What is the purpose of the digestive system? To obtain
1. water 2. energy substrates 3. tissue components (amino acid) 4. vitamins 5. minerals (k+, Na+)
How does it accomplish this? (IMSDAE) Ingestion (introducing material into the mouth) Mechanical processing (chewing, swallowing, mixing and propulsive movements) Secretion (release of water, acid, enzymes into the gut) Digestion (enzymatic breakdown of macro- molecules in food) Absorption (uptake of nutrients from the gut) Excretion (elimination of wastes in feces)
What are the layers of the GI tract? Mu - Mucosa: lines the GI tract Su - Submucosa (Enteric NS) Mu - Muscularis Externa circular longitudinal (toothpaste) Se - Serosa: slippery (lubrication; decrease friction)
How are these layers different in the esophagus? Stomach? Large intestines? ESOPHAGUS Mu - //// Su - Submucosal plexus/Meissners= secretions Mu - (Averbachs) Myenteric Plexus= motility Se -Tunica Adventitia Fixed
STOMACH Mu - Mucosal Su - submucosal plexus (Meissners) Mu - muscularis: circular longitudinal oblique Se- Serosal LARGE INT. Mu - absorb nutrients and water and pass to blood Su - has blood vessels / connective tissue to support Mucosa (Meissners) Mu - Peristalsis (Averbachs) Se - slimy What is peristalsis? contraction throughout the whole GI tract (propulsive movements) What are the two layers of the muscularis externa? 1. circular 2. longtidudinal What nervous system controls the GI tract? Enteric Nervous System o Extrinsic? NO o Intrinsic? YES
How does the sympathetic nervous system affect the GI tract? Sympathetic: kicks in only during exertion, stress, or emergency; fight or flight; gas (stressed); T1-L2 ejaculation ; Increased Metabolic Rate **Reduced digestive & urinary functions Energy reserves activated Increased respiratory rate & respiratory passageways dilate Increase heart rate & blood pressure Sweat glands activated
What are the two divisions of the enteric nervous system? 1. submucosal plexus (Meissners) 2. myenteric plexus (Averbachs) o Which is associated with secretion? Meissners Motility? Averbach What are the parts of the GI tract? Functions? o Esophagus: Transport materials to stomach o Stomach: chemical breakdown via acid and enzymes; mechanical processing through muscular contractions; very little absorption; sense volume and comp of chyme o Small intestines: enzymatic digestion & absorption of water, organic substrates, ions, and vitamins o Large intestines: dehydration and compaction of indigestible material for elimination o Liver: secretion of bile (imp. for lipid digestion), storage of nutrients, and other fxns o Gallbladder: storage and concentration of bile o Pancreas: exocrine cells secrete buffers and digestive enzymes; endocrine cells secrete hormones o Gastric and enteric cells: see below
What membrane lines the abdominal cavity? Peritoneum Parietal? lines the wall Visceral? lines the organ ABDOMINAL CAVITY What is the lesser omentum? Where from and to? part of peritoneum that extends from the liver to the stomach What is the greater omentum? Where from and to? fold of peritoneum that extends from the stomach to the colon hangs down from the stomach What is the mesocolon? Where from and to? fold of peritoneum connecting the transverse colon to the posterior wall of the abdomen What is the mesentery? Where from and to? a fold of the peritoneum that attaches the stomach, small intestine, pancreas, spleen, and other organs to the posterior wall of the abdomen
ESOPHAGUS o Which part has skeletal muscle (voluntary)? Upper third (middle part is mixed) Smooth muscle (involuntary)? lower third o Where do you find glandular epithelium? Stomach or esophagus? Why? Esophagus; glandular epithelium secretes goblet cells that secretes mucus making it easier for the transportation of food o Where do you find stratified squamous epithelium? Stomach or esophagus? Why? Esophagus: for protection from abrasion of material o What is the lower esophageal sphincter also called? cardiac sphincter/gastroesophageal What happens when the LES does not do its job? GERD occurs (Gastroesophageal Reflux disease) heat burn indigestion acid reflux stomach acid moving to esophagus STOMACH: o Parts What are rugae? (temporary) series of expandable folds located on the interior surface of the stomach. flatten for expansion What is the sphincter at the bottom of the stomach? Pyloric sphincter What attaches to the lesser curvature? lesser omentum Greater curvature? Greater omentum o Which of the 4 layers of the GI tract are different in the stomach? muscularis externa
o What do these cells secrete? Parietal: HCl acid, IF (intrinsic factor) Chief: pepsinogen (need acid), pepsin Mucous: mucus G cells: stimulate chief and parietal cells
o What is the function of: HCl (hydrocholic acid): Kills many organisms, Denatures (unravels) proteins, Inactivates most enzymes in food, Activates pepsinogen to pepsin, Partially breaks down plant cell walls and breaks bonds between connective proteins Pepsinogen/pepsin: digests proteins and pep Intrinsic factor: absorb Vitamin B12 loss of IF can result in pernicious anemia Gastrin: stimulate chief and parietal cells; acid production Mucus: (most abundant) protecting epithelium from acid and other stuff
o What drugs are used to reduce acid production? antacids PPI; -prazole(omeprazole) alleviate acid prod -tidine (cimetidine); H2 receptor antagonist tums prilosec cut vagus
o What occurs in the: Cephalic phase (know image) stomach ON prepare stomach for arrival of food sight, smell, taste, thought of food short duration (min) Primary action: increase vol. of gastric juice by stimulating mucus, enzyme, acid prod. Secondary action: stimulation of gastrin by G cells Gastric phase (know image) stomach ON enhance secretions started in the cephalic stage, homogenize and acidify chyme, initiate digestion of proteins by pepsin Duration: long (3-4 hrs) Mechanisms: Neural (stretch and chemoreceptors), Hormonal (stimulate gastrin by G cells), Local (release of histamine) ACTION: increased acid and pepsinogen production, increased motility MIXING WAVES Intestinal phase (know image) stomach OFF control rate of chyme into duodenum long (hrs) Mechanisms: Neural, Hormonal (primary & secondary) stimulation of cholecystokinin (CCK), GIP (Gastric inhibitory pep), and secretin (released by presence of acid, carbs, and lipids ACTIONS: feedback inhibition of gastric acid and pepsinogen prod., reduction of gastric motility
Small intestines: o What are the three parts? Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum o Where does the ampulla of Vater empty into? Duodenum o Where is the head of the pancreas found? Right side of the abdomen, connected to the duodenum o What are plicae (circulares)? permanent folds of submucosa, to increase surface area o How does the small intestines increase surface area? Plica Villi Microvilli o What is the difference between capillaries and lacteals? Where are products transferred to after they enter either one? capillaries: carbs and proteins (absorb?) lacteals: absorb fats (lymph system) o What are goblets cells and what do they secrete? mucous cells: secrete mucus
Pancreas: o What are the two parts? Head and Tail (caudate) o Endocrine Cells: PIG: Pancreas: insulin, Glucagon Islets of Langerhan: hormone producing cells ^^^ o Exocrine Cells: PAL (Protease, Amylase, Lipase) ; Protein, carb, lipids Acini: cell island that produce exocrine cells^^^
Liver: o Parts? Right and Left Lobes o Hepatic ducts, common hepatic duct (leaving): Drain bile from liver Hepatic Artery Proper enters liver (supply oxygenated blood to liver) Hepatic Portal Vein enters liver (same as artery) Bile duct: exit (transport bile) Hepatic vein carries deoxygenated blood to heart o Portal triad: distinctive arrangement in the liver (triangular shape) consists of Hepatic Artery Proper, Hepatic Portal Vein, and Bile duct
Gallbladder o Parts? Fundus Body Neck o Cystic duct: by the neck of the gallbladder (joins gallbladder with the common bile duct) and connects with the common hepatic duct (problem: gallstones) common bile duct: where the common hepatic and cystic duct join; fxn to conduct bile from gallbladder to duodenum (problem: gallstones choledocholithiasis) o Function What 2 ducts empty into the ampulla of Vater (duodenal ampulla)? 1. common bile duct 2. pancreatic duct What is the function of the sphincter of Oddi (hepatopancreatic sphincter)? houses the ampulla of Vater, and made up of smooth muscles that contracts to make sure contents of pancreatic and common bile duct dont enter duodenum. The sphincter controls flow of bile and pancreatic juices into the duodenum and prevents reflux of duodenal content into the ducts.
Large intestines: o Parts: 1. cecum 2. ascending colon 3. transverse colon 4. descending 5. sigmoid 6. rectum o Function Its function is to absorb water from the remaining indigestible food matter, and then to pass useless waste material from the body.
o How is vitamin K produced? by the bacteria in the large intestine o What valve is found between the small and large intestines? Ileocecal valve o What is the gastrocolic reflex? physiological reflexes controlling the motility, or peristalsis, of the gastrointestinal tract (stimulation is from eating). It involves an increase in motility of the colon in response to stretch in the stomach and byproducts of digestion in the small intestine. Thus, this reflex is responsible for the urge to defecate following a meal. The gastrocolic reflex helps make room for more food. Substrates: o Where does fat digestion begin? mouth and stomach o Where does carbohydrate digestion begin? mouth o Where does protein digestion begin? stomach o Where is fat transported? Capillaries or lacteals? LACTEALS o Where is protein transported? Capillaries or lacteals? CAPILLARIES o Where are carbohydrates transported? Capillaries or lacteals? CAPILLARIES o How are fats digested/broken down? What enzymes or molecules are involved? utilizes lingual, gastric, pharyngeal, and pancreatic lipases bile salts (emulsifies lipid drops) micelles formed glycerol and monoglycerides from micelles diffuse into intestinal epithelia resynthesize tryglycerides into lymph fat lacteals lymph thoracic junction b/w left subclavian and left int. jugular vein heart lungs (bypass liver) o How are proteins digested? What enzymes or molecules are involved? digested when pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by HCl Low pH, pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase Key to turning on everything is TRYPSIN following activation by enteropeptidase, trypsin activates other enzymes o How are carbohydrates or sugars digested? What enzymes or molecules are involved? digested by salivary and pancreatic amylase gets hydrolyzed to monosaccharides o What are amino acids? organic compounds containing a carboxyl group and amino group o What are fatty acids? carboxylic acid essential fats good for health result of fats breaking down o What are monosaccharides? simple sugar (building blocks) glucose, fructose, galactose Disaccharrides? 2 monosacch groups maltose, sucrose, lactose
Fluids: o Intake o Secretion o Absorption o Excretion o Where is most fluid absorbed? JEJUNUM
Acid or base (pH)? Why? o Mouth: Base o Esophagus: Base ? o Stomach: Acid o Small intestines: Base
Secretions/Functions: o Amylase breakdown of starch o Lipase breakdown lipids o Pepsin breakdown protein/peptides released in stomach o HCl (hydrochloric acid) activate pepsinogen to pepsin o IF Absorb Vitamin B12 can result in pernicious anemia if loss of IF o Mucus secrete mucus protect epithelium linings o Gastrin stimulates Chief (pepsinogen prod.) and parietal cells (HCl acid, IF) o Secretin (basic) brushborder enzymes of the small intestine stimulate pancreas to secrete digestive fluids rich in bicarbonate; neutralize acids from the stomach turn stomach off increase bile from liver release HCO3- o CCK brushborder enzyme contracts GB to release bile relax sphincter of Oddi release PAL from pancreas turns stomach off o GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Polypeptide) peptide secreted from the stomach that stimulates insulin release and inhibits pepsin and acid secretion o Enterokinase enzyme produced by the mucosa of the small intestine mainly functions to activate trypsin to trysinogen
o PAL: (breaks internal or external bonds?) EXTERNAL
Trypsin (protease enzyme) activates all other enzymes in the cascade (turns everything on) hydrolyzes peptides Chymotrypsin (protease enzyme) activate chymotrypsinogen breakdown peptides Carboxypeptidase protease enzyme breakdown protein/peptides Elastase hydrolyzes protein and elastin Nuclease breakdown DNA or RNA into their bases o Bile emulsifies fat (fat droplets breakup into tiny droplets (micelles) o HCO3- (bicarbonate) neutralizes HCl from the stomach
What is cirrhosis? What causes it? What problems may result? abnormal liver condition in which there is irreversible scarring of the liver. marked by degeneration of cells, inflammation, and fibrous thickening of tissue. The main causes are sustained excessive alcohol consumption, viral hepatitis B and C, and fatty liver disease People with cirrhosis may develop jaundice (yellowing of the skin, eyes and tongue), itching and extreme tiredness.
What is cholecystitis? inflammation of the gallbladder caused by gallstones (cholesterol and bilirubin in bile)
What is pancreatitis? What causes it? What problems may result? inflammation of the pancreas due to pancreatic duct obstruction and/or alcoholic abuse enzymes get backed up in ducts and activate can cause vasodilation, increased permeablility, DIC, and circulatory collapse
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Kidney: Anatomy: o Review the anatomy of the kidney, ureters, bladder, and urethra What is the difference between male and female urethras? -Male (longer)-Both urinary and reproductive functions. Semen and urine pass through. -Female (Shorter)- Separate from the reproductive organs. Solely Urinary function What problems are seen? o What are the 2 major layers of the kidney? -Renal Cortex -Renal Medulla o Where are the kidneys located? -Retro peritoneal (abdominal cavity behind peritoneal) under diaphragm near back of body. -Left kidney (T12) is higher than right (L1) due to liver placement o What vessels supply and remove waste from the kidneys? -ureter -bladder -urethra -renal artery -renal vein o What is the pathway of blood supply to and from the kidneys?
o What is the internal anatomy of the kidneys?
Examples: Renal cortex and medulla, renal pyramid, minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis, hilus, ureter, bladder, urethra, etc. Glomerulus, Bowmans capsule, proximal convoluted tubules, Loop of Henle (descending loop, ascending loop), distal convoluted tubule, collecting ducts
o What are the parts of the nephron? What is the flow of fluid through the nephron? -Renal Corpuscle Proximal Convoluted Tube Loop of Henle Distal Convoluted Tube Collecting Duct-Pappilary Duct
What part is water permeable? -Proximal Convoluted Tube -Descending Limb of loop of Henle
Impermeable? -ascending limb of Loop of Henle
Dependent on ADH for permeability? -Distal Convoluted Tube -Collecting Duct -TAL (thick ascending limb)
What are the 2 types of nephrons? Cortical(85%)-Found Superficially in the cortex. Short loop of Henle. Less concentrated urine Juxtamedullary (15 %)-Found deep in the cortex. Have long loop of Henle. Allow kidneys to produce concentrated urine (more water you can conserve)
o What is the glomerulus? -part of renal corpuscle -filters blood to form urine What are the 3 layers between the glomerulus and the nephron? -Endothelium of BV(glomerulus); inside. Protein (albumin), Na+, K+ pass. -Basal Lamina(glue)-Na+, K+ pass. Negatively Charged (no protein) -Epithelium (Podocytes)-connected to outside of Bowmans Capsule
o What is the: Bowmans capsule? Collects blood filtered by the glomerulus and directs it to the proximal tubule
Visceral (What are podocytes?) -Podocytes (or visceral epithelial cells) are cells in the Bowman's capsule in the kidneys that wrap around the capillaries of the glomerulus.
Parietal parietal layer of Bowmans capsule consists of modified simple squamous epithelium.
PCT/PT? -absorption of ions, organic molecules, vitamins, and water.
Loop of Henle? Descending, Ascending, thin, thick? -Descending(thin): permeable to water -Ascending(thin): impermeable to water. Permeable to ions-Na+ and K+ -Ascending (thick)-reabsorbs sodium, potassium, and chloride ions from the filtrate
DCT? -secretion: ions, acids, drugs, toxins -variable reabsorption of water, Na+, CL- (with the induction of ADH)
Collecting ducts? -variable reabsorption of water (with induction of ADH) -reabsorption or secretion of Na+, K+, H+, and bicarbonate ions
o What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus (macula densa, juxtaglomerular cells)? -Function: maintains BP, NA+, and H20 with renin *** if urine is clear and good, you can pee renin out -Juxtamedullary Cells (Responders):secrete renin and regulates GFR -Macula Densa: monitors osmolarity in DCT
Physiology: o What is the basic functional unit of the kidney? -nephron o What is ADH? What does it do? Where does it affect? -ADH causes the DCT and collecting ducts to be permeable to water, increasing water reabsorption and reducing urine output -released in response to low blood volume, high osmolarity, and AII 1) conserve H20 2) Thirst 3) vasoconstrict o What is aldosterone? What does it do? Where does it affect? -steroid hormone produced in the zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex -released in response to AII (increase BP) and high plasma potassium -Stimulates sodium potassium pump (increased reabsorption of sodium and increase secretion of pottasium) -also increases retention of sodium and water and loss of potassium -targets distal tubules and collecting ducts
o What is RAAS? What and where are these hormones converted? -hormone system that regulates blood pressure and water (fluid) balance. -Renin: enzyme released from macula densa cells in response to low BP or sodium. ACtivates angiotensinogen to angiotensin I (AI) -Angiotensinogen: produced as the precursor to angiotensin in the liver, activated to AI by renin and converted to AII by ACE(angiotensin converting enzyme) -AII : 1) brain induces thirst (ADH) 2) Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone 3) vasoconstrict (increase resistance and BP)
o What are the major functions of the kidney? (Remember: acid-base balance and osmolarity?) -eliminating metabolic waste products (example: urea) -conserving nutrients (as much as possible) -balancing output with input of water and electrolytes -Regulation of Blood Volume and Blood Pressure -Regulation of plasma pH -Participates in amino acid catabolism
o How does the nephron (kidney) regulate osmolarity? AKA: What are the 3 active functions of the nephron? 1) Filtration of solid wastes in the blood 2) Reabsorption of essential nutrients from the fluid before it becomes urine 3) Excretion of urine as body waste.
What is the passive result of these 3 functions? o What is Starlings law of the capillaries? (Jv = Kf [(Pc Pi) s(pc - pi)] ) o FILTRATION: o What is GFR? What is the average GFR per minute? -GFR=filtration -125 ml/min What is the afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole? -afferent arteriole: each supplies a renal corpuscle to form the capillary network (glomerulus) (glomerular filtrate formed here) -efferent arteriole: blood leaves the glomerulus through this arteriole How is GFR affected by changes in the afferent and efferent arterioles?What happens to GFR when the diameter of the... Aff. art. is o Increased? increase filtration o Decreased? decrease filtration Eff. art. is o Increased? decrease filtration o Decreased? increase filtration What does Angiotensin II do to the aff and eff arterioles? -efferent: constricts (more) -afferent: constricts What does ANP do to filtration? -increases filtration o What else does ANP do? -inhibits reabsorption of sodium causing natriuresis ( increase urine output) o What triggers its release? - small peptide hormones produced in the heart -released due to stretch or injury of atrial or ventricular myocytes (muscle cells) o What is renal autoregulation? -kidneys themselves help maintain a constant renal blood flow and GFR despite normal, everyday changes in blood pressure What is the myogenic mechanism? -how arteries and arterioles react to an increase or decrease of blood pressure to keep the blood flow within the blood vessel constant. What is tubuloglomerular feedback? -principle mechanism responsible for renal autoregulation -helps maintain a stable GFR -utilizes JGA(responder) and macula densa (sensor) o What is the JGA? Macula densa? JGA=Responder Macula Densa=Sensor What does the JGA and macula densa do? Macula densa= monitors osmolarity of DCT JGA=secretes renin What does the macula densa measure in the nephron? -osmolarity of DCT (concentration of solution) What hormone is released from the JGA? -Renin
o REABSORPTION AND SECRETION: What part of the nephron reabsorbs the most (60-70%) solutes and fluid? -Proximal Convoluted Tube What does the Na+ symporter cotransport?( AKA: what does Na+ bring into the body with it? ) -H20, K+, CL-, Glucose (I think its just water?) -Mirie What does the Na+/H+ antiporter countertransport? What occurs in the descending loop (of Henle)? Is it water permeable? -reabsorption of water What occurs in the thin ascending loop? Is it water permeable? -reabsorption of Na+ and CL- -impermeable to water What occurs in the thick ascending loop? Is it water permeable? -reabsorption of Na+, Cl- -in exchange of K+ (sodium pottasium pump) -impermeable to water
What symporter is found there? -Na-K-Cl cotransporter is located there (NA/k pump) How does this create the different layers of osmolarity in the kidney? -the regulation of What occurs in the distal convoluted tubule (DCT)? --secretion: ions, acids, drugs, toxins -variable reabsorption of water, Na+, CL- (with the induction of ADH)
What symporters are found in the apical membrane? -Sodium Chloride Symporter (NaCL co-transporter)
What occurs in the collecting duct (CD)? --variable reabsorption of water (with induction of ADH) -reabsorption or secretion of Na+, K+, H+, and bicarbonate ions
What are principal cells? -predominantly responsible for sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion in the kidney
What are intercalated cells? -intercalated cells-secrete acid and reabsorb bicarbonate -intercalated cells-secrete bicarbonate and reabsorb acid
Where do potassium (K+) sparing diuretics work? -furosemide: thick ascending limb -thiazide: distal convoluted tubule
o What is the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System? (RAAS) --is a hormone system that regulates blood pressure and water (fluid) balance. -Renin: enzyme released from macula densa cells in respose to low BP or sodium. ACtivates angiotensinogen to angiotensin I (AI) -Angiotensin: produced as the precursor angiotensinogen in the liver, activated to AI by renin and converted to AII by ACE(angiotensin converting enzyme) -AII is a potent vasoconstrictor, elicits thirst, and causes release of ADH and Aldosterone
Where is angiotensinogen made? - liver Where is it converted to angiotensin-I (AI)? What enzyme does this? -Renin (kidneys) + Angiotensinogen (liver) = Angiotensin I -renin is the enzyme Where is it converted to angiotensin-II (AII)? What enzyme does this? Angiotensin I + Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Con (lungs) = Angiotensin II What does AII do? -AII is a potent vasoconstrictor, elicits thirst, and causes release of ADH and Aldosterone Where does it work? o Brain (posterior pituitary) -Causes release of ADH from posterior pituitary o Adrenal cortex -Causes release of aldosterone from adrenal cortex What does aldosterone do? -causes the principal cells of the distal nephron to increase reabsorp-tion of sodium and increase secretion of potassium. o Blood vessels (afferent and efferent arterioles) -AII causes vasoconstriction of arteriols (specifically efferent arteriols) o What is ADH (antidiuretic hormone)? -A small peptide hormone produced in the hypothalamus and then stored and released from the posterior pituitary in response to low blood volume, high osmolarity, and AII o What is ANP (atrial netriuretic peptide)? -Small peptide hormones produced in the atria and released in response to stretch or injury of atrial (muscle cells) -inhibits the reabsorption of sodium causing natriuresis (increased urine output due to increase of sodium output)
o What are diuretics? -causing direct increase in the passing of urine
What is renal plasma clearance? -volume of plasma completely cleared of a specific compound per unit time -used to measure kidney function What is dialysis? -the filtering of circulating blood through a semipermeable membrane in an apparatus (haemodialyser or artificial kidney) to remove waste products: performed in cases of kidney failure.
Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance What are the different fluid compartments? -intracellular: fluid found within body cells plasma membrane -Extracellular: body fluid outside of cells *interstitial compartment: the space that surrounds the cells of a given tissue. Filled with interstitial fluid *plasma: extracellular portion of the blood *transcellular compartment: fluid outside normal compartments (CSF, Digestive juices, Mucous) o What are the percentages of fluid found in each compartment? 60-40-20-16-4 Intracellular-60% Extracellular-40% -interstitial compartment: 20% -plasma:16% -transcellular: 4% o What are the electrolytes of the body? Na+ Cl- K+ HCO3- Ca++ PO 4 3- Mg++ Etc o What electrolytes have a higher concentration inside the cell? Outside the cell? -inside: PO 4 3-, K+, Mg++ -outside: Na+, Cl-, HCo3-, Ca++ o What are fluid shifts? What happens with hemorrhage? Diarrhea? Sweating in a desert? Eating too much NaCl (salt)? SIADH? Renal insufficiency? -fluid shifts: when bodily fluid moves between compartments. *hemorrhage: escapement of blood from a ruptured blood vessel *Diarrhea: usually occurs when fluid cannot be absorbed from the contents of your bowel, or when extra fluid is secreted into your bowel, causing watery faeces. *Eating too much salt: too much salt = increase in bodily fluids (edema) *Sweating in desert-fluid loss from cells *SIADH-sodium remains normal but excessive retention of water What is acidosis? pH? -Physiological pH less than 7.35 What is alkalosis? pH? -Physiological pH greater than 7.45 How does the kidney handle acid-base balance? -Controls excretion/reabsorbtion of H+ and HCO 3 - from renal tubules What is respiratory acidosis? o Definition: Abnormally high PCO 2 in systemic blood above 45 mmHg. o What is the cause? Hypoventilation o What is the compensation? Hyperventilation
What is respiratory alkalosis? o Definition: Abnormally low systemic PCO 2 bellow 35 mmHg. o What is the cause? Hyperventilation o What is the compensation? Hypoventilation
What is metabolic acidosis? o Definition: low plasma pH o What is the cause? -increase in H+ production -decrease H+ excretion -Decrease HCO3- production -increase HCO3- excretion o What is the compensation? -Respiratory compensation: hyperventilation -Renal compensation: H+ ions secreted and HCO3- reabsorbed What is metabolic alkalosis? o Definition: High plasma pH o What is the cause? -decrease H+ production -increase H+ secretion -increase HCO3- production -decrease HCO3- excretion o What is the compensation? -Respiratory compensation: hypoventilation -Renal Compensation: H+ ions reabsorbed and HCO3- secreted
How do the lungs regulate CO2? How does the kidney trap acid? Control or regulate base (HCO3-)? -Lungs regulate CO2 by controlling breathing rate. Hyperventilation reduces PCO2 and hypoventilation increase PCO2. -Kidneys trap acid by keeping the particles charged -the kidneys will regulate pH through the reabsorption of of HCO3-. Reabsorption of HCO3- predominantly occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule
Nutrition and Metabolism: Metabolism? -refers to all chemical reactions in an organism Catabolism? - breakdown of organic substrates -releases energy used to synthesize high energy compounds (ex ATP) Anabolism? -synthesis of new organic molecules How is ATP regenerated?
Creatine phosphate (immediate source of ATP) -ATP-----ADP + P + energy release -regeneration: ADP + P-----ATP (substrate level phosphorylation)
Glycolysis -breaks 6-carbon glucose -into two 3-carbon pyruvic acid -investment of 2 ATP, 6 carbon glucose, 2 ATP, 2 NAD, 4 ADP, 2 Pi -Product: 2, 3 carbon pyruvate, 4 ATP (net 2 ATP), 2 NADH
TCA -function: to remove hydrogen atoms from organic molecules and transfer them to coenzymes -Pyruvate is oxidized and decarboxylated------> Acetyl-Coa -Acetyl-Coa to oxaloacetic acid----->citric acid--->isocitric acid---->alpha-ketoglutarate---- >succinal-Coa---->Succinic acid--->fumeric acid---->malic acid---->oxaloacetic acid ----> repeat -Products per 2 molecules of pyruvate = 8 NADH, 2 FADH, 2 CO2, 2 GTP
ETC -generation of ATP within inner mitochondrial membrane -key is oxidative phosphorylation -Coenzymes (NADH and FADH) drop off electrons -transfer of electrons creates gradient causing H+ ions to diffuse through membrane -H+ ions return through ATP synthase, thus catalyzing the reaction of ADP+P---> ATP -NADH=3 ATP -FADH=2 ATP -28 from ETS (32 if including NADH from glycolysis) -36 ATP total What is: Oxidative phosphorylation? Is the generation of ATP within mitochondria in a reaction requiring coenzymes and oxygen -produces more than 90% of ATP used by body
Carbohydrate (glucose) metabolism: o Catabolism: - breakdown of organic substrates -releases energy used to synthesize high energy compounds (ex ATP) How many ATP are generated per glucose molecule in glycolysis? TCA (or Krebs) cycle? ETC (eletron transport chain)? Glycolysis = 2 net ATP TCA=2 GTP Kreb = 28 ATP (from TCA) + 4 ATP (from NADH generated in glycolysis) Total = 36 ATP (32 from ETC, 2 from kreb, 2 from glyocolysis) How many steps are involved in glycolysis? 1) As soon as a glucose molecule enters the cytoplasm, a phosphate group is attached to the molecule 2) A second phosphate group is attached. Together, steps 1 and 2 cost the cell 2 ATP 3) The 6 carbon chain is split into 3 carbon molecules, each of which then follows the rest of this pathway 4) Another phosphate group is attached to each molecule, and NADH is generated from NAD 5) One ATP molecule is formed for each molecule processed (2 ATP produced) 6) The atoms in each molecule are rearranged, releasing a molecule of water 7) A second ATP molecule is formed for each molecule processed. Step 7 produces 2 ATP molecules At what steps of the glycolytic cycle is ATP used up? Generated? Total? -2 ATP used in steps 1 and 2 - 2 ATP gained in step 5 and step 7 (4 total) What is the final electron acceptor? O2 What are the steps in the TCA (or Krebs) cycle? From citrate to _isocitrate____ to _alpha-ketogluterate_____ to _succinal-coa_____ to _succinic acid____ to _fumeric acid_____ to _malic acid____ to _oxeloacetic acid___ What product from glycolysis goes into the TCA cycle? What does it go in as? -Pyruvate (2)-----> Acetyl-Coa (2) How is ATP generated in the electron transport chain? 28 ATP (TCA) + 4 ATP (NADH produced in glycolysis) = 32 total What is NADH? NAD+? Which carries electrons (via H+ or hydrogens) to the electron transport chain to generate ATP in aerobic respiration? -NAD+=Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide -NAD+ = coenzyme responsible for picking up a hydrogen ion -NADH = coenzyme carrier that brings H+ to ETC Where does NADH + H+ come from? (hint: what pathways) -Glycolysis and intermediate What is FADH2? FAD? Which carries electrons (via H+ or hydrogens) to the electron transport chain to generate ATP in aerobic respiration? FAD+=Riboflavin Adenine Dinucleotide FAD+=coenzyme responsible for picking up FADH2=coenzyme carrier that brings H+ to ETC Where does FADH2 come from? (hint: what pathways) -TCA cycle How is unused glucose stored? Where is most of this product stored? -unused glucose is stored as glycogen in liver and skeletal muscle What is glycogenesis? -synthesis of glygogen ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- o Anabolism: is the synthesis of new organic molecules What is glycogenesis? - the formation of glycogen from glucose. (Occurs slowly; requires high energy compound uridine triphosphate UTP) What hormone is involved? (Hint: take glucose IN to the cells) What is the difference between skeletal muscle cell glycogen and liver glycogen? Which can be converted to glucose and released into the bloodstream? (HINT: skeletal muscle glycogen is used up and the byproduct of lactic acid is sent to the liver for conversion [via Coris cycle] into glucose) - What is glycogenolysis? - is the breakdown of glycogen (occurs quickly; involves a single enzymatic step) Glucose-1-phosphate to glucose-6-phosphate to glucose What hormone is involved? (Hint: when blood glucose is GONE) - glucagon?? What is Gluconeogenesis? - is the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors What 2 hormones stimulate gluconeogenesis? - glucagon and epinephrine?? Lipid metabolism: o What are the 4 classes of lipoproteins? (GO THROUGH THE PATHWAYS) - There are 5 classes Chylomicrons - produced in the intestinal tract - are too large to diffuse across capillary wall - enter lymphatic capillaries - travel through THORACIC DUCT (to venous circulation and systemic arteries) VLDLs: Very low-density lipoproteins (IDLs): intermediate-density lipoproteins - b/w LDLs and VLDLs LDLs: Low-density lipoproteins - bad - take to fat cells, storage HDLs: High-density lipoproteins - good - clean out bloodstream take back to liver and 1) turn into bile, or 2) return to body What is the difference between each? - Which form has a higher amount of protein than the others and is capable of removing excess cholesterol from boy cells and the blood (to transport to the liver for elimination)? - HDL (High-density lipoproteins) After lipids are transported across the GI tract (as micelles and chylomicrons) how they are transported to the liver? How are lipids transported in the blood? - Intestinal tract Lacteals Thoracic Duct Circulatory system Capillaries liver cells Apoproteins (Apo) What are the 2 essential fatty acids that the body cannot synthesize? - linolenic and linoleic acid cannot be synthesized in the body and must be obtained from food; these basic fats are used to build specialized fats called omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids What does adipose tissue remove from chylomicrons and VLDLs? - o What is lipolysis? What enzymes do this function? - Lipolysis AKA lipid catabolism breaks lipids down into pieces that can be 1) converted to pyruvic acid, or 2) channeled directly into TCA Cycle - What is beta oxidation? - A series of reactions - Breaks fatty acid molecules into 2-Carbon fragments - Occurs inside mitochondria - Each step, 1) generates molecules of Acetyl CoA and NADH, and 2) leaves a shorter carbon chain bound to coenzyme A o What is lipogenesis? When does this occur? - Lipogenesis AKA Lipid synthesis can use almost any organic substrate because lipids, amino acids, and carbohydrates can be converted to acetyl-CoA - What is ketosis? - a condition characterized by raised levels of ketone bodies in the body, associated with abnormal fat metabolism and diabetes mellitus. - ketone body: any of three relates compounds (acetone, acetoacetic acid, beta-hydroxybutyric acid) produced during the metabolism of fats. Protein metabolism: o What is the end product of protein metabolism? (hint: ammonium) - ammonium ions converted to urea o What is ammonium converted to in the urea cycle? - urea o How are these excreted from the body? - in urine What are the fat soluble vitamins? - A, D, E, K Reproductive: Male: Anatomy: o Review the anatomy of the male: o Internal: Testes, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra, seminal vesicle, prostate, bulbourethral glands, etc. o External genitalia: Penis, corpus sponsiosum, corpora cavernosum, pampiniform plexus, testicular artery, scrotal sac, cremaster muscle, etc. o What structure produces sperm? - seminiferous tubules o Where does sperm mature? - epididymis o Where is non-viable sperm reabsorbed? - epididymis o What are stereocilia? - The stereocilia are long cytoplasmic projections that act more like microvilli than cilia at all. They increase the surface area to greater exhibit secretion and absorption of the cell. Unlike true cilia, they have no microtubules, which means they are non-motile. From the stereocilia, large amounts of fluid are secreted to propel the spermatozoa. In turn, the stereocilia will then reabsorb around 90% of that same fluid. o What are the 3 parts of the urethra? - 1) prostatic 2) membranous 3) penile/spongy o What are the accessory glands? - 1) Prostate gland 2) Cowpers (Bulbourethral glands) 3) Seminal vesicles o What are the 2 cells that assist in growth and maturation of the spermatogonia? - Sustentacular (Sertoli) cells and Interstitial (Leydig) cells o What are Sertoli cells also called? - Sustentacular cells (respond to FSH) o What are Leydig cells also called? - Interstitial cells (respond to LH) o How do the testes get to the outside of the body? When does this occur? - Movement of testes through inguinal canal into scrotum and testes remain connected to internal structures via the spermatic cords - Occurs during fetal development o What is the potential space that internal organs such as the GI tract can pass through? What is this problem called? - inguinal canal - hernia: when a structure thats not supposed to be there, pushed through o What is the anatomy of the spermatozoon? - 1) Head: nucleus and densely packed chromosomes 2) Middle piece: mitochondria that produce the ATP needed to move the tail 3) Tail: the only flagellum in the human body Physiology: o What occurs in the seminiferous tubules? - the production of sperm, contain spermatogonia: stem cells involved in spermatogenesis o What cells are present? - Sustentacular cells (Sertoli) and Interstitial cells (Leydig) o What is spermatogenesis? - 1) Mitosis 2) Meiosis (I & II) o What is spermiogenesis? - maturation of secondary spermatocytes o What is mitosis? Meiosis? What are the phases?
o What are the stages of sperm development in meiosis? - refer to above picture How is it different from oogenesis (female egg development)? - Spermatogenesis: after the two meiotic divisions in a single spermatogonium, there are 4 spermatids which then go on to form 4 sperm cells or spermatozoa. - Oogenesis: after the two meiotic divisions in a single oogonium, you get one ovum and 3 polar bodies. Each time the oocyte divides, most of the cytoplasm goes into one product and the other one (the polar body) just gets a set of chromosomes. o What is the function of Sertoli cells? - Helps to control the composition of the jelly surrounding the spermatids (help w/nourishment of sperm) o What is the function of Leydig cells? - They produce testosterone, which is essential to spermatogenesis. (matures and helps sperm grow) o Hormones: GnRH (Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone) FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) LH (Leutinizing Hormone) Testosterone Inhibin What hormones are secreted from the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary that act on the male gonads? - Hypothalamus: releases GnRH Anterior Pituitary: releases LH and FSH o What hormones regulate the male gonads and sperm production? - FSH and LH What is their target organ and what is their function?
o Accessory glands: What does the seminal vesicle secrete? - seminal fluid: a distinct ionic and nutritive glandular secretion - contributes 60% total volume of semen - secretions contain fructose, prostaglandins, and fibrinogen What do these products do? What does the prostate gland secrete? - slightly acidic prostate fluid What do these products do? What does the bulbourethral gland secrete? - Secrete alkaline mucus with lubricating properties What do these products do? o What is negative feedback and how does it affect this system? - Sustentacular cells secrete inhibin which then inhibits secretion of FSH. It could also feed back to the hypothalamus inhibiting the secretion of GnRH inhibition of LH & FSH - If there is too much testosterone being produced, inhibin could signal to the hypothalamus to stop the production of GnRH which would then stop the production of LH and FSH. (Refer to above picture)
Reproductive: Female: Anatomy: o Review the anatomy of the female: Internal: Ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, cervix, vagina, etc. External: Vagina, labia major, labia minor, mons pubis, vestibule, clitoris, etc. o What structure produces eggs? - Ovaries (ovarian follicles) o Where do eggs mature? - Ovaries o What is the follicle? - egg and nest o What is the corpus luteum? - yellow body; a hormone secreting structure that develops in an ovary after an ovum has been discharged but degenerates after a few days unless pregnancy has begun o What is the corpus albicans? - white body; the regressed form of the corpus luteum. As the corpus luteum is being broken down by macrophages, fibroblasts lay down type I collagen forming the corpus albicans o What are the 2 cells that assist in growth and maturation of the egg? - Granulosa & Theca cells o What are Granulosa cells? - Granulosa cells make estrogen from androgens by Theca cells o What are Theca cells? - Theca cells make androgen o What are the different supporting ligaments? - 1) broad ligament 2) 3 pairs of suspensory ligaments 3) ovarian ligament
o Major anatomical landmarks of the uterus Body Isthmus Cervix Cervical os (internal orifice) Uterine cavity Cervical canal Internal os (internal orifice) Uterine wall: myometrium, endometrium, perimetrium Physiology: o What is oogenesis? - ovum production, occurs monthly in ovarian follicles, part of OVARIAN cycle (Follicular phase: preovulatory, Luteal phase: postovulatory) What stages are halted (frozen) and when does this occur? - Meiosis I: (Prophase I: completed after puberty) AND Meiosis II: (Metaphase II: completed after fertilization) o What is mitosis? Meiosis? - Mitosis: a type of cell division that results in two daughter cells each having the same number and kind of chromosomes as the parent nucleus. - Meiosis: a type of cell division that results in 4 daughter cells each with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell, as in the production of gametes. o What are the 2 cycles for the female? - 1) Uterine cycle 2) Ovarian cycle What occurs during the uterine cycle? - (0-5: Menses) Proliferative phase: Estrogen Estrogen Peak LH Surge (14) Ovulation: release of egg from ovaries Secretory phase: Progesterone What are the phases? o Menses (1) o Proliferative (2) o Ovulation (3) o Secretory (4) What occurs during the ovarian cycle? - Hypothalamus: GnRH Anterior pituitary: FSH Follicular phase: estrogen Estrogen peak LH surge Ovulation Corpus luteum Luteal phase: progesterone (to fluff) What are the phases? o Follicular phase o Ovulation o Luteal phase o Hormones: GnRH FSH LH Estrogen Androgens Progesterone (progestins) hCG What hormones are secreted from the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary that act on the female gonads? - Hypothalamus: GnRH Anterior Pituitary: FSH & LH What hormones are secreted from the ovaries before and after ovulation? - before: estrogen (proliferative phase & follicular phase), LH (LH surge) - after: progesterone (luteal phase & secretory phase) What hormones act on the uterus during the different phases of the uterine cycle? - Estrogen, LH and progesterone o Where does fertilization most commonly take place? - in the fallopian tubes AKA the uterine tubes o Cells: What is the function of Granulosa cells? - to make estrogen (from Theca cells) What is the function of Theca cells? - to make angrodens (used in making estrogen) What happens after ovulation to these cells? - They form the corpus luteum o Adrenal cortex pathway: remember the diagram from before? o What hormone acts on the granulosa cell? - FSH What does this cell make (or convert)? - makes Estrogen from androgen (by theca cells) o What hormone acts on the thecal cell? - LH o After ovulation these 2 cells combine to form corpus luteum, which begins to secrete (produce) progesterone and estrogen.