INSTRUCTION

Question Paper format :

1. 2. 3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

ETS/PT ETS/PT-03, AIEEE -2010

4.

5. 6. 7. 8. 14. 15. 16. 17.

The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 432. There are THREE parts in the question paper, consisting of, Physics Chemistry and Mathematics. In each part, there are 30 question. Part A-Physics (144 marks)- Question No. 1 to 24 consist 4 marks each and Que. No 25 to 30 consist 8 marks each for each correct response. Part B- Chemistry (144 marks)- Que. No 31 to 54 and consist 4 marks each and Que. No 55 to 60 consist 8 marks each for each correct response. Part C- Mathematics (144 marks)-Que. No 61 to 84 consist 4 marks each and Que. No 85 to 90 consist 8 marks each for each correct response. Candidates will awarded marks as stated above in instructions No.3 for correct response of each question.1/4(one four fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/ marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of PENCIL is STRCTlLY PROHIBITED. No Candidate is allowed to carry any textual material-printed material printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc; except the Admit Card inside de the examination hall/room. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Note :- Read carefully the Instruction on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side-1) (Side 1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of PENCIL is STRICTLY PROHIBITED. For writing/marking particulars on Side Side-2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point oint Pen only. Use of PENCIL is STRICTLY PROHIBITED. The Candidates should not write their Registration Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. There are THREE parts in the question paper, Part A consisting consisti of PHYSICS, Part B consisting of CHEMISTRY and Part C consisting of MATHS of 30 question each. For each incorrect response, one-third one third of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.

18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, - as under no circumstances. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sh Sheet. eet. All calculations/writing work are to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked Space for Rough Work. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave h his/her is/her seat. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and s sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be dee deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to put their left hand

24. 25. 26.

THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electro Electronic item like mobile phone etc. is prohibited. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Institute with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. Hal All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Institution Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

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ETS/PT ETS/PT-03, AIEEE -2010 PHYSICS 1. On a glass plate a light wave is incident at an angle of 60o. If the reflected and the refracted waves are mutually perpendicular, the refractive index of material is 3 (A) (B) 3 2 3 1 (C) (D) 2 3 if ij represents refractive index when a light ray goes from medium i to medium j, then the product 21 32 43 is equal to (A) 31 (B) 32 8. A point object is placed at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 6 cm and refractive index 1.5. The distance of the virtual image from the surface of the sphere is (A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 12 cm Two waves originating from sources S1 and S2 having ing zero phase difference and common wavelength will show complete destructive interference at a point P if (S1 P S2 P) = (A) 5 (C) (D) 42

9.

2.

1 (C) 1 4
3.

4 2

3 4 11 (D) 2
(B)

if 0 and 0 are respectively the electric permittivity and the magnetic permeability of free space, and the corresponding quantities in a medium, the refractive index of the medium is (A) (B) 0 0 0 0 (C)
0 0

10. The ratio of maximum and minimum intensities in the interference pattern of two sources is 4:1. The ratio of their amplitudes is (A) 1:3 (B) 3:1 (C) 1:9 (D) 1:16 11. In YDSE, two slits are made 5 mm apart and the screen is placed 2 m away. What is the fringe separation when light of wavelength waveleng 500 nm is used ? (A) 0.002 mm (C) 0.2 mm (B) 0.02 mm (D) 2 mm

(D)

0 0

4.

5.

6.

7.

A double convex lens has two surfaces of equal radii R and refractive index = 1.5. Then we have, (A) f = R/2 (B) f = R (C) f = R (D) f = 2R. A symmetric double convex lens is cut in two equal parts by a plane perpendicu perpendicular to the principal axis. If the power of the original lens was 4 D, the power of a cut lens will be (A) 2 D (B) 3 D (C) 4 D (D) 5 D A ray of light incident on the first mirror and parallel to the second is reflected from the second mirror parallel to o first mirror. The angle between two mirrors is (A) 30o (B) 60o o (C) 75 (D) 90o In a concave mirror, an object is placed at a distance x1, from focus, and image is formed at a distance x2 form focus. Then focal length of mirror is (A) (C)

12. Which one of the following statements is true? t (A) Both, light and sound waves can travel in vacuum (B) Both, light and sound waves in air are transverse (C) The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse (D) both, light and sound waves in air are longitudinal 13. The wave front of a distant source of unknown shape is approximately (A) spherical (B) cylindrical (C) elliptical (D) plane 14. The focal lengths of the objective and eye lenses of a telescope pre respectively 200 cm and 5 cm. The maximum magnifying power of the telescope will be (A) 40 (B) 48 (C) 60 (D) 100 15. Light takes 4.5 1010s to travel 10 cm in a transparent ent medium. The optical path length covered by it : (A) 11.5 cm (B) 13.5 cm (C) 15. 5 cm (D) 17.5 cm

x1 x 2

(B)

x1 + x2 2

x1 x2 2 x1 (D) x2

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ETS/PT ETS/PT-03, AIEEE -2010 16. A particle is moving at a constant speed from a large distance towards a concave mirror of radius R along the principle axis then the speed of image formed by mirror as a function of the distance x of the particle from the mirror will be (A) (C)

(A) d (1) 1) away from L (B) d (1) 1) towards L

R 2V (2 x R )2 R 2V (x R )2

(B) (D)

X 2V (2 x R )2
X 2V (x R )2

1 d 1 away from L 1 (D) d 1 towards L

(C) 22. The ratio of the intensity of visible red (600nm) to that of blue (400 nm) light scattered by earths atmosphere will be (A) 4 : 9 (B) 1 : 5 (C) 1 :16 (D) 16 :1 23. Statement 1: In optical fibre, the diameter of the core is kept small. Statement 2: The smaller diameter of the core ensures that the fibre should have incident angle more than the critical angle required for total internal reflection. (A) If Statement I is true, Stat Statement II is true, Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement I. (B) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not a correct explanation for Statement I. (C) If Statement I is true, Statement II is false. (D) If Statement I is false, Statement II is true. 24. Statement 1: Thin film such as soap bubble or a thin layer of oil on water show beautiful colours where illuminated by white light. Statement 2: It happens due to the interference of light reflected from upper and lower face of the thin film. (A) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement I. (B) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not a correct explanation for Statement I. (C) If Statement I is true, Statement II is false. (D) If Statement I is false, Statement II is true. 25. The speeds of light in two media I and II are 2.2 108 m/s and 2.4 108 m/s resp. The critical angle for light refracting from I to II medium will be
12 11 21 (C) sin1 24

17. A far sighted person cannot see objects placed closed to 50 cm. then the power of lens needed to see the objects at 20 cm will be (A) 3D (B) 2D (C) 0.5D (D) 0.3D 18. The thickness of the plate which w will produce a change in optical path equal to half the wave length of the light passing through it normally (the refractive index of the plate is ) will be (A) (C)

2( 1) 2( + 1)

(B) (D)

19. A slab of glass of thickness 3cm and refractive index

3 is placed with its face perpendicular 2

to the principle axis of the concave mirror. If the radius of mirror is 10 cm, the distance at which an object must be placed from the mirror so that the image coincides with the object is (A) 9 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 11cm (D) 12 cm 20. In youngs double slit experiment, the intensity at the bright fringe is I0, when two identical slits are used one of the slit is now covered. The new intensity at any point on the screen will be I (A) I 0 (B) 0 (C)

2 I0

2 2

2 I (D) 0 4

21. A real image I is formed by a converging lens L on its optic axis. An introduction of a rectangular glass slab of thickness d and refractive index between the image ima and lens the image displaced by

(A) sin1

11 12 24 (D) sin1 21

(B) sin1

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ETS/PT ETS/PT-03, AIEEE -2010 26. A light ray is incident normally on the face AB of a right angle prism ABC ( = 1.5) as shown in the fig, then the value of angle for which the light t ray is totally reflected at the surface AC will be 30. A narrow slit S transmitting light of wave length is placed a distance d above a large plane mirror as shown in figure.
P S d

2 3 1 1 (C) cos 3
(A)

cos1

(B)

cos1

1 2

(D) sin 1

2 3

The light coming directly from the slit and that coming after the reflection interfere at a screen placed at distance D from the slit. At what distance from O does the first maximum maxim occur (A)

27. In the situation as shown in the figure the position of image formed after refraction will be (a) 100 cm (b) 50 cm (c) 75 cm (d) 25 cm
=1
s k
25 cm

D 4d

(B)

D 2d

(C)

D d

(D)

2D d

=1.5 c
20 cm

CHEMISTRY 31. Addition of HBr to propene proceeds by which type of mechanism (A) Electrophilic addition (B) Electrophilic substitution (C) Nucleophilic addition (D) Free radical addition 32. (CH3)3CMgCl on reaction with D2O produces (A) (CH3)3CD (B) (CH3)3OD (C) (CD3)3CD (D) (CD3)3OD 33. Cottrell precipitator is used to (A) precipitate mud from muddy water (B) precipitate carbo carbon particles from smoke (C) purify the ordinary drinking water (D) precipitate salts in qualitative analysis. 34. Rhombic sulphur is the stable allotropic form at room temperature. Above room temperature, the following reaction occurs: S(r) S(m). At 298K and 1atm, if H=276.14 J and G = 75.31 J , then at what temperature, both the allotropes are in equilibrium ? (A) 412.15 K (B) 298 K (C) 406 K (D) 273 K 35. Cow milk is an example of natural emulsion stabilized by (A) Fat (B) Water (C) Casein (D) Mg+2 ions

28. A thin lens made of a material of refractive index 2 has a medium of refractive index 1 on one side and a medium of refractive index 3 on the other side. The lens is biconvex and the two radii of curvature have equal magnitude R. A beam of light travelling parallel to the principle axis is incident on the lens. Than the position of the image formed when the light incident from the medium having refractive index 1will be (A) (C)

3 R 2 2 1 3

2 R 23 + 1 + 2

3 R 2 2 + 1 + 3 2 R (D) 23 1 2
(B)

29. Two plane mirror A and B we kept parallel to each other as shown in the figure. A light ray is incident at an angle of 30 at a point just inside one end at A. the plane of incident coincides with the plane of figure. The maximum number of times the ray under goes reflection before the emerges out (A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 32 (D) 34

0.2 m

30

2 3m

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ETS/PT ETS/PT-03, AIEEE -2010

36. Which of the following alkenes do not responds to Beayers reagent test or Bromine Bromine carbon tetrachloride test ? (A) CH3 CH = CH CH3 (B) (CH3)2C = C(CH3)2 (C) CH3 CH = CH2 (D) C6H6 CH = CH2 37. Which shape selective catalyst is used to convert alcohol to gasoline ? (A) Trypsin (B) Calgon (C) ZSM-5 (D) Zeigler Zeigler-Natta catalyst 38. The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is 119.5 kJ mol1. If resonance energy of benzene is 150.4kJ 150.4kJ mol1, its enthalpy of hydrogenation would be (A) 358.5kJ mol 1 (B) 508.9kJ mol1 1 (C) 208.1kJ mol (D) 269.9kJ mol1 39. A heat engine absorbs heat q1 from a source at temperature T1 and heat q2 from a source at temperature T2. Work done is found to be J (q1 + q2). This is in accordance with (A) first law of thermodynamics (B) second law of thermodynamics (C) Joules equivalent law (D) none of the above 40. Select the properties which are for lyophobic colloidal sols : (i) Surface tension same as that of the medium (ii) Viscosity higher than that of the medium (iii) irreversible nature (iv) particles can be detected under ultramicroscope (B) 1, 3, 4 (A) 1, 2, 3 (C) 2, 3, 4 (D) 2, 4 41. Which of the following indicates the heat of reaction equal to heat of formation ? (A) C(graphite) + O2(1 atm) CO2 (1 atm) (B) C(diamond) + O2(1 atm) CO2 (2 atm) (C) C(graphite) + O2(1 atm) CO2 (2 atm) (D) C(diamond) + O2(1 atm) CO2 (1 atm) 42. Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes (A) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned (B) Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their action (C) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function functi at very high temperature (T 1000 K) (D) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well-defined defined active sites.

43. Hydrogen is not obtained when Zn reached with (A) Cold water (B) Dil H2 SO4 (C) Dil HCl (D) 20% NaOH 44. The structure of H2O2 is : H (A) H O O H (B) O O H

H (C) H O O H (D) H O O 45. Which one of the following processes will produce hard water ? (A) Saturation of water with MgCO3 (B) Saturation of water with CaSO4 (C) Addition of Na2SO4to water (D) Saturation of water with CaCO3 46. Which of the following represents the given mode of hybridization sp2 sp2spsp from to right ? (A) H2C C CH CH (B) HC C C CH (C) H2C C CH2 C (D) H2C CH2

47. Which of the following is most stable (A) CCl3CH(OH)2 (B) (CH3)2.C.(OH)2 (C) CH3C.Cl(OH)2 (D) CH3CH(OH)2 48. In the following compounds
O

(I)
N H

(II)
N

(III)
N H

(IV
N H

The order of basicity is : (A) IV > I > III > II (B) III > I > IV > II (C) II > I > III > IV (D) I > III > II > IV 49. The two compounds shown in the figure below are
O or O

(A) diastereomers (C) epimers

(B) enantiomers (D) regiomers

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ETS/PT ETS/PT-03, AIEEE -2010

50. In the following structures, which two forms are staggered conformations of ethane ?
H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H (2) H H H H H H H

(1)

(3) H (A) 1 and 4 (C) 1 and 2

(4)

(B) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3

51. Which pair does not show hydrogen isotopes? (A) ortho and para hydrogen (B) protium and deuterium (C) deuterium and tritium (D) tritium and protium 52. Among CaH2, NH3, NaH and B2H6, which are covalent hydrides ? (A) NH3 and B2H6 (B) NaH and CaH2 (C) NaH and NH3 (D) CaH2 and B2H6 53. What is the volume of 20 volume H2O2 required to produce 5000 cm3 of oxygen at NTP ? (A) 125 cm3 (B) 250 cm3 (C) 450 cm3 (D) 100cm3 54. In evaporation of water H and S are : (A) +, + (B) +, (C) , (D) , + 55. An organic compound A (C5H8) on hydrogenation gives compound B (C5H12). Compound A on ozonolysis give methanol and 2Ketopropanal. Ketopropanal. What is A ? CH3 (A) CH2= C CH3 (B) CH2= C C CH CH = CH2

56. Which statement is wrong (A) Ordinary hydrogen is an equilibrium mixture of ortho and para hydrogen (B) In ortho hydrogen spin of two nuclei is in same direction (C) Ortho and para forms do not resemble in their chemical properties (D) In para hydrogen spin of two nuclei is in opposite posite direction 57. H2O2 is prepared in laboratory when (A) MnO2 is added to dil cold H2SO4 (B) BaO2 is added to CO2 bubbling through cold water (C) PbO2 is added to an acidified solution of KMnO4 (D) Na2 O2 is added to boiling water 58. The reaction
O R C X + Nu R C Nu O +X

Is fastest when X is (A) OCOR (C) NH2

(B) OC2H5 (D) Cl

59. Identify the correct statement regarding a spontaneous process : (A) Endothermic processes are never spontaneous. (B) Exothermic processes are always spontaneous. (C) Lowering of energy in the reaction process is the only criterion for spontaneity (D) For a spontaneous process in an isolated system, the change in entropy is positive. 60. Calculate the enthalpy of vaporization of SO2 at 25C , if the same at its b.pt. (10 ( C) be 5950 cal/mol. Given the molar heat capacities, Cp(l)= 20.6 cal/mol and Cp(g) = 9.3 cal / mol (A) 6119.5 cal/mol (B) 5780.5 cal/mol (C) 5950 cal/mol (D) None

(C) CH3

C = C = CH2 CH3 CH3

(D) CH3

CH

CH2

CH3

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ETS/PT ETS/PT-03, AIEEE -2010 (C) 2355 1111 (D) none of these

MATHEMATICS

61. If the line ax + by + c =0 is a tangent to the

curve xy =4, then (A) a > 0, b > 0 (C) a < 0, b > 0 (B) a > 0, b < 0 (D) None of these

62. If the angle between the straight lines joining foci and the ends of minor axis of the ellipse x2 y2 + = 1 is 90, then the eccentricity is a2 b2 1 3 (A) (B) 2 2 (C) 1 (D) none of these 2 63. The portion of a tangent to a parabola y2 = 4ax cut off between the directrix and the curve subtends an angle at the focus, where is equal to (A) (B) 3 4 (C) (D) none of these 2 64. A hyperbola, having the transverse axis of length 2 sin, is conforcal with the ellipse 3x2 + 4y2 = 12. Then, its equation equa is (A) x2 cosec2 y2 sec2 =1 (B) x2 cos2 y2 sin2 =1 (C) x2 sec2 y2 cosec2 =1 (D) x2 sin2 y2 cos2 =1 65. If the tangent to the curve xy + ax + by = 0 at (1, 1) is inclined at an angle tan1 2 with xaxis, then (A) a = 1, b =2 (B) a = 1, b =2 (C) a = 1, b =2 (D) a =1, b =2 66. The longest distance of the point (a, 0) from the curve 2x2 + y2 2x = 0 is given by (A) 1 2a + a2 (B) 1 + 2a + 2a 2 (C) 1 + 2a a 2 (D) 1 2a + 2a 2 67. Axis is of parabola is y =x and vertex and focus are at a distance 2 and 2 2 respectively from the origin. Then equation of the parabola is (A) (x y)2 = 8(x + y 2) (B) (x + y)2 = 4(x + y 2) (C) (x y)2 = 4(x y 2) (D) (x y)2 = 2(x y + 2) 68. The value of 2.357 is (A) 2355 (B) 2355 999 1000

69. A parabola is drawn with its focus at (3, 4) and vertex at the focus of the parabola y2 12x 4y + 4 =0. The equation of the parabola is (A) y2 8x 6y + 25=0 (B) y2 6x + 8y 25=0 (C) x2 6x 8y + 25=0 (D) x2 + 6x 8y 25=0 70. If p, p' denote the lengths of the perpendiculars ars from the focus and the centre of an ellipse with semi major axis of length a respectively on a tangent to the ellipse and r denotes the focal distance of the point, then (A) a p' = rp + 1 (B) rp = a p' (C) ap = r p' + 1 (D) ap = r p' 71. Locus of the point which divides double ordinate of the ellipse 1:2 internally, is

x2 y2 + = 1 in the ratio a 2 b2
(B)

x2 9 y2 1 = 9 a2 b2 2 2 9x 9 y (C) 2 + 2 = 1 a b
(A)

x2 9 y2 + =1 a2 b2

(D) none of these

72. From any point on the hyperbola

x2 y2 =1 a2 b2

, tangents are drawn to the hyperbola

x2 y2 cut-off by the chord-of = 2 . The area cut a2 b2

contact on the asymptotes is equal to (A)

ab 2

(B) ab

(C) 2ab (D) 4ab 73. The equation of the ellipse whose axes are coincident with the coordinate axes and which touches the straight lines 3x2y20=0 and x+6y20=0, is

x2 y2 x2 y2 + = 1 (B) + = 10 5 8 40 10 x2 y2 x2 y 2 (C) + = 1 (D) + =1 40 10 10 40

(A) 74. Let C be the centre of the hyperbola

x2 y2 = 1 . The tangent at any point p on a 2 b2

this hyperbola meets the straight lines bx ay =0 and bx + ay =0 at the points Q and R respectively. Then, CQ.CR is equal to

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ETS/PT ETS/PT-03, AIEEE -2010 (A) a2 b2 (C) 1 + 1 a 2 b2 (B) a2 + b2 (D) 1 1 a2 b2

75. A normal to the hyperbola

x2 y2 = 1 meets a2 b2

transverse and conjugate axes in M and N and the lines MP and NP are drawn at right angle to the axes. The locus of P is (A) the parabola y2 =4a(x + b) (B) the circle x2 + y2 =ab (C) the ellipse b2x2 + a2y2 = a2 + b2 (D) the hyperbola a2x2 b2y2 =(a2 + b2)2
2 2 76. The eccentricity of the ellipse x + y = 1 is

changed at the rate of 0.1 per second. The time at which it will touch the auxiliary circle is (A) 2s (B) 3s (C) 5s (D) 6s 77. The focal chord to y2 = 16x is tangent to (x6)2 + y2 =2, then the possible values of the slope of this chord are (A) {2, 2} (B) {2, 1/2} (C) {1, 1} (D) {2, 1/2} 78. Tangent is drawn to ellipse
x2 + y 2 = 1 at 27

the (3 3cos , sin ) where 0, . Then, 2 value of such that the sum of intercepts on axes made by this tangent is minimum, is (A) (B) 3 6 (C) (D) 8 4 79. The tangent at the point P(x1, y1) to the parabola y2 = 4ax meets the parabola y2 = 4a (x + b) at Q and R, the coordinates of the mid-point mid of QR are (A) (x1 a, y1 + b) (B) (x1, y1) (C) (x1 + b, y1 + a) (D) (x1 b, y1 b) 80. If an ellipse slides between two perpendicular straight lines, then the locus of its centre is (A) a parabola (B) an ellipse (C) a hyperbola (D) a circle 81. If P, Q,R are three points on a parabola y2 = 4ax whose ordinates are in geometrical progression, then the tangents at P and R meet on (A) The line through Q parallel to x x-axis (B) The line through Q parallel to y y-axis (C) The line joining Q to the vertex (D) The line joining Q to the focus.

82. The point of intersection of the tangents to the parabola y2 = 4x at the points where the circle (x 3)2 + y2 = 9 meets the parabola, other than the origin, is (A) (2, 0) (B) (1, 0) (C) (0, 0) (D) (1, 1) 83. If PQ is a focal chord of the parabola y2 = 4ax with focus at S, then 2 SP.SQ = SP + SQ (A) a (B) 2a (C) 4a (D) a2 84. If the tangent at P () on the ellipse 16x2 + 11y2 = 256 touches the circle x2 + y2+ 2x = 15, then = (A) /6 (B) /3 (C) 2/3 (D) 5/6 85. The locus of the points of intersection of the tangents at the extremities of the chords of the ellipse x2 + 2y2 = 6 which touch the ellipse x2 + 4y2 = 4 is (A) x2 + y2 = 4 (B) x2 + y2 = 6 (C) x2 + y2 = 9 (D) None of these 86. If P is a point on the rectangular hyperbola x2 y2 = a2 , C is its centre and S, S are the two foci, then SP. S P = (A) 2 (B) (CP)2 2 (C) (CS) (D) (SS)2 87. Equation of a common tangent to the curves y2 = 8x and xy = 1 is (A) 3y = 9x + 2 (B) y = 2x + 1 (C) 2y = x + 8 (D) y = x + 2 88. The tangent at a point P on the ellipse, which is not an extremity of major axis meets a directrix at T. Statement 1: The circle on PT as diameter passes through the focus of the ellipse corresponding to the directrix on which T lies. Statement 1: PT subjects a right angle at the fcus of the ellipse corresponding to the direcrix on which T lies. (A) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement I. (B) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not a correct explanation for Statement I. (C) If Statement I is true, Statement II is false. (D) If Statement I is false, Statement II is true.

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ETS/PT ETS/PT-03, AIEEE -2010

89. Statement 1: The tangents at the extremities of a focal cord of the parabola y2 = 4ax intersect on the line x + a = 0. Statement2: The locus of the point of intersection of perpendicular tangents to the parabola is its directrix. (A) If Statement I is true, Statement II I is true, Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement I. (B) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not a correct explanation for Statement I. (C) If Statement I is true, Statement II is false. (D) If Statement I is false, Sta Statement II is true.

90. y2 = 4x is the equation of a parabola. Statement 1: Through (, + 1), 3 normals can be drown to the parabola, if < 2 Statement 1: The point (, + 1) lies outside the parabola for all 1 (A) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement I. (B) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not a correct explanation for Statement I. (C) If Statement I is true, Statement II is false. (D) If Statement I is false, Statement II is true.

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Endeavour classes, 4th Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi-1, Ranchi Ph.-0651 0651- 2563739 / 40 Email: endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in Help line 09708037020 /21 / 22