ANNEXURE VIII

COMMON ENTRANCE TEST (CET)

1. NATURE
1.1 The CET comprises multiple choice objective type questions in the areas of Verbal Ability and
Reading Comprehension, Quantitative Aptitude and Logical / Abstract Reasoning. In all there
would be 200 questions to be answered in a total time of two and half hours (i.e. One hundred
and fifty minutes).
1.2 CONTENTS OF THE TEST OF VERBAL ABILITY AND READING COMPREHENSION.
This is a test to see how well you know English language. In this test there will be passages with
questions based on their contents to test your comprehension. Your English Language ability
would be tested through questions on grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms,
antonyms, comprehension of passages etc. Your English language ability would be tested
through questions on (1) understanding of the contents of the passage and (2) choice of
appropriate words, phrases, expressions and similar language skills.
1.3 CONTENTS OF THE TEST OF QUANTITATIVE APTITUTDE.
This test helps to know how fast and accurate you can work with numbers, do numerical
calculations understand various arithmetic problems involving ratio and proportion, percentage,
etc. This test also helps to measure your power of quantitative reasoning, interpretation of
tables, common graphs and charts.
1.4 CONTENTS OF THE TEST OF LOGICAL / ABSTRACT REASONING.
This test measures how quickly and accurately you can think. This test may have questions
based on figures and diagrams and also questions on verbal reasoning.
2. IMPORTANT HINTS
2.1 As you read a question, mark its answer immediately on the separate answer sheet provided to
you. Do not waste your time in reading all the questions first and then deciding on which ones to
answer, as all questions are compulsory i.e. there are no options, and all questions carry equal
marks.
2.2 Start answering questions in the test one by one.
2.3 If you find a question difficult skip it and go to the next question.
2.4 Remember to see that you are marking the answer on the answer sheet against the same serial
number as that of the question your are attempting.
2.5 Even though there are no negative marks allotted to incorrect answers, it is recommended that
you should avoid marking answers at random or based on guesses.
3. SAMPE QUESTIONS.
Below are given some sample questions for each of the areas mentioned above. The types of
questions given here are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In actual test, you may find
questions on some or all of these types and also questions on some types not mentioned here.
TEST OF VERBAL ABILITY AND READING COMPREHENSION ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Q.1-4. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any
will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error,
the answer is 5. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
Q.1. I am contacting you / sometime in next week / to explain to you / my problem in detail. No Error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q.2. His speech was / judged by many / as one of the most important speech /
(1) (2) (3)
given in the function. No Error
(4) (5)
Q.3. If you would have / gone to his house / before 10 a.m. you would have /
(1) (2) (3)
got his autograph. No Error
(4) (5)
Q.4. The five member committee were / of the view that the present service conditions
(1) (2)
of the employees of this company / are quite good. No Error
(3) (4) (5)
MAH-MBA/MMS-CET 2014 1
Q.5-8. Each question below has two blanks. There are five pairs of words below the sentence. Each pair is
numbered. Choose the pair of words which can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same order
so as to complete the sentence meaningfully.
Q.5. In that country, bureaucracy is __________ as a group of men and women that had arrogated to itself
power _________ responsibility.
(1) perceived, without (2) believed, within (3) held, into
(4) known, unto (5) allowed, for
Q.6. The employees of the factory owing ___________ to the workers union, have _______ of an agitation
from next week in support of their demands.
(1) allegiance, warned (2) respect, called (3) shelter, started
(4) pressure, proposal (5) assurance, sought
Q.7. Yesterday, around 400 huts were __________ in a major fire which __________ the slum area.
(1) burn, hit (2) gutted, engulfed (3) fired, took
(4) burning, blazed (5) demolished, entered
Q.8. The television boom might not __________ newspaper readership but magazines which are not leaders in
their segment might ___________.
(1) link, close (2) effect, prosper (3) reduce, encourage
(4) attract, continue (5) affect, suffer
Q.9-13. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed
below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.
Find out the appropriate words.
The North-East India is Asia in miniature, a place (9) the brown and yellow races (10) and mingle.
There are at least 262 (11) ethnic groups and the region is home to more than 150 million people. If one
includes Bangladesh. Take (12) example the state of Manipur, which (13) Burma, with a population of 1.8
million people.
Q.9. (1) when (2) although (3) where (4) to (5) if
Q.10. (1) meet (2) desert (3) form (4) find (5) went
Q.11. (1) identical (2) closed (3) corresponding (4) homogeneous (5) separate
Q.12. (1) from (2) for (3) again (4) besides (5) to
Q.13. (1) holds (2) stretches (3) rules (4) borders (5) side
Q.14-27. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are
printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
There is no field of human endeavour that has been so misunderstood as health. While health
which connotes well-being and the absence of illness has a low profile, it is illness representing the failure
of health which virtually monopolizes attention because of the fear of pain, disability and death. Even
Sushruta had warned that this provides the medical practitioner power over the patient which could be
misused.
Till recently, patients had implicit faith in their physician whom they loved and respected, not only
for his knowledge but also in the total belief that practitioners of this noble profession, guided by ethics,
always placed the patients interest above all other considerations. This rich interpersonal relationship
between the physician, patient and family has, barring a few exceptions, prevailed till the recent past, for
caring was considered as important as curing. Our indigenous systems of medicine like ayurveda and yoga
have been more concerned with the promotion of the health of both the body and mind and with maintaining
a harmonious relationship not just with fellow beings but with nature itself, of which man is an integral part.
Healthy practices like cleanliness proper diet, exercise and meditation are part of our culture which sustains
people even in the prevailing conditions of poverty in rural India and in the unhygienic urban slums.
These systems consider disease as an aberration resulting from disturbance of the equilibrium of
health, which must be corrected by gentle restoration of this balance through proper diet, medicines and the
establishment of mental peace. They also teach the graceful acceptance of old age with its infirmities
resulting from the normal degenerative process as well as of death which is inevitable.
This is in marked contrast to the western concept of life as a constant struggle against disease,
aging and death which must be fought and conquered with the knowledge and technology derivedfrom their
science a science which with its narrow dissective and quantifying approach, has provided us the understanding
of the microbial causes of communicable diseases and provided highly effective technology for their prevention,
treatment and control. This can rightly be claimed as the greatest contribution of western medicine and
MAH-MBA/MMS-CET 2014 2
justifiably termed as high technology. And yet the contribution of this science in the field on non-communicable
diseases is remarkably poor despite the far greater inputs in research communicable diseases is remarkably
poor despite the far greater inputs in research and treatment for the problems of aging like cancer, heart
diseases, paralytic strokes and arthritis which are the major problems of affluent societies today.
Q.14. Why, according to the author, people in India have survived inspite of poverty ?
(1) Their natural resistance to communicable diseases is very high.
(2) They have easy access to western technology.
(3) Their will to conquer diseases.
(4) Their harmonious relationship with the physician.
(5) None of these
Q.15. Which of the following has been described as the most outstanding benefit of modern medicine ?
(A) The real course and ways of control of communicable diseases.
(B) Evaluation of the concept of harmony between man and nature.
(C) Special techniques for fighting aging.
(1) Only (B) and (C) (2) Only (A) and (B) (3) Only (A)
(4) Only (B) (5) Only (C)
Q.16. In India traditionally the doctors were being guided mainly by which of the following ?
(1) High technology (2) Good Knowledge (3) Professional ethics
(4) Power over patient (5) Western concept of life
Q.17. Why has the field of health not been understood properly ?
(1) Difficulty in understanding distinction between health and illness.
(2) Confusion between views of indigenous and western system.
(3) Highly advanced technology being used by the professionals.
(4) Not given in the passage.
(5) None of these
Q.18. Why does the author describes the contribution of science as remarkably poor ?
(1) It concentrates more on health than on illness.
(2) It suggests, remedies for the poor people.
(3) It demands more inputs in terms of research and technology.
(4) The cost of treatment is low.
(5) None of these
Q.19. The author seems to suggest that -------
(1) we should give importance to improving the health rather than curing of illness.
(2) we should move towards becoming an affluent society.
(3) ayurveda is superior than yoga.
(4) good interpersonal relationship between the doctor and patient is necessary but not sufficient.
(5) ayurvedic medicines can be improved by following western approaches and methods of sciences
Q.20. Which of the following can be inferred about the position of the author in writing in the passage ?
(A) Ardent supporter of western system in present context.
(B) Supremacy of ancient Indian system in todays world.
(C) Critical and objective assessment of the present situation.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C)
(4) Neither (B) nor (C) (5) None of these
Q.21. What caution proponents of indigenous systems have sounded against medical practitioners?
(1) Their undue concern for the health of the person.
(2) Their emphasis on research on non-communicable diseases.
(3) Their emphasis on curing illness rather than preventive health measures.
(4) Their emphasis on restoring health for affluent members of the society.
(5) None of these
Q.22. Which of the following pairs are mentioned as contrast in the passage ?
(1) Western concept of life and science.
(2) Technology and science.
(3) Western physician and western educated Indian physician.
(4) Indian and western concept of life.
(5) Knowledge and technology.
MAH-MBA/MMS-CET 2014 3
Q.23-25. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Q.23. Concerned (1) Diluted (2) Liberated (3) Indifferent (4) Divested (5) Relaxed
Q.24. Degenerative (1) Recuperative (2) Revolving (3) Productive (4) Innovative (5) Integrative
Q.25. Inevitable (1) Undesirable (2) Unsuitable (3) Detestable (4) Avoidable (5) Available
Q.26-27. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
Q.26. Connotes (1) Helps (2) Cures (3) Follows (4) Confirms (5) Implies
Q.27. Aberration (1) Observation (2) Alternative (3) Deviation (4) Outcome (5) Stimulate
TEST OF QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Q.28. If m = 8 and y =
2
1
x, what will be the value of m
2
+ 4my + 4y
2
?
(1) 400 (2) 144 (3) 196 (4) 256 (5) None of these
Q.29. Arun, Prem and Karan started a business in partnership. The amount invested in the business by Arun
and Prem is in the ratio 2 : 3, whereas it is in the ratio 1 : 2 for Prem and Karan. If the profit in the
business is Rs. 26,950, what is the difference between the profit received by Arun and Karan ?
(1) Rs. 3,450 (2) Rs. 9,800 (3) Rs. 7,350
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.30. If m = 1.5 and n = 2.5, what is the value of 4m
2
+ 4mn + n
2
= ?
(1) 16.00 (2) 15.25 (3) 14.50 (4) 30.25 (5) None of these
Q.31. When
5
2
th of a filled up tank was emptied 1800 litres of liquid was remaining in the tank. How many litres
of the liquid, was removed from the tank ?
(1) 720 (2) 4500 (3) 1200 (4) 8100 (5) None of these
Q.32. In a certain class the ratio of number of boys to that of the girls is 4 : 5. If five girls are shifted from this
class to the other how many boys should be added or removed to make the ratio 1 : 1 ?
(1) Cannot be determined (2) 4 boys should be removed (3) 5 boys should1 be removed
(4) 5 boys should be added (5) None of these
Q.33. If a car takes 40 minutes to cover a distance of 34 kms. what is its speed per hour ?
(1) 45 kms. (2) 50 kms. (3) 51 kms. (4) 61 kms. (5) None of these
Q.34. Present age of Akanksha and Anushka are in the ratio 8 : 7. Three years back their ages were in the ratio
7 : 6. Three years from now what ratio will they have in their ages ?
(1) Cannot be determined (2) 8 : 6 (3) 8 : 9
(4) 9 : 8 (5) None of these
Q.35. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation ?
150 ? + 400 = 4000
(1) 784 (2) 676 (3) 576 (4) 484 (5) None of these
Q.36. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular field is 5 : 3. If the area of the field is 375
square metres, what is its perimeter ?
(1) 85 metres (2) 80 metres (3) 100 metres (4) 120 metres (5) None of these
Q.37. The marks obtained by Jatin in Mathematics is 10 more than the average marks obtained by him in
Science, Mathematics and English. If the total marks obtained by him in Science and English is 160,
what were his marks in Mathematics ?
(1) 90 (2) 95 (3) 80 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.38. The sum of a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the position of the digits of that
number is 66. What is the sum of the digits of that number ?
(1) 11 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 9 (5) None of these
Q.39. The perimeter of a circle is 18 units more than the area of a right-angled triangle. If the base of the triangle
is 6 cm more than the radius of the circle and the radius is 2 times the height of the triangle, what is the
area of the circle ?
(1) 88 sq. cm. (2) 616 sq. cm. (3) 308 sq. cm. (4) 176 sq. cm. (5) 693 sq. cm.
MAH-MBA/MMS-CET 2014 4
Q.40-42. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below :
Number of Six Different Models of TVs Produced by a Company over the Years
(Number in Thousands)
MODELS
YEAR A B C D E F TOTAL
1993 248 140 85 139 95 86 793
1994 252 139 90 162 110 80 833
1995 260 145 92 146 112 75 830
1996 256 138 96 145 108 68 811
1997 272 165 110 148 107 95 897
1998 280 152 112 152 125 112 933
Q.40. In which of the following years was the per cent increase/decrease in the production of model F from the
previous years the maximum ?
(1) 1998 (2) 1997 (3) 1994 (4) 1995 (5) 1996
Q.41. The total production of models C and E together in 1993 was what per cent of the production of model C
in 1994 ?
(1) 100 (2) 50 (3) 200 (4) 150 (5) None of these
Q.42. The production of model A in 1995 was approximately what percentage of the total production of all the
models together in that year ?
(1) 40 (2) 35 (3) 25 (4) 30 (5) 20
Q.43-47. Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Production of Wheat (in lakh tons) from seven states in three consecutive
years 2004, 2005 and 2006.
Q.43. What approximately is the average production of wheat (in lakh tons) from all the seven states in
2004 ?
(1) 50 (2) 55 (3) 65 (4) 62 (5) 60
Q.44. Per cent rise/fall in production from 2005 to 2006 is the highest for which of the following states ?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) None of these
Q.45. Total production of state A in three years is what percentage of the total production of state D in three
years (rounded off to two decimals) ?
(1) 89.19 (2) 87.91 (3) 86.39 (4) 89.91 (5) None of these
Q.46. What is the difference (rounded off to two decimals) between the average production of states B and F ?
(1) 0.83 lakh tons (2) 83.3 thousand tons (3) 8.33 lakh tons
(4) 8.33 thousand tons (5) None of these
2004
2005
2006
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
80
A B C D E F G
MAH-MBA/MMS-CET 2014 5
Q.47. Total production of states C and D together in three years is more/less by what percentage than the total
production of states E and F together in three years ?
(1) 6.67% more (2) 5.33% less (3) 5.67% more (4) 6.33% less (5) None of these
TEST OF LOGICAL / ABSTRACT REASONING
Q.48-52. Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both
the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both statments I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
Q.48. P is in which direction from J ?
I. P is to the West of Q, R is to the West of J.
II. J is to the North of Q.
Q.49. How many children are there in the row ?
I. Amol is fifteenth from the left end of the row and Ranjit who is five places to the right of Amol is
thirteenth from the right end of the row.
II. Amol is fifteenth from the left end of the row and Nishant who is three places to the left of Amol is
21st from the right end of the row.
Q.50. How is P related to Q ?
I. Q is the mother of Ps sister.
II. Ps mother is Qs sister.
Q.51. What is the code for have in the code language ?
I. Chi ta pe na means you have the book and ka li ta se means I have to go.
II. Chi ta pe na means you have the book and rot sot ta na means does not have book.
Q.52. Who is tallest among the five friends ?
I. Bharat is taller than Rohan who is taller than Sushil. Madan is taller than Rohan and Subodh.
II. Rohan is taller than Sushil but not as tall as Bharat who is not the tallest. Madan is taller than
Rohan and Subodh.
Q.53-57. Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts
stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and
decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer (1) if the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly follows from the statement of the
facts given.
Mark answer (2) if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts
given.
Mark answer (3) if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the
inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer (4) if the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light of the facts
given and
Mark answer (5) if the inference is definitely false i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts
given or it contradicts the given facts.
A recent study of information technology industry in India reveals that 97 per cent of the employees
are under 39, with female employees being younger than male counterparts. 66.9 per cent of them are under
25 compared to 38.5 percent of male employees. Further women employees are as suitable as male
employees. In fact, many industries feel that there is no difference in the performance of male and female
employees.
MAH-MBA/MMS-CET 2014 6
The performance ratings of female employees are higher than that of male employees. Further,
majority of women enjoy sense of safety and job satisfaction. Nearly 63 per cent women feel that work did
not come in their other creative persuits and household responsibilities.
Q.53. Young male employees are not suitable for information technology industry in India.
Q.54. The information technology industry is one of the youngest industries in India.
Q.55. A few years ago women employees have started joining the information technology industry.
Q.56. Many women probably continue doing good work in information technology industry even after their marriage.
Q.57. No other industry offers such safety and job satisfaction to its women employees.
Q.58. In a code language pla te lo means Children like playing; te wo de means Children hate studying
and fa al lo means All like flowers. So which word stands for hate in that language ?
(1) de (2) wo (3) fa (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.59. A + B means A is sister of B; B C means C is wife of B; C D means D is son of C. If all are
true how is A related to D ?
(1) Mother (2) Sister (3) Aunt (4) Grandmother (5) None of these
Q.60. 23 girls are standing one behind the other. Shikha is standing at 4th position from the beginning of the row.
Dipti is 7 positions behind Shikha, so at which position is Dipti standing from the end of the row ?
(1) 11th (2) 13th (3) 12th (4) 10th (5) None of these
Q.61. What would come in place of question mark (?) in the series based on English alphabet ?
AT RC EP ? IL
(1) NG (2) NH (3) GN (4) IN (5) None of these
Q.62. Some crows are sparrows & All sparrows are parrots. If this is true, then which of the following
statements is/are definitely true ?
I All parrots are crows.
II Some parrots are crows.
III All crows are parrots.
(1) Only III (2) Both I & III (3) Only II (4) Both I & II (5) None of these
Q.63. 22 students are standing in a row left to right. Counting from left Positions of all odd numbered students
are interchanged with next even numbered students e.g. first interchanged with second third interchanged
with fourth and so on. Suparna is standing at 13th position from left. After changing the positions what
would be her position from right ?
(1) 10th (2) 9th (3) 14th (4) 13th (5) None of these
Q.64. In a code language A + B means A and B are bothers B C means B is wife of C. C D means D
is daughter of C. In the expression A B + C D. How is B is related to D ?
(1) Father (2) Uncle (3) Brother (4) Nephew (5) None of these
Q.65. Dipti passed her graduation one year before Teja but 2 years after Trupti. Trupti completed her graduation
3 years and 2 years after Shailaja & Beena respectively, but 1 year before Harshala. Durga passed
graduation 1 year before Shailaja. So who was the last person to pass graduation ?
(1) Dipti (2) Harshala (3) Teja (4) Trupti (5) None of these
Q.66. If in the word ARCHITECTURE all odd and even numbered letters are interchanged with next odd and
even numbered letters respectively i.e. first letter with third and second with fourth and so on; what would
be third pair of letters from right ?
(1) EC (2) RE (3) AR (4) IT (5) None of these
Q.67. All chickoos are mangoes and some mangoes are oranges. If this is true then which of the following
statements is/are definitely true ?
I. Some oranges are chickoos.
II. All oranges are chickoos.
III. All chickoos are oranges.
(1) Only III (2) Both II and III (3) Only I (4) Both I and III (5) None of these
Q.68. Which letter set will come in place of the question-mark in the following series ?
QYB OSD LNH HJN ?
(1) DGV (2) CHV (3) CGW (4) CGU (5) CGV
MAH-MBA/MMS-CET 2014 7
Q.69-73. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the
following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer (1) if only assumption I is implicit, Give answer (2) if only assumption II is implicit
Give answer (3) if either I or II is implicit, Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is implicit, and
Give answer (5) if both I and II are implicit.
Q.69. Statement : Greater public participation results in good civic governance Statement of
Municipal Commissioner of City A.
Assumptions : I. The municipal office is not competent to effect good Civic administration.
II. Good civic governance is a matter of collective will and effort of the people and
administration.
Q.70. Statement : I have not received telephone bills for nine months in spite of several complaints
A telephone customers letter to the editor of a daily.
Assumptions : I. Every customer has a right to get bills regularly from the telephone company.
II. The customers complaints point to defect in the service which is expected to be
corrected.
Q.71. Statement : It would be convenient if the city bus plying between Checknaka to Vandepark is
extended to Shramnagar Appeal of residents of Checknaka to the city bus
company.
Assumptions : I. The bus companys convenience is more important than the need of the
customers.
II. The ci ty bus company i s apatheti c to the needs of the Resi dents of
Shramnagar.
Q.72. Statement : In connection with the murder of a lone resident of a flat the police have questioned
the domestic worker the watchman and the lift man of the multistoried building.
Assumptions : I. The domestic worker, watchman and liftman may have information about the
possible assailant.
II. Normally in such cases it is a person known to the resident who is involved
directly or indirectly in the murder.
Q.73. Statement : Interested and eligible candidates should send their completed bio-data form
alongwith an application outlining their suitability for the post An advertisement for
recruitment.
Assumptions : I. Mere fulfillment of eligibility and interest does not ensure suitability for the post.
II. Many candidates will apply as they are interested in that post.
Q.74-78. In each question below are given some statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV.
You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q.74. Statements : All films are clouds. All rats are clouds. Some clouds are chairs.
Conclusions : (I) No film is chair. (II) Some rats are films.
(III) Some clouds are rats. (IV) Some chairs are rats.
(1) Only I and III follow (2) Either II or IV follows (3) None follows
(4) Only IV follows (5) None of these
Q.75. Statements : Some bugs are slates. All slates are apples. No apple is car.
Conclusions : (I) Some cars are slates. (II) Some bugs are cars.
(III) Some apples are bugs. (IV) No car is bug.
(1) None follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only III follows
(4) Either II or IV and III follow (5) None of these
Q.76. Statements : All gates are flowers. Some gates are beans. Some flowers are clips.
Conclusions : (I) Some flowers are beans. (II) Some clips are beans.
(III) Some clips are gates. (IV) No flower is bean.
(1) Only I follows (2) Only either I or IV follows (3) Only II and IV follow
(4) Only I and III follow (5) None of these
MAH-MBA/MMS-CET 2014 8
Q.77. Statements : Some ice is ring. No ring is paint. Some rings are gold.
Conclusions : (I) No gold is paint. (II) No ice is gold.
(III) Some rings are paint. (IV) All gold is ring.
(1) Only I and III follow (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only II and IV follow
(4) Only II and III follow (5) None of these
Q.78. Statements : No candle is bell. Some shoes are bells. All tables are shoes.
Conclusions : (I) Some tables are bells. (II) No table is bell.
(III) Some shoes are candles. (IV) No shoe is candle.
(1) Only I and IV follow (2) Only either I or II follows (3) Only either III or IV follows
(4) Only I & III follow (5) None of these
Q.79-83. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
(i) Lectures on six subjects P, Q, R, S, T and U are organised on the same day one after the other by
six different persons A, B, C, D, E and F. Subjects and persons are not necessarily in the same
order.
(ii) First lecture was on subject Q but not by B immediately followed by Cs lecture. Lecture on subject
R is taken by E just before the last lecture. Last lecture on subject T is taught by F. Ds lecture on
subject P is between C and Bs lectures.
Q.79. Lecture on subject P is preceded by whose lecture ?
(1) B (2) E (3) B or E
(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.80. Whose lecture is at serial No. 4 ?
(1) B (2) C (3) B or C
(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.81. Who takes lecture on subject S ?
(1) C (2) B (3) C or B
(4) A or B (5) None of these
Q.82. Who takes the first lecture ?
(1) C (2) A (3) D
(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.83. Kedar walked 30 metres towards South. He then took a left turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a
left turn and walked 30 metres. How far is he from his starting point ?
(1) 60 metres (2) 20 metres (3) 50 metres
(4) 80 metres (5) None of these
There can also be problems in the form of figures, designs and drawings.
(1) Analogies :
Q.84. Problem Figures Answer Figures
The Figures on the left are Problem Figures and those on the right are Answer Figures.
The Problem Figures are presented in two units. The first unit contains two figures and the second unit
contains one figure and a question mark in place of the fourth figure. You have to find out which one of the
Answer Figures should be in place of the question mark.
Look at the first two Problem Figures. The second figure is related to the first figure in a certain way. The
second figure is double the first figure with each element half darken in a particular way. The first figure is
one square and the second figure is two squares.
The third and fourth figures should have the same relationship as the first and the second have. That means
the fourth figure should be double the third figure and also each element half darken in the same way.
Answer figures 1, 3 and 5 are having two circles. However only answer figure(5) has each circle half darken
in the same way. Therefore mark (5) as the correct answer.
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Now attempt the following question.
Q. 85 Problem Figures Answer Figures
(2) Classification :
Q. 86 Problem-Cum-Answer Figures
In classification, the Problem Figures themselves are also the Answer Figures. Out of the five figures (1),
(2), (3), (4) and (5) four are similar in a certain way. One figure is not like the other four. That means four
figures form a group. The question is which one of the figures does not belong to this group ?
Look at the question above. Of the five figures, four figures are having at least one side curved, whereas one
figure has square with all the sides as straight lines. The four figures form a group. The square does not
belong to this group. Therefore, Mark (1) as the correct answer.
Now attempt the following question :
Q. 87 Problem-Cum-Answer Figures
(3) Series :
Problem Figures Answer Figures
Note that, the five figures on the left are called Problem Figures. The five figures on the right are called
Answer Figures. They are indicated by numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
The five Problem Figures make a series. That means they change from left to right in a specific order. The
question is if the figures continue to change in the same order, what should the sixth figure be ?
In the example above as you go from left to right, you find the number of symbols increases by 1, each
symbol is repeated once and all the sybols move by one space to their right. (In anti-clockwise direction)
The question is, if all the three changes continue what will be next i.e. sixth figure ? The answer would be,
it would have six symbols, each symbol repeated twice and the left side symbol i.e. the triangle in the fifth
problem figure moves to its right by one space.
Now look at the Answer Figures. You find that Anshwer Figure (4) has all these characteristics. Therefore,
mark (4) as correct answer.
Now attempt the following question :
Q. 88. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Q 89. In each of the following problems a related pair of figures is followed by five numbered pairs of figures.
Select the pair that has a relationship similar to that in the original pair. The best answer is to be
selected from a group of fairly close choices.
Now study the following problems.
Problem Figure Answer Figures
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In the Problem figure, the element II of the figure is related to the element I of the figure in a certain way. The
element II has one side more than the element I. Also, the number of lines out side the sides of the element
II is one more than those of the element I. The pair in the Answer figure No. 5 has the same relationship i.e.
the element II of the figure has one side more than the element I of the figure. Also, the number of lines
outsides the sides of the element II are three while such lines are two in the case of element number I.
Therefore, mark (5) as the correct answer.
Q. 90. Problem Figure Answer Figures
In the Problem figure, the element II of the figure is related to the element I of the figure in a certain way. Both
the elements are lines with an arrow head but the element II has the arrow head reversed, while the element
I has usual arrow head. Also the line in the element is rotated clockwise through 90
0
to form the line in the
element II.
In the answer figure No. 2 both the elements of the figure are lines. But the element II is having the reversed
curved head compared to the curved head of element I. Also the line in element I is rotated clockwise
through 90
0
to form the line in the element II. Therefore Mark (2) as the correct answer.
Q. 91. Now attempt the following question :
Problem Figure Answer Figures
Q. 92-95. In each of the following problems, a series is established if the positions of the two out of five numbered
figures are interchanged. The position of the first unnumbered figure remains the same. It is the beginning
of the series. The earlier of the two numbered figures whose positions are interchanged is the Answer. If it
is not necessary to interchange the positions of figures to establish the series, write (5) as your answer.
Remember that when the series is established the figures change from left to right (i. e. from the unnumbered
figure to the last figure), in a specific order.
Q.92. Problem Figures
In this problem a series is established by interchanging the positions of figures (3) and (5). Therefore, mark
(3) as the correct answer.
Q. 93. Problem Figures
In this problem, a series is already established. It is not necessary to interchange the positions of any
two numbered figures. Therefore, Mark (5) as the correct Answer.
Q. 94 Now solve the following problems.
Problem Figures
Q. 95. Problem Figures
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