INSTRUCTIONS

1. This Test contains 17 pages and 75 questions.

2. This test has three sections that examine various abilities.
Section-I has 35 questions, Section-II has 25 questions and Section-III has 15 questions.
You will be given 150 minutes to complete the test.
In distributing the time over the sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your
competence in all three sections.
3. All questions carry 4 marks each. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of 1 mark.
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Test Booklet Serial Number: 7 7 0 6 6 3
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Section - I
Verbal Ability
DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 4: for Questions 1 to 4: for Questions 1 to 4: for Questions 1 to 4: for Questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.
The Failure of Conservatism in Modern British Poetry appears to be organised chronologically. For example,
Chapter Four is called Blowing Your Mind: Immediacy in the Sixties and Chapter Eight is called An era of
rising property values: Conservatism 1979-97. However, throughout Duncans book something curious is
happening with dates in the discussion. The first two chapters of the book sketch a post-war background and
contain 34 dates of which 67% are in the 1960s and 1970s. The last chapter of the book, Poetry in the 1990s,
contains 27 dates: 52% of them are in the 1960s and 1970s and only 30% of them are in the 1990s.
In some ways, this is perfectly understandable because what Eric Mottram called The British Poetry Revival
1960-1975 continues to function as the return of the repressed. For example, Neil Corcorans apparently
inclusive survey, English Poetry since 1940, devotes only one page to it. The dominance of books like
Corcorans means that any genuinely alert and representative account of post-war British poetry is obliged to
go on rewriting and re-righting literary history. Critical accounts of avant-garde poetry are therefore condemned
to mirror black, feminist or gay narratives, perpetually reinscribing the struggle to overcome being silenced,
to come to consciousness, to come out or to gain rights and recognition. Reinscription remains the paradigm
in what might be termed identity narratives not only because they are happy ever after stories but more
importantly because the priorities of the system in which such individual stories are constructed remain
unchanged. And, of course, because no-one can imagine what happens after recognition has been achieved.
In other ways, Duncans focus on the 1960s and 1970s is less desirable because it is has a curious effect. It
shuts British poetry modernist-derived or otherwise into a kind of pastness. Consequently, it risks
imprisoning latter-day practitioners in an aftermath where, like nineteenth-century prisoners, they are obliged
to walk the treadmills and pick the oakum of old dissatisfactions and disputes. Revisiting the past also risks
allowing the priorities of the system in which those dissatisfactions and disputes occurred to continue to
dominate. Duncan raises the issue in his introduction If poetry is sold and publicised on the basis of what
was happening thirty years ago, what is there for new poets? What do they plug into? but he seems to
think that only what he terms the pop-conservative mainstream is guilty of it.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(1) explain the chronological layout of the work.
(2) explain the rise in conservatism.
(3) examine a post-war scenario.
(4) examine the allusion to the 1960s and the 1970s eras.
(5) explain the negligence of the 1990s.
2. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(1) Two schools of thought are compared and contrasted, and one is deemed to be better than the other.
(2) One school of thought is presented as worse than another. Then evidence is offered to support that
claim.
(3) Two systems of poetry are analyzed, and one specific example is examined in detail.
(4) A set of examples is furnished. Then a conclusion is drawn from them.
(5) The inner workings of poetry are illustrated by using two systems.
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3. Based on the information in the passage, it can be inferred that which one of the following would most
logically begin a paragraph immediately following the passage?
(1) that there should be the demand for recognizing a need for revival in poetry.
(2) that poetry remains a matter of what ought to be because of its past.
(3) that poetry should emerge from the shadows of the 1960s and the 1970s.
(4) that we should alienate ourselves from World War based poetry.
(5) that modernism should integrate the perspective of the retro phase.
4. The authors attitude towards the old school can best be described as:
(1) encouraged that it is moving forward in time.
(2) concerned that it does not allow new poetry to come up.
(3) pleased that the pre-modern era saw some fine poetry.
(4) hopeful that it will be replaced by the postmodern poetry.
(5) doubtful that it is the best form of poetry.
DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS for Questions 5 to 7: for Questions 5 to 7: for Questions 5 to 7: for Questions 5 to 7: for Questions 5 to 7: Identify the correct sentence or sentences.
5. A Part of my working life was as a field ecologist, probing about magic of invisible animal kingdoms.
B In my most recent collection, The Invisible Kings, the Romani language attempts an opening between
fields of language.
C Romani contains many words and phrases from other tongues - language is absorbed as it is travelled
through.
D Gypsy place-names for example are precise riddles that speak shrewdly from the travellers point of
view.
(1) A and B (2) B, C and D (3) A and D (4) Only B (5) None of the above
6. A Confronted with an intoxicating scene of enviable excess and success, the visitor to Street &
Studio: An Urban History of Photography will surely identify with that waiter.
B To view the show not as a triumph but solely as a site of squandered opportunity is, however, to
succumb to the false dichotomy suggested by its title: for these are triumph and waste simultaneously.
C Its ultimate failure is the inevitable culmination of a long history of victories and successes.
D Lets start, like the show, a long way back, in the last decade of the 19th century, with one of these
early successes.
(1) A and B (2) B, C and A (3) C and D (4) B and D (5) None of the above
7. A Eyebrows made a big difference in how people perceived the mood of the woman in the picture.
B When the brows were lowered or slanted toward the nose, or when forehead wrinkles were added,
ratings of anger and disgust increased.
C Also, raising the outer corner of the eyebrows produced the increase in the perception of surprise.
D Raising the inner corner of the eyebrows away from the nose was perceived as a sad facial expression.
(1) A, B and D (2) B and D (3) C and D (4) Only D (5) None of the above
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DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS for Questions 8 to 11 for Questions 8 to 11 for Questions 8 to 11 for Questions 8 to 11 for Questions 8 to 11: : : : : In each question, there are five sentences/paragraphs. The sentence/
paragraph labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be
arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most
appropriate option.
8. A. In such circumstances, the recent fall in the price of oil (and food) should be a boon for
hard-pressed consumers.
B. Inflation seems set to follow oil and food costs down, but some policymakers fret that it may not fall
quickly to a tolerable level.
C. It has not, however, fallen far enough for central bankers to be celebrating just yet.
D. If so, sluggish GDP growth may not create enough slack in the economy to drive inflation down far.
E. Their concern is that high oil prices may have harmed the potential growth rate of the economy, as
well as temporarily pushing up inflation.
(1) CEBD (2) BDCE (3) CBED (4) CDBE (5) BECD
9. A. So why do the job, given it is so lonely and miserable?
B. After all, rare is the chief executive who gives up the throne without a fight.
C. In his introduction to The Secrets of CEOs, Sir Richard Branson, boss of the Virgin companies,
observes that working is meant to be fun.
D. We spend most of our lives working: what a shame it would be if youre spending that time doing
something you hate.
E. And why cling to it so hard?
(1) CDEB (2) ECDB (3) EBDC (4) EDCB (5) EBCD
10. A. If the timing and reasoning behind Sothebys decision to go ahead are obvious, the reasons Mr.
Hirst wants to risk his reputation for a one-off fire sale are more subtle.
B. Although he has benefited from the contacts and clout that his dealers provide, he is irked by their
habit of making potential new buyers prove themselves by waiting before they are allowed to
purchase a work of art.
C Anyone with enough money can buy what they want immediately.
D. Much of it has to do with his natural impatience, his wish to break rules and break down boundaries.
E. Dealers are gatekeepers who permit artists access to serious collectors, explains Mr. Thompson.
Auction rooms, by contrast, are more democratic.
(1) BDEC (2) BDCE (3) DEBC (4) DBEC (5) DCBE
11. A. The government was claiming that the citys air was cleaner for the Olympics than it had been in a
decade.
B. But stench from a waste-disposal plant was smothering their homes.
C. After a lull, news of protests around China about all sorts of issues is again trickling out.
D. Freed from Olympic constraints, they felt it was time to protest.
E. They were not alone.
(1) BEDC (2) CDEB (3) BDEC (4) DEBC (5) BCED
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DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS for Questions 12 to 15: for Questions 12 to 15: for Questions 12 to 15: for Questions 12 to 15: for Questions 12 to 15: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last
sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most
appropriate way.
12. In the first edition of Economics, Samuelson claimed that the Keynesian theory of income
determination was increasingly accepted by economists of all schools of thought, and that its policy
implications were neutral. For example, it can be used as well to defend private enterprise as to limit
it, as well to attack as to defend government fiscal interventions. However, his explanation of the
model emphasized that private enterprise is afflicted with periodic acute and chronic cycles in
unemployment, output and prices, which government had a responsibility to alleviate. The private
economy is not unlike a machine without an effective steering wheel or governor, Samuelson wrote.
______________________________________
(1) By the seventh edition, Samuelson was no longer using the machine minus the steering wheel
metaphor.
(2) By the fourth edition, he declared that 90 percent of American economists have stopped being
Keynesian economists or anti-Keynesian economists.
(3) Compensatory fiscal policy tries to introduce such a governor or thermostatic control device.
(4) He labeled this new economics a neo-classical synthesis.
(5) In reading Samuelsons early editions, a student might reasonably conclude that there are no other
schools of thought.
13. To repeat the question: what is it that persuaded our ancestors to penetrate the innermost darkness of a
cave and paint? Amongst those who have tried to answer this question is David Lewis-Williams, a
South African scientist who felt that the status quo on the subject matter was inadequate. For some
reasons, our ancestors were attracted to those darkest regions of the Underworld, which were carefully
explored and became a workshop to express the earliest expressions of art. Still, it was not art; it was
religious art: the art had a purpose. ___________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________
(1) The walls of the caves were a portal into another dimension.
(2) The question as to why our ancestors painted these drawings is furthermore riddled with
preconceptions
(3) The shaman creating the paintings would use the natural contours of the rock and exteriorise
what his visions had allowed him to see.
(4) The caves became the cathedrals of the Stone Age.
(5) The act of painting was therefore bringing the visions of the Otherworld into this reality.
14. Jardine was a tall, hard boned, personality, having none of the unction often associated in his period
with cricket. On the field, even a Harlequin cap did not lighten or brighten his pervading air of relentless
purpose. His was a realpolitik. He determined in the early 1930s to wrest back the ashes from Australia,
and to put Bradman in a reasonable, if still high, place. ____________________________________ ____________________________________ ____________________________________ ____________________________________ ____________________________________
(1) The fastest bowling could not hurry him.
(2) He had played against many countries.
(3) He was perhaps the first to lead the reaction against Edwardian gesture and romance and the humbug
of may the best side win
(4) His influence on the cricket field was mild.
(5) All the howls and winds of the world would not deter him.
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15. The story follows 100 years in the life of Macondo, a village founded by Jos Arcadio Buenda and
occupied by descendants all sporting variations on their progenitors name: his sons, Jos Arcadio and
Aureliano, and grandsons, Aureliano Jos, Aureliano Segundo, and Jos Arcadio Segundo. Then there
are the women- the two rsulas, a handful of Remedios, Fernanda, and Pilar- who struggle to remain
grounded even as their menfolk build castles in the air. If it is possible for a novel to be highly comic
and deeply tragic at the same time, then One Hundred Years of Solitude does the trick. Civil war rages
throughout, hearts break, dreams shatter, and lives are lost. ________________________________
(1) Yet the womenfolk continue to lament their sorrows in a manner which would put most to shame.
(2) Yet the effect is literary pentimento, with sorrows outlines bleeding through the vibrant colors of
Garca Mrquezs magical realism.
(3) Yet the sufferings of the descendants are not quenched in this Saga of Magical Realism.
(4) A ghastly theme for a magical realism story.
(5) Men and women suffer in this saga which fails to lift the spirits of the readers even when the war has
passed.
DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS for Questions 16 to 20 for Questions 16 to 20 for Questions 16 to 20 for Questions 16 to 20 for Questions 16 to 20: :: :: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.
Social scientists, in general, have argued vigorously for the autonomy of their field of study and have mostly
looked askance at the attempts that have tended to show the social phenomena to be entirely determined by
non sociological factors. In their own turn, however they have been extremely antagonistic to the idea that
there may be other phenomena which stand in the same relation to sociological phenomena as these do
themselves to biological and physical phenomena. Sociologists, like most other scientists, seem to think that
all that occurs in the field of human affairs is completely determined by factors which pertain to their own
field of study. They are extremely averse to the admission of immanent causality within the field of supra-
sociological phenomena.
There seems, however, no reason to believe that the emergence of autonomous realms with their immanent
causality ceases at the sociological level. It would be as much a piece of blindness on the part of the sociologists
to deny this as it would be in the case of those biologists or physicists who would deny autonomy and
immanent causality to social phenomena. The mistake in the case of the latter is clearly visible to every
sociologist, yet he immediately seems to develop a psychic scotoma when he himself commits it.
The supra-sociological phenomena are indeed dependent on sociological phenomena for their very existence,
but this should in no way lead to the conclusion drawn by most sociologists that they are determined by
them. If the logic of the argument were true in such a case, then we would inevitably be pushed further to the
conclusion that the real determinants of any phenomenon are physical and not biological or sociological or
supra-sociological in nature. The sociological phenomena, in fact, permit the existence of supra-sociological
phenomena but do not determine them, in any way, in their specific nature. The large numbers of studies that
have delineated the determination of cultural phenomena by sociological factors are vitiated, therefore, at
their very core by this central fallacy.
16. Which of the following is true as per the passage ?
(1) Studies, suggesting that the determinant factors for any kind of phenomena are entirely non-
sociological factors, are ineffective and based on false ideas.
(2) The determinant factors of any phenomena can be physical, biological, sociological or non-
sociological by nature.
(3) Supra-sociological phenomena are determined by sociological phenomena.
(4) Scientists have no reason to believe in the existence of immanent causality in the field of supra-
sociological phenomena.
(5) Most sociologists ignore the idea that suggests the presence of autonomous realms with their immanent
causality at the sociological level.
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17. According to the passage, we can infer that:
(1) Social scientists possess a dubious attitude towards the origin of determinant factors ascertaining
supra-sociological phenomena.
(2) Social phenomena are entirely determined by non-sociological factors.
(3) Supra-sociological phenomena are a result of social phenomena.
(4) Factors determining any sociological phenomena can be physical or biological but not sociological.
(5) Biologists and physicists do not propose the idea of autonomy and immanent causality to social
phenomena.
18. Sociologists turn a blind eye towards:
(1) Biologists and Physicists, who deny autonomy and immanent causality to social phenomena.
(2) Studies that determine any cultural phenomena through sociological factors.
(3) Reasons that define the determination of human affairs through factors limited to their respective
field of study.
(4) The misconception that the real determinants of any phenomena are only physical.
(5) None of the above.
19. According to the passage all of the following are true, EXCEPT:
(1) Sociologists tend to disapprove of the possibilities that determine social phenomena as a result of
physical and biological factors.
(2) The presence of supra-sociological phenomena is not entirely ascertained by sociological phenomena.
(3) The idea of autonomy and immanent causality only pertains to physical and biological
phenomena.
(4) Autonomy, in the field of social science, has been a major demand of social scientists.
(5) None of the above.
20. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the passage?
(1) Sociological versus supra-sociological phenomena.
(2) Social Sciences in a different light.
(3) Social Scientists central dilemma.
(4) A central fallacy of Social scientists.
(5) Scientific belief and attitude towards sociological phenomena.
DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS for Questions 21 to 24 for Questions 21 to 24 for Questions 21 to 24 for Questions 21 to 24 for Questions 21 to 24: : : : : In each question, there are four sentences. Each sentence has pairs of
words/phrases that are highlighted (in bold). From the highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate most appropriate most appropriate most appropriate most appropriate
word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one.
21. With that, he turns turns turns turns turns [A] / turned turned turned turned turned [B] on his heal heal heal heal heal [A] / heel heel heel heel heel [B] and fled.
The Maestro assented assented assented assented assented [A] / ascented ascented ascented ascented ascented [B] to the request for an encore.
It is, sometimes useful, to plumb plumb plumb plumb plumb [A] / plum plum plum plum plum [B] someones thoughts.
The school had a great interest in music and was forming a choral choral choral choral choral [A] / coral coral coral coral coral [B] society.
(1) AAABA (2) BBAAA (3) BBBBA (4) AABBA (5) BBBAA
22. It is important to get the ideas of great philosophers through our skull skull skull skull skull [A] / scull scull scull scull scull [B].
The embankment was designed to levy levy levy levy levy [A] / levee levee levee levee levee [B] a treacherous stream.
The negotiator made an offer who who who who who [A] / that that that that that [B] was very attractive to the the the the the [A] / a aa aa [B] union.
He could profit profit profit profit profit [A] / prophet prophet prophet prophet prophet [B] greatly from his schooling.
(1) AABAA (2) BBBAA (3) ABBAA (4) AABBB (5) BABAB
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23. My language teachers vocation vocation vocation vocation vocation [A] / avocation avocation avocation avocation avocation [B] is singing.
It would be best if we let a disinterested disinterested disinterested disinterested disinterested [A] / uninterested uninterested uninterested uninterested uninterested [B] party decide.
The guilty pair has has has has has [A] / have have have have have [B] not been seen since their escape.
She sued the magazine for deformation deformation deformation deformation deformation [A] / defamation defamation defamation defamation defamation [B] of character.
Revealing the secret would be a breach breach breach breach breach [A] / breech breech breech breech breech [B] of trust.
(1) BAABB (2) ABAAB (3) ABBAA (4) BABBA (5) AABBA
24. Biographers excel at dredging dredging dredging dredging dredging [A] / drudging drudging drudging drudging drudging [B] up little known facts.
The concept proved to be too elusive elusive elusive elusive elusive [A] / illusive illusive illusive illusive illusive [B] for the masses to catch.
After wavering among reminiscences and antidotes antidotes antidotes antidotes antidotes [A] / anecdote anecdote anecdote anecdote anecdotes [B] of guns, and of former shooting
parties, the conversation rested on a topic that interested all of them.
We cant bear her nagging, we we we we we [A] / one one one one one [B] can hardly bear to see her suffering so.
The cutter was bearing down the channel at twelve knots knots knots knots knots [A] / naught naught naught naught naught [B].
(1) ABBAA (2) BAABA (3) AABAA (4) BABAA (5) ABAAB
DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS for Questions 25 to 27: for Questions 25 to 27: for Questions 25 to 27: for Questions 25 to 27: for Questions 25 to 27: Each sentence has been fragmented into four parts. Find out which
part of the sentence carries an error.
25. The students viewed the changes in the history course with hostility, having feared that it will
(1) (2) (3)
undermine the secular character of education prevalent in the southern midlands.
(4) (5)
26. To walk, swimming, and cycling are some of the best ways to keep oneself in good health
(1) (2) (3) (4)
in aworld where pollution is rampant.
(5)
27. I have always regarded a church in New York with interest, for account of a marriage solemnized
(1) (2) (3)
there under very singular circumstances.
(4) (5)
DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS for Questions 28 to 30: for Questions 28 to 30: for Questions 28 to 30: for Questions 28 to 30: for Questions 28 to 30: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose
the most appropriate answer to each question.
Ask anyone on the street: what is Romanticism? and you will certainly receive some kind of reply. Everyone
claims to know the meaning of the word romantic. The word conveys notions of sentiment and sentimentality,
a visionary or idealistic lack of reality. It connotes fantasy and fiction. It has been associated with different
times and with distant places: the island of Bali, the world of the Arabian Nights, the age of the troubadours
and even Manhattan. Advertising links it with the effects of lipstick, perfume and soap. If we could ask the
advertising genius who, fifty years ago came up with the brilliant cigarette campaign, blow some my way,
he may have responded with its romantic.
These meanings cause few problems in every day life indeed, few of us wonder about the meaning of
Romanticism at all. Yet we use the expression freely and casually (a romantic, candle-lit dinner). But
literary historians and critics as well as European historians have been quarreling over the meaning of the
word Romanticism for decades. One of the problems is that the Romantics were liberals and conservatives,
revolutionaries and reactionaries. Some were preoccupied with God; others were atheistic to the core. Some
began their lives as devout Catholics, lived as ardent revolutionaries and died as staunch conservatives. The
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expression Romantic gained currency during its own time, roughly 1780-1850. However, even within its own
period of existence, few Romantics would have agreed on a general meaning. Perhaps this tells us something.
To speak of a Romantic era is to identify a period in which certain ideas and attitudes arose, gained currency
and in most areas of intellectual endeavor, became dominant. That is, they became the dominant mode of
expression. Which tells us something else about the Romantics: expression was perhaps everything to them
expression in art, music, poetry, drama, literature and philosophy. Just the same, older ideas did not simply
wither away. Romantic ideas arose both as implicit and explicit criticisms of 18th century Enlightenment
thought. For the most part, these ideas were generated by a sense of inadequacy with the dominant ideals of
the Enlightenment and of the society that produced them.
Romanticism appeared in conflict with the Enlightenment. You could go as far as to say that Romanticism
reflected a crisis in Enlightenment thought itself, a crisis which shook the comfortable 18th century philosophe
out of his intellectual single-mindedness. The Romantics were conscious of their unique destiny. In fact, it
was self-consciousness which appears as one of the keys elements of Romanticism itself.
The philosophes were too objective they chose to see human nature as something uniform. The philosophes
had also attacked the Church because it blocked human reason. The Romantics attacked the Enlightenment
because it blocked the free play of the emotions and creativity. The philosophe had turned man into a soulless,
thinking machine a robot. In a comment typical of the Romantic thrust, William Hazlitt (1778-1830) asked,
For the better part of my life all I did was think. And William Godwin (1756-1836), a contemporary of
Hazlitts asked, what shall I do when I have read all the books? Christianity had formed a matrix into which
medieval man situated himself. The Enlightenment replaced the Christian matrix with the mechanical matrix
of Newtonian natural philosophy. For the Romantic, the result was nothing less than the demotion of the
individual. Imagination, sensitivity, feelings, spontaneity and freedom were stifled choked to death. Man
must liberate himself from these intellectual chains.
28. How does the author use the arguments of the philosophes and the Romantics attacking the church for
different reasons to make a point regarding the Romantics problem with the philosophes?
(1) By mentioning how both opposed the same thing the Churchs treatment of human beings as
being uniform.
(2) By talking about how both opposed the Church on different grounds, which in the end were quite
similar.
(3) By quoting the views of the leaders of the Romantics and the philosophes and showing how they
actually meant the same thing.
(4) By showing how one fought for logic and the other for sentiments thereby proving the Romantics
support of the spirit opposing dependence on rationality.
(5) None of the above.
29. What specific instance of the Romantics self-consciousness is mentioned by the author in the passage?
(1) The author talks of their acceptance of emotions and sentimentality, all of which is possible only in
a faith that is about self-consciousness.
(2) The author mentions the Romantics insistence on ideas and concepts, which is the best expression
of self-consciousness.
(3) The author talks about the Romantics consciousness of their ordinance nonpareil.
(4) The author points out the anomalies between the Romantics and their philosophes where self-
consciousness is mentioned.
(5) The author talks about self consciousness which is not attributed to the philosophes.
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30. What makes the author deduce for the Romantics, expression was everything?
(1) Passion was important to the Romantics.
(2) The Romantics opposed Enlightenment and objectivity.
(3) The existence of atheism in the Romantics.
(4) The romantics could not be submissive.
(5) None of the above.
DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS for Questions 31 to 35: for Questions 31 to 35: for Questions 31 to 35: for Questions 31 to 35: for Questions 31 to 35: Read the arguments given below and answer the questions that
follow.
31. Illusions refer to propositions or set of propositions people judge to be true that in actuality are false.
From this point of view, illusions are always intellectual and inadvertent. Being blind to accuracy, we
unwittingly give illusions the status of truth and bestow on illusions all the respect and honor accorded
to truth and honesty. It is hard to unravel an illusion because the illusion is assumed to be true.
The above passage could be used to strengthen which of the following arguments?
(1) People do not deliberately seek illusions
(2) Some illusions are more worse than others.
(3) Although the ramifications of an illusion may be sweeping, an illusion does not affect every
judgement.
(4) The more we become curious, the more we are likely to suffer from illusions
(5) Our inaccurate assumptions make it difficult to unravel an illusion.
32. Many religious people as well have committed atrocities and similarly are to be found lacking in the
realm of morality and ethics. Religion can only do so much to establish morality, there comes a point
when inner strength, conscience or whatever else there is special about humans must provide for the
rest of a persons moral development.
The above passage could be used to strengthen which of the following arguments?
(1) Gross violence and dishonesty have been perpetrated by many atheists throughout history,
(2) Religion does not guarantee complete moral development of an individual.
(3) Moral and ethical constructions existed in the minds of many people prior to their knowledge of
God.
(4) Without a religious basis, all activities can be considered moral.
(5) Religious institutions change in response to societal shifts of the moral and ethical sort.
33. It is unfortunate that many people doubt the credibility of the manager in giving a fair hearing to the
workers. His records show that in 60% of the registered grievances, he has judged in favour of the
worker.
The above argument is flawed as it ignores the possibility that
(1) a large number of grievances arose out of allegations against the manager.
(2) it is difficult for most managers to listen objectively to workers demands.
(3) The manager is biased against the workers when it comes to increasing the pay rates.
(4) The workers are conscientious and have explained only when they could not resolve the problem
on their own.
(5) The manager is more inclined towards improving his reputation in the company.
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34. The Hidden Eye magazine must have misquoted the remarks of the visiting diplomat from Pretzelstein
about our country. Since the dignitary has sued it for libel, the magazine must have had either planted
a deliberate falsehood to embarrass Pretzelstein or misquoted the diplomats remarks, and the good
relations The Hidden Eye enjoys with Government of Pretzelstein are well known.
Which one of the following arguments exhibits a pattern of reasoning most similar to that in the argument
above?
(1) According to the company policy of The Hidden Eye, employees who are either frequently
absent without notice or who are habitually late receive an official warning. Since Suneeta has
never received such a warning, rumours that she is habitually late must be false.
(2) Any diplomat of Pretzelstein, who discusses a confidential state matter with a member of the press
will be either fired or removed from his assignment. But since no diplomat of Pretzelstein ever
discusses any confidential state matter with a member of the press, no diplomat of Pretzelstein will
ever be removed from his assignment.
(3) Anyone promoted to senior copy editor at The Hidden Eye must have either worked in the copy
department for three years or have an influential sponsor. Raman, therefore, has an influential
sponsor, since he was promoted to senior copy editor after a year on the shop floor.
(4) To earn a merit salary increase, an advertising executive of The Hidden Eye must either bring in
new clients or develop innovative supplements. No innovative supplements were developed at
The Hidden Eye this year, so advertising executives of The Hidden Eye must have brought in
many new clients.
(5) Any diplomat of Pretzelstein who is either awarded the Order of the Pretzel or becomes a Minister
of State has to be recommended by a Member of the Cabinet. Since Von Sterling has been
recommended by a Member of the Cabinet and has become a Minister of State, he must not have
been awarded the Order of the Pretzel.
35. Preventive Treatment for diabetes forestalls certain medical expenses by preventing strokes and heart
disease. Yet any money so saved amounts to only one-fourth of the expenditures required to treat the
diabetic population. Therefore, there is no economic justification for preventive treatment for diabetes.
The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on which one of the following grounds?
(1) It relies on the judgment of experts in a matter to which their expertise is irrelevant
(2) It presupposes what it seeks to establish
(3) It simply ignores the existence of potential counterevidence
(4) It seeks to arrive at a general conclusion based on evidence that may be insufficient in itself to
support that conclusion
(5) It generalizes from atypical occurrences
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Section - II
Quantitative Ability
DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS for Questions 36 and 37: for Questions 36 and 37: for Questions 36 and 37: for Questions 36 and 37: for Questions 36 and 37: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a group of five persons Amir, Bhutal, Chetali, Dhani and Esha such that there are two married couples and
one person who is not married. The average weight of the two couples is 79 kgs and
82 kgs. The average weight of all the women in the mentioned group is 78 kgs and the average weight of all
the persons in the group is 80 kgs. Further, the weight of Chetali is 2 kgs more than the weight of Esha and
weight of Bhutal is 8 kgs more than the weight of Amir. The weight of Dhani is 78 kgs and the weight of each
person in the group is distinct.
36. Which of the following pairs is a married couple?
(1) Amir and Esha (2) Bhutal and Esha (3) Amir and Bhutal
(4) Esha and Dhani (5) Amir and Dhani
37. Which of the following persons is not married?
(1) Bhutal (2) Chetali (3) Esha (4) Dhani (5) Amir
38. The first term of an arithmetic series of consecutive integers is k
2
+ 1. Sum of the first 2k + 1 terms
of this series is
(1) k + (k + 1)
3
(2) (k 1)
3
+ k
3
(3) (k + 1)
3
+ k
3
(4) k
3
+ k
2
(5) (k 1)
2
+ k
2
39. What are the last two digits of 7
7
+ 7
77
+ 7
777
+ 7
7777
++ 7
77777777
?
(1) 99 (2) 56 (3) 63 (4) 48 (5) 92
40. A and B have got a certain number of red and black marbles with them. The ratio of number of red
marbles and black marbles with A and B is 7 : 1 and 9 : 1 respectively. If in all they have 90 marbles,
then which of the following can be the number of black marbles with A?
(1) 10 (2) 5 (3) 15
(4) Both (1) and (2) (5) Both (2) and (3)
41. A function f is defined for all natural numbers n 2 as

=


1
f(n) 1 f(n 1)
n
. If f(1) = 1, then what is
the value of + + + +
1 1 1 1
..... ?
f(1) f(2) f(3) f(9)
(1) 45 (2) 54 (3) 81 (4) 36 (5) None of these
42. A quadrilateral (X
1
) is obtained by joining the mid-points of a second rectangle. Further, a rectangle is
obtained by joining the mid points of quadrilateral (X
1
) obtained above. Again another quadrilateral
(X
2
) is obtained by joining the mid points of the second rectangle. This process is repeated for an
infinite number of times. Find the ratio of the sum of areas of all the rectangles to the sum of the areas
of all the quadrilaterals (X
1
, X
2
...).
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 3 (5) 4 : 3
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43. Anup purchased a few chocolates for his three grandsons such that the number of chocolates received
by each grandson is atleast 2 and is not a prime number. Which of the following cannot be the number
of chocolates purchased by Anup? (All the three grandsons received a distinct number of chocolates by
Anup.)
(1) 21 (2) 23 (3) 16 (4) 18 (5) None of these
44. Find the sum of the series
n 3 9 27
3
1 1 1 1
....... .
log 9 log 9 log 9 log 9
+ + + +
(1)
n(n 1)
2
+
(2)
2
n(n 1) +
(3)
n(n 1)(2n 1)
12
+ +
(4)
n(n 1)
4
+
(5)
4
n(n 1) +
45. Four black cows and three brown cows give as much milk in five days as three black cows and five
brown cows give in four days. If a black cow gives 10 L of milk per day, then how much milk would be
given by a brown cow per day under the same conditions?
(1) 6 L (2) 8 L (3) 10 L (4) 12 L (5) 16 L
46. One-fourth portion of each of the two solid spheres having radii 4 units and 6 units are joined together
such that the centres of the two spheres coincide as shown in the figure given below. What is the total
surface area of the solid thus formed?
C
B O A
D
(1) 88 sq. units (2) 83 sq. units (3) 75 sq. units (4) 73 sq. units (5) 78 sq. units
47. Single copy of a book costs $16, but purchasers of 20 copies or more pay only $13 per copy.
How many values of n (0 < n < 20) exist for which one could buy 20 copies at a cost which is lower
than the cost in which one could buy exactly n copies of that book?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2 (5) None of these
48. Find the number of consecutive zeros at the end of the number S where, S = 5
1
10
2
15
3
....... 100
20
.
(1) 245 (2) 195 (3) 160 (4) 147 (5) 210
49. Find the number of positive integral solutions of the equation (xy)
z
= 64.
(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 17 (5) 18
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DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS for Questions 50 and 51: for Questions 50 and 51: for Questions 50 and 51: for Questions 50 and 51: for Questions 50 and 51: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
PQR is an equilateral triangle as shown in the figure given below. Let S be a point on QR. A semicircle is
drawn having SR as diameter such that PQ is a tangent to the semicircle at the point T. Given that the center of
the semicircle is at point O and the radius of the semicircle is 1 unit.
T
P
R
O S
Q
50. What is the value of
PT
?
TQ
(1)
( )
2 3 1 (2) 2 (3)
( )
3 2 1 (4) 2 3 1 (5) + 3 1
51. Given that the semicircle cuts PR at the point U. What is the ratio of length of the line segment PU to the
radius of the semicircle?
(1)
( )
1: 2 3 (2)
( )
1: 3 1 (3)
( )
3: 3 1 + (4) 2 : 3 (5) None of these
52. Two persons start cycling simultaneously from a point P on a circular track. If they travel at a speeds of
3 km/hr and 10 km/hr respectively, then what should be the ratio of number of distinct points that they
would meet on that track if they travel in the same direction first and in the opposite direction next?
(1) 7 : 13 (2) 3 : 10 (3) 3 : 7 (4) 30 : 13 (5) Cannot be determined
53. Four digit numbers are formed using digits 3, 5, 6 and 8 without any repetition of digit in any number.
Out of all such numbers formed, how many are divisible by 4 but neither divisible by 8 nor by 11?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) 6
54. How many integral values of x satisfy the inequality | [x 3] | 5? + <
{Here, [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x}
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9 (5) 10
55. The number of factors of the number N = 4
4
+ 6
6
is
(1) 14 (2) 28 (3) 42 (4) 56 (5) None of these
56. Six numbers a, b, c, d, e, f are such that a b = 1, b c =
1
2
, c d = 6, d e = 2, e f =
1
2
. What is the
value of (a d : b e : c f) ?
(1) 72 : 1 : 9 (2) 8 : 9 : 9 (3) 24 : 2 : 3 (4) 6 : 1 : 9 (5) 4 : 3 : 27
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57. A trader used to make 5% profit on an item selling at usual marked price. One day, he trebled the
marked price of the item and finally offered a discount of 30%. Find the percentage profit he made on
the item that day.
(1) 120.5% (2) 100% (3) 99.5% (4) 94.5% (5) None of these
DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS for Questions 58 to 60: for Questions 58 to 60: for Questions 58 to 60: for Questions 58 to 60: for Questions 58 to 60: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each
question using the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B
alone.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A
alone.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the
statements alone.
Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
58. The arithmetic mean of four arithmetic series A
1
, A
2
, A
3
and A
4
is 4, 7, 8 and 9 respectively. What is
the sum of the four arithmetic series?
A: A: A: A: A: The total number of terms in the four mentioned series A
1
, A
2
, A
3
and A
4
is 3, 7, 9 and 11 respectively.
B: B: B: B: B: The total number of terms in the four mentioned series is in a Arithmetic Progression. The number
of terms in two out of the four mentioned series is 2 and 4.
59. The figure given below shows the shape of a window. If arc AB is a semicircle and ABCD is a rectangle,
then what is the perimeter of the window?
A
B
C D
A: A: A: A: A: The perimeter of the rectangle ABCD is 142 feet.
B: B: B: B: B: The length of the diagonal of the rectangle ABCD is 61 feet.
60. The total number of candies with three kids Himanshu, Prachi and Veena is an integer, which is less
than 600. The number of candies with Prachi is the square root of the number of candies with Veena.
The number of candies with Himanshu is the square root of the number of candies with Prachi. What is
the number of candies with each of the three mentioned kids?
A: A: A: A: A: The number of candies with Himanshu is a perfect square.
B: B: B: B: B: Each of the mentioned kid has an even number of candies.
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Section - III
Data Interpretation
DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS for Questions 61 to 65: for Questions 61 to 65: for Questions 61 to 65: for Questions 61 to 65: for Questions 61 to 65: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following table gives the standings at a certain stage of a six-nation football tournament. Each team plays
with the other team only once. The following nomenclature holds true for the table: P-Games played,
W-Games won, L-Games lost, D-Games drawn, GF-Goals For, GA-Goals Against, GD-Goal
Difference, Points-Total number of points. Three points are awarded for a win, one for a draw to each team
and no points are awarded in case of a loss.
S.No. Teams P W L D GF GA GD Points
1 ARGENTINA 4 1 1 2 4 4 0 5
2 SPAIN 4 0 1 3 4 5 1 3
3 FRANCE 4 0 1 3 3 4 1 3
4 ITALY 4 2 0 2 6 4 2 8
5 BRAZIL 4 1 0 3 5 3 2 6
6 ENGLAND 4 1 2 1 6 4
Additional information given: Additional information given: Additional information given: Additional information given: Additional information given:
(i) The total number of goals scored in each of the drawn game is 2.
(ii) Argentina and Italy drew their games with England and Brazil respectively.
(iii) England beat Spain.
61. France lost its game with a Scoreline (GF-GA) of
(1) 0-1 (2) 1-2 (3) 1-3 (4) 2-3 (5) None of these
62. How many goals has England scored in its 4 games?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 5 (5) 4
63. How many games have been played till now?
(1) 20 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 7 (5) 15
64. Find the number of goals scored in the game between England and Spain.
(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Five
65. Which of the following teams did Argentina beat?
(1) Brazil (2) France (3) England (4) Spain (5) Italy
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DIRECTIONS for Questions 66 to 70: DIRECTIONS for Questions 66 to 70: DIRECTIONS for Questions 66 to 70: DIRECTIONS for Questions 66 to 70: DIRECTIONS for Questions 66 to 70: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Between 1999 and 2003, UltraTech was the choice of all prospective employees, such that once a person was
recruited at UltraTech, he never left the company. The following table gives the number of employees at
UltraTech at the end of the year for the time period 1999 to 2002. The table also captures the education level
of the employees. UltraTech does not employ people who are not atleast matriculates and once a person gets
recruited, he cannot pursue further education.
Number of Employees at the end of the year Number of Employees at the end of the year Number of Employees at the end of the year Number of Employees at the end of the year Number of Employees at the end of the year
Doctrates Post Graduates Graduates Matriculate
1999 5 17 52 64
2000 16 37 112 132
2001 24 50 150 186
2002 28 62 212 268
NOTE: NOTE: NOTE: NOTE: NOTE: It is necessary for a doctorate to be a post graduate, for a post graduate to be a graduate and for a
graduate to be a matriculate. This means that the number of matriculates also include those who have gone
ahead and done their graduation, post graduation, doctorates. Similarly, for the numbers of graduates and
post graduates.
66. At least how many graduates joined UltraTech in the year 2001?
(1) 38 (2) 56 (3) 62 (4) 48 (5) Cannot be determined
67. How many post graduates who did not continue their education to become doctorates, joined UltraTech
in 2001 and 2002?
(1) 15 (2) 14 (3) 13 (4) 12 (5) Cannot be determined
68. How many employees joined UltraTech in the year 2000?
(1) 68 (2) 91 (3) 84 (4) 75 (5) Cannot be determined
69. How many employees joined UltraTech in the period 1999 to 2002?
(1) 204 (2) 268 (3) 432 (4) 364 (5) Cannot be determined
70. How many employees joined Ultra Tech in the period 2000 to 2002?
(1) 220 (2) 264 (3) 204 (4) 248 (5) 256
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DIRECTIONS for Questions 71 to 75: DIRECTIONS for Questions 71 to 75: DIRECTIONS for Questions 71 to 75: DIRECTIONS for Questions 71 to 75: DIRECTIONS for Questions 71 to 75: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following table provides information about the Population Density of 12 states in United States. These
12 states are ranked as per their population density with the state having greater population density being
given a numerically lesser rank. Area of all the 12 states (in square kilometer) is always an integer. Population
density of any state is the number of people living in the state per square kilometer of the area.
Rank State Population Density
1 New Jersey 438.00
2 Rhode Island 387.35
3 Massachusetts 312.68
4 Connecticut 271.40
5 Maryland 209.23
6 New York 195.18
7 Michigan 67.55
8 Indiana 65.46
9 North Carolina 63.80
10 New Hampshire 53.20
11 Kentucky 39.28
12 Washington 34.20
71. Find the minimum possible aggregate population of Rhode Island, New York and New Hampshire.
(1) 16,572 (2) 18,332 (3) 17,772 (4) 16,492 (5) None of these
72. If the mentioned states are re-ranked as per their area with the state having larger area being given a
numerically lesser rank, then which state among Michigan, North Carolina, Washington, Massachusetts
and Connecticut would have the numerically least rank? [Assume, these five mentioned states have
minimum possible area.]
(1) Connecticut (2) Massachusetts (3) Michigan (4) North Carolina (5) Washington
73. How many of the mentioned 12 states definitely have an area not less than 100 square kilometers?
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4 (5) 5
74. If the area of New York is 150 square kilometers and the average number of people in a family in New
York is 3, then find the total number of families in New York.
(1) 9759 (2) 9653 (3) 9741 (4) 9661 (5) 9619
75. If both Kentucky and Washington have minimum possible area and the area of both the states are
interchanged, with population of both the states remaining unchanged, then find the percentage increase
in the Population Density of Kentucky.
(1) 100% (2) 200% (3) 300% (4) 600% (5) 400%