SBI Clerical

SBI : General Awareness Held on 13-07-2008
1. Oscar Awards are given for the excellence in the field of -

(A) films
(B) Literature
(C) Sports
(D) Politics
(E) Status
ANS: (A)
2. Which of the following is not a food crop ?

(A) Wheat
(B) Barley
(C) Maize
(D) Gram
(E) Cotton
ANS: (E)
3. Union Budget always presented first in -

(A) The Loksabha
(B) The Rajyasabha
(C) Joint session of Parliament
(D) Meeting of the Union cabinet
(E) The State Assemblies
ANS: (A)
4. The Government of India has earmarked about Rs. 70,000 crore in Union Budget to help which of
the following sections of the society ?
(A) Children who are bonded labour
(B) Persons working in hazardous industries
(C) Farmers
(D) People living below poverty line
(E) None of these
ANS: (E)
5. Jose Louise has taken over as the prime minister of -

(A) France
(B) Argentina
(C) Spain
(D) New zealand
(E) Italy
ANS: (C)
6. The conference of Economic/ Finance Ministers of ASEAN was held recently in -

(A) Jakarta
(B) Bali
(C) New Delhi
(D) Tokyo
(E) Islamabad
ANS: (B)
7. Which of the following International forums/ organizations has made a decision of not to go for
reckless lending ?
(A) G-7
(B) G-8
(C) SAARC
(D) World Bank
(E) IMF
ANS: (E)
8.Mahmood Ahmadinejad who was in India on an official visit recently is the -

(A) Prime Minister of Iraq
(B) President of Iran
(C) Prime Minister of Iran
(D) President of Iraq
(E) None of these
ANS: (B)
9. India recently started "Maitree Express" to which of the following destinations ?

(A) Islamabad
(B) Karanchi
(C) Dhaka
(D) Kathmandu
(E) None of these
ANS: (C)
10. The first ever General elction took place in which of the following countries in Indian sub-
continent ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) China
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Sri Lanka
ANS: (A)
11. As per the latest figures published in the newspapers the growth of economy in India for the fiscal
year ended March 2008 has been at which of the following levels ? About -
(A) 6 %
(B) 6.5 %
(C) 7 %
(D) 7.5 %
(E) 9 %
ANS: (E)
12. Name of B.S.Yeddyurappa was recently in news as he has taken over as the -
(A) Governor of Karnataka
(B) Chief Minister of Karnataka
(C) Governor of Andhra Pradesh
(D) Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh
(E) None of these
ANS: (B)
13. The Govt. of India Planning to put up a bill in the parliament to ensure free and compulsory
education for all those who are of the age of -
(A) 3 Years
(B) 5 Years
(C) 6-14 Years
(D) 12-20 Years
(E) Upto 21 Years
ANS: (C)
14. "World No Tobacco Day" is observed on which of the following days ?

(A) Ist May
(B) 10th May
(C) 21st May
(D) 31 st May
(E) 1st June
ANS: (D)
15. Late Vijay Tendulkar who died recently was a famous -

(A) Social Work
(B) Politician
(C) Sportsman
(D) Play Wright
(E) None of these
ANS: (D)
16. Mnay times we erad in newspapers about the GM Crops.What is the full form of GM ?
(A) Genetically Marketed
(B) Genetically Modified
(C) Green & Moisturious
(D) Globally Marketed
(E) None of these
ANS: (B)
17. Barack Obama whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) UK
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) Italy
(E) None of these
ANS: (B)
18. Which of the following is an Oscar winning documentary on climate change in which former US
Vice President Al Gore has featured as a narrator ?
(A) An inconvenient truth
(B) The Sea
(C) Road to prediction
(D) Remember My Name
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
19. Defence minister from 27 nations recently gathered at which of the following places to discuss
security amongst the countries of Asia Pacific Region ?
(A) Beijing
(B) New Delhi
(C) Singapore
(D) Kuala Lumpur
(E) None of these
ANS: (C)
20. Who amongst the following is NOT a Lawn Tennis Player ?

(A) Serena Williams
(B) Katarina Srebotnik
(C) Andy Murray
(D) Nichlas Almagro
(E) Ricky Ponting
ANS: (E)
21. The head office of the Stae Bank Of India is located in -

(A) Kolkat
(B) New Delhi
(C) Pune
(D) Ahmedabad
(E) None of these
ANS: (E) Mumbai
22. Which of the following is NOT the name of the sensitive index of any global stock exchange ?
(A) Nasdaq
(B) Nikkei
(C) Kospi
(D) Dow
(E) Combix
ANS: (E)
23. Mnay times we read the term 'ECB'in financial newspapers.What is the full form of 'ECB'?
(A) Essential Commercial Borrowing
(B) Essential Credit & Borrowing
(C) External Credit & Business
(D) External Commercial Borrowing
(E) None Of These
ANS: (D)
24. Who amongst the following is the new face in Union Cabinet after it was reshuffled recently ?
(A) Mnai Shankar Aiyer
(B) Rahul Gandhi
(C) Priyanka
(D) Jyotiraditya Scindia
(E) None of these
ANS: (D)
25. Who amongst the following has taken over as the chief minister of Nagaland ?
(A) Manik Sarkar
(B) Dinesh Nandan Sahay
(C) P.Longon
(D) K.Shankaranarayanan
(E) None of these
ANS: (E)
PAPER : SBI CLERK SOLVED PAPER (HELD ON 13-07-2008 SECOND SITTING)
MARKETING APTITUDE / COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
1. Bank MarketinG menas -

(A) Selling of Bnaks
(B) Buting of banks
(C) Merger of banks
(D) selling bank's produts and services
(E) Selling various items in banks
ANS -(D)
2. Proper pricing is needed for -

(A) Extra charges of extra services
(B) Levy of VAT
(C) Good customer services
(D) Putting burden on the customer
(E) Service with extra facilities
ANS -(C)
3. Alead means -
(A) Abank's marketing staff
(B) Areligious leader
(C) Bank's chairman
(D) Target Customer
(E) Leash tied to a dog
ANS -(D)
4. A good salesman should be-
(A) Agressive
(B) Pushy
(C) Fierce
(D) Polite, but firm
(E) Talkative
ANS -(D)
5. Relationship selling means -

(A) Preparing a list of relatives
(B) Cross selling
(C) Selling to relatives
(D) Selling to strangers
(E) Telemarketing
ANS -(B)
6.ATM are -
(A) Branches of banks
(B) Manned couters of banks
(C) Unmanned , cash dispensers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
ANS -(C)
7. Home loans are granted to -

(A) Individuals
(B) Institutions
(C) Builders
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
ANS -(A)
8. Credit cards are used for -

(A) Cash withdrawals
(B) Purchase of air tickets
(C) Purchase of consumable items from retail outlets
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
ANS -(D)
9. HNI means -
(A) Highly negative individual
(B) High growth individual
(C) High neutral individual
(D) Highly necessary individual
(E) All of these
ANS -(B)
10. What menu is selected to cut , copy, and pest ?

(A) File
(B) Tools
(C) Special
(D) Edit
(E) None of these
ANS -(D)
11. The most important or powerful computer in a typical network -

(A) Desktop
(B) Network client
(C) Network server
(D) Network station
(E) None of these
ANS -(C)
12. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into -

(A) Web sites
(B) Information
(C) Programs
(D) Objects
(E) None of these
ANS -(C)
13. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage ?

(A) GB
(B) KB
(C) MB
(D) TB
(E) None of these
ANS -(D)
14. Which of the following is an example of connectivity ?

(A) Internet
(B) Floppy disk
(C) Power cord
(D) Data
(E) None of these
ANS -(A)
15. A collection of related file is called a -

(A) Character
(B) Field
(C) Database
(D) Record
(E) None of these
ANS -(C)
PAPER : Bank Clerk Marketing and Money Question 2008
1. In which type of account, banks generally don’t pay interest—

(A) Saving Account
(B) Current Account
(C) Fixed Deposit Account
(D) Interest is always payable in all types of account
ANS:: B
2. A bank standing order would be suitable for paying—
(A) Telephone accounts
(B) Electricity accounts
(C) Grocery bills
(D) Mortgage repayments
ANS:: D
3. Payment of a cheque cannot be made on a cash counter of bank if the cheque is—
(A) Bearer
(B) Cross
(C) Order
(D) All of these
ANS:: B
4. Which of the following is not Commercial Bank?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Canara Bank
(D) Oriental Bank of Commerce
ANS:: A
5. What is the Bank draft ?
(A) Letter from the Bank
(B) Cheque which a bank draws on itself
(C) Instraction to a banker to collect a customer’s debt
(D) Instruction not to honour a stop payment
ANS:: B
6. The essential characteristic of whatever serves as money is that it must—
(A) Be issued by the State
(B) Be generally acceptable
(C) Not be wholly fiduciary
(D) Have some instrinsic value
ANS:: B
7. One of the following is not an example of Near-Money, which ?
(A) Bill of Exchange
(B) Bonds and Debentures
(C) Equity shares of Ranbaxy Company Ltd.
(D) Treasury bills of the Government of India
ANS:: C
8. ‘Fiat Money’ is that which is—
(A) Accepted by overseas banks only
(B) Accepted temporarily in lieu of gold
(C) Backed by gold or silver
(D) Decreed as money by the government
ANS:: B
9. Money is—
(A) Acceptable only when it has intrinsic value
(B) Constant in purchasing power
(C) The most liquid of all assets
(D) All of the above
ANS:: C
10. Greshan’s law states that—
(A) Bad money promotes good money in the system
(B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation
(C) Good money drives bad money out of circulation
(D) Good money promotes bad money in the system
ANS:: B
11. Value of Money—
(A) Is independent of the price level
(B) Is directly related to the price level
(C) Is inversely related to the price level
(D) None of the above
ANS:: C
12. Demand pull inflation can be caused by money factors including—
(A) A fall in consumption expenditure
(B) A sharp increase in unemployment
(C) A steep reduction in direct taxation
(D) An increase in Income Tax
ANS:: C
13. The process of deplation tends to favour—
(A) Debtor and Creditiors a like
(B) Debtor at the expense of Creditors
(C) Creditors at the expense of Debtors
(D) Profit receivers at the expense of fixed income receivers
ANS:: C
14. Which of the following statement is not completely true ?
(A) An increase in the supply of money will result in inflation
(B) Cost inflation occurs when prices rise to cover increased factor costs
(C) Inflation occurs when the value of money declines
(D) Inflation will have the effect of redistributing incomes within a country
ANS:: A
15. Which of the following people is most likely to benefit from an inflationary situation ?
(A) A person who buys units from the Unit Trust
(B) A person who keeps his savings under the floor at home
(C) A person makes a large private loan to a friend
(D) A person who takes out a mortgage with a building society
ANS:: D
16. The principal liability of a Joint Stock Bank relates to—
(A) Its investment abroad
(B) Its investment at home
(C) Repayment of its customer’s deposits
(D) Its requirements to make special deposits when requested
ANS:: C
17. Which of the following is not a function of the Commercial Banks ?
(A) Acting as a lender of last resort
(B) Lending to the private and public sectors
(C) The provision of a cheque system for setting debts
(D) The provision of safe deposit facilities
ANS:: A
18. When the Commercial Bank create credit areas which are in effect and increases—
(A) The national debt
(B) The supply of money
(C) The purchasing power of the rupee
(D) The real wealth of the country
ANS:: B
19. A customer does not require a bank account to obtain—
(A) A Loan
(B) A Cheque Card
(C) A Banker’s Draft
(D) An Overdraft
ANS:: A
20. Which of the following is not a liability of Commercial Banks—
(A) Security Holdings
(B) Treasury deposit at banks
(C) Demand deposits and time deposits
(D) Borrowing from Central Bank
ANS:: A
21. ‘Not negotiable’ written on a cheque crossing means—
(A) The cheque cannot be paid to any one but the payee
(B) The cheque is valid only for payment of the transaction for which it is made out
(C) An honest person receiving a stolen cheque is liable to repay the rightful owner
(D) The cheque must be paid into a bank
ANS:: C
22. The Central Bank is not expected to perform the function of—
(A) Acting as a clearing house
(B) The banker to the government
(C) Accepting deposit from Commercial Banks
(D) Accepting deposits from general public
ANS:: D
23. Increase in bank rates generally is followed by—
(A) An increase in market rate of interest
(B) A fall in market rates of interest
(C) A rise only in the deposits rates but not the lending rates
(D) A rise only in the lending rates
ANS:: A
24. The major quantitative monetary tool available with the Central Bank is—
(A) Retioning of credit
(B) Regulation of consumer credit
(C) Margin requirements
(D) Reserve ratio requirements
ANS:: D
25. Bank must refuse payment of a cheque where—
(A) Cheque is not dated
(B) Where cheque is stale, i.e. date has expired
(C) Payment has been stopped by customer
(D) The cheque is not presented during working hours of Bank
ANS:: C
26. A ‘Stale’ cheque is one that is—
(A) Over six months old
(B) Converning an overdue payment
(C) Cancelled by the drawer
(D) Written on an account which is overdrawn
ANS:: A
27. When the Central Bank sells securities, as a result—
(A) The cash resources at the disposal of the commercial banks increase
(B) The cash resources of the commercial banks remain unchanged
(C) The cash resources at the disposal of commercial banks get diminished
ANS:: C
28. When a cheque is returned by the bank marked ‘Refer to Drawer’ this means the
drawer—
(A) Has instructed the bank not to pay the cheque
(B) Whishes to be contacted before the cheque is cashed
(C) Has improperly completed the cheque and must correct it before payment
(D) Had insufficient funds in his account to pay the cheque
ANS:: D
29. The current Bank Rate is—
(A) 6%
(B) 8%
(C) 9%
(D) 9·5%
ANS:: A
30. It has been made compulsory for Non-Banking Financing Companies to get themselves
registered with … before July 8, 1997.
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) Government of India
ANS:: A
31. India ranks number … among the countries with the biggest growth potential in the
world according to the latest report of world Economic Forum.
(A) Six
(B) Five
(C) Four
(D) Three
ANS:: D
32. Which is the ‘most competitive country’ of the world according to the latest report of
world Economic Forum ?
(A) Hong Kong
(B) Singapore
(C) United State of America
(D) Netherlands
ANS:: B
33. The maximum permissible limit of interest on postshipment rupee credit on demand
bills for transit period upto 90 days is—
(A) 13%
(B) 14%
(C) 15%
(D) 16%
ANS:: A
34. Which of the following statement is correct about India according to the World Bank’s
latest calculations ?
(A) India’s per capita national wealth is $ 25000
(B) India’s per capita incomeis $ 360
(C) India’s per capita income (according to purchasing power parity) is $ 2390
(D) All of the above
ANS:: D
35. Scheduled commercial banks recorded nonperforming assets (NPAs) of … at the end of
March 2006-07 against 1·8% during 2005-06.
(A) 2·3%
(B) 3·3%
(C) 1·5%
(D) 7·9%
ANS:: C
36. Which of the following is not a tool in the hands of RBI to control the inflationary
pressure in the country ?
(A) Bank Rate (BR)
(B) Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
(C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
(D) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
ANS:: B
37. Which of the following is/are included in Legal Tender Money in India ?
(A) Coins and currency notes
(B) Coins and bank drafts
(C) Currency notes and SDRs
(D) Currency notes issued by RBI
ANS:: A
38. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(A) CRR on FCNR (B) Scheme—12%
(B) Bank Rate—6%
(C) SLR on NRE deposits—31·5%
(D) CRR on NRE—13%
ANS:: B
39. India’s First Financial Archive has been set up at—
(A) Mumbai
(B) New Delhi
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Kolkata
ANS:: D
40. Which of the following Bank merged with Oriented Bank of Commerce ?
(A) New Bank of India
(B) Punjab Co-operative Bank
(C) Bari Doab Bank
(D) (B) and (C) both
ANS:: D
Answers
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (D)
PAPER : SBI CLERK MODEL PAPER ONLINE NUMERICAL ABILITY
1. Let R = qs—4. When s=8, R=16. When s=10, R is equal toa. 11b. 14c. 20d. 21
Answer-d
3. If 272/3 × 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x isa. -1b. 0c. 1d. 2

Answer -b
4. 0.333 .... × 0.444 .... is equal to a. 0.148148148 ....b. 0.777 ....c. 0.121212 ....d. 1.333 ....
Answer-a
9. On converting the following base-2 numeral in base ten, 1101101, we geta. 96b. 104c. 108d.
109
Answer-d
10. The number of prime factors of (6)10×(7)17×(55)27 a. 54b. 64c. 81d. 91
Answer-d
11. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds, while it crosses 100 meter long platform in 25 seconds.
The length of the train is -a. 125mb. 135 mc. 159 md. 175 m
Answer-c
12.Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both the taps
are opened simultaneously and the tap A is closed after 3 minutes, then how much more time
will it take to fill the tank by tap B?a. 7 min & 15 secb. 7 min & 45 secc. 8 min & 5 secd. 8 min
& 15 sec
Answer-d
13. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what
ratio, the liquids be mixed in both the vessels so that the new liquid contains half milk and half
water?a. 7:5b. 1:2c. 2:1d. 6:5
Answer-a
14.A car covers a distance of 715 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the car would have
been 10 km/hr more, then it would have taken 2 hours less to cover the same distance. What is
the original speed of the car?a. 45 km/hrb. 50 km/hrc. 55 km/hrd. 65 km/hr
Answer-c
15.A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone does
the work in 40 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in
Answer-a
16. A person covered some distance in 12 hours. He covered half the distance by rail @ 75 km
per hour and the rest by car @ 45 km/hr. The total distance covered by him wasa. 450 kmb.
675 kmc. 337.5 kmd. 1350 km
Answer-b
17. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A's share, 4
times B's share and 7 times C's share are all equal. The share of C isa. Rs. 84b. Rs. 147c. Rs.
196d. Rs. 240
Answer-a
18. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 12000 and Rs. 9000 respectively. After 3
months C also joined them with a capital of Rs. 15000. The share of C in the half yearly profit
of Rs. 9500 isa. Rs. 3500b. Rs. 3000c. Rs. 2500d. Rs. 4000
Answer-c
19.A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do it in 18 days. They started the work
together but A left 3 days before the completion of the work. The total number of days to
complete the work is
Answer-b
20.The ratio of income of A and B is 5:4 and their expenditure is as 3:2. If at the end of the
year, each saves Rs. 800, then the income of A is a. Rs. 1700b. Rs. 1800c. Rs. 2000d. Rs. 2200
Answer-c
21.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 10 days together and
then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 30 more days. B alone can finish the
work in a. 48 daysb. 60 daysc. 75 daysd. 90 days
Answer-d
22.The ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface area of a right circular
cylinder is 1:2. If the total surface is 616 sq. cm, the volume of the cylinder isa. 1848 cm3b.
1232 cm3c. 1078 cm3d. 980 cm3
Answer-c
23.A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in
the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle isa. 30 cmb. 60 cmc. 72 cmd. 108 cm
Answer-b
24.A man walking at the rate of 6km per hour crosses a square field diagonally in 9 seconds.
The area of the field is-a. 125 sq. cmb. 112.5 sq. cmc. 110 sq. cmd. 100√2 sq. m
Answer-b
25.A rectangular carpet has an area of 240 sq. cm. If its diagonal and the longer side are
together equal to five times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is -a. 10 cmb. 24 cmc. 26
cmd. 27.5 cmAnswer-b26.The ratio of 435 : 25 is same asa. 4 : 1b. 2 :1c. 7 : 5d. 7 :10
Answer-a
27. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to
that of the cube isa. √π : √6b. √π : √6c. √π : √3d. √6 : √π
Answer-d
28.The marked price of a table is Rs. 3000 and is available at successive discounts of 20% and
10% respectively. If there is an additional discount of 5% on cash payment, then what is the
cash price of the table?a. Rs. 2400b. Rs. 2160c. Rs. 2100d. Rs. 2052
Answer-d
29.A trader marks his goods 25% above the C.P. but discounts 15% on the marked price. His gain
percent in the deal is-
Answer-b
30. A certain sum becomes Rs. 5290 in 2 years and Rs. 6083.50 in 3 years at C.I. The rate of
interest per annum is -a. 10%b. 12%c. 15%d. 16⅔ %
Answer-c
31.A person borrowed Rs. 500@ 3% per annum S.I and Rs. 600 @4½% per annum on the
agreement that the whole amount will be returned only when the total interest becomes Rs.
126. The number of years, after which the borrowed sum is to be returned, isa. 2b. 3c. 4d. 5
Answer-b
32.A sum of Rs. 12,000 doubles in 5 years at C.I. What will be the amount after 20 years?a. Rs.
1,20,000b. Rs. 1,92,000c. Rs. 1,24,000d. Rs. 96,000
Answer-b
33. A person sold 320 mangoes for the C.P. of 400 mangoes. His gain percent isa. 10%b. 15%c.
12½%d. 25%
Answer-d
34.On selling each of the rwo radios for Rs. 5000, a person neither gained nor lost. If he had
sold one radio at 25% gain, then at what percent loss did he sell the other radio?
Answer-a
35. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same amount of oranges
@ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs. 120. The total
number of oranges bought by him was -a. 30 dozenb. 40 dozenc. 50 dozend. 60 dozen
Answer-d
36.On selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on selling it for Rs.
355. The C.P. of the commodity isa. Rs. 370b. Rs. 385c. Rs. 390d. Rs. 400
Answer-c
37.A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased
by 5% then the amount will increase toa. Rs. 950b. Rs. 980c. Rs. 1010d. Rs. 1040
Answer-d
38.Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of
the three numbers is 44, the largest number isa. 24b. 36c. 17d. 72
Answer-d
39.A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of
paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 2kg tins, the
number of tins required for painting the house is -a. 15b. 12c. 10d. 20
Answer-a
40.Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio
of an employee's expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by how much should his
salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming
that his present salary is Rs. 3500?a. Rs. 300b. Rs. 350c. Rs. 375d. Rs. 475
Answer-d
PAPER : State Bank of India Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam 2008 Solved Paper
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions—(Q. 81–90) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions ?
81. (8.2% of 365) – (1.75% of 108) = ?
(A) 16.02 (B) 28.04
(C) 42.34 (D) 53.76
(E) None of these
82. [(135)2 ÷ 15 ´ 32] ÷ ? = 45 ´ 24

(A) 18 (B) 24
(C) 36 (D) 44
(E) None of these
83. (96)2 + (63)2 = (?)2 – (111)2 – 8350

(A) 33856 (B) 30276
(C) 174 (D) 184
(E) None of these
84. 4368 + 2158 – 596 – ? = 3421 + 1262

(A) 1066 (B) 1174
(C) 1247 (D) 1387
(E) None of these
85. 2172 ÷ ? = 1832 – 956 – 514

(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 12
(E) None of these
86. 666.06 + 66.60 + 0.66 + 6.06 + 6 + 60 = ?

(A) 819.56 (B) 805.38
(C) 826.44 (D) 798.62
(E) None of these
87. 15.594 – 4.312 – 3.517 – 1.689 = ?

(A) 6.706 (B) 6.760
(C) 6.670 (D) 6.607
(E) None of these
88. 205 ´ ? ´ 13 = 33625 + 25005

(A) 22 (B) 27
(C) 33 (D) 39
(E) None of these
89. 69 ÷ 3 ´ 0.85 + 14.5 – 3 = ?

(A) 36.45 (B) 23.85
(C) 42.95 (D) 18.65
(E) None of these
90. (10)24 ´ (10)– 21 = ?

(A) 3 (B) 10
(C) 100 (D) 1000
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 91–95) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number
series ?
91. 12 6.5 7.5 12.75 27.5 71.25 ?
(A) 225.75 (B) 216.75
(C) 209.75 (D) 236.75
(E) 249.75
92. 16 24 36 54 81 121.5 ?
(A) 182.25 (B) 174.85
(C) 190.65 (D) 166.55
(E) 158.95
93. 12 12 18 45 180 1170 ?

(A) 13485 (B) 14675
(C) 15890 (D) 16756
(E) 12285
94. 22 23 27 36 52 77 ?
(A) 111 (B) 109
(C) 113 (D) 117
(E) 115
95. 16 14 24 66 256 1270 ?

(A) 8564 (B) 5672
(C) 4561 (D) 7608
(E) 6340
Directions—(Q. 96–100) Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow
—
Number of Boys and Girls in Five Streams of a College Over the Years
STREAMS
YEAR Arts Science Commerce Management IT
Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls
2002 556 414 619 505 668 612 770 633 670 515
2003 763 608 793 612 781 616 667 439 866 722
2004 672 519 540 516 859 713 778 727 781 619
2005 809 602 928 908 870 811 849 729 977 817
2006 745 510 884 820 967 819 562 938 990 808
2007 698 413 765 616 571 515 1288 1016 1151 1010
96. What is the total number of Boys, for all the Streams together, in the year 2004 ?
(A) 4148 (B) 3630
(C) 4433 (D) 3247
(E) None of these
97. The number of Boys in Arts Stream in the year 2004 is approximately what per cent of the
total number of Boys for all the years together in Arts Stream ?
(A) 27 (B) 34
(C) 08 (D) 39
(E) 16
98. What is the ratio of the total number of Boys to the total number of Girls, from all the
Stream together, for the year 2007 ?
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 14 : 13
(C) 52 : 49 (D) 213 : 170
(E) None of these
99. What is the ratio of the total number of Boys to the total number of Girls in the Manage-
ment Stream for all the years together ?
(A) 9 : 8 (B) 71 : 86
(C) 91 : 83 (D) 27 : 23
(E) None of these
100. What is the average number of Girls from Commerce Stream for the given years ?
(A) 681 (B) 675
(C) 618 (D) 657
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 101–105) What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in
the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
101. (935.82)2 = ?
(A) 870000 (B) 867500
(C) 888800 (D) 875800
(E) 899800
102. 628.306 + 6.1325 ´ 44.0268 = ?

(A) 820 (B) 970
(C) 1050 (D) 1175
(E) 900
103. (739% of 383) ÷ 628 = ?

(A) 10.00 (B) 4.50
(C) 15.75 (D) 19.25
(E) 24.15
104. (9795 + 7621 + 938) ÷ (541 + 831 + 496) = ?

(A) 9 (B) 13
(C) 17 (D) 23
(E) 29
105. 814296 ´ 36 = ? ´ 96324

(A) 326 (B) 272
(C) 304 (D) 358
(E) 260
Directions—(Q. 106–110) Study the infor-mation carefully to answer the following questions—
In an organization consisting of 750 emp-loyees, the ratio of Males to Females is 8 : 7
respectively. All the employees work in five different departments viz. HR, Management, PR, IT
and Recruitment. 16 per cent of the Females work in Management Department. 32 per cent of
Males are in HR Department. One–fifth of the Females are in the Department of Recruitment.
The ratio of Males to Females in the Management Department is 3 : 2 respectively. 20 per cent
of the total number of employees are in PR Department. Females working in Recruitment are
50 per cent of the Males working in the same Department. 8 per cent of the Males are in IT
Department. The remaining Males are in PR Department. 22 per cent of the Females work in HR
Department and the remaining Females are working in IT Department.
106. What is the total number of Females working in the IT and Recruitment Department
together ?
(A) 147 (B) 83
(C) 126 (D) 45
(E) None of these
107. What is the number of Females working in the HR Department ?

(A) 77 (B) 70
(C) 56 (D) 134
(E) None of these
108. Number of Males working in HR Depart-ment from approximately what per cent of total
number of the employees in the Organization ?
(A) 20 (B) 28
(C) 32 (D) 9
(E) 17
109. Number of Males working in PD Department forms what per cent of the number of Females
working in the same Department ? (rounded off two digits after decimal)
(A) 22.98 (B) 16.68
(C) 11.94 (D) 6.79
(E) 27.86
110. What is the total number of employees working in the Management Department ?
(A) 128 (B) 77
(C) 210 (D) 140
(E) None of these
111. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 19,800. At the end of three years is Rs.
7,128. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in
the same period ?
(A) Rs. 8934.6784
(B) Rs. 8017.5744
(C) Rs. 7861.8754
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
112. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 400% and the denominator is increased by
500%, the resultant fraction is 1021 . What was the original fraction ?
(A) 512 (B) 813
(C) 1714 (D) 47
(E) None of these
113. What is 26% of 55% of 1013 th of 6100 ?
(A) 617 (B) 681
(C) 706 (D) 734
(E) None of these
114. The ages of Aarzoo and Arnav are in the ratio of 11 : 13 respectively. After 7 years the
ratio of their ages will be 20 : 23. What is the difference in years between their ages ?
(A) 4 years (B) 7 years
(C) 6 years (D) 5 years
(E) None of these
115. One-eighth of a number is 17.25. What will 73% of that number be ?

(A) 100.74 (B) 138.00
(C) 96.42 (D) 82.66
(E) None of these
Direction—(Q. 116–120) Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow—
Number of Girls Enrolled in Different Hobby Classes in Various Institutes in a Year
116. What is the respective ratio of total number of Girls Enrolled in Painting in the Institutes A
and C together to those Enrolled in Stitching in the Institutes D and E together ?
(A) 5 : 4 (B) 5 : 7
(C) 16 : 23 (D) 9 : 8
(E) None of these
117. Number of Girls Enrolled in Stitching in Institute B forms approximately what per cent of
the total number of Girls Enrolled in Stitching in all the Institutes together ?
(A) 29 (B) 21
(C) 33 (D) 37
(E) 45
118. What is the respecive ratio of total number of Girls Enrolled in Painting, Stitching and
Dancing from all the Institutes together ?
(A) 44 : 48 : 47 (B) 43 : 47 : 48
(C) 44 : 47 : 48 (D) 47 : 48 : 44
(E) None of these
119. Number of Girls Enrolled in Dancing in Institute A forms what per cent of total number of
Girls Enrolled in all the Hobby Classes together in that Institute ? (rounded off to two digits
after decimal)
(A) 23.87 (B) 17.76
(C) 31.23 (D) 33.97
(E) 20.69
120. What is the total number of Girls Enrolled in Painting from all the Institutes together ?
(A) 1150 (B) 1200
(C) 1275 (D) 1100
(E) None of these
Answers with Explanation :
81. (B) ? = (8·2% of 365) – (1·75% of 108)

= 365 ´ – 108 ´
= 29·93 – 1·89 = 28.04 Ans.
82. (C) ? = [(135)2 ÷ 15 ´ 32] ÷ (24 ´ 45)
= ÷ (1080)
= = 36 Ans.
83. (D) ?2 = (96)2 + (63)2 + (111)2 + 8350
= 9216 + 3969 + 12321 + 8350
= 33856 = (184)2
? = 184 Ans.
84. (C) ? = 4368 + 2158 – 596 – 3421 – 1262
= 6526 – 5279 = 1247 Ans.
85. (A) 2172 ÷ ? = 1832 – 956 – 514
\?==
= 6 Ans.
86. (B) ? = 666·06 + 66·60 + 0·66 + 6·06
+ 6 + 60
= 805·56 Ans.
87. (E) ? = 15·594 – 4·312 – 3·517 – 1·689
= 15·594 – 9·518 = 6·076 Ans.
88. (A) ? = =
= 22 Ans.
89. (E) ? = 69 ÷ 3 ´ 0·85 + 14·5 – 3
= 23 ´ 0·85 + 14·5 – 3
= 19·55 + 14·50 – 3 = 34·05 – 3
= 31·05 Ans.
90. (D) ? = (10)24 ´ (10)– 21
= (10)24 – 21 = (10)3
= 1000 Ans.
91. (B)
92. (A)
93. (E)
94. (C)
95. (D)
96. (B) Total no. of boys for all streams in 2004
= 672 + 540 + 859 + 778 + 781
= 3630 Ans.
97. (E) Reqd. Percentage
=%
= % = 15·84%
16% (Approximate) Ans.
98. (D) Reqd. Ratio = (698 + 765 + 571 + 1288 + 1151) : (413 + 616 + 515 + 1016 + 1010)
= (4473) : (3570)
=
= 213 : 170 Ans.
99. (C) Reqd. Ratio = (770 + 667 + 778 + 849 + 562 + 1288) : (633 + 439 + 727 + 729 + 938
+ 1016)
= (4914) : (4482)
= (91 ´ 54) : (83 ´ 54)
= 91 : 83 Ans.
100. (A) Average number of girls from Commerce Stream for the given years
=
= = 681 Ans.
101. (d) ? = (935·82)2 = 875759·0724
875800 (Approximate) Ans.
102. (E) ? = 628·306 + 6·1325 ´ 44·0268
628 + 6 ´ 44 628 + 264
103. (B) ? = (739% of 383) ÷ 628
= 2830·37 ÷ 628 4·50 (Approximate)
Ans.
104. (A) ? = (9795 + 7621 + 938)
÷ (541 + 831 + 496)
= (18354) ÷ (1868) = 9·825
105. (C) ? = = 304·33
For questions 106 to 110
The data in the following table are based on the given information for these questions—
Department Male Female Total
H.R. 400 = 128
350 ´
= 77
205
Manage-ment
56 ´
= 84
350 ´
= 56
140
P.R.
400 –
(128 + 84 + 32 + 140) = 400 – 384
= 16
150 – 16
= 134
750 ´ = 150
I.T.
400 ´
= 32
350 – (77 + 56 + 134 + 70) = 350 – 337 = 13
45
Recruitment
2 ´ 70
= 140
350 ´
= 70
210
Total
400
350
750
106. (B) Total No. of Females in I.T. and Recruit-ment Deptt. = 13 + 70 = 83 Ans.
107. (A) Number of females in H.R. Department
= 22% of 350 = ´ 350 = 77 Ans.
108. (E) Required Percentage = ´ 100%
= 17·06%
= 17% (Approximate) Ans.
109. (C) Reqd. Percentage = ´ 100%
= 11·94 Ans.
110. (D) Total number of employees in the Mana-gement = 84 + 56
= 140 Ans.
111. (B) Let the annual rate of interest = R%, Then as per question—
˙.˙ 7128 =
Þ R = = 12%
Reqd. Compound Interest
= 19800
= 19800
= 19800
=
= Rs. 8017·5744 Ans.
112. (d) Let the original fraction be . Then
=
Þ=
= = Ans.
113. (e) Given Exp. = 26% of 55% of th
of 6100
= ´ ´ ´ 6100
= 2 ´ ´ 10 ´ 61
= 11 ´ 61 = 671 Ans.
114. (c) Let the ages of Aarzoo and Arnav are 11x and 13x years
Then, as per question—
˙.˙ =
Þ 260x + 140 = 253x + 161
Þ (260 – 253)x = 161 – 140
Þ 7x = 21
x=3
Reqd. difference in years between their ages
= 13x – 11x
= 2 ´ 3 = 6 years Ans.
115. (a) Let the required number be x.
˙.˙ ´ x = 17·25
Þ x = 17·25 ´ 8 = 138
73% of the number = ´ 138
= 100·74 Ans.
116. (c) Reqd. Ratio
=
=
= = 16 : 23 Ans.
117. (b) Reqd. Percentage
=%
= % = 20·83% 21% (app.) Ans.
118. (a) Reqd. Ratio
= (Girls Enrolled in Painting) :
(Stitching) : (Pancing)
= (250 + 225 + 150 + 175 + 300) : (325 + 250 + 50 + 250 + 325) : (150 + 200 + 75 + 400 +
350)
= (1100) : (1200) : (1175)
= 44 : 48 : 47 Ans.
119. (e) Reqd. Percentage = %
= % = 20·689%
20·69% Ans.
120. (d) Total number of girls enrolled in Painting from all the institutes
= 250 + 225 + 150 + 175 + 300
= 1100 Ans.
PAPER : SBI CURRENT AFFAIRS 2008 QUESTIONS ANSWERS
1. WHO IS THE PRESENT CHAIRMAN OF CII ?
ANS- K.V.KAMATH1
2. WHAT IS THE FULLFORM OF "BRIC" ?

ANS- BRAZIL,RUSSIA ,INDIA,CHINA
3. WHICH FILM HAS BAGGED THE BEST MOVIE AWARDS IN IIFA AWARDS WHICH WAS HELD IN
BANGKOK ?
ANS- CHAK DE INDIA (YASH CHOPRA)
4. WHO IS THE WINNER OF FRENCH OPEN 2008 MEN'S TITLE ?

ANS- RAFAEL NADAL
5. WHO IS THE WINNER OF DLF IPL CRICKET TOUNAMENT 2008 ?

ANS- RAJASTHAN ROYALS
6. NATIONAL HUMAN RIGHTS COMMISSION CHAIRMAN?

ANS- JUSTICE RAJENDRA BABU
7. WHO IS THE INDIAN HOCKEY COACH ?

ANS- JOKIM KARVALO
8. WHICH FILM HAS BAGGED THE BEST FILM OF GOLDEN PALM AWARD IN CANNES FILM FESTIVAL
2008 ?
ANS- ENTRE LES MURS (THE CLASS)
9. WHO IS THE winner of IIFA Best Actor award 2008 ?

ANS- SHAHRUKH KHAN (CHAK DE INDIA)
10.WHO IS THE CHIEF OF INDIAN AIR FORCE ?

ANS- FALI HOMI MAJOR
11.WHO IS THE MISS UNIVERSE INDIA 2008 ?

ANS- SIMARAN KAUR MUNDI
12.WHO IS THE Miss INDIA WORLD 2008

ANS- PARVATHY OMNAKUTTAN
13.VENUE OF 15TH SAARC SUMMIT 2008?

ANS- COLOMBO (SRI LANKA)
14.WHO GOT DADA SAHEB PHALKE RATNA AWARD 2008?

ANS- B.R.CHOPRA
15.WHO IS THE WINNER OF WORLD CUP CRICKET 2007 ?

ANS- AUSTRALIA
16.WHO IS THE WORLD CUP CRICKET 2007 RUNNER UP ?

ANS- SRI LANKA
17.WHO IS THE WINNER OF FRENCH OPEN 2008 WOMENS TITLE ?

ANS- Ana Ivanovic
18.WHO COMPLETED 16000 RUNS IN ODI RECENTLY ?
ANS- SACHIN TENDULKAR
19.WHO IS THE PRESIDENT OF RUSSIA ?

ANS-DMITRI MEDWEDEV
20.WHO IS THE PRIME MINISTER OF RUSSIA ?

ANS- VLADIMIR PUTIN
21.WHO IS THE WORLD BANK PRESIDENT ?

ANS- ROBERT ZOELLICK
22.INDIA HAS SUCCESSFULLY TEST FIRED AGNI III IN THE MONTH OF MAY 2008. WHICH TYPE OF
MISSILE BELONGS TO AGNI III -
ANS - SURFACE TO SURFACE INTERMEDIATE RANGE BALLISTIC MISSILE
PAPER : SBI CLERK COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ SBI BANK CLERK COMPUTER QUIZ
Objective 10 questions
1. Why the document you created at home displays with a different font at school?
Because you have a different printer at school than at home Because you have a different
monitor at school than at home
font you used at home is not installed on your school computer Because the version of Windows
is different
2. Which keyboard shortcut centers selected text?
Ctrl+C Alt+C There is no keyboard shortcut for this operation Ctrl+E
3. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?
TXT WRD FIL DOC
4. Which key moves your cursor from one cell to the next in a table?
Tab Shift Enter Ctrl+Enter
5. How many different documents can you have open at one time?
No more that three Only one As many as your computer memory will hold No more than your
Taskbar can display
6. In order to email a Word document from within Word:

Go to File/Send To/Mail Recipient Save the file as an email attachment Start Outlook and
attach the file while open in Word. This is an impossible operation
7. Which keystroke will take you at the beginning or the end of a long document?
Ctrl+PageUp and Ctrl+PageDown Shift+Home and Shift+End Ctrl+Home and Ctrl+End The only
way is by using the right scroll bar
8. How many margins are on a page?
Two (header and footer) Four (top, bottom, right, left) Two (landscape and Portrait) Two (top
and bottom)
9.In order to save a Word document as a web page you need to:
Put the appropriate graphics and links on the document Save the document in simple text
format Use your web browser as an editor and save as URL Save as HTML
10. A document in portrait prints:
The same characters per line with the same document in landscape More characters per line
than the same document in landscape Less characters per line than the same document in
landscape Smaller fonts in order to fit the same amount of characters per line with landscape
PAPER : SBI BANK CLERK GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 10
1. The Sir C.V .Raman award for 2008 has been awarded to –
M.Natarajan
Sanjeev Ramchandra Inamdar
Prof. G.Venkatraman
Dr. Naresh Trehan
2. The 2007 FIFA Woman player of the year is –
Birgit Prinz
Christiane
Marta
Sania Mirza
3. The Mascot of the 2008 Olympic Games is-

Fuwa
Izz
Cobi
4. Which among the following States would observe 2008 as the‘Year of Education’ ?
Uttar Pradesh
Haryana
Bihar
Karnataka
5. Who has written “Superstar India : From Incredible to unstopable” ?
Shobha De
Kiran Desai
Arundhati Roy
Khushwant Singh
6. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award
2007 ?
Priya Ranjan Das Munshi

Mani Shankar Aiyyar
P.Chidambaram
Sushama Swaraj
7. Fernando Lugo’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the president of
Paraguay
Sudan
Afghanistan
Pakistan
8. ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on -
15th March,2008
30th March,2008
28th April,2008
4th May,2008
9. Which country will be host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ?

Maldives
Sri Lanka
India
Pakistan
10. Who among the following has been chosen the Miss India Universe for the year 2008 ?
Parvathy Omanakuttan
Simaran Kaur Mundi
Amrita Thapar
Tanvi Vyas
PAPER : SBI Clerk Reasoning Sample Paper
1 In a certain code RIPPLE is written as 613382 & LIFE is written as 8192. How is PILLER
written in that code ?
(a) 318826 (b) 318286 (c) 618826
(d) 328816 (e) none of these
2 If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, How is GATE coded?
(a) 5427 (b) 5724 (c) 5247
(d) 2547 (e) None of these
3 If PALE, is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590 , how is PEARL coded in that code?
(a) 29530 (b) 24153 (c) 25413
4 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded as 931785 , then
state which is the correct code for the SEDATE
(a) 918731 (b) 954185 (c) 814195
5 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded as 931785, then
state which is the correct code for the ENDEAR
(a) 524519 (b) 174189 (c) 128174
(d) 124179 (e) 164983
6 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 ,
how is COACH coded in that language
(a) 38137 (b) 49148 (c) 48246 (d) 49145 (e) none of these

how is COLLER coded in that language

how is MECHRALE coded in that language
9 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what will be the code
for DISTANT ?
(a) 3765485 (b) 4798165 (c) 3697185
(d) 4768296 (e) none of these
10 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what will be the code
for NEMISES ?
11 If ROPE is coded as 6821 & CHAIR is coded as 73456, then what will be the code for
CRAPE?
(a) 73456 (b) 76421 (c) 77246
12 In a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is written as ALUR. How is 23549
written in that code ?
(a) ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT
(d) ALGRT (e) None of these
13 In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 5268 is written as DMPN.
How is 396824 written in that code?
(a) QLPNKJ (b) QLPNMF (c) QLPMNF
(d) QLPNDF (e) None of these
In a certain language 36492 is written as SMILE and 058 is written as RUN, How are the
following figures coded in that language ?
Q:14 33980
(a) SSLNR (b) SSLRN (c) SLSNR
(d) SLNRS (e) None of these
15 6458
(a) MUIN (b) MINU (c) INUM
(d) MIUN (e) IUMN
16 92486
(a) LEIMN (b) ELINR (c) LEINM
(d) EILNM (e) LIENM
17 54324
(a) SIUEI (b) UISEI (c) USIIE
(d) UISIE (e) SUEII
18 90089
(a) NLLRN (b) LRLNN (c) LLRRN
(d) LRRNL (e) RLLNN
19 3425
(a) SEIU (b) SIUE (c) SRUI
(d) RUSI (e) SIEU
20 29463
(a) ELISM (b) ELIMS (c) LIMSE
(d) EILMS (e) None of these
21 If in a certain language PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 & RISK is coded as 2398, How is
RIVETS coded in that language?
(a) 687543 (b) 234769 (c) 496321
(d) 246598 (e) None of these.
22 If PLAY is coded as 8123 &RHYME is coded as 49367, How is MALE coded as ?

(a) 6217 (b) 6198 (c) 6395
23 In a certain code language 24685 is written as 33776. How is 35791 written in that
code.
(a) 44882 (b) 44880 (c) 46682
24 In a certain code language 35796 is written as 44887. How is 35791 written in that code
(a) 57914 (b) 55914 (c) 5934
25 If MINJUR is coded as 312547 & TADA as 6898, How can MADURAI be coded as?
(a) 3498178 (b) 3894871 (c) 384971
ANSWER SHEET
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
acbacddcacbcbad
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
cbdebbaabd
Answers With Explantion :-
1. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. P as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2, & R as 6. So, PILLER

is coded as 318826.
2. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. G as 5, A as 2, T as 4 & E as 7. So GATE is coded
as 5247.
3. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. p AS 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5, & L as 3. So PEARL
is coded as 24153.
4. S is coded as 9, E as 1, D as 8, A as 7 & T as 3. So SEDATE is coded as 918731.
5. E is coded as 1, N as 2, D as 8, A as 7 & R as 4. So ENDEAR is coded as 128174.
6. C is coded as 4, O as 9, A as 1 & H as 5.
7. C is code as 4, O as 9, L as 3, E as 7, & R as 6. So, COLLER is coded as 493376.
8. M is coded as 2, E as 7, C as 4, H as 5, R as 6, A as 1 & L as 3. So, MECHRALE is coded as
27456137.
9. D is coded as 3, I as 7, S as 6, T as 5, A as 4, & N as 8. So the DISTANT is coded as
3765485.
10. N is coded as 8, E as 2, M as 9, I as 7 & S as 6. So NEMISES is coded as 8297626.
11. C is coded as 7, R as 6, A as 4, P as 2, & E as 1. So CRAPE is coded as 76421.
12. 2 is coded as A, 3 as L, 5 as G, 4 as U & 9 as T. So 23549 is coded as ALGUT.
13. 3 is coded as Q, 9 as L, 6 as P, 8 as N, 2 as M & 4 as F. So 396824 is coded as QLPNMF.
14. 3 is coded as S, 9 as L, 8 as N & 0 as R. So 33980 is coded as SSLNR.
15. 6 is coded as M, 4 as 1, 5 as U & 8 as N. So 6458 is coded as MIUN.
16. 9 is coded as L, 2 as E, 4 as I, 8 as N, & 6 as M. So, 92486 is coded as LEINM.
17. 5 is coded U, 4 as I, 3 as S & 2 as E. So 54324 is coded as UISEI.
18. 9 is coded as L, 0 as R & 8 as N. So, 90089 is coded as LRRNL.
19. 3 is coded as S, 4 as I, 2 as E & 5 as U. So 3425 is coded as SIEU.
20. 2 is coded as E, 9 as L, 4 as I, 6 as M & 3 as S. So, 29463 is coded as ELIMS.
21. R is coded as 2, I as 3, V as 4, E as 7, T as 6 & S as 9. So, RIVETS is coded as 234769.
22. Here M is coded as 6 , A is coded as 2 , L is coded as 1 , E is coded as 7 , therefore male
is coded as 6217
23. In the code the letters at odd places are one place ahead & those at even places are
one place before the corresponding letter in the word. So in 35791, 3is written as 4, 5 as
4,7 as 8, 9 as 8 & 1 as 0. The code becomes 44880.
24. 4 will be written as 5, 5 as 6, 8 as 9, 2 as 1, 3 as 4. So the code is 5914.
25. Code is M as 3, A as 8, D as 9, U as 4, R as, 7 & I as 1. So, MADHRI is coded as 3894781.
PAPER : SBI Clerical Staff Selection - Model Questions and Answers
General English
Directions—(Q. 41–55) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given
below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of
the questions.
A large majority of the poor in India are outside the formal banking system. The policy of
financial inclusion sets out to remedy this by making available a basic banking ‘no frills’
account either with nil or very minimum balances as well as charges that would make such
accounts accessible to vast sections of the population. However, the mere opening of a bank
account in the name of every household or adult person may not be enough, unless these
accounts and financial services offered to them are used by the account holders. At present,
commercial banks do not find it viable to provide services to the poor especially in the rural
areas because of huge transaction costs, low volumes of savings in the accounts, lack of
information on the account holder, etc. For the poor, interacting with the banks with their
paper work, economic costs of going to the bank and the need for flexibility in their accounts,
make them turn to other informal channels or other institutions. Thus, there are constraints on
both the supply and the demand side.
Till now, banks were looking at these accounts from a purely credit perspective. Instead, they
should look at this from the point of view of meeting the huge need of the poor for savings.
Poor households want to save and contrary to the common perception, do have the funds to
save, but lack control. Informal mutual saving systems like the Rotating Savings and Credit
Associations (ROSCAs), widespread in Africa and ‘thrift and credit groups’ in India demonstrate
that poor households save. For the poor household, which lacks access to the formal insurance
system and the credit system, savings provide a safety net and help them tide over crises.
Savings can also keep them away from the clutches of moneylenders, make formal institutions
more favourable to lending to them, encourage investment and make them shift to more
productive activities, as they may invest in slightly more risky activities which have an overall
higher rate of return.
Research shows the efficacy of informal institutions in increasing the savings of the small
account holders. An MFI in the Philippines, which had existing account holders, was studied.
They offered new products with ‘commitment features’. One type had withdrawal restrictions
in the sense that it required individuals to restrict their right to withdraw any funds from their
own accounts until they reached a self-specified and documented goal. The other type was
deposit options. Clients could purchase a locked box for a small fee. The key was with the bank
and the client has to bring the box to the bank to make the deposit. He could not dip into the
savings even if he wanted to. These accounts did not pay extra money and were illiquid.
Surprisingly, these products were popular even though these had restrictions. Results showed
that those who opted for these accounts with restrictions had substantially greater savings
rates than those who did not. The policy of financial inclusion can be a success if financial
inclusion focuses on both saving needs and credit needs, having a diversified product portfolio
for the poor but recognising that self-control problems need to be addressed by having
commitment devices. The products with commitment features should be optional. Furthermore
transaction costs for the poor could be cut down, by making innovative use of technology
available and offering mobile vans with ATM and deposit collection features which could visit
villages periodically.
41. What is the aim of the financial inclusion policy ?

(A) A focus on savings needs rather than credit needs of the poor
(B) Minimising utilisation of technology in banks so as to reduce transaction costs for the poor
(C) To boost low savings volumes in banks by encouraging savings among the rural poor
(D) To make formal basic banking services available to the poor
(E) To regulate the rate at which moneylenders lend to the poor
42. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to—

(A) Criticise the concept of financial inclusion
(B) Point out the problems of financial inclusion
(C) Discuss ways of making the financial inclusion policy successful
(D) Compare financial inclusion policies of different countries
(E) Cite research in support of role of MFIs in achieving financial inclusion
43. Which of the following can be inferred about products with commitment features ?
1. Demand for such products was high.
2. They were an effective means of increasing the savings of small account holders.
3. Such facilities can only be offered by informal institutions like MFIs.
(A) All 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these
44. Why do the poor not utilise banking services ?

1. Informal institutions offer higher rates of interest than those in banks.
2. Costs of reaching banks have to be borne by the poor.
3. Bank personnel do not treat the poor respectfully because their savings amounts are
minimal.
(A) Only 2 (B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Both 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2, and 3
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following is a recommendation made by the author regarding financial
inclusion ?
(A) Reduce the paper work involved by seeking less information about the account holder
(B) Lower transaction costs by utilising latest technology.
(C) Make commitment features compulsory for all savings accounts
(D) Entrust the responsibility of financial inclusion solely to MFIs
(E) Provide credit facilities even to those without savings accounts
46. Which of the following factors affects ‘saving’ behaviour among the poor
1. Threats from moneylenders if they avail of banking services.
2. Documentation required before availing of banking services.
3. Lack of self-control.
(A) Only 1 (B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 (D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these
47. What do the results of the study conducted in the Philippines indicate ?
(A) Account holders in MFIs have higher savings rates than banks
(B) Many of the poor have to turn to moneylenders because of strict restrictions in MFIs
(C) Having accounts with restriction on withdrawal requires the bank to offer a higher rate of
interest
(D) There should be strong security measures for deposit option accounts for the poor
(E) None of these
48. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?

(A) There are no informal means for the poor to save in India
(B) Having savings encourages the poor to invest only in low risk ventures
(C) There is a huge demand for savings facilities among poor households
(D) Presently commercial banks feel that it is feasible to provide banking services to the poor
in rural areas
(E) There are many official innovative savings systems like roscas in Africa
49. What is/are the outcome(s) of encouraging savings for the poor ?
1. It frees them from the exploitation of moneylenders.
2. Banks are more willing to disburse loans to those who save.
3. They should invest in risky but high return ventures.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
50. What was the view of banks regarding the bank accounts of the poor in the past ?
(A) They were considered a problem since account holders information needed to be updated
constantly
(B) Focus should be more on providing savings facilities not credit
(C) Moneylenders should be regulated so that they share responsibility of disbursing loans to
the poor
(D) Products with commitment features will not be successful
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 51–53) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
51. purely :
(A) morally
(B) honestly
(C) completely
(D) perfectly
(E) cleanly
52. demonstrate :
(A) protest
(B) occur
(C) estimate
(D) appear
(E) prove
53. remedy :
(A) medicine
(B) solve
(C) restore
(D) therapy
(E) heal
Directions—(Q. 54-55) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
54. optional :
(A) voluntary
(B) compromise
(C) pressure
(D) mandatory
(E) free
55. accessible :
(A) convenient
(B) unavailable
(C) unfavourable
(D) unpleasant
(E) formal
Directions—(Q. 56–65) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there
is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
56. The scheme failed because / some states could not / manage not to raise / the
necessaryfunds. No error. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
57. Real estate prices in the / business district of the city / are expected to rise / at 15% this
year. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
58. By so early as next year / that leading investment bank / has plans to open / an office in
New Delhi. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
59. There is lots of / supports from the employees / for the proposal to / merge with the
parent company. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
60. Experts have recommended that / the government reconsidered / restrictions imposed on
foreign / investment in real estate. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
61. The crucial point to / be discussed at the / meetings is how to / well implement the
policy.No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
62. He wants to / set up a laboratory / to undertake research / into a vaccine for cancer. No
error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
63. According to him / two factors which are / needy for success / are discipline and diligence.
No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
64. Because of the pace at / which the company is growing / I believe it will easily / achieve
their target. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
65. It is truth / that India is / the largest consumer of / gold in the world. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions—(Q. 66–70) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful
and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the
answer.
66. The bank is overstaffed, has led to low productivity.

(A) Led to (B) Will lead towards
(C) And has led in (D) Which has led to
(E) No correction required
67. You delay in taking a decision conveys a negative impression.

(A) You delay to take
(B) If you delay taking
(C) Your delay in taking
(D) To delay by taking
68. Today management student itself are opted to work for NGOs even though the salaries
offered to them are low.
(A) Student itself is
(B) Students themselves are
(C) Students have
(D) Student himself has
69. Absence off any guidelines, they are unwilling to take up the project.
(A) Absent of
(B) In the absence of
(C) Because of the absence
(D) Without being absent
70. Without the development of rural people the country can no claim to be developed.
(A) Can never claim
(B) Being claimed
(C) Not able to claim
(D) Have not any claim
Directions—(Q. 71–75) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type
is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold
may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the
word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer.
If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the
sentence, mark (E) i.e.. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
71. The organization preferred to hire locale population as they understood the language and
customer preferences. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
72. In our opinion the exicting assessment system requires immediate revision.All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
73. In responds to the advertisement a sizeable number of candidates have submitted their
applications. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
74. There is no guarantee that if this model is adopted the entire sector will prosper.All
Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
75. With this unique initiative the company hopes to sustain its current growth rate. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions—(Q. 76–80) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below
each five pairs of words have been denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which
pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the
sentence meaningfully complete.
76. Mr. Srinivasan is …… to become Chairman of the group …… the retirement of his father.
(A) set, following
(B) voted, subsequent
(C) selected, despite
(D) approved, because
(E) decided, after
77. …… to your error the …… consignment has been delayed by a week.

(A) According, important
(B) Duly, urgent
(C) Owing, entire
(D) Added, crucial
(E) Admitting, special
78. On account of the …… in sales the software firm has achieved an eight percent …… in net
profit.
(A) surge, fall (B) increase, rise
(C) decline, slope (D) hike, loss
(E) growth, advance
79. We are proud to say that today …… 26 percent of our total accounts are …… by women and
senior citizens.
(A) approximate, held
(B) nearly, authorised
(C) over, maintain
(D) above, open
(E) around, operated
80. The company has …… special training to employees on …… to trade online.

(A) announced, benefits
(B) offered, course
(C) imparted, risks
(D) sanction, skills
(E) provided, how
Answewrs With Explanation :
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b)
46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (e)
51. (c) 52. (E) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b)
56. (c) In C part not is redundant.
57. (e)
58. (A) Change ‘so’ to ‘as’.
59. (a) Change ‘is’ to ‘are’ because the subject is plural ‘lots of support’.
60. (b) Change ‘reconsidered’ to ‘reconsider or should reconsider’ because of parallelism
of the two sentences.
61. (d) Change the position of adverb ‘well’, it should be used in the end of the sentence.
62. (e)
63. (c) Change ‘needy’ to ‘needed’ here we require a verb.
64. (d) Change ‘their’ to ‘its’ because its subject is singular.
65. (A) Change ‘truth’ to ‘true’ or ‘a truth’.
66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (B) 70. (a)
71. (b) Change ‘locale’ to ‘local’ here we want an adjective.
72. (a) Change ‘exicting’ to ‘existing’. Exciting is not appropriate.
73. (a) Change ‘responds’ to ‘response’.
74. (e) Change ‘adopted’ to ‘adapted’.
75. (d) Change ‘currant’ to ‘current’.
76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (e) 80. (E)
PAPER : SBI clerical Staff recruitment : General Awareness sample Question Paper 2008
Who amongst the following is the Head of the RBI at present?

(1) Mr. K V. Kamath
(2) Dr. Y.V. Reddy
(3) Mr. Y.R. Narayanamurthy
(4) Mr. O.P. Bhatt
(5) None of these
India has different categories of Commercial banks. Which of the following is not one such
category?
(1) Private Banks
(2) Commodity Banks
(3) Nationalised Banks
(4) Co-operative Banks
(5) Foreign Banks
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently imposed a restriction on money
flow in equity through ‘P-Notes’. What is the full form of ‘P-Notes’ ?
(1) Permanent Notes
(2) Purchase Notes
(3) Participatory Notes
(4) Private Notes
(5) None of these
Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian cricket team which won the
Twenty20 World Cup2007 ?
(1) Yuvraj Singh
(2) M.S. Dhoni
(3) Rahul Dravid
(4) Sourav Ganguly
(5) None of these
The money which Government of India spends on the development of infrastructure in

country comes from which of the following sources? [pick. up the correct statement(s)]
(A) Loan from World Bank/ ADB, etc.
(B) Taxes collected from the people.
(C) Loan from the RBI.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Both A & B
(5) All A, B & C
Which of the following organisations / agencies has established a fund known as “Investor
Protection Fund” ?
(1) SEBI
(2) NABARD
(3) Bombay Stock Exchange
(4) Ministry,.\of Health
(5) None of these
Which of the following departments of the Government of India is helping banks in
disbursement of rural credit by the banks?
(1) Railways
(2) State Road Transports
(3) Posts & Telegraph
(4) Ministry of Health
(5) None of these
Which of the following types of banks are allowed to operate foreign currency accounts ?
(A) Foreign Banks
(B) Regional Rural Banks
(C) Nationalised Banks
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) All A, B & C
(5) None of these
Majority of rural people still prefer to go to which of the following for their credit needs?
(1) Money lenders
(2) Foreign banks
(3) NABARD
(4) RBI
(5) All of these
Which of the following countries does not play international cricket?

(1) Russia
(2) England
(3) South Africa
(4) Pakistan
(5) India
Which of the following countries in the world is the biggest consumer of gold?
(1) USA
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Russia
(4) India
(5) None of these
Many times we read in financial newspapers about ‘FII’. What is the full form of FII ? ‘
(1) Final Investment in India
(2) Foreign Investment in India
(3) Formal Investment in India
(4) Fair Institutional Investment
(5) Foreign Institutional Investment
The financial markets of which of the following countries were badly affected by sub prime
crisis ?
(1) Russia
(2) Brazil
(3) UK
(4) USA
(5) None of these
One of the former Prime Ministers of which of the following countries was detained in
house arrest for a short period after his/her return from a long exile?
(1) Germany
(2) France
(3) Pakistan
(4) Brazil
(5) None of these
Which of the following countries is facing problem of strike by the workers of the
transport, electricity and gas companies as the present Government of the country has
decided to end the pension to these workers?
(1) USA
(2) France
(3) China
(4) Nepal
(5) None of these
Benazir Bhutto is associated with which of the following political parties?

(1) Muslim League
(2) Pakistan People’s Party
(3) Pakistan National Congress
(4) Islamic Movement of Pakistan
(5) None of these
Who amongst the following is the Secretary-General of UNO?

(1) Al Gore
(2) Shashi Tharoor
(3) Gordon Brown
(4) Hugo Chavez
(5) None of these
Manmohan Singh called George Bush to explain the difficulties he is having in implementing
agreements related with which of the following with USA?
(l}Supply of Sugar
(2) Civilian Nuclear Cooperation
(3) Purchase o£ Fighter Planes
(4) Purchase of Gas/Petroleum
(5) None of these
Which of the following countries recently decided to launch a military action in Northern
Iraq where many Kurdish PKK fighters are based and they are killing people from that
country ?
(1) India
(2) Afghanistan
(3) Pakistan
(4) Bangladesh
(5) Turkey
The “Orange Coalition Government” was formed once again in which of the following
countries?
(1) Russia
(2) Ukraine
(3) France
(4) Germany
(5) None of these
As reported in papers the UN World Food Programmes stopped distributing food in

Mogadishu town after its local head was abducted by the government soldiers of the
country. Mogadishu is the capital town of
(1) Tanzania
(2) Turkey
(3) Cuba
(4) Libya
(5) Somalia
Who amongst the following leaders from USA visited Israel and Palestinian West Bank so
that a solution to the Israel and Palestinian problem can be worked out?
(1) George Bush
(2) Al Gore
(3) Bill Clinton
(4) Condoleezza Rice
(5) None of these
Which of the following countries is not elected by the UN General Assembly on the non-
permanent seats of the UN Security Council w.e.f. January 2008 ?
(1) Libya
(2) Vietnam
(3) Croatia
(4) Costa Rica
(5) Pakistan
Which of the following countries is not happy with the USA’s decision to award a
Congressional Medal to Dalai Lama of Tibet?
(1) India
(2) Pakistan
(3) Nepal
(4) Myanmar
(5) China
Justine Henin won the Women’s Singles US Open Tennis Championship 2007 after
defeating
(1) Svetlana Kuznetsova
(2) Sania Mirza
(3) Dinara Safina
(4) Mathalie Dechy
(5) None of these
India won the ONGC Nehru Cup Football Tournament 2007 by beating
(1) Syria
(2) Pakistan
(3) Britain
(4) France
(5) None of these
Who amongst the following is selected for Basava Award (2006-07) by the Karnataka
Government?
(1) Manmohan Singh
(2) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(3) Sonia Gandhi
(4) Pratibha Patil
(5) None of these
Shinzo Abe who was on a visit to India in recent past is the

(1) Prime Minister of South Korea
(2) Prime Minister of North Korea
(3) Prime Minister of Japan
(4) President of South Korea
(5) None of these
Abdullah Gul’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the President of
(1) Turkey
(2) Sudan
(3) Afghanistan
(4) Pakistan
(5) None of these
Hem Dutta who was honoured with the prestigious Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhawana
Award 2007 is a famous
(1) author
(2) social activist
(3) player
(4) film producer
(5) scientist
Asafa Powell who created a new world record in 100 metres race is a citizen of
(1) Jamaica
(2) South Africa
(3) India
(4) USA
(5) South Korea
The World Athletics Championship 2007 was organised in

(1) Beijing
(2) New Delhi
(3) Osaka
(4) Dhaka
(5) London
Who amongst the following got third position in long jump event of the Bayer International
Athletics Meet held in Germany in 2007 ?
(1) Shiny Wilson
(2) Anju Bobby George
(3) Neha Sanwal
(4) Prajakta Sawant
(5) None of these
As per the recent agreement between India and one other country the Indian Rupee can be
easily swapped with
(1) Taka
(2) Riel
(3) Kyat
(4) Yen
(5) Rubble
The Government of India put a ban on export of which of the following commodities at the
price below the price of the same in domestic market?
(1) Steel
(2) Chemical Fertiliser
(3) Pharma products’
(4) Electronic goods
(5) None of these
India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves declined sharply in recent past. What was the main
reason for the same?
(1) Heavy demand of the same by foreign tourists
(2) Import of wheat from Pakistan & South Korea
(3) Appreciation of Rupee Value
(4) Instability in coalition government in Centre
(5) None of these
Which of the following is a public sector unit ?
(1) TCS
(2) ICICI Bank
(3) TESCO
(4) BHEL
(5) All of these
Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation Business Meet was organised in September 2007 in
(1) New Delhi
(2) Beijing
(3) Tokyo
(4) London
(5) Sydney
Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian hockey team who won Asia Cup
2007 held in Chennai ?
(1) Baichung Bhutia
(2) Dilip Tirkey
(3) Pankaj Advani
(4) Manavjit Singh Sandhu
(5) None of these
India launched which of the following satellites in September 2007?

(1) EDUSAT
(2) METSAT
(3) CROSAT-IIB
(4) INSAT-4CR
(5) None of these
Answers
1. (2) 2. (2)
3. (3) 4. (2)
5. (5) 6. (1) 7. (5) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (5) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (5)
18. (2) 19. (5) 20. (2) 21. (5) 22. (4) 23. (5) 24. (5) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (1) 30.
(2) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (5) 35. (1) 36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (5) 39. (5) 40. (4)
• IASguru's blog
• Login or register to post comments
PAPER : SBI Clerk Previous Year (2007) Solved Paper (General Awareness)
1.Who amongst the following cricketers became the ninth Indian to claim 150 or more
wickets?
(a) A.Kumble
(b) A.Agarkar
(c) S.Tendulkar
(d) Harbhajan Singh
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
2. Who amongst the following returned to earth after a long 195 days stay in space ?
(a) Angei Brewer
(b) Mike Leinbach
(c) Shruti Vadera
(d) Sunita Williams
(e) None of these
Ans(d)
3. Japan PM shinzo Abe came to office last year with huge support in his favour. But since
last few months he is facing problems in his political survival. Which of the following
actions taken by him does / do not enjoy support of the people of Japan (Pick up the
correct statement) ?
1. Decision to postpone parliament elections.
2. Falling to control inflation which has gone to the level of 12% an unusual phenomenon in the
history of Japan.
3. Decision to allow USA to make an army Base in some of its Islands where USA will have its
nuclear war-heads
(a) Only 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 3
(e) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans:(c)
4. European leaders agree on treaty was the news in leading news paper in recent past .
Which of the following was the treaty on which leaders were of diverse views (Pick up the
correct statement) ?
1. The treaty was to make the EURO money a universal currency for all financial / monetary
transaction done by all the member countries w.e.f. April 2009.
2. Treaty was to defunct constitution of the European Union by a new one.
3. Poland one of the newest members of the union was threatening to use its veto power if any
change is done in the present set up of the organization.
(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) only 3
(d) Both 1 and 2
(e) Both 2 and 3
Ans(b)
5. "Rajpaksha threatens to resolve Lanka parliament" was the news in leading newspaper a
few days back . Which of the following was the reason owing to which president threatens
to take a drastic step ? (pick up the correct statements).
1. A number of MPs from Sri Lanka Freedom party defecting to join another party launched by
another group of politicians.
2. A group of politicians under the leadership of former president Chandrika Kumartunga
demanding the postponement of elctions for the post of president due in the month of
November 2007 so that Chandrika can came back from exile and contest for the same.
3. Rajapaksha wants general public and also MPs to support his formula on peace with LTTE
which is not accepatble to most of the MPs.
(a) All 1,2 and 3
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Both 1 and 2
(e) Only 1
Ans(a)
6. Madhesi national liberation front (MNLF) is an organixation active in which of the
following countries ?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Myanmar
(c) Uganda
(d) Iran
(e) Nepal
Ans(e)
7. As per the Economic survey 2006-07 the food grain production may not touch the target
fixed for the year. What is the atrget of the same set for the period?
(a) 100 million tonnes
(b) 220 million tonnes
(c) 175 million tonnes
(d) 250 million tonnes
(e) 320 million tonnes
Ans(b)
8. Which of the following sector banks brought its equity share (follow on public issue) for
the price was set as Rs. 940 per equity ?
(a) ICICI Bank
(b) Karnataka Bank
(c) UTI Bank
(d) HDFC Bank
(e) None of these
Ans(a)
9. Prime minister of India recently unveiled an agricultural package during his visit to 53rd
meeting of the National Development Concil. What is the size of the package >
(a) Rs. 10,000 Crores
(b) Rs. 1s,000 Crores
(c) Rs. 20,000 Crores
(d) Rs. 25,000 Crores
(e) Rs. 30,000 Crores
Ans(d)
10. Which of the following States achieved 100% financial inclusion (each and every family
in the state has atleast one bank account). ?
(a) Delhi
(b) Maharashtra
(c) West Bengal
(d) Kerala
(e) None of these
Ans(d)
11. Rafael Nadal won the French Open men's single title 2007 after defeating who amongst
the follwing ?
(a) Mark Knowles
(b) Mahesh Bhupati
(c) Daniel Nestor(d) Pawel Vizner
(e) Roger Federer
Ans(e)
12. Who amongst the following has taken over as the chairman of the 18th Law Commission
set-up recently ?
(a) Justice A.R.Lakshmanan
(b) Justice Bhagwan Das Rana
(c) Justice T.L.Venkatraman Iyer
(d) Mrs. Suryakanta Patil
(e) None of these
Ans(a)
13. Who amongst the following was honoured with the Jawaharlal Nehru award for the
International Understanding given away recently ?
(a) Mr. Umaru Yar Adua
(b) Mr. Luiz Inacio Lula Da Silva
(c) Mr. Vladimir Putin
(d) Mr. Felipe Calderon
(e) None of these
Ans(b)
14. Who amongst the following actors won the award for Best actor in 8th International
Film Academy Award Ceremony held recently?
(a) Saif Ali Khan
(b) Sanjay Dutt
(c) Arshad Warsi
(d) Abhishek Bachchan
(e) Hrithik Roshan
Ans(e)
15. Which of the following rates is not decided by the Reserve Bank of India ?
(a) Bank Rate
(b) Repo Rate
(c) Reserve Repo Rate
(d) Income Tax Rates
(e) All of these
Ans(d)
16. The world Economic forum was held recendly in -

(a) Malaysia
(b) Kuwait
(c) Iran
(d) Brazil
(e) Indonesia
Ans(a)
17. Which of the following African countries recently launched its communication satellite
for the first time (The satellite was launched from China) ?
(a) Nigeria
(b) Keniya
(c) Zimbabwe
(d) Mauritius
(e) None of these
Ans(a)
18. 'Dausa' which has been in news recently is a town in -

(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradeh
(c) Bihar
(d) Uttar Pradesh
(e) Rajasthan
Ans(e)
19. Which of the following was the major issue of discussion in the G-8 Summit held in
Germany ?
(a) Subsidy to agro product
(b) Climate protection
(c) Financial Aid to Iraq
(d) Nuclear technology and possiblity of space war
(e) None of these
Ans(b)
20. Which of the following countries has decided to build a road to the Base camp of Mt.
Everest ?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Nepal
(d) Myanmar
(e) None of these
Ans(b)
PAPER : SBI Bank Clerk Model Paper 2008 (General English)
Directions (Question 1 to 10) Read the list of words given below and choose from the
options the word that is the nearest in meaning to the given word.
1. Exiguous
a) tall
b) large
c) wide
d) scanty
e) broad
2. Recreancy
a) recreation
b) recuperation
c) bravery
d) cowardice
e) obstinate
3. Proscribe
a) to nominate
b) to be supportive of
c) to give early warning signals
d) outlaw
e) none of these
4. Ingest
a) enrage
b) invigorate
c) to absorb
d) burn up completely
e) to stir up
5. Monticule
a) a small river
b) a small hut
c) a lane
d) a small hill
e) a small plane
6. Compendious
a) comprehensive
b) illustrative
c) unbearable
d) elaborate
e) none of the above
7. Nadir
a) asylum
b) heaven
c) depth
d) nebulous
8. Somnambulistic
a) sleepwalking
b) ghost dancing
c) women’s group activity
d) colourful scenario
e) over-eating
9. primordial
a) feeling of elation
b) original
c) elementary
d) daunting
10. Somber
a) Causing sleep
b) Squalid
c) Gloomy
d) Complacent
e) Malicious
Directions (Question 11 to 20) Against each key word are given by alternative meanings.
Choose the one that is the opposite in meaning to the given word.
11. Sanctimonious
a) holy
b) Realistic
c) Humble
d) Callous
e) Pessimistic
12. Munificent
a) Miserly
b) Faulty
c) Perplexing
d) Rudimentary
e) Grandiose
13. Opaque
a) Vague
b) Firm
c) Transparent
d) Poor
e) None of the above
14. Restive
a) Unrestrained
b) Communicate
c) Peaceful
d) Quarrel
e) Disturbing
15. Catapult
a) Reach great heights
b) Downfall
c) Caterpillar
d) Gaining
e) Losing
16. Enigmatic
a) Industrious
b) Mysterious
c) Enthusiastic
d) Straightforward
e) Sincere
17. Traipse
a) Walk
b) Stroll
c) Crawl
d) Run
e) None of the above
18. Piquant
a) Jovial
b) Merry
c) Blunt
d) Rigorous
e) Shocking
19. Bigoted
a) Dignified
b) Tolerant
c) wide
d) Contrite
e) Sincere
20. Obliquity
a) Thin
b) Frank
c) Self-righteous
d) Depreciation
e) Conformity
Directions (Question 21 to 25) In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is
given in bold letters. Five alternative meanings of the bold part of the sentence are given
below. Choose the correct one.
21. The soldiers had been shut up for a long time; they painted the town red when they were
let out.
a) ran about wildly trying to kill people
b) decided to shun fighting and shedding blood
c) caused disturbance in the town by noisy merry-making
d) were asked to be ready for any emergency
e) were advised not to incur troubles by thoughtless actions.
22. John used very ugly words against his kind uncle; he threw down the gauntlet before him.
a) he behaved as if he was a very great and important person
b) he put several conditions for negotiations
c) he abused and insulted uncle’s son
d) he showed his readiness to leave the place
e) he threw the challenge
23. He is a strange fellow and it is very difficult to deal with him; it seems that he has a bee in
his bonnet.
a) an obsession about something
b) peculiar habit of confusing others
c) unreliable and inconsistent way of behaving
d) to face problems as a result of his senseless actions
e) an achievement to be proud of
24. I am reasonably sure that all his schemes will end in smoke.
a) will produce good results
b) bear no fruits
c) benefit the poor and the downtrodden
d) motivate the employees to produce more
e) be severely criticized by the public
25. The dacoits took to their heels when the police arrived.
a) took shelter in the thick jungle
b) opened indiscriminate fire
c) took to flight
d) unconditionally challenged
e) renewed their resolve to fight
Answers
1. scanty
2. cowardice
3. none of the above (proscribe means to prohibit or ban)
4. to absorb
5. a small hill
6. comprehensive
7. depth
8. sleepwalking
9. elementary
10. gloomy
11. callous
12. miserly
13. transparent
14. peaceful
15. downfall
16. straightforward
17. crawl
18. jovial
19. dignified
20. conformity
21. caused disturbance in the town by noisy merry-making
22. he threw the challenge
23. an obsession about something
24. bear no fruits
25. took to flight
PAPER : SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY MODEL

PAPER
Directions : - Select the related letters / word / number / figure from the given alternatives
1 Editor : Magazine
(a) Movie (b) Scene
(c) Drama (d) Director
2 Hinduism , Christianity , Islam : Religion

(a) Ear , Nose , Eyesight : Vision (b) Plus , Minus , Multiple : division
(c) Winter , Spring , Summer : Season (d) Humid , Hot , Tundra : Region
3 WOLF : FLOW :: WARD : ?

(a) BROW (b) DRAW
(c) CRAW (d) SLAW
4 GRAIN : TIZRM :: BRAIN : ?

(a) XRIKL (b) YIZRM(c) OPRST (d) ASQMI
5 CUT : BDTVSU :: TIP : ?

(a) UVHJOQ (b) SUHJOQ
(c) USJHQO (d) SUJHOQ
Q-6 19 : 59 :: 17 : ?
(a) 51 (b) 53
(c) 55 (d) 57
Q-7 14 : 20 :: 16 : ?
(a) 23 (b) 48
(c) 10 (d) 42
Q-8 100 : 102 :: 100000 : ?

(a) 105 (b) 104
(c) 1003 (d) 1004
DIRECTIONS : (QUESTIONS 9 to 13) select the one which is different from the other three .
9
(a) Mile (b) Centimeter
(c) Litre (d) Yard
10
(a) High - Up (b) Past - Present
(c) Often - Seldom (d) Fresh - Stale
11
(a) 11 - 127 (b) 9 – 85
(c) 7 – 53 (d) 5 – 29
12
(a) 26 Z (b) 24 X
(c) 22 V (d) 20 S
13
(a) 8 , 64 , 112 (b) 36 , 6 , 206
(c) 48 , 4 , 202 (d) 9 , 27 , 263
14 In the following series of numerals , which digit has maximum frequency ?

846734378344563464348
(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 4 (d) 3
15 If the day after tomorrow is Friday , what day will the third day after tomorrow be
(a) Saturday (b) Monday
(c) Sunday (d) Friday
16 If the ratio of the area of two squares is 16 : 1 , then the ratio of their perimeter is
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 16 : 1
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 4
17 The shade of 18 ft high pole is 20 ft. . Find the length of shade of 27 ft long pole .
(a) 36 ft (b) 30 ft
(c) 34 ft (d) 40 ft
18 A scores more runs than B but less than C . D scores more than B but less than A . Who is the
lowest scorer ?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
19 In the alphabets from A to Z , which is the third letter to the right of the letter which is
midway between K & S ?
(a) R (b) Q
(c) P (d) O
20 If first November falls on Monday , then what day will the 25th November be ?
(a) Tuesday (b) Thursday
(c) Wednesday (d) Friday
21 The length of room is twice its breadth . If the area of the room is 242 sq meters , then find
out its breadth
(a) 11 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 9
22 If the product of two numbers is 10 & their sum is 7 , then the larger of the two number is -
(a) – 2 (b) 2
(c) 5 (d) 3
23 Which letter is used only in one of the given words ?

Speak , Reap , Shark
(a) S (b) P
(c) K (d) H
24 A tortoise covers one kilometer in 4 hours . It takes rest for 20 minutes after every
kilometer .How much time does it takes for the tortoise to cover 3.5 kilometers ?
(a) 14 hours (b) 13
(c) 15 (d) 12
25 Of which of the following words , which one will be at the 3rd position in the dictionary ?
1. socks 2. Shocks
3. Sharp 4. snooker
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1
ANSWER
12345
ccbbb
6 7 8 9 10
bdaca
11 12 13 14 15
adacc
16 17 18 19 20
abbab
21 22 23 24 25
acdca
PAPER : SBI Clerk Previous Paper (General English)
Directions—(Q. 41–55) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given
below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some
of the questions.
A large majority of the poor in India are outside the formal banking system. The policy of
financial inclusion sets out to remedy this by making available a basic banking ‘no frills’
account either with nil or very minimum balances as well as charges that would make such
accounts accessible to vast sections of the population. However, the mere opening of a bank
account in the name of every household or adult person may not be enough, unless these
accounts and financial services offered to them are used by the account holders. At present,
commercial banks do not find it viable to provide services to the poor especially in the rural
areas because of huge transaction costs, low volumes of savings in the accounts, lack of
information on the account holder, etc. For the poor, interacting with the banks with their
paper work, economic costs of going to the bank and the need for flexibility in their accounts,
make them turn to other informal channels or other institutions. Thus, there are constraints on
both the supply and the demand side.
Till now, banks were looking at these accounts from a purely credit perspective. Instead, they
should look at this from the point of view of meeting the huge need of the poor for savings.
Poor households want to save and contrary to the common perception, do have the funds to
save, but lack control. Informal mutual saving systems like the Rotating Savings and Credit
Associations (ROSCAs), widespread in Africa and ‘thrift and credit groups’ in India demonstrate
that poor households save. For the poor household, which lacks access to the formal insurance
system and the credit system, savings provide a safety net and help them tide over crises.
Savings can also keep them away from the clutches of moneylenders, make formal institutions
more favourable to lending to them, encourage investment and make them shift to more
productive activities, as they may invest in slightly more risky activities which have an overall
higher rate of return.
Research shows the efficacy of informal institutions in increasing the savings of the small
account holders. An MFI in the Philippines, which had existing account holders, was studied.
They offered new products with ‘commitment features’. One type had withdrawal restrictions
in the sense that it required individuals to restrict their right to withdraw any funds from their
own accounts until they reached a self-specified and documented goal. The other type was
deposit options. Clients could purchase a locked box for a small fee. The key was with the bank
and the client has to bring the box to the bank to make the deposit. He could not dip into the
savings even if he wanted to. These accounts did not pay extra money and were illiquid.
Surprisingly, these products were popular even though these had restrictions. Results showed
that those who opted for these accounts with restrictions had substantially greater savings
rates than those who did not. The policy of financial inclusion can be a success if financial in
clusion focuses on both saving needs and credit needs, having a diversified product portfolio for
the poor but recognising that self-control problems need to be addressed by having
commitment devices. The products with commitment features should be optional. Furthermore
transaction costs for the poor could be cut down, by making innovative use of technology
available and offering mobile vans with ATM and deposit collection features which could visit
villages periodically.
41. What is the aim of the financial inclusion policy ?

(A) A focus on savings needs rather than credit needs of the poor
(B) Minimising utilisation of technology in banks so as to reduce transaction costs for the poor
(C) To boost low savings volumes in banks by encouraging savings among the rural poor
(D) To make formal basic banking services available to the poor
(E) To regulate the rate at which moneylenders lend to the poor
42. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to—

(A) Criticise the concept of financial inclusion
(B) Point out the problems of financial inclusion
(C) Discuss ways of making the financial inclusion policy successful
(D) Compare financial inclusion policies of different countries
(E) Cite research in support of role of MFIs in achieving financial inclusion
43. Which of the following can be inferred about products with commitment features ?
1. Demand for such products was high.
2. They were an effective means of increasing the savings of small account holders.
3. Such facilities can only be offered by informal institutions like MFIs.
(A) All 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these
44. Why do the poor not utilise banking services ?

1. Informal institutions offer higher rates of interest than those in banks.
2. Costs of reaching banks have to be borne by the poor.
3. Bank personnel do not treat the poor respectfully because their savings amounts are
minimal.
(A) Only 2 (B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Both 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2, and 3
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following is a recommendation made by the author regarding financial
inclusion ?
(A) Reduce the paper work involved by seeking less information about the account holder
(B) Lower transaction costs by utilising latest technology.
(C) Make commitment features compulsory for all savings accounts
(D) Entrust the responsibility of financial inclusion solely to MFIs
(E) Provide credit facilities even to those without savings accounts
46. Which of the following factors affects ‘saving’ behaviour among the poor ?
1. Threats from moneylenders if they avail of banking services.
2. Documentation required before availing of banking services.
3. Lack of self-control.
(A) Only 1 (B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 (D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these
47. What do the results of the study conducted in the Philippines indicate ?
(A) Account holders in MFIs have higher savings rates than banks
(B) Many of the poor have to turn to moneylenders because of strict restrictions in MFIs
(C) Having accounts with restriction on withdrawal requires the bank to offer a higher rate of
interest
(D) There should be strong security measures for deposit option accounts for the poor
(E) None of these
48. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?

(A) There are no informal means for the poor to save in India
(B) Having savings encourages the poor to invest only in low risk ventures
(C) There is a huge demand for savings facilities among poor households
(D) Presently commercial banks feel that it is feasible to provide banking services to the poor
in rural areas
(E) There are many official innovative savings systems like roscas in Africa
49. What is/are the outcome(s) of encouraging savings for the poor ?
1. It frees them from the exploitation of moneylenders.
2. Banks are more willing to disburse loans to those who save.
3. They should invest in risky but high return ventures.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
50. What was the view of banks regarding the bank accounts of the poor in the past ?
(A) They were considered a problem since account holders information needed to be updated
constantly
(B) Focus should be more on providing savings facilities not credit
(C) Moneylenders should be regulated so that they share responsibility of disbursing loans to
the poor
(D) Products with commitment features will not be successful
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 51–53) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the
word printed in bold as used in the passage.
51. purely :
(A) morally
(B) honestly
(C) completely
(D) perfectly
(E) cleanly
52. demonstrate :
(A) protest
(B) occur
(C) estimate
(D) appear
(E) prove
53. remedy :
(A) medicine
(B) solve
(C) restore
(D) therapy
(E) heal
Directions—(Q. 54-55) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
54. optional :
(A) voluntary
(B) compromise
(C) pressure
(D) mandatory
(E) free
55. accessible :
(A) convenient
(B) unavailable
(C) unfavourable
(D) unpleasant
(E) formal
Directions—(Q. 56–65) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If
there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
56. The scheme failed because / some states could not / manage not to raise / the
necessaryfunds. No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
57. Real estate prices in the / business district of the city / are expected to rise / at 15%
this year. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
58. By so early as next year / that leading investment bank / has plans to open / an office in
New Delhi. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
59. There is lots of / supports from the employees / for the proposal to / merge with the
parent company. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
60. Experts have recommended that / the government reconsidered / restrictions imposed
on foreign / investment in real estate. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
61. The crucial point to / be discussed at the / meetings is how to / well implement the
policy.No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
62. He wants to / set up a laboratory / to undertake research / into a vaccine for cancer.
No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
63. According to him / two factors which are / needy for success / are discipline and
diligence. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
64. Because of the pace at / which the company is growing / I believe it will easily / achieve
their target. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
65. It is truth / that India is / the largest consumer of / gold in the world. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions—(Q. 66–70) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace
the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically
meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’,
mark (E) as the answer.
66. The bank is overstaffed, has led to low productivity.

(A) Led to (B) Will lead towards
(C) And has led in (D) Which has led to
67. You delay in taking a decision conveys a negative impression.

(A) You delay to take
(B) If you delay taking
(C) Your delay in taking
(D) To delay by taking
68. Today management student itself are opted to work for NGOs even though the salaries
offered to them are low.
(A) Student itself is
(B) Students themselves are
(C) Students have
(D) Student himself has
69. Absence off any guidelines, they are unwilling to take up the project.
(A) Absent of
(B) In the absence of
(C) Because of the absence
(D) Without being absent
70. Without the development of rural people the country can no claim to be developed.
(A) Can never claim
(B) Being claimed
(C) Not able to claim
(D) Have not any claim
Directions—(Q. 71–75) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold
type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in
bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out
the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your
answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the
context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e.. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
71. The organization preferred to hire locale population as they understood the language
and customer preferences. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
72. In our opinion the exicting assessment system requires immediate revision.All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
73. In responds to the advertisement a sizeable number of candidates have submitted their
applications. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
74. There is no guarantee that if this model is adopted the entire sector will prosper.All
Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
75. With this unique initiative the company hopes to sustain its current growth rate. All
Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions—(Q. 76–80) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below
each five pairs of words have been denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out
which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to
make the sentence meaningfully complete.
76. Mr. Srinivasan is …… to become Chairman of the group …… the retirement of his father.
(A) set, following
(B) voted, subsequent
(C) selected, despite
(D) approved, because
(E) decided, after
77. …… to your error the …… consignment has been delayed by a week.

(A) According, important
(B) Duly, urgent
(C) Owing, entire
(D) Added, crucial
(E) Admitting, special
78. On account of the …… in sales the software firm has achieved an eight percent …… in
net profit.
(A) surge, fall (B) increase, rise
(C) decline, slope (D) hike, loss
(E) growth, advance
79. We are proud to say that today …… 26 percent of our total accounts are …… by women
and senior citizens.
(A) approximate, held
(B) nearly, authorised
(C) over, maintain
(D) above, open
(E) around, operated
80. The company has …… special training to employees on …… to trade online.

(A) announced, benefits
(B) offered, course
(C) imparted, risks
(D) sanction, skills
(E) provided, how
Answewrs With Explanation :

41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b)
46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (e)
51. (c) 52. (E) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b)
56. (c) In C part not is redundant.
57. (e)
58. (A) Change ‘so’ to ‘as’.
59. (a) Change ‘is’ to ‘are’ because the subject is plural ‘lots of support’.
60. (b) Change ‘reconsidered’ to ‘reconsider or should reconsider’ because of parallelism
of the two sentences.
61. (d) Change the position of adverb ‘well’, it should be used in the end of the sentence.
62. (e)
63. (c) Change ‘needy’ to ‘needed’ here we require a verb.
64. (d) Change ‘their’ to ‘its’ because its subject is singular.
65. (A) Change ‘truth’ to ‘true’ or ‘a truth’.
66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (B) 70. (a)
71. (b) Change ‘locale’ to ‘local’ here we want an adjective.
72. (a) Change ‘exicting’ to ‘existing’. Exciting is not appropriate.
73. (a) Change ‘responds’ to ‘response’.
74. (e) Change ‘adopted’ to ‘adapted’.
75. (d) Change ‘currant’ to ‘current’.
76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (e) 80. (E)
PAPER : SBI CLERK GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (BOOKS & AUTHOR)
1. Who is the author of "The Kalam effect: My years with the president"?
(a) P.M.Nayar (b) Sonia Gandhi
(c) L.K.Adwani (d) Arun Shaurie
ANS (a)
2. Who is the author of the book "Superstar India : From Incredible to Unstopable"?
(a) L.K.Adwani (b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Shobha De (d) Vikram Seth
ANS (c)
3. The Sanskrit poet called as the Indian Shakespeare?

(a) Kalidasa (b) Thulasidas (c) Sudraka (d) Kautilya
ANS (a)
4. Mulk Raj Anand is the author of

(a) The Post Office (b) Gora
(c) India Wins Freedom (d) Coolie
ANS (Try Yourself)
5. Who is the author of the book 'My other two daughters'?

(a) Lalu Prasad Yadav (b) Surjit Singh Barnala
(c) E.M. Forster (d) Paul Kennedy
ANS (b)
6. Who is known as the Father of Detective Story

(a) Arthur Conan Doyle (b) Bram Stoker
(c) Edgar Allen Poe (d) None of the above
ANS (c)
7. Man-The Maker of His Own Destiny' – book was written by

(a) V.S. Naipaul (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Guenter Grass (d) Swami Vivekananda
ANS (d)
8. Find out the odd one

(a) Louis Fischer (b) Ibsen(c) William Shakespeare (d) Sherlock HolmesANS (d) Others are
writers. Sherlock Holmes is a character 9.One among the following is not written by Kalidasa
(a) Saakunthalam (b) Raghu Vamsam
(c) Rith Samharam (d) Kaavyadooth
ANS (d)
10. 'Sonia, a Biography' was written by

(a) Sonia Gandhi (b) Arundhathi Roy
(c) Rasheed Kidvai (d) V.K. Madhavan Kutty
ANS (c)
11. One among the following is not a Harry Potter story

(a) Chamber of secrets
(b) The philosopher's stone
(c) Half blood prince (d) Naked Truth
ANS (d)
12. Jules Verne, a French science fiction writer wrote a book, which carried a more or less
accurate prediction of the launching of Apollo-8. Which is the book
(a) From the Earth to the moon
(b) All under Heaven
(c) A Midsummer Night's Dream
(d) Past and Present
ANS (a)
13. Who is the author of "A Passage to England"?

(a) E.M. Forster (b) Nirad C. Chaudhari
(c) G.B. Shaw (d) Winston Churchill
ANS (b)
14. "Does IT matter" is a book written by
(a) Bill Gates (b) N. R. Narayanan (c) Nicholas Carr
(d) Thomas D. Harris (e) None of these
ANS (c)
15. 'Beyond time' is the book written by

(a) Namita Gokhale (b) Ruskin Bond
(c) William Balrymple (d) Josef Korbel
(e) None of these
ANS (e)
16. The famous book 'Anandmath' has been authorised by

(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya
(c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) Sri Aurobindo
ANS (b)
17.Who wrote a book describing the theory of economic drain of India during British rule?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
ANS (a)
18. The author of the book 'Waiting for Godot' is:

(a) Ruth Harring (b) Susan Sontag
(c) Samuel Beckett (d) Ben Jonson
ANS (c) Waiting for the Mahatma - R. K. Narayanan
Waiting to Exhale - Terry Mc Millan
19. "The Vedas contain all the truth", was interpreted by:
(a) Swami Vivekananda (b) Swami Dayanand
(c) Swami Shraddhanand (d) S. Radhakrishnan
ANS (b)
20. Sirr-i-Akbar was the Persian translation of fifty-two Upanishads by which son of shah
Jahan?
ANS - Dara Shikoh
21.In "The Travels of Gulliver", what is the first things two Lilliputians discuss when they
meet in the morning?
ANS - The health of the sun
22."The man who knew infinity" is the biography of

(a) Rene Descartes (b) Stephen Hawking
(c) Albert Einstein (d) S. Ramanujan
ANS (d)
23.What was the original name of 'Alice in Wonderland' when Lewis Carroll first showed it
to novelist Henry Kingsley in 1863?
ANS - Alice's Adventures Underground
24. The author of the book "Waiting for the Mahatma" is

(a) R.K Narayan (b) N.A Palkhiwala
(c) Amrita Pritam (d) M. Malgonkar
ANS (a)
25. Under the patronage of which ruler of the Javanese house of Mataram, was the epic
poem 'Arjuna vivaha' written?
ANS - King Airlangga
26. To whom, in his own words, did Rudyard Kipling dedicate his collection, 'Plain Tales
From the Hills'?
ANS - To the wittiest woman in India
27. 'Beyond the Last Blue Mountain' is R.M Lala's biography of which Indian?
ANS - J. R. D. Tata
28. Which of Agatha Christie's books was the first to be serialised in the Evening News
under the title 'Anna the Adventure'?
ANS - The Man In The Brown Suit
29. Who has authored the book A Brief History of Time?

(a) Carl Sagan (b) Issac Asimov
(c) John Gribbin (d) Stephen Hawking
ANS (d)
30. The book 'Living with Honour' is written by

(a) Arundhati Roy (b) Shiv Khera
(c) Pramod Batra (d) Vikram Seth
ANS (b)
31. The book 'Cricket My Style' is written by

(a) Sunil Gavaskar (b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Kapil Dev (d) Mohinder Amarnath
ANS (c)
32. Who wrote the book 'The Book of Indian Birds'

ANS - Dr. Salim Ali
33. 'Economic History of India' was written by

ANS - R. C. Dutt
34.The oldest of the vedic literature is

(a) Sama Veda (b) Yajur Veda
(c) Rig Veda (d) Atharva Veda
ANS (c)
35. 'Leelavathi' the famous sanskrit grantha is a book on
ANS - Mathematics
36. Who is the author of ‘An Equal Music’ (1999)

ANS - Vikram Seth
37. Who wrote the poem ‘Passage to India’ in 1871

ANS - Walt Whitman (American Poet)
38. Who is the author of the book ‘The Canterbury Tales’

ANS - Geoffrey Chaucer
39. Who is the author of the book ‘Anna Karenina’

ANS - Leo Tolstoy
40.Who is the author of the book ‘The Adventures of Tom Sawyer’

ANS - Mark Twain
41. Who is the author of the book ‘The Adventures of Sherlock Holmes’?
ANS - Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
42.Who is the author of the book ‘The Comedy of Errors’?

ANS - William Shakespeare
43. Who is the author of the book ‘Animal Farm’

ANS - George Orwell
44. Who is the author of the book ‘The Rime of the Ancient Mariner’?
ANS - Samuel Taylor Coleridge
45. Who is the author of the book, ‘Through the Looking-Glass’?
ANS - Lewis Carroll
46. Who is the author of the book, ‘All’s Well That Ends Well’?
47. Who is the author of the book ‘Akbar-nama’

ANS - Abul Fazl
48. Who is the author of the book ‘The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn’?
ANS - Mark Twain
49. Who is the author of the book ‘Antony and Cleopatra’?

50. Who is the author of the book , Philosophiae Naturalis Principia Mathematica
(Mathematical Principles of Natural Philosophy, 1687)
ANS - Sir Isaac
51. Who is the author of the book "Jyoti Punj"?

(a) L.K.Adwani (b) Atal Bihari Vajpeyi
(c) Narendra Modi (d) Vikram Seth
ANS (c)
52. Who is the author of the book "Jyoti Punj"?

(a) L.K.Adwani (b) Sushma Swaraj
(c) Narendra Modi (d) Jaswant Singh
ANS (a)
PAPER : SBI BANK CLERK GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. The Kishenganga Power Project is in-

A. Orissa
B. Maharashtra
C. Gujarat
D. Jammu & Kashmir
Ans (D)
2. The late Nirmala Desh Pande was a famous

A. diplomat
B. astrologer
C. Social activist
D. film-star
Ans (C)
3. Who has been awarded the Prem Bhatia Award for the year 2008 ?
A. Nilanjana Bose
B. Rupashree Nanda
C. Nirupama Subramanian
D. None of these
Ans (C)
4. Microwave ovens cook dishes by means of

A. Ultraviolet rays
B. Infra-red rays
C. Convection
D. Conduction
Ans (D)
5. Most of the phenomena related to weather take place in

A. stratosphere
B. ionosphere
C. mesosphere
D. troposphere
Ans (D)
6. The current President of the World Bank is

A. Dominique Strauss-Kahn
B. James D. Wolfansen
C. Barbara Cartland
D. Robert Zoellick
Ans (D)
7. Amartya Sen, the NRI Nobel laureate got the honour for his work on
A. Game theory
B. Securities analysis
C. Poverty and famines
D.Impact of Industrialization
Ans (C)
8. The Quit India resolution was passed at the

A. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1940
B. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1941
C. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1942
D. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1945.
Ans (C)
9. Who among the following is not a ghazal singer?

A. Talat Aziz
B. Chandan Dass
C. Peenaz Masani
D. Jagdev Singh
Ans (D)
10. Nobel Prize for literature in 2007 was received by-

A. Doris Lessing
B. Albert Al Gore
C. Mohammad Yunus
D. None of these
Ans (A)
11. Meteorites are the heavenly bodies

A. between the Mars and the Jupiter
B. between the Saturn and the Neptune
C. between the Mars and the Venus
D. that burn brightly on entering the Earth’s atmosphere
Ans (D)
12. P-5 is a group of

A. highly developed countries
B. Highly populous countries
C. Permanent members of the Security Council
D. Established nuclear powers
Ans (C)
13. Arrange the following in chronological order:

a. Dandi March
b. McDonald Award
c. Hanging of Bhagat Singh
d. Meerut conspiracy case
A. a, b, c, d
B. b, a, c, d
C. d, c, a, b,
D. d, a, c, b
Ans (A)
14. Which of the following is a land-locked state?

A. Gujarat
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu
Ans (C)
15. Which of the following is not an official language as per the 8th schedule?
A. Konkani
B. Sindhi
C. Manipuri
D. English
Ans (D)
16. Which of the following used in making computer chips ?

A. Carbon
B. Uranium
C. Silicon
D. Rubidium
Ans (C)
17. In order to see an undersea object while in a ship, you would make use of a
A. telescope
B. periscope
C. marinoscope
D None of these
Ans (B)
18. Baan Ki-moon , the UNO Secretary-General belong to

A. Saudi Arab
B. Egypt
C. South Korea
D. Brazil
Ans (C)
19. The deepest ocean in the world is

A. The Indian ocean
B. The Atlantic ocean
C. The Pacific ocean
D. None of these
Ans (C)
20. The oldest mutual fund in India is the

A. SBI Mutual Fund
B. BOB Mutual Fund
C. PNB Mutual Fund
D. Unit Trust of India
Ans (D)
21. A candidate for elections to the Lok Sabha stands to lose his Deposit Money if he fails to
get
A. 1/5 of the total valid votes
B. 1/8 of the valid votes
C. 1/6 of the valid votes polled
D. none of these
Ans (A)
22. The Varanasi–Kanyakumari National Highway is called

A. N.H. – 8
B. N. H. – 7
C. N.H. – 12
D. N.H. – 9
Ans (B)
23. Which of the following areas of output is witnessing a new revolution?

A. oilseeds
B. fisheries
C. fruits
D. cereals
Ans (A)
24. The W.T.O. came into being on

A. 1st April, 1995
B. 1st April, 1994
C. 1st Jan., 1995
D. 1st Jan., 1996
Ans (C)
25. Bangal was partitioned during the viceroyalty of

A. Lord Rippon
B. Lord Curzon
C. Lord Hardinge
D. Lord Minto
Ans (B)
26. Tata purchased Jaguar and Rover from-

A. Hyundai
B. Maruti-Suzuki
C. Ford Motor
D. General Motor
Ans (C)
PAPER : SBI BANK CLERK GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 10
1. The Sir C.V .Raman award for 2008 has been awarded to –
M.Natarajan
Sanjeev Ramchandra Inamdar
Prof. G.Venkatraman
Dr. Naresh Trehan
2. The 2007 FIFA Woman player of the year is –
Birgit Prinz
Christiane
Marta
Sania Mirza
3. The Mascot of the 2008 Olympic Games is-
Fuwa
Izz
Cobi
4. Which among the following States would observe 2008 as the‘Year of Education’ ?
Uttar Pradesh
Haryana
Bihar
Karnataka
5. Who has written “Superstar India : From Incredible to unstopable” ?
Shobha De
Kiran Desai
Arundhati Roy
Khushwant Singh
6. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award
2007 ?
Priya Ranjan Das Munshi

Mani Shankar Aiyyar
P.Chidambaram
Sushama Swaraj
7. Fernando Lugo’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the president of
Paraguay
Sudan
Afghanistan
Pakistan
8. ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on -
15th March,2008
30th March,2008
28th April,2008
4th May,2008
9. Which country will be host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ?
Maldives
Sri Lanka
India
Pakistan
10. Who among the following has been chosen the Miss India Universe for the year 2008 ?
Parvathy Omanakuttan
Simaran Kaur Mundi
Amrita Thapar
Tanvi Vyas
PAPER : SBI CLERK COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ SBI BANK CLERK COMPUTER QUIZ
Objective 10 questions
1. Why the document you created at home displays with a different font at school?
Because you have a different printer at school than at home Because you have a different
monitor at school than at home
font you used at home is not installed on your school computer Because the version of Windows
is different
2. Which keyboard shortcut centers selected text?
Ctrl+C Alt+C There is no keyboard shortcut for this operation Ctrl+E
3. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?
TXT WRD FIL DOC

4. Which key moves your cursor from one cell to the next in a table?
Tab Shift Enter Ctrl+Enter
5. How many different documents can you have open at one time?
No more that three Only one As many as your computer memory will hold No more than your
Taskbar can display
6. In order to email a Word document from within Word:
Go to File/Send To/Mail Recipient Save the file as an email attachment Start Outlook and
attach the file while open in Word. This is an impossible operation
7. Which keystroke will take you at the beginning or the end of a long document?
Ctrl+PageUp and Ctrl+PageDown Shift+Home and Shift+End Ctrl+Home and Ctrl+End The only
way is by using the right scroll bar
8. How many margins are on a page?
Two (header and footer) Four (top, bottom, right, left) Two (landscape and Portrait) Two (top
and bottom)
9.In order to save a Word document as a web page you need to:
Put the appropriate graphics and links on the document Save the document in simple text
format Use your web browser as an editor and save as URL Save as HTML
10. A document in portrait prints:
The same characters per line with the same document in landscape More characters per line
than the same document in landscape Less characters per line than the same document in
landscape Smaller fonts in order to fit the same amount of characters per line with landscape
• IASguru's blog
PAPER : SBI Clerk General Awareness Solved Paper

1. India has successfully test-fired its 150-250 km range Prithvi missile On May 23, 2008. Prithvi
Missile is a —
(A) Surface to surface missile
(B) Surface to air missile
(C) Land to sea missile
(D) Air to air missile
2. Which of the following High Courts has recently quashed the merit list issued in 2006 and
2007 by the centre and the UPSC—
(A) Bhopal High Court
(B) Rajasthan High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Guwahati High Court
3. Recently in May 2008 a assembly election was held in the India State of—
(A) Manipur
(B) Karnataka
(C) Himachal Pradesh
4. People’s Democratic Party emerged second largest party with 33·01% in elections held in—
(A) Bhutan
(B) Nepal
(C) Zimbabwe
(D) Italy
5. According to the World Conservation Union Report, the number of plant species in India
listed as threatened is—
(A) 247 plant species
(B) 250 plant species
(C) 275 plant species
(D) 255 plant species
6. Which of the following states passed a Bill in March 2008, amending the Registration Act
1908 to prohibit foreigners from buying land in the state—
(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Goa
(D) Maharashtra
7. The renowned science fiction writer Arthur C. Clarke who died in Sri Lanka, originally hailed
from—
(A) Australia
(B) Britain
(C) Finland
(D) U.S.A.
8. Who received Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmanent and Development for 2007—
(A) Bill Gates
(B) Nelson Mandela
(C) Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation
(D) Arthur C. Clarke
9. World Press Freedom Day is observed on—

(A) May 3
(B) May 15
(C) May 25
(D) May 27
10. Which of the following Indian Political Leader has written the book "Jyoti Punj"?
(A) L.K.Adwani
(B) Sonia Gandhi
(C) Jaswant Singh
(D) Narendra Modi
11. India has successfully launched how many satellires simultaneously ?

(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 7
(D) 4
12. Jules Verne is Europe’s—

(A) Space shuttle
(B) Missile shield system
(C) Biggest spacecraft
(D) Mission to Antarctica
13. India’s National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme has prepared the country’s first—
(A) Dirrohoea map
(B) Malarial map
(C) Bird flu map
(D) Cancer map
14. ‘The World Is What It Is’ is the biography of—

(A) V. S. Naipal
(B) Khushwant Singh
(C) Amrita Preetam
(D) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
15. According to a World Bank Report India got remittances in 2007 worth—
(A) $ 30 billion
(B) $ 35 billion
(C) $ 25 billion
(D) $ 27 billion
16. The Summit of OIC (Organization of Islamic Countries) was held in March in—
(A) Senegal
(B) Morocco
(C) Pakistan
(D) Indonesia
17. According to latest WHO report the number of estimated TB cases found every year in India
is—
(A) 2·2 million
(B) 1·9 million
(C) 1·5 million
(D) 1·7 million
18. Tata purchased Jaguar and Rover from—

(A) Hyundai
(B) Maruti Suzuki
(C) Ford Motor
19. According to a survey, the country which has the highest number of internet users is—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) China
(C) Japan
(D) Germany
20. India won its first tri series against Australia in—
(A) Brisbane
(B) Melbourne
(C) Sydney
(D) Perth
21. According to Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Council (EAC) headed by C. Rangrajan the
economic growth rate for 2008-09 will remain at—
(A) 8%
(B) 8·5%
(C) 9%
(D) 8·9%
22. The Pritzkar Architecture Prize has been won by—

(A) Bill Gates Foundation
(B) William Harvey
(C) Jea Nouvel
23. Which of the following cricket players has been banned for violating the player’s code of
conduct by PCB ?
(A) Danish Kaneria
(B) Shoaib Malik
(C) Mohammad Yousuf
(D) Shoaib Akhtar
24. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has now been extended to all 604
districts of the country with a total budget outlay of—
(A) 18000 crore
(B) 16000 crore
(C) 15000 crore
(D) 14000 crore
25. Inflation which soared above 7% in the month of April is measured by—
(A) Consumer Price Index
(B) Retail Price Index
(C) Whole Sale Price Index
(D) Industrial Price Index
26. The winner of Bahrain Grand Prix is—

(A) Lewis Hamilton
(B) Kartikeyan
(C) Felipe Massa
(D) Robert Kubica
27. The winner of Miss India Earth 2008 is—

(A) Tanvi Vyas
(B) Suman Kaur
(C) Rashmi Sehgal
(D) Rani Sharma
28. In face of rising prices, Central Government has decided to set strategic Reserve of
foodgrains over and above buffer stock. The limit of the reserve is—
(A) 10 million tonnes
(B) 7 million tonnes
(C) 6 million tonnes
(D) 5 million tonnes
29. Which of following newspapers/magazines won six Pulitzer prizes—

(A) The New York Times
(B) The Times Magazine
(C) The Washington Post
(D) The Guardian
30. ‘Leftism in India, 1917-1947’ is a book written by—

(A) S. R. Chaudhuri
(B) K. Kanwar
(C) R. Nagaswamy
(D) Sudipto Chatterjee
31. Recently President Pratibha Patil visited three countries. Which of the following was not
the part of her trip—
(A) Argentina
(B) Chile
(C) Mexico
(D) Brazil
32. GJM stands for—

(A) General Justice Movement
(B) Gorkha Janmukti Morcha
(C) Gorkhaland Janshakti Morcha
(D) Gorkha Janjagriti Morcha
33. The elections of which of the following countries were marred by controversy—
(A) Italy
(B) Spain
(C) Zimbabwe
(D) Nepal
34. Supreme Court has upheld the law enacted in 2006 providing 27% for candidates belonging
to—
(A) SCs
(B) STs
(C) OBC
(D) Minorities OBC
35. At which of the following places have the remains of early human history been found in
excavation—
(A) Chittorgarh
(B) Bhavnagar
(C) Kolkata
(D) Karaikal
36. ‘Salwa Judum’ is—

(A) Terrorist organization
(B) A branch of naxalite
(C) Name of a police force
(D) An anti naxalite movement
37. When was Nepal declared a Secular Nation—

(A) in 2005
(B) in 2007
(C) in 2008
(D) in 2006
38. The Director General of UN Food and Agriculture Organisation of present is—
(A) Jacques Diouf
(B) Kundekeh K. Yumkella
(C) Jammel Al Hiyilan
(D) Michael Griffin
39. According to a research, stem cells from skin can treat—

(A) Alzhumer
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Parkinson’s disease
40. Which of the following States Hs declared 2008 as the "year of Education" ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Haryana
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
Answers with Hints

1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) . 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (C)
13. (B) India’s Vector Borne Disease Control Programme has prepared the country’s first
malarial map identifying India’s 60 most malarial endemic districts that report over 50% of
the country’s malaria’s cases.
14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (B)
22. (C) The Pritzkar Architecture Prize, considered to be equivalent of Nobel Prize for
architecture has been won french architect Jea Nouvel for his creative experimentation in
architecture.
23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D)
29. (C) The Washington Post has won six Pulitzer Prizes, including Public service award for
its reporting on conditions of U.S. War Veterans.
30. (A) 31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C)
34. (C) The Supreme Court on April 10, 2008 upheld the law enacted in 2006 providing a
quota of 27 per cent to the other Backward Classes in Central Educational Institutions.
35. (C)
36. (D) Salva Judam is an antinaxalite movement formed by group of people against attack
from maxalites. The movement started from Dantewada district (Chhattisgarh).
37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (B)
Press Information Bureau (PIB) : Govt. of India - TOP SORIES

• Assistance for Abatement of Pollution 1 day 2 hours old
• Environmental Clearance for Power Projects 1 day 2 hours old
• Environmental Clearance to more than 800 Power Projects 1 day 2 hours old
• More
rediff: Information You Can Use

• Voice and accent training workshop 1 day 2 hours old
• IIT Madras PGPEX-VLM course 1 day 2 hours old
• Stem Cell Biology course at MIRM 1 day 2 hours old
• More
Headlines on Indian Subcontinent - News4Sites.com

• Dozens of NATO trucks torched in Pakistan Riots erupt in Greece after police shotting China
protests 1 day 2 hours old
• 2 reflect on effortto wipe out polio among India's poor 1 day 2 hours old
• Rice: "There Is Evidence Of Involvement Somehow On Pakistani Soil" In Mumbai
Attacks 1 day 2 hours old
• More
Expressindia : Breaking news from The Indian Express Group

• Didn't call Zardari, Pak diverting attention: Pranab 1 day 2 hours old
• Counting of votes in five states on Monday 1 day 2 hours old
• Voters brave cold, boycott call to cast ballot in J-K 1 day 2 hours old
• More
The Times Of India - Editorial

• BALLSY DITTIES | Truth About Hitler 1 day 2 hours old
• SACRED SPACE | Value Patience 1 day 2 hours old
• SPEAKING TREE | Divining Truth Beyond The Vaastu Shastra 1 day 2 hours old
• More
India Together - The news that matters.

• How deep is the rot? 1 day 2 hours old
• CZM notification legalising coastal destruction 1 day 2 hours old
• The Jurassic Auto and Ideas Park 1 day 2 hours old
• More
NewYork Times (NYT) > India

• Mumbai Attacks Politicize Long-Isolated Elite 1 day 2 hours old
• Indian Police Arrest 2 in Mumbai Investigation and Look at Cellphone Link 1 day 2 hours old
• Indian Police Arrest 2 in Mumbai Investigation 1 day 2 hours old
• More
The Times Of India - Columnists

• Shashi Tharoor: Time to improve relations between police & minorities 1 day 2 hours old
• Jug Suraiya: Atheist's prayer 1 day 2 hours old
• S A Aiyar: Dangers of Bushspeak 1 day 2 hours old
• More
VIDEOS - Press Information Bureau (PIB)

• Shri. Ram Vilas Paswan, Union Minister of Steel, Chemical & Fertilizer Meets Chief Minister of
Orissa at his Residence Regarding Fertilizer Requirement of Orissa. 1 day 2 hours old
• Dr. Rghuwansh Prasad Singh Union Minister of Rural Development interacting with the media
persons at NIC Guwahati through Video Conferencing. 1 day 2 hours old
• Agriculture Minister Shri Sharad Pawar and Director General, Food and Agriculture
Organization of the United Nations (FAO), Dr. Jacques Diouf held discussions in New Delhi today.
Later they jointly announced that the first Global Agro-Industries forum mee 1 day 2 hours old
• More
The Economic Times - Education

• New record: 94,563 Indian students in US 1 day 2 hours old
• India Inc woos women pros to train graduates 1 day 2 hours old
• Flow of American students to India increases by 24% in 2006-07 1 day 2 hours old
• More
BBCHindi.com | ििििि िििििि | िििि ििििि

• िििििििि, िििििि ििि िििििििि, िििि िििििि ििि ििििि ििि 1 day 2 hours old
• िििििि ििि िििििििि िि ििििििि 1 day 2 hours old
• ििििििििि ििि ििििि िि ििििि 1 day 3 hours old
• More
Google News - Top Stories

• Up Close, Rhee's Image Less Clear - Washington Post 1 day 2 hours old
• Thai opposition may take power, army's aid hinted - The Associated Press 1 day 2 hours
old
• Off-duty LAPD officer accused of attempted rape - Los Angeles Times 1 day 2 hours old
• More
Current Affairs : India news

• Technip Awarded Flexible Pipelines Installation Contract in India 1 day 3 hours old
• Choosing a Tennis Racquet - Sponsored Link 1 day 3 hours old
• Converteam uses resources in India to do business in U.S. 1 day 3 hours old
• More
IBN CNN LIVE News..
• It's official: Full strength England will tour India 1 day 3 hours old
• Cong ahead in Rajasthan, Delhi; BJP leads in MP 1 day 3 hours old
• Sheila thanks voters, says will work to their benefit 1 day 3 hours old
• More
Google News India - Sci/Tech

• Intel Cites Advance in Using Silicon in Data Products; Claim Is ... - Wall Street Journal 1 day 3
hours old
• IE vs Firefox vs Chrome vs Opera - Times of India 1 day 3 hours old
• The computer mouse turns 40 - Times Online 1 day 6 hours old
• More
The Hindu - Front Page

• Manmohan’s visit to Malda cancelled 1 day 3 hours old
• Central package ignores States, says Minister 1 day 3 hours old
• England calls up Amjad 1 day 3 hours old
• More
The History Channel - This Day in History - Lead Story

• John Lennon shot 1 day 3 hours old
• More
CNN Top Stories.

• Labor sit-in gets Obama's attention, support 1 day 3 hours old
• Riots hit Greek cities after police kill teen 1 day 4 hours old
• First Vietnamese-American elected to House 1 day 8 hours old
• More
IndianCurrentAffairs by : ramkyc
• 08.12.2008 1 day 4 hours old
• More
Hindustan Times News - 'Views'

• Keep making the pitch 1 day 13 hours old
• The dialogue | El Diego Pasa 1 day 13 hours old
• Class conflict 1 day 13 hours old
• More
Business Times Online - India News

• India unveils US$4b stimulus 1 day 13 hours old
• India's central bank cuts key interest rates 1 day 13 hours old
• More
New Scientist - Latest Headlines
• Frogspawn learns the smell of death 1 day 23 hours old
• More
Sify.com News
• Rice will discuss with India cooperation in fighting terror 6 days 2 hours old
• Mauritius' State Bank CEO among Mumbai 26/11 victims 6 days 2 hours old
• Anti-govt protestors vacate Thai airports 6 days 3 hours old
• More
Tehelka - India's Independent Weekly News Magazine

• The Raj Effect 1 week 3 days old
• ‘The Congress Is No Longer A Secular Party’ 1 week 3 days old
• Single, Independent 1 week 3 days old
• More
Reuters: International
• Thai PM imposes emergency rule after street battle 14 weeks 3 hours old
• Japan's Aso leads race for next prime minister 14 weeks 3 hours old
• U.N. says North Korea needs $503 million in food aid 14 weeks 3 hours old
• More
NDTV National News

• Amarnath yatra suspended due to bad weather 24 weeks 2 days old
• Karuna to persuade Left on nuke deal 24 weeks 2 days old
• Tourists stranded by Orissa floods 24 weeks 2 days old
• More
IAS Latest News & Articles

• Retired IAS official found dead (The Times of India) 34 weeks 3 days old
• Pay hike: Now, cops want parity with the IAS (NDTV) 34 weeks 4 days old
• Ex-servicemen plan to take to the streets (The Hindu) 34 weeks 4 days old
• More
DDI NEWS: Latest news Doordashan - India's National Broadcaster.
Paper : State Bank of India Clerical Exam July 6, 2008 Reasoning Paper
Following questions are the part of the SBI clerical exam test that was held on July 6, 2008.
Considering the pattern same set of questions are expected in various other banks clerical written
test as well as in the forthcoming SBI clerical exam test.
1. In a certain code DATE is written as #%$@ and STYLE is written as «$© @. How is DELAY written in
that code?
(1) #@ %©
(2) #©$%@
(3) #@$%©
(4) #$ %©
(5) None of these
2. In a certain code DETAIL is written as BJMUFE. How is SUBMIT written in that code?
(1) UJWCVT
(2) NJUCVT
(3) NJUTVC
(4) UJNTVC
(5) None of these
3. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the second, the fourth, the sixth and the
ninth letters of the word PROACTIVE, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your
answer. If more than one word can be formed your answer is M and if no such word can be formed
your answer is N.
(1) A
(2) E
(3) T
(4) M
(5) N
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FOREHAND each of which have as many
letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to the group?
(1) 17
(2) 31
(3) 23
(4) 13
(5) 21
Q. 6-10. These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the
questions that follow.
T6#IJ1%LE3K9@AH7B©D2U$R4«8
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their position in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) JI1
(2) EL3
(3) @9A
(4) 7HB
(5) R4$
7. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement? 6IJ %E3 9AH ?
(1) B©2
(2) 7©D
(3) 7BD
(4) BD2
(5) None of these
8. If all the vowels are removed from the above arrangement which element will be sixth to the right
of fourth element from the left?
(1) 9
(2) K
(3) 3
(4) @
(5) None of these
9. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a number?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
10. Which element is fifth to the right of eleventh from the right end?
(1) $
(2) U
(3) 1
(4) 3
(5) None of these
Q. 11-15. In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and
II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer:-
(1) if only conclusion I follows.
(2) if only conclusion II follows.
(3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
Statements:
11. All taps are wells.
Some wells are canals.
All canals are rivers.
Conclusions:
I. Some rivers are taps.
II. Some wells are rivers.
Statements:
12. Some files are papers.
Some papers are books.
All books are journals.
Conclusions:
I. Some papers are journals.
II. Some files are journals.
Statements:
13. Some apples are grapes.
Some grapes are mangoes.
No mango is guava.
Conclusions:
I. Some guavas are apples.
II. No guava is apple.
Statements:
14. Some computers are screens.
Some screens are movies.
Some movies are scripts.
Conclusions:
I. Some computers are movies.
II. Some screens are scripts.
Statements:
15. All pearls are gems.
All gems are diamonds.
All corals are gems.
Conclusions:
I. All pearls are diamonds.
II. All corals are diamonds.
Answers:-
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (5) 6. (5) 7. (4) 8. (1) 9. (5) 10. (2) 11. 2 12. 1 13. 2 14. 4 15. 5
Quiz : Important General Knowledge Questions with Answers
No. Question Answer
01 The first Prime minister of Bangladesh was Mujibur Rehman
02 The longest river in the world is the Nile
03 The longest highway in the world is the Trans-Canada
04 The longest highway in the world has a length of About 8000 km
05 The highest mountain in the world is the Everest
The country that accounts for nearly one third of the total teak
06 Myan mar
production of the world is
07 The biggest desert in the world is the Sahara desert
08 The largest coffee growing country in the world is Brazil
09 The country also known as "country of Copper" is Zambia

The name given to the border which separates Pakistan and
10 Durand line
Afghanistan is
11 The river Volga flows out into the Capsian sea
12 The coldest place on the earth is Verkoyansk in Siberia
13 The country which ranks second in terms of land area is Canada
14 The largest Island in the Mediterranean sea is Sicily
15 The river Jordan flows out into the Dead sea
16 The biggest delta in the world is the Sunderbans
17 The capital city that stands on the river Danube is Belgrade
18 The Japanese call their country as Nippon
19 The length of the English channel is 564 kilometres
20 The world's oldest known city is Damascus
21 The city which is also known as the City of Canals is Venice
22 The country in which river Wangchu flows is Myanmar
23 The biggest island of the world is Greenland
The city which is the biggest centre for manufacture of automobiles in

24 Detroit, USA
the world is
25 The country which is the largest producer of manganese in the world is USA
26 The country which is the largest producer of rubber in the world is Malaysia
27 The country which is the largest producer of tin in the world is Malaysia
28 The river which carries maximum quantity of water into the sea is the Mississippi
29 The city which was once called the `Forbidden City' was Peking
30 The country called the Land of Rising Sun is Japan
31 Mount Everest was named after Sir George Everest
32 The volcano Vesuvius is located in Italy
33 The country known as the Sugar Bowl of the world is Cuba
34 The length of the Suez Canal is 162.5 kilometers
35 The lowest point on earth is The coastal area of Dead sea
36 The Gurkhas are the original inhabitants of Nepal
37 The largest ocean of the world is the Pacific ocean
38 The largest bell in the world is the Tsar Kolkol at Kremlin, Moscow
39 The biggest stadium in the world is the Strahov Stadium, Prague
40 The world's largest diamond producing country is South Africa
41 Australia was discovered by James Cook
42 The first Governor General of Pakistan is Mohammed Ali Jinnah
43 Dublin is situated at the mouth of river Liffey
44 The earlier name of New York city was New Amsterdam
45 The Eifel tower was built by Alexander Eiffel
46 The Red Cross was founded by Jean Henri Durant
47 The country which has the greatest population density is Monaco

48 The national flower of Britain is Rose
49 Niagara Falls was discovered by Louis Hennepin
Quiz : Important General Knowledge Questions with Answers

Part - 2
No. Question Answer
50 The national flower of Italy is Lily
51 The national flower of China is Narcissus
52 The permanent secretariat of the SAARC is located at Kathmandu
53 The gateway to the Gulf of Iran is Strait of Hormuz
54 The first Industrial Revolution took place in England
55 World Environment Day is observed on 5th June
56 The first Republican President of America was Abraham Lincoln
57 The country famous for Samba dance is Brazil
58 The name of Alexander's horse was Beucephalus
59 Singapore was founded by Sir Thomas Stamford Raffles
60 The famous British one-eyed Admiral was Nelson
61 The earlier name of Sri Lanka was Ceylon
62 The UNO was formed in the year 1945
63 UNO stands for United Nations Organization

64 The independence day of South Korea is celebrated on 15th August
65 `Last Judgement' was the first painting of an Italian painter named Michelangelo
66 Paradise Regained was written by John Milton
67 The first President of Egypt was Mohammed Nequib
68 The first man to reach North Pole was Rear Peary
69 The most famous painting of Pablo Picasso was Guermica
70 The primary producer of newsprint in the world is Canada
71 The first explorer to reach the South Pole was Cap. Ronald Amundson
72 The person who is called the father of modern Italy is G.Garibaldi
73 World literacy day is celebrated on 8th September
74 The founder of modern Germany is Bismarck
75 The country known as the land of the midnight sun is Norway
76 The place known as the Roof of the world is Tibet
77 The founder of the Chinese Republic was San Yat Sen
78 The first Pakistani to receive the Nobel Prize was Abdul Salam
79 The first woman Prime Minister of Britain was Margaret Thatcher
80 The first Secretary General of the UNO was Trygve Lie
81 The sculptor of the statue of Liberty was Frederick Auguste Bartholdi
82 The port of Banku is situated in Azerbaijan
83 John F Kennedy was assassinated by Lee Harry Oswald

84 The largest river in France is Lore
85 The Queen of England who married her brother-in-law was Catherine of Aragon
86 The first negro to be awarded the Nobel Peace Prize was Ralph Johnson Bunche
87 The first British University to admit women for degree courses was London University
88 The principal export of Jamaica is Sugar
89 New York is popularly known as the city of Skyscrapers
90 Madagascar is popularly known as the Island of Cloves
91 The country known as the Land of White Elephant is Thailand
92 The country known as the Land of Morning Calm is Korea
93 The country known as the Land of Thunderbolts is Bhutan
94 The highest waterfalls in the world is the Salto Angel Falls, Venezuela
United States Library of Congress,

95 The largest library in the world is the
Washington DC
Please Register yourself to Access this Page...

IT'S FREE.....and takes only 2 minutes.
If you are already registered then please login...
we appreciate your co-ordination, to keep the Portal healthy... Thank You.

--
webmaster www.upscportal.com
• Civil Service Exam 2009
• Daily Dose!
• Toppers
• Books
• Current Affairs
• Forum
• Interviews
• Jobs
• Quiz
• News & Events
• Papers
• Results
• Study Notes
• Syllabus
• Videos
Home » Blogs » IASguru's blog

(Exam Info) Civil Services Examination, 2009 (Date :
06 - 12 - 2008 : Notice No. 04/2009-CSP )
SEND ME UPSC ALERTS
EMAIL ALERTS:
(NOTIFICATION) Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam 2009

Test Your IAS Exams Preparation.Give Online Mock Exams.
Submitted by IASguru on Sat, 2008-12-06 08:24.
• Exam
• Notifications
• IAS
• UPSC
IMPORTANT
Date : 06 - 12 - 2008
Civil Services Examination, 2009
Examination Notice No. 04/2009-CSP
1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:
The Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all eligibility condition for admission to
examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying
the prescribed eligibility conditions
Mere issue of admission certificate to the candidate will not imply that his candidature has been
finally cleared by the Commission.
Commission take up verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents only after the
candidate has qualified for interview/Personality Test.
2.APPLICATION FORM :
Candidates must apply in the Common Application Form devised by the Commission for its examination, which
can be purchased from the Designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices (specified in Appendix III of the notice)
throughout the country against cash payment of Rs. 20/- (Rupees Twenty only). Each such form can be used
only once and only for one examination.
In case of any difficulty in obtaining Application Forms from the designated HPOs/POs, the candidates should
immediately contact the concerned post Master or UPSC's "FORMS SUPPLY MONITORING CELL" over
Telephone No. 011-23389366/FAX No. 011-23387310.
Candidates are advised to read carefully the "Instructions for filling up the Application Form" given in Appendix-II
of this notice.
3. LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATIONS :
All applications must reach the "Secretary, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road,
New Delhi - 110069" either by hand or by Post/Speed Post or by Courier, on or before the 5th January, 2009
The candidates should not that applications will be received by hand only one at a time at the desginated
counter(s) and not in bulk, till 5 PM only.
However, in respect of candidates residing abroad or in certain remote localities specified in para 6 of this Notice
the last date for receipt of application by Post/Speed Post only (not by Hand or by Courier) is 12th January,
2009
4.Penalty for wrong answer (In objective type paper).
Candidates should note that their will be penalty (Negative Marking) answers marked by a candidate
in the Objective Question Papers.
5.FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES :
In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their applications, candidature etc. candidates can
contact UPSC's Facilitation Counter near gate 'C' of its campus in person or over Telephone No. 011-
23385271/011-23381125/011-23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs and 17.00 hrs.
6. MOBILE PHONES BANNED :
(a) Mobile phones, pagers or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where the
examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including
ban from future examinations.
(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not be bring any of the banned items including mobile
phones/pagers to the venue of the examination, as arrangement for safekeeping cannot be assured.
F.1/9/2008-E.I.(B): Preliminary Examination of the Civil Services Examination for recruitment to the Services
and posts mentioned below will be held by the Union Public Service Commission on the 17th May , 2009 in
accordance with the Rules published by the Department of Personnel & Training in the Gazette in India
Extraordinary dated the 6th December, 2008.
Services/posts to which recruitment is to be made through the Examination are :
(i) Indian Administrative Service.
(ii) Indian Foreign Service.
(iii) Indian Police Service.
(iv) Indian P & T Accounts & Finance Service, Group ‘A’.
(v) Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(vi) Indian Revenue Service (Customs and Central Excise) Group 'A'
(vii) Indian Defence Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(viii) Indian Revenue Service, Group ‘A’.
(ix) Indian Ordnance Factories Service, Group 'A' (Assistant Works Manager,Non-technical)
(x) Indian Postal Service, Group ‘A’.
(xi) Indian Civil Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(xii) Indian Railway Traffic Service, Group ‘A’.
(xiii) Indian Railway Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(xiv) Indian Railway Personnel Service, Group ‘A’.
(xv) Post of Assistant Security Officer, Group 'A' in Railway Protection Force.
(xvi) Indian Defence Estates Service, Group ‘A’.
(xvii) Indian Information Service (Junior Grade), Group ‘A’.
(xviii) Indian Corporate Law Service, Group "A"
(xix) Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service, Group ‘B’ (Section Officer’s Grade)
(xx) Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Civil Service,
Group 'B'.
(xxi) Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Police Service,
Group 'B'.
(xxii) Pondicherry Civil Service, Group 'B'
(xxiii) Pondicherry Police Service, Group 'B'
The number of vacancies to be filled on the results of the examination is expected to be approximately 580. The
number of vacancies is liable to alteration.
Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward
Classes and Physically disabled categories in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government.
Note : Services identified suitable for physically disabled category and number of vacancies reserved
there against is as under :-
Sl. Name of the Service Category(s) for *Functional *Physical No. of Reserved
No. which identified Classification requirements Vacancy
1. Indian Administrative (i)Locomotor (i) BA, OL, OA, BH, (i) S, ST, W, SE, 4
Service disability, MW H, RW T (category not yet
(ii) Visual finalised )
impairment and
(iii)Hearing
(ii) PB (ii) F, PP, L, KC, B,
impairment
S, ST, W, H, RWT
(iii) PD (iii) F, PP, L, KC, B,

S, ST, W, SE, RWT
2 Indian Foreign Service (i)Locomotor OL, OA, OAL S, ST, W, RW, C, 1

Disability MF, SE (in the category
(ii) Visual LV of Locomotor
Impairment Disability)
(iii)Hearing HH
Impairment
3 Indian Revenue Service (i)Locomotor OL, OA, S, ST, W, BN, L, 1

(Customs & Central disability, SE,MF, RW , H, C (in the category
Excise, Gr.À’) (ii)Hearing HH of Locomotor
impairment Disability)
4. Indian P&T Accounts & (i)Locomotor OL, OA, OAL, BL S, W, SE, RW, C
Finance Service, Gr.À’ Disability
(ii) Visual LV
Impairment
(iii)Hearing HH
Impairment
5 Indian Audit & Accounts (i)Locomotor OL, OA, OAL S, ST, W, BN, SE,
Service, Gr.À’ Disability RW, H, C
(ii) Visual LV
Impairment
(iii)Hearing HH
Impairment
6 Indian Defence (i)Locomotor OL, OA, OAL, BL S, ST, W, BN, SE,

Accounts Service, Gr. Disability RW, C
‘A’ (ii) Visual LV
Impairment
(iii)Hearing HH
Impairment
7 Indian Revenue Service (i)Locomotor (i) OA, OL, OAL, BL (i) S, ST, W, SE, 2 (1 each for
(IT), Gr. À’ disability, RW, C Locomotor
(ii)Hearing disability and
impairment (ii) HH Hearing Imp.)
8 Indian Ordnance (i)Locomotor OA, OL, OAL 1 (in the

Factories Service, Disability category of
Gr.À’ (ii) Visual LV Hearing
Impairment Impairment)
(iii)Hearing PD Hearing/speaking
Impairment or communication
9 Indian Postal Service, (i)Locomotor OA, OL, OAL, BL S, ST, W, BN, RW, 1(in the category
Gr. ‘A’ Disability SE, H, C of Visual
(ii) Visual B, LV Impairment)
Impairment
(iii)Hearing HH
Impairment
10 Indian Civil Accounts (i)Locomotor OA, OL, OAL, BL S, ST, W, SE, RW,
Service, Gr. ‘A’ Disability H,C
(ii) Visual LV
Impairment
(iii)Hearing HH
Impairment
11 Indian Railway Accounts (i)Locomotor OA, OL, OAL, BL S, ST, W, SE, RW, Not yet finalised
Service, Gr. ‘A’ Disability H,C
(ii) Visual LV
Impairment
(iii)Hearing HH
Impairment
12 Indian Railway (i)Locomotor OA, OL S, ST, W, SE, RW, Not yet finalised
Personnel Service, Gr. Disability H,C
‘A’ (ii) Visual B, LV
Impairment
(iii)Hearing HH
Impairment
13. Indian Defence Estates (i)Locomotor OA, OL S, ST, W, BN, MF,

Service, Gr.’A’ disability PP, KC, SE, RW,
(ii)Blindness or H, C
Low Vision LV
(iii) Hearing
Impairment HH
14. Indian Information (i)Locomotor OA, OL, OAL, BL S, ST, W, SE, RW, 1 (in the category
Service, Gr.À’ Disability H,C of Visual
(ii) Visual B, LV Impairment)
Impairment
(iii)Hearing HH
Impairment
15. Indian Corporate Law (i)Locomotor Not yet finalised ST, RW, SE, S, B, 2(1 each for
Service, Gr'A' Disability H locomotor
(ii) Hearing Not yet finalised disability and
Impairment hearing
impairment)
16. Armed Forces (i)Locomotor OA, OL, S, ST, W, BN,MF,
Headquarters Civil Disability SE, RW, H, C
Service, Gr.`B’ (Section (ii) Visual LV
Officers’ Grade) Impairment
(iii)Hearing
Impairment
HH
17. Delhi , Andaman & (i)Locomotor OA, OL, OAL, BL S, ST, W, SE, RW,
Nicobar Islands, disability, MF, H, C
Lakshadweep , Daman (ii)Hearing
& Diu and Dadra & impairment and
Nagar Haveli Civil (iii)Visual
Service, Gr.’B’ impairment
LV
HH
18. Delhi , Andaman & (i)Locomotor OL S, ST, W, BN, PP,

Nicobar Islands, disability, and KC, MF, SE, RW,
Lakshadweep , Daman (ii)Hearing HH H, C
& Diu and Dadra & impairment
Nagar Haveli Police
Service, Gr.’B’
19. Pondicherry Civil (i)Locomotor OA, OL, OAL, BL S, ST, W, SE, RW,
Service, (Group B) disability, H, C
(ii)Hearing LV
impairment and
(iii)Visual HH
impairment
(For details about functional classification and Physical Requirements para 9 of this notice may
please be referred.)
Above information is tentative:
2. (A) Centre of Examination : The examination will be held at the following centres :
AGARTALA GANGTOK PATNA
AHMEDABAD HYDERABAD PUDUCHERRY
AIZWAL IMPHAL PORT BLAIR
ALIGARH ITANAGAR RAIPUR
ALLAHABAD JAIPUR RANCHI
AURANGABAD JAMMU SAMBALPUR

BANGALORE JODHPUR SHILLONG
BAREILLY JORHAT SHIMLA
BHOPAL KOCHI SRINAGAR
CHANDIGARH KOHIMA THIRUVANATHAPURAM
CHENNAI KOLKATA TIRUPATI
CUTTACK LUCKNOW UDAIPUR
DEHRADUN MADURAI VISHAKHAPATNAM
DELHI MUMBAI
DHARWAD NAGPUR
DISPUR PANAJI (GOA)
The centres and the dates of holding the examination as mentioned above are liable to be changed at the
discretion of the commission. While every effort will be made to allot the candidates to the centre of their choice
for examination, the commission may, at their discretion allot a different centre to a candidate, when
circumstances so warrant. blind candidates will, However, be required to take the Examination at the any one of
seven centres, viz. Chennai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Kolkata, Lucknow, Dispur and Mumbai only. Candidates admitted
to the Examination will be informed of the time table and place or places of examination.
The candidates should note that no request for change of centre will normally be granted. However when a
candidate desires a change in centre from the one he had indicated in his Application Form for the Examination,
he must send a letter addressed to the Secretary, Union Public Service Commission, giving full justification as to
why he desires a change in centre. Such requests will be considered on merits but requests received in the
Commission’s Office after 6th February, 2009 will not be entertained under any circumstances nor will such
communications be replied to.
B. Plan of Examination :
The Civil Services Examination will consist of two successive stages (vide Appendix I Section I below).
(i) Civil Services Preliminary Examination (Objective type for the selection of candidates for the Main
Examination; and
(ii) Civil Services Main Examination (Written and Interview) for the selection of candidates for the various
Services and posts noted above.
Applications are now invited for the Preliminary Examination only. Candidates who are declared by the
Commission to have qualified for admission to the Main Examination will have to apply again in the detailed
application form which would be supplied to them. The Main Examination is likely to be held in
October/November, 2009.
3. Eligibility Conditions :
(i) Nationality
(1) For the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service, a candidate must be a citizen of India.
(2) For other services, a candidate must be either :—
(a) A citizen of India, or
(b) a subject of Nepal, or
(c) a subject of Bhutan, or
(d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling
in India. or
(e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Srilanka, East African countries of Kenya,
Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of
permanently settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) shall be a person in whose favour a
certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Provided further that candidates belonging to categories (b), (c) and (d) above will not be eligible for
appointment to the Indian Foreign Service.
A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination but the
offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the
Government of India.
(ii) Age Limits :
(a) A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 30 years on 1st
August, 2009, i.e. he must have been born not earlier than 2nd August, 1979 and not later than 1st August,
1988.
(b) The upper age limit prescribed above will be relaxable:
(i) upto a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe.
(ii) upto a maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes who are
eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates.
(iii) upto a maximum of five years if a candidate had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir
during the period from the 1st January, 1980 to the 31st day of December, 1989.
(iv) upto a maximum of three years in the case of Defence Services personnel disabled in operations during
hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof:
(v) upto a maximum of five years in the case of ex-servicemen including Commissioned Officers and
ECOs/SSCOs who have rendered at least five years Military Service as on 1st August, 2009 and have been
released (i) on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one
year from 1st August, 2009) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or
inefficiency, or (ii) on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service, or (iii) on invalidment.
(vi) upto a maximum of five years in the case of ECOs/SSCOs who have completed an initial period of assignment
of five years Military Service as on 1st August, 2009 and whose assignment has been extended beyond five years
and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues a certificate that they can apply for civil employment and that
they will be released on three month's notice on selection from the date of receipt of offer of appointment.
(vii) upto a maximum of 10 years in the case of blind, deaf-mute and Orthopaedically handicapped persons.
NOTE I-Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and the Other Backward Classes
who are also covered under any other clauses of para 3(ii) (b) above, viz. those coming under the category of
Ex-servicemen, persons domiciled in the State of J & K, blind, deaf-mute and orthopadically handicapped etc. will
be eligible for grant of cumulative age-relaxation under both the categories.
NOTE II-The term ex-servicemen will apply to the persons who are defined as ex-servicemen in the Ex-
servicemen (Re-employment in Civil Services and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended from time to time.
Note III-The age concession under para 3(ii) (b) (v) and (vi) will not be admissible to Ex-Servicemen and
Commissioned Officers including ECOs/SSCOs who are released on own reguest.
NOTE IV- Notwithstanding the provision of age-relaxation under para 3(ii) (b) (vii) above, a physically disabled
candidate will be considered to be eligible for appointment only if he/she (after such physical examination as the
Government or appointing authority, as the case may be, may prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of
physical and medical standards for the concerned Services/posts to be allocated to the physically disabled
candidates by the Government.
Save as provided above the age limits prescribed can in no case be relaxed.
The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving
Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract
from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which extract must be certified by the proper
authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate.
These certificates are required to be submitted only at the time of applying for the Civil Services (Main)
Examination.
No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service
records and the like will be accepted.
The expression Matriculation/Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the
alternative certificates mentioned above.
NOTE 1:- Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary
Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by
the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.
Note 2 :- Candidates should also note that once a Date of Birth has been claimed by them and entered in the
records of the Commission for the purpose of
admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently (or at any other Examination of the
Commission) on any grounds whatsoever.
Note 3 :- The candidate should exercise due care while entering their date of birth in column 8 of the application
form for the Preliminary Examination. If on verification at any subsequent stage, any variation is found in their
date of birth from the one entered in their matriculation or equivalent Examination certificate, disciplinary action
will be taken against them by the commission under the Rules.
(iii) Minimum Educational Qualifications :

The candidate must hold a degree of any of Universities incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature
in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a
University Under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, or possess an equivalent qualification.
Note I : Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them educationally
qualified for the Commission’s examination but have not been informed of the results as also the candidates who
intend to appear at such a qualifying examination will also be eligible for admission to the Preliminary
Examination. All candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission for taking the Civil Services (Main)
Examination will be required to produce proof of passing the requisite examination with their application for the
Main Examination failing which such candidates will not be admitted to the Main Examination. The applications for
the main examination will be called sometime in the month of July/August, 2009.
Note II : In exceptional cases the Union Public Service Commission may treat a candidate who has not any of
the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate provided that he has passed examination conducted by the
other Institutions, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission justifies his admission to the
examination.
Note III : Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by Government
as equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination.
Note IV : Candidates who have passed the final professional M.B.B.S. or any other Medical Examination but have
not completed their internship by the time of submission of their applications for the Civil Services (Main)
Examination, will be provisionally admitted to the Examination provided they submit along with their application a
copy of certificate from the concerned authority of the University/Institution that they had passed the requisite
final professional medical examination. In such cases, the candidates will be required to produce at the time of
their interview original Degree or a certificate from the concerned competent authority of the
University/Institution that they had completed all requirements (including completion of internship) for the award
of the Degree.
(iv) Number of attempts :

Every candidate appearing at the Civil Services Examination, who is otherwise eligible, shall be permitted four
attempts at the examination.
Provided that this restriction on the number of attempts will not apply in the case of Scheduled Caste and
Scheduled Tribe candidates who are otherwise eligible.
Provided further that the number of attempts permissible to candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes,
who are otherwise eligible, shall be seven. This relaxation will be available to the candidates who are eligible to
avail of reservation applicable to such candidates.
Provided further that a Physically handicapped will get as many attempts as are available to other non-physically
handicapped candidates of his or her community, subject to the General Category shall be eligible for seven
attempts. The relaxation will be available to the physically handicapped candidates who are eligible to avail of
reservation applicable to such candidates.
Note:-
(i) An attempt at a Preliminary Examination shall be deemed to be an attempt at the Examination.
(ii) If a candidate actually appears in any one paper in the Preliminary Examination, he/she shall be deemed to
have made an attempt at the Examination.
(iii) Notwithstanding the disqualification/cancellation of candidature, the fact of appearance of the candidate at
the examination will count as an attempt.
(v) Restrictions on applying for the examination :

A candidate who is appointed to the Indian Administrative Service or the Indian Foreign Service on the results of
an earlier examination and continues to be a member of that service will not be eligible to compete at this
examination.
In case such a candidate is appointed to the IAS/IFS after the Preliminary Examination of Civil Services
Examination, 2009 is over and he/she continues to be a member of that service, he/she shall not be eligible to
appear in the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2009 notwithstanding his/her having qualified in the Preliminary
Examination, 2009.
Also provided that if such a candidate is appointed to IAS/IFS after the commencement of the Civil Services
(Main) Examination, 2009 but before the result thereof and continues to be a member of that service, he/she
shall not be considered for appointment to any service/post on the basis of the result of this examination viz.
Civil Services Examination, 2009.
(vi) Physical Standards :

Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to Civil Services Examination.
2009 as per guidelines given in Appendix-III of Rules for Examination published in the Gazette of India
Extraordinary dated 6th December, 2008.
4. FEE :
A candidate seeking admission to examination must pay to the Commission a fee of Rs. 50.00 (Rupees Fifty only)
through a single Central Recruitment Fee Stamp of requisite denomination. Central recruitment Fee Stamp (NOT
postage stamps) may be obtained from the post office and affixed on the application form in the space provided
therein. The stamp must be got cancelled from the issuing Post Office with the date stamp of the post office in
such a manner that the impression of the cancellation mark partially overflows on the application form itself but
within the space provided on the form. The impression of the cancellation mark should be clear and distinct to
facilitate the identification of date and the Post Office of issue.
Candidates residing abroad should deposit the prescribed fee in the office of India's High Commissioner,
Ambassador or representative abroad as the case may be for credit to account head "051-Public Service
Commission-Examination Fees" and attach the receipt with the application.
Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes are not required to pay any fee. No Fee
exemption is, However, Available to OBC Candidates and they are required to pay the full prescribed
fee.
Physically disabled persons are exempted from the payment of fee provided they are otherwise eligible for
appointment to the Services/Posts to be filled on the results of this examination on the basis of the standards of
medical fitness for these Services/Posts (including any concessions specifically extended to the physically
disabled). A physically disabled candidate claiming fee concession will be required by the Commission to submit
along with their detailed application form, a certified copy of the certificate from a Government Hospital/Medical
Board in support of his claim for being physically disabled.
NOTE : Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision for fee exemption, a physically disabled candidate will be
considered to be eligible for appointment only if he (after such physical examination as the Government or the
appointing authority, as the case may be, may prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of physical and
medical standards for the concerned Services/Posts to be allocated to Physically disabled candidates by the
Government.
'Postage Stamps' will in no case be accepted in lieu of 'Central Recruitment Fee Stamp'.
Candidates should note that the fee sent through Indian Postal Orders, Bank Draft, Money Order, Crossed
Cheque, Currency notes or Treasury Challan etc. will not be accepted by the Commission and such
applications will be treated as without fee and will be summarily rejected.
Note I : Applications not accompanied by the prescribed Fee (Unless remission of Fee is claimed) shall be
summarily rejected.
Note II : Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in reserve for any
other examination or selection.
Note III : If any candidate who took the Civil Services Examination held in 2008 wishes to apply for admission
to this examination, he must submit his application so as to reach the Commission’s Office by the prescribed date
without waiting for the results or an offer of appointment.
Note IV : Candidates admitted to the Main Examination will be required to pay a further fee of Rs. 100/- (Rs.
One hundred only).
5. How to Apply:
(a) The UPSC have developed an application form common for all their examinations which will be processed on
computerised machines. This application form alongwith an Information Brochure containing general instructions
for filling up the form, an acknowledegment card and an envelope for sending the application is obtainable from
the designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices throughout the country as listed in Appendix-III of Notice
against cash payment of Rs. 20/- (Rupees twenty only). Form should be purchased from the designated Post
Offices only and not from any other agency. This form can be used only once and for only one examination.
Candidates must use the form supplied with the Information Brochure only and they should in no case use
photocopy/reproduction/unauthorisedly printed copy of the Form. Since this form is electronically scannable, due
care should be taken to fill up the application form, correctly. While filling up the application form, please refer
to detailed instructions given in Appendix-II of this Notice. The candidate should also fill up in the relevant
places of the Acknowledgement Card, their Application Form Number (8-digit) and the name of the
examination. The applicants are required to affix the postage stamp of Rs. 6/- on the Acknowledgement Cards
and sent the same along with Application Form to UPSC. If an applicant fails to affix the postage stamp of
requisite amount, his Acknowledgment Cards will be not be despatched and Commission will not be responsible
for non-receipt of acknowledgement cards by the applicant. . The duly filled in application form and the
acknowledgement card should then be mailed in the special envelope supplied with the Information Brochure.
The Candidates should also write the name of examination viz. "Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination,
2009" on the envelope before despatching it to "Secretary, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House,
Shahajahan Road, New Delhi-110069".
(b) All candidates, whether already in Government Service, or in Government owned industrial undertakings or
other similar organisations or in private employment should submit their applications direct to the Commission. If
any candidate forwards his application through his employer and it reaches the Union Public Service Commission
late, the application, even if submitted to the employer before the closing date, will not be considered.
Persons already in Government service, whether in a permanent or temporary capacity or as workcharged

employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises are however,
required to submit an undertaking that they have informed in writing their Head of Office/Department that they
have applied for the Examination.
Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission
withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their applications will be
liable to be rejected/candidature will be liable to be cancelled.
NOTE 1 : While filling in his application form, the candidate should carefully decide about his choice
for the centre and optional subject for the Examination. More than one application from A candidate
giving Different centres and/or optional subjects will not be accepted in any case. Even if a candidate
sends more than one completed application the Commission will accept only one application at their
discretion and the Commission's decision in the matter shall be final.
If any candidate appears at a centre/optional subject other than the one indicated by the Commission
in his Admission Certificate, the papers of such a candidate will not be valued and his candidature will
be liable to cancellation.
NOTE-2 : Since These application forms are to be processed in a computerised system, Due care
should be taken by the candidates to fill up their application form correctly. Necessary instructions
for filling up the form may be seen at appendix II. No column of the Application should be left blank.
Incomplete or defective applications shall be summarily rejected. No representation or
correspondence regarding such rejection shall be entertained under any circumstances.
Candidates are not required to submit along with their applications any certificate in support of their
claims regarding Age, Educational Qualifications, Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes/Other
Backward Classes and Physically disabled etc. Which will be verified at the time of the Main
examination only. The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the
eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of
examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. Preliminary Examination, Main
(Written) Examination and Interview Test will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the
prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the Preliminary
Examination, Main (written) Examination and Interview Test, it is found that they do not fulfil any of
the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission.
If any of their Claims is found to be Incorrect, they may render themselves liable to disciplinary
action by the Commission in terms of rule 14 of the rules for the Civil Services Examination, 2009
reproduced below :
A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :
(i) Obtaining support for his candidature by the following means, namely :–
(a) offering illegal gratification to, or
(b) applying pressure on, or
(c) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the examination, or
(ii) impersonating, or
(iii) procuring impersonation by any person, or
(iv) submitting fabricated documents or documents which have been tampered with, or
(v) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information, or
(vi) resorting to the following means in connection with his candidature for the examination, namely
(a) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means,
(b) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the examination.
(c) influencing the examiners, or
(vii) using unfair means during the examination, or
(viii) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches in the scripts, or

(ix) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow examinees to boycott
examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like, or
(x) harassing or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of their
examinations, or
(xi) being in possession of or using mobile phone, paper or any electronic equipment or device or any other
equipment capable of being used as a communication device during the examination; or
(xii) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their admission certificates permitting them
to take the examination; or
(xiii) attempting to commit or as the case may be abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in
the foregoing clauses;
may in addition to rendering himself liable to criminal prosecution, be liable.
(a) to be disqualified by the Commission from the examination for which he is a candidate and/or
(b) to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period
(i) by the Commission from any examination or selection held by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them; and
(c) if he is already in service under Government to disciplinary action under the appropriate rules.
Provided that no penalty under this rules shall be imposed except after
(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation, in writing as he may wish to make in that
behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed to him into
consideration.
6. Last date for receipt of applications :
(i) The completed Application Form must reach the Secretary, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur
House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi 110069 on or before 5th January, 2009.
(ii) In respect of applications received only by post (by post/speed post) from the candidates residing in Assam,
Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Jammu & Kashmir, Lahaul and
Spiti District and Pangi Sub-Division of Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh, Andaman and Nicobar Islands or
Lakshadweep or abroad, the last date for receipt of applications is 12th January, 2009 till 5 PM only. The
benefit of extended time will be available only in respect of applications received by post/speed post from the
above mentioned areas/regions. In the case of applications received by hand or through courier service, benefit
of extended time will not be available regardless of the place of residence of the applicant.
Candidates who are claiming the benefit of extended time should clearly indicate in column 13 (II) of the
application form, the area code of the particular area or region (e.g. Assam, Meghalaya, J&K etc.) where they are
residing. In case they fail to do so, the benefit of extended time will not be allowed to them.
NOTE:-(i) Candidates should clearly note that the Commission will in no case be responsible for non-receipt of
their application or any delay in receipt thereof on any account whatsoever. No application received after the
prescribed last date will be entertained under any circumstances and all the late applications will be summarily
rejected. They should therefore, ensure that their applications reach the Commission's Office on or before the
prescribed last date.
NOTE:-(ii) Candidates can also deliver their applications personally at the Commission's counter against proper
acknowledgement. The Commission will not be responsible for the applications delivered to any other functionary
of the Commission.
NOTE:-(iii) The candidates should note that applications will be received by hand only one at a time at the
designated counter(s) and not in bulk, till 5 PM only.
NOTE:-(iv) Applications received through Couriers or Courier Services of any type shall be treated as having
been received "By hand" at the Commission's Counter.
7. Acknowledgement of applications :
Immediately on receipt of an application from a candidate, the Acknowledgement Card submitted by him
alongwith the application form will be despatched to him by the Commission’s office duly stamped in token of
receipt of his Application. If a candidate does not receive the Acknowledgement Card within 30 days, he should at
once contact the Commission by quoting his Application Form No. (8-digit) and name & year of examination.
Candidates delivering the application form in person at the Commission’s Counter will be issued
Acknowledgement Card at the Counter itself. The mere fact that a candidate’s application has been acknowledged
by the Commission does not mean that his candidature for the examination has been accepted by the
Commission. Candidates will be informed at the earliest possible about their admission to the examination or
rejection of their application.
8. Correspondence with the Commission:
The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates about their candidature except in the
following cases:
(i) Every candidate for this examination will be informed at the earliest possible date of the result of his
application. Admission certificates, indicating the Roll Nos. will be issued to the candidates who are admitted to
the examination. The admission certificate will bear the photograph of the candidate. If a candidate does not
receive his admission certificate or any other communication regarding his candidature for the examination three
weeks before the commencement of the examination, he should at once contact the Commission. On receipt of
such a communication, Admission certificate or a duplicate copy thereto will be issued to the admitted candidate.
Information in this regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter located in the Commission’s Office
either in person or over phone Nos. 011-23381125/23385271/23098543. In case no communication is
received in the Commission's office from the candidate regarding non-receipt of his admission
certificate atleast 3 weeks before the examination, he himself will be solely responsible for non-
receipt of his admission certificate. It may be noted that the Admission Certificate will be issued at the
address as photocopied from the application form filled in by the candidate. The candidate should, therefore,
ensure that address given by him in the application form is correct and complete with pin code.
No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination unless he holds a certificate of
admission for the examination. On the receipt of Admission Certificate, check it carefully and bring
discrepancies/erros, if any, to the notice of UPSC immediately.
The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely provisional based on the
information given by them in the application form. This will be subject to verification of all the eligibility
conditions by the UPSC.
The mere fact that a certificate of admission to the Examination has been issued to a candidate, will
not imply that his candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission or that entries made by the
candidate in his application for the Preliminary examination have been accepted by the Commission
as true and correct. Candidates may note that the Commission takes up the verification of eligibility
conditions of a candidate, with reference to original documents, only after the candidate has qualified
for Civil Services (Main) Examination. Unless candidature is formally confirmed by the Commission, it
continues to be provisional.
The decision of the Commission as to the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for admission to the Examination
shall be final.
Candidates should note that the name in the Admission Certificate in some cases, may be abbreviated due to
technical reasons.
(ii) In the event of a candidate receiving more than one admission certificate from the Commission, he should
use only one of these admission certificates for appearing in the examination and return the other(s) to the
Commission Office.
(iii) A candidate must see that communications sent to him at the address stated in his application are redirected,
if necessary. Change in address should be communicated to the Commission at the earliest opportunity. Although
the Commission make every effort to take account of such changes, they cannot accept any responsibility in the
matter.
(iv) Candidates are informed that as the Preliminary Examination is only a screening test, no marks sheets will be
supplied to successful or unsuccessful candidates and no correspondence will be entertained by the Commission,
in this regard.
(v) If a candidate receives an admission certificate in respect of some other candidate on account of handling
error, the same should be immediately returned to the Commission with a request to issue the correct AC.
Candidates may note that they will not be allowed to take the examination on the strength of an admission
certificate issued in respect of another candidate.
Important : All communications to the Commission should invariably contain the following
particulars.
1. Name and year of the examination.

2. Application Form Number (8-digit)
3. Roll Number (if received)
4. Name of candidate (in full and in block letters)
5. Complete postal address as given in the application.
N.B. I. Communication not containing the above particulars may not be attended to.
N.B. II. Candidates should also note down their application form number (8 digit) for future reference. They may
be required to indicate the same in connection with their candidature for the Civil Services (Main) Examination.
9. Physical Requirements for the Disabled Candidates:-

The eligibility for availing reservation against the vacancies reserved for the physically disabled persons shall be
the same as prescribed in "The Persons with Disability (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full
Participation) Act, 1995".
Provided further that the physically disabled candidates shall also be required to meet special eligibility criteria in
terms of physical requirements functional classification (abilities disbailities) consistent with requirements of the
identified service/post as may be prescribed by its cadre controlling authority.
The physical requirement and functional classification can, for example, be one or more of the following:
Code Physical Requirements
F 1.Work performed by manipulating (with Fingers)
PP2. Work performed by pulling & pushing
L 3. Work performed by lifting
KC 4. Work performed by kneeling and crouching
B 5. Work performed by bending
S 6. Work performed by sitting (on bench or chair)
ST7. Work performed by standing
W8. Work performed by walking
SE9. Work performed by seeing
H10. Work performed by hearing/speaking
RW 11. Work performed by reading and writing.
Code Functional Classification
BL 1. both legs affected but not arms
BA 2. both arms affected

a. impaired reach
b. weakness of grip.
c. ataxic
BLA 3. both legs and both arms affected.

OL 4. one leg affected (R or L)
a. impaired reach
b. weakness of grip
c. ataxic
OA 5. one arm affected (R or L) - do -
BH 6. stiff back and hips (cannot sit or stoop).
MW 7. muscular weakness and limited physical endurance.
B 8. the blind
PB 9. partially blind
D 10. the deaf
PD 11. partially deaf.
Note: Above lists are only illustrative
10. Withdrawal of applications :

No request for withdrawal of candidature received from a candidate after he has submitted his application will be
entertained under any circumstances.
--------
(KUMAR SANJAY BARIAR)

Joint Secretary
Union Public Service Commission
Also Read :- UPSC – IAS: NOTIFICATION – CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION – 2009
• IASguru's blog
Search
(NOTIFICATION) Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam 2009
LIVE! CHAT | GOVT. JOBS | Results | Daily Dose | Current-Affairs | Forum | QUIZ | Search
Search
Search
User login
Username: *
Password: *
Log in
• Create new account

• Request new password
LIVE Group CHAT. "Help Each Other..."
ADAPA KARTHIK
UPSC Topper 2008
Interview VIDEO @ CNN-IBN
Civil Services 2007 FINAL Result
ONLINE CHAT!!!
DAILY 5:00-8:00 PM
Free Online Test

 (Quiz) Latest Indian Economy Quiz For Year 2008-09 (New!)
 (Quiz) Update Your GK Skills : General Knowledge Quiz (New!)
 (Quiz) Important General Knowledge Questions with Answers : Part - 2
 (Quiz) Important General Knowledge Questions with Answers : Part - 1
 (Quiz) UPSC : CURRENT AFFAIRS QUESTIONNAIRE 2008
More..
Navigation
 Home
 IAS Toppers
 Tips & Tricks
 Articles
 Daily Dose
 Previous Papers
 Books
 This Day in History
• Subjects / Topics
 INFO Articles
 FORUM
 Syllabus
 JOBS
 Articles
 BOOKS
 Civil-Lines Yahoo Group

• Civil Services
 Coachings
 Create Content
 DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS
 Discussion FORUM
• Imp. LINKS
 INTERVIEWS
 Invite your friends and colleagues
 Join UPSCPORTAL Team
 ONLINE COMMUNITY CHAT
 Prev. PAPERS
 Recent posts
 UPSC Discussion FORUM
 Why Register?
• News aggregator
 Contact Us
Daily Dose on Mobile Phone
Daily Dose
• Abbreviations New!
• DAILY DOSE(GOOD)
• Word of the Day
• Article of the Day
• This day in HISTORY
• Today's birthday
• In the News
• Match Up
Quotation of the Day

I sit on a man's back, choking him and making him carry me, and yet
assure myself and others that I am very sorry for him and wish to ease his lot by all possible
means—except by getting off his back.
Leo Tolstoy
(1828-1910)
Website content provided by The Free Dictionary
Total Members :27987

Welcome to UPSCPORTAL. As a GUEST you are welcome to browse website; but you cannot Post
Articles or Blogs.
Registration is Fast, Simple and FREE. So Please, Join NOW! and Enjoy Full Access.
UPSC/IAS Alerts on Email

Enter your email address:
Subscribe
UPSC Alerts
• new!
Forthcomming Examination 2008 -09
• new!
IAS 2009 Preparation Schedule
• new!
CALENDAR for EXAMINATIONS - 2009
• new!
PROGRAMME OF EXAMINATIONS TO BE HELD IN THE YEAR 2008
• UPSC Civil Service Examination, 2008
• IES/Indian Statistical Service
• IES Examination, 2008
• Civil Services (Main) Examination 2007 Revised Final Result
• (Rank Wise Result) UPSC Main Examination 2007
• (Schedule) Exam Schedule: UPSC Exam Calendar
Recent blog posts
• (Result) National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (I), 2008- Result
Declared
• (Online MIT Course) International Politics and Climate Change
• (Result) UPPSC, Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission, has announced its various results
• (Paper) State Bank of India Clerical Exam July 6, 2008 Reasoning Paper
• (Mark-Sheet Query) IES/ISS Examination (Written Qualified) 2007
• (Result) Recruitment of Technical Officer Farm Sector 2008-09 in SBI On Contract Basis
(Final Result)
• (Exam Info) UPSC – IAS: NOTIFICATION – CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION – 2009
• (Exam Info) Civil Services Examination, 2009 (Date : 06 - 12 - 2008 : Notice No. 04/2009-
CSP )
• (Paper) SSC Section Officer (Audit) PAPER II - ARITHMETIC: Nov 2008
• (Paper) SSC Section Officer (Audit) Question Paper SET I: Nov 2008
more
Recent comments
• Which subjects???
1 day 1 hour ago
• Which subjects???
1 day 2 hours ago
• hi
1 day 20 hours ago
• hi
2 days 16 hours ago
• optionals for CS
2 days 17 hours ago
• PUBLIC ADMIN.
3 days 17 hours ago
• hi
4 days 58 min ago
• anyone for public administration
4 days 22 hours ago
• compulsary bengali
5 days 35 min ago
• hi i am sudip shukla doing
5 days 22 hours ago
Coaching Centers List

Post YOUR THOUGHTS
NCERT BOOKS Download
PASSPORT & VISA INFO

Online BBC Radio (Hindi)
New forum topics
• About : Indian Police Service (IPS)
• About : Indian Administrative Service (IAS)
• About : Indian Revenue Service (IRS)
• About : Indian Railway Accounts Service (IRAS)
• About : Indian Defense Accounts Service (IDAS)

more
Who's new
• ssudhasara
• samitshukla
• anbarasanvijay
• abithaabbas
• lizu_matta@info...
Who's online
There are currently 6 users and 126 guests online.
Online users
• kamakhyasharma
• amitkumar1005
• harshita saraf
• arukeerthi
• maverickjesse
• SandipHirade
• Jobs
• Quiz
• News & Events
• Papers
• Results
• Study Notes
• Syllabus
• Videos
| HOME | DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS(NEWS & Blogs) | IAS FORUM | Prev. Papers | BOOKS | Topper Interviews
| Imp. Links | Articles | Join Moderators Team | DAILY DOSE..(Good) | Tell Us What do you Want? | Free
Downloads | Why Register? | UPSC RESULTS | ONLINE CHAT!! |
ALERT: This site is optimized for Internet Explorer 7 and Firefox 3. Please update your browser if needed.
Thanks.
Disclaimer: This website is purely informatory in nature and does not take responsibilty for errors or content posted by
community. For UPSC official site visit - www.upsc.gov.in

SBI Clerical

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

SBI Clerical

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

SBI : General Awareness Held on 13-07-2008

1. Oscar Awards are given for the excellence in the field of -

2. Which of the following is not a food crop ?

3. Union Budget always presented first in -

5. Jose Louise has taken over as the prime minister of -

6. The conference of Economic/ Finance Ministers of ASEAN was held recently in -

8.Mahmood Ahmadinejad who was in India on an official visit recently is the -

9. India recently started "Maitree Express" to which of the following destinations ?

14. "World No Tobacco Day" is observed on which of the following days ?

15. Late Vijay Tendulkar who died recently was a famous -

20. Who amongst the following is NOT a Lawn Tennis Player ?

21. The head office of the Stae Bank Of India is located in -

PAPER : SBI CLERK SOLVED PAPER (HELD ON 13-07-2008 SECOND SITTING)

MARKETING APTITUDE / COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

1. Bank MarketinG menas -

2. Proper pricing is needed for -

5. Relationship selling means -

7. Home loans are granted to -

8. Credit cards are used for -

10. What menu is selected to cut , copy, and pest ?

11. The most important or powerful computer in a typical network -

12. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into -

13. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage ?

14. Which of the following is an example of connectivity ?

15. A collection of related file is called a -

PAPER : Bank Clerk Marketing and Money Question 2008

1. In which type of account, banks generally don’t pay interest—

PAPER : SBI CLERK MODEL PAPER ONLINE NUMERICAL ABILITY

3. If 272/3 × 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x isa. -1b. 0c. 1d. 2

10. The number of prime factors of (6)10×(7)17×(55)27 a. 54b. 64c. 81d. 91

82. [(135)2 ÷ 15 ´ 32] ÷ ? = 45 ´ 24

83. (96)2 + (63)2 = (?)2 – (111)2 – 8350

84. 4368 + 2158 – 596 – ? = 3421 + 1262

85. 2172 ÷ ? = 1832 – 956 – 514

86. 666.06 + 66.60 + 0.66 + 6.06 + 6 + 60 = ?

87. 15.594 – 4.312 – 3.517 – 1.689 = ?

88. 205 ´ ? ´ 13 = 33625 + 25005

89. 69 ÷ 3 ´ 0.85 + 14.5 – 3 = ?

90. (10)24 ´ (10)– 21 = ?

93. 12 12 18 45 180 1170 ?

95. 16 14 24 66 256 1270 ?

102. 628.306 + 6.1325 ´ 44.0268 = ?

103. (739% of 383) ÷ 628 = ?

104. (9795 + 7621 + 938) ÷ (541 + 831 + 496) = ?

105. 814296 ´ 36 = ? ´ 96324

107. What is the number of Females working in the HR Department ?

115. One-eighth of a number is 17.25. What will 73% of that number be ?

Answers with Explanation :

81. (B) ? = (8·2% of 365) – (1·75% of 108)

2. WHAT IS THE FULLFORM OF "BRIC" ?

4. WHO IS THE WINNER OF FRENCH OPEN 2008 MEN'S TITLE ?

5. WHO IS THE WINNER OF DLF IPL CRICKET TOUNAMENT 2008 ?

6. NATIONAL HUMAN RIGHTS COMMISSION CHAIRMAN?

7. WHO IS THE INDIAN HOCKEY COACH ?

9. WHO IS THE winner of IIFA Best Actor award 2008 ?

10.WHO IS THE CHIEF OF INDIAN AIR FORCE ?

11.WHO IS THE MISS UNIVERSE INDIA 2008 ?

12.WHO IS THE Miss INDIA WORLD 2008

13.VENUE OF 15TH SAARC SUMMIT 2008?

14.WHO GOT DADA SAHEB PHALKE RATNA AWARD 2008?

15.WHO IS THE WINNER OF WORLD CUP CRICKET 2007 ?

16.WHO IS THE WORLD CUP CRICKET 2007 RUNNER UP ?

17.WHO IS THE WINNER OF FRENCH OPEN 2008 WOMENS TITLE ?