VIRUS , ANTIVIRUS AND NETWORK SECURITY Practice set networking and security: connecting computers and keeping them

safe from hackers and viruses MULTIPLE CHOICE: 1. Which of the following is NOT an example of a network node? printer computer NOS network operating system modem 2. The network architecture used in most home networks is: client-server LAN. peer-to-peer LAN. client-server WAN. peer-to-peer WAN. 3. You must install a(n) ____________ on a network if you want to share a broadband Internet connection. router modem node cable 4. Which of the following statements concerning peer-to-peer networks is FALSE? A peer-to-peer network is the most common example of a locally controlled network. Peer-to-peer networks cost more than client/server networks and are more difficult to maintain. Each node on a peer-to-peer network can communicate directly with every other node on the network. Peer-to-peer networks are the most common type of home network. 5. The design of the network is called the network: architecture. server. transmission. type. 6. Data transfer rate (also called bandwidth) is the ____________ speed at which data can be transmitted between two nodes on a network. average minimum actual maximum 7. ____________ are the navigation devices that act as the traffic cops of the network and forward packets to nodes on the same network (not between two networks). NICs Routers Switches Modems 8. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning Ethernet networks? Cat 5e UTP cable is recommended for Ethernet networks. Cat 5 UTP supports a data transmission rate of 1 Gbps. Ethernet typically uses an RJ-45 connector. When using UTP, a cable run cannot exceed 328 feet. 9. Devices installed on long cable runs to amplify the signal are called: repeaters. adapters. switches. routers. 10. A network navigation device that merely retransmits a signal to all other nodes attached to it is a(n): router. NIC. C. hub. D. adapter.

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11. The network navigation device known as a smart hub that transmits a signal only to the node to which it should be sent is a(n): router. switch. NIC. adapter. 12. A ____________ is a device, contained in a wireless network adapter, that translates the electronic data on a network into radio waves and broadcasts the radio waves to other nodes on the network. router switch hub transceiver 13. A switch is also known as a(n): smart hub. DSL modem. smart router. cable modem. 14. When creating a phone line network, it is necessary to install a(n) ____________ adapter. wireless phone cord home phoneline network Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) 15. ____________ adapters, used on a power-line network, are available in either USB or Ethernet versions. Power-line network Peer-to-peer network Phoneline network Wireless network 16. All of the following statements concerning client/server networks are true EXCEPT: one computer on a client/server network must act as a server. there is no centralized security or administration on a client/server network. most networks that have 10 or more nodes are client/server networks. the Internet is an example of a client/server network. 17. Which of the following types of network adapter card is most likely to be preinstalled in a typical home computer? Ethernet power-line adapter wireless adapter HPNA adapter 18. If a home network is connected to the Internet a ____________ is required to send data between the two networks. router repeater switch network operating system 19. CAT 5, CAT 5E, and CAT 6 are all types of: network adapters. Ethernet ports. UTP cables. connector jacks. 20. A wireless network uses ____________ as its transmission media. cables radio waves twisted pair D. fiber optics

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21. The main difference between the various 802.11 standards is the: data transfer rate. maximum allowable cable length. simplicity of installation. collision detection rate. 22. The transceiver is the device that converts electronic data into ____________ for broadcast to other network nodes. packets radio waves WAPs 802.11 standards 23. If you wish to extend the length of the network without having the signal degrade, you would use a: repeater. router. gateway. switch. 24. If computers in a wireless network are unable to connect to the wireless router, adding a(n) ____________ extends the range of the wireless network by providing a second point to which the nodes can connect to the network. router Internet portal cable modem wireless access point 25. In network terminology, a(n) ____________ is a wireless router that combines the capabilities of a wired router with the ability to receive wireless signals. hub gateway adapter Ethernet port 26. If you frequently need to transfer streaming video or very large files between computers, which of the following networks would be the best choice? Ethernet wireless power-line phoneline 27. The ____________ operating system assists with configuring home networks with a Network Setup Wizard. Windows 98 Windows ME Windows XP DOS 28. In a(n) ____________ network, any electrical outlet provides a network connection. wireless power-line phoneline Ethernet 29. In a(n) ____________ network, any phone jack provides a network connection. phoneline power-line 802.11g Ethernet 30. A computer virus attaches itself to and attempts to hide within the code of a(n) ____________ program. zombie Trojan horse host worm

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31. ____________ viruses replicate themselves to the Master Boot Record whenever the computer boots up, ensuring that the virus will be loaded into memory before some virus protection programs are loaded . Zombie Trojan horse Worm Boot-sector 32. ____________ viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy disk drive. Boot-sector Trojan horse Script Logic bomb 33. ____________ are viruses that are triggered when certain logical conditions are met. Boot-sector viruses Logic bombs Macro viruses Worms 34. ____________viruses attach themselves to documents such as Word and Excel. Boot-sector Trojan horse DOS Macro 35. A numbered communication gateway or path, used to organize requests for information, that is assigned for a commonly used network service such as SMTP or HTTP is called a: protocol. physical port. logical port. packet filter. 36. Which of the following would most likely NOT be a symptom of a virus? Existing program files and icons disappear. The CD-ROM stops functioning. The Web browser opens to an unusual home page. Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen. 37. Blocking access to logical ports is a common method used by ____________ for maximizing computer security. switches Web browsers firewalls access points 38. ____________ are a series of commands, actually mini programs that are executed without your knowledge. Scripts Trojan horses Worms Boot-sector viruses 39. A firewalls ability to examine incoming and outgoing information and prevent the use of unauthorized logical ports is known as: packet filtering. logical port blocking. Network Address Translation. network key distribution. 40. Classifications of viruses by the methods they take to avoid detection by antivirus software include all of the following EXCEPT: polymorphic. multipartite. encryption. stealth.

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41. The purpose of Network Address Translation is to: translate an IP address to a text-based URL. hide user IP addresses from the Internet. convert logical ports to physical port configurations. dynamically assign IP addresses via an ISP. 42. When you set up a router for a wireless network, the router uses a default network name known as the: service set identifier (SSID). router address. MAC address. IP identifier. 43. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) and Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) are examples of: packet filtering services. network address translation protocols. security protocols. service set identifiers. 44. A ____________ is the name given to a computer that is controlled by hackers through the installation of a backdoor program and used to flood a target computer with bogus requests. zombie worm DoS Trojan horse 45. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) and Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) use ____________ to protect data. packet filtering network address translation encryption service set identifiers 46. ____________ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date. Boot-sector viruses Macro viruses Time bombs Worms 47. Unlike other viruses, ____________ are viruses that can run independently of host file execution and are much more active in spreading themselves. boot-sector viruses time bombs Trojan horses worms 48. ____________ viruses temporarily erase their code from the files where they reside and hide in active memory. Multipartite Stealth Polymorphic Script 49. All of the following are recommended to secure a wireless network EXCEPT: changing the default password on your router. turning on security protocols. using static IP addressing. restricting access to the network to certain MAC addresses. 50. If a virus signature or other suspicious activity is detected by the antivirus software, it places the virus in a secure area of the hard drive so that it wont spread infection to other files. This procedure is known as: inoculation. automatic updating. encryption. quarantining.

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FILL IN THE BLANK: 51. The Internet is a good example of a(n) ____________ network. Answer: client/server 52. A(n) ____________ network is one in which each computer can communicate directly with each other, instead of having a separate device exercise central control over the entire network. Answer: peer-to-peer (P2P) 53. A(n) ____________ network is one in which the nodes are located within a small geographical area. Answer: local area network (LAN 54. ____________ cable consists of a single copper wire surrounded by layers of plastic and is used to connect cable TV. Answer: Coaxial 55. Normal telephone wire is composed of ____________ cable, which consists of copper wires wrapped around each other and covered in a plastic jacket. Answer: twisted pair 56. All network nodes (computers and peripherals) are connected to each other and to the network by ____________. Answer: transmission media 57. ____________ transfer packets of data between two or more networks. Answer: Routers 58. Bundles of data sent over transmission media are called ____________. Answer: packets 59. The 802.11 wireless standard is also known as ____________. Answer: WiFi (Wireless Fidelity) 60. Windows Server 2003 is an example of specialized software known as ____________ software . Answer: network operating system (NOS) 61. ____________ viruses, the newest form of virus, compress common data files into a file using a complex encryption key rendering your files unusable. Answer: Encryption 62. A(n) ____________ is required for each node on a wireless network . Answer: wireless network adapter 63. The best defense against viruses is to install ____________, which is software specifically designed to detect viruses and protect your computer. Answer: antivirus software 64. When setting up a network, each computer on the network needs a(n) ____________ so that the network can identify it and know which computer is requesting data and services so that the data can be delivered correctly. Answer: unique name 65. ____________ networks move data through the network using conventional phone lines. Answer: Phone line 66. When setting up a wireless network, using Windows XP, the ____________ encryption is recommended for the best security. Answer: WPA Wi-Fi Protected Access 67. Using millions of computers during their inactive periods to provide a network-based maximization of productivity is called ____________ computing. Answer: grid 68. Anyone who breaks into a computer system (an individual computer or a network) is generally referred to as a(n) ____________. Answer: hacker 69. A(n) ____________ is a computer program that investigates data packets as they travel through the network and is often used by hackers to capture sensitive or private data to use for illegal purposes. Answer: packet sniffer 70. A(n) ____________ is a program that appears to be something useful or desirable (like a game or a screen saver) but actually does something malicious in the background. Answer: Trojan horse 71. When legitimate users are denied access to a computer system due to repeated bogus requests made by a hacker through a zombie computer systems, this is called a(n) ____________. Answer: denial of service (DoS) attack 72. ____________ is characterized by someone using personal information about you to assume your identity for the purpose of defrauding others. Answer: Identity theft 73. ____________ are software programs or hardware devices designed to keep computers safe from hackers. Answer: Firewalls 74. 128.15.9.21 is an example of a(n) ____________. Answer: Internet Protocol (IP) address 75. The process firewalls use to assign internal IP addresses on a network (which are not shared with devices not on the network) so the address is safe from hackers is called ____________. Answer: Network Address Translation (NAT)

TRUE AND FALSE: 76. Wide Area Networks (WANs) are made up of LANs connected over long distances. Answer: True 77. Networking standards set by organizations such as the IEEE make it easier for manufacturers to produce devices that work with a variety of computers and peripherals. Answer: True 78. Throughput is the maximum speed at which data can be transferred. Answer: False (Data transfer rate / bandwidth) 79. Public places at which you can wirelessly connect to the Internet are known as hot spots. Answer: True 80. A Trojan horse program can install backdoor programs that allow hackers to take almost complete control of your computer without your knowledge. Answer: True 81. If a firewall is configured to ignore all incoming packets on a particular logical port, this is known as packet filtering. Answer: False (logical port blocking) 82. Static addressing means retaining the same IP address for a period of time. Answer: True 83. Dynamic addressing makes broadband users more vulnerable to hackers because the hackers have a more permanent IP address with which to locate the computer. Answer: False (Static) 84. Some popular software firewalls are BlackICE PC Protection and ZoneAlarm. Answer: True 85. Mac OS X does not support peer-to-peer networking. Answer: False (it does) 86. LANs are made up of WANs connected over long distances. Answer: False (WANs are made up of LANs) 87. A computer viruss main purpose is to replicate itself and copy its code to as many other files as possible. Answer: True 88. Time bombs are viruses that are triggered when certain logical conditions are met. Answer: False (logic bombs)

MATCHING: 89. Match the following devices to their purposes: I. switch A. enables individual nodes to communicate in a network II. adapter B. converts digital signals to radio waves III. repeater C. facilitates data packet transmission IV. wireless transceiver D. sends data packets between networks V. router E. amplifies signals to prevent degradation on long cables Answer: C, A, E, B, D Match the following terms to their meanings: I. packet A. software that controls an installed hardware device II. Wi-Fi B. server-side software that controls network communications III. driver C. unit of data transmitted in a network IV. NOS D. software that is written to read-only memory V. firmware E. another name for the 802.11 standard Answer: C, E, A, B, D Match the following computer threats to their meanings: I. logic bomb A. virus that executes based on specified conditions II. Trojan horse B. software allowing hackers to take control of a computer III. backdoor program C. simultaneous requests from multiple zombie computers IV. DDoS D. program appearing to do useful work but doing harm in the background V. worm E. infectious program that runs independent of host files Answer: A, D, B, C, E 91. 90.

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Match the following terms to their meanings: I. logical port A. technique of assigning hidden internal IP addresses protected from hackers II. packet filtering B. virtual communication gateway for a specific service, such as HTTP or FTP III. static address C. method for selectively allowing certain requests to access ports IV. firewall D. hardware or software for protecting computers from hackers V. NAT E. IP number that is typically assigned for a long period of time Answer: B, C, E, D, A 93. Match the following acronyms to their meanings: I. WAN A. protocol for Internet-based e-mail formats II. Mbps B. type of transmission medium III. HPNA C. measure of data transfer IV. UTP D. type of network adapter V. SMTP E. network spanning a large geographical area Answer: E, C, D, B, A 94. Match the following acronyms to their definitions: I. HTTP A. protects IP addresses from hackers II. SMTP B. a protocol associated with Web pages III. HPNA C. a protocol used for e-mail IV. WAP D. an access point on a wireless network V. NAT E. a network adapter used on a phoneline network Answer: B, C, E, D, A 95. Match the following terms to their meanings: I. Wi-Fi A. a virus that changes its own code to avoid detection II. packet sniffer B. addresses are assigned out of available pool of IP addresses III. polymorphic virus C. also known as the 802.11 wireless standard IV. dynamic addressing D. a computer controlled by a hacker V. zombie E. a program that looks at each packet as it travels over the network Answer: C, E, A, B, D 96. Match the following acronyms to their definitions: I. FTP A. Internet service provider II. UTP B. a protocol used on the Internet for sending and receiving files III. ISP C. a type of denial of service attack IV. DDOS D. type of cable V. IP E. part of the TCP/IP suite of protocols Answer: B, D, A, C, E 97. Match the following terms to their meanings: I. firmware A. a list of commands (mini program) that is executed II. computer virus B. a program that executes whenever the computer boots up III. script C. read-only memory (ROM) that has software written to it IV. Master Boot Record D. a short series of commands that automates repetitive tasks V. macro E. a program that attaches itself to another program and attempts to spread itself to other computers through the exchange of files Answer: C, E, A, B, D Match the following acronyms to their definitions: I. WPA A. unique number assigned to the network adapter by the manufacturer II. SSID B. wireless security protocol III. MAC C. provides a means of wirelessly connecting to a network IV. WAP D. default network name used by a router V. WAN E. network made up of LANs Answer: B, D, A, C, E 99. Match the following terms to their meanings: I. bandwidth A. these devices handle data traffic between networks II. throughput B. these devices handle data traffic between nodes on the same network III. routers C. maximum speed at which data can be transmitted IV. switches D. a unique number assigned by the manufacturer to every NIC V. MAC address E. actual speed of data transfer Answer: C, E, A, B, D 98.

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Match the following terms to their meanings I. server A. two or more computers connected together via software so they can communicate II. client B. can be a computer, peripheral, or communication device III. network C. a network device that retransmits a signal to all nodes attached to it IV. node D. accomplishes specific tasks and makes requests on the network V. hub E. provides information, resources, and central control for functions on a network Answer: E, D, A, B, C

HARDWARE MULTIPLE CHOICE: A. B. C. D. 1. Any computer parts that you can actually touch are considered to be: hardware. software. systems. platforms. 2. The box that contains the central electronic components of the computer is the: motherboard. system unit. peripheral. input device. 3. Devices, such as monitors and printers, that are connected to the computer are called: processing devices. system devices. peripheral devices. input devices. 4. input output digital CRT A(n) ____________device enables you to enter data and instructions into the computer.

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5. A ____________, when attached to a computer, can translate a users handwriting into digital input. microphone graphics tablet digital camera keyboard 6. The most common input devices are the ____________ and the ____________. microphone, printer scanner, monitor digital camera, speakers keyboard, mouse 7. The most common keyboard uses the ____________ layout. Dvorak numeric QWERTY alpha 8. The ____________ on the keyboard enables you to enter numbers quickly. alphabetic keys numeric keypad Control keys Function keys 9. ____________ designed keyboards provide a more natural typing position for a users hands and help prevent repetitive strain injuries. Alphabetic QWERTY Dvorak Ergonomically

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10. The ____________ key and the ____________ key can be used in combination with other keys to perform shortcuts and special tasks. Control, Alt Function, toggle Delete, Insert Caps Lock, Num Lock 11. The Delete key, Num Lock key, and Caps Lock key are considered ____________ keys because their function changes each time you press them. Function toggle cursor control Control 12. ____________ keyboards are more compact and generally have fewer keys. Laptop Windows Macintosh QWERTY 13. An I-beam or an arrow is known as the mouse: control. button. input. pointer.

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A ____________ is the traditional way to enter data into a PDA and can be used on Tablet PCs for handwriting recognition. E. joystick F. trackball G. mouse H. stylus 14. The small, touch-sensitive screen at the base of the keyboard on a laptop is known as the: stylus. touchpad. game control. trackball. 15. A _______ allows you to capture sound waves and transfer them to digital format on your computer. speaker microphone keyboard stylus 16. A ____________ is an output device that creates tangible hard copies. monitor printer scanner CRT 17. The type of monitor that looks like a traditional television set is called a ____________ monitor. display cathode-ray tube (CRT) liquid crystal display (LCD) flat-panel 18. ____________ monitors use a technology similar to that used in digital watches. Cathode-ray tube (CRT) Graphics Electron beam Liquid crystal display (LCD)

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19. The ____________ is the number of times per second the electron beam scans the monitor and recharges the illumination of each pixel. refresh rate sharpness resolution dot pitch 20. ____________ printers have tiny hammer-like keys that strike the paper through an inked ribbon. Inkjet Impact Nonimpact Laser 21. Inkjet printers and laser printers are examples of ____________ printers. nonimpact impact dot-matrix thermal 22. ____________ are large printers used to produce oversize pictures that require precise continuous lines, such as maps and architectural plans. Dot-matrix printers Thermal printers Multifunction printers Plotters 23. A printers speed is measured in: dots per inch (dpi). color output. megabytes. pages per minute (ppm). 24. Restarting the system when it is already powered on is called: hibernation. standby mode. a warm boot. a cold boot. 25. ____________ is when the computer saves an image of the desktop and powers down. Standby mode A warm boot Hibernation A cold boot

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26. ____________ is when the more power-hungry components, such as the monitor and the hard drive, are put in idle. A. Hibernation B. Standby mode C. Power down D. The shutdown procedure 27. ____________ data and programs are stored in the hard drive. Random Volatile Nonpermanent Permanent 28. Hard disk drives are considered ____________ storage. nonvolatile flash temporary nonpermanent 29. All of the following storage media have Read and Write capabilities EXCEPT: flash memory cards. CD-ROMs. hard disk drives. floppy disks.

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30. ____________ are devices used to transmit data over telecommunications lines . Drives Drive bays Modems Platforms 31. The ____________ port sends data one bit at a time and is often used to connect a modem to the computer. USB serial parallel FireWire 32. The ____________ port transmits data in groups of bits, is faster than a serial port, and is generally used to connect a printer. Ethernet peripheral connectivity parallel 33. USB ports are fast replacing traditional ____________ and ____________ ports because of their ability to transfer data quickly. parallel, serial Ethernet, speaker video, audio monitor, modem 34. The ____________ port resembles a standard phone jack. FireWire peripheral modem serial 35. The ____________, housed inside the system unit, regulates the wall voltage to the voltages required by the computer chips. motherboard CPU RAM power supply 36. The ____________ enables your computer to connect to other computers. video card network interface card (NIC) sound card controller card 37. ____________ plug into the expansion slots on the motherboard. Ports Expansion boards USB devices Drive bays 38. ____________ is referred to as primary storage. RAM ROM The CPU The system unit 39. RAM is considered volatile storage, which means it is: permanent. random. read-only. temporary.

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40. ____________ is a form of permanent memory that holds all the instructions the computer needs to start up and does not get erased when the power is turned off. RAM ROM The CPU The NIC 41. ____________ is the applied science concerned with designing and arranging things that people use so that the people and things interact most efficiently and safely . Ergonomics Positioning Occupational safety Repetitive strain prevention 42. ____________ speed is measured in nanoseconds. Modem RAM Expansion board Hard disk drive 43. A(n) ____________ is a combination of hardware and software that facilitates the sharing of information between computing devices. expansion board digital device network peripheral 44. In addition to connecting your computer to a network, the Ethernet port can be used to connect to: a printer. a modem. a DSL modem. a digital camera. 45. Flash drives plug into a(n): USB port. serial port. expansion slot. drive bay. 46. Storage devices, such as floppy disk drives and Zip disk drives that are no longer standard on many new computers, are known as ____________ technologies. peripheral combo legacy media 47. ____________ ports and ____________ ports are considered connectivity ports. Parallel, USB USB, audio Modem, Ethernet Audio, video 48. ____________ is a series of small cards (called memory cards or memory modules) that plug into slots on the motherboard. RAM ROM The CPU The power supply FILL IN THE BLANK: 49. The central electronic components of the computer are located in the ____________. Answer: system unit 50. ____________ devices, such as monitors, modems, and printers, are devices that are externally connected to the computer. Answer: Peripheral

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51. The cursor control keys are also known as the ____________ keys. Answer: arrow 52. QWERTY is a type of ____________. Answer: keyboard 53. ____________ keys sometimes perform different functions for different software packages. Answer: Function (F) 54. A(n)____________ mouse uses an internal sensor or laser instead of a rollerball, and therefore does not need a mousepad. Answer: optical 55. ____________ keyboards have a much shorter range than radio frequency (RF) keyboards. Answer: Bluetooth 56. ____________ technology allows a person sitting at a computer equipped with a personal video camera and a microphone to transmit video and audio across the Internet. Answer: Videoconferencing 57. In ____________ systems, you operate your computer through a microphone, telling it to perform specific commands or translate spoken words into data input. Answer: speech-recognition 58. Regarding monitors, the higher the ____________, the sharper and clearer the image. Answer: resolution 59. A cathode-ray tube (CRT) monitor is a grid made up of millions of ____________. Answer: pixels 60. A monitors refresh rate is measured in ____________, a unit of frequency indicating cycles per second. Answer: hertz (Hz) 61. Less expensive LCD monitors use ____________ displays. Answer: passive-matrix 62. A smaller ____________ means that there is less blank space between pixels, and thus a sharper, clearer image. Answer: dot pitch 63. The most common impact printer is the ____________ printer. Answer: dot-matrix 64. Although more expensive to buy than inkjet printers, ____________ printers are more economical for highvolume black-and-white printing. Answer: laser 65. A printers resolution is measured in ____________. Answer: dots per inch (dpi) 66. Two power-management settings on a computer are ____________ and ____________. Answer: hibernation and Stand By mode 67. The ____________, generally located in an internal drive bay, holds all permanently stored programs and data. Answer: hard disk drive 68. ____________drives, sometimes referred to as jump drives or thumb drives, are a newer alternative to storing portable data. Answer: Flash 69. ____________ are the places on the system unit where peripheral devices attach to the computer. Answer: Ports 70. Typical ____________ cards, found in the system unit are the sound card and the video card. Answer: expansion (or adapter) 71. The ____________ is the largest printed circuit board to which all other boards are connected. Answer: motherboard 72. ____________ is the storage space nearby the CPU where data and commands are stored and can be located, opened, and delivered to the CPU for processing in a few billionths of a second. Answer: RAM 73. A monitor that doubles as an input device is known as a(n) ____________. Answer: touch-screen monitor 74. The speed of RAM is measured in ____________ (billionths of a second). Answer: nanoseconds 75. The port that resembles a standard telephone jack and uses a traditional telephone signal for connectivity is the ____________ port. Answer: modem 76. Devices such as digital video cameras, MP3 players, and digital media players benefit from using a(n) ____________ port, one of the newer and faster interfaces available, which can transfer data from 400 Mbps to 800 Mbps. Answer: FireWire

TRUE AND FALSE: 77. The Dvorak keyboard is the leading alternative to the QWERTY keyboard. Answer: True 78. The four main functions of a computer are: input the data, process the data, output the data or information, and communicate the data or information. Answer: False (store) 79. When toggled off, the Insert key replaces or overwrites existing characters with new characters as you type. Answer: True 80. One of the disadvantages of a liquid crystal display (LCD) monitor is its limited viewing angle. Answer: True 81. There are two types of CRT monitors on the market: passive-matrix displays and active-matrix displays. Answer: False (LCD) 82. In CRT monitors, the faster the refresh rate, the more the screen will flicker and the more eyestrain you will experience. Answer: False 83. Studies have shown that users of MP3 players may experience hearing damage due to excessive volume from ear buds. Answer: True 84. Thermal printers are ideal for mobile computing because they are compact, lightweight, and require no ink cartridges. Answer: True 85. Modern operating systems recommend that users shut down the system by pushing the main power button. Answer: False 86. You can take a computer out of standby mode by tapping a key on the keyboard or by moving the mouse. Answer: True 87. CRT monitors cause less eyestrain than LCD monitors. Answer: False 88. Data projectors are devices used to project images from your computer onto a wall or viewing screen for use in conference rooms and classrooms. Answer: True 89. USB ports can connect a wide variety of peripherals to the computer, including keyboards, printers, mice, and digital cameras. Answer: True 90. When purchasing a new CRT monitor, choose one with the highest refresh rate, the highest maximum resolution, and the smallest dot pitch. Answer: True 91. Speakers connect to the VGA port. Answer: False (audio) MATCHING: 92. Match the following terms with their meanings: I. port A. provides power to and controls all the expansion boards II. CRT B. a type of monitor III. NIC C. the place on the system where a peripheral device is attached IV. motherboard D. enables a computer to connect to other computers V. nanosecond E. one billionth of a second Answer: C, B, D, A, E 93. Match the following ports with the devices most likely to be connected to them: I. VGA port A. flash drive II. parallel port B. monitor III. serial port C. printer IV. Ethernet port D. modem V. USB port E. DSL or cable modem Answer: B, C, D, E, A 94. Match the following acronyms with their functions: I. CPU A. type of technology used on a flat-screen monitor II. RAM B. standard keyboard layout III. ROM C. temporary storage, also known as primary storage IV. LCD D. controls all the other functions performed by the computers othe r components and processes all the commands issued to it by software instructions V. QWERTY E. permanent storage that is not erased when the computers power is turned off Answer: D, C, E, A, B

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Match the following terms with their meanings: I. stylus A. an input device used to enter data on a PDA II. hertz (Hz) B. the clearness or sharpness of an image III. resolution C. temporary IV. volatile D. a unit of frequency indicating cycles per second V. system unit E. contains the central electronic components of the computer Answer: A, D, B, C, E 96. Match the following terms with their meanings: I. peripheral devices A. an example of permanent storage II. modem port B. external devices that exchange data with the computer through ports III. dot-matrix C. an example of an impact printer IV. ergonomics D. an example of a connectivity port V. hard disk drive E. the science involved with minimizing the risk of injury or discomfort Answer: B, D, C, E, A Match the following terms with their meanings: I. CD-ROM A. an example of a nonimpact printer II. audio ports B. a type of LCD monitor III. pixels C. used to connect headphones, microphones, and speakers to the computer IV. active-matrix display D. an example of read-only storage V. ink-jet E. a CRT screen is made up of millions of these Answer: D, C, E, B, A 98. Match the following terms with their meanings: I. refresh rate A. measurement of printing speed II. dot pitch B. 0.28 mm or less is the sign of a good CRT monitor III. thermal C. commonly between 75 and 85 hertz IV. ppm D. measurement of printer resolution V. dpi E. emerging technology for mobile and portable printing Answer: C, B, E, A, D 97.

HARDWARE AND MEMORY HARDWARE AND MEMORY MCQ 1. According to Moores law: computer prices will decrease dramatically every year. memory storage size will double every year. hard disk space will increase into the terabyte range within a decade. CPU capacity will double every 18 months. 2. The portion of the CPU that coordinates the activities of all the other computer components is the: motherboard. coordination board. control unit. arithmetic logic unit. 3. The CPU does all of the following EXCEPT: store data. process instructions. manage the flow of information through the computer system. process data that has been inputted into the system. 4. Mathematical calculations and comparison decisions are performed by the ____________ of the CPU. numerical calculator central calculation unit control unit arithmetic logic unit (ALU)

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5. The terms megahertz and gigahertz refer to the number of ____________ per second that a CPU can perform. machine cycles arithmetic calculations video updates program instructions 6. All of the following are considered subsystems EXCEPT: CPU. memory. device. storage. 7. Every time the CPU performs a program instruction it goes through all the following steps EXCEPT: the CPU fetches the required piece of data from RAM the CPU executes the instruction and stores it on an external device. the CPU decodes the instruction so that the computer can understand it. the CPU executes the instruction and stores it in RAM. 8. DRAM, SRAM, and DDR RAM are all types of: CPUs. read-only memory. random access memory. operating systems. 9. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning RAM? RAM is an example of volatile storage. When the power is turned off, data remains in RAM. RAM is located in memory modules on the motherboard. The speed of retrieving data from RAM is measured in nanoseconds.

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10. All of the following statements concerning RAM are true EXCEPT: RAM is the temporary holding space for all data and instructions that the computer uses while it is on. At a minimum, you need enough RAM to run the operating system and whatever software applications you are running. C. Adding more RAM will not improve system performance. D. The amount of RAM on the memory modules, in the computer, is referred to as physical memory. A. B. 11. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning virtual memory? Virtual memory is the space on the hard drive where the operating system begins to store data when it becomes memory-bound. B. Accessing data from RAM is a slower than accessing data from virtual memory. C. When it is using virtual memory, the operating system builds a file called the RAM file. D. If a computer is memory-bound, adding more RAM will not solve the problem. A. 12. ____________ storage refers to storage that loses its data when the power is turned off. Permanent Volatile Nonvolatile Virtual 13. The time it takes a CPU to retrieve data from RAM is measured in: milliseconds. microseconds. nanoseconds. picoseconds. 14. The ____________ of the hard drive is the sum of seek time and latency (rotational delay). rpm access time spin time read time

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15. The speed of a hard drive is measured in: milliseconds. MHz. GHz. nanoseconds. 16. Rotational delay, on a hard disk drive, is also known as: latency. seek time. access time. rpm. 17. When using virtual memory, accessing data from the hard drive is over ____________ than accessing data from RAM. 100 times faster 1,000 times faster 1,000,000 times slower 10,000,000 times slower 18. The PF Usage portion of the Task Managers Performance tab indicates the: processing frequency of the CPU. size of the page file in virtual memory. number of page swaps per second that are taking place. total RAM that is installed on the system. 19. The number of pixels displayed on a screen is known as the screen: resolution. color depth. refresh rate. viewing size. 20. Low-level formatting of a hard disk will: initialize the file allocation table. reallocate data in order to make disk access more efficient. defragment the disk. create tracks and sectors on the magnetic surface. 21. Which of the following statements, concerning sound cards, is FALSE? Most computers ship with a 3D sound card. Most sound cards do not include a microphone in port. Sound cards are expansion cards that attach to the motherboard. 3D sound convinces the ear that the sound is omnidirectional. 22. Which of the following is TRUE concerning read/write heads? Read/write heads retrieve and record data to and from the hard disk. Read/write heads move from the center of the platter to the outer edges. Read/write heads actually touch the surface of the platter. Read/write heads move over the spinning platters up to 1,000 times per second. 23. Which of the following statements is TRUE? The newer version of USB (USB 2.0) transfers data at a rate of 12 Mbps. Bluetooth 2.0 has a maximum transfer rate of 3 Mbps. IrDA does not need a clear line of sight. Ethernet ports are most commonly used to connect digital cameras. 24. The gridlike pattern, created on a hard disk drive by low-level formatting, is composed of: read heads and write heads. tracks and sectors. platters and segments. megabits and megabytes. 25. The hard disks access time is determined by the sum of which two factors? latency and rotational delay seek time and rpm data transfer time and platter spin rate seek time and latency

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26. Which of the following portable storage devices is likely to have the least storage capacity? Zip disk CD Floppy disk DVD 27. All of the following should be considered when purchasing a monitor EXCEPT: viewing size. VRAM. refresh rate. dot pitch. 28. CRT and LCD are types of: ports. video cards. monitors memory. 29. When reporting the speed of a CD-RW drive as 48x12x48, the order of the speeds is: record rewrite playback. record playback rewrite. playback rewrite record. playback record rewrite. 30. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning flash drives? Flash drives fit into a USB port only one way. Flash drives can be damaged by moisture and dust. Flash drives should be removed while the activity LED is lit. Flash drives should be removed when the Safe to Remove Drive message appears. 31. Which of the following statements, concerning speakers, is FALSE? Amplified speakers need no external power. Unamplified speakers use internal power. Amplified speakers produce better quality sound. For better bass sounds, a subwoofer is recommended. 32. The device that converts binary data into the images that display on the monitor is called a(n): CRT. video card. image processor. Ethernet card. 33. All of the following terms apply to random access memory (RAM) EXCEPT: volatile storage. physical memory. DIMMs. permanent storage. 34. ____________ ports have a maximum throughput of 4 Mbps and require that a line of sight be maintained between the ports on the two devices. IrDA RJ-45 Bluetooth Analog/Digital 35. ____________ refers to the number of bits used to represent a pixel. Resolution Dot pitch Refresh rate Bit depth 36. Screen resolution is changed in: refresh rate mode. Add/Remove Programs. Performance Properties. Display Properties.

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37. Increasing the resolution of a monitor will: decrease the size of the images. increase the size of the images. increase the number of colors displayed. result in a slower refresh rate. 38. The ____________ port transfers data at 800 Mbps but is available only on some Macs. parallel FireWire 800 RJ-45 DVI 39. Which of the following can be connected to an RJ-45 jack? digital cameras mice printers network connections 40. Which of the following can NOT be connected to a parallel port? cable modems printers Zip drives scanners 41. ____________ ports are replacing traditional parallel and serial ports. Line input USB RJ-45 Ethernet 42. All of the following are wireless transmission standards EXCEPT: Bluetooth. IrDA. Gigabit Ethernet. WiFi. 43. A(n) ____________ is necessary for the most recent surround sound standard. amplified speaker 3D sound card graphic equalizer Dolby 7.1 sound card 44. Most basic sound cards contain all of the following input/output jacks EXCEPT: microphone in. speaker in. Ethernet port. gaming port. 45. Which of the following will NOT make your system more reliable? installing the latest version of the software. adding an expansion hub. installing new patches as they become available. checking for and installing bug fixes. 46. Connecting to the Internet using a cable modem is best accomplished via a(n) ____________ port. serial USB 1.1 FireWire Ethernet 47. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning CPUs? Replacement CPUs are expensive but reasonably easy to install. All CPUs are interchangeable. Replacement CPUs must be compatible with the motherboard. Upgrading the CPU affects only the processing portion of the system performance.

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48. Another term for IEEE 1394 is: IrDA. USB. FireWire. Bluetooth. 49. Which of the following statements concerning Bluetooth is FALSE? Bluetooth requires a clear line of sight. The maximum distance between two devices that Bluetooth supports is 30 feet. Bluetooth technology uses radio waves. Bluetooth is a good solution for short-distance connections such as wireless keyboards.

A. B. C. D.

FILL IN THE BLANK: 50. The series of steps the CPU goes through, every time it performs a program instruction, is called a(n) ____________. Answer: machine 51. The speed of newer CPUs is measured in ____________. Answer: gigahertz (GHz) 52. Your system is considered ____________ if it is limited in how fast it can send data to the CPU because there is not enough RAM installed. Answer: memory-bound 53. The memory that your operating system uses is referred to as ____________. Answer: kernel memory 54. The ____________ in the CPU coordinates the activities of all the other computer components. Answer: control unit 55. Logic and comparison decisions, such as comparing items to determine if one is greater than, less than, equal to, or not equal to another, is the job of the ____________ in the CPU. Answer: arithmetic logic unit (ALU) 56. The ____________ of the hard disk drive is expressed in either megabits or megabytes. Answer: data transfer rate 57. Rented storage that is accessible from any Web browser is known as____________. Answer: online storage 58. When using virtual memory, your system builds a file called a(n) ____________. Answer: page file 59. When the read/write heads and/or dust particles make contact with the platter this is known as a(n) ____________. Answer: head crash 60. Most monitors sold today support the ____________ technology, meaning that once you have connected the new monitor to your system and booted up Windows will automatically recognize the monitor and configure it to work with your system. Answer: Plug and Play 61. A ____________ is an interface through which external devices are connected to your computer. Answer: port 62. The ____________ are the concentric circles formed on a hard disk drive through low-level formatting. Answer: tracks 63. Because floppy disks and Zip disks use magnetized film to store data, they are referred to as ____________ media. Answer: magnetic 64. The ____________ port is generally used for printers and transfers data between devices in groups of bits. Answer: parallel 65. Because CDs and DVDs use a laser to read and write data, they are referred to as ____________ media. Answer: optical 66. Video card memory is known as ____________. Answer: VRAM 67. A monitors ____________ is the number of times per second that its pixel illumination is recharged. Answer: refresh rate 68. A flash drive fits into the ____________ port only one way. Answer: USB 69. A(n) ____________ port allows the transfer of data, one bit at a time, over a single wire at speeds of up to 56 Kbps. Answer: serial

70. A(n) ____________ port is a port that allows you to connect electronic musical instruments (such as synthesizers) to your computer. Answer: MIDI 71. A(n) ____________ port uses infrared light waves to wirelessly transmit data. Answer: IrDA 72. A(n) ____________ is a sequence of peripheral devices, each connected to the other through USB ports, with the last one connected directly to the computer. Answer: daisy chain 73. ____________technology uses radio waves to transmit data over short distances. Answer: Bluetooth 74. Programs located in the Startup folder run every time your computer ____________. Answer: reboots 75. The ____________ utility reorganizes the files on the hard disk, improving the efficiency of the hard drive. Answer: Disk Defragmenter

TRUE AND FALSE: 76. When purchasing a monitor, a low dot pitch is preferable. Answer: True 77. The Intel series of processors that can work on two separate sets of instructions at the same time (in parallel) are known as Core Duo processors. Answer: True The number of times per second the illumination of each pixel is recharged is the refresh rate. Answer: True IDE is a type of port. Answer: False (hard drive) To check the total capacity of the hard drive, double-click the My Computer icon, right-click the C drive icon, and select Properties from the shortcut menu. Answer: True Hard disk drives, CD drives, DVD drives, and floppy disk drives are all examples of volatile storage devices. Answer: False (permanent) The Performance tab of the Windows Task Manager shows how much physical memory is installed in the system. Answer: True The hard disk drive is the fastest of all permanent storage devices. Answer: True Processor speed is measured in machine cycles per second. Answer: True Running Disk Defragmenter is a quick and easy way to delete temporary Internet files that have accumulated on the hard drive. Answer: False (Disk Cleanup) In addition to running your regular antivirus program, it is recommended that you run antispyware and antiadware programs. Answer: True Using expansion hubs is a good way to enable your computer to support more USB and FireWire devices. Answer: True The FireWire port is used to connect your computer to a local network or cable modem. Answer: False (Ethernet) MATCHING: 89. Match the following acronyms to their descriptions: I. IDE A. type of memory module II. ALU B. memory for graphics display III. VRAM C. port for wireless data transmission IV. IrDA D. type of hard disk drive V. DIMM E. CPU component that performs mathematical operations Answer: D, E, B, C, A 90. Match the following terms to their meanings: I. seek A. measurement of machine cycle speed II. latency B. measurement of pixel color representation capability III. hertz C. measurement of data transfer rate IV. bit depth D. time to wait for disk to spin to proper position V. bps E. time to wait for disk arm to position to proper track Answer: E, D, A, B, C

78. 79. 80.

81. 82. 83. 84. 85.

86.

87. 88.

91. Assume that you have one port of each type specified. Match each device listed with the most appropriate port, given this limitation: I. 56K modem A. USB 1.1 II. printer B. FireWire III. mouse C. Ethernet IV. camcorder D. serial V. cable modem E. parallel Answer: D, E, A, B, C 92. Match the following terms to their meanings: I. control unit A. measure of virtual memory dependence II. daisy chain B. CPU component III. format C. sequence of peripheral devices connected via ports IV. amplified D. establish tracks and sectors on a disk V. PF usage E. type of speaker requiring external power source Answer: B, C, D, E, A 93. Match the following terms to their meanings: I. tracks A. binary digits II. sectors B. a hard drive is composed of several of these stacked onto a spindle III. bits C. the time it takes a storage device to locate and retrieve stored data IV. platters D. concentric circles on a hard drive V. access time E. pie-shaped wedges on a hard drive Answer: D, E, A, B, C 94. Match the following storage media to their capacity: I. floppy disk A. 9.4 GB II. Zip disk B. 1.44 MB III. CD C. 128 MB to 8 GB (and up) IV. DVD D. 100 MB to 750 MB V. flash memory E. 700 MB Answer: B, D, E, A, C 95. Match the following acronyms with their definitions: I. VRAM A. a rewritable compact disk II. CRT B. memory resident on video cards III. LCD C. a type of display similar to a TV IV. GB D. a type of display with a small footprint V. CD-RW E. one billion bytes Answer: B, C, D, E, A 96. Match the following ports to their data transfer speeds: I. Serial A. 480 Mbps II. Parallel B. 56 Kbps III. USB 2.0 C. 12 Mbps IV. FireWire 800 D. 10 Mbps100 Mbps V. Ethernet E. 800 Mbps Answer: B, C, A, E, D 97. Match the following acronyms with their definitions: I. FAT A. speed at which data is transferred II. Mbps B. fast becoming the most common port on computers today III. USB C. an interface used to connect musical instruments IV. MIDI D. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers V. IEEE E. the name of the catalog that the computer uses to keep track of where each file is located on the hard drive Answer: E, A, B, C, D Match the following terms to their meanings: I. Bluetooth A. also known as Fast Ethernet II. 100Base-T B. transmits data between devices using infrared light waves III. IrDA C. Ethernet with a transfer rate of up to 1,000 Mbps IV. Gigabit Ethernet D. previously called the IEEE 1394 port V. FireWire E. uses radio waves to send data over short distances Answer: E, A, B, C, D 98.

99.

Match the following terms to their meanings: I. nanosecond A. machine cycles per second II. hertz B. portable devices also known as thumb drives III. flash drives C. memory used by the operating system IV. kernel memory D. one-thousandth of a second V. millisecond E. one-billionth of a second Answer: E, A, B, C, D 100. Match the following terms to their meanings: I. GHz A. standard adopted by the music industry that transfers data at a rate of 31.5 Kbps II. RJ-45 jack B. technical name for an Ethernet port III. WiFi C. wireless transmission standard that transfers data up to 54 Mbps IV. MIDI D. one billion cycles per second V. expansion hub E. a device that connects to one port and provides four or eight new ports Answer: D, B, C, A, E

NETWORKING MCQ MULTIPLE CHOICE: NETWORKING MCQ FOR IBPS PO3 1. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using networks compared to a stand-alone computer? ease of maintenance and administration enhanced resource sharing increased productivity increased communication capabilities 2. ____________ networks may experience significant slowdowns if more than ten (10) users are on the network. Wide area Peer-to-peer Server-based Metropolitan area 3. All of the following statements are DISADVANTAGES of peer-to-peer networks EXCEPT: P2P networks do not require servers. security cannot be implemented centrally on P2P networks. each computer must be updated individually in P2P networks. P2P networks are decentralized and not easily scalable. 4. Individual users must take responsibility for data backups and security on a peer-to-peer network because this kind of network is considered: scalable. centralized. decentralized. dedicated. 5. The ability to easily add additional users means that a network is: scalable. dedicated. decentralized. secure. 6. In a client/server network, all clients are connected to a server that performs tasks for them, such as backup and security; therefore, it is known as a ____________ network. local area dedicated decentralized centralized

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7. A(n) ____________ is a small group of computers and peripherals linked together in a small geographic area. LAN PAN CAN MAN 8. The Internet is most accurately categorized as a: LAN. PAN. WAN. MAN. 9. PANs are used to connect ____________ devices (such as Bluetooth-enabled devices) in close proximity to each other. peripheral wireless dedicated client 10. A(n) ____________ is a private corporate network, used exclusively by company employees. Internet local area network peer-to-peer intranet 11. ____________ is specialized software that runs on a server computer to control network functionality. NOS software NCP software TCP software MAC software 12. The layout and structure of the network is known as the networks: NOS. topology. components. protocol. 13. Cable and wireless communication technologies are types of: network adapters. topologies. transmission media. network operating systems. 14. Network navigation devices include all of the following EXCEPT: servers. routers. switches. hubs. 15. ____________ servers store and manage files for network users. File Web Authentication Main 16. A(n) ____________ server keeps track of users logging onto the network and the services available to the users. file authentication Web e-mail

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17. ____________ servers are used to fulfill one specific function, such as handling e-mail. Dedicated Network Protocol Peer-to-peer 18. ____________ servers are used to manage all client-requested printing jobs for all printers. Database Network Print E-mail 19. A(n) ____________ server, on a network, delivers the software to the clients because the software does not reside on the client computers. Web application communications database 20. The ____________ server, on a network, is the single point of contact with the outside world and is often the only device connected to the Internet. intranet database application communications 21. In a(n) ____________ topology, all computers are connected in sequence, using a single cable. bus star hybrid ring 22. In a bus topology, a ____________, located at each end of the network, absorbs the signal to prevent it from being reflected back onto the cable. node terminator packet network device 23. In a bus topology, the nodes do nothing to move the data along the network, making it a(n) ____________ topology. client/server active passive terminated 24. Active topologies differ from passive topologies in that nodes on the active topology network: help pass the data along the network. listen for signals on the line before transmitting. ultimately send their messages to a terminator. actively search for packets intended for themselves. 25. When two computers send data at the same time on a bus network it is called a(n): access method. data collision. active topology. data termination. 26. In a ring topology, the computer in possession of the ____________can transmit data. packet data access method token

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27. Because each node on the network is responsible for retransmitting the token and the data to the next node, the ____________ topology is considered an active topology. ring bus star hybrid 28. Which of the following statements about ring topology networks is TRUE? A ring topology network is plagued with data collisions. A ring topology network uses the CSMA/CD access method to transmit data. A ring topology network allows only one node to transmit data at a time. A ring topology network is considered passive. 29. In the star topology, the central point of failure is the: client. switch. terminator. access point. 30. Which of the following statements, concerning star topology networks, is FALSE? Star topology networks use the CSMA/CD access method. If one computer fails, it does not affect the rest of the network. There are no data collisions on a star topology network. If the switch fails, the network no longer functions. 31. When a collision occurs on an Ethernet network, the node that detects the collision sends a(n): token. packet. jam signal. warning. 32. On an Ethernet network, after a collision occurs between two computers and a jam signal is sent, what happens next? The signals are encrypted to avoid a second collision. A token is resent by the two computers that caused the collision. The two computers wait random amounts of time, and then resend their signals. The switch notifies the network of the collision. 33. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning bandwidth? Bandwidth defines the speed at which the data flows on the network. Cable is rated by the maximum amount of bandwidth it supports. Bandwidth is the amount of data transmitted across the transmission medium in a certain amount of time. Bandwidth is measured in bits per second (bps). 34. ____________ defines whether the transmission media uses electrical impulses or pulses of light to transmit data. Bandwidth Susceptibility to interference Signal transmission method Access method 35. EMI and RFI are types of: signal interference. bandwidth measurements. twisted pair cable. wireless transmission media. 36. All of the following statements concerning twisted pair cable are true EXCEPT: Twisted pair uses pulses of light to send data. The number of twists in twisted pair is significant because it makes the wires less susceptible to interference. UTP is not recommended in areas with significant sources of interference. The two most common types of UTP in use today are Cat 5e and Cat 6.

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37. UTP and STP are examples of: CATV cable. thicknet coaxial cable. fiber-optic cable. twisted pair cable. 38. The core of a coaxial cable is usually made from: magnesium oxide. copper. silicon. glass fibers. 39. All of the following statements regarding fiber-optic cable are true EXCEPT: the core of fiber-optic cable is composed of copper. fiber-optic cable uses pulses of light to transmit data. data passes through fiber-optic cable in one direction only. the outer jacket of fiber-optic cables is often made of Kevlar. 40. The wired medium least susceptible to signal interference is: STP cable. coaxial cable. fiber-optic cable. UTP cable. 41. ____________ wireless devices have largely been replaced with faster technology. 802.11b 802.11g 802.11n 802.11a 42. All of the following protocols are proprietary EXCEPT: TCP/IP. IPX. NetBEUI. AFP. 43. The major network operating systems for installation on the server, in a client/server environment, include all of the following EXCEPT: Windows Server 2003. UNIX. Windows XP. Novell NetWare. 44. The OSI model is divided into ____________ processes called layers. five six seven eight 45. In the OSI model, the ____________ layer handles data encryption and compression. application presentation data link session 46. In the OSI model, the ____________ layer is responsible for assembling the data packets into frames. session transport data link network 47. The device that acts as an interface to connect with and communicate on a network is known as the: network adapter. hub. repeater. switch.

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48. Which of the following statements concerning MAC addresses is TRUE? A MAC address is used to externally identify a computer on a network. The MAC address and the IP address can be used interchangeably. A MAC address must match the IP address. The first three numbers in the address identify the manufacturer. 49. If a network requires a cable to connect two devices farther apart than the normal maximum run length of the media, the way to prevent signal degradation is to install a(n): adapter. repeater. bridge. switch. 50. Another name for a smart hub is a: bridge. repeater. firewall. switch.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

FILL IN THE BLANK: 51. ____________ are designed to send information between two networks. Answer: Routers 52. The special communications software, installed on a computer to enable the network adapter to communicate with the operating system is called the ____________. Answer: device driver 53. Entering a user ID and password is known as ____________. Answer: authentication 54. The acronym NOS stands for ____________. Answer: Network Operating System 55. NetBEUI, AFP, and IPX are known as ____________ protocols, which means that they do not work with another vendors NOS. Answer: proprietary 56. The ____________ identifies a computer internally on the network. Answer: MAC address 57. In the OSI model, the ____________ layer converts the data into signals for transmission over the network. Answer: physical 58. Combining multiple topologies into one network is known as a(n) ____________ network. Answer: hybrid 59. CSMA/CD is the access method used on ____________ networks. Answer: Ethernet 60. The ____________ passing method is used on a ring topology to avoid collisions. Answer: token 61. ____________ is the amount of data that can be transmitted over transmission media in a certain amount of time. Answer: Bandwidth 62. A(n) ____________ is a set of rules for exchanging communication. Answer: protocol 63. ____________ cable is composed of a glass or plastic fiber (or bundle of fibers) as its core. Answer: Fiber-optic 64. ____________ networks do not need specialized network operating system software. Answer: Peer-to-peer 65. The 802.11 wireless standard is also known as ____________. Answer: Wi-Fi 66. In wireless networks, wireless NICs connect to ____________, which provide wireless devices with a sending and receiving connection to the network. Answer: wireless access points 67. ____________ are containers that hold multiple data packets. Answer: Frames 68. The acronym MAC, as in MAC address, stands for ____________. Answer: Media Access Control 69. A(n) ____________ sends data only to the intended recipient as opposed to a hub, which sends the data to all devices connected to it. Answer: switch

70. ____________ are devices used to send data between different segments (collision domains) on a network. Answer: Bridges 71. ____________ amplify a signal and retransmit it to extend cable runs beyond the maximum run length. Answer: Repeaters 72. ____________ is the open protocol used by the Internet. Answer: TCP/IP 73. EMI and RFI are types of ____________. Answer: interference 74. The term packet screening refers to the examination of incoming data packets by the ____________to ensure that they originate or are authorized by valid users on the internal network. Answer: firewall 75. ____________ use IP addresses to send information between two networks. Answer: Routers

TRUE AND FALSE: 76. In a ring topology, if one computer fails it can bring the entire network to a halt. Answer: True 77. An application server acts as a go-between for computers on an internal network and the external network (Internet). Answer: False (proxy) 78. The hub is responsible for breaking down data into packets and preparing the packets for transmission across the network. Answer: False (network adapter or NIC) 79. In the OSI model, the session layer sets up and manages the virtual (not physical) connection between the sending and receiving devices. Answer: True 80. Twisted pair cable has the lowest susceptibility to interference. Answer: False (highest) 81. Throughput is another name for bandwidth. Answer: True 82. Crosstalk interference is the tendency of signals on one twisted pair wire to interfere with signals on a wire next to it. Answer: True 83. The ring topology is the most widely deployed client/server topology in businesses today. Answer: False (star) 84. Token passing and CSMA/CD are methods of avoiding data collisions. Answer: True 85. A bus topology provides a fairer allocation of resources than a ring topology by giving all the nodes on the network an equal opportunity to send data. Answer: False 86. MAC addresses enable computers on one network to communicate with computers on another network. Answer: False (IP addresses) 87. Bridges are relatively simple devices whose sole purpose is to amplify a signal and retransmit it. Answer: False (Repeaters) 88. In a star network, the failure of one computer affects the other computers on the network. Answer: False 89. Hubs receive a signal from a device, reconstruct it, and transmit it to all the ports on the hub. Answer: True 90. Authentication can be achieved through passwords, biometric access devices, and possessed objects. Answer: True

MATCHING: 91. Match the following acronyms to their descriptions: I. MAC A. type of interference II. CSMA/CD B. device address III. OSI C. Ethernet access method IV. EMI D. type of cable V. UTP E. protocol standard Answer: B, C, E, A, D

92.

Match the following terms to their meanings: I. frame A. packet granting transmission rights II. bastion B. assemblage of packets III. token C. a Novell protocol IV. IPX D. host configured as proxy server V. jam E. signal indicating data collisions Answer: B, D, A, C, E 93. Match the following devices to their functions: I. repeater A. sends data to a specific device, not to all devices II. hub B. transmits data between two different networks III. switch C. device used for signal amplification and retransmission IV. bridge D. multiport device used for signal amplification and broadcast V. router E. connects collision domains of a network Answer: C, D, A, E, B Match the following terms to their meanings: I. topology A. communication rules II. proxy B. large size coaxial cable III. intranet C. server controlling Internet access of network IV. protocol D. private Web-based network V. ThickNet E. layout of a network Answer: E, C, D, A, B 95. Match the following acronyms to their descriptions: I. TCP/IP A. proprietary communications protocol II. IPX B. software controlling communications in a network III. NOS C. network spanning a metropolitan area IV. MAN D. type of network adapter V. NIC E. open communications protocol Answer: E, A, B, C, D 96. Match the following OSI layers to their functions: I. Session A. reformats, compresses, and encrypts data II. Presentation B. sets up a virtual connection between sending and receiving devices and manages communication III. Data Link C. determines where to send the data packets on the network IV. Transport D. assembles the data packets into frames and delivers them to the physical layer V. Network E. handles packet acknowledgment Answer: B, A, D, E, C 97. Match the following terms to their meanings: I. bandwidth A. entering a user ID and password II. bend radius B. examining incoming data packets to ensure they originated from an authorized user III. ThinNet C. degree of flexibility in a cable IV. authentication D. a type of coaxial cable used for cable TV V. packet screening E. amount of data that can be transmitted in a certain amount of time Answer: E, C, D, A, B 98. Match the following terms to their meanings: I. firewall A. a security measure, composed of hardware or software, to protect a network from attacks over the Internet II. terminator B. a device that absorbs the signal to prevent its reflection back onto the network III. passive topology C. a special data packet on a ring topology IV. access method D. nodes on a network do nothing to move data along the network V. token E. controls how computers can use the transmission media Answer: A, B, D, E, C 99. Match the following terms to their meanings: I. active topology A. combining multiple topologies into one network II. hybrid B. the routes data takes to flow between devices III. transmission media C. each node on the network is responsible for retransmitting the signal IV. device driver D. a chunk of data containing the address of the receiving computer V. packet E. enables a device to communicate with the operating system Answer: C, A, B, E, D 94.

100.

Match the following terms to their meanings: I. crosstalk A. tendency of signals on one wire to interfere with signals on a wire next to it II. CAT 6 B. can handle bandwidth of 1 Gbps III. open protocol C. computers connected in sequence on a single cable IV. centralized D. not associated with one particular vendor V. bus E. characteristic of client/server networks Answer: A, B, D, E, C

MS EXCEL MCQ Practice Question Ms EXCEL All formula in Excel start with % + = -

1. a. b. c. d.

2. You can use a function to combine text from two cells into one cell. But you can use an operator to do the same thing. Which operator is that? a. & (ampersand) b. = (equal sign) c. (space) d. All of the above 3. a. b. c. d. 4. a. b. c. d. 5. a. b. c. d. 6. a. b. c. d. 7. a. b. c. d. 8. a. b. c. d. Two common wildcard characters that Excel recognizes are * and ? < and > ^ and / + and The divide symbol is / D \ ) The multiplication arithmetic operator is represented by which of the following symbols? ^ * / X To add two cells (A1 and A2) together you use the following formula =A1 + A2 =Add(A1+A2) =together(A1:A2) A1 plus A2 To make a number in cell C1 10% smaller than the number in C3 you enter =C3*1.10 +C3*110 =C3%10 =C3*.90 On an excel sheet the active cell in indicated by A dark wide boarder A dotted border A blinking border None of above

9. a. b. c. d.

On an Excel sheet the active cell in indicated by A dark wide border A dotted border A blinking border None of above

10. Using the F11 shortcut key to create a chart on chart sheet creates a. A default chart b. A 2-dimensional column chart c. A 2-dimensional bar chart d. A 3-dimensional line chart 11. You can print a. A range of cells by range name b. An entire worksheet c. A single worksheet d. All of the above 12. You can create only a horizontal page break by first selecting a. A row below the row where you want the page break to occure b. A cell in row 1 c. A cell in column A d. a and c 13. You can create hyperlinks from the Excel workbook to a. A webpage on company internet b. A web page on the internet c. Other Office 97 application documents d. All 14. The cell reference fro a range of cells that starts in cell B1 and goes over to column G and down to row 10 is a. B1-G10 b. B1.G10 c. B1;G10 d. B1:G10 15. The advantage of using a spreadsheet is: a. calculations can be done automatically. b. changing data automatically updates calculations c. more flexibility d. all of the above 16. The intersection of a row and column is called : a. data b. a field. c. a cell d. an equation. 17. There are three types of data found in a spreadsheet. a. data, words, numbers b. equations, data, numbers c. words, numbers, labels d. numbers formulas, labels 18. To select a column the easiest method is to a. Double click any cell in the column b. Drag from the top cell in the column to the last cell in the column c. click the column heading d. click the column label 19. If you press , the cell accepts your typing as its contents. a. Enter b. Ctrl+Enter c. Tab d. Insert

20. which of the following special function keys allow the content in cell a. esc b. shift c. return d. Tab 41. Late for your investors meeting? How can you quickly apply professional formatting to your sales forecast worksheet? a. Apply special attributes using Format Painter b. Apply an Auto Format Style c. Apply a selected background color d. All of above 42. What excel feature can you use if you want to work with one record at a time? a. Auto Complete b. Auto Filter c. Data Form d. Sub Totals 43. Excel uses the . Function when creating a data table a. Average b. Count c. Sum d. Table 44. You can copy cell formats from one cell to another by using the a. Backspace key b. Default font c. Format painter d. Formatting toolbar 45. The accounting style shows negative numbers in a. Bold b. Brackets c. Parentheses d. Quotes 46. You can use drag and drop to embed excel worksheet data in a word document a. By dragging a range of excel data to the word button on the taskbar while pressing the Ctrl key b. By dragging a range of excel data to the Word button on the taskbar while pressing Shift key c. By displaying both applications side-by-side and dragging a selected range of Excel data into the word application window while pressing the Ctrl key d. a and c 47. A .. is a group of cells that form a rectangle on the screen. a. Calculation b. Formula c. Range d. Range address 48. What term describes explanatory text attached to a cell a. Callout b. Comment c. Dialog d. Extension 49. The drag and drop method of copying or moving a. Can be used between worksheets but not workbooks b. Can be used between workbooks but not worksheets c. Can be used between workbooks but not worksheets d. None

50. 3-D reference in a formula a. Can not be modified b. Only appears on summary worksheets c. Limits the formatting options d. Spans worksheets 51. The auto calculate feature a. Can only add values in a range of cells b. Provides a quick way to view the results of an arithmetic operation on a range of cells c. Automatically creates formulas and adds them to a worksheet d. a and c 52. The chart wizard a. Can place a chart on a new chart sheet or on any sheet in the workbook b. Can only place a chart on new chart sheet c. Can only place a chart on a new blank worksheet d. Can only be used to create embedded charts 53. What chart object is horizontal or vertical line that extends across the plot area to make it easier to read and follow the values? a. Category axis b. Data marker c. Data point d. Gridline 54. A value used in a formula that does not change is called a a. Cell address b. Constant c. Function d. Range 55. Suppose you have columns of data that span more than one printed page. How can you automatically print the column headings on each page. a. Click page setup on the file menu, click the sheet tab, and enter the row that contains these column headings under print titles. b. Click page setup on the file menu, click the page tab, click the options button, then enter your choices. c. Click page setup on the file menu, click the sheet tab, and make a selection under the print heading. d. All of above 56. a fast way to add up this column of number is to click in the cell below the numbers and then: a. click subtotals on the data menu b. view the sum in the formula bar c. click the auto sum button on the standard toolbar, then press enter d. all of above 57. to view a cell comment a. click the edit comment commands on the Insert menu b. click the Display comment command on the window menu c. position the mouse pointer over the cell d. click the comment command on the view menu 58. When you want to insert a blank embedded excel object in w word document you can a. Click the object command on the insert menu b. Click the office links button on the standard toolbar c. Click the create worksheet button on the formatting toolbar d. Click the import excel command on the file menu 59. Say that you want to paste a formula result but not the underlying formula to another cell. In excel 2002, you would copy the cell with the formula, then place the insertion point in the cell you want to copy to what next? a. Click the Paste button on the standard toolbar b. Click the arrow on the paste button on the standard toolbar, hen click formulas c. Click the arrow on the paste button on the standard toolbar, then click values. d. All of above

60. You can select a single range of cells by a. Clicking the upper-left cell in a group of cells and then pressing the Shift key while clicking the lower right cell in a group of cells b. Pressing the Ctrl key while dragging over the desired cells c. Pressing the Shift key and an arrow key d. Dragging over the desired cells 61. Which of these will not select all the cells in a document? a. Clicking three times with the right mouse button in the spreadsheet b. Using the Edit Select All menu c. Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard d. Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard 62. The default style for new data keyed in a new workbook is a. Comma b. Currency c. Normal d. Percent 63. The LEN function does what? a. Compares the content in two cells b. Counts the numbers of characters in a cell c. Deletes extra space in text d. All of above 64. Which function converts miles to kilometers, kilograms to pounds, and so on? a. Convert b. Product c. Change d. All of above 65. You can use the drag and drop method to a. Copy cell contents b. Delete cells contents c. Add cell contents d. All of above 66. To balance your checkbook in Excel, your best method is a. Copy your check amounts into Excel so that youll have a neat printout to work on b. Use Excel to check your arithmetic c. Download the Checkbook register templates from Templates on Microsoft Office Online d. All of above 67. Which formula can add the all the numeric values in a range of cells, ignoring those which are not numeric, and place the resulting a different cell a. Count b. Average c. Sum d. None of above 68. To name a constant, you use the dialog box a. Create names b. Define name c. Paste name d. Format cells 69. To cancel the marquee, press a. Ctrl + End b. End c. Esc d. Shift + Esc 70. To access the Go To Special feature, you can press a. Ctrl + G b. Ctrl + O c. Ctrl + Shift + G d. Ctrl + 1

71. which do you press to enter the current date in a cell? a. Ctrl + Shift + : b. Ctrl + ; c. Ctrl + F10 d. All of above 72. It is acceptable to let long text flow into adjacent cells on a worksheet when a. Data will be entered in the adjacent cells b. No data will be ente4red in the adjacent cells c. There is no suitable abbreviation for the text d. There is not time to format the text 73. Which function calculates depreciation at the same amount each year over an assets usef ul life? a. DB (fixed-declining balance) b. SLN (straight line) c. DDB (double-declining) d. All of above 74. Documentations should include a. Destination and users of the output data b. Source of input data c. Information on the purpose of the workbook d. All of above Correct Answer: 75. Which of the following is not an underline option in the format cells dialog box? a. Double b. Single Engineering c. Single Accounting d. Double Accounting 76. To select a column the easiest method is to a. Double click any cell in the column b. Drag from the top cell in the column to the last cell in the column c. Click the column heading d. Click the column label 77. To select an individual data marker or data label, you must a. Double click the data series b. Right click selected marker c. Click once to select the series markers or labels and click the desired marker or label again d. Double click the marker or label 78. To delete and embedded object, first a. Double click the object b. Select the object by clicking it c. Press the Shift + Delete keys d. Select it and then press Delete key 79. This type of software contains rows and columns. a. Drawing b. Spreadsheet c. Database d. Word processing 80. To open an existing workbook, you can click the Open button on the toolbar. a. Drawing b. Formatting c. Forms d. Standard 81. Which of the following is not an option in the spelling dialog box? a. Edit b. Ignore c. Ignore all d. Change

82. You can quickly change the appearance of your work by choosing Auto Format from the . Menu a. Edit b. View c. Format d. Tools 83. To protect a worksheet, you can choose Protection and the Protect Sheet from the .. menu a. Edit b. Format c. Tools d. Data 84. You can open the Highlight Changes dialog box by choosing Track Changes from the . Menu. a. Edit b. Insert c. Format d. Tools 85. Which of the following is not a worksheet design criterion? a. Efficiency b. Auditability c. Description d. Clarity Correct Answer: 86. To copy cell contents using drag and drop, press the a. End key b. Shift key c. Esc key d. None of above 87. If you press ., the cell accepts your typing as its contents. a. Enter b. Ctrl + Enter c. TAB d. Insert 88. The autofill feature a. Extends a sequential series of data b. Automatically adds a range of cell values c. Applies a boarder around selected cells d. None of above 89. What is the keyboard shortcut (button or buttons to be pressed) for creating a chart from the selected cells? a. F3 b. F5 c. F7 d. F11 90. you can use the formula palette to a. format cells containing numbers b. create and edit formulas containing functions c. entered assumptions data d. copy a range of cells 91. What Pivot Table toolbar button updates the data ina Pivot Table or Pivot Chart report if the source data has changed a. Format Report b. Pivot Table c. Refresh Data d. Show Detail

92. What is an expression that tells how the numbers in a determined set of cells are to be calculated? a. Formula b. Field c. Data d. Query Correct Answer: 93. Qtr 1, Qtr 2, Qtr 3 is an example of a a. Formula b. Function c. Series d. Syntax 94. You can convert existing Excel worksheet data and charts to HTML document by using the a. FTP Wizard b. Internet Assistant Wizard c. Intranet Wizard d. Import Wizard 95. The cell reference for a range of cells that starts in cell B1 and goes over to column G and down to row 10 is . a. G1-G10 b. B1.G10 c. B1;G10 d. B1:G10 96. A user wishes to remove a spreadsheet from a workbook. Which is the correct sequence of events that will do this? a. Go to File-Save As Save As Type Excel worksheet b. Right click on the spreadsheet tab and select DELETE c. Right click on the spreadsheet and select Insert Entire Column d. None of above 97. What feature enables you to adjust or back solve the value in a cell to reach a desired outcome in a formula? a. Goal Seek b. Scenario Summary report c. Forecasting d. Trend line 98. what term describes a background that appears as a grainy, non smooth surface a. gradient b. pattern c. solid d. texture 99. Excel is a a. Graphic program b. None of these c. Word processor d. A spreadsheet 100. To create an interactive Pivot Table for the web, you use a Microsoft Office Web component called a. HTML b. Pivot Table Field List c. Pivot Table List d. Pivot Table Report What function displays row data in a column or column data in a row? a. Hyperlink b. Index c. Transpose d. Rows

102. When you insert an Excel file into a Word document, the data are a. Hyperlinked b. Placed in a word table c. Linked d. Embedded 103. Except for the function, a formula with a logical function shows the word TRUE or FALSE as a result a. IF b. AND c. OR d. NOT 104. Macros are run or executed from the .. menu. a. Insert b. Frmat c. Tools d. Data 105. You can open the consolidate dialog box byt choosing Consolidate from the .. menu. a. Insert b. Format c. Tools d. Data 106. Each excel file is called a workbook because a. It can contain text and data b. It can be modified c. It can contain many sheets including worksheets and chart sheets d. You have to work hard to create it 107. Which types of charts can excel produce? a. Line graphs and pie charts only b. Only line graphs c. Bar charts, line graphs and pie charts d. Bar charts and line graphs only 108. How are data organized in a spreadsheet? a. Lines and spaces b. Layers and planes c. Rows and columns d. Height and width 109. What does the VLOOKUP function do? a. Looks up text that contain v b. Checks whether text is the same in one cell as in the next c. Finds related records d. All of above 110. Gridlines a. May be turned off for display but turned on for printing b. May be turned on or off for printing c. The be turned off for display and printing d. a, b and c 111. You can print only an embedded chart by a. Moving the chart to a chart sheet before you print. b. Formatting the chart before you print c. Selecting the chart before you print d. a and c 112. Which of the following is a correct order of precedence in a formula calculation? a. Multiplication and division, exponential positive and negative value b. Multiplication and division, positive and negative values, addition and subtraction c. Addition and subtraction, positive and negative values, exponentiation d. None of above

113. A function inside another function is called a .. function. a. Nested b. Round c. Sum d. Text 114. How should you print a selected area of a worksheet, if youll want to print a different area next time? a. On the file menu, point to print area, and then click set print area. b. On the file menu, click print, and then click selection under print what c. On the view menu, click custom views, then click add d. All of above 115. Youar German supplier still invoices for parts in deutsche marks. How can you have Excel convert those sums to Euros? a. On the Insert menu, click Symbol and from the currency symbols subset, select the Euro sign. b. On the tools menu, click Add-Ins, and select the Euro Currency Tools check box c. Apply a selected background color d. All of above 116. Which function calculates your monthly mortage payment? a. PMT (payments) b. NPER (number of periods) c. PV (present value) d. All of above 117. If you are working in English (US), Chinese or Japanese, Excel 2002 can speak data as you enter it, to help you verify accuracy. How do you activate this feature? a. Point to speech on the tools menu, and then click show text to speech toolbar. b. Click validation on the data menu c. Point to speech on the tools menu, and then click speech recognition d. All of above 118. Which of the following methods can not be used to enter data in a cell? a. Pressing an arrow key b. Pressing the tab key c. Pressing the Esc key d. Clicking the enter button to the formula bar 119. Which of the following will not set text in selected cells to italics? a. Pressing Ctrl + I on the keyboard b. Using the Tools Wizard Web Form menu item c. Using the Format Cells Font menu item d. None of the above 120. Which of the following methods cannot be used to edit the content of cell? a. Pressing the Alt key b. Clicking the formula bar c. Pressing F2 d. Double clicking the cell 121. You can activate a cell by a. Pressing the Tab key b. Clicking the cell c. Pressing an arrow key d. All of above 122. Which of the following setup options can not be set in the page setup dialog box? a. Printer selection b. Vertical or horizontal placement c. Orientation d. Row and column titles

123. What term refers to a specific set of values saved with the workbook? a. Range b. Scenario c. Trend line d. What-if analysis 124. Got functions? No? You need the insert function dialog box. How do you get it? e. Right click a cell and then click insert f. Click the insert menu and then click function g. Type = in a cell h. All of the above 125. Which of the following describes how to select all the cells in a single column? a. Right click on column and select Pick from list b. Use data text to columns menu item c. Left click on the gray column title button d. Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard 126. when you use the fill effects in the format data series dialog box, you can not a. rotate text on the chart b. select a fore ground color c. select a pattern d. select a background color 127. Paper spreadsheets can have all the same advantages as an electronic spreadsheet except which of the following? a. Rows and columns b. Headings c. Speed d. None 128. Which of the following is not a basic step in creating a worksheet? a. Save the workbook b. Modify the worksheet c. Enter text and data d. Copy the worksheet 129. Whats a quick way to extend these numbers to a longer sequence, for instance 1 through 20? a. Select both cells, and then drag the fill handle over the range you want, for instance 18 more rows b. Select the range you want, include both cells, point to fill on the Edit menu, and then click down. c. Copy the second cell, click in the cell below it, on the standard toolbar click the down arrow on the Paste button, and then click Paste Special d. All of above 130. To insert three columns between columns D and E you would a. Select column D b. Select column E c. Select columns E, F and G d. Select columns D, E, and F. 131. To center worksheet titles across a range of cell, you must a. Select the cells containing the title text and use the fill handle to center the text across a range of cells b. Widen the columns c. Select the cells containing the title text and use the fill handle to center the text across a range of cells d. Widen the column 132. When integrating Ms-Word and Excel, Word is usually the a. Server b. Source c. Client d. None

133. Charts tips can a. Show the formatting of a data label b. Show the name of a data series c. Show the value of data point d. b and c 134. The Name box a. Shows the location of the previously active cell b. Appears t the left of the formula bar c. Appears below the status bar d. Appears below the menu bar

135. How do you change column width to fit the contents? a. Single-click the boundary to the left to the column heading b. Double click the boundary to the right of the column heading c. Press Alt and single click anywhere in the column d. All of above 136. when you work with large worksheets, you may need to a. size the worksheet to fit on the specific number of pages b. add and remove page breaks c. specify only certain print areas d. all of above 137. Hyperlinks cannot be a. Special shapes like stars and banners b. Drawing objects like rectangles ovals c. Pictures d. All can be hyperlinks 138. You can use the horizontal and vertical scroll bars to a. Split a worksheet into two panes b. View different rows and columns c. Edit the contents of a cell d. View different worksheets 139. What do we call a computer program that organizes data in rows and columns of cells? You might use this type of program to keep a record of the money you earned moving lawns over the summer. a. Spreadsheet program b. Database program c. Word processor program d. Desktop publisher program 140. You can add an image to a template by clicking the Insert Picture From File button on the . Toolbar. a. Standard b. Formatting c. Drawing d. Picture 141. To drag a selected range of data to another worksheet in the same workbook, use the a. Tab key b. Alt key c. Shift key d. Ctrl key 142. When creating a vertical page break a. The active cell must be A1 b. The active cell can be anywhere in the worksheet c. The active cell must be in row 1 d. The active cell must be in column A

143. to activate the previous cell in a pre-selected range, press a. the Alt key b. the Tab key c. the Enter key d. none of above 144. When the formula bar is activated, you can see a. The Edit Formula button b. The Cancel button d. All of above 145. In a worksheet you can select a. The entire worksheet b. Rows c. Columns d. a, b, and c 146. when you print preview a worksheet a. the entire worksheet is displayed b. the selected range is displayed c. the active portion of the worksheet is displayed d. a, b and c 147. You can group noncontiguous worksheets with a. The group button on the standard toolbar b. The shift key and the mouse c. The ctrl key and mouse d. The alt+enter key 148. Weight refers to a. The print density of characters b. The height of the printed character c. Upright or slanted shape d. The design and appearance of characters 149. When you link data maintained in Excel workbook to a Word document a. The Word document cannot be edited b. The Word document contains a reference to the original source application c. The word document must contain a hyperlink d. The word document contains a copy of the actual data 150. When you see a cell with a red triangle in the top right corner, what does this signify? a. There is an error in the cell b. There is a comment associated with the cell c. The font color for text in the cell is red d. A formula cannot be entered into the cell 151. To hold row and column titles in places so that they do not scroll when you scroll a worksheet, click the a. Unfreeze panes command on the window menu b. Freeze panes command on the window menu c. Hold titles command on the edit menu d. Split command on the window menu 152. Which of these is a quick way to copy formatting from a selected cell to two other cells on the same worksheet? a. Use Ctrl to select all three cells, then click the paste button on the standard toolbar b. Copy the selected cell, then select the other two cells, click style on the Format menu, then click Modify c. Click format painter on the Formatting toolbar twice then click in each cell you want to copy the formatting to d. All of above 153. To edit data in an embedded Excel worksheet object in a Word document a. Use the Excel menu bar and toolbars inside the word application b. Edit the hyperlink c. Edit the data in a Excel source application d. Use the Word menu bar and toolbars

154. Status indicators are located on the a. Vertical scroll bar b. Horizontal scroll bar c. Formula bar d. Formatting toolbar 155. You can open the scenario Manager dialog box by choosing scenarios from the .. menu. a. View b. Insert c. Format d. Tools 156. You can open the Sort dialog box by choosing Sort from the .. menu a. View b. Format c. Tools d. Data 157. when working in the page break preview, you can a. view exactly where each page break occurs b. add or remove page breaks c. change the print area d. all of above 158. A data map is helpful a. When you have too much data to chart b. To show a geographic distribution of data c. To compare data points d. To show changes in data over time 159. Rounding errors can occur a. When you use multiplication, division or exponentiation in a formula b. When you use addition and subtraction in a formula c. Because Excel uses hidden decimal places in computation d. When you show the results of formulas with different decimal places than the calculated results 160. You can copy data or formulas a. With the copy, paste and cut commands on the edit menu b. With commands on a shortcut menu c. With buttons on the standard toolbar d. All of the above 161. You can zoom a worksheet a. With the mouse pointer in Print Preview b. With the zoom button on the Print Preview toolbar c. With the Zoom command on the view menu d. All of the above 162. You can not link Excel worksheet data to a Word document a. With the right drag method b. With a hyperlink c. With the copy and paste special commands d. With the copy and paste buttons on the standard toolbar 163. This type of software is similar to an accountants worksheet a. Word processing b. Database c. Spreadsheets d. Graphics 164. which function will calculate the number of workdays between 6/9/2004 and 8/12/2004? a. Workday b. Date c. Networkdays d. All of the above

165. Data marker on a chart are linked to data points in a worksheet, therefore, a. You can automatically apply formatting to a data series b. You can change the position of a data marker and automatically change the data point value in the worksheet c. You can change a data print value and automatically are draw the chart d. a and b 166. When you group worksheets a. You can enter variable data on multiple worksheets at one time b. You can print more than one worksheet at a time c. You can enter common data, formats, and formulas on multiple worksheets at one time d. b, and c 167. You can use the format painter multiple times before you turn it off by a. You can use the format painter button only one time when you click it b. Double clicking the format painter button c. Pressing the Ctrl key and clicking the format painter button d. Pressing Alt key and clicking the format painter button 168. The default header for a worksheet is a. Your name b. The date and time c. None d. The sheet tab name