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964/1

PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN
SIJIL TINGGI PERSEKOLAHAN MALAYSIA
NEGERI PAHANG DARUL MAKMUR 2009

BIOLOGY
PAPER 1
MULTIPLE-CHOICE
ONE HOUR AND FORTY-FIVE MINUTES

Instructions to candidates

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

There are fifty questions in this paper. For each question, four suggested
answers are given. Choose one correct answer and indicate it on the multiple-
choice answer sheet provided. Read the instructions on the multiple-choice
answer sheet carefully. Answer all questions. Marks will not be deducted for
wrong answers.

CONFIDENTIAL *
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1 Which one of the following is a characteristic of saturated fats that distinguishes them
from unsaturated fats?

A They have no double bonds between their carbon atoms

B They contain only unbranched fatty acids
C They contain high proportion by mass of oxygen
D They do not contain glycerol

2 Which part of a phospholipid molecule contributes most to the thickness of a cell surface
membrane?

A Glycerol
B Hydrocarbon chain
C Hydrophilic head
D Phosphate group

3 What does a haemoglobin molecule contain?

A Four iron (Fe2+) ions attached to each haem group

B Four oxygen molecules attached to each haem group

C Four polypeptide chains each with four attached haem groups
D Four polypeptide chains each with one attached haem group

4 Potassium cyanide is known to interfere with the formation and use of ATP in cell
metabolism. If the use of potassium cyanide resulted in an accelerated entry of a solute
into a cell, it may be reasonably assumed that, under normal circumstances, the solute
enters by
A Active transport
B Osmosis
C Passive diffusion
D Pinocytosis

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5 Which cell component forms pinocytic vesicles?

A Lysosome
B Nucloelus
C Cell surface membrane
D Endoplasmic reticulum

6 A culture of bacteria had their entire DNA labelled with the heavy isotope of nitrogen,
15
N. The culture was then allowed to reproduce using nucleotides containing normal 14N.
The DNA was examined using a centrifuge after one generation and again after two
generations. The diagram shows the position of the DNA band at Z in the centrifuge tube
when the DNA was first labelled.

In which patterns would the DNA be found after the first and after the second cell
generations?

After first generation After second generation

A Half at X and half at Y Quarter at X and at Z and half at Y
B Half at X and half at Z Quarter at X and at Z and half at Y
C All at Y Half at X and half at Y
D All at Z Half at Y and half at Z

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7 Turgid plant tissue is placed in a solution which has the same solute potential as the
contents of the cells. The diagram shows a cell after one hour.

Which equation describes the value of the pressure potential for this cell?
A Pressure potential = solute potential of the cell
B Pressure potential = solute potential of the external solution
C Pressure potential = water potential of the cell
D Pressure potential = zero

8 A metabolic pathway is shown below.

Enzyme 1 Enzyme 2 Enzyme 3
Reactant substance X substance Y end product
What would be the effect of adding a small amount of a non-competitive inhibitor to
enzyme 2?
A Enzyme 2 would be partially denatured
B Substance X would increase in concentration
C Substance Y would no longer be formed
D The initial reactant would no longer be metabolised

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9 Which statement is true of photophosphorylation?

I High energy phosphate bond is split
II High energy phosphate bond is formed
III It occurs in the thylakoid membrane
IV Light is transformed to chemical energy
A II, III, and IV
B II and III
C II and IV
D I and III

10 The following scheme shows a pathway in the formation of fatty acids in plants.

CO₂

RuBP W X Y Z
Fatty acid
Which of the following compounds are represented by W, X, Y, and Z in the above scheme?

W X Y Z
A Pyruvate Phosphoglyceraldehyde Phosphoglycerate Acetyl CoA
B Phosphoglyceraldehyde Acetyl CoA Phosphoglycerate Pyruvate
C Phosphoglycerate Phosphoglyceraldehyde Acetyl CoA Pyruvate
D Phophoglycerate Phosphoglyceraldehyde Pyruvate Acetyl CoA

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11 Six tubes containing preparations from animals were set up as shown below:

Tube Contents
1 Glucose + homogenised cells
2 Glucose + mitochondria
3 Glucose + cytoplasm lacking organelles
4 Pyruvic acid + homogenised cells
5 Pyruvic acid + mitochondria
6 Pyruvic acid + cytoplasm lacking organelles
After incubation, in which three tubes would carbon dioxide be produced?
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1, 4 and 5
C 2, 4 and 5
D 3, 5 and 6
12 When a glucose molecule is completely oxidised to carbon dioxide and water, 38 moles
of ATP molecules are formed. How many ATP molecules can be formed if a respiratory
poison such as cyanide is added to the oxidation process?
A 2 ATP
B 8 ATP
C 9 ATP
D 30 ATP
13 The following statements are related to the nutrition of living organisms
W- Photosynthetic bacteria synthesise organic food from carbon dioxide and water using
light energy absorbed by bacteriochlorophyll
X- Chemosynthetic bacteria use energy obtained from the oxidation of organic matter
Y- Human nutrition is holozoic nutrition
Z- Bacteria and fungi involved in decomposition are saprophytic organisms
Which of the above statements are true?
A W and Y
B Y and Z
C W, Y and Z
D X, Y and Z

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14 Graph 1 shows oxygen dissociation curves which illustrate the Bohr effect.
Percentage of saturation

P O2 mmHg

Which one of the following statements could represent the X factor?

I High pH
II Less CO2 partial pressure
III Smaller size of animals
IV Higher altitude
V Myoglobin
A I, II, IV and V
B I, III, IV and V
C II, III, IV and V
D I, II, III, IV and V

15 Which of the following is not a function of transpiration?

A Cooling of the leaf
B Excretion of mineral salts
C Transport of mineral salts
D Transport of water upwards

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16 Which nerve impulses can initiate normal expiration and prevent over expansion of the
lungs?
A Impulses from chemoreceptors in the lungs
B Impulses from stretch receptors in the diaphragm
C Impulses from the external intercostal muscles
D Impulses from the stretch receptors in the walls of the alveoli

17 Which one of the following is a function of the lymphatic system?

A To assist in the clotting mechanism of the blood
B To return tissue fluid to the bloodstream
C To transport dissolved food molecules to all cells of the body
D To transport hormones from endocrine glands to their target organs

18 What effect would be caused by cutting the sympathetic nerve fibres to the heart?
A A decrease in heart rate
B A decrease in the length of the diastole phase
C A decrease in the length of the systole phase
D A decrease in the stroke volume

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19 The passage of some of the contents of the plasma through the capillary wall depends on
the effective hydrostatic pressure (HP) of the blood in the capillary and the effective
osmotic pressure (OP) of the blood plasma. The diagram below shows the HP of the
blood at the arteriole and venule ends of a capillary and the HP of the tissue fluid,
together with the OP of the blood plasma protein and the OP of the tissue fluids. All
pressures are in mm Hg.

OP = 25 OP = 25
capillary
HP = 32 HP = 12
Tissue fluid
OP = 10
HP = 8
venule
arteriole

Which one of the following is the pressure of filtration at the arteriole end of the capillary?
A 1mm Hg
B 9 mm Hg
C 15 mm Hg
D 25 mm Hg

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20 The diagram below shows a nephron of the mammalian kidney.

Which one of the regions A, B, C or D is the main region responsible for restoring the
metabolite level of the blood plasma to its pre-renal level?

21 The following sequence of events occurs at the neuromuscular junction

Nerve Impulses Release of V end plate potential W produced in muscle fibre
X released from sarcoplasmic reticulum formation of Y Muscle contraction

Which one of the following shows the correct sequence from V to Y?

V W X Y
A Acetylcholine Action potential Calcium ions Actomyosin
B Acetylcholine Action potential Actomyosin Calcium ions
C Actomyosin Acetylcholine Calcium ions Action potential
D Calcium ions Action potential Actetylcholine Actomyosin

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22 Which statement is correct?

I Phytochrome is produced in the dark

II Phytochrome is a simple protein

III Phytochrome is a simple photoreceptor

IV Phytochrome is initially produced in an inactive form before it is converted into the

active form.

A I and II

B I and III

C III and IV

D II and III

23 The female oestrous cycle is controlled by the secretion and sequential release of at least
four hormones:

FSH-follicle stimulating hormone

LH-luteinising hormone

Oestrogen

Progesterone

Which one of the following shows the correct order in which they are released?

A FSH Oestrogen LH Progesterone

B FSH LH Progesterone Oestrogen

C Oestrogen FSH LH Progesterone

D FSH LH Oestrogen Progesterone

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24 Which one of the following chemical substances causes apical dominance in plants?

A Indole acetic acid

B Giberellic acid

C Cytokinine

D Abscissic acid

25 Which one of the following is true of T cells?

I T cells produce complement proteins

II T cells mature in the bone marrow

III T cytotoxic cells kill body cells that are infected with viruses

IV T suppressor cells inhibit the acivities of T cytotoxic cells

A I and II

B I and IV

C II and III

D III and IV

26 Which is not correct about the concept of self and non-self ?

A MHC protein markers on the surface of cells act as specific antigens

B Each organism carries a set of antigens which is unique to each individual

C In the embryo, T lymphocytes which can bind to the receptors (proteins and
polysaccharides) of their own body cells are induced to proliferate to form a clone of T
cells

D The immune system can distinguish “self” (the body’s own tissue) from “non-self”
(foreign tissue)

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27 Which one of the following represents the general pattern of the alternation of
generations?

A gametophyte meiosis sporophyte spores

B gametophyte meiosis spores sporophyte

C sporophyte meiosos gametophyte spores

D sporophyte meiosis spores gametophyte

28 If the diploid state is represented by (D) and the haploid state by (H), which one of the
following sequences correctly describes the chromosome number in the named plant structures?
Polar Nucleus Pollen grain Pollen tube nucleus Cell in the testa Cell in the pericarp
A (D) (D) (D) (D) (D)
B (D) (H) (H) (H) (H)
C (H) (D) (H) (H) (D)
D (H) (H) (H) (D) (D)

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29 Some seeds, in which the major food reserve is lipid, were analysed for lipid and sugar
content during germination in the dark. During germination, most of the lipid is converted
to sugar. The results of this experiment are shown in the graph below.

lipid sugar

Lipid

Dry mass
Sugar dry

mass

0 12
Time from sowing/ days

Which one of the following explains why the total sugar content decreases after one week?
A The rate of consumption of sugar in respiration suddenly increases
B Sugar is no longer being produced by photosynthesis
C The rate of consumption of sugar in metabolism exceeds the rate of production of sugar
from lipid
D The sugar has moved from the endosperm, where it was produced, to the embryo, where
it is needed

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30 The diagram below shows the scheme of hormonal control in insects.

External stimulation

Neurosecretory cells in brain

Larva Pupa Adult
Neurosecretory hormones I
I III

II IV
Different hormone

Concentrations in blood

Which of the following identifies I, II, III, and IV?

I II III IV
A Corpus allatum Prothoracic gland Ecdysone hormone Juvenile hormone
B Corpus allatum Prothoracic gland Juvenile hormone Ecdysone hormone
C Prothoracic gland Corpus allatum Juvenile hormone Ecdysone hormone
D Prothoracic gland Corpus allatum Ecdysone hormone Juvenile hormone

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31 Drosophilia flies heterozygous for the size of the wing and body colour were crossed
with flies with vestigial wings and ebony bodies. The F1 offspring obtained were as
follows:

• Normal wing, grey body: 522

• Vestigial wing, grey body: 98
• Normal wing, ebony body: 104
• Vestigial wing, ebony body: 496
What is the crossover value?
A 8%
B 9%
C 17%
D 20%
32 Two animals are mated. One is homozygous dominant for one character and homozygous
recessive for another. The other animal is heterozygous for both characters. How many
phenotypes are expected in the offspring of this cross?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4

33 Two parents each of blood group A have a daughter of blood group O. What is the
probability that their next child will be a boy who has blood group O?
A 0.125
B 0.25
C 0.50
D 0.75
E 0.825

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34 Haemophilia is caused by a sex-linked, recessive allele. Two parents have a haemophiliac

son and a haemophiliac daughter.
What are the most likely genotypes of the parents?

mother father

A XHX h h
X Y
B XHY h H
X Y
C
XhX h H
X Y
D
XHY H h
X Y

35 During the formation of an ovum, non-disjunction of the sex chromosomes occurred. The
ovum was then fertilised by a normal Y bearing sperm cell. Which one of the following
shows the sex chromosome complement of the resulting zygote?
A XO
B XY
C XXY
D XXXY
E XXYY

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36 The diagram below shows an intergeneric cross performed in a breeding experiment

X plant Y plant
(2n=18) (2n=20)

Sterile hybrid Fertile hybrid

What is the chromosome number in the sterile hybrid and fertile hybrid?
Sterile hybrid Fertile hybrid
A 18 36
B 19 19
C 19 38
D 20 40

37 In a population of Africans, 1.0% of its individuals suffered from sickle-cell anaemia and
died. What is the percentage of the heterozygous individuals in that population that
possess abnormal haemoglobin?
A 1%
B 10%
C 18%
D 99%

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38 Which one of the following phenotypic features of Man can be affected only by
genotype?
A height
B intelligence
C skin colour
D number of different blood group antigens

39 The genotype and phenotype for a population of rabbits are as given below:

Genotype Phenotype Number of rabbits

RMRM Black 110
RM RP Black, White 150
RPRP White 48

The frequencies of allele RM and RP in this population are

RM RP
A 0.4 0.6
B 0.3 0.7
C 0.2 0.8
D 0.6 0.4

40 Which one of the following statements is not true of the lactose operon?
A The lactose operon hypothesis was proposed by Jacob and Monod
B This system consists of four parts and they are the regulator gene, the promoter gene,
the terminator gene and the three structural genes
C This system is activated by the presence of lactose in the medium
D A repressor molecule bound to the operator gene will prevent the transcription
of the structural genes

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41 Resctriction enzymes EcoRI and BamHI both have the following properties
I They are extracted from bacteria
II Their action produces DNA fragments with sticky ends
III They identify a sequence of six bases during restriction
IV They carry out incomplete cutting of DNA
V Their action is very specific
A I, II and IV only
B I, II, III and V only
C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III, IV and V

42 The following dichotomous key was made to identify different groups of organisms

A1 Unicellular organism ………… organism Q

A2 Multicellular organism ………... go to B
B1 Enteron present ………... organism R
B2 Enteron absent ………… go to C
C1 Coleom present ………… go to D
C2 Coleom absent ……….. organism S
D1 Chitinous exoskeleton present ….. go to E
D2 Chitinous exoskeleton absent …… organism T

Among organisms Q, R, S and T, which organism belongs to the phylum Annelida

A Organism Q
B Organism R
C Organism S
D Organism T

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43 Which one of the following statements describes a feature of a natural system of

classification which an artificial system does not have?
A A natural system of classification is based on phenotypic characters.
B A natural system of classification is based on analogous structures.
C A natural system of classification is based on evolutionary relationships between
organisms.
D A natural system of classification is based on single characteristics rather than several
similar features.
44 Human blood when mixed with antibodies to human blood, will give maximum
precipitation. If another animal’s blood is mixed with antibodies to human blood, the
percentage of precipitation indicates how similar the animal is to a human. The following
experimental results were obtained
Species: H 100%; M 37%; N 75%; O 79%; P 17%

H ON M P
H O N M P

A
B

H M N O P H N M O P

D
C

Which phylogeny would fit these results?

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45 Refer to the following graphs which show the distribution of fang length in two
populations A and B of adult female wolf spiders that live in different environments. The
dotted line indicates the optimum fang length for capturing the most common prey in
each environment.

500 Population A 500 Population B

Number of Number of
individuals individuals

0.5 1.5 2.5 0.5 1 .5 2.5

Fang length (mm) Fang length (mm)

Which one of the following statements is consistent with the information shown in the
graphs?
A The average fang length in population A is greater than the average fang length in
population B
B The environment of population A has a wider range of prey than the environment of
population B
C The number of individuals in population A is the same as that in population B
D Population A would be more likely than population B to become extinct if the average
size of the prey in both environments decreased

46 Excess nitrate is a common pollutant in rivers and lakes causing rapid growth of
planktonic algae and the death of submerged plants rooted in the mud. Lack of which
factor causes the death of the submerged plants?
A Carbon dioxide
B Light
C Organic debris
D Oxygen

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47 Competition between species will be greatest if they try to occupy the same
A Community
B Ecosystem
C Habitat
D Niche

48 Humans affect the environment in the following ways

1 Felling of tropical rain forests
2 Harvesting of marine algae
3 Re-afforestation
4 Combustion of fossil fuels
5 Over-use of nitrate fertilisres
Which activities lead to an increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the earth’s atmosphere?
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1, 2 and 4
C 2, 3 and 4
D 2, 4 and 5

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49 The diagram represents a pyramid of energy which shows energy loss from a food chain
to decomposers, upward transfer of energy to the next trophic level and energy loss
through repiration. All figures are in kJ, m-², y-1.

Loss to decomposers Total energy of trophic level Respiratory loss

24 40 16
114 360 206
1188 3600 2052
11 880 36 360 primary producers 20 880

What is illustrated by this diagram?

A A pyramid of energy shows the nutrient transfer less clearly than a pyramid of
numbers
B Energy loss to decomposers is higher than respiratory loss
C Food chain efficiency is about 10%
D The energy of the final trophic level is not used

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50 A student analyses the population of species X in an area S by using 1m X 1m quadrats

(as shown in the diagram below). The numbers in the quadrats represent the number of
species X. Calculate the density and frequency of species X

19 30 41

20
19 28

11 15 22

26 17 19

27 24 19

Density (m-2) Frequency (%)

A 22.4 100
B 22.4 50
C 44.8 100
D 44.8 50

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964/2

PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN
SIJIL TINGGI PERSEKOLAHAN MALAYSIA
NEGERI PAHANG DARUL MAKMUR
2009

BIOLOGY
PAPER 2
Two and a half hours

Instruction to candidates:

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION PAPER UNTIL YOU For examiner’s use
ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
1
Answer all questions in Section A. Write your answers in the
spaces provided. 2

Answer any four questions in Section B. Write your answers 3

on your own answer sheets. Begin each answer on a fresh
sheet of paper. Answers should be illustrated by large and 4
clearly labelled diagrams wherever suitable.
5
Answers may be written in either English or Bahasa
Malaysia. 6

7
Arrange your answers in numerical order and tie the answer
sheets to this question paper 8

10

Total

This question paper consists of 11 printed pages

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CONFIDENTIAL* 2
Section A [ 40 marks ]

Answer all questions in this section.

1. The diagram below shows the DNA replication fork during DNA replication

(a) When does the replication occur in a cell cycle? [1 mark]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name enzymes C and D involved in replication and state their function.

[4 marks]

C : ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

Function : …………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

D : …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Function : …………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Based on the diagram, there are two newly synthesized strands, strand X and Y

(i) Name both strands and state the way they are synthesized. [2 marks]

X: ……………………………………………………………………………………………..

Y: ………………………………………………………………………………………………

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CONFIDENTIAL* 3

(d) State why DNA replication is said to be semi-conservative. [1 mark]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(e) Explain why strand X is synthesized as fragments [2 marks]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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CONFIDENTIAL* 4

2. The diagram below shows changes in the membrane potential of a neurone during the pro-
duction of an action potential

(a) Label phases A,B,C and the period labelled D as shown in the diagram. [4 marks]

A : ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

B : …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

C : …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

D : …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Describe how A is maintained [2 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(c) Distinguish between B and C [2 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(d) Why is the potential of D less than A? [1 mark]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(e) State the importance of D [1 mark]

……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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CONFIDENTIAL* 6

3. Graphs S and T show the measurements of growth of a same plant, Zea mays.

(a) Name the type of curve illustrated by graphs S and T. [2 marks]

S:…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

T:…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Explain what graphs S and T represent. [2 marks]

S: ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

T: ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(c) Based on its lifespan, what type of plant is Zea mays known as? [1 mark]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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CONFIDENTIAL* 7
(d) (i) Describe the growth pattern in Zea mays [2 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) Explain how this type of growth pattern differs from that of woody plants

[3 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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CONFIDENTIAL* 8
4. The figure below shows a summary of a procedure designed to clone genes

Foreign DNA Isolated plasmid

restriction

Recombinant DNA

II

Bacterial cell

III

SCREENING

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CONFIDENTIAL* 9

(a) What is meant by recombinant DNA? [1 mark]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) State briefly what happens at step I, II and III [3 marks]

I : ………………………………………………………………………………………………………

II: ………………………………………………………………………………………………………

III: …………………………………………………………………………………………………….. r

(c) Why are the plasmid and foreign gene cut by using the same restriction enzyme?

[1 mark]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) State two ways in which bacteria can be screened for the presence of recombinant
plasmids [ 2 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(e) (i) State two benefits of insulin produced by genetic engineering [2 marks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) Unlike insulin, blood cannot be produced by genetic engineering.

Explain why ? [1 mark]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Section B [60 marks]

Answer any four questions in this section.

5. (a) With reference to cellulose, explain briefly the term polymerization.

State briefly the differences between the formation of polysaccharides and polypeptides
[7 marks]

(b) Describe the mechanism of action of an enzyme based on the induced fit model
[8 marks]
.
6. (a) State briefly the differences between anaerobic respiration that occur in plants and animals.
[6 marks]

(b) NAD and NADP are important molecules in plant cells. Describe in detail, the role of
these molecules within a palisade mesophyll cell .
[9 marks]

7. (a) Drugs affect the nervous system by altering the mechanism of synaptic transmission.
By using a suitable example, describe the effects of a stimulant drug on the nervous
system.
[6 marks]

(b) AIDS is an immunodeficiency disease caused by an RNA virus.

Describe how the virus replicates in the host cell .
[9 marks]

8. (a) Explain why no flowering response is shown by some plants that grow near highways.
[5 marks]

(b) Explain the changes that occur during the onset of labour in humans.
[10marks]

9. (a) With reference to an example, explain what is meant by the following genetic terms
(i) multiple alleles
(ii) polygenic inheritance
[6 marks]

(b) In sweet corn plants, the alleles for red and smooth seed are dominant over the alleles for
white and wrinkled seeds. Sweet corn plants with red and smooth seeds were crossed with
plants with white and wrinkled seeds. A test cross was done using the F1 progeny and the
results are as follows:
Red, smooth 348
White. wrinkled 335
Red, wrinkled 40
White, smooth 39

By using suitable symbols, draw a genetic cross diagram to explain the results.
[9 marks]

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10. (a) Explain why proper management and conservation of ecosystems are needed.
[5 marks]

(b) (i) Define sustainable development [2 marks]

(ii) Explain the benefits of sustainable development techniques used in the management of
forests. [8 marks]

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964/1

PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN
SIJIL TINGGI PERSEKOLAHAN MALAYSIA
NEGERI PAHANG DARUL MAKMUR 2009

BIOLOGY
PAPER 1
MULTIPLE-CHOICE

ANSWERS
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1 A 11 B 21 A 31 C 41 B

2 B 12 A 22 C 32 B 42 D

3 D 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 C

4 A 14 A 24 A 34 A 44 B

5 C 15 B 25 D 35 C 45 B

6 C 16 D 26 C 36 C 46 B

7 D 17 B 27 D 37 C 47 D

8 B 18 D 28 D 38 D 48 B

9 A 19 B 29 C 39 D 49 C

10 D 20 B 30 B 40 B 50 A
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PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN
SIJIL TINGGI PERSEKOLAHAN MALAYSIA
NEGERI PAHANG DARUL MAKMUR
2009

BIOLOGY
PAPER 2

MARKING SCHEME
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CONFIDENTIAL* 2

1. (a) - during S phase / interphase 1 1

(b) - enzyme C : DNA polymerase 1

- function : adds complementary nucleotides to the growing strand 1

- enzyme D: DNA ligase 1

- function : links Okazaki fragments by forming phosphodiester 1 4

bonds between the fragments

(c) - strand X : lagging strand, which is synthesized discontinuously 1

- strand Y : leading strand, which is synthesized continuously 1 2

(d) - because each new DNA molecule contains one old and 1 1
one new strand

(e) - the template for strand X is in the 5’ to 3’ end direction 1

- DNA polymerase only adds nucleotides at the 3’ of a growing 1

Strand
- therefore, strand X has to be synthesized away from replication fork 1

any 2 2

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total 10

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2 (a) A: Resting potential 1

B: depolarization 1
C: repolarisation 1
D: refractory period 1 4

(b) - The active transport of sodium and potassium ions in 1

and out across the membrane/ 3Na+ out, 2 K + in
- The membrane is more permeable to potassium ions 1
compared to sodium ions ; thus more potassium ions
diffuse out of the neurone compared to sodium ions diffuse in 2

(c)
B / depolarization C / Repolarisation
Sodium-gated channels Potassium-gated channesl open
open

Sodium ions enter the neu- Potassium ions leave the neurone
rone

The inside of a neurone The inside of a neurone becomes negative

becomes positive

Any 2 pairs 2
(d) - the potassium-gated channels remain open / slow to close 1 1
This allows further efflux of potassium ions

(e) - Limits the frequency in which impulses may flow 1

- Ensures that impulses flow in one direction 1
along the nerve
any 1 1

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total 10

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3 (a) - graph S : absolute growth curve 1

- graph T : absolute growth rate curve 1 2

(b) - graph S : actual increase in size / area/ growth over a period of time 1
- graph T : the increase in size / area / growth per unit time over
a period of time 1 2

(c) - annual plant 1 1

(d) (i) - Limited growth 1

- the growth curve is a sigmoid curve 1 2

(ii) - woody plants are perennial plants 1

- display unlimited growth 1
- the growth curve is a series of sigmoid curve 1 3
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Total 10

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4 (a) - DNA that contains genes from more than one source 1 1

(b) - step I : Insertion of the DNA fragment into the plasmid 1

- step II : Transformation / introducing recombinant DNA into 1

host cell
- step III: DNA cloning / amplification making multiple copies 1 3
of target gene

(c) - to produce the same sticky / blunt ends which are 1 1

complementary to each other

(d) - cultured in a medium containing antibiotics/ ampicillin and X-gal 1 1

before a blue-white screening
- hybridization by using genetics / radioactive probes 1 1

(e) (i) - insulin produced through genetic engineering is similar 1

to human insulin
- insulin produced is non –allergic 1
- cheaper / not costly 1

Any 2 2

(ii) - because DNA / gene only codes for the synthesis of a 1 1

protein and blood is not a protein
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Total 10

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5. (a)

answer marks
i. polymerization is formation of long repeated units of monomer 1

ii. by condensation with the removal of water molecules 1

iii. in cellulose the monomer unit is β-glucose 1

iv β-glucose linked together by β- 1,4 glycosidic bonds 1

[any 3] maximum 3

Polysaccharide polypeptide marks

i. does not involve ribosome Involve ribosome 1/0

ii. only involve one type of monomer – Involve 20 different types of amino acid 1/0
hexose molecule

iii. formation of glycosidic bonds between formation of peptide bonds between the mo- 1/0
the monomers nomers

iv. does not involve gene / DNA Involve gene / DNA to code the amino acid 1/0
sequences

v. does not involve mRNA and tRNA Involve mRNA and tRNA 1/0

vi. no transcription and translation stages Involves transcription and translation stages 1/0

[ Any 4 pairs] maximum 4

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(b)

Answer marks
i. the active site of an enzyme is flexible 1

ii. and not exactly complementary / fitting to the shape of the substrate 1

iii. the active site of an enzyme can be modified when its interacts with substrate 1

iv. the active site changes its shape slightly as the substrate enters 1

v. the active site continues to change until the substrate is completely bound and 1
final shape is determined

vi making the fit more precise 1

vii these structural changes may help to stabilized the transition state 1

viii. when the substrate binds to the enzyme, it forms an enzyme substrate complex 1

ix the substrate is then converted into products 1

x. the products are released from the active sites 1

xi, the enzymes return to its original conformation 1

xi. Products are released from the active sites 1

xii. the enzymes return to its original conformation 1

[any 8] maximum 8

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6. (a)

Plants Animals marks

i. occurs in roots / seed / storage organ Occurs in skeletal muscles 1/0
/tuber

ii. occurs when root are submerged // Occurs when muscles are actively 1/0
oxygen supply decreases Contracting

iii. products are ethanol and carbon Product is lactic acid 1/0
dioxide

iv. pyruvate changed / reduced to ethanal Pyruvate directly changed / reduced to its 1/0
first then to its final product, ethanol final product , lactic acid

v. ethanol is poisonous / can kill the plant Lactic acid is still useful / not poisonous 1/0
cells

vi. ethanol cannot be converted back to Lactic acid can be converted back to glucose 1/0
glucose

vii. anaerobic respiration is not needed anaerobic respiration is useful to sustain the 1/0
to sustain the supply of ATP supply of ATP

Any 6 pairs maximum 6

6 (b)

Answer marks
i. NAD involved in cellular respiration 1

ii. 2 molecules of reduced NAD / NADH produced in glycolysis 1

iii. 1 / 2 molecules of NADH produced in link reaction 1

iv. 3 / 6 molecules of NADH produced in Kreb cycle 1

v. NAD accepts hydrogen / electron and transfers / carry to the inner mitochondrial 1
membranes / cristae / cytochromes / ETC / matrix

vi. NADP involved in photosynthesis 1

vii NADP accept electron and hydrogen ion forming NADPH in non-cyclic 1
photophosphorylation / light dependent reaction / light reaction

viii. NADPH used in Calvin cycle / dark reaction / light independent reaction 1

ix. NADPH is used to reduce CO2 / in reduction phase 1

x. NADPH reduces glycerate -1,3-diphosphate into 1

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glyceraldehydes- 3-phosphate / PGAL
[ Any 9] maximum 9

7. (a)

Answer marks
i. cocaine present in the synaptic cleft 1

ii. cocaine bind to the transporter molecules 1

iii. cocaine delays the breakdown of norepinephrine / dopamine / noradrenaline 1

iv. reuptake/reabsorption of the norepinephrine / dopamine / noradrenalin from syn- 1

aptic cleft is prevented / blocked

v. norepinephrine / dopamine / noradrenalin remains / accumulates in the 1

synaptic cleft

vi. norepinephrine / dopamine / noradrenalin keep on binding to the receptors on 1

the post-synaptic membrane

vii. impulses will be generated repeatedly 1

viii. causes continuous euphoria / intense pleasure 1

[ Any 6] maximum 6

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(b)
Answer marks
i. HIV glycoprotein (gp 120) binds to CD4 receptor on the surface of the helper T 1
cell / TH cell / host cell

ii. HIV protein envelope / lipoprotein / fuse with / to host cell membrane 1

iii. Reverse transcriptase and viral RNA enter the host / TH cell by endocytosis 1

iv. reverse transcriptase makes a DNA copy (cDNA) of the viral DNA // The first DNA 1
strand is formed from RNA viral by using reverse transcriptase

v. DNA copy (cDNA) / the first DNA strand becomes a template for the synthesis of 1
complementary / second strand of viral DNA

vi. the double stranded viral DNA formed then enters the nucleus and incorporated 1
into the DNA of the host cell called provirus

vii. each time the host’s DNA divides / replicates, viral DNA / provirus also replicates 1

viii. this carries on for six years without any symptoms of disease are exhibited 1

ix. the activated provirus will direct the host cell to synthesis new viral protein and vir- 1
al RNA

x. new viral protein and RNA assembled into new retroviruses 1

xi. new retrovirus particles bud off from host cell membrane by exocytosis 1

xii. finally, the virus spreads to all the helper T cells and destroys them 1

xiii. resulting the destruction of the immune system 1

Any 9
Maximum 9

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8. (a)

answer marks
i. these types of plants are short day plants 1

The plants require a period of darkness equal to / longer than critical night 1
ii. length
iii. light / spotlight flashes from vehicles interrupt / shorten the period of darkness 1

iv. causes the conversion of Pr into Pfr 1

v. Pfr is the (biological) active form 1

vi. high concentration / level of Pfr inhibit flowering in SDP’s 1

[any 5]
Maximum 5

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(b) Explain the changes happens and action of hormone on the onset of labour in human
[10marks]

answer marks
i. estrogen level high in the end / last week of pregnancy 1

ii. stimulate the development of oxytocin receptor in uterine wall 1

// increase the sensitivity of uterus muscle/myometrium to oxytocin

iii. baby’s head / growing fetus press against the mother cervix 1

vi. causing the cervix and uterine wall to stretch 1

v. this stimulates maternal posterior pituitary to release oxytocin 1

vi. and also stimulates fetal pituitary gland secretes ACTH 1

vii. ACTH triggers fetal adrenal gland to secrete corticosteroids hormone 1

viii. corticosteroids hormone triggers placenta to secrete prostaglandin 1

ix. oxytocin also stimulates placenta / fetal to produce prostaglandin 1

x. both prostaglandin and oxytocin stimulates a powerful contraction of 1

myometrium / uterus wall

xi. The more frequent the myometrium contracts, the more oxytocin 1
/ prostaglandin produced
xii. the uterus contraction also stimulates stretch receptors in the uterine wall 1
and the cervix to trigger further release of oxytocin

xiii. the cervix dilates / widen, its tissue softens and become more flexible and 1
amniotic bag burst

xiv. contractions become stronger and stronger / more frequent help to push 1
baby down/out
(Any 10)
Maximum 10

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9.(a)
Multiple alleles:

Answer marks
i. one particular characteristic / phenotype is controlled 1
by three or more alleles

ii. each allele can occupy the same gene locus on a pair 1
of homologous chromosomes

iii. only two alleles can occupy a locus on a pair of homologous 1

chromosomes at any time
iv. e.g. human ABO blood group 1

Maximum 3

Polygenic inheritance:

Answer Marks
i. one particular characteristic is controlled by two or more than two 1
different genes

ii. genes located at different loci on different chromosomes 1

iii. each dominant allele has a small quantitative effect individually on the 1
phenotype// phenotype produced is the total effect of all dominant genes
present

iv. e.g. height in human 1

Maximum 3

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(b)
[9 marks]

Parents (p)

1 Phenotype Red smooth seed x White wrinkled seed

R R r r
1 Genotypes
x
S S s s

Meiosis

R r

1 Gametes
S s

Fertilisation

R r
1 F1 generation
genotype
S s

Phenotype All red and smooth seed

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Test cross for F1 progeny

]

R r r r
1 Genotype x
S s s s

1 Phenotype Red smooth seed x White wrinkled seed

R r R r r

1 Gametes
S s s S s

Recombinant/new
combination of genes

Genotype R r r r R r r r
1
offspring

S s s s s s S s

1 Red White Red

Phenotypes White
smooth wrinkled wrinkled smooth

1 Prental Recombinants forms as a

combination result of crossing over
346 335 40 39

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Maximum 9

10. (a)

answer marks
i. to sustain the biodiversity / flora and fauna of ecosystems 1

ii. to maintain / improve the quality of life 1

iii. to prevent the useful biological resources that have economical /medicinal 1
value from extinct

iv. to prevent the biogeochemical cycles from disrupted by the extinction of 1

some species

v. to prevent an extreme global climatic changes 1

vi. to keep the ecosystems in their natural state (e.g. ecotourism) which provides 1
aesthetic values for humans

vii. to protect the environment for future generation 1

maximum 5

(b)(i)

answer marks
i. is development that can continue indefinitely 1

ii. can be achieved by minimizing the use of non-renewable resources 1

iii. and controlling the use of renewable resources of the earth 1

Maximum 2

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(b) (ii)

techniques benefits marks

i. Replanting trees in Can decrease the carbon dioxide level in the
areas that have been Atmosphere // can reduced the greenhouse 1+1
logged Effect

ii. Creating forest - Able to avoid the complete destruction and

reserves maintain the biodiversity of the forests.

- to keep the ecosystems in their natural

state(e.g. ecotourism) which provides aesthetic 1+1
values for humans

- to avoid lost of wildlife and potential resources

[any 1]
iii. Selective logging / - to maintain soil fertility
only selects tree with - to prevent flood, soil erosion
certain diameters / - to avoid species extinct 1+1
species can be felled - to avoid loss of watershed areas
- to avoid water pollution
iv. Enforcement of laws and To prevent illegal logging 1+1
surveillance

iv. Recycling of paper To reduce the demand for new raw materials 1+1

Any 4 pairs Total 8

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