66 66

FFFFFFFFLLLLLYYYYIINNNGGG OOOOPSS
AVQUIZ
66
F
S
A

J
U
L
Y

A
U
G

0
9
1. You are tracking VFR by day to a towered aerodrome at an
assigned level and, with 8nm to run, you are cleared to make a
visual approach. This means that you may leave the previously
assigned level and descend
(a) to circuit height a at any time.
(b) to circuit heighhhht at any time as long as the aerodrome is
in sight.
(c) below the lowest safe altitude only when the aircraft is
within 3nm of the aerodrome and the aerodrome is in sight.
(d) to an altitude not below that permissible for VFR ight
(CAR157) until within 5nm from the aerodrome.
2. A VFR aircraft may be authorised to make a visual approach
when at a distance from the aerodrome of up to
(a) 3nm.
(b) 5nm.
(c) 10nm.
(d) 30nm.
3. Satellites identify the new 406/121.5 MHz ELTs/PLBs by means
of the unique transmitted code which is registered against a
particular aircraft. This code is referred to as
(a) the UNI and consists of 15 digits.
(b) the UNI and consists of 10 digits.
(c) the serial number, and has at least 10 digits.
(d) the serial number or UNI, and has 15 digits.
4. The above ELTs may be registered online or the aircraft details
may be changed at www.
(a) casa.gov.au
(b) airservicesaustralia.com
(c) beacons.amsa.gov.au
(d) amsa.gov.au
5. In a METAR for place A, the gures quoted immediately before
the QNH read 9/8, and at place B they read 10/8. This means
that, at place A, the dry bulb is 9C and the
(a) dew point is 8C and fog is closer to forming at A than B.
(b) w wet bulb is 8C and fog is closer to forming at A than B.
(c) dew point is 8C and fog is closer to forming at B than A.
(d) wet bulb is 8C and fog is closer to forming at B than A.
6. In class G airspace, the minimum visibility for a helicopter,
provided certain conditions are complied w dddddd ith, is
(a) 700m
(b) 800m
(c) 1000m
(d) 3000m
7. Unless requested by the pilot, a take-off clearance will not be
issued to a helicopter when the tail-wind component exceeds
(a) 3kt.
(b) 4kt.
(c) 5kt.
(d) 8kt.
8. At altitudes between A050 and A100, the range of a VOR, for
planning purposes, unless otherwise published in ERSA, is
(a) 60nm.
(b) 90nm.
(c) 120nm.
(d) 150nm.
9. If a single-engine aircraft is in cruise with the wings level, and
it is noticed that the aircraft is yawing to the left, the skid ball
(a) may be either side depending on the direction of f
propeller rotation.
(b) will not indicate unbalanced ight.
(c) will be displaced to the right.
(d) will be displaced to the left.
10. A TAF for a location in the EST time zone includes the
following: TEMPO 0710/0714 2000 SHSN This forecasts,
between the times indicated,
(a) showers and snow of expected duration 30 to 60 minutes.
(b) showers of snow of expected duration 30 to 60 minutes.
(c) showers and snow of expected duration less than 30 minutes.
(d) showers of snow of expected duration less than 30 minutes.
C
H
A
N
G
E

M
E

67
C
H
A
N
G
E

M
E

67
M AI N T E N AN C E
Q
U
I
Z
67
1. Operational tests of 406 ELTs should be limited to
(a) 5 secs maximum and preferably w y ithin 5 m mminutes either side
of the hour.
(b) 5 secs maximum, and preferably within h the rst 5 mins of
the hour, and only after notifying AusSAR.
(c) 10 secs maximum and there is no preference as to times.
(d) 10 secs maximum and no AusSar notication is required.
2. An articial horizon with 360 degrees of roll freedom has
(a) a third gimbal pivoted fore and aft.
(b) a third gimbal pivoted laterally.
(c) the outer gimbal pivoted at the rear only.
(d) the outer gimbal pivoted at the front only.
3. The purpose of the dump valve in a pressurised aircraft is to
(a) equalise cabin pressure with the ambient pressure.
(b) modulate the outow to control cabin altitude.
(c) increase cabin inow to rapidly raise the cabin altitude.
(d) increase cabin outow to rapidly raise the cabin altitude.
4. A A coo c ling system that uses the evaporation of a liquid to
absorb heat is termed
(a) an air cycle machine.
(b) a vapour cycle machine.
(c) an evaporative cooler.
(d (d) a thermal expansion valve.
5. 5 In a vapour cycle refrigeration system, the low side refers to
the portion of the system
(a (a) betw ween the compressor an a d the condenser, and is at a
lower pressure than the compressor inlet.
(b (b) b ) between the condenser and the thermal exxxxpansion valve,
and n is at a lower pressure than the compressor inlet.
(c) between the evaporator and the compressor in which the
pressure may be either above or below ambient.
(d) between the evaporator and the compressor in which the
pressure is always below ambient.
6. With regard to a wing, washout refers to
(a) a reduction in incidence from the root to the tip.
(b) an increase in incidence from the root to the tip.
(c) an increase in camber from the root to the tip.
(d) a decrease in camber from the root to the tip.
7. On a rudder operated by a servo tab, application of right rudder
from the e cockpit will move the servo tab to the
(a) left relative to the rudder.
(b) right relative to the rudder.
(c) right relative to the rudder and left relative to the trim tab.
(d) left relative to the rudder and right relative to the trim tab.
8. A thermocouple-type re detection system relies for operation on
(a) a change in current in a circuit powered by the aircraft
electrical system.
(b) a change in resistance in a circuit powered by the aircraft
electrical system.
(c) a change of resistance in a circuit independent of the
aircraft electrical system.
(d) a small current generated independently of the aircraft
electrical system.
9. In a simple independent hydraulic braking system, the fa ailure
of the return spring in one of the two master cylinders
(a) will result in uneven braking on one side.
(b) will result in brake failure.
(c) may result in the brakes grabbing.
(d) may result in the brakes dragging.
10. On a twin spool jet engine the
(a) low-pressure compressor drives the high-pressure turbine.
(b) low-pressure compressor is driven by the high-pressure
turbine.
(c) high-pressure compressor is driven by the low-pressure
turbine.
(d) high-pressure compressor is driven by the high-pressure
turbine.
68 68
IIFFRR OOPPERATIONS
68
F
S
A

J
U
L
Y

A
U
G

0
9
Rad Radio o nav na igation aid - positive xes
Refer e to ERC 1/2 (dated 4.6.09). For each of the following questions,
ass s ume the aircraft you are ying is equipped with:
2 VORs
1 DME
1 slaved ADF (ADF 1)
1 xed card ADF (ADF 2))
1. If you are tracking along W 293between Bendigo (BDG) and
Mildura (MIA) at A080by day, which of the following would x
the position Prost?
(a) - MIA VORs with 314 TO centred
- ADF 1 (on MIA) 314 TO
- ADF 2 (on SWH) 104 R
- DME (MIA) 98 (ignoring slant distance).
(b) - MIA VORs agged
- ADF 1 (o n MIA) 314 TO
- ADF 2 (on SWH) 104 R
- DME (MIA) agged
(c) - MIA VORs agged
- ADF 1 (on MIA) 014 R
- ADF 2 (on BDG) 194 R
- DME (MIA) 98
(d) - MIA (VORs) agged
- ADF 1 (on MIA) 014 R
- ADF 2 (on SWH) 104 R
- DME (MIA) agged
2. You are southbound along H119between Swan Hill (SWH) and
Canty at A100, HDG 130m. Which of the following would x the
position of Canty?
(a) - VOR 1 (on MIA) with 129 FROM centred
- VOR 2 (on MNG) 270 FROM centred
- ADF 1 (on SWH) 318 TO
- ADF 2 (on MNG) 320 R
- DME (on ML 52) (ignoring slant)
(b) - VOR 1 (on ML) with 339 TO centred
- VOR 2 (on MNG) with 270 TO centred
- ADF 1 (on BOL) 158 TO
- ADF 2 (on MNG) 320 R
- DME (ML) 52 (ignoring slant)
(c) - VOR 1 (on ML) with 159 TO centred
- VOR 2 (on MNG) with 090 TO centred
- ADF 1 (on BOL) 158 TO
- ADF 2 (on MNG) 320 R
- DME (ML) 52 (ignoring slant)
3. You are overhead Balranald (YBRN) at A 060on a HDG of 340m.
Which of the following would provide this x?
(a) - VORs (on NY N A) 030 FROM centred
- ADF 1 (on SWH) 172 TO
- ADF 2 (on SWH) 192 R
(b)- VORs (on NYA) 210 TO centred
- ADF 1 (on SWH) 172 TO
- ADF 2 (on SWH) 168 R
(c)- VOR 1 (on NYA) 030 FROM centred
- VOR 2 (on NYA) 210 TO centred
- AD A F 1 (on SWH) 172 TO
- ADF 2 (on SWH) 192 R
(d) These nav. aids cannot be used for a positive x.
4. You are overhead the aerodrome at Temora (YTEM). C Coul o d the
NDBs at West Wyalong (WWL) and Cootamundra (CTM) be
used to x this position, and why?
(a) Yes, since you are within range of both these NDBs (50nm
and 35nm respectively).
(b) No, because the angle between the track lines is less than
45 degrees.
(c) No, becaus se you must be within 30nm of each of the NDBs
(irrespective of actual range) to x position.
(d) Both (b) and (c) are correct.
5. You are tracking fromWonthaggi (WON) to Latrobe Valley
(LTV) at 5000 (Note that this is a non-published track). What is
the lowest altitude to which you may descend in IMC, and how
is this determined?
(a) The LSALT that you have calculated for the route being
own - 3100.
C
H
A
N
G
E

M
E

69
C
H
A
N
G
E

M
E

69
Q
U
I
Z
69
(b) The grid LSALT for the route being own - 3900.
(c) The MSA - 3000 - for LTV based on a positive x from East
Sale (ESL) TACAN (paired 113.5) and LTV NDB.
(d) The MSA - 3000 - for LTV based on a positive x from
Melbourne (ML) DME and LTV NDB.
6. Refer to ERC 1. Which of the following choices would be a
positive x to establish Jacka (south of CWS VOR/NDB)? You
are maintaining 5000, HDG 170 m.
(a) CWS VOR 160 FROM ADF 1 (CWS) 340 TO ADF 2 (CWS) 170 R.
(b) CWS VOR 160 FROM ADF 1 (WON) 032 TO ADF 2 (WON) 222 R.
(c) WON VOR 211 FROM ADF 1 (CWS) 160 TO ADF 2 (CWS) 190 R.
(d) CWS VOR 160 TO Melbourne DME 70.
(e) Both (b) and (d) are corr oo ect.
7. Your position is overhead Wonthaggi (WON) VOR at 4000
tracking toward Cowes (CWS) for the Phillip Island (YPID)
NDB-approach. What is the lowest altitude to which you may yyy
descend in IMC enroute to CWS?
(a) MSA of 2100.
(b) LSALT of 2300.
(c) Approach commencement altitude of 2000. 000
(d) Maintain hemisphere altitude of 4000 until overhead CWS.
8. You are tracking from CWS along W 495 toward Waren at
6000. HDG is currently 350m. Which of the following would
indicate Waren?
(a) - VOR 1 (CWS) 357 FROM centred
- VOR 2 (WON) 319 FROM centred
- ADF 1 (PLE) 320 TO
- ADF 2 (MB) 267 R
- DME (ML) 31 (ignoring slant)
(b) - VOR 1 (CWS) 357 FROM centred
- VOR 2 (ML) 122 FROM centred
- ADF 1 (PLE) 320 TO
- ADF 2 (MB) 281 R
- DME (ML) 31 (ignoring slant)
(c) - VOR 1 and 2 (CWS) 357 FROM centred
- ADF 1 (MB) 271 TO
- ADF 2 (WON) 135 R
- DME (ML) 30 (ignoring slant).
(d) - VOR 1 (WON) 319 FROM centred
- VOR 2 (ML) 302 TO centred
- ADF 1 (CWS) 177 TO
- ADF 2 (MB) 267 R
- DME (ML) 30 (ignoring slant)
9. You are tracking along V376 at 6000 between Melbourne (ML)
VOR and Raven. Your destination is Bendigo (YBDG). What is
the lowest altitude to which you may descend in IMC enroute?
(a) The LSALT initially of 4500, and 4000 once past Raven.
(b) The grid LSALT of 4700 to Raven, then 4000.
(c) The MSA for BDG of 4000 based only on VOR (ML) 314
FROM centred and DME (ML) of 36 (ignoring slant).
(d) The MSA for BDG of 4000 based on VOR 1 (314) FROM centred,
DME (ML) 36 or crossing Mangalore (MNG) VOR 2 radial 234.
10. You are overhead Melbourne (ML) DME at 8000 on YMML QNH.
What will the DME read? (To the nearest decimal)
(a) 0.0 DME
(b) 1.3 DME
(c)1.2 DME
(d) 1.4 DME