Medical Key

SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONL INSTITUTIONS
EAMCET 2013 MEDICAL PAPER WITH KEY

Date: 10
th
May 2013
BOTANY
1. Study the following lists
List-I List-II
A) Turill I) Tissue culture
B) Goethe II) Pollen grains
C) Salisbury III) Nucleosome
D) Oudet IV) Flower-a- modified stem
V) Stomatal index
The correct match is
1) II, IV, V, III 2) III, I, IV, V 3) V, II, III, IV 4) IV, I, II, III
Ans : 1
Lists-I List-II
A) Apices of underground branches store I) Mentha
Food material
B) Underground branches grow obliquely II) Hydrocotyl
Upward from the axillary buds of nodes
Of the stem below the soil
C) Aerial branches grow obliquely downwards III) Agave
And produce adventitious roots after touching
The soil
D) Weak stemmed plants have a cluster of leaves IV) Stachys
And roots at every node
V) Jasminum
1)IV, I, V, II 2) II, V, I, III 3) III, IV, II, I 4) IV, V, III, II
Ans : 1
3. Identify the wrong statement
1) Cauline leaves are found in Cocos 2) Stipules in Lathyrus are persistent
3) Phyllotaxy in Trillium is alternate 4) Venation in Caulophyllum is parallel
Ans : 3
4. The type of inflorescence in a plant showing polygamous condition and lateral styles is
1) Compound raceme 2) Compound corymb
3) Compound umbel 4) Compound head
Ans : 1
5. Identify the correct combination of characters found in Cucurbita
1) Bicarpellary gynoecium, compound sieve plate, unilocular ovary
2) Free central placentation, synandry, divergent palmately reticulate venation
3) Mesogamy, fusion of epicarp and thalamus to form rind of the fruit, seed germination epigeal
4) Axile placentation, extrafloral nectarines, continuous collenchymatous hypodermal ring in stem
Ans : 3
6. There are 25 flowers in an inflorasence of Allium. Each anther lobe of every stamen contains 60
pollen grains. What is the total number of pollen grains produced in its inflorescence?
1) 1500 2) 4500 3) 9000 4) 18000
Ans : 4
A) Aggregate fruitlets of berries appearing as a single fruit I) Rubus
B) Achenes on the inner margins of receptacle II) Artabotrys
C) Etaerio of drupes III) Ficus
D) Etaerio of follicles IV) Magnolia
E) Etaerio of follicles V) Annona
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1) IV, III, I, II 2) V, III, I, IV 3) II, I, V, IV 4) II, IV, III, V
Ans : 2

8. Triple fusion was discovered in this plant possessing naked bulb, fleshy leaf bases and loculicidal
capsule
1) Allium 2) Lilium 3) Trillium 4) Aloe
Ans : 2
List I List-II
A) Bicarpellary unilocular I) Hyoscyamus
B) Bicarpellary bilocular II) Ulex
C) Multicarpellary multilocular III) Scilla
D) Monocarpellary unilocular IV) Citrus
V) Capsicum
1) V, III, I, II 2) III, V, IV, I 3) IV, I, III, V 4) V, I, IV, II
Ans : 4
10. Study the following and identify the correct pair of characters for Physalis
I) Petiole adnate with the stem II) Thalamus cup-shaped
III) Seeds non-endospermic IV) Flowers hypogynous
The correct answer is
1) II, III 2) I, IV 3) II, IV 4) III, IV
Ans : 2
A) G
2
phase I) Fusion of microtubules to form spindle apparatus
B) Prometaphase II) Production of energy required for spindle formation
C) Anapahse III) Recombination of genetic material
D) Pachytene IV) Contraction of tubulin proteins
V) Reappearance of plasmosome
1) II, I, IV, III 2) V, IV, II, III 3) II, IV, I, V 4) V, I, IV, II
Ans : 1
12. In a DNA fragment, there are 8 turns, with 40% of the bases are cytosine. What would be the total
number of hydrogen bonds present in this DNA fragment ?
1) 60 2) 96 3) 192 4) 224
Ans : 4
13. The cell organelle bounded by single unit membrane which was first reported by Rhodin is involved in
the following reaction:
1) Formation of glycolate from phosphoglycolate
2) Conversion of serine to hydroxypyruvate
3) Conversion of glycine to serine
4) Conversion of glycerate to PGA
Ans : 2
14. Identify the correct pair of statements from the following
I) Pericycle of dicot root parenchymatous but sclerenchymatous in mature monocot root.
II) Pericycle cells of both dicot and monocot roots actively divide to produce lateral roots during
secondary growth
III) All cells of endocermis are passage cells in dicot root
IV) Xylem always produced in a centripetal manner a the root fruit bearing plants
1)I, IV 2) II, III 3) III, IV 4) I, II
Ans : 1
A) Tyloses I) Coenocytic
B) Periderm II) Adaxial epidermis
C) Motor cells III) Complementary cells
D) Laticifers IV) Heart wood
V) Conjunctive tissue
1) IV, I, III, V 2) III, II, I, V 3) II, V, I, III 4) IV, III, II, I
Ans : 4
16. Collocytes which provide mechanical strength to the plants are present in
1) Monocotyledonous stem 2) Dicotyledonous root
3) Dicotyledonous stem 4) Monocotyledonous leaf
Ans : 3
A) A.G. Tansley I) Classified plant communities
B) Warming II) Structure are function of Nature
C) Odum III) Term-Biosphere
D) Reiter IV) Term-Ecology
V) Term- Ecosystem
1) IV, III, V, I 2) V, I, II, IV 3) II, V, I, III 4) IV, III, V, II
Ans : 2
18. Entry of pollen tube into the ovule through chalaza was frist discovered by Treub in a xerophytes.
This plant is associated with a pair of characters given below
I) Unisexual flowers II) Sessile flowers III) Centripetal arrangement of flowers
IV) Bisexual flowers
The correct pair is
1)I,II 2) II, III 3) III, IV 4) II, IV
Ans : 1
19. Assume that blue flower of a plant is dominant character over the white. When a blue flowered plant is
crossed with white flowered plant, the progeny showed 50% of plants with blue flowers and 50% of
plants with white flowers. The genotypes of blue and white parents respectively are
1) BB,bb 2) B,b, bb 3) bb, bb 4) BB, Bb
Ans : 2
20. In F
2
generations, 960 garden pea pods are produced during dihybrid cross due to self pollination of
heterozygous parents. How many pods would be green and inflated?
1) 540 2) 240 3) 180 4) 60
Ans : 1
A) Anucleate I) Spirogyra gametangium
B) Uninulceate II) Rhizopus chlamydospore
C) Multinucleate III) Pteris neck canal cell
D) Binucleate IV) Vitis matured sieve element
V) Akinite of Spirogrya
1)IV,I,II, III 2)I,IV,V, II 3) IV, I,III, II 4) I,III, II, IV
Ans : 1
22. Identify the wrong statement is relation of Funaria
1) Trabeculae connect the innermost layer of the capsule wall with the outer spore sac
2) Stomata are present in the epidermis of capsule
3) Spores are viable for only one year
4) Inner spore sac is one celled in thickness
Ans : 3
23. What is the ratio of mitotic divisions that take place in the microspore of Cycas before and after
liberation from the microsporangium during the development of male gametophyte?
1) 1 :1 2) 1:2 3) 2 : 1 4) 3 : 2
Ans : 1
24. Assertion (A) : Dictyostele is present in rhizome of Pteris vittata
Reason(R): Meristeles are scattered in the rhizome of Pteris vittata
1) Both (A) and ( R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct Explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : 1
25. The Microelement which is an integral part of the electron carrier which transfers electrons from cyt-
b-f complex to PSI is a component of
1) Dinitrogenase 2) Nitrate reductase 3) Cytochrome C0 oxidase 4) IAA oxidase
Ans : 3
List-I List-II
A) Syphilis I) Acetobacter
B) Pathogen of cattle II) Agrobacterium
C) Crown Gall of Apples III) Coryebacterium
D) Diphtheria IV) Mycobacterium
V) Treponema
1) II, IV, V, III 2) III, I, IV, II 3) V,IV,II,III 4) V,III, II, I
Ans : 3
27. What is the total number of amino acids when the capsid of TMV contains 2130 capsomers?
1) 387921 2) 336540 3) 162622 4) 948
Ans : 2

28. Study the following table showing the components of water potential of four cells of an actively
transpiring monocot plant
Identify the four cells as root hair, general cortical cell, passage cell and pericyclic cells of young root
respectively.(Assume symplast flow)
1) A, D, B, C 2) B,C,D,A 3) B,D,C,A 4) B,D,A,C
Ans : 4
29. The number of stomata and epidermal cells in 1 mm
2
area of abaxial surface of the leaves of A,B,C
and D plants are given below.
Identify the two plants having least stomatal index
1)A,B 2) B,C 3) A,D 4) A,C
Ans : 3
30. Identify the correct pair of statements from the following
I) The attraction between two water molecules in Xylem vessels is called adhesion
II) The number of molecules of O2 absorbed is more than the number of CO2 molecules
III) Bacillus mycoides is a nitrifying bacterium
IV) Continuous system of cell walls and intercellular spaces in plant tissue is called Apoplast
1) I,IV 2)II,III 3)III,IV 4)II,IV
Ans : 4
31. Assertion (A) : Azolla is used as a biofertilizer in rich fields
Reason(R): Azolla contains nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria in its root nodules
1)Both (A) and ( R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but( R) is not the correct Explanation of (A)
Ans : 3
32. Identify the role of lectins in the formation of root nodules in legumes
1) Formation of infection thread 2) Formation of shepherds crook
3) Recongnition of compatible Rhizobium by host
4) Formation of peribacteroid membrane
Ans : 3
33. Arginosuccinase is an example to
1) Oxido-reductase 2) Hydrolase 3) Ligase 4) Lyase
Ans : 4
34. Identify the correct pair of statements
I) Lutein is an oxygenated hydrocarbon
II) Inhibitiion of bacteroid respiration by oxygen is referred to as Warburg effect.
III) Triplet code UAA is called Amber
IV) delay of senescence by cytokinins is knonw as Richmond-Lang effect
1 )I,III 2) III, IV 3) II, III 4) I, IV
Ans : 4
35. What is the ratio of ATP requirement for the fixation of 6 molecules of CO
2
in sugarcane and 5
molecules of N
2
in bean ?
1) 3 : 8 2) 5 : 16 3) 3 : 16 4) 5 : 8
Ans : 1
36. What is the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide segment translated from the mRNA base sequence
of AGU-UUU-UCC-GGG-UCG?
a) Phenyl alanine Serine Serine Glycine, Serine
2) Serine Glycine-Serine-Phenyl alanine-Serine
3) Serine Phenyl alanine Serine Glycine Serine
4) Serine- Serine Phenyl alanine-Glycine-Serine
Ans : 3
37. Assertion (A) : Application of cytokinins causes the opening of stomata
Reason(R): Cytokinins induce the influx of Potassium ions into guard cells
1)Both (A) and ( R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and R) are true but( R) is not the correct Explanation of (A)
Ans : 1
38. Arrange the following in sequential order of their usage in recombinant DNA technology
I) Calcium chloride II) DNA ligase III) Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid
IV) Restriction endonuclease
1) IV, III, II, I 2) I, IV, III, II 3) IV, I, II, III 4) I,IV,II, III
Ans : 1
39. Which one of the following SCP organisms lack a membrane bound nucleus?
a) Chaetomium 2) Spirulina 3) Paecilomyces 4) Chlorella
Ans : 2
40. Identify the correct pairs from the following
I) Pusa moti of bajra- Mass selection
II) IR-8 of Rice - Clonal selection
III) TMV-3 of Groundnut Pureline selection
IV) Aruna variety of castor Polyploidy breeding
1) II, III 2) III, IV 3) I, III 4) I, IV
Ans : 3
ZOOLOGY
41. Match the following
List I List II
A) Conjugate vaccine I) Human papilloma virus
B) Toxoid vaccine II) Haemophilus influenza
C) Attend whole agent vaccine III) Bubonic plague
D) Inactivated whole agent vaccine IV) Yellow fever
V) Diphtheria
1) II III I IV 2) I IV V II 3) II V IV III 4) I II III V
Ans : 3
42. In birds, Foramen triosseum is present at the junction of
1) Calvicle, synsacrum, furcula 2) Clavicle, scapula, corocoid
3) Scapula, carina, furcula 4) Scapula, corocoid, synsacrum
Ans : 2
43. Identify the two small apertures present in the auditory capsule of rabbit
1) Fenestra ovalis and fenestra fotunda 2) Foramen magnum and foramen ovale
3) Foramen ovale and fossa ovalis 4) Fenestra ovalis and obturator foramen
Ans : 1
List I List II
A) Founder effect I) Long necked giraffes
B) Bottleneck effect II) Heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia
C) Genetic load III) Pitcairn Island human population
D) Directional selection IV) Polydactylic dwarf individuals
V) Sunflower population in California
1) III IV II I 2) IV II V III 3) II I III IV 4) V IV II III
Ans : 1
45. Of the following statements about Antibodies and antigens, choose the correct set
I) An antibody consists of four identical light(L) chains, and two identical heavy (H) chains
II) The stem Y of antibody is called F
ab
fragment
III) The stem of antibody and lower part of the arms constitute the constant (C ) region.
IV) The portion of the antigen to which and antibody binds is called epitope.
1) I and II 2) II and IV 3) I and III 4) III and IV
Ans : 4
46. Identify the tumour suppressor genes from the following :
1) SRY genes 2) Oncogenes 3) P
53
genes 4) Psedogenes
Ans : 3
47. Choose the wrong statement with reference to Mutation theory:
1) Mutations are subjected to natural selection 2) Mutations are cumulated over generations
3) There are no intermediate stages in the course of evolution
4) Mutants are markedly different from parents.
Ans : 2
48. Which of the following hormones regulate solute reabsorption during urine formation in Rabbit?
1) Angiotensin II and aldosterone 2) Antidiuretic hormone and angiotensin I
3) Angiotensin III and Angiotensin I 4) Nor-epinephrin and Epinephrin
Ans : 1
49. In ECG a prolonged PR interval indicates
1) Coronary artery diseases and rheumatic fever
2) Hyperkalaemia and hypokalaemia
3) Myocardial ischemia and hyperkalaemia 4) Cardiac arrhythmia and hypokalaemia
Ans : 1
50. Identify the organisms that belong to the benthos of lake ecosystem
1) Ranatra and Copepods 2) Gerris and Beetles
3) Chironomid larvae and red annelids 4) Daphnia and Notonecta
Ans : 3
51. Statement ( S ) : After implantation, the uterine myometrium undergoes changes to become decidua
in Rabbit.
Reason ( R ) : The Placenta of rabbit is described as deciduous type.
1) Both ( S ) and ( R ) are true and ( R) is a correct explanation to ( S )
2) Both ( S ) and ( R ) are true and ( R) is not a correct explanation to ( S )
3) ( S ) is correct, but ( R ) is not correct 4) ( S ) is not correct, but ( R ) is correct
Ans : 4
52. Statement ( S ) : Non-disjunction is the failure of paired chromosomes to segregate during the
metaphase of meiotic divisions of gametogenesis.
Reason ( R ) : Non-disjunction results in production of abnormal gametes.
Ans : 4
53. Wax glands in honey bees are present on those segments
1) 1, 2 and 3 abdominal segments of workers 2) 1, 2, 3 and 4 abdominal segments of queens
3) 2, 3 and 4 abdominal segments of queens 4) 2, 3, 4 and 5 abdominal segments of workers
Ans : 4
54. Identify the correct pair
A) Zinc - Essential for tissue repair
B) Cobalt - Essential for formation of leucocytes
C) Iodine - Synthesis of thyroid hormones
D) Manganese - Synthesis of insulin
1) A and B 2) B and C 3) A and D 4) A and C
Ans : 4
55. Identify the correct sequence of stages in the Ross cycle of plasmodium
A) Sporocyst B) Ookinete C) Sporozoites D) Zygote E) Oocyst
1) D B E A C 2) D B A E C
3) C A E B D 4) D E B A C
Ans : 1
56 What is the phenotype of the offspring born to a woman with normal vision (homozygous) and a
colour blind man ?
1) All the sons are colour blind and the daughters are with normal vision
2) All the sons are with normal vision and the daughters are colour blind
3) All the sons and daughters are with normal vision
4) All the sons and daughters are colour blind
Ans : 3
List I List II
A) Georges Cuvier I) Homeostasis
B) Claude Bernard II) Homology
C) Louis de Buffon III) Comparative Anatomy
D) Richard Owen IV) System of Nomenclature
V) Natural History
1) III II I IV 2) I III II V 3) III I V II 4) II I III V
Ans : 3
58. Both hepatic and renal portal systems are found in
1) Cyclostomes, Fishes, Amphibians 2) Fishes, Amphibians, Reptiles
3) Amphibians, Reptiles, Mammals 4) Reptiles, Aves, Mammals
Ans : 2
59. Unloading of oxygen from haemoglobin is enhanced under the following conditions
1) Decrease in pH, decrease in CO
2
, increase in temperature
2) Increase in pH, decrease in CO
2
, decrease in temperature
3) Increase in pH, increase in CO
2
, decrease in temperature
4) Decrease in pH, increase in CO
2
, increase in temperature
Ans : 4
60. Craspedote medusa is present in the following pair
1) Physalia and Halistemma 2) Aurelia and Rhizostoma
3) Pennatula and Aurelia 4) Rhizostoma and Corallium
Ans : 1
61. Indentify the Nematodes which have various shapes of amphids but without phasmids
1) Ascaris and Ancylostoma 2) Wuchereria and Ascaris
2) Trichinella and Greeffiella 4) Enterobius and Ancylostoma
Ans : 3
62. The part of Adrenal cortex which secrets cortisol is
1) Zona pellucida 2) Zona faciculata 3) Zona glomerulosa 4) Zona reticularis
Ans : 2
63. In the transverse section of pheretima, identify the correct sequence of body wall layers from outer to
inner side
A) Circular muscles B) Parietal peritoneum C) Epidermis D) Cuticle
E) Longitudinal muscles
1) D B A E C 2) C B E A D
3) D C E A B 4) D C A E B
Ans : 4
64. Statement ( S ) : In gastropods, due to torsion mantle cavity is placed anteriorly behind and above the
head
Reason ( R ) : During larval state, visceral mass, shell and mantle cavity are twisted upto 180 counter
clock wise with respect to the head and foot.
Ans : 1
65. Arrange the following in the ascending order of their number per cubic millimeter, present in the bllod.
A) Basophils B) Lymphocytes C) Eosinophils D) Neutrophils
E) Monocytes
1) A C E B D 2) A C B D E
3) C A D E A 4) C A D B E
Ans : 1
66. In Eukaryotes, which of the following genes synthetize heterogenous nuclear RNA (hn RNA) ?
1) Z genes 2) Holandric genes 3) Split genes 4) A gene
Ans : 3
67. Match the correct pairs in Lits I and List II with reference to pheretima
List I List II
A) Pharyngela Nephridia I) 14
th
segment
B) Stomach II) 18
th
segment
C) Anterior loops III) 9
th
to 14
th
segments
D) Male genital apertures IV) 4
th
, 5
th
and 6
th
segments
V) 10
th
and 11
th
segments
1) IV III V II 2) IV I V III 3) I III II V 4) V IV III I
Ans : 1
List I List II
A) Simple squamous epithelium I) Ureters
B) Simple cuboidal epithelium II) Epididymis
C) Non-ciliated simple columnar epithelium III) Lining of alveoli of lungs
D) Transistional epithelium IV) Lining of Thyroid vesicles
E) Psedostratified non-ciliated columnar V) Mucosa of stomach and intestine
epithelim
A B C D E A B C D E
1) II IV III V I 2) III IV V I II
A B C D E A B C D E
3) I II IV III V 4) V III II IV I
Ans : 2
69. What is the duration of one cardiac cycle in man when the heart beats for 75 times per minute?
1) 0.5 seconds 2) 0.3 seconds 3) 0.4 seconds 4) 0.8 seconds
Ans : 4
70. Indentify the correct sequence of events with reference to conjugation of vorticella
A) Amphimixis B) Disappearence of macronucleus
C) Attachement of the conjugants D) Post conjugation fission
E) Prezygotic nuclear divisions F) Postzygotic nuclear divisions
1) F D A E B C 2) C B A E D F
3) C B E A F D 4) F A D B C E
Ans : 3
71. In amoeboid movement, according to Goldacre and Lorsch cytoplasm solates due to
1) Unfolding of protein molecules 2) Folding of protein molecules
3) Sliding of actin molecules 4) Sliding of myosin molecules
Ans : 2
72. Which one of the branches of cranial nerves is not related to vagus?
1) Pneumogastric 2) Chorda tympani 3) Cardiac depressor 4) Recurrent laryngeal
Ans : 2
73. Match the following with reference to Taenia Solium
List I List-II
A) Mehilis glands I) Tegument formation
B) Vitelline gland II) Osmoregulation and excretion
C) Mesenchymal cells III) Lubricate passage of capsule into uterus
D) Flame cells IV) Secretion of embryophore
V) Capsule formation around zygote
1) IV, III, I, II 2) III, V, I, III 3) III, V, II, IV 4) V, I, II, IV
Ans : 2
74. In the life cycle of Wuchereriae, 3
rd
and 4
th
moults of microfilaria take place in
1) Thoracic muscles of mosquito 2) Lymph vessels of man
3) Stomach of mosquito 4) Salivary glands of mosquito
Ans : 2
75. Which one of the following became an endangered species as a result of extinction of Rahus
cucullatus?
1) Bacillus thuringiensis 2) Sideroxylon grandiflorum
3) Chrysanthemum 4) Cinchona
Ans : 2
76. What is the resting membrane potential of nerve fibre ?
1) 45 mV 2) + 75 mV 3) + 45 mV 4) -70 mV
Ans : 4
77. Identify the correct combinations
A) Housefly Labellum Pseudotrachea
B) Moth-Labellum Duttons Membrane
C) Butterfly 1
st
M axillae Galea
D) Tsetsefly Rostrum Haustellum
1) B & D 2) A & B 3) A & C 4) B & C
Ans : 3
78. Which of the following character is not related to Indian chain viper?
1) Head is triangular covered by small scales
2) Largest black rings occur in three rows in the dorsal surface of the body
3) Subcandals are present in two rows
4) An arrow mark
( )
| is present on the head
Ans : 4
79. Arrange the ganglia of Autonomous nervous system of Cockroach in correct sequence from anterior to
posterior end
A) Frontal ganglion B) Proventricular ganglion
C) Hypocerebral ganglion D) Visceral ganglion
1) B-D-A-C 2) A-C-D-B 3) A-D-C-B 4) B-C-D-A
Ans : 2
80. Identify the typical dental formula of a Methatherian
1) I 4/5 c/1/ pm 3/3 m 4/4 2) I 5/4 c 1/1 pm 3/3 m 4/4
3) I 3/3 c1/1 pm 4/4 m 3/3 4) I 4/3 c 1/1 pm 3/3 m 4/4
Ans : 2
PHYSICS
81. In the equation
B
1 y
=
P k T
| |
|
\ .
, where P is the pressure . Y is the distance,
B
k is Boltzmann constant
and T is the temperature. Dimension of are
1)
0 0 0
M LT 2)

-1 1 2
M LT 3)
0 2 0
M LT 4)
1 1 2
M L T

Ans : 3
82. A person reaches a point directly opposite on the other bank of a river. The velocity of the water in the
river is 4 ms
-1
and the velocity of the person in still water is 5 ms
-1
. If the width in the river is 84.6 m,
time taken to cross the river in seconds is
1) 84.6 2) 28.2 3) 9.4 4) 2
Ans : 2
83. A body is thrown vertically upward from a point A 125 m above the ground .It goes up to a
maximum height of 250 m above the ground and passes through A on its downward journey. The
velocity of the body when it is at a height of 70 m above the ground is (g = 10 ms
-2
)
1) 20 ms
-1=
2) 50 ms
-1
3) 60 ms
-1
4) 80 ms
-1

Ans : 3
84. A body of mass 300 kg is moved through 10 m along a smooth inclined plane of angle 30
0
. The work
done in moving in joules is (g = 9.8 ms
-2
)
1) 2450 2) 4900 3) 9800 4) 14,700
Ans : 4
85. A balloon starting from rest ascends vertically with uniform acceleration to a height of 100m in 10 sec.
The force on the bottom of the balloon by a mass of 50kg is (g = 10 ms
-2
)
1) 400 N 2) 100 N 3) 300 N 4) 600 N
Ans : 4
86. Three particles, each of mass m, are placed at the vertices of a right angled triangle as shown in figure.
The position vector of the centre of mass of the system is (O is the origin and , , i j k

are unit vectors)
X
Y
a
b
m
A
B
O
m
m

1)
( )
1
3
ai b j +

2)
( )
1
3
ai b j

3)
( )
2
3
ai b j +

4)
( )
2
3
ai b j

Ans : 1
87. A ball of mass m moving with a horizontal velocity v strikes the bob of a pendulum at rest. Mass of
the bob of the pendulum is also m . During this collision the ball sticks with the bob of the
pendulum. The height to which the combined mass rises (g = acceleration due to gravity)
1)
2
2g
v
2)
2
4g
v
3)
2
8g
v
4)
2
g
v

Ans : 3
88. A 3 kg block is placed over a 10 kg block and both are placed on a smooth horizontal surface. The
coefficient of friction between the block is 0.2. If a horizontal force of 20 N is applied to 3 kg block,
accelerations of the two blocks in ms
-2
are ( g = 10 ms
-2
)
10 kg
3 kg 20 N
0.2 =

1)
14
, 0.6
3
2)
13
, 0.6
4
3)
14
, 3
3
4)
13
, 3
4

Ans : 1
89. A stone tied to a rope is rotated in a vertical circle with uniform speed. If the difference between the
maximum and minimum tensions in the rope is 20 N, mass of the stone in kg is (g = 10 ms
-2
)
1) 0.5 2) 0.75 3) 1.0 4) 1.5
Ans : 3
90. A particle mass m is attached to a thin uniform rod of length a at a distance of
a
4
from the mid
point C as shown in the figure. The mass of the rod is 4m. The moment of inertia of the combined
system about an axis passing through O and perpendicular to the rod is
2
a
4
a
O
C
Mass 'm'

1)
2
64
48
ma 2)
2
91
48
ma 3)
2
27
48
ma 4)
2
51
48
ma
Ans : 2
91. If earth were to rotate on its own axis such that the weight of a person at the equatr becomes half the
weight at the poles, then its time period of rotation is (g = acceleration due to gravity near the poles
and R is the radius of earth) Ignore equatorial bulge)
1) 2
R
g
t 2)
2
2
R
g
t 3) 2
2
R
g
t 4) 2
3
R
g
t
Ans : 2
92. A particle is simple harmonic motion along a straight line. At displacements r
1
and r
2
from its mean
position the velocity are v
1
and v
2
. The time period of the particle is
1)
1/ 2
2 2
2 1
2 2
1 2
2
r r
v v
t
(

2)
1/ 2
2 2
2 1
2 2
2 1
2
r r
v v
t
(

3)
1/ 2
2 2
1 2
2 2
2 1
2
v v
r r
t
(

4)
1/ 2
2 2
1 2
2 2
2 1
1
2
v v
r r t
(

Ans : 1
93. Force constants of two wires A and B oft eh same material are K and 2K respectively. If the two wires
are stretched equally, then the ratio of work done in stretching
A
B
W
W
| |
|
\ .
is
1) 2) 1/3 3) 4) 3/2
Ans : 3
94. Water rises in a capillary tube upto a height of 10 cm whereas mercury depresses in it by 3.42 cm. If
the angle of contact and density of mercury are 135
0
and 13.6 gm/cc respectively, then the ratio of the
surface tension of water and mercury will be nearly
1) 2 : 13 2) 13 : 2 3) 5 : 16 4 ) 16 : 5
Ans : 1
95. Two capillary tubes of length in the ratio 2 : 1 and radii in the ratio 1 : 2 are connected in series.
Assume the flow of the liquid through the tube is steady. Then the ratio of pressure difference across
the tubes is
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 8 3) 1 : 16 4) 32: 1
Ans : 4
96. When a liquid is heated in a glass vessel, its coefficient of apparent expansion is 1.03 x 10
-3
/
0
C. When
the same liquid is heated in a copper vessel, its coefficient of apparent expansion is
3
1.006 10 C
.
If the coefficient of linear expansion of copper is
6
17 10 C
, then the coefficient of linear

expansion of glass is
1)
4
10 10 C
2)
4
8.5 10 C
3)
6
9 10 C
4)
4
27 10 C

Ans : 3
97. A horizontal uniform tube, open at both ends is containing a liquid of certain length at some
temperature. When the temperature is changed, the length of the liquid in the tube is not changed. If
is the coefficient of linear expansion of the material of the tube and is the coefficient of
volume expansion of the liquid, then
1) = 2) 2 = 3) 3 = 4) 4 =
Ans : 2
98. Match the following from Table A, in the case of gases, with those in Table B
Table A Table B
a) Work done in isobaric process d)
2
1
log
e
V
nR
V
| |
|
\ .

b) Work done in isothermal process e) ( )
2 1
P V V
c) Work done in adiabatic process f)
( )
1 2
1
nR T T

g) Zero
1) , , a g b h c e 2) , , a c b d c f
3) , , a h b g c e 4) , , a e b d c g
Ans : 2
99. Two cylinders A and B fitted with pistons contain equal amounts of an ideal diatomic gas at 300K.
Piston of A is free to move and piston of B is fixed. Same amount of heat is given to the gases in the
two cylinders. Temperature of the gas in cylinder A increases by 30K. Then, increase in temperature
of the gas in the cylinder B is ( = 1.4 for diatomic gas)
1) 42 K 2) 24 K c) 36 K 4) 54 K
Ans : 1
100. The temperatures at the two ends A and B of a rod of length 25cm and circular cross section are
100 C and 0 C respectively. In the steady state the temperature at a point 10cm from the end B is
(Ignore loss of heat from curved surface of the rod)
1) 40 C 2) 60 C 3) 80 C 4) 90 C
Ans : 1
101. A wire of length L and linear density m is stretched by a force T and the frequency is
1
n . Another
wire of the same material of length 2L an same linear density is stretched by a force 9T and its
frequency is
2
n . Value of ( )
2 1
n n is
1) 1 : 2 2) 4 : 1 3) 1 : 3 4) 3 : 2
Ans : 4
102. A pipe closed at one end and open at the other end resonates with a sound of frequency 135Hz and
also with 1675 Hz, but not at any other frequency intermediate between these two. Then, the frequency
of the fundamental note of the pipe is
1) 30 Hz 2) 15 Hz 3) 60 Hz 4) 7.5 Hz
Ans : 2
103. A small angled prism of refractive index 1.4 is combined with another small angled prism of refractive
index 1.6 to produce dispersion without deviation. If the angle of first prism is 6 , the angle of the
second prism is
1) 2 2) 8 3) 6 4) 4
Ans : 4
104. The magnifying power of the astronomical telescope for normal adjustment is 50. The focal length of
the eye piece is 2cm. The required length of the telescope for normal adjustment is
1) 25 cm 2) 102 cm 3) 100 cm 4) 98 cm
Ans : 2
105. Light of wavelength from a point source falls on a small circular obstacle of diameter d. Dark and
bright circular rings around a central bright spot are formed on a screen beyond the obstacle. The
distance between the screen and obstacle is D. Then, the condition for the formation of rings is
1)
4
D
~ 2)
4
d
D
~ 3)
2
4
d
D
~ 4)
2
d
D
~
Ans : 3
106. A bar magnet of moment of inertia I is vibrated in a magnetic field of induction
4
0.4 10 T
. The time
period of vibration is 12 sec. The magnetic moment of the magnet is
2
120Am . The moment of inertia
of the magnet is (in
2
kgm ) approximately
1)
2
1728 10
2)
4
172.8 10
3)
2 2
2.1 10
4)
2
1.57 10

Ans : 2
107. A short magnet of magnetic moment M, is placed on a straight line. The ratio of magnetic induction
fields
1 2 3
B , B , B values on this line at points which are at distances 30cm, 60cm and 90cm
respectively from the centre of the magnet is
1) 1 : 2 : 3 2) 27 : 3.37 : 1 3) 37.3 : 1 : 27 4) 27 : 8 : 3.37
Ans : 2
108. Two capacitors having capacitances
1
C and
2
C are charged with 120V and 200V batteries
respectively. When they are connected in parallel now, it is found that the potential on each one of
them is zero. Then
1)
1 2
3 5 C C = 2)
1 2
5 3 C C = 3)
1 2
8 5 C C = 4)
1 2
9 5 C C =
Ans : 1
109. A parallel plate capacitor with a dielectric slab of dielectric constant 3 filling the space between the
plates is charged to a potential V. The battery is then disconnected and the dielectric slab is withdrawn.
It is then replaced by another dielectric slab of dielectric constant 2. If the energies stored in the
capacitor before and after the dielectric slab is changed are
1
E and
2
E , then
1 2
E E is
1)
3
2
2)
9
5
3)
4
9
4)
2
3

Ans : 4
110. Copper and carbon wires are connected in series and the combined resistor is kept at 0 C . Assuming
the combined resistance does not vary with temperature, the ratio of the resistances of carbon and
copper wires at 0 C is (Temperature coefficients of resistivity of copper and carbon respectively are
3
4 10 C
and
3
0.5 10 C
)
1) 2 2) 4 3) 8 4) 6
Ans : 3
111. The emf of a cell E is 15V as shown in the figure with an internal resistance of 0.5O. Then the value
of the current drawn from the cell is
2O
1O
7O
0.5O
8O
10O
15V

1) 1A 2) 3A 3) 2A 4) 5A
Ans : 1
112. When the temperature difference between the junctions of a given thermocouple is 120 C , the thermo
emf is 30mV. The temperature of hot junction is decreased by 20 C and cold junctions temperature
is increased by 6 C . The percentage decrease in thermo emf is (assume thermo emf is directly
proportional to the temperature difference)
1) 21.6 2) 43 3) 2.16 4) 20.4
Ans : 1
113. A 0.01 H inductor and 3ohm resistance are connected in series with a 220 V, 50 Hz AC source.
The phase difference between the current and emf is
1)
4
radians 2)
2
radians 3)
6
radians 4)
3
radians
Ans : 3
114. An electron beam in a TV picture tube is accelerated through a potential difference of V volts. It
passes through a region of transverse magnetic induction field (B) and follows a circular orbit of
radius r. The induced magnetic field (B) is
1)
2mV
er
2)
2
2mV
er
3)
2mV
r
4)
2mVr
e

Ans : 2
115. In Moseleys law
( ) v a z b = , the values of the screening constant for K series and L series of
X rays are respectively
1) 2, 4 2) 1, 6.4 3) 1, 4 4) 4, 6
Ans : 2
116. The
K - X ray of Molybdenum has a wavelength of

12
71 10 m
. If the energy of a Molybdenum

atom with K electron removed is 23.32 KeV, then the energy of Molybdenum atom when an L
electron removed is
( )
7
12.42 10 hc eV
=
1) 5.82 KeV 2) 17.5 KeV 3) 40.82 KeV 4) 23.32 KeV
Ans : 1
117. The purpose of using heavy water in nuclear reactor is
1) to decrease the energy of fast neutrons to the thermal energy
2) to increase the energy released in nuclear fission
3) to cool the reactor at room temperature
4) to make the dynamo blades to work well
Ans : 1
118. A
235
U reactor generates power at a rate of P producing
18
2 10 fissions per second. The energy
released per fission is 185 MeV. The value of P is
1) 370 Megawatts 2) 59.2 Megawatts
3)
8
370 10 Megawatts 4) 0.59 Megawatts
Ans : 2
119. A pnp transistor is used in common emitter mode in an amplifier circuit. When base current is changed
by an amount
B
I , the collector current changes by 4mA. If the current amplification factor is 60,
then the value of
B
I A is
1) 60A 2) 15A 3) 240 mA 4) 66.6A
Ans : 4
120. The necessary condition in making of a junction transistor (E emitter, B base and C collector)
1) E and B are heavily doped and C is lightly doped
2) E and B are lightly doped and C is heavily doped
3) E is heavily doped, B is thin and lightly doped and C is moderately doped
4) E and C are lightly doped and B is thick and heavily doped
Ans : 3
CHEMISTRY
121. The energy required to overcome the attractive forces on the electrons, w, of some metals is listed
below. The number of metals showing photoelectric effect when light of 300nm wavelength falls on it
is
1)
4 2) 6 3) 8 4) 5
Ans : 1

122. If the uncertainity in velocity of a moving object is
6 1
1.0 10 ms

and the uncertainity in its position
is 58m, the mass of this object is approximately equal to that of
( )
34
6.626 10 h Js
=
1) Electron 2) Helium 3) Deuterium 4) Lithium
Ans : 1
123. The correct order of atomic radius of Li, Be and B is
1) Li > Be > B 2) B > Be > Li 3) B > Li > Be 4) Li > B > Be
Ans : 1
124. The number of and bonds present in acetylene are respectively
1) 2, 3 2) 3, 2 3) 3, 3 34) 2, 2
Ans : 2
125. The total number of antibonding electrons in N
2
and O
2
molecules respectively is
1) 4, 8 2) 4, 6 3) 6, 8 4) 5, 8
Ans : 2
126. Consider the following statements for the reaction

3 2 2
5 6 3 6 3 KIO KI HCl I KCl H O + + + +
1) I
is reduced to
2
I 2)
3
IO
is oxidized to
2
I
3)
3
IO
is reduced to
2
I
4) Oxidation number of I increases from -1 (in KI) to zero (in
2
I )
The correct statements are
1) 1, 3 and 4 2) 1, 2 and 4 3) 3 and 4 4) 1 and 4
Ans : 3
127. Two gases of molecular masses M
A

and M
B
are at temperatures T
A
and T
B
respectively. If
A A B A
T M T M = , which one of the following properties has the same value for both the gases ?
1) Density 2) Pressure 3) Kinetic energy 4) RMS velocity
Ans : 4
128. The weight in gm, of the non volatile solute urea ( )
2 2
NH CONH to be dissolved in 100g of water in
order to decrease its vapour pressure by 1.8% is
1) 0.6 2) 6.0 3) 0.3 4) 3.0
Ans : 2
129. The boiling point of a solution containing 68.4g of sucrose (molar mass =
1
342gmol
) in 100g of
water is
1) 100.02 C 2) 98.98 C 3) 101.02 C 4) 100.512 C
Ans : 3
130. A certain quantity of electricity is passed through aqueous
( )
2 4
3
Al SO and
4
CuSO solutions
connected in series. 0.09g of Al is deposited on cathode during electrolysis. The amount of copper
deposited on cathode in grams is
1) 3.18 2) 0.318 3) 31.8 4) 0.636
Ans : 2
131. Molar conductivities of
2 2 4
BaCl , H SO and HCl at infinite dilution are
1 2
X , X and
3
X respectively.
Molar conductance of
4
BaSO at infinite dilution is
1)
( )
1 2 3
2
X X X +
2)
( )
1 2 3
2
2
X X X +
3)
1 2 3
X X X + 4)
1 2 3
2 X X X +
Ans : 4
132. Atoms of an element A occupy
2
3
tetrahedral voids in the hexagonal close packed (hcp) unit cell
lattice formed by the element B. The formula of the compound formed by A and B is
1)
2 3
A B 2)
2
A B 3)
2
AB 4)
4 3
A B
Ans : 4
133. The temperature coefficient of a reaction is 2.5. If its rate constant at
1
T K is
3 1
2.5 10 s

, the rate
constant at
2
T K in
1
s
is : ( )
2 1
T T >
1)
2
6.25 10
2)
3
1.0 10
3)
3
6.25 10
4)
2
1.0 10

Ans : 3
134. For the equilibrium
( ) ( ) ( )
; 0.82atm
P g g g
A B C K + = at 27 C . At the same temperatures its
C
K
in
1
mollit
is :
( )
1 1
0.082lit atmmol K R

=
1) 0.33 2) 0.033 3) 3.3 4) 1.0
Ans : 2
135. If the solubility product of
2
MgF at a certain temperature is
10
1.08 10
, its
solubility in
1
mol l
is
1)
4
3.0 10
2)
5
1.04 10
3)
4
7.3 10
4)
5
3.0 10

Ans : 1
136. In the reaction
( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2 5
4 2 , 111
g g g
NO O N O H kJ + A = if
( )
2 5 s
N O is formed instead of
( )
2 5 g
N O , the H A value in kJ is (
sublimation
H A for
1
2 5
54 mol N O kJ

= )
1) 219 2) 165 3) 57 4) + 219
Ans : 1
137. In which of the following reactions,
2 2
H O acts as oxidizing agent ?
1)
2 2 2 3 2
KNO H O KNO H O + + 2)
2 2 2 2
2 Cl H O KCl O + +
3)
2 2 2 2 2
2 Ag O H O Ag H O O + + + 4)
2 2 2 2 2
2 2 NaOH H O Na O H O + +
Ans : 1
138. Zinc reacts with hot and concentrated NaOH and forms
1)
2
O 2)
2
H 3)
( )
2
2
Zn OH Na O + 4) ZnO
Ans : 2
139. Orange red coloured monoxide is
1)
2
Li O 2)
2
K O 3)
2
Na O 4)
2
Cs O
Ans : 4
140. Observe the following statements :
1)
3 3
H BO is used as antiseptic 2) In
2 6
B H , each boron is
2
sp hybridized
3) Aqueous solution of borax is alkaline in nature
1) 1 and 2 2) 2 and 3 3) 1, 2 and 3 4) 1 and 3
Ans : 4
141. Assertion (A) :
4
GeF and
4
SiCl act as Lewis bases
Reason (R) : Ge and Si have d orbitals to accept electrons
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is True but R is False. 4) R is True but A is False.
Ans : 4
1) The solubility of group V hydrides in water decreases from
3
NH to
3
BiH
2) Phosphorous does not exhibit allotropy
3) The stability of group V hydrides decreases from
3
NH to
3
BiH
The correct statement(s) is/are
1) 1, 2 and 3 2) 1 and 3 3) 2 4) 1 and 2
Ans : 2
143. Sodium thiosulphate reacts with dil HCl to form NaCl,
2
H O, X and Y. X reacts with
2
Na S to form
2 2 3
Na S O and Y. Which one of the following is Y ?
1) S 2)
2
H S 3)
2
SO 4)
2 4
H SO
Ans : 1
144. Fluorine reacts with
4
KHSO to form HF and X. Which one of the following is X ?
1)
2
H S 2)
3
SO 3)
2 4
K SO 4)
2 2 8
K S O
Ans : 4
145. Identify the correct set
Molecule Hybridisation Shape Number of lone pairs of electrons
1)
2
XeF
3
sp d linear 2
2)
4
XeO
3 2
sp d pyramidal 1
3)
3
XeO
3
sp pyramidal 1
4)
4
XeF
3 2
sp d planar 3
Ans : 3
1) Lanthanides actively participate in chemical reactions
2) The basic nature of hydroxides of lanthanides increases from
( )
3
La OH to
( )
3
Lu OH
3) Lanthanides do not form coordinate compounds as readily as d block metals
1) 1 and 2 2) 2 and 3 3) 1, 2 and 3 4) 1 and 3
Ans : 4
147. During the manufacture of cast iron, the slag ( )
3
CaSiO is formed in
1) Zone of heat absorption 2) Zone of reduction only
3) Zone of fusion only 4) Zone of reduction and zone of fusion
Ans : 1
148. Match the following :
List I List II
A) pH of unpolluted rain water I)
2
H C CH CHO =
B) Acid rain II) 5.6
C) Acrolein III)
2 2
, NO CO
D) Freon IV)
2 2
CF Cl
V)
2
CaOCl
A B C D A B C D
1) II III I IV 2) II I III IV
3) I II III IV 4) III II IV I
Ans : 1
149. Carbon and hydrogen in an organic compound are detected as __________
1)
( )
3
2
, CaCO Cu OH 2)
3 3
, CaHCO CaCO
3)
3 4 2
, .5 CaHCO CuSO H O 4)
3 4 2
, .5 CaCO CuSO H O
Ans : 4
150. IUPAC name of is
1) 3 Ethyl - 4, 4 - dimethyl hexane 2) 2 Methyl - 2, 3 - diethyl pentane
3) 4 Ethyl 3, 3 dimethyl hexane 4) 3, 4 Diethyl 4 methyl pentane
Ans : 3
151. Which one of the following causes cancer ?
1) Cyclohexane 2) 1, 2 Benzpyrene 3) n Hexane 4) 2 Butene
Ans : 2
152. The correct Fischer projection formula of (2R, 3R) 2, 3 dihydroxy butanoic acid is
1) 2) 3) 4)

H OH
HO H
2
CO H
3
CH

H OH
H
2
CO H
3
CH
OH

H OH
HO H
2
CO H
3
CH

H
HO H
2
CO H
3
CH
HO

Ans : 2
153. Which one of the following is chloropicrin ?
1)
2 2
CHCl CHCl 2)
3
CCl CCO 3)
( )
3 3
2
CCl C CH
OH
4)
3 2
CCl NO
Ans : 4
154. The pair of chemicals used as food for yeast in the fermentation of molasses is
1)
2 4 3 4
, Na SO Na PO 2)
( )
4 4 3 4
2
, NH SO Na PO
3)
( ) ( )
4 4 4 4
2 3
, NH SO NH PO 4)
( )
2 4 4 4
3
, Na SO NH PO
Ans : 3
155. Which one of the following reactions is not correct ?
1)
CaCl
2
2 2 2 2 3
H
2 CH CH PdCl H O CH CHO Pd HCl
= + + + +
2)
( ) ( )
3 3 3
2 2
2 2 HCOO Ca H CCOO Ca CH CHO CaCO
A
+ +
3)
( )
Cu 300C
3 3 3 3 2
CH CH OH CH CH COCH H +
4)
Ag 300C
3 2 3 2
CH CH OH CH CHO H +
Ans : 1
156. Which one of the following reactions is not correct ?
1)
Ca , pressure
3 3
CH OH CO CH COOH +
2)
( ) Mn OAc air
2
3 2 3
1
2
CH CHO O CH COOH +
3)
Micoderma aceti
3 2 2 3 2
CH CH OH O CH COOH H O + +
4)
( )
( )
( )
1 CO
2
3 3
2 H O
2
CH MgBr CH COOH Mg OH Br
+
Ans : 1
157. The order of basic strength of
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
6 5 2 2 5 2 2 5
2
1 , 2 , 3 C H NH C H NH C H NH and ( )
3
4 NH is
1) 3 < 2 < 4 < 1 2) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3 3) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4 4) 4 < 2 < 3 < 1
Ans : 2
158. Identify the pair of condensation polymers from the following :
1) Neoprene and PVP 2) Terylene and Nylon 6, 6
3) PVC and Polysterene 4) Polyvinylether and Polyisobutene
Ans : 2
159.
HNO HI
3
X Glucose Y
What are X and Y ?
X Y
1) n Hexane Saccharic acid
2) n Hexane Gluconic acid
3) Gluconic acid Saccharic acid
4) n Hexanol Saccharic acid
Ans : 1
160. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
1) Chloroxylenol is tranquilizer 2) Sucralose is an antiseptic
3) Lactic acid is an antimicrobial 4) Seconal is an antipyretic
Ans : 3

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SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONL INSTITUTIONS

EAMCET 2013 MEDICAL PAPER WITH KEY

, then the coefficient of linear

K - X ray of Molybdenum has a wavelength of

. If the energy of a Molybdenum

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