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Test - 1 (Paper-II)_Online All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014

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ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2014
Test - 1 (Paper- II)
Topics covered :
Physics : Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane, Laws of Motion.
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and
Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure.
Mathematics : Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations, Binomial Theorem.
Time : 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 186
Online
AIATS
P-II
13/10/2013
INSTRUCTIONS
Pattern of the questions are as under:
(i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 5 sections.
(ii) Section 1 contains 6 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries
+2 marks each for correct answer(s). There are no negative marks in this section.
(iii) Section 2 contains 5 multiple choice questions which have one or more answers are correct. Each question
carries +4 marks each for correct answer and 1 mark for each wrong answer.
(iv) Section 3 contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and
1 mark for wrong answer.
(v) Section 4 contains 2 matching column type questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries +3 marks each for correct answer and 1 mark for each wrong answer.
(vi) Section 5 contains 3 integer value correct type questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries +4 marks each for correct answer and 1 mark for each wrong answer.
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014 Test - 1 (Paper-II)_Online
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PART - I : PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Two bodies A and B move in a straight line toward each other at initial velocities v
A
and v
B
and with constant
accelerations a
A
and a
B
directed against the corresponding velocities at the initial instant. The maximum initial
separation l
max
between the bodies for which they meet during the motion is
(A)
3
( )
3( )
A B
A B
v v
a a
+
+
(B)
2
( )
2( )
A B
A B
v v
a a
+
+
(C)
3
( )
3( )
A B
A B
v v
a a

(D)
2
A B
A B
v v
a a +
2. A man walking with a speed v constant in magnitude and direction passes under a lantern hanging at a height
H above the ground. The velocity with which the edge of shadow of the man's head moves over the ground with
it, if his height is h is
(A)
Hv
H h
(B)
hv
H h
(C)
Hv
H h +
(D)
hv
H h +
3. Time taken by a freely falling body, starting from rest to pass the n
th
meter of its path is
(A)
2
( 1 ) n n
g
+
(B)
2
( 1 ) n n
g
+ +
(C)
2
( 1 ) n n
g
+
(D)
2
( 1) n n
g

TEST - 1 (Paper - II)_Online
Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 186
Test - 1 (Paper-II)_Online All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014
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4. A man row the boat to reach point B on the opposite bank of the river from the point A as shown in figure. The
distance BC = D and width of river AC = E. Minimum speed relative to water should the man row the boat to
reach point B, if current velocity is v
0
, is
A
B C
o
|
(A)
0
2 2
v o
o + |
(B)
0
2 2
v |
o + |
(C)
0
2 2
v o|
o + |
(D)
0
2 2
v o|
o + |
5. A hinged construction consists of three rhombus with the ratio of sides 5 : 3 : 1. If vertex P
3
moves in the
horizontal direction at a velocity v
0
, velocity of vertex P
1
is
P
0
P
1
P
2
P
3
v
0
(A)
0
2
7
v
(B) 0
2
5
v
(C)
0
4
5
v
(D)
0
5
9
v
6. Two smooth cylindrical bars of mass m each lie next to each other in contact. A third similar cylinder is placed
over the two bars as shown in figure. Neglecting friction at all contacts, the minimum horizontal force on each
lower bar necessary to keep them together is
F F
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014 Test - 1 (Paper-II)_Online
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(A)
2
mg
(B) mg
(C)
3
mg
(D)
2 3
mg
SECTION - 2
Multiple Correct Answers Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE
OR MORE are correct.
7. River is flowing with velocity

5 m/s
r
v i =
G
. A boat is moving with a velocity of

( 2 3 ) m/s
br
v i j = +
G
relative to water.
The river width is 90 m along y-direction. Choose the correct alternative(s)
(A) The boat will cross the river in 30 s
(B) Absolute velocity of boat with respect to ground is 3 2 m/s
(C) Drift of the boat along the river flow is 45 m
(D) Absolute velocity of boat makes an angle 45 with river stream velocity
8. The position time (x-t) graphs for two students M and N returning from their school O to their homes R and S
respectively are shown in figure. Choose the correct answer(s).
S
R
M
N
x
t O
(A) M lives closer to the school than N
(B) M starts from the school at earlier than N
(C) M moves faster than N
(D) M and N reach homes at same time
9. Let
v
G
and
a
G
denote the velocity and acceleration of a particle. Select the correct statements.
(A)
a
G
can be non-zero when
0 v =
G
(B)
a
G
must be zero when
0 v =
G
(C)
a
G
may be zero when 0 v =
G
(D) Direction of
v
G
must be parallel or antiparallel to
a
G
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10. A particle is projected from a point A with a velocity u at an angle T with the horizontal. At a certain point B it
moves at right angles to its initial direction then
(A) Velocity of particle at B is u cosec T
(B) Velocity of particle at B is u cot T
(C) Time when particle is at B is
cosec
u
g
u
(D) Time when particle is at B is
sec
u
g
| |
u
|
\ .
11. Two blocks having masses m and M are connected by thread and are placed on an inclined plane with thread
loose as shown in figure. When the blocks are released
m
M
u
(A) Thread will remain loose if m < M and P is same for both the blocks
(B) Thread will remain loose if plane is smooth
(C) Thread will remain loose if m is smooth and M is rough
(D) Thread will remain loose if m is rough and M is smooth
SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate to two
paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer
among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Question Nos. 12 to 13
A triangular prism weighing 200 N, is lying at rest on an inclined plane whose inclination with horizontal is shown in
figure. The block is tied up by a horizontal string, which has a tension of 100 N.
53
String
12. The frictional force on the block is
(A) 80 N
(B) 100 N
(C) 120 N
(D) 150 N
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014 Test - 1 (Paper-II)_Online
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13. The normal reaction of inclined plane is
(A) 100 N
(B) 150 N
(C) 200 N
(D) 250 N
Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 15
At the moment t = 0, a stationary particle of mass m experiences a time dependent force F =
0
0 2
0
( )
F
t t t
t
, where F
0
is a constant, t
0
is the time for which the force acts.
14. The momentum of the particle when the action of the force stopped
(A)
0 0
3
F t
(B)
0 0
4
F t
(C)
0 0
6
F t
(D)
0 0
8
F t
15. The displacement of particle till the force acted
(A)
2
0 0
12
F t
m
(B)
2
0 0
6
F t
m
(C)
2
0 0
4
F t
m
(D)
2
0 0
2
F t
m
SECTION - 4
Matching Column Type
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Columns. The codes for the Columns
have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
16. A particle is going along a straight line with acceleration a, having initial velocity u. Then match the columns
Column I Column II
(P) u = +ve and a = +ve (1)
O
t
v
G
Test - 1 (Paper-II)_Online All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014
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(Q) u = ve and a = +ve (2)
O
t
v
G
(R) u = +ve and a = ve (3)
O
t
v
G
(S) u = ve and a = ve (4)
O
t
v
G
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 4 2 3
17. A particle of mass 500 g moves along horizontal circle of radius 16 m such that normal acceleration of particle
varies with time as a
n
= 9t
2
.
Column I Column II
(P) Tangential force on particle at t = 1 s (in newton) (1) 72
(Q) Total force on particle at t = 1 s (in newton) (2) 36
(R) Power delivered by total force at t = 1 s (in watt) (3) 7.5
(S) Average power developed by total force over first (4) 6
one second (in watt)
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
SECTION - 5
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The
appropriate bubbles corresponding to the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the
correct answers to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9, respectively, then the correct darkening of bubbles
will look like the following :
0
X
Y
Z 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014 Test - 1 (Paper-II)_Online
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18. A pivoted beam of negligible mass has, "Atwood's machine" suspended from one end and a mass M
1
suspended
from the other end as shown in figure. Given M
2
= 3M
3
and l
2
= 3l
1
. The pulley is frictionless, massless and
negligible dimension, gravity is acted downward. Find the ratio
1
2
M
M
so that beam has no tendency to rotate just
after release of masses.
M
1
M
3
M
2
l
1
l
2
19. In the shown arrangement, block of mass m does not slip over the triangular wedge. All surfaces are frictionless,
string and pulley are ideal. If m = 1 kg, M
1
= 3 kg, T = tan
1
1
3
| |
|
\ .
. What must be the value of M
2
in kg?
M
2
M
1
u
m
20. A body of mass 10 g is moving along the positive x-axis under the influence of a force
2
( )
2
K
F x
x
= , where
K = 10
2
N/m
2
. At time t = 0, it is at x = 1 m and starts from rest. Find the velocity of body in m/s when it reaches
to x = 0.5 m.
PART - II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
21. One of the hydrides of an element has 25% hydrogen and has formula MH
4
and other hydride of the same element
has 20% hydrogen. The empirical formula of that hydride is
(A) MH
2
(B) MH
3
(C) M
3
H
8
(D) M
4
H
10
22. Which one of the labelled carbon atoms has the highest electronegativity?
CH = CH CH C C CH
2 2 3

1
2 3
4
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
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23. 20 gram impure MgSO
4
on strong heating produces 0.56 litre of O
2
at STP then % purity of MgSO
4
in that sample
is
(A) 50%
(B) 40%
(C) 30%
(D) 25%
24. Which of the following electronic configuration represents ground state of an element / compound?
(A) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3p
1
(B) V1s
2
V*1s
2
V2s
2
V*2s
2
V2p
z
2
S2p
x
2
S2p
y
1
S*2p
x
2
S*2p
y
1
(C) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
6
3d
5
4s
1
(D) 1s
2
2s
1
3p
3
25. Correct pair regarding electron gain enthalpy is
(A) Cl > F
(B) Cl > S
(C) N > O
(D) Li > Be
26. Correct sequence of IE, for carbon family
(A) C > Si > Ge > Sn < Pb
(B) C > Si > Ge > Sn > Pb
(C) C > Si > Ge < Sn > Pb
(D) C > Pb > Si > Ge > Sn
SECTION - 2
Multiple Correct Answers Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE
OR MORE are correct.
27. In a sample of hydrogen, electron jumps from 5th shell to ground state and we observe no spectral lines in
Paschen series then correct statement(s) is/are
(A) Total no. of spectral lines observed is 7
(B) No. of spectral lines observed in Balmer series is 2
(C) No. of spectral lines observed in Lyman series is 4
(D) No. of spectral lines in Bracket series will be 1
28. Which of the following contain same no. of O atoms?
(A) 9 ml at 277 K H
2
O
(B) 15 gram of glucose
(C) 11 gram of CO
2
gas
(D) 11.5 gram of NO
2
gas
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29. Out of following polar molecule is/are
(A) O
3
(B)
OH
OH
(C)
Cl
Cl
(D)
C = C = C
H
H
Cl
Cl
30. A following wave function is written for an orbital
0
3
Zr
2
2a
1
0 0 2
1 Z Zr
e
a a
(24)

| | | |
=
| |
\ . \ .
where a
0
is Bohr radius and r is distance from nucleus then, correct regarding this is
(A) This is for the 2s orbital
(B) This is for 2p orbital
(C) No. of radial node in this is zero
(D) No. of radial node is 1
31. Correct pair regarding bond angle is
(A) OCl
2
< ClO
2
(B) PF
3
> PH
3
(C) O(CH
3
)
2
< O(SiH
3
)
2
(D) NO
2
> NO
2

SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate to two
paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer
among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Question Nos. 32 to 33
When atomic orbitals overlap they form molecular orbital. Number of molecular orbital is equal to no. of overlapping atomic
orbital. The molecular orbitals are of two types bonding molecular orbital and antibonding molecular orbital. Bonding molecular
orbitals are represented by V, S, and G while antiboding are represented by V*, S*. We consider z as internuclear axis.
Test - 1 (Paper-II)_Online All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014
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32. Which of the following lead to form gerade bonding orbital?
(A)
+

++

(B)
+

++

(C)
+

+
+

(D)
+

+
33. Number of nodal surface in S*2p
x
is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) Zero
Paragraph for Question Nos. 34 to 35
Quantum numbers are the set of four numbers which give complete information about an electron in an isolated atom.
(1) Principal quantum number (n)
(2) Azimuthal quantum number (l)
(3) Magnetic quantum number (m)
(4) Spin quantum number (s)
34. Which of the quantum number associate with size?
(A) n, s only
(B) l, m only
(C) n, l only
(D) m, s only
35. For a set of degenerate orbitals in hydrogen like species which quantum number must have same value?
(A) n only
(B) l only
(C) (n + l)
(D) (n + l + m)
SECTION - 4
Matching Column Type
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Columns. The codes for the Columns
have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014 Test - 1 (Paper-II)_Online
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36. Match the following
Column I Column II
(P) CH
2
= C = CH
2
(1) Planar (P = 0)
(Q) NO
2

(2) Non-planar (P = 0)
(R) PCl
3
Br
2
(3) Planar (P z 0)
(S) XeF
4
(4) Non-planar (P z 0)
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 1 2 3 4
37. Match the following
Column I Column II
(P) 2s (1) Non-directional
(Q) 2 2
4
x y
d

(2) Probability is maximum along y axis


(R) 3d
xy
(3) 3 radial node
(S) 5p
z
(4) yz nodal plane
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 2 1 3
SECTION - 5
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The
appropriate bubbles corresponding to the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the
correct answers to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9, respectively, then the correct darkening of bubbles
will look like the following :
0
X
Y
Z 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
38. How many stable resonating structure possible for XeO
6
4
?
39. Sum of n + l + m for d e

which take part in hybridisation in PCl


5
in excited state is x. The value of x may be.
40. Out of following how many species have no. of exchanges ! 10 in ultimate and penultimate shell (ns and (n 1)d)
only?
(1) Cr (2) Fe
+2
(3) Co
+2
(4) Mn
(5) Zn (6) Cu
+2
(7) Fe (8) Ni
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PART - III : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - 1
Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
41. If the range of
8 x
P
x 3
contains D elements then D =
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) More than 5
42. Sum of real solution(s) of | 1| 1 x = |5 x| is
(A)
7
2
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 4
43. If
1
1 x
x
+ = and
1 3
2
i +
e = then
20
19
1
x
x
+
may have the value
(A)
2
e
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D)
1
2
44. The equation
5 9
(3 5)
2
x x
x
+
= has
(A) No solution
(B) One solution
(C) Two solutions
(D) Three solutions
45. If locus of z satisfying |z 7 5i | + |z 4 i | = k is an ellipse then the least integral value of k is
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 7
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46. If 2 zz = and z z zz + = , then sum of all the values of z is
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 4i
(D) 2
SECTION - 2
Multiple Correct Answers Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE
OR MORE are correct.
47. The area of the triangle on the Argand diagram formed by complex numbers 2 + i, 2i 1 and 1 + 3i is
(A)
25
4
(B) Area is the solution of the equation z
2
+ 25i = |z|
2
+ i
(C)
5
2
(D) If area of the triangle is A then 'A' is the solution of the equation
3 2
8 4 10 125 0 iz z z i + =
48. If D, E, J are the roots of the equation
2 3 2 3
2 3 2 3
x x
x x

+ = +

then
(A) D E J = 0
(B) There are two irrational roots of the equation
(C) All roots are positive
(D) If D is rational and, E and J are irrational then
2
9 2
24

o + | + = 30
49. Which of the following statements are true ?
(A)
n
C
r
is always divisible by 'n' when 'n' is a prime number (r d n)
(B) (1 + x)
3/2
=
2 3
3 3 3 3 3
1 1 2
3 2 2 2 2 2
1 ....
2 2! 3!
x x x x R
| | | || |

| | |
\ . \ .\ .
+ + + + e
(C) (x + y)
n
=
n
C
0
x
n
y
0
+
n
C
1
x
n1
y
1
+ ....... +
n
C
n
x
0
y
n
is valid for n N and x, y can be real as well as complex
numbers.
(D) If ax
2
+ bx + c = 0 has two real roots of opposite sign, then the sufficient condition for this to happen is
a.f(0) < 0 where f(x) = ax
2
+ bx + c
50. If z + iw = 2 and 2z + 3iw = 5 + i then
(A) w = 1 + i
(B) Im(z) = 1
(C) Re(w) = 1
(D) z
2
w
2
= 0
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51. Number of values of x satisfying |x 1| + |x 2| = b, where
1
, 3
7
b
(
e
(

, may be
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) Infinite
(D) Exactly 3
SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate to two
paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer
among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Question Nos. 52 to 53
Consider the expansion of (1 + x)
2014
=
2014 2014 2014 2 2014 3 2014 4 2014 2014
0 1 2 3 4 2014
..... C C x C x C x C x C x + + + + + +
and give the answers of the following questions
52.
2014 2014 2014 2014
0 5 10 15
..... C C C C + + + + equals to
(A)
2014
2015 2015 2015 2015
2 2 3 4
1 cos cos cos cos
5 5 5 5 5
t t t t | |
+ + + +
|
\ .
(B)
2014
2015 2015 2015 2015
2 2 3 4
1 cos cos cos cos
5 5 5 5 5
t t t t | |

|
\ .
(C)
2014
2015 2015 2015 2015
2 2 3 4
1 cos cos cos cos
5 5 5 5 5
t t t t | |
+ +
|
\ .
(D)
2014
2015 2015 2015 2015
2 2 3 4
1 cos cos cos cos
5 5 5 5 5
t t t t | |
+ +
|
\ .
53. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2014 2014 2014 2014 1007 2014
0 1 2 3 2014
2 2 2 2 .... 2 C C C C C + + + + + equals to
(A)
2014
sin
8
t (
(

(B)
2014
sin cos
8 8
t t (
+
(

(C)
2014
2014
cos
8
sin
8
t
t
(D)
2014
2014
sin
8
cos
8
t
t
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014 Test - 1 (Paper-II)_Online
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Paragraph for Question Nos. 54 to 55
Consider the equation
2 2
1 1
1 1 ( 1)
1 1
a a
x x
| | | |
+ + =
| |
+
\ . \ .
and give the answers of the following questions.
54. The equation has two real roots, then
(A) 1 < a < 2
(B) a > 2
(C) a < 1
(D) a > 1
55. The equation has four real roots if
(A) 1 > a > 1
(B) a < 1 or a > 2
(C)
1 1
2 2
a > >
(D) Only a > 2
SECTION - 4
Matching Column Type
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Columns. The codes for the Columns
have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
56. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct answer using the code given below in the Columns.
Column I Column II
(P) Number of solutions of
2
| | 5 | | 6 0 x x + = is (1) 2
(Q) Number of roots of z
2
= z is (2) 4
(R) If we divide 5
2014
by 13. Then the sum of the (3) 3
digits of its remainder will be
(S) Number of solutions of
5 2
2 5 x x + = is (4) 0
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 2 4 3
Test - 1 (Paper-II)_Online All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2014
17
57. Match Column I to Column II according to the equation in Column I and locus in Column II
Column I Column II
(P) |z 3| |z 5| = 1 (1) Straight line
(Q)
( )
3
arg , 5
5 3
z
z
z
t | |
= =
|
\ .
(2) Parabola
(R) |z i | + |z 3 5i | = |4 + 3i | (3) Circle
(S) (Im(z))
2
= 4Re(z) (4) Hyperbola
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 4 1 3 2
SECTION - 5
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The
appropriate bubbles corresponding to the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the
correct answers to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9, respectively, then the correct darkening of bubbles
will look like the following :
0
X
Y
Z 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
58. If D E, J, G are the roots of tan 3x = tan
3
x
t | |
+
|
\ .
, then the value of tan tan tan tan o | o is ______.
59. Number of roots of ix
5
+ x
4
ix
3
x
2
+ ix + 1 = 0, where x is a complex number lying on real axis or imaginary
axis is ______.
60. In the expansion of
24
1/3
3/ 4 1/2 1/ 4
1
1
1
x
x
x x x
(
+ +
(
+ + +
, the coefficient of term containing x
7
is
24
C
n
then sum of
all digits in n is ______.

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