Professional Documents
Culture Documents
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Pharmacology questions with answers
1) pharmacodynamics is the study of
A.effect of drug in the body
B.effect of body on the drug
C.both
D.none
Ans)A
2)pharmacokinetics is the study of
A.effect of drug in the body
B.effect of body on the drug
C.both
D.none
Ans)B
3)antagonist and inverse agonist differ in
A.antagonist possess affinity but inverse agonist dont
B. antagonist possess efficacy but inverse agonist dont
C. inverse agonist possess affinity but antagonist dont
D. inverse agonist possess efficacy but antagonist dont
Ans)D(agonist and inverse agonist also possess efficacy and affinity)
4)tolerance n tachyphylaxis differ in
A.tolerance takes days to develop
B. tolerance takes minutes to develop
C. tachyphylaxis takes days to develop
D. tachyphylaxis takes minutes to develop
E.A and D
Ans)E(gradual diminution of effect of drug by contiuous administration of
dose-tolerance
Gradual decrese in responsiveness to drug due to frequent
administration-tachyphylaxis)
5)therapeutic index is
A.ratio of median lethal dose to median effective dose
B. ratio of median effective dose to median lethal dose
C.range of plasma concentration of drug
D.range of clearance of drug
Ans) A
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TOPIC: AUTONOMOUS NERVOUS SYSTEM & DRUGS ACTING ON IT
SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM & ADRENERGIC DRUGS
1)Main Transmitter in sympathetic nervous system is
A.adrenaline
B.nor-adrenaline
C.cholines
D.acetylcholine
Ans)B( noradrenaline(NA) acting on adrenergic receptors)
2) find correct statement :: sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous
system
A.ganglion lies near to target organs in sympathetic but far in
parasympathetic
B. ganglion lies near to target organs in sympathetic and in parasympathetic
C. ganglion lies far to target organs in sympathetic and in parasympathetic
D. ganglion lies near to target organs in parasympathetic but far in
sympathetic
Ans)D
3)organ with sympathetic innervation but without nor adrenaline as
transmitter
A.blood vessels
B.sweat glands
C.skeletal muscle
D.salivary glands
Ans)B(sweat glands and adrenal medulla contain Acetyl choline(ACh) as
transmitter)
4)Bronchodilation is associated with action of
A.B2 agonists
B. B2 antagonists
C. B1 agonists
D. B1 antagonists
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Ans)A (though bronchi smooth muscle donot have sympathetic innervation
circulating adrenaline act on B2 adrenergic receptors as agonist and cause
dilation)
5)Adrenergic fibres contain the following as transmitter
A.Adrenaline
B.Noradrenaline
C.Choline
D.Acetylcholine
Ans) B
6)Which of the following inhibit transmitter release(A indicates alpha
receptors)
A.A1-agonists
B. A1-antagonists
C. A2-agonists
D. A2-antagonists
Ans)C (A2-agonists bcoz they act presynaptically and cause auto inhibition of
transmitter release)
7) Which of the following decrese C-AMP
A.A1-agonists
B. A1-antagonists
C. A2-agonists
D. A2-antagonists
Ans)C(A2-agonists)
8)Drugs that inhibit DOPA decarboxylase
A.Methyl DOPA
B.carbidopa
C.Reserpine
D.6-hydroxy dopamine
Ans)B
(Methyl DOPA and 6-hydroxy dopamine inhibit NA release by false NA
formation
Carbidopa inhibit NA release by inhibiting DOPA decarboxylase
Reserpine inhibit NA release by displacement of NA from vescicles
Methyl tyrosine inhibit NA release by inhibiting tyrosine hydroxylase)
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9)drugs that synthesise false neurotransmitter is
A.Methyl DOPA
B.carbidopa
C.Reserpine
D.6-hydroxy dopamine
E.A & D
Ans)E (refer Q8 explination)
10)Which of the following receptor participate in lipolysis
A. B1
B. B2
C. B3
D. A1
Ans)C(B3 adrenergic receptors r located in adipose tissue and participate in
lipolysis)
11)which of the following show partial agonist effect at B receptors
A.ergotamine
B.clonidine
C.oxprenolol
D.atenolol
Ans)C (ergotamine- A1 partial agonist
Clonidine- A2- partial agonists
Oxprenolol- B- partial agonists)
12)which of the following is non selective
A.methoxamine
B.clonidine
C.salbutamol
D.adrenaline
Ans)D(methoxamine- A1 selective
Clonidine- A2 selective
Salbutamol- B2 selective
Adrenaline- non selective)
13)which of the following effect both uptake 1 and uptake 2
A.cocaine
B.amphetamine
C.phenoxybenzamine
D.reserpine
Ans)C(cocaine, amphetamine-uptake 1
Reserpine-vesicular uptake
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Phenoxybenzamine-uptake 1&2
14)Adrenalline is used along with local anaesthetics to
A.Prolong the action of adrenaline
B. Prolong the action of local anaesthetics
C.to prevent the pain caused by adrenaline injection
D.Adrenaline works efficiently during anaesthesia
Ans)B(as adrenaline constricts blood vessels decrease the metabolism of local
anaesthetics)
15)which of the following is non selective adrenergic blocker used in treating
heart failure
A.nebivolol
B.adrenalline
C.dobutamine
D.carvedilol
Ans)D
16)which of the following is B blocker used as eye drops
A.nebivolol
B.timolol
C.clenbuterol
D.carvedilol
Ans)B
17)sympathomimetics used in attention defecit-hyperactivity disorder
A.MethylPhenidate
B.phenoxybenzamine
C.atomoxetine
D.cocaine
E.A&C
Ans)E (indirectly acting sympathomimetics are central nervous stimulants)
18)which of the following is not a use of B2 agonists
A.ASthma
B.delay premature labour
C.illicit use of sports
D.glaucoma
Ans)D(glaucoma is treated by B antagonist-timolol)
19)which of the following causes NA depletion and damage NA neurons also
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A.reserpine
B.guanethidine
C.cocaine
D.imipramine
Ans)B
20)select the wrong statements n pick the right option
1.uptake 1 inhibitors produce sympathomimetic activity
2. uptake 2 inhibitors produce sympathomimetic activity
3. MAO inhibitors produce sympathomimetic activity
4. A2-antagonists produce sympathomimetic activity
5. B antagonists produce sympathomimetic activity
6. A1-agonists produce sympathomimetic activity
A.2 only
B.6 only
C.2 & 5
D.2 & 6
Ans)C (u find ur own dis improves ur understanding capability)
21)adrenergic drugs used as anorectic(suppress hunger-used in obesity but
not recommended as cns side effects)
A.amphetamine
B.sibutramine
C.fenfluramine
D.dexfenfluramine
E.all
Ans)E
TOPIC: AUTONOMOUS NERVOUS SYSTEM & DRUGS ACTING ON IT
CHOLINERGIC DRUGS
1)The neurotransmitter in the parasympathetic system is
A.Adrenaline
B.noradrenaline
C.acetylcholine
D.choline
Ans)C
2)[A]SSERTION: agonism at presynaptic receptors in sympathetic system
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promotes adrenergic transmission
[R]EASON : agonism at presynaptic receptors in parasympathetic
system promotes cholinergic transmissiom
A.both A and R are true and R explains A
B. both A and R are true and R does not explain A
C. both A and R are false
D. A is false and R is true
E. A is true and R is false
Ans)D (presynaptic receptors in adrenergic transmission are auto inhibitors
while in cholinergic receptors are inducers)
3)which of the following receptor subtype are glandular receptors
A.M3 receptors
B. M2 receptors
C. M1 receptors
D. M4 receptors
Ans)A(M1 receptors-neural
M2 receptors-cardiac
M3-glandular
M4&M5-occur in cns)
4)Drug that increase the Actylcholine concentration in the synaptic vesicles
but no cholinergic transmission seen is
A.hemicholinium
B.vesamicol
C.botulinum toxin
D.suxamethonium
Ans)C (its just the magic of sentences it actually mean Acetylcholine release
inhibitor that causes inhibition of release of Ach from the synaptic vescicles
hence the transmission is not seen)
5)which of the following sympathomimetic is receptor non specific
A.muscarine
B.nicotine
C.carbachol
D.pilocarpine
Ans)C
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6)which of the following sympathomimetic used in bladder emptying
A.oxytremorine
B.pilocarpine
C.bethanechol
D.carbachol
Ans)C
7)the organ in which both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervations
show same response
A.liver
B.kidney
C.sweat glands
D.salivary glands
Ans)D(both result in same response saliva secretion
8)which receptors act on cardiac muscle
A.B2&M2
B. B3&M1
C. B2&M1
D. B1&M2
Ans)D
9)which of the following is the parasympathomimetic used as eye drops
A.atropine
B.hyoscine
C.pilocarpine
D.nicotine
Ans)C
10)which of the following parasympatholytic acts as cns depressant
A.atropine
B.hyoscine
C.pilocarpine
D.nicotine
Ans)B(generally muscarinic antagonists called as parasympatholytic are cns
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stimulants like atropine but hyoscine is exception it is cns depressant)
11)Darifenacin : parasympatholytic used in urinary incontinence with few side
effects due to its
A.M1 selectivity
B.M3 selectivity
C.M1&M2 selectivity
D.M2&M3 selectivity
Ans)B
12) parasympatholytic used in the treatment of Chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease
A.Atropine
B.cyclopentolate
C.ipratropium
D.propantheline
Ans)C
13) parasympatholytic used in the treatment of peptic ulcer that is devoid of
helicobacter pylori
A.atropine
B.hyoscine
C.pirenzepine
D.nicotine
Ans)C
14)which of the following produces mydriasis without cycloplegia
A.Tropicamide
B.cyclopentolate
C.atropine
D.Phenylephrine
Ans)D
(mydriasis & cycloplegia:- for testing error of refraction
mydriasis without cycloplegia:- fundoscopy- so adrenergic Phenylephrine is
used)
15) which of the following used in antiparkinsonism treatment
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A.bezatropine
B.hyoscine
C.pirenzepine
D.nicotine
Ans)A
16) which of the following used in treatment of myasthenia gravis
A.edrophonium
B.neostigmine
C.physostigmine
D.ecothiophate
Ans)B(neostigmine&pyridostigmine:- treatment of myasthenia gravis
Edrophonium&tubocurarine:- diagnosis of myasthenia gravis)
17)which of the following is not used in treatment of glaucoma
A.pilocarpine
B.ecothiophate
C.physostigmine
D.cyclopentolate
Ans)D
18) which of the following used in treatment of alzheimers disease
A.Tacrine
B.Donepezil
C.galantamine
D.All
Ans)D (all of these r anti choline esterases used in treatment of alzheimers
disease)
19) which of the following causes malignant hyperthermia
A.hexamethonium
B.suxamethonium
C.decamethonium
D.trimetaphan
Ans)B
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20)neuromuscular depolarizing blocking agents act as
A.Sympathomimetic
B. Sympatholytic
C. paraSympathomimetic
D. paraSympatholytic
Ans)C
21)Pale pink man is the side effect due to
A.hexamethonium
B.suxamethonium
C.decamethonium
D.trimetaphan
Ans)A
22)tetanic fade is the side effect due to
A.tubocurarine
B.trimetaphan
C.hexamethonium
D.galantamine
Ans)A
23) which of the following is both ganglionic stimulant and blocker
A.nicotine
B.epibatidine
C.lobeline
D.trimetaphan
Ans)A (dose dependent action. Nicotine acts as blocker if excess )
24) which of the following used in treatment of motion sickness
A.atropine
B.hyoscine
C.pancuronium
D.atracurium
Ans)B
25) which of the following is ganglionic blocker
A.nicotine in less qty
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B.tirmetaphan
C.pancuronium
D.galantamine
Ans)B
26) [A]SSERTION:neuromuscular blocking drugs of non depolarizing type
cause hypotension and slight tachycardia
[R]EASON : neuromuscular blocking drugs of non depolarizing type
cause histamine release in addition to neuromuscular block
A.both A and R are true and R explains A
B. both A and R are true and R does not explain A
C. both A and R are false
D. A is false and R is true
Ans)A(histamine release results in hypotension due to vascular steal
phenomenon we ll learn it later)
27)anti-cholinesterase poisoning is treated by
A.Atropine
B.pralidoxime
C.physostigmine
D.A&B
Ans)D
28)parasympatholytic poisoning is treated by
A.neostigmine
B.atropine
C.edrophonium
D.ecthiophate
Ans)A
29)theoretical treatment for cobra bite(bungaroo toxin)
A.oral Acetyl choline
B.injection of acetyl choline
C.neostigmine
D.B or C
Ans)D (oral administration of acetyl choline causes its metabolism)
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30) which of the following used as muscle relaxants
A.parasympathomimetic
B.parasympatholytic
C.ganglionic blocker
D.neuromuscular blocker
Ans)D
TOPIC:REMAINING PERIPHERAL MEDIATORS & CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
& DRUGS ACTING ON IT
GENERAL INTRODUCTION
1)which of the following receptors are NOT G-protein coupled
A.5HT-3
B. 5HT-2
C. 5HT-1
D. 5HT-4
Ans)A
2) which of the following drugs act as ANTI-EMETICS
A. 5HT-2 agonists
B. 5HT-3 agonists
C. 5HT-3 antagonists
D. 5HT-2 antagonists
Ans)C
3) which of the following is 5HT-4 agonist
A.buspirone
B.ketanserin
C.metoclopromide
D.methysergide
Ans)C
4) which of the following is WRONG statement
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A.5HT-1D agonism ,partial agonism , and antagonism all used in treating
migraine
B. 5HT-2 antagonism used in treating migraine
C. Tricyclic antidepressants used in treating migraine
D.sympathomimetics that act on B receptors used in treating migraine
Ans)D(sympatholytics that act on B receptors used in treating migraine)
5)which of the ergot alkaloid used in preventing post partum haemorrhage
A.ergotamine
B.ergometerine
C.bromocriptine
D.dihydro-ergotamine
Ans)C
6) which of the following shows side effect RETROPERITONIAL &
MEDIASTINAL FIBROSIS
A.methiothepin
B.methysergide
C.cyproheptadine
D.ergometrine
Ans)B
7)which of the following is used in parkinsons disease
A.ergotamine
B.ergometerine
C.bromocriptine
D.dihydro-ergotamine
Ans)C(bromocriptine is an ergot alkaloid used in parkinsons disease and
endocrine disorders)
8)cholinergic drug used in the migraine prophylaxis is
A.pilocarpine
B.neostigmine
C.clonidine
D.pyridostigmine
Ans)C(clonidine and apraclonidine cholinergic drug used in the migraine
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prophylaxis)
9)In acute attacks of migraine analgesics r used with meteclopramide bcoz
A. meteclopramide hastens absorption of analgesics
B. analgesics hastens absorption of meteclopramide
C. meteclopramide increases gastric emptying hence analgesics eliminated
easily
D. meteclopramide decreases side effects of analgesics
Ans)A(hence used in acute attacks as combination)
10)bronchoconstriction is the major side effect of which of antimigraine drug
A.sumatriptan
B.propanolol
C.ergotamine
D.clonidine
Ans)B(propanolol is B2 blocker hence broncho constriction is seen)
11)which of the following is inhibitory amino acid transmitter
A.glutamate
B.aspartate
C.glycine
D.phenyl alanine
Ans)C
12) which of the following is GABA-A receptor agonists
A.diazepam
B.gabaxadol
C.flumazenil
D.baclofen
Ans)B
13) which of the following inhibit release and inhibit post synaptic action of
glutamate
A.memantine
B.riluzole
C.piracetam
D.clioquinol
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Ans)B
14) which of the following disease is accompanied by loss of cholinergic
neurons
A.parkinsons disease
B.alzheimers disease
C.psychosis
D.depression
Ans)B
15)MAO inhibitor used in parkinsons disease
A.seligeline
B.tranyl cypromine
C.pergolide
D.amantadine
Ans)A
TOPIC: CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM & DRUGS ACTING ON IT
GENERAL ANAESTHETICS,ANXIOLYTICS,SEDATIVES AND HYPNOTICS
1)general anaesthetics generally act by
A.enhancing activity of inhibitory receptors
B. inhibiting activity of exitatory receptors
C.no action on receptors
D.A&B
Ans)D
2)which of the following physiological changes are NOT observed during
treatment with general anaesthetics
A.unconsiousness
B.analgesia
C.muscle relaxation
D.emesis
Ans)D
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3)statement 1:- intravenous anaesthetics are generally used for the induction
of anaesthecia and inhalation anaesthetics used for maintenance of
anaesthecia during surgery.
statement 2 :- intravenous anaesthetic propofol is used in maintenance of
anaesthecia
A.statement 1&2 false
B. statement 1 true & 2 false
C.statement 1 false & 2 true
D. satement 1&2 true
Ans)D
4)total intravenous anaesthesia is seen with
A.thiopental
B.etomidate
C.midazolam
D.propofol
Ans)D
5)general anaesthetic without analgesic activity
A.Halothane
B.thiopental
C.etomidate
D.all
Ans)D
6)general anaesthetic that causes suppression of adrenal steroids
A.etomidate
B.ketamine
C.propofol
D.halothane
Ans)A
7)which of the following general anaesthtics are used in DAY CASE SURGERY
A.propofol
B.desflurane
C.halothane
D.A&B
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Ans)D
8)which of the following general anaesthtic produces DISSOCIATIVE
ANAESTHESIA
A.etomidate
B.ketamine
C.propofol
D.halothane
Ans)B
9) statement 1:- general anaesthetics generally act on GABA-A receptor and
produces anaesthesia
statement 2:- ketamine act on GABA-A receptor and produces anaesthesia
A.statement 1&2 false
B. statement 1 true & 2 false
C.statement 1 false & 2 true
D. satement 1&2 true
Ans)B
10)halothane causes hepatoxicity which is attributed to
A.triflouoro acetate metabolite
B.hydroxy metabolite
C.tri hydroxy metabolite
D.oxygen free radical formation
Ans)A
11)MALIGNANT HYPERTHERMIA is seen with
A.etomidate
B.ketamine
C.propofol
D.halothane
Ans)D
12)which of the following is TRUE
A.high lipid solubility of the drug causes fast induction and slow recovery
B.high lipid solubility of the drug causes slow induction and slow recovery
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C.low lipid solubility of the drug causes fast induction and slow recovery
D.low lipid solubility of the drug causes slow induction and fast recovery
Ans)B
13)midazolam , an intravenous anaesthetic is a
A.barbiturate
B.benzodiazepine
C.dibenzazepine
D.dibenzdiazepine
Ans)B
14)barbiturate used as intravenous anaesthetic is
A.etomidate
B.ketamine
C.propofol
D.thiopental
Ans)D
15)if blood:gas partition coefficient is low in case of inhalation anaesthetic
then
A. slow induction and slow recovery
B. fast induction and slow recovery
C. fast induction and fast recovery
D. slow induction and fast recovery
Ans)C
16)5HT-1A agonist that is used as anxiolytic is
A.spiperone
B.buspirone
C.diazepam
D.zolpidem
Ans)B
17)an antihistamine used as sedative
A.ranitidine
B.diphenhydramine
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C.citrizine
D.diazepam
Ans)B
18)which of the following is withdrawn from market due to severe side effects
A.midazolam
B.triazolam
C.alprazolam
D.zolpidem
Ans)B
19)which of the following used for TAMING OF ANIMALS
A.diazepam
B.ketamine
C.propofol
D.pentobarbital
Ans)A
20)anterograde amnesia is side effect of
A.benzodiazepines
B.barbiturates
C.buspirone
D.st.johns wort
Ans)A
21)benzodiazepine overdosage is treated by
A.B-carbolines
B.A-carbolines
C.G-carbolines
D.none
Ans)A
22)flumazenil used as benzodiazepine overdosage is
A. benzodiazepine agonist
B. benzodiazepine antagonist
C. benzodiazepine inverse agonist
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D. benzodiazepine inverse antagonist
Ans)C
23)benzodiazepines which have no intermediate metabolites and directly
undergo glucoronidation
A.diazepam
B.alprazolam
C.lorazepam
D.clonazepam
Ans)C
24)anxiolytic without action on CNS
A.diazepam
B.propanolol
C.alprazolam
D.meprobamate
Ans)B
25)benzodiazepine used as anxiolytic, anticonvulsant and also anti-maniac
A.diazepam
B.alprazolam
C.lorazepam
D.clonazepam
Ans)D
26)NON-benzodiazepine but acts on benzodiazepine binding site acts as
hypnotic
A.midazolam
B.triazolam
C.alprazolam
D.zolpidem
Ans)D
27)anxiolytic with muscle relaxant activity in following
A.zolpidem
B.zopiclone
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C.meprobamate
D.lorazepam
Ans)C
ANTIPSYCOTICS,ANTI DEPRESSANTS
1)Antipsychotics act by antagonism at which receptors
A.adrenergic
B.cholinergic
C.dopaminergic
D.glutamatergic
Ans)C
2)radioactive dopamine D2 antagonist is
A.raclopride
B.repaglanide
C.dizocilpine
D.chlorpromazine
Ans)A
3)which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic
A.chlopromazine
B.thioridazine
C.haloperidol
D.clozapine
Ans)D
4)clozapine an atypical antipsychotic is
A.benzodiazepine
B. dibenzodiazepine
C. dibenzoazepine
D. benzoazepine
Ans)B
5) antipsychotic drug that acts mainly on D4 receptors is
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A.chlopromazine
B.thioridazine
C.haloperidol
D.clozapine
Ans)D
6)general anaesthetic that causes psychosis is
A.propofol
B.ketamine
C.etomidate
D.midazolam
Ans)B
7)which of the following is NOT the side effect of antipsychotics
A.gynacomastia
B.tardive diskinesia
C.extra pyramidal motor disturbances(EPS)
D.emesis
Ans)D
8)haloperidol belongs to class
A.phenothiazines
B.benzodiazepines
C.thioxanthines
D.buterophenones
Ans)D
9)typical antipsychotic which has least tendency of EPS
A.chlorpromazine
B.risperidone
C.haloperidol
D.thioridazine
Ans) D
10)overdosage of antipsychotics cause
A.emesis
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B.catalepsy
C.narcolepsy
D.psychosis
Ans)B
11)statement 1:: anxiolytics are cns depressants
statement 2:: antipsychotics are cns depressants
based on above statements find the CORRECT statement
A.anxiolytics cause euphoria
B.antipsychotics cause euphoria
C.antipsychotics are also called anti depressants
D.anxiolytics cause apathy or disphoria
Ans)A
12)clozapine side effect is
A.EPS
B.weight loss
C.agranulocytosis
D.emesis
Ans)C
13)which of the following antipsychotic is used in neuraleptanalgesia
A.promethazine
B.flupentixol
C.droperidol
D.sulpiride
Ans)C
14)anti psychotic used as anti emetic is
A.haloperidol
B.phenothiazine
C.sulpiride
D.resperidone
Ans)B
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15)anti psychotics are also known as
A.anti schizophrenics
B.anti epileptics
C.anti emetics
D.anaesthetics
Ans)A
16)which of the following binds to 5 receptors at a time
A.phenothiazines
B.tricyclic antidepressants
C.thioxanthines
D.lithium
Ans)B
17)tricyclic antidepressants mainly act by
A.inhibit NA and 5HT reuptake
B.inhibit NA reuptake only
C.inhibit 5HT reuptake only
D.inhibit the synthesis of NA and 5HT
Ans)A
18)which of the following causes CHEESE reaction when coadministered with
fermented products
A.imipramine
B.vinalfaxine
C.bupropion
D.phenelzine
Ans)D
19)which of the following antidepressant is used to treat nicotine dependence
A.imipramine
B.vinalfaxine
C.bupropion
D.phenelzine
Ans)C
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20)which of the following is the element used in mania treatment
A.lithium
B.valproic acid
C.carbamazepine
D.sodium
Ans)A
21) which of the following antidepressant is used to treat alcohol
dependence
A.imipramine
B.vinalfaxine
C.bupropion
D.trazodone
Ans)D
22)MAO inhibitor that donot cause CHEESE reaction is
A.phenelzine
B.moclobemide
C.tranylcypromine
D.isocarboxazid
Ans)B
23)mao inhibitors are contraindicated with
A.paracetamol
B.cetrizine
C.pethidine
D.cocaine
Ans)C
24)ANTI-TUBERCULOID MAO inhibitor is
A.iproniazid
B.moclobemide
C.tranylcypromine
D.phenelzine
Ans)A
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25)which of the following are safe in over dosage
A.venalfaxine
B.imipramine
C.amitryptiline
D.bupropion
Ans)A
NSAIDS & OPIOID DRUGS
1)NSAIDS DONOT have the following property
A.anlgesic
B.antipyretic
C.anti-inflammatory
D.anti-emetic
Ans)D
2)NSAID without anti-inflammatory action
A.aspirin
B.mefenamic acid
C.rofecoxib
D.paracetamol
Ans)D
3)reyes syndrome is the side effect of
A.aspirin
B.mefenamic acid
C.rofecoxib
D.paracetamol
Ans)A
4)which of the following is the WRONG statement of ASPIRIN
A.aspirin prevents platelet aggregation
B.aspirin causes salicylate poisoning
C.aspirin produce salicylate metabolite which is inactive
D.aspirin is used in cardiovascular disorders
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Ans)C
5)which of the following is NOT a prodrug
A.Sulindac
B.Nabumetone
C.parecoxib
D.paracetamol
Ans)D
6)N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine is the toxic metabolite produced from
A.aspirin
B.mefenamic acid
C.rofecoxib
D.paracetamol
Ans)D
7)which of the following opioid is used as anti tussive
A.pethidine
B.codeine
C.cocaine
D.amphetamine
Ans)B
8)which of the following are cox-2 selective inhibitors
A.aspirin
B.paracetamol
C.rofecoxib
D.diclofenac
Ans)C
9)cox-2 selective inhibitors have specific side effect
A.renal toxicity
B.cardio toxicity
C.hepato toxicity
D.bone rigidity
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Ans)B
10)which of the following statement is WRONG regarding NSAIDS
A. NSAIDS cause delay in labour
B. NSAIDS cause closure of ductus arteriosus
C. NSAIDS cause peptic ulceration
D. NSAIDS cause brain haemorrhage
Ans)D
11) which of the following is cox Irreversible inhibitor
A.aspirin
B.paracetamol
C.rofecoxib
D.diclofenac
Ans)A
12)aspirin is contraindicated with
A.warfarin
B.probenicid
C.sulphonyl ureas
D.ALL
Ans)D
13)dysphoria is associated with which opioid receptor
A.Kappa receptor
B.gamma receptor
C.Meu receptor
D.all
Ans)A
14) which of the following is partial agonist at MEU opioid receptor
A.nalorphine
B.buprenorphine
C.nalbuphine
D.nalaxone
Ans)B
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15)which of the following is a partial agonist
A.pentazocine
B.naloxone
C.morphine
D.codeine
Ans)A
16) which of the following is a benzomorphan derivative
A.pethidine
B.morphine
C.codeine
D.pentazocine
Ans)D
17)An opioid that lacks analgesic action is
A.pethidine
B.morphine
C.codeine
D.loperamide
Ans)D
18)opioid that is used as anaesthtic for higher animals
A.etorphine
B.morphine
C.codeine
D.pethidine
Ans)A
19)opioid agonist used in the treatment of withdrawl syndrome is
A.methadone
B.buprenorphine
C.nalbuphine
D.nalaxone
Ans)A
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20)which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of opioids
A.constipation
B.respiratory depression
C.abstinence syndrome
D.hyperpyrexia(high fever)
Ans)D
21)opioid which cause respiratory depression that cannot be reversed by the
naloxone is
A.nalorphine
B.buprenorphine
C.nalbuphine
D.nalaxone
Ans)B
22)which of the following is used to detect opiate poisoning
A.constipation
B.respiratory depression
C.abstinence syndrome
D.pin point pupils
Ans)D
23)straub tail phenomenon in rats is due to injection with
A.opioid analgesic
B.NSAID
C.anti histamine
D.antiseptic
Ans)A
24)opioids lack which of the following activity
A.analgesic
B.anti inflammatory
C.antipyretic
D.B&D
Ans)D
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25)opioid that donot produce respiratory depression is
A.pethidine
B.morphine
C.meptazinol
D.pentazocine
Ans)C
ANTI EPILEPTICS, CNS STIMULANTS, DRUGS OF ABUSE, LOCAL
ANAESTHETICS
1)which of the following group are used in general
anaesthesia,sedative,hypnotic,anxiolytic and anti epileptics
A.benzodiazepines
B.phenothiazines
C.thioxanthines
D.tri cyclic anti depressants
Ans)A
2) which of the following is used in all types of seizures
A.valproate
B.benzodiazepines
C.ethosuccimide
D.phenytoin
Ans)A
3) which of the following is used in absence seizures
A.phenytoin
B.phenobarbital
C.tiagabine
D.ethosuximide
Ans)D
4) which of the following antiepileptic used in migraine prophylaxis
A.phenytoin
B.valproate
C.tiagabine
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D.ethosuximide
Ans)B
5)which of the following is muscle relaxant used to treat malignant hyper
thermia
A.dantrolene
B.mephenesin
C.baclofen
D.saclofen
Ans)A
6) which of the following has epileptic activity due to block of Na
channels,AMPA receptors and enhance GABA
A.levitiracetam
B.topiramate
C.zonisamide
D.lamotrigine
Ans)B
7)anti epileptic used in the treatment of cardiac disrhythmias
A.phenytoin
B.carbamazepine
C.tiagabine
D.ethosuximide
Ans)A
8)spina bifida is the specific side effect caused by
A.phenytoin
B.valproate
C.tiagabine
D. carbamazepine
Ans)B
9)cleft lip/palate is the specific side effect caused by
A.phenytoin
B.valproate
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C.tiagabine
D.carbamazepine
Ans)A
10) which of the following is respiratory stimulant
A.doxapram
B.amphetamine
C.cocaine
D.bicuculine
Ans)A
11) which of the following is used to treat attention defecit hyperactivity
disorder
A.doxapram
B.amphetamine
C.cocaine
D.bicuculine
Ans)B
12) which of the following is NOT the property of methyl xanthines
A.reduce the incidence of asthmatic attacks
B.antagonise adenosine receptors
C.inhibit phosphodiesterase enzyme
D.cns depressant
Ans)D
13)psychomimetic drug that antagonize NMDA receptors
A.phencyclidine
B.LSD
C.amphetamine
D.Ectasy
Ans)A
14)which of the following is NOT used in treatment of alcohol dependence
A.chlordiazepoxide
B.disulfiram
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C.acamprosate
D.bupropion
Ans)D
15)mechanism of action of local anaesthetics is
A.Na channel block
B.H1 block
C.adrenergic receptor block
D.GABA block
Ans)A
16) local anaesthetic that has no basic group is
A.cocaine
B.procaine
C.benzocaine
D.lidocaine
Ans)C
17)which is added to local anaesthtic to prolong the action of it
A.acetyl choline
B.adrenalline
C.noradrenaline
D.cocaine
Ans)B
18)cns and cardiac side effects of bupivacaine are mainly due to isomer
A.S(-)
B.S(+)
C.R(-)
D.R(+)
Ans)B
19) which of the following antagonizes the antibacterial effect of
sulphonamides when used simultaneously
A.lidocaine
B.procaine
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C.benzocaine
D. cocaine
Ans)B
20) which of the following is most preferred for spinal anaesthesia
A.lidocaine
B.procaine
C.benzocaine
D. cocaine
Ans)A
21) which of the following is most preferred for labour pains (obstetric)
A.bupivacaine
B.tetracaine
C.lignocaine
D.benzocaine
Ans)A
22)anti epileptic used in trigeminal neuralgia is
A. lamotrigine
B.valproate
C.tiagabine
D.carbamazepine
Ans)D
23)use dependent Na channel block is seen in
A.local anaesthetics
B.anti epileptics
C.A&B
D.anti psychotics
Ans)C
24)local anaesthetic used in neuropathic pain
A.cocaine
B.procaine
C.benzocaine
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D.lignocaine
Ans)D
TOPIC: ORGAN SYSTEMS
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM & DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
1)which of the following is bronchodilator of long acting type
A.salmeterol
B.salbutamol
C.terbutaline
D.beclometasone
Ans)A
2) which of the following is bronchodilator with cns stimulant and weak
diuretic property
A.theophylline
B.salbutamol
C.ipratropium
D.monteleucast
Ans)A
3)in the treatment of asthma theophylline given with ethylenediamine
A.to increase the solubility in water
B.to increase the clearance of drug
C.to decrease solubility in water
D.to use it as inhalant
Ans)A
4) which of the following belongs to cysteinyl leukotriene antagonist
A.monteleucast
B.salbutamol
C.terbutaline
D.ipratropium
Ans)A
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5)glucocorticoids are used as___ in asthma
A.anti inflammatory
B.bronchodilators
C.diuretic
D.muscle relaxant
Ans)A
6) which of the following has CROAKY VOICE as unwanted effect in asthma
A. glucocorticoids
B. cysteinyl leukotriene antagonists
C.muscarinic antagonists
D.B2- antagonists
Ans)A
7)anaphylactic shock or angiooedema is treated by
A.adrenaline
B.salbutamol
C.terbutaline
D.ipratropium
Ans)A
8)which of the following is the phosphodiesterase inhibitor used in the COPD
A.roflumilast
B.monteleucast
C.zafirleucast
D.omalizumab
Ans)A
9)proton pump inhibitors are
A.benzimidazoles
B.benzodiazepines
C.imidazoles
D.azoles
Ans)A
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10)H2 antagonist that inhibits CYP450 enzymes
A.cimetidine
B.omeprazole
C.ranitidine
D.famotidine
Ans)A
11)mode of action of proton pump inhibitors is
A.inhibit H+/k+ ATPase
B.inhibit Na+/k+ ATPase
C. inhibit Na+/Cl- ATPase
D. inhibit H+/ Cl- ATPase
Ans)A
12)which of the following are muco-protective
A.Bismuth chelate
B.omeprazole
C.ranitidine
D.famotidine
Ans)A
13)the main side effect of antacids
A. constipation
B. .emesis
C.head ache
D.muscle fatigue
Ans)A
14)peptic ulcer is caused by
A.helicobacter pylori
B. helicobacter loureri
C.salmonella sps
D.wucheraria sps
Ans)A
15)which of the following is gynacomastia causing drug
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A.cimetidine
B.omeprazole
C.ranitidine
D.famotidine
Ans)A
16) which of the following is not a target of antiemetic drugs
A.H2 antagonism
B.5HT3 antagonism
C.muscarinic antagonism
D.D2 antagonism
Ans)A
17) which of the following is used to treat Monday morning sickness
A.promethazine
B.metoclopramide
C.domperidone
D.ondansetron
Ans)A
18) ) which of the following is banned recently as it caused foetal cardiac
arrythmias
A.cisapride
B.metoclopramide
C.domperidone
D.docussate sodium
Ans)A
19)which of the following is faecal softner
A. docussate sodium
B.senna
C.domperidone
D.nabilone
Ans)A
20) which of the following is used in treating diarrhoea
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A.loperamide
B.domperidone
C.meteclopramide
D.senna
Ans)A
EXCETORY SYSTEM,ANTI DIABETICS,OBESITY
1)loop diuretics show which of the following pump at lumen
A.Na+/H+ antiport
B. Na+/H+ symport
C. Na+/k+ -atpase
D. Na+/k+/2cl-
Ans)A
2) diuretics generally show which of the following pump at basolateral
membrane
A.Na+/H+ antiport
B. Na+/H+ symport
C. Na+/k+ -atpase
D. Na+/k+/2cl-
Ans)C
3)which of the following is potassium sparing diuretic
A.mannitol
B.theophylline
C.triamterene
D.acetazolamide
Ans)C
4) which of the following is carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used as diuretic
A.mannitol
B.theophylline
C.triamterene
D.acetazolamide
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Ans)D
5)gynacomastia is specific side effect of which diuretic
A.mannitol
B.spironolactone
C.triamterene
D.acetazolamide
Ans)B
6)which of the following diuretic is used in treatment of glaucoma
A.mannitol
B.spironolactone
C.triamterene
D.acetazolamide
Ans)D
7)mechanism of action of triamterene
A.Na channel block
B.k channel block
C.ca channel block
D.ALL
Ans)A
8)diuretics that are safe when simultaneously used with digoxin and other
dissrhytmia drugs
A.mannitol
B.theophylline
C.triamterene
D.acetazolamide
Ans)C
9)aminoglycosides are contraindicated with loop diuretics bcoz
A.combination cause severe deafness
B.cause metabolism inhibition
C. cause metabolism increase
D.cause severe diuresis
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Ans)A
10) which of the following is not a thiazide diuretic
A.chlortalidone
B.indapamide
C.metolazone
D.amiloride
Ans)D
11)nocturnal enuresis in children can be treated with
A.desmopressin
B.theophylline
C.triamterene
D.acetazolamide
Ans)A
12) which of the following is used to treat nephrogenic diabetes incipidus
A.bendroflumithiazide
B. desmopressin
C. amiloride
D.triamterene
Ans)A
13)canrenone is the metabolite of
A.mannitol
B.spironolactone
C.triamterene
D.acetazolamide
Ans)B
14)hyperglycemia side effect is seen with
A.glococorticoids
B.thiazide diuretics
C.protease inhibitors
D.ALL
Ans)D
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15)alfa glucosidase inhibitor is
A.acarbose
B.metformin
C.rosiglitazones
D.chlorpropamide
Ans)A
16)mechanism of biguanides
A.reduce insulin resistance
B.inhibit gluconeogenesis
C.decrease LDL & VLDL
D.ALL
Ans)D
17)which of the following has mechanism of action as stimulate B cells of
pancreas to produce insulin
A.biguanides
B.glitazones
C.sulphonyl ureas
D. alfa glucosidase inhibitor
Ans)C
18)carditoxicity is associated mainly with
A.biguanides
B.glitazones
C.sulphonyl ureas
D. alfa glucosidase inhibitor
Ans)B
19)which of the following act on PPAR-gamma receptor
A.biguanides
B.glitazones
C.sulphonyl ureas
D. alfa glucosidase inhibitor
Ans)B
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20)which of the following anti obesic drug is removed from market in India
recently
A.sibutramine
B.metformin
C.rosiglitazones
D.orilstat
Ans)A
BLOOD , HEART AND RELATED TOPICS
1)which of the following are the teritiary pacemakers
A.SA node
B.AV node
C.bundle of his and purkinje fibres
D.cells of wall of heart
Ans)C
2) which of the following are the choice of drug during acute anginal attack
A.organic nitrates
B.K channel activators
C.Beta-antagonists
D.Ca channel blockers
Ans)A
3) which of the following is the prominent side effect of organic nitrates
A.Monday morning sickness
B.bradyhycardia
C.emesis
D.hypertension
Ans)A
4)vascular steal is the phenomenon seen in
A.digoxin
B.amrinone
C.amiodarone
D.dipyridamole
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Ans)D
5) which of the following are used in cyanide poisoning
A.ivabradine
B.amyl nitrite
C.amiodarone
D.dipyridamole
Ans)B
6)potassium channel activator is
A.verapamil
B.amyl nitrite
C.Nicorandil
D.dipyridamole
Ans)C
7)Ca channel blocker that acts on both L & T type channels
A.mibefradil
B.nifedipine
C.diltiazem
D.amilodipine
Ans)A
8)ditiazem belongs to which group of ca channel blockers
A.dihydropyridines
B.phenylalkylamines
C.benzothiazepines
D.benzodiazepines
Ans)C
9)which of the following group of ca channel blockers not used as anti-
disrhythmiatic
A.dihydropyridines
B.phenylalkylamines
C.benzothiazepines
D.benzodiazepines
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Ans)B
10)mechanism of action of cardiac glycosides is
A.inhibition of Na+/K+ Atpase
B. inhibition of Na+/cl- Atpase
C. inhibition of K+/cl-+ Atpase
D. inhibition of H+/K+ Atpase
Ans)A
11) which of the following is a vasodilator and anti platelet drug
A.verapamil
B.amyl nitrite
C.Nicorandil
D.dipyridamole
Ans)D
12)digoxin shows
A.increased force of conduction and negative rate of conduction
B. increased force of conduction and increased rate of conduction
C. negative force of conduction and negative rate of conduction
D. negative force of conduction and increased rate of conduction
Ans)A
13)antidysrhytmic drug showing atropine like effects belong to the class
A.1a
B.1b
C.1c
D.2
Ans)A
14)adenosine is used in
A.Supra ventricular tachycardia
B.rapid atrial fibrillation
C.heart block
D.sinus bradycardia
Ans)A
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15)which of the following anti disrhythmia drug show both Na channel and K
channel block
A. amiodarone
B. verapamil
C.digoxin
D.flecainide
Ans)A
16) which of the following group of ca channel blockers used as vasodilator
by action on blood vessels(antihypertensive)
A.dihydropyridines
B.phenylalkylamines
C.benzothiazepines
D.benzodiazepines
Ans)A
17)which of the following drug used to treat baldness though
antihypertensive
A.minoxidil
B.Nicorandil
C.cromakalim
D.milrinone
Ans)A
18)which of the following is not a phosphodiesterase inhibitor
A.amrinone
B.milrinone
C.theophylline
D.nicorandil
Ans)D
19) which of the following is rennin inhibitor
A.enalkiren
B.captopril
C.valsartan
D.enalprilat
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Ans)A
20)side effect of Angiotensin Converting Enzyme inhibitors
A.psychosis
B.dry cough
C.emesis
D.fatigue
Ans)B
21)ankle oedema is side effect produced by
A.Ca channel blockers
B.beta blockers
C.digoxin
D.Na channel blockers
Ans)A
22)pulmonary hypertension is treated with
A.captopril
B.valsartan
C.sildenafil
D.clopidogrel
Ans)C
23)HMG CO-A reductase inhibitors are
A.statins
B.sartans
C.prils
D.Fibrates
Ans)A
24)gall stones formation is the side effect of
A.clofibrate
B.atorvastatin
C.ezetimibe
D.colestipol
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Ans)A
25)fish oil derivatives are rich in
A.omega-1-fatty acids
B. omega-2-fatty acids
C. omega-3-fatty acids
D. omega-5-fatty acids
Ans)C
26)statins and fibrates cause
A.rhabdomyolysis
B.emesis
C. heart block
D.atrial fibrillation
Ans)A
BLOOD & RELATED TOPICS REMAINING
1)Treatment of overdosage of warfarin is by
A.heparin
B.vitamin k
C.danaparoid
D.folic acid
Ans)B
2)heparin is a
A.glucosaminoglycan
B.glycogen polymer
C.amino acid
D.fat
Ans)A
3)low molecular weight heparin inhibits
A.IIa and Xa factor
B. Xa factor
C. IIa only
D.none
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Ans)B
4)which of the following is an heparin antagonist
A.protamine
B.fondaparinux
C.vitamin-k
D.melagatran
Ans)A
5)which of the following is NOT a thrombin inhibitor
A. danaparoid
B.hirudin
C.melagatran
D.warfarin
Ans)D
6)which of the following is vitamin-k antagonist
A. danaparoid
B.hirudin
C.melagatran
D.warfarin
Ans)D
7) which of the following is NOT antiplatelet drug
A.aspirin
B.epoprostenol
C.clopidogrel
D.hirudin
Ans)D
8)abiciximab is a glycoprotein
A.antagonist at IIa/IIIb
B. antagonist at IIb/IIIa
C. agonist at IIa/IIIb
D. agonist at IIb/IIIa
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Ans)B
9)which of the following is an thienopyridine derivative
A. danaparoid
B. clopidogrel
C.melagatran
D.warfarin
Ans)B
10)mode of a action of antifibrinolytics
A.inhibits conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
B.promotes conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
C.vitamink antagonist
D.inhibit cox
Ans)A
11)anti thrombolytic drug is
A.streptokinase
B. clopidogrel
C.melagatran
D.tranexamic acid
Ans)D
12)tissue plasminogen activator among the following is
A.streptokinase
B. clopidogrel
C.melagatran
D.tranexamic acid
Ans)A
13)storage form of iron in human body as
A.haemosiderin
B.haemoglobin
C.iron plates
D.transferrin
Ans)A
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14)mode of action of desferroxamine is
A.inhibit iron uptake
B. chelation of iron
C.increase iron storage
D.increase haemoglobin formation
Ans)B
15)recombinant granulocyte colony stimulating factor is
A.filgrastim
B.erythropoietin
C.streptokinase
D.aprotinin
Ans)A
16) recombinant granulocyte colony stimulating factor shows prolonged
action when conjugated with
A.poly ethylene glycol
B.poly ether
C.polyethylene
D.ALL
Ans)A
ANTIHISTAMINES
1)which of the following is non sedative anti histamine
A.hydroxyzine
B.promethazine
C.chlorpheneramine
D.Fexofenadine
Ans)D
2) which of the following is non sedative anti histamine withdrawn bcoz of
serious cardiac side effects
A.Fexofenadine
B.mizolastine
C.loratidine
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D.terfenadine
Ans)D
3)antihistamines used in treatment of motion sickness
A.promethazine
B. hydroxyzine
C.triprolidine
D.clemastine
Ans)A
4)which of the following is not a clinical use of anti histamines
A.adjunct to adrenaline in anaphylaxis
B.antiemetic
C.treatment of allergic reactions
D.Nausea
Ans)D
ANTI GOUT DRUGS
5)mode of action of colchicine
A.xanthine oxidase inhibitor
B.increase uric acid secretion
C.inhibit leucocyte migration into joint
D.anti inflammatory and analgesic
Ans)C
6)the following are the antigout drugs
I)colchicine
II)NSAIDs
III)Allopurinol
Which are used in acute attack of gout
A.I&II
B.I&III
C.I ONLY
D.II&III
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Ans)A
7)Drunken walk of neutrophylls is the distinguishing feature indicates
treatment with
A. Allopurinol
B. colchicine
C.probenecid
D.sulfinpyrazone
Ans)B
8) which of the following is uricosuric with NSAID activity
A. Allopurinol
B. colchicine
C.probenecid
D.sulfinpyrazone
Ans)D
9)stevens- Johnson syndrome is side effect seen in which of the following
A. Allopurinol
B. colchicine
C.probenecid
D.sulfinpyrazone
Ans)A
10)mode of action of allopurinol is
A. inhibit uric acid synthesis
B.increase uric acid secretion
C.inhibit leucocyte migration into joint
D.anti inflammatory and analgesic
Ans)A
ANTI-RHEUMATOID DRUGS
11)which of the following are NOT DMARDS
A.penicillamine
B.gold compounds
C.chloroquine
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D.ciclosporin
Ans)D
12) which of the following is immunosuppresent used as ANTI-RHEUMATOID
A.penicillamine
B.gold compounds
C.chloroquine
D.ciclosporin
Ans)D
13)which of the following is used in treatment of systemic or discoid
erythmatosus
A. penicillamine
B.sulfasalazine
C.hydroxychloroquine
D.methotrexate
Ans)C
14) which of the following is cytokine inhibitor used in Rheumatoid arthritis
A.anakinara
B.adalimumab
C.etanercept
D.infliximab
E.ALL
Ans)E
15) which of the following is used in wilsons disease
A. penicillamine
B.sulfasalazine
C.hydroxychloroquine
D.methotrexate
Ans)A
IMMUNOSUPPRESANT DRUGS
16)mode of action of ciclosporin
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A.inhibits calcineurin
B.inhibit cytokine gene expression
C.inhibit purine synthesis
D.ALL
Ans)A
17)mode of action of azathioprine
A.inhibits calcineurin
B.inhibit cytokine gene expression
C.inhibit purine synthesis
D.inhibit pyrimidine synthesis
Ans)C
18)mode of action of leflunomide
A.inhibits calcineurin
B.inhibit cytokine gene expression
C.inhibit purine synthesis
D.inhibit pyrimidine synthesis
Ans)D
19)drug metabolites that undergo enterohepatic circulation
I) leflunomide
II)mycophenolic acid
III)ciclosporin
A.I&II
B.I&III
C.I ONLY
D.II&III
Ans)A
20)mode of action of glucocorticoids as immunosuppressant is
A.inhibits calcineurin
B.inhibit cytokine gene expression
C.inhibit purine synthesis
D.inhibit pyrimidine synthesis
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Ans)B
TOPIC: CHEMOTHERAPY
INTRODUCTION TO CHEMOTHERAPY
TOPIC: CHEMOTHERAPY
INTRODUCTION TO CHEMOTHERAPY
1)which of the following acts on cell wall synthesis
I)cycloserine
II)vancomycin
III)bacitracin
IV)Beta lactam antibiotics
V)tetracyclins
VI)macrolides
A.ALL except V&VI
B. ALL
C. V&VI
D.I&II&III&VI
Ans)A
SULPHONAMIDES
2)which of the following sulphonamide is a prodrug
A.sulfasalazine
B.sulfapyridine
C.sulphalene
D.sulfamethoxazole
Ans)A
3)mode of action of sulphonamides
A.competetive PABA inhibitor
B.acts on DNA
C.inhibit Rna polymerase
D.dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor
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Ans)A
4)sulphonamides are
A.bacteriostatic
B.bactericidal
C.anti viral
D.bacteriostatic& anti viral
Ans)A
5)which of the following is side effect seen with sulphonamides
A.crystalluria
B.emesis
C.bone marrow depression
D.immuno suppression
Ans)A
6)which of the following is folate antagonist
A.trimethoprim
B.sulfapyridine
C.BOTH A&B
D.tetracyclin
Ans)A
7)sulfasalazine is combination of
A.sulfapyridine & aminosalicylate
B.trimethoprim & sulfamethoxazole
C. sulfapyridine & sulfamethoxazole
D. sulfamethoxazole & aminosalicylate
Ans)A
8)cotrimoxazole is combination of
A.sulfapyridine & aminosalicylate
B.trimethoprim & sulfamethoxazole
C. sulfapyridine & sulfamethoxazole
D. sulfamethoxazole & aminosalicylate
Ans)B
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BETA LACTAM ANTIBIOTICS
PENICILLINS& CEPHALOSPORINS
9)resistance to penecillins is due to development of
A.beta lactamase
B.efflux of penecillins
C.thick cell walls
D.DNA possess penicillin resistant nature
Ans)A
10)co-amoxiclav is combination of
A.trimethoprim & sulfamethoxazole
B.clavulanic acid & amoxicillin
C. clavulanic acid & trimethoprim
D.benzyl penicillin & clavulanic acid
Ans)B
11)clavulanic acid is
A. beta lactamase inhibitor
B.folate antagonist
C.broad spectrum penecillin
D.extended spectrum penicillin
Ans)A
12) which of the following is side effect seen with penicillins
A.crystalluria
B.emesis
C.anaphylactic shock
D.immuno suppression
Ans)C
13)which of the following is NOT beta lactamase resistant
A.flucloxacillin
B.cefalexin
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C.aztreonam
D.imipenem
Ans)B
14)cilastatin is
A.Renal dihydropeptidase inhibitor
B. beta lactamase inhibitor
C. folate antagonist
D.both A&C
Ans)A
15)which of the following has no action against gram +ve bacteria
A.flucloxacillin
B.cefalexin
C.aztreonam
D.imipenem
Ans)C
16)which of the following belongs to an extended spectrum penicillins
A.flucloxacillin
B.ticarcillin
C.aztreonam
D.imipenem
Ans)B
17) which of the following belongs to 3rd generation cephalosporins
A.cefuroxime
B.cefalexin
C.cefaclor
D.ceftriaxone
Ans)D
18)which of the following statement is TRUE
A.broad spectrum pencillins are beta lactamase resistant
B. extended spectrum pencillins are beta lactamase resistant
C.carbapenems are beta lactamase succeptible
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D.monobactams are beta lactamase resistant
Ans)D
19)mode of action of Beta lactam antibiotics
A.inhibit cell wall synthesis
B.inhibit topoisomerase II
C.inhibit dna synthesis
D.inhibit cell division
Ans)A
20)cephalosporin that cause drug induced alcohol intolerance is
A.cefoperazone
B.cefalexin
C.cefaclor
D.ceftriaxone
Ans)A
Date::21-09-2011
TOPIC: CHEMOTHERAPY
ANTI BACTERIALS AFFECTING PROTEIN SYNTHESIS
TETRACYCLINES
1) mode of action of tetracyclines
A.inhibit cell wall synthesis
B.inhibit topoisomerase II
C.inhibit protein synthesis
D.inhibit cell division
Ans)C
2)specific site of action of tetracyclines
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.abnormal codon leads to mis reading of message
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
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D.inhibition of translocation
Ans)A
3)tetracyclins should not be co administered with
A.milk
B.antacids
C.iron tablets
D.ALL
Ans)D
4)which tetracycline inhibits the action of the anti diuretic hormone
A.tetracycline
B.demeclocycline
C.minocycline
D.doxycycline
Ans)B
CHLORAMPHENICOL
5)mode of action of chloramphenicol is
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.abnormal codon leads to mis reading of message
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.inhibition of translocation
Ans)C
6)resistance to chloramphenicol is due to
A.production of chloramphenicol acetyltransferase
B.development of efflux chambers
C.decreased upake of chloramphenicol by organism
D.forms a protective barrier over the dna
Ans)A
7)which of the following side effects seen with chloramphenicol
A.pancytopenia
B.grey baby syndrome
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C.alteration of intestinal microbial flora
D.ALL
Ans)D
8) resistance to chloramphenicol is
A.plasmid mediated
B.rna mediated
C.dna mediated
D.gram +ve mediated
Ans)A
9)chloramphenicol is bacteriostatic in general but bactericidal to
A.Haemophilus influenzae
B.helicobacter sps
C.streptomyces sps
D.compilobacter sps
Ans)A
AMINOGLYCOSIDES
10) specific site of action of aminoglycosides
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.abnormal codon leads to mis reading of message
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.inhibition of translocation
Ans)B
11)aminoglycosides are contraindicated with
I)Loop diuretics bcoz (a)
II)cephalosporins bcoz (b)
Here (a) and (b) respectively is
A.nephrotoxic and oototoxic
B.oototoxic and nephrotoxic
C.hepatotoxic and nephrotoxic
D.hepatotoxic and oototoxic
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Ans)B
12)aminoglycosides are contraindicated with
A.milk
B.antacids
C.iron tablets
D.neuromuscular blocking agents
Ans)D
13)resistance of aminoglycosides is cleared by coadministration with
A.penecellins
B.cephalosporins
C.loop diuretics
D.tetracyclins
Ans)A
14)which of the following is not an aminoglycoside
A.streptomycin
B.netilimycin
C.tobramycin
D.azithromycin
Ans)D
MACROLIDES
15) specific site of action of macrolides
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.abnormal codon leads to mis reading of message
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.inhibition of translocation
Ans)D
16)which of the following causes cholestatic jaundice
A.Beta lactams
B.tetracyclins
C.macrolides
D.chloramphenicol
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Ans)C
17) which of the following is not macrolide
A.erythromycin
B.roxithromycin
C.clarithromycin
D.gentamycin
Ans)D
18)clarithromycin is active against
A.mycobacteria
B. helicobacter sps
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D.ALL
Ans)D
STREPTOGRAMINS
19)which of the following statements are TRUE regarding mode of action of
Streptogramins combination
I)the ratio of mixture of quinupristin : dalfopristin is 3 : 7
II)dalfopristin modifies ribosomal structure thus promotes binding with
quinupristin
III)mechanism of action is inhibition of cell wall formation
A.I&II
B.I&II&III
C.II&III
D.I&III
Ans)A
20) which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Streptogramins
A.amikacin is a Streptogramin
B.combination is less active than individual Streptogramins
C.active against GRAM +ve bacteria resistant to other drugs
D. mechanism of action is inhibition of cell wall formation
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Ans)C
LINCOSAMIDES
1) mode of action of lincosamides is
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.abnormal codon leads to mis reading of message
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.inhibition of translocation
Ans)D
2)the main side effect of lincosamides is
A.pancytopenia
B.grey baby syndrome
C. intestinal rigidity
D.pseudomonas colitis
Ans)D
3) which of the following is lincosamides
A.erythromycin
B.roxithromycin
C.clarithromycin
D.clindamycin
Ans)D
OXAZOLIDONONES
4)which of the following is the oxazolidonones
A.linezolid
B.ethosuximide
C.clarithromycin
D.clindamycin
Ans)A
5)which of the following is TRUE regarding linezolid
A.its mechanism of action is inhibition of N-formomethionyl-tRNA binding to
70 S ribosome
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B.it is a non selective MAO inhibitor
C.the resistance was very least compared to other antibacterials
D.ALL
Ans)D
FUSIDIC ACID
6)which of the following are steroid antibiotics
A.fusidic acid
B.cephalosporin P
C.A& B
D.NONE
Ans)C
QUINOLONES & FLUORO QUINOLONES
7)which of the following is a QUINOLONE of non flourinated
A.nalidixic acid
B.ciprofloxacin
C.ofloxacin
D.C&B
Ans)A
8)which of the following drug is most preferred in patients with cystic fibrosis
A.ciprofloxacin
B.roxithromycin
C.clarithromycin
D.gentamycin
Ans)A
9)quinolones are contraindicated with concurrent use of
A.Al,Mg containing antacids
B.theophylline
C.NSAIDs
D.ALL
Ans)D
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10) mode of action of quinolones is
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.inhibition of topoisomerase-II
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Ans)B
MISCELLANEOUS
11)pseudomembrane colitis is treated by
A.linezolid
B.vancomycin
C.clarithromycin
D.clindamycin
Ans)B
12) mode of action of vancomycin is
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.abnormal codon leads to mis reading of message
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Ans)D
13)which of the following is a glycopeptide antibiotic
A.linezolid
B.vancomycin
C.clarithromycin
D.clindamycin
Ans)B
14)which of the following is the polymixin antibiotic
A.linezolid
B.vancomycin
C.colistin
D.clindamycin
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Ans)C
15) mode of action of polymixins is
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.inhibition of topoisomerase-II
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.disrupting the cell membranes of bacterial cells
Ans)D
ANTI MYCOBACTERIALS
16)initial phase treatment for the resistant suspected tuberculosis treatment
is
A.ISONIAZID + RIFAMPICIN + PYRAZINAMIDE + ETHAMBUTOL
B. ISONIAZID + RIFAMPICIN + PYRAZINAMIDE
C. ISONIAZID + RIFAMPICIN
D.RIFAMPICIN + PYRAZINAMIDE
Ans)A
17)which of the following statement is true regarding isoniazid
A.bacteriostatic
B.bactericidal
C. bacteriostatic but bactericidal for dividing cells
D.antiviral
Ans)C
18) which of the following statement is true regarding isoniazid side effects
A.cause haemolytic anaemia in patients with glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase deficiency
B.hepatotoxicity
C.neurotoxic due to B6 vitamin deficiency
D.ALL
Ans)D
19) mode of action of rifampicin is
A.inhibit dna dependent RNA polymerase in bacteria
B. inhibit dna dependent RNA polymerase in host cells
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C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.disrupting the cell membranes of bacterial cells
Ans)A
20)orange saliva and sweat and tears indicates treatment with
A. ISONIAZID
B. RIFAMPICIN
C. PYRAZINAMIDE
D. ETHAMBUTOL
Ans)B
21) which of the following statement is true regarding RIFAMPICIN side
effects
A.hepatotoxic
B.induces hepatic microsomal enzymes
C.concurrent use leads to failure of oral contraceptives
D.ALL
Ans)D
22)sulfa drug used in the treatment of leprosy is
A.DAPSONE
B.RIFABUTIN
C.CLOFAZIMINE
D.CAPREOMYCIN
Ans)A
23)dye complex drug used in the treatment of leprosy is
A.DAPSONE
B.RIFABUTIN
C.CLOFAZIMINE
D.CAPREOMYCIN
Ans)C
24)red colour skin and urine is side effect of
A.DAPSONE
B.RIFABUTIN
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C.CLOFAZIMINE
D.CAPREOMYCIN
Ans)C
ANTI FUNGALS
1)Fungal antibiotics mainly act on
A.cholesterol
B.ergoosterol
C.polysaccarides
D.peptide bonds
Ans)B
2)amphotericin belongs to
A.macrolide polyenes
B.aminoglycosides
C.tetracyclins
D.beta lactams
Ans)A
3)which of the following used as combination with polyenes
A.flucytosine
B.azoles
C.penicillins
D.ALL
Ans)A
4)griseofulvin is isolated from
A.pencillium sps
B.streptomyces sps
C.aspergillus sps
D.candida sps
Ans)A
5)mode of action of griseofulvin is
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A.act on cell membranes by inhibiting ergosterol
B.act on microtubule system and inhibit mitosis
C.acts on dna and inhibit protein synthesis.
D.inhibit cell wall
Ans)B
6) mode of action of echinocandins is
A.act on cell membranes by inhibiting ergosterol
B.act on microtubule system and inhibit mitosis
C.acts on dna and inhibit protein synthesis.
D.inhibit 1,3-beta glucan synthesis
Ans)D
7) mode of action of azoles is
A.act on cell membranes by inhibiting lanosine-14-alfa demethylase
B.act on microtubule system and inhibit mitosis
C.acts on dna and inhibit protein synthesis.
D.inhibit 1,3-beta glucan synthesis
Ans)A
8)inhibition of adrenal corticosteroids is seen with
A.ketoconazole
B. griseofulvin
C.amphotericin
D.nystatin
Ans)D
9)steven johnsons syndrome is seen with
A.itraconazole
B. griseofulvin
C.amphotericin
D.nystatin
Ans)A
10) mode of action of flucytosine is
A.act on cell membranes by inhibiting ergosterol
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B.act on microtubule system and inhibit mitosis
C.inhibit thymidylate synthesis thus dna inhibited
D.inhibit cell wall
Ans)C
11)which of the following inhibits enzyme squalene epoxidase
A.itraconazole
B. griseofulvin
C.amphotericin
D.terbinafine
Ans)D
ANTI HELMINTHICS
12)resistance development in helminthes is due to
A.development of rigid cell walls
B.development of high competitive drug antidotes
C.development of drug efflux pumps
D.NONE
Ans)C
13)which of the following is not a benzimidazole
A.Albendazole
B.mebendazole
C.posaconazole
D.tiaconazole
Ans)C
14) mode of action of benzimidazoles is
A.inhibit polymerization of B-tubulin in helminth
B.inhibit glucose uptake
C.A&B
D. act on cell membranes by inhibiting ergosterol
Ans)C
15)the active metabolite in the metabolism of the benzimidazoles are
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A.sulfoxide
B.sulfone
C.sulphide
D.sulphate
Ans)A
16)which of the following is safe antihelminthic drug for pregnants for
filariasis
A.diethyl carbamazine
B.ivermectin
C.levamisole
D.praziquantel
Ans)B
17) mode of action of piperazine is
A.inhibit GABA gated cl- channels and cause paralysis and worm are expelled
by purgative later
B. inhibit GABA gated cl- channels and cause paralysis and worm are expelled
by natural intestinal movements
C. inhibit glucose uptake
D. inhibit polymerization of B-tubulin in helminth
Ans)B
18)nicotine like action is seen in which anti helminthic
A.diethyl carbamazine
B.ivermectin
C.levamisole
D.praziquantel
Ans)C
19)which of the following causes MAZOTTI reaction
A.diethyl carbamazine
B.ivermectin
C.levamisole
D.praziquantel
Ans)A
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20)mode of action on ivermectn is
A. paralyse worm by inhibiting GABA gated cl- channels
B.paralyse worm by opening glutamate-gated cl- channels
C. inhibit glucose uptake
D. inhibit polymerization of B-tubulin in helminth
Ans)B
21)which of the following drug is used for schistosomiasis
A.diethyl carbamazine
B.ivermectin
C.levamisole
D.praziquantel
Ans)D
22)which of the following is used for tape worm infections
A.diethyl carbamazine
B.ivermectin
C.levamisole
D.niclosamide
Ans)D
ANTI PROTOZOALS
1)Which of the following is carrier states of protozoals
A.metronidazole
B.diloxanide
C.stibogluconate
D.pentamidine
Ans)B
2)suramin acts as
A.atp antagonist
B.GABA-A antagonist
C. GABA-B antagonist
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D.nmda antagonist
Ans)A
3)leisnmaniasis is treated by
A.sodium stibogluconate
B.pentamidine
C.miltefosine
D.ALL
Ans)D
4)miltefosine mode of action is
A.dna fragmentation followed by apoptosis
B.protein synthesis inhibition
C.cell wall synthesis inhibition
D.ALL
Ans)A
5)MALARONE is combination of
A.atovaquone + proguanil
B.chloroquine + proguanil
C. atovaquone + chloroquine
D.dapsone + chloroquine
Ans)A
6)which of the following DMARD is used as antimalarial
A. chloroquine
B. atovaquone
C. proguanil
D. dapsone
Ans)A
1)which of the following is 8-amino quinolone
A.amodiaquine
B.quinine
C.primaquine
D.chloroquine
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Ans)C
2)chloroquine causes haemolysis in patients with deficiency of
A.Folate
B.glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
C.hexokinase
D.fructose isomerase
Ans)B
3)which of the following is not FALSE regarding chloroquine
A.inhibits haem polymerase
B.inhibit dna,rna synthesis
C.inhibit protein synthesis
D.inhibit cell wall synthesis
Ans)D
4)which of the following antimalarials are used to prevent transmission
A.primaquine
B.chloroquine
C.quinine
D.tetracycline
Ans)A
5)which of the following has depressant action on heart hence leads to
dysrhythmias in over dosage
A.primaquine
B.doxycycline
C.quinine
D.tetracycline
Ans)C
6)which of the following belongs to phenanthrene-methanols
A.halofantrine
B.chloroquine
C.quinine
D.tetracycline
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Ans)A
7)which of the following causes prolongation of QT interval
A.halofantrine
B.chloroquine
C.quinine
D.tetracycline
Ans)A
8)the sulphonamide used in the treatment of malaria is
A.sulfapyridine
B.sulfalene
C.sulfamethoxazole
D.sulfadoxine
Ans)D
9)which of the following is the active metabolite of proguanil
A.cycloguanil
B.heptaguanil
C.acetyl guanil
D.oxyguanil
Ans)A
10) which of the following belongs to hydroxyl napthoquinone drug
A.halofantrine
B.chloroquine
C.quinine
D.atavaquone
Ans)D
11)which of the following is anti malarial safe for pregnant women
A.amodiaquine
B.chloroquine
C.tetracycline
D.atavaquone
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Ans)B
ANTIVIRALS
12)which of the following is neuraminidase inhibitor
A.zanamivir
B.oseltamivir
C.abacavir
D.A&B
Ans)D
13)amantadine mode of action is
A.viral coat disassembly inhibitors
B. neuraminidase inhibitor
C.reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D.protease inhibitors
Ans)A
14)which of the following inhibit hiv fusion with the host cells
A.enfurvitide
B.zidovudine
C.didanosine
D.abacavir
Ans)A
15)which of the following is used in influenza-B infections
A.zanamivir
B.enfurvitide
C.amantidine
D.rimantidine
Ans)A
ANTI CANCER
1)which of the following is an alkylating agent
A.cyclophosphamide
B.cisplatin
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C.thiotepa
D.all
Ans)D
2)which of the following is CORRECT regarding alkylating agents
I)main step of anti cancer action is the formation of carbonium ion
II)forms covalent bonds with the dna and inhibit dna synthesis
III)alkylating agents mainly cause bone marrow depression
A.I&II
B.II&III
C.I&II&III
D.I&III
Ans)C
3)haemorrhagic cystis caused by cyclophosphamide is due to metabolite
A.acrolein
B.MESNA
C.phosphoramide
D.N-acetyl cysteine
Ans)A
4)which of the following alkylating agent acts on non dividing cells also
A.NITROSO UREAS
B.NITROGEN MUSTARDS
C.PLATINUM COMPOUNDS
D.THIOTEPA
Ans)A
5)adverse affects caused by acrolein metabolite are ameliorated by
administering
A. N-acetyl cysteine
B.MESNA
C.A&B
D.chlorambucil
Ans)C
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6)platinum compounds cause
I)nephrotoxicity
II)ooototoxicity
III)neurotoxicity
A.I&II
B.II&III
C.I&II&III
D.I&III
Ans)C
7)which of the following is the folate antagonist used as anticancer drug
A.trimethoprim
B.methotrexate
C.pyremethamine
D.sulfasalazine
Ans)B
8)the CORRECT regarding methotrexate is
I)nephrotoxic
II)rescue given by folinic acid administration
III)folate agonist
A.I&II
B.II&III
C.I&II&III
D.I&III
Ans)A
9)which of the following is the pyrimidine analogue
A.pentostatin
B. fludarabine
C.cytarabine
D.tioguanine
Ans)C
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10)cytarabine is
I)DNA polymerase inhibitor
II)pyrimidine analogue
A.I&II TRUE
B.I TRUE
C.II TRUE
D.I&II false
Ans)A
11)prodrug of fluoro uracil is
A.capecitabine
B.cytarabine
C.fludarabine
D.gemcitabine
Ans)A
12)fluoro uracil inhibits
A.DNA synthesis
B.RNA synthesis
C.protein synthesis
D.ALL
Ans)A
13)mode of action of pentostatin is
A.inhibits adenosine deaminase
B.inhibit thymidilate synthesis
C.deaminates asparagine
D.damage dna
Ans)A
14)methotrexate and folic acid resembles at amino acid residue
A.glutamic acid
B.aspartic acid
C.isoleucine
D.valine
Ans)A
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15)bifunctional alkylating agents cause
A.intrastand linking
B.cross linking
C.A&B
D.move strands apart
Ans)C
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