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Dr. RAJENDRANS INSTITUTE OF MEDICAL EDUCATION

UVEAL TRACT

1) All are seen in acute iridocyclitis except -

a. Pain

b. Ciliary congestion

c. Mucopurulent discharge

d. Small pupil

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2) Bilateral anterior uveitis with skin depigmentation is seen in -

a. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome

b. Fabry's disease

c.

Alport's disease

d. Wernberg disease

3) Anterior uveitis is associated with -

a. Rheumatoid arthritis

b. HLA B27

c. Ankylosing spondylitis

d. Juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis

e. All of the above

4) Sympathetic ophthalmia is due to injury to-

a. Optic nerve

b. Iris and ciliary body

c. Cornea

d. Lens

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5) Treatment of uveitis with raised intraocular tension -

a. Timolol

b. Pilocarpine

c. Atropine

d. Glucocorticoids

6) The earliest symptom in sympathetic ophthalmia is -

a. Pain

b. Decreased distant vision

c. Photophobia

d. Diplopia

7) Drug of choice for acute iridocyclitis is -

a. Steroids

b. Acetazolamide

c. Atropine

d. Antibiotics

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8) Not used in acute anterior uveitis -

a. Pilocarpine

b. Atropine

c. Timolol

d. Propanolol

9) Panuveitis involves -

a. Iris

b. Choroid

c. Ciliary body

d. All of the above

10) Duration after which sympathetic ophthalmitis develops -

a. Typically at third day

b. Within 2 weeks

c. 3 weeks to l2 weeks after trauma

d. After 12 months

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11) Most common complication of iridocyclitis is a. Scleritis

b. Secondary glaucoma

c. Band shaped keratopathy

d. Corneal ulcer

12) Earliest sign of sympathetic ophthalmia is -

a. Circumcorneal congestion

b. Retrolental cells and flare

c. Vitreous detachment

d. Aqueous flare

13) In sympathetic ophthalmitis injury is to the -

a. Iris

b.

Retina

c. Ciliary body

d. Sclera

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14) A severe iridocyclitis characterized by the formation of granulomatous lesion (ophthalmia nodosa) occurs in-

a. Chalcosis

b. Granulomatous uveitis

c. Siderosis bulbi

d. Penetration of caterpillar hair inside the eye.

15) Not used in secondary glaucoma with uveitis -

a. Atropine

b. Pilocarpine

c. Epinephrine

d. Phenylephrine

16) Ideal drug for a hypertensive having uveitis-

a. Pilocarpine

b. Lanatoprost

c. Epinephrine

d. Atropine

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17) First sign of sympathetic ophthalmitis is -

a. Keratic precipitates

b. Microsis

c. Aqueous flare

d. Retrolental flare

18) Koeppe and Busacca nodules are characteristic of-

a. Granulomatous uveitis

b. Non granulomatous uveitis

c. Residual uveitis

d. Recurrent uveitis

19) Acute anterior uveitis causes all except-

a. Macular oedema

b. Cataract

c. Glaucoma

d. Retinal detachment

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20) Sympathetic ophthalmitis results due to -

a. Penetrating injury of ciliary body

b. Uveitis

c. Glaucoma

d. Trachoma

21) Which should not be used in raised IOT associated with uvetis?

a. Timolol

b. Pilocarpine

c. Atropine

d. Acetazolamide

22) A 25-year-old boy has anterior uveitis. Investigations to be done are - (Multiple correct answers)

a. HLA B 27

b. X-ray sacroiliac joint

c. TORCH agent

d. USG abdomen

e. ELSIA for HIV

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23) Uveitis is caused by - (Multiple correct answers)

a. T.B.

b. Staphylococcus

c. Streptococcus

d. Klebsiella

e. E.Coli

24) Uveitis is seen in -

a. Leprosy

b. Ankylosing spondylitis

c. Sarcoidosis

d. Reiter's syndrome

e. All of the above

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25) Not true regarding acute anterior uveitis in ankylosing spondylitis a. More common in female

b. Recurrent attacks occur

c. Fibrous reaction in anterior chambers

d. Narrowing of joint spaces and sclerosis of the sacroiliac joints

26) False about phthisis bulbi

a. The intraocular pressure is increased

b. Calcification of the lens is common

c. Sclera is thickened

d. Size of the globe is reduced

27) The laser procedure most often used for treating iris neovascularization is -

a. Goniophotocoagulation

b. Laser trabeculoplasty

c. Panretinal photocoagulation (PRP)

d. Laser iridoplasty

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28) Not of prognostic significance in choroidal melanoma

a.

Presence of retinal detachment

b. Size of the tumor

c. Cytology of the tumor cells

d. Presence of extraocular extension

29) Mutton fat keratic precipitates and Busaccas nodules are seen in -

a. Granulomatous uveitis

b. Non-granulomatous uveitis

c. Posterior uveitis

d. Choroiditis

30) Not a function of iris a. Regulation of size of pupil

b. Increased depth of focus

c. Nutrition to eye ball

d. Absorption of extra amount of light

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31) Not a cause of chronic granulomatous uveitis -

a. Sarcoidosis

b. Tuberculosis

c. Brucellosis

d. Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis

32) Signs of uveitis -

a. Generalized conjunctival congestion

b. Circumciliary congestion

c. Cells and flare in aqueous

33) Not a feature of granulomatous iridocyclitis:

a.

Minimal ciliary congestion

b.

Mutton fat KPs

c.

Marked aqueous flare

d.

Nodules on the iris

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34) In Iridocyclitis, the pupil is

a.

Dilated

b.

Constricted

c.

Constricted and irregular

d.

No changes in size of the pupil

35) In uveitis with raised IOT, drug used is

a.

1 % Pilocarpine

b.

1% atropine

c.

Timolol

d.

Acetazolamide

36) Neovascularization of iris is caused by

a.

Central retinal vein occlusion

b.

Branch vein occlusion

c.

Branch arteriole occlusion

d.

Occlusion of all the above vessels

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37) All the drugs are used in acute anterior uveitis except

a.

Pilocarpine

b.

Atropine

c.

Timolol

d.

Propranolol

38) Uveitis is not characterized by

a.

Mucopurulent discharge

b.

Small pupils

c.

Moderate pain

d.

Marked tenderness

39) Keratic precipitates are seen in

a.

Uveitis

b.

Conjunctivitis

c.

Retinitis

d.

Corneal ulcer

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40) Essential atrophy of choroid is due to inborn error of metabolism of amino acid

a.

Cystine

b.

Cysteine

c.

Arginine

d.

Ornithine

e.

Lysine

41) 'D' shaped pupil is seen in

a.

Glaucoma

b.

Dislocation of lens

c.

Iridodialysis

d.

Iridocyclitis

42) Vortex veins drains

a.

Retina

b.

Uveal tract

c.

Sclera

d.

Iris and ciliary body

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43) Following peripheral iridectomy all these changes occur, except

a.

Hemorrhage

b.

Malignant glaucoma

c.

Shallow anterior chamber

d.

Choroidal degeneration

44) Iris bombe occurs with

a.

Ring synechia

b.

Anterior complete synechia

c.

Posterior complete synechia

d.

Angle block glaucoma

45) Latansoprost acts by

a.

Decreased aqueous production

b.

Expanding trabecular meshwork

c.

Increased uveoscleral outflow

d.

None

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46) Drug of choice for acute iridocyclitis is

a.

Steroids

b.

Acetazolamide

c.

Atropine

d.

Antibiotics

47) Anterior uveitis is seen in

a.

Rheumatoid arthritis

b.

HLA B 27

c.

Ankylosing spondylitis

d.

Juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis

e.

All of the above

48) Uveitis most commonly associated with which systemic disease

a.

Ankylosing spondylitis

b.

Rheumatoid arthritis

c.

Tuberculosis

d.

Sarcoidosis

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49) Photopsia occurs in

a.

Iritis

b.

Choroiditis

c.

Cyclitis

d.

Scleritis

50) Uveo-choroiditis is caused by

a.

Tuberculosis

b.

Sarcoidosis

c.

Leprosy

d.

Lupus erythematosus

51) A patient has meiotic pupil, IOP = 25, normal anterior chamber, hazy cornea with shallow anterior chamber of fellow eye. Diagnosis is

a.

Acute anterior uveitis

b.

Acute angle closure glaucoma

c.

Acute open angle glaucoma

d.

Senile cataract

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52) Ring synechiae is seen in

a.

Iris bombe

b.

Anterior staphyloma

c.

Posterior staphyloma

d.

Equatorial staphyloma

53) Drug of choice in choroiditis is

a. Cycloplegic

b. Steroids

c. Analgesics

d. Antibiotics

54) Painful eye movement is a feature of

a.

Corneal ulcer

b.

Iridocyclitis

c.

Papillitis

d.

Papilledema

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55) A patient with history of having malaria recently has presented with acute red eye. The cause would be

a.

Endophthalmitis

b.

Acute anterior uveitis

c.

Conjunctivitis

d.

Viral keratitis

56) Most common etiological variety of uveitis is:

a. Infective

b. Allergic

c. Toxic

d. Metabolic

57) Not a feature of acute non-granulomatous iridocyclitis:

a.

Marked ciliary congestion

b.

Numerous small keratic precipitates

c.

Minimal aqueous flare

d.

No iris nodules

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58) Busacca's nodules:

a.

Are a feature of non-granulomatous uveitis

b.

Are situated at the pupillary border

c.

Usually initiate posterior synechiae formation

d.

Consists of lymphocytes, plasma cells, epitheloid and giant cells

59) Festooned pupil results from:

a. Irregular dilatation of pupil with atropine in the presence of segmental posterior synechiae

b. Annular synechiae

c. Occlusion pupillae

d. All of the above

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60) Role of atropine in iridocyclitis includes all of the following except:

a. It dilates the pupil, prevents the formation of synechiae and may break the already formed synechiae

b. Gives comfort and rest to the eye by relieving ciliary muscle spasm

c. It reduces exudation by decreasing hyperemia

d. It lowers the intraocular pressure by increasing aqueous outflow facility

61) Granulomatous uveitis is not seen in:

a.

Uveitis with ankylosing spondylitis

b.

Sympathetic ophthalmitis

c.

Tubercular uveitis

d.

Uveitis in sarcoidosis

62) Dalen Fuchs nodules are pathognomonic of:

a.

Pathological myopia

b.

Sympathetic ophthalmitis

c.

Fuch's uveitis syndrome

d.

Sarcoidosis

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63) A healed patch of chorioretinitis gives rise to:

a.

Negative scotoma

b.

Positive scotoma

c.

Both of the above

d.

None of the above

64) HLA-phenotype not associated with uveitis:

a. HLA-B27

b. HLA-B5

c. HLA-BW54

d. HLA-l0

65) 'Snow ball' opacities near the ora-serrata are pathognomonic of:

a.

Fungal endophthalmitis

b.

Pars planitis

c.

Diabetic retinopathy

d.

Anterior choroiditis

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66) The pathognomonic sign of acute iridocyclitis is:

a.

Small pupil

b.

Aqueous flare

c.

Keratic precipitates

d.

All of the above

67) The cell type most typically seen in the Keratic precipitates of non granulomatous uveitis is:

a.

Polymorphonuclear cells

b.

Lymphocytes

c.

Plasma cells

d.

Epitheloid cells

68) Koeppe's nodules:

a. Are a feature of non-granulomatous iridocyclitis

b. Are situated at the pupillary border

c. Consist of polymorphonuclear cells

d. Do not initiate posterior synechiae formation

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69) Iritis roseata is seen in:

a.

Leprosy

b.

Syphilis

c.

Tuberculosis

d.

Sarcoidosis

70) Heterochromia iridis is a feature of:

a.

Malignant melanoma of iris

b.

Sympathetic paralysis

c.

Glaucomatocyclitis crisis

d.

Siderosis bulbi

e.

All of the above

71) The following features of panophthalmitis differentiate it from endophthalmitis except:

a.

Presence of pus in the anterior chamber

b.

Proptosis

c.

Limited and painful ocular movements

d.

Complete loss of vision

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72) Suspected tubercular anterior uveitis is confirmed by:

a. Positive Mantoux test

b. Associated findings suggestive of old systemic tuberculosis

c. A positive response to isoniazid alone

d. None of the above

73) 'Iris-pearls' are seen in:

a.

Syphilis

b.

Leprosy

c.

Sarcoidosis

d.

Tuberculosis

74) Heerfordt's disease is characterized by all of the following except:

a.

Unilateral non-granulomatous panuveitis

b.

Painful enlargement of parotid glands

c.

Cranial nerve palsies

d.

Skin rashes, fever and malaise

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75) Behcet's disease is not characterized by: a. Unilateral granulomatous uveitis

b.

Recurrent hypopyon

c.

Aphthous ulceration

d.

Genital ulcerations

76) All of the following are true for Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome except:

a. More common in Japanese people, who are usually positive for HLA-B27

b. Ocular features are chronic granulomatous anterior uveitis, posterior uveitis and exudative retinal detachment

c. Cutaneous lesions are alopecia, poliosis and vitiligo

d. Neurological lesions include meningism, encephalopathy, tinnitus, vertigo and deafness

77) Reiter's syndrome is typically characterized by:

a. Urethritis, conjunctivitis and iridocyclitis

b. Arthritis, conjunctivitis and iridocyclitis

c. Urethritis, arthritis and conjunctivitis with or without iridocyclitis

d. All of the above

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78) False about recurrent toxoplasmic retinochoroiditis:

a. Manifests at an average age of 25 years

b. The infestation is acquired by eating the under-cooked meat of intermediate host containing cyst of the parasite

c. Typical lesion is a patch of focal necrotizing retinochoroiditis adjacent to a pigmented scar

d. There may be associated iritis

29) False about acquired CMV inclusion disease:

a.

It occurs in immunosuppressed patients

b.

The infection is acquired from the infected cervix of the partner during sexual intercourse

c.

Typical lesion is acute necrotizing retinitis

d.

Exudative retinal detachment may occur

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30) Granulomatous uveitis with involvement of parotid gland is seen in:

a.

Tuberculosis

b.

Syphilis

c.

Mumps

d.

Sarcoidosis

31) False about colloid bodies (drusen):

a. Are hyaline excrescences of Bruch's membrane

b. Are secreted by pigment epithelial cells

c. Are usually associated with marked loss of vision

d. Are a percursor of disciform macular degengeration in some eyes

32) In clinical aniridia all of the following are true except:

a.

Iris is completely absent

b.

Usually a familial condition

c.

May be associated with congenital glaucoma

d.

Ciliary processes may be visible

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33) The most frequent bacterial agent causing non-granulomatous uveitis is:

a.

Staphylococcus

b.

Streptococcus

c.

Pneumococcus

d.

Influenza bacillus

e.

None of the above

34) Malignant change in a choroidal naevus is evidenced by:

a. Increased pigmentation or height of the naevus

b. Appearance of orange patches of lipofusin over the surface

c. Appearance of serous detachment in the area of naevus

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

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35) Histological type of malignant melanoma of the choroid with the best prognosis:

a.

Epitheloid cell melanoma

b.

Spindle A melanoma

c.

Spindle B melanoma

d.

Mixed cell melanoma

36) In complete albinism the colour of iris is:

a. White

b. Black

c. Pink

d.

Blue

e.

Green

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37) Malignant melanoma of the choroid with following histopathological features has got the worst prognosis:

a.

Epitheloid cell melanoma

b.

Spindle A melanoma

c.

Spindle B melanoma

d.

Mixed cell melanoma

38) The most common histopathological type of malignant melanoma of choroid is:

a.

Spindle A cell

b.

Spindle B cell

c.

Epitheloid cell

d.

Mixed cell

79) 'Puff-balls' opacities in the vitreous are pathognomonic of:

a.

Fungal endophthalmitis

b.

Pars planitis

c.

Exudative retinopathy of Coats

d.

Sympathetic ophthalmitis

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39) 'Snow banking' is typically seen in:

a.

Pars planitis

b.

Endophthalmitis

c.

Coat's disease

d.

Eales' disease

40) Separation of rods and cones due to exudative choroiditis causes:

a.

Photopsia

b.

Micropsia

c.

Macropsia

d.

Metamorphopsia

80) Sign of activity in chronic iridocyclitis is:

a.

Aqueous cells

b.

Aqueous flare

c.

Pigmented KPs

d.

All of the above

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41) Typical coloboma of iris occurs:

a.

Inferionasally

b.

Superionasally

c.

Inferiotemporally

d.

Superiotemporally

42) Commonest cause of endogenous uveitis in India is:

a.

Tuberculosis

b.

Leprosy

c.

Syphilis

d.

Diabetes mellitus

43) Uveitis is not caused by:

a.

TB

b.

Staphylococcus

c.

Streptococcus

d.

Klebsiella

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44) Peripheral anterior synechiae after an attack of acute congestive glaucoma occur earliest in the:

a. Lower part

b. Upper part

c. Lower and inner part

d. Lower and outer part

e. Medial part

45) First sign of sympathetic ophthalmitis is:

a.

Keratic precipitates

b.

Miosis

c.

Aqueous flare

d.

Retrolental flare

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46) One of the most common complications of iridocyclitis is:

a.

Scleritis

b.

Secondary glaucoma

c.

Band-shaped kertopathy

d.

Corneal ulcer

47) Malignant melanoma of conjunctiva is usually of:

a.

Spindle A type

b.

Spindle B type

c.

Mixed cell type

d.

Epitheloid cell type

e.

All of the above

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