PRACTICE QUIZ 4 The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are A. Type 1 only.

. B. Type 1 and Type 4 C. Type 4 only D. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3. E. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4. 2. Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category A. Type 1 only. B. Type 1 and Type 4 C. Type 4 only. D. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3 E. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4. 3. All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity except A. IgM B. IgG C. IgE. D. complement. E. foreign cells. 4. Human blood types involve all the following except A. MHC genes B. ABO antigen markers. C. inheritance of two of three possible alleles D. genetically determined glycoprotein markers E. genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors. 5. The serum of a person with blood type A, Rh- will have which of the following? A. anti A, anti Rh B. anti B, anti Rh C. anti A D. anti B E. anti A, anti B, anti Rh 6. A person with O type blood A. lacks antibodies to A and B blood types. B. lacks A and B antigens. C. could not have the Rh factor. D. is called a universal recipient. E. All of the choices are correct. 7. A person who has anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies will have blood type A. A. B. B. C. AB. D. O. E. Rh. 8. Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause A. recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs B. fever and anemia C. systemic shock and kidney failure D. massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs E. All of the choices are correct.

9. A female who is Rh+ A. inherited two recessive genes. B. is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status. C. is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn. D. can only have an Rh positive baby. E. All of the choices are correct. 10. The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when A. maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus. B. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother. C. maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus. D. fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ mother. E. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother. 11. Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented by A. injecting the mother with antibodies against the Rh factor late in the pregnancy and after giving birth. B. treating the fetus with immune globulin. C. birth by cesarean section. D. treating the mother with RhoGAM early in the pregnancy. E. None of the choices are correct. 12. Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen? A. ingestant B. inhalant C. injectant D. contactant E. None of the choices are correct. 13. Mold spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen? A. ingestant B. inhalant C. injectant D. contactant E. None of the choices are correct. 14. The initial encounter with an allergen is called the A. sensitizing dose. B. provocative dose. C. allergic dose. D. hypersensitivity dose. E. desensitizing dose. 15. What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters the body for a second time? A. degranulation B. bonding of allergen to adjacent Ig E binding sites on mast cells and basophils C. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D. histamine acts on smooth muscle E. prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability 16. Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators? A. degranulation B. bonding of allergen to adjacent Ig E binding sites on mast cells and basophils C. binding of Ig E by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D. histamine acts on smooth muscle E. prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability 17. Which of the following is incorrect about the role of mast cells and basophils in allergies?

A. They degranulate when triggered by a specific allergen through the IgE bound to them. B. They carry high numbers of cell receptors that bind to IgE antibodies. C. Their cytoplasmic secretory vesicles contain physiologically active cytokines. D. They are found mainly in the lymph nodes. E. None of the above is incorrect. 18. Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type I hypersensitivity? A. rhinitis B. rashes C. sneezing D. diarrhea E. contact dermatitis 19. Which is mismatched? A. food allergy Type I hypersensitivity B. poison ivy dermatitis Type 4 hypersensitivity C. serum sickness Type 3 hypersensitivity D. transfusion reaction Type 2 hypersensitivity E. hay fever Type 4 hypersensitivity 20. Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an A. autoimmune disease. B. immunodeficiency. C. hypersensitivity. D. transfusion reaction. E. desensitization. 21. Histamine causes all the following except A. increased sensitivity to light. B. constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine. C. relaxes vascular smooth muscle. D. wheal and flare reaction in skin. E. pruritis and headache. 22. The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is A. prostaglandin B. histamine C. leukotriene D. serotonin E. platelet-activating factor. 23. All of the following are associated with IgE- and mast cell-mediated allergy except A. drug allergy B. eczema C. anaphylaxis D. allergic asthma E. systemic lupus erythematosus. 24. Epinephrine A. is an antihistamine. B. reverses constriction of airways. C. causes desensitization. D. inhibits the activity of lymphocytes. E. All of the choices are correct. 25. Autoimmunity is typically due to A. transfusion reaction. B. IgE and mast cells. C. IgG and IgM.

D. graft rejection. E. a deficiency in T-cell development. 26. Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing A. desensitization. B. sensitization. C. tissue matching. D. degranulation. E. None of the choices are correct. 27. Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in basement membranes occur in A. serum sickness. B. delayed hypersensitivity. C. anaphylaxis. D. hemolytic disease of the newborn. E. All of the choices are correct. 28. Contact dermatitis involves A. a sensitizing and provocative dose. B. allergen entering the skin. C. T lymphocytes secrete inflammatory cytokines. D. itchy papules and blisters. E. All of the choices are correct. 29.Jose needs a kidney due to his diabetes. His sister is a close match and is willing to give him one of hers. What type of transplant is this? A. allograft B. xenograft C. autograft D. heterograft E. None of the choices are correct. 30. A xenograft is a tissue exchange A. between identical twins. B. between siblings. C. from one site on the body to another site. D. between individuals of different species. 31. What is the Arthus reaction? A. an autoimmune disorder B. an acute response to a second injection of vaccines at the same site C. a positive tuberculosis skin test D. the lysis of RBC due to complement during an incorrect blood transfusion E. the name given to skin wheals that occur during an allergy skin test 32. The heart of a baboon transplanted to a human would be a A. xenograft. B. autograft. C. allograft. D. heterograft. E. homograft. 33. All of the following cells participate in immune surveillance except A. macrophages. B. natural killer cells. C. cytotoxic T cells.

D. plasma cells. E. All of the choices participate. 34. The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called A. antibodies. B. sensitized T cells. C. activated macrophages. D. plasma cells. E. Bursa cells. 35. Helper T cells A. secrete antibodies. B. function in allergic reactions. C. directly destroy target cells. D. suppress immune reactions. E. activate B cells and other T cells. 36. Plasma cells A. secrete antibodies. B. function in allergic reactions. C. directly destroy target cells. D. suppress immune reactions. E. activate B cells and other T cells. 37. Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions A. are the result of genetic expression. B. function in recognition of self molecules. C. receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system. D. aid in cellular development. E. All of the choices are correct. 38. The major histocompatability complex is A. a group of blood vessels that protects the nervous system. B. a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors. C. also known as the complement system. D. located in the thymus gland. E. All of the choices are correct. 39. Class II MHC genes code for A. certain secreted complement components. B. self receptors recognized by natural killer cells. C. all HLA antigens. D. receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells. E. All of the choices are correct. 40. Class I MHC genes code for A. certain secreted complement components. B. markers that display unique characteristics of self. C. all HLA antigens. D. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells. E. All of the choices are correct. 41. Lymphocytes A. possess MHC antigens for recognizing self. B. have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens. C. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self. D. develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity. E. All of the choices are correct.

42. The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following except A. two identical heavy polypeptide chains. B. two identical light polypeptide chains. C. disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains. D. four antigen binding sites. E. a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain. 43. The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the A. variable region. B. joining region. C. constant region. D. light region. E. hinge region. 44. Lymphocyte maturation involves A. hormonal signals that initiate development. B. B cells maturing in bone marrow sites. C. T cells maturing in the thymus. D. release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs. E. All of the choices are correct. 45. Properties of effective antigens include all the following except A. foreign to the immune system. B. molecular complexity. C. large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000. D. large polymers made up of repeating subunits. E. cells or large, complex molecules. 46. The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an A. epitope. B. hapten. C. antigen binding site. D. variable region. E. None of the choices are correct. 47. Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed A. antigenic determinant. B. hapten. C. antigen binding site. D. variable region. E. None of the choices are correct. 48. Superantigens are A. body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign. B. cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members. C. bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens. D. those that evoke allergic reactions. E. None of the choices are correct. 49. Antigen presenting cells A. include dendritic cells. B. include macrophages. C. engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic. D. hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface. E. All of the choices are correct.

50. T cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires A. typically a protein antigen. B. binding of T cell to a Class II MHC receptor on a antigen-presenting cell. C. binding of T cell to a site on the antigen. D. interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell. E. All of the choices are correct. 51. Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin? A. it determines the antibody's distribution in the body B. it forms the antigen binding sites C. it contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells D. it contains an effector molecule that can fix complement E. it determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs 52. Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? A. neutralization B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. agglutination E. anamnestic response 53. Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? A. neutralization B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. agglutination E. anamnestic response 54 Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? A. neutralization B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. agglutination E. anamnestic response 55. Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen? A. neutralization B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. agglutination E. anamnestic response 56. The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is A. IgA. B. IgD. C. IgE. D. IgG. E. IgM. 57. The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is A. IgA. B. IgD. C. IgE. D. IgG. E. IgM. 58. The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is

 A. IgA. B. IgD. C. IgE. D. IgG. E. IgM. 59. All of the following are characteristics of IgM except A. it has 10 antigen binding sites. B. it contains a central J chain. C. it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell. D. it can fix complement. E. it is a dimer. 60. Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement? A. IgM only B. IgG only C. IgD only D. IgM and IgG E. IgE and IgA 61. The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are A. IgM only. B. IgG only. C. IgD only. D. IgM and IgG. E. IgE and IgA. 62. Components of the first line of defense include all the following except A. the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin. B. nasal hairs. C. flushing action of tears and blinking. D. flushing action of urine. E. phagocytic white blood cells. 63. Nonspecific chemical defenses include A. lysozyme. B. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat. C. skin's acidic pH and fatty acids. D. stomach hydrochloric acid. E. All of the choices are correct. 64. The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is A. lactic acid. B. hydrochloric acid. C. lysozyme. D. histamine. E. bile. 65. The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the A. skin. B. respiratory tract. C. digestive tract. D. urinary tract. E. eyes. 66. This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal flora A. skin. B. respiratory tract.

C. digestive tract. D. urinary tract. E. eyes. 67. Plasma A. is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended. B. is mostly water. C. contains albumin and globulins. D. contains fibrinogen. E. All of the choices are correct. 68. Which is incorrect about blood cells? A. after birth produced in red bone marrow sites B. develop from undifferentiated stem cells C. include mast cells D. include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranulocytes E. include erythrocytes that, when mature, lose their nuclei 69. The least numerous of all white blood cells, that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are A. basophils. B. eosinophils. C. neutrophils. D. monocytes. E. lymphocytes. 70. Comprise 20% to 35% of the circulating WBC's, and are the cells that function in the body's immune system: A. basophils B. eosinophils C. neutrophils D. monocytes E. lymphocytes 71. The most numerous WBC's, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are A. basophils. B. eosinophils. C. neutrophils. D. monocytes. E. lymphocytes. 72. Diapedesis is the A. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. B. production of only red blood cells. C. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. D. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding. E. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. 73. Plasma cells A. function in cell-mediated immunity. B. are derived from T-lymphocytes. C. function in blood clotting. D. produce and secrete antibodies. E. All of the choices are correct. 74. The reticuloendothelial system A. is a support network of connective tissue fibers. B. originates in the cellular basal lamina. C. provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs. D. is heavily populated with macrophages.

E. All of the choices are correct. 75. The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except A. redness. B. warmth. C. swelling. D. pain. E. chills. 76. All the following are events of early inflammation except A. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis. B. chemical mediators and cytokines are released. C. brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation. D. exudate and pus can accumulate. E. capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema. 77. Which is incorrect about inflammation? A. it can last hours to years B. pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability C. serotonin causes smooth muscle contraction D. fever could be beneficial to inhibiting the pathogen E. basophils and mast cells release histamine 78. Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all A. vasoactive mediators. B. mediators of B cell activity. C. mediators of T cell activity. D. mediators that increase chemotaxis. E. fever inducers. 79. These white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic infections A. monocytes. B. eosinphils. C. basophils. D. neutrophils. E. lymphocytes.