BOARD REVIEW QUESTIONS IN BIOCHEMISTRY

1. What is the ion product of water?

A. It is the total number of negatively and positively charged ions in 1 liter of aqueous solution.
B. It is the product of the concentrations of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in an aqueous solution.
C. It is the number of ionized molecules of water in 1 mole of pure water.
D. It is the sum of all hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in an aqueous solution.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. pp.18-19
MPL: 0.75
2. A very anxious student hyperventilates an hour before the biochemistry board exam. What is the effect of
hyperventilation on his Pco2 and blood pH?
A. Pco2 decreases and pH increases.
B. Pco2 decreases and pH decreases.
C. Pco2 increases and pH decreases.
D. Pco2 increases and pH increases.
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. Pp. 18-19
MPL: 0.25
3. A protein rich in which of the following amino acids will provide the greatest buffering capacity at
physiologic pH?
A. Valine
B. Aspartic acid
C. Lysine
D. Histidine
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.26
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4. Which of the following laboratory results would best indicate metabolic alkalosis?
A. Increased Pco2, increased pH, increased HCO3.
B. Normal Pco2, increased pH, decreased HCO3.
C. Increased Pco2, increased pH, normal HCO3.
D. Decreased Pco2, increased pH, normal HCO3.
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.304
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5. What is the property of water that will contribute the most to its ability to dissolve compounds?
A. Very few interactive forces in its structure.
B. Hydrogen bond formation between water and long-chain fatty acids.
C. Covalent bond formation between salt and water.
D. Hydrogen bond formation between water and biochemical molecules.
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.15-17
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6. A childs developmental progress is noted to stop at 2 years old. The following year, skeletal deformities
appear. The child regresses to a vegetative state at 10 years old. Urine examination tests positive for
glucosaminoglycans that include most likely which of the following?
A. Collagen
B. Glycogen
C. GABA
D. Heparan sulfate
Ans. D
Ref. Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 673
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7. A 3-year old child is diagnosed to have Hurlers syndrome. The diagnosis of Hurlers syndrome is MOST
efficiently made by analyzing the patients DNA for:
A. A region of DNA that does not encode RNA.
B. Alternative forms of the L-Iduronidase gene.
C. The entire set of genes in one leukocyte.
D. A nucleotide substitution in the L-Iduronidase gene.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 678
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8. Which of the following statements regarding a double-helical molecule of DNA is TRUE?
A. All hydroxyl groups of pentoses are involved in linkages.
B. Bases are perpendicular to the axis.
C. Each strand is identical.
D. Each strand replicates itself.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.386
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9. A human DNA sample is subjected to increasing temperature until its major fraction exhibit optical density
changes. A minor fraction of the sample DNA is atypical because it required a higher temperature to
denature. This atypical minor fraction of sample DNA must have a higher content of:
A. Adenine + Cytosine
B. Cytosine + Guanine
C. Adenine + Thymine
D. Adenine + Guanine
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 387-388
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10. A newborn baby has a sibling with sickle cell anemia and is at risk for this disease. The appropriate
diagnostic test for sickle cell anemia in this baby would include which of the following?
A. DNA amplification
B. Hemoglobin antibodies
C. Red cell counting
D. DNA fingerprinting
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 468
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11. Which of the following would BEST describe polymorphism?
A. One phenotype, multiple genotypes
B. Non-random allele association
C. One locus, multiple abnormal alleles
D. One locus, multiple normal alleles
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 476
12. What is that process that occurs at the 5-position of Cytidine and is often correlated with gene
inactivation?
A. Gene conversion
B. Sister chromatid exchange
C. Gene rearrangement
D. DNA methylation
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.466
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13. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) analysis can only be used to follow the inheritance of
a genetic disease if:
A. The disease-causing mutation is at or closely linked to an altered restriction site.
B. Proteins of mutated and normal genes migrate differently upon gel electrophoresis.
C. Mutations are outside restriction sites so that cleaving still occurs.
D. mRNA probes are used in combination with antibodies.
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 478
14. DNA polymerases synthesize DNA only in the 5 to 3 direction. However, at the replication fork, both
parentral strands of DNA are being replicated with the synthesis of new DNA. How is it possible that while
one strand is being synthesized in the 5 to 3 direction, the other strand appears to be synthesized in the
3 to 5 direction? This is best explained by:
A. 3 to 5 DNA repair enzymes
B. 3 to 5 DNA polymerase
C. Okazaki fragments
D. Lack of RNA primer on one of the strands.
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p407
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15. The chromosomes of mammalian cells are 20 times as large as those of Escherichia coli. How can
replication of mammalian chromosomes be carried out in just a few minutes?
A. The higher temperature of mammalian cells allows for an exponentially higher replication rate.
B. Hundreds of replication forks work simultaneously on each piece of chromosomal DNA.
C. Many RNA polymerases carry out replication simultaneously on chromosomal DNA.
D. The presence of histones speeds up the rate of chromosomal DNA replication.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 407
16. Sickle cell anemia is the manifestation of homozygous genes for an abnormal hemoglobin molecule. The
mutation in the beta-chain is known to produce a single amino acid change. The most likely mechanism for
this mutation is:
A. Two base insertion
B. Three base deletion
C. Nondysjunction
D. Point mutation
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 734

17. A culture of bacteria not resistant to Tetracycline develops an infection from a virus that is derived from the
lysis of tetracycline-resistant bacteria. Most of the bacterial progeny of the original culture is found to have
become resistant to tetracycline. What phenomenon has occurred?
A. Conjugation
B. Recombination
C. Transformation
D. Transduction
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 471
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18. Following ultraviolet damage to DNA in the skin, which of the following is MOST likely to occur?
A. A specific nuclease detects damaged areas.
B. Purine dimmers are formed.
C. Both strands are cleaved.
D. Endonuclease removes the damaged strand.
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 814
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19. Which of the following statements about the genetic code is the MOST accurate?
A. Information is stored as sets of dinucleotide repeats called codons.
B. The code is degenerate.
C. There are 64 codons, all of which code for amino acids.
D. Information is stored as sets of trinucleotide repeats called codons.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 433-434
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20. Which of the following is provided by the Northern Blot Analysis?
A. Detection of specific base pairs.
B. Detection of DNA molecules.
C. Detection of RNA molecules.
D. Detection of proteins.
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 472-473
MPL: 1.0
21. In contrast to DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase:
A. Fills in the gap between the Okazaki fragments.
B. Works only in a 5 to 3 direction.
C. Edits as it synthesizes.
D. Synthesizes RNA primer to initiate DNA synthesis.
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 418
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22. The removal of introns and subsequent self-splicing of adjacent exons occurs in some portions of primary
ribosomal RNA transcripts. The splicing of introns in mRNA precursors is:
A. RNA-catalyzed in the absence of protein.
B. Carried out by spliceosomes.
C. Controlled by RNA polymerase.
D. Regulated by RNA helicase.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.426
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23. What is the function of a promoter site on DNA?
A. Transcribes repressor
B. Initiates transcription
C. Codes for RNA polymerase
D. Regulates termination
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 420
MPL: 1.0
24. The sigma factor found in many bacteria is best described as a:
A. Subunit of RNA polymerase responsible for the specificity of the initiation of transcription.
B. Subunit of DNA polymerase that allows for the synthesis in both 5 to 3 and 3 to 5 directions.
C. Subunit of the 50S ribosome that catalyzes peptide bond synthesis.
D. Subunit of the 30S ribosome to which mRNA binds.
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 418
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25. A 23-year old man was rushed to the emergency room with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
Remnants of the death-cap wild mushroom Amanita phalloides were noted upon laboratory examination of
his vomitus. A liver biopsy indicates massive hepatic necrosis. Care is supportive. A major toxin of the
death cap mushroom inhibits which of the following?
A. DNA primase
B. RNA nuclease
C. DNA ligase
D. RNA polymerase
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 420
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26. The consensus sequence 5-TATAAAA-3 found ineukaryotic genes is almost similar to a consensus
sequence observed in prokaryotes. The consensus sequence is important as the:
A. Only site of binding of RNA polymerase II.
B. Promoter site for all RNA polymerases.
C. Termination site for RNA polymerase II.
D. First site of binding of a transcription factor for RNA polymerase II.
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. pp. 421-422
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27. The so-called caps of RNA molecules:
A. Allow tRNA to be processed.
B. Occur at the 3-end of tRNA.
C. Are composed of poly A.
D. Are unique to eukaryotic mRNA.
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 428
MPL: 1.0
28. In bacterial RNA synthesis, what is the function of the rho factor?
A. It binds catabolite repressor to the promoter region.
B. It increases the rate of RNA synthesis.
C. It eliminates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.
D. It participates in the proper termination of transcription.
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 419
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29. Which of the following statements correctly describes the nucleolus of a mammalian cell?
A. It differs from that found in bacterial cells in that histones are present.
B. It may contain hundreds of copies of genes for different types of ribosomal RNAs.
C. It synthesizes 5S rRNA.
D. It synthesizes all ribosomal RNA primary transcripts.
Ans. B
Ref; Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 428
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30. Which of the following statements correctly describes the synthesis of mammalian mRNA?
A. Each mRNA often encodes several different proteins.
B. Several different genes may produce identical mRNA molecules.
C. Mammalian mRNA undergoes minimal modification during its maturation.
D. The RNA sequence transcribed from a gene is identical to the mRNA that exits from nucleus to
cytoplasm.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 427
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31. Certain amino acids are not part of the primary structure of proteins but are modified after translation. In
scurvy, which amino acid that is normally part of collagen is not synthesized?
A. Hydroxytryptophan
B. Hydroxytyrosine
C. Hydroxyhistidine
D. Hydroxyproline
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. pp. 668-669
MPL: 1,0
32. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) molecules can be characterized by which of the following statements?
A. They are maintained at a constant level in the serum.
B. They contain nucleic acids.
C. They contain mostly carbohydrates.
D. They can be separated into subunits with a reducing agent and urea.
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.716
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33. Which of the following proteolytic enzymes is activated by acid hydrolysis of the proenzyme form?
A. Trypsin
B. Elastase
C. Pepsin
D. Carboxypeptidase
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.636
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34. Which of the following amino acids is ionizable in proteins?
A. Leucine
B. Histidine
C. Valine
D. Alanine
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 294
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35. The oxygen carrier of muscle is the globular protein myoglobin. Which of the following amino acids is
highly likely to be localized within the interior of the molecule?
A. Arginine
B. Aspartic acid
C. Glutamic acid
D. Valine
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.53
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36. Which of the following statements concerning immunoglobulins is most accurate?
A. IgE is the principal antibody in the serum.
B. The heavy chains are similar in each class of immunoglobulin.
C. The constant regions of the heavy chains are the same in each class of immunoglobulin.
D. IgE is the major immunoglobulin found in external secretions.
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.718
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37. Under normal conditions in the blood, which of the following amino acid residues of albumin is neutral?
A. Arginine
B. Aspartate
C. Glutamine
D. Histidine
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 294
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38. A child develops chronic diarrhea and liver inflammation in early infancy when the mother begins using
formula that includes corn syrup. Evaluation of the child demonstrates sensitivity to fructose in the diet.
Which of the following glycosides contains fructose and therefore should be avoided when feeding or
treating this infant?
A. Sucrose
B. Oaubain
C. Lactose
D. Maltose
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.135
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39. Which of the following carbohydrates would be most abundant in a diet of strict vegetarians?
A. Amylose
B. Lactose
C. Cellulose
D. Glycogen
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 141
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40. The major metabolic product under normal circumstances by erythrocytes and by muscle cells during
intense exercise is recycled through the liver in the Cori cycle. The metabolite is:
A. Oxaloacetate
B. Glycerol
C. Alanine
D. Lactate
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 200-201
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41. Chronic alcoholics require more ethanol than do nondrinkers to become intoxicated because of a higher
level of a specific enzyme levels, the availability of what other substance is rate-limiting in the clearance of
alcohol?
A. NADH
B. NAD+
C. FADH
D. FAD+
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. pp. 601-603
42. Following a fad diet of skimmed milk and yogurt, an adult female patient experiences abdominal
distention, nausea, cramping, and pain followed by watery diarrhea. This set of symptoms is observed
each time the said meal is consumed. A most likely diagnosis is:
A. Steatorrhea
B. Lactase deficiency
C. Sialidase deficiency
D. Lipoprotein deficiency
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 645
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43. A percentage of Filipino population may flush and feel discomfort after drinking small amounts of ethanol
in alcoholic beverages. This reaction is due to genetic variation in an enzyme that metabolizes the liver
metabolite of alcohol, which is:
A. Methanol
B. Acetone
C. Acetaldehyde
D. Glycerol
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 264
44. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the high-energy phosphorylation of substrates during
glycolysis?
A. Pyruvate kinase
B. Phosphoglycerate kinase
C. Triosephosphate isomerase
D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.176
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45. Which of the following enzymes is common to both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?
A. Pyruvate carboxylase
B. Hexokinase
C. Phosphoglycerate kinase
D. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
Ans. C
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.194
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46. During the first week of a diet of 1500 calories per day, the oxidation of glucose via glycolysis in the liver of
a normal 59-kg woman is inhibited by the lowering of which of the following?
A. Citrate
B. ATP
C. Ketone bodies
D. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p.176
47. Familial fructokinase deficiency causes no symptoms because:
A. Hexokinase can phosphorylate fructose.
B. Most tissues utilize fructose.
C. Liver fructose-1-phosphate aldolase is still active.
D. Excess fructose spills into the bowel and is eliminated in the feces.
Ans. A
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 214
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48. A newborn begins vomiting after feeding, becomes severely jaundiced, and has liver disease. Treatment
for possible sepsis is initiated, and the urine is found to have reducing substances. A blood screen for
galactosemia is positive, and lactose-containing substances are removed from the diet. Lactose is toxic in
this case because:
A. Excess glucose accumulated in the blood.
B. Galactose is converted to the toxic substance galactitol.
C. Galactose itself is toxic in even small amounts.
D. Glucose metabolism is shut down by excess galactose.
Ans. B
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 205

49. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes phosphorylation with the use of inorganic phosphate?
A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Phosphoglycerate kinase
D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
Ans. D
Ref: Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 179
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50. After a well-rounded breakfast, which of the following would be expected to occur?
A. Increased activity of pyruvate carboxylase
B. Decreased activity of acetyl CoA carboxylase
C. Decreased rate of glycogenesis
D. Decreased rate of protein synthesis
Ans.
C
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 179
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0.75
51. The ability of hemoglobin to serve as an effective transporter of oxygen and carbon dioxide between lungs
and tissue is explained by which of the ff. properties?
A. The isolated heme group with ferrous iron binds oxygen much more avidly than carbon dioxide
B. The and globin chains of hemoglobin have very fifferent primary structures than
myoglobin
C. Hemoglobin utilizes oxidized ferric iron to bind oxygen, in contrats to the ferrous ion myoglobin.
D. In contrast to myoglobin, hemoglobin exhibits greater changes in secondary and tertiary structure
after oxygen binding
Ans. D
Ref. Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 436
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52. Contraction of skeletal muscle is initiated by the binding of calcium to:
A. Tropomyosin
B. Troponin
C. Myosin
D. Actomyosin
Ans
B
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 687-688
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53. Which of the following statements correctly describes transport of oxygen by hemoglobin?
A. Oxygen binds to hemoglobin more avidly than does carbon monoxide.
B. The binding of oxygen to hemoglobin causes a valence change in the iron of the heme moiety.
C. Each of the four heme moieties binds oxygen independently
D. The plot of percentage of oxygen bound versus oxygen pressure is sigmoid in shape
Ans.
D
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 436
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54. Which of the following mutations would produce a severe form of thalassemia?
A. Deletion of one -globin locus
B. Deletion of one -globin locus
C. Oxidation of heme groups to produce methemoglobin
D. Altered RNA processing at both
Ans.
D
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 734
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55. The substitution of valine for glutamate at position 6 on the two chains in sickle cell hemoglobin causes
which of the following?
A. Increased electrophoretic mobility at pH 7.0
B. Increased solubility of deoxyhemoglobin
C. Decreased polymerization of deoxyhemoglobin
D. Unchanged primary structure
Ans.
A
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 476
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56. An increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen may result from which of the following?
A. Initial binding of oxygen to one of the four sites available in each deoxyhemoglobin molecule
B. High pH
C. High carbon dioxide levels
D. High 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate levels within erthrocytes
Ans.
A
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 436
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57. The functions of many enzymes, membrane transporters, and other proteins can be quickly activated or
deactivated by phosphorylation of specific amino acid residues catalyzed by enzymes called:
A. Cyclases
B. Kinases
C. Phosphatases
D. Proteases
Ans
B
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 64-65
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58. The chemotherapeutic drug fluoracil undergoes a series of chemical changes in vivo that results in a
complex such that it is bound to both thymidylate synthase and methylene-tetrahydrofolate. The inhibition
of deoxythymidylate formation and subsequent blockage of cell division is due to:
A. Allosteric inhibition
B. Competitive inhibition
C. Irreversible inhibition
D. Non-covalent inhibition
Ans
C
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 86-88
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59. The Vmax of the enzyme is the:
A. Reciprocal of the absolute value of the intercept of the curve with the x-axis
B. Reciprocal of the absolute value of the intercept of the curve with the y-axis
C. Absolute value of the intercept of the curve with the x-axis
D. Slope of the curve
Ans
B
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 75-90
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60. In the study of enzymes, the sigmoidal plot of substrate concentration versus reaction velocity may
indicate:
A. Michaelis-Menten Kinetics
B. Myoglobin binding oxygen
C. Cooperative binding
D. Competitive inhibition
Ans
C
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 75, 90
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61. A non competitive inhibitor of an enzyme:
A. Increases Km with no or little change in Vmax
B. Decreases Km and decreases Vmax
C. Decreases Vmax
D. Increases Vmax
Ans
C
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 86-88
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62. Which of the following statements correctly describes allosteric enzymes?
A. Effectors may enhance or inhibit substrate binding
B. They are not usually controlled by feedback inhibition
C. The regulatory site may be catalytic site
D. Michaelis-Menten kinetics describe their activity
Ans
A
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 104-105
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63. Which of the following enzymes is regulated primarily through allosteric interaction?
A. Chymotrypsin
B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Aspartate transcarbamoylase
Ans
D
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 104-105
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64. A comatose laboratory technician is rushed into the emergency room. She dies while you are examining
her. Her most dramatic symptom is that her body is literally hot to your touch, indicating an extremely high
fever. You learn that her lab has been working on metabolic inhibitors and that there is a high likelihood
that she accidentally ingested one. Which one of the following is the MOST likely culprit?
A. Barbiturates
B. Piericidin A
C. Dimercaprol
D. Dinitrophenol
Ans
D
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 128
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65. Which of the following statements about flavoproteins is TRUE?

A. They are not oxidized by coenzymeQ
B. They receive electrons from cytochrome P450 in liver mitochondria
C. They do not participate in oxidation of NADH dehydrogenises
D. They can be associated with sulfur and nonheme iron
Ans
D
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 117-118
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66. As electrons are received and passed down the transport chain, the various carriers are first reduced with
acceptance of the electron and then oxidized with loss of the electron. A patient poisoned by which of the
following compounds has the MOST highly reduced state of the respiratory chain carriers?
A. Antimycin A
B. Rotenone
C. Carbon Monoxide
D. Puromycin
Ans
C
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 128
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67. Which of the following compounds is a member of the electron transport chain?
A. Octanoyl carnitine
B. Cytochrome c
C. NADH
D. Palmitoyl carnitine
Ans
C
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 128
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68. All known effects of cyclic AMP in eukaryotic cells result from:
A. Activation of the catalytic unit of adenylate cyclase
B. Activation of synthetases
C. Activation of protein kinase
D. Stimulation of calcium release from the endoplasmic reticulum
Ans
C
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 165
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69. The connection between oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport is BEST described by:
A. Existence of higher pH in the cisternae of the endoplasmic reticulum than in the cytosol.
B. Synthesis of ATP as protons into the mitochondrial matrix along a proton gradient that exist
across the inner mitochondrial membrane
C. Dissociation of electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation
D. Absence of ATPase in the inner mitochondrial membrane
Ans
B
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 127
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70. If all potential sources of ATP production are taken into account, the net number of ATP molecules formed
per molecule of glucose in aerobic glycolysis is:
A. 2
B. 6
C. 18
D. 36
Ans
B
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 176-184
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71. Which of the following reactions generates ATP/
A. Glucose 6-phosphate to Fructose 6-phosphate
B. Glucose to Glucose 6-Phosphate
C. Fructose 6-phosphate to Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
D. Phosphoenolpyruvate
Ans
D
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 176-184
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72. which of the following products of triacylglycerol breakdown and subsequent -oxidation may undergo
gluconeogenesis?
A. Propionyl CoA
B. Acetyl CoA
C. All ketone bodies
D. Some amino acids
Ans
A
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 284
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73. Which of the following regulates lipolysis in adipocytes?

A. Activation of fatty acid synthesis mediated by cAMP
B. Activation of triglyceride lipase as a result of hormone-stimulated increases in cAMP production
by insulin
C. Glyerol phosphorylation to prevent futile esterification of fatty acids
D. Activation of cAMP production by insulin
Ans
D
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 267
74. Inhibition of ATP synthesis during oxidative phosphorylation by oligomycin is thought to be due to:
A. Blocking of the proton gradient between NADH-Q reductase & QH 2
B. Blocking of the proton gradient between cytochrome C 1 and cytochrome C
C. Dissociation of cytochrome c from mitochondrial membranes
D. Inhibition of mitochondrial ATPase
Ans
D
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 701
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75. The reactions of the urea cycle occur:
A. In the cytosol
B. In the mitochondrial matrix
C. In the mitochondrial matrix & the cytosol
D. Only in lysosomes
Ans
C
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 301-380
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76. A newborn becomes progressively lethargic after feeding and increases his respiratory rate. He becomes
virtually comatose, responding only to painful stimuli, and exhibits mild respiratory alkalosis. Suspicion of
urea cycle disorder is aroused and evaluation of serum amino acids levels is initiated. In the presence of
hyperammonemia, production of which of the following amino acids is always increased?
A. Glycine
B. Arginine
C. Proline
D. Glutamine
Ans
D
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 267
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77. The thyroid hormone thyroxine (T4) is derived from:
A. Threonine
B. Tyrosine
C. Thiamine
D. Tryptophan
Ans
B
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 534-536
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78. Which of the metabolites below is a precursor of tyrosine?
A. L-dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA)
B. Dopamine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Phenylalanine
Ans
D
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 296-297
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79. Which clinical laboratory observation is suggestive of Hartnups disease?
A. High fecal levels of tryptophan and indole derivatives
B. Elevated plasma tyrosine and methionine levels
C. Elevation of glutamine in blood and urine
D. Extremely high levels of citrulline in urine
Ans
A
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 322-325
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80. The important receive group of glutathione in its role as antioxidant is:
A. Serine
B. Sulfhydryl
C. Tyrosine
D. Acetyl CoA
Ans
B
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 753
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81. A newborn develops jaundice that requires laboratory evaluation. Which of the following porphyrin
derivatives is conjugated, reacts directly, and is a major component of bile?
A. Stercobilin
B. Biliverdin
C. Bilirubin
D. Bilirubin diglucuronide
Ans
D
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 356
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82. Which of the following poryphrins give stools their characteristic brown color?
A. Biliverdin
B. Urobilinogen
C. Heme
D. Stercobilin
Ans
D
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 354
83. Chylomicrons, IDL, LDL, and VLDL are all serum lipoproteins. What is the correct ordering of these
particles from the lowest to the highest density?
A. LDL, IDL, VLDL, Chylomicrons
B. Chylomicrons, VLDL, IDL, LDL
C. VLDL, IDL, LDL, Chylomicrons
D. Chylomicrons, IDL, VLDL, LDL
Ans
B
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 708
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84. Ceramide is a precursor to which of the following compounds?
A. Phosphatidyl serine
B. Sphingomyelin
C. Phosphatidyl glycerol
D. Phosphatidyl choline
Ans
B
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 250-252
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85.

Which of the following steps in cholesterol biosynthesis is thought to be rate-limiting and the locus of
metabolic regulation?
A. Geranyl pyrophosphate to Farnesyl pyrophosphate
B. Squalene to Lanosterol
C. Lanosterol to Cholesterol
D. 3-hydroxy-3-metylglutaryl CoA to Mevalonic acid
Ans
B
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 274

86. Humans MOST easily tolerate a lack of which of the following nutrients?
A. Protein
B. Iodine
C. Carbohydrate
D. Lipid
Ans
C
Ref.

Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 285-286

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87. A deficiency in Vitamin B12 causes:

A. Cheilosis
B. Beriberi
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Scurvy
Ans
D
Ref.

Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 612-613

88. Which of the following vitaminswould MOST likely become deficient in a person who develops a
completely carnivorous lifestyle?
A. Thiamine
B. Niacin
C. Cobalamin
D. Vitamin C
Ans
D
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 612-613
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89. Fully activated pyruvate carboxylase depends upon the presence of:
A. Malate and Niacin
B. Acetyl CoA and Biotin
C. Acetyl CoA and Thiamine pyrophosphate
D. Oxaloacetate
Ans
B
Ref.

Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 194

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90. Biotin is involved in which of the following types of reactions?

A. Hydroxlations
B. Carboxylations
C. Decarboxylations
D. Dehydrations
Ans
B
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 606-607
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91. Which of the following conditions would primarily produce a functional deficiency of Vitamin K?
A. Coumadin Therapy
B. Broad Spectrum antibiotic
C. Premature birth
D. Lack of red meat in the diet
Ans
A
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 727
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92. A 3 month old boy presents with poor feeding & growth, hypotonia, lactic acidemia, and mild acidosis.
The pyruvate to lactate ratio is high, and there is decreased conversion of pyruvate to Acetyl CoA. Which
of the following may be considered for therapy?
A. Thiamine
B. FFA
C. Biotin
D. Vitamin C
Ans
A
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 183
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93. A 2-year old child presents with cough and bronchitis, growth failure, & chronic diarrhea with light-colored
foul smelling stools. A deficiency of which vitamin should be considered?
A. Vit B6
B. Vit C
C. Vit A
D. Vit B1
Ans
C
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 614-617
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94. an infant presents with prominent forehead, bowing of the limbs, broad & tender wrists, swelling at the
costochondral junction of the ribs, and irritability. Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate
for this patient?
A. Removal of eggs from diet
B. Milk & Sunlight exposure
C. Diet of baby food containing liver & ground beef
D. Diet of baby food containing leafy vegetables
Ans
C
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 613
MPL
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95. Allopurinol effectively treats gout but has NO effect on the severe neurological symptoms of Lesch-Nyhan
patients because it does not:
A. Decrease de Novo purine synthesis
B. Decrease de Novo Pyrimidine syntheis
C. Inhibit xanthine oxidase
D. Increase PRPP levels
Ans
A
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 378
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96. Which of the following would rule out hyperuricemia in a ptient?
A. Lesch-Nyhan synthesis
B. Gout
C. Carbonage phosphate deficiency
D. Xanthine oxidase hyperactivity
Ans
C
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 381
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97. Which of the following contributes nitrogen atom to both purine & pyrimidine rings?
A. Aspartate
B. Carbonage PO4
C. CO2

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98. What is the end product of fatty acid synthase activity in human?
A. Palmitic acid
B. Palmetoleic acid
C. Linoleic
D. Arachidonic acid
Ans
A
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 216-223
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99. For every 2 moles of free glycerol released by lipolysis of triglycerides in adipose tissue?
A. 1 mole of glucose can be synthesized via gluconeogenesis
B. 2 moles of triacylglyceride is released
C. 2 moles of FFA is released
D. 3 moles of Acyl CoA is produced
Ans
A
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 267
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100. A 45 year old man ha s a mild heart attack and is placed on diet and Metastatin therapy.
Which of the following will result in this therapy?
A. Low blood glucose level
B. Low blood LDLs
C. High blood cholesterol
D. Low oxidation of Fa
Ans
B
Ref.
Harpers Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 281
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13