction of Muslim people who are not of Chinese origin, the Chinese government may apply a policy which was applied before in 1997 in Guldja. It has foreseen that the Chinese way of planting seeds, which will destabilise and break peace in this area, will give its results in the future. Lets have a look on the political situation of Eastern Turkistan for one year, and it will become obvious that the policy of the Central government of China against the Uygurs was in comparison even worse than in previous years. 1. Eastern Turkistan is under immense pressure from the Chinese government, who has been manipulating its policies to benefit from it. 2. Eastern Turkistan is under immense pressure from the Chinese government because of its miniscule population of Muslims who are not of Chinese origin. 3. Eastern Turkistan is under immense pressure from the Chinese government owing to the difference in methods of planting seeds 4. Eastern Turkistan is under immense pressure from the Chinese government because it wants to destabilize the district. 125. Leaf blowers were first used by gardeners in the early 1970s in California. In the mid-1970s, a drought in California led to water conservation, and leaf blowers replaced hoses to clean driveways and sidewalks. By 1976, Beverly Hills had banned blowers, saying they were nuisances. Throughout the 1980s, other communities in California enacted restrictions on the blowers, and as environmental awareness has heightened and more people have started to work at home, restricting leaf blowers has become popular elsewhere too. Today, leaf blowers are used for every aspect of yard clean-up. According to industry estimates, there are more than 8 million gas-powered leaf blowers in the country today, with another 1.5 million expected to be sold next year. However, estimates by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency put the countrys gas-powered leaf blower population at closer to 3 million. At least 40 communities in California currently have bans or restrictions on leaf blowers. In addition, three Chicago suburbs, several New Jersey towns, and seven communities in Westchester, including Scarsdale, have restrictions or seasonal bans. 1. California is the most environmentally proactive state followed by Illinois as at least 40 communities in California currently have bans or restrictions on leaf blowers. 2. Though the leaf blower saves water and was immensely popular during the initial phase of its introduction, its use is being increasingly banned because of its environmental implications. 3. The leaf blower is a great way to conserve water and at the same time keeps yards effectively clean; it replaced hoses to clean driveways and sidewalks. 4. Despite bans on the use of the leaf blower, its popularity is on the rise as reflected by its burgeoning sales figure.

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