1) Regarding drug administration:

Choose 2 of the following options.

a) the sublingual route avoids first-pass inactivation in the liver
b) suppositories expose the drug to first-pass metabolism
c) distribution of nebulised drug in the respiratory tree depends on the par
ticle size
d) highly water soluble drugs are administered by the transdermal route
e) drugs given by the oral route should have a very high extraction ratio

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------2) Regarding protein binding of drugs in the plasma:

Choose 3 of the following options.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

highly protein bound drugs have a longer biological half-life

protein binding is markedly different in arterial and venous blood
free drug concentration is not altered in hypoalbuminaemic states
alpha-1 acid glycoprotein principally binds to basic drugs
the greater the protein binding, the lesser the volume of distribution

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------3) Alprostadil (PGE1) and Epoprostenol (PGI2):

Choose 4 of the following options.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

are principally metabolised in the lungs

dilate ductus arteriosus to increase pulmonary blood flow in neonates
inhibit platelet aggregation
improve oxygenation in ARDS patients when used by the nebulised route
do not cause apnoea in neonates

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------4) The following statements about drug half-life are correct:

Choose 3 of the following options.
a) the half-life of a drug is shorter than its time constant
b) drugs given by infusion without a bolus reach a steady state in five half

-lives
c) the extent of drug distribution into the total body water or extracellula
r fluid is unlikely to affect t1/2
d) context-sensitive half life can be used for any drug
e) about 94% of a drug is cleared from the body in four half-lives

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------5) First-order processes:

Choose 4 of the following options.
a)
b)
acting
c)
d)
e)

apply to enzyme-mediated reactions

are characterised by high rates of reaction when the concentrations of re
substances are high, and vice verse
can properly be described in terms of t1/2
are involved in the elimination of most drugs
change to zero-order kinetic at very high drug doses

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------6) Regarding drug clearance by the body:

Choose 2 of the following options.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

this only refers to elimination by the kidney

this refers to the volume of plasma cleared of the drug in unit time
it cannot exceed the glomerular filtration rate
it is dependent on its volume of distribution
hepatic clearance is expressed as extraction ratio

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------7) 5-HT:
Choose 4 of the following options.
a) is synthesised from tyrosine by enterochromaffin cells of the gastrointes
tinal tract
b) is also an endogenous neurotransmitter in the brain
c) is metabolised by monoamine oxidase to hydroxyindole acetic acid
d) is degraded to a great extent by pulmonary endothelial cells
e) can cause vasoconstriction and increased gastrointestinal motility

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------8) Concerning metabolism of following drugs:

Choose 4 of the following options.
a) lidocaine is metabolised to monoethylglycinexylidide (MEGX) in the liver
b) lithium is almost entirely excreted unchanged by the kidney
c) gentamicin is metabolised in the liver and excreted in the bile
d) chlorpromazine is degraded via microsomal oxidative metabolism in the liv
er
e) levodopa crosses the blood-brain barrier and is then converted to dopamin
e

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------9) Regarding arterial blood gas analysis:

Choose 4 of the following options.
a) hydrogen, oxygen and CO2 electrodes measure at 37 degrees C
b) PaO2 read by gas analyser would be higher than patient s PaO2 at 37 degrees
C
c) the pH of the blood rises by 0.015 units per 10 degrees C decrease in bod
y temperature
d) the alpha-stat approach is to keep uncorrected PaCO2 and pH at normal lev
els
e) PaCO2 of a patient at 30 degrees C will be lower than that at body temper
ature

) Endometrial Carcinoma with vaginal metastasis is staged as

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

II b
III a
III b
III c
IV a

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

2) Stress urinary incontenence is characterised by involuntary loss of urine wit

h all of the following EXCEPT
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Coughing
Exercising
Laughing
Sleeping
Sneezing

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------3) The following are associated with increased incidence of recurrent pregnancy
loss EXCEPT
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
e)

Presence of thyroid antibodies

Polycystic ovarian disease
Overt diabetes mellitus *d) Partial HLA homozygosity
Balanced translocation in either patient

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------4) Management of proximal tubal occlusion is all EXCEPT

One answer only.
a) Transcervical canulation
b) Intramural isthmic anastomosis
c) Uterotubal implantation *d) Isthmic - Isthmic anastomosis

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------5) Which of the following is most reliable in diagnosing ovarian malignancy ?

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Medical history
Plain Xray
Physical examination
US
Cytology from ovarian cyst fluid

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------6) Which of the following is not associated with an increased risk for ovarian c
arcinoma ?
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Radiation exposure
Nulliparity
A diet low in fibre and Vit A.
Familial tendency
Peutz - Jeghers Syndrome

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------7) Approximately 75 - 80% of ovarian tumors originate from

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Epithelium
Stroma
Germ cells
Mesoderm
Unclassified tissue

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------8) Side effects of Gn RH agonists includes all of the following EXCEPT

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Hot flashes
Vaginal dryness
Bone resorption & osteoporosis
Headache
Decreased high density lipoproteins

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

9) The least common side effect caused b GnRH agonists is

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Decreased libido
Vasomotor symptoms
Headache
Vaginal dryness
Mood changes

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------10) Least expensive hormonal regimen for treatment of pelvic pain caused by endo
metriosis
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Danazol
Medroxy progesterone
Nafarclin
Buscrelin
Leuprolide

1) The standard Cu 250 IUCD is appropriate for a uterus having uterocervical len
gth of
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

5
6
7
8

8 cm
9 cm
10 cm
11 cm

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------2) An ideal candidate for the use of IUCD as a contraceptive method should have
all of the following EXCEPT
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Nulliparous
One child
Normal menstrual cycle
Monogamous relationship

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------3) The commonest complication of laparoscopic ring tubal ligation is

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Failure of sterilization
Menstrual abnormality
Mesosalpingeal bleeding
Bowel injury
Wound infection

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------4) Which of the following cancidates will be immediately eligible for sterilizat
ion
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Women having uncontrolled diabetes

Women having Hb < 8 gm %
Past h/o treated pulmonary koch's
Febrile patient

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------5) After vasectomy , a backup contraceptive method is required for how many week
s
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

8 wks
10 wks
12 wks
14 wks

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------6) AFP is most often useful for monitoring the response to treatment of which ge
rm cell tumor
One answer only.

a)
b)
c)
d)

Dysgerminima
Immature teratoma
Endodermal sinus tumor
Choriocarcinoma

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------7) Granulosa cell tumor are associated with all EXCEPT

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Isosexual precoerty
Endometrial hyperplasia & adenocarcinoma
Present most commonly before the age of 5
Vaginal bleeding

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------8) Combination chemotherapy regimen in Ca ovary

One answer only.
a) Is the treatment of choice for most patients with residual disease follow
ing surgery
b) Less toxic than single agent therapy
c) Less expensive than single agent therapy
d) Produces better results if it is a combination containing cyclophosphamid
e
e) None of the above

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------9) The following are the pathological features of an ovary , EXCEPT

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Round shape with irregular internal or external outline

Thick septae of > 5mm
Size more than 10 cm
Volume < 8ml in postmenopausal woman

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------10) The following are the factors associated with CIN EXCEPT
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Onset of coitus at early stage

Multiple sexual partners
Lower socioeconomic status
Nulliparity
H/o veneral disease

) Intrauterine pregnancy rate after linear salpingostomy is approximately

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

35%
45%
60%
75%
90%

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------2) All of the following are necessary for the treatment of ectopic pregnancy wit
h MTX EXCEPT
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Unruptured
No pain
< 4 cm size ly US
Hemodynamically stable
Normal blood count & liver enzymes

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------3) Which of the following side effects is least common with cisplatin
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Thrombocytopenia
Hypomagnesimia
Cardiac toxicity
Neuropathy

e) High frequency hearing loss

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------4) Perforation tends to occur earliest when an ectopic pregnancy is located in w

hich portion of fallopian tube ?
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Isthmic
Interstitial
Ampullary
Infundibular
No difference

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------5) The rate of disappearance of hCG is most rapid in which condition

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Induced abortion
Spontaneous abortion
Complete removal of ectopic pregnancy by resection
Complete removal of ectopic pregnancy by linear salpingostomy
No difference

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------6) Which is the least frequent site of an ectopic pregnancy

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Fallopian tube
Cervix
Ovary
Abdominal cavity
Between the leaves of broad ligament

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

7) What treatment is recommended for a complete tubal abortion when the fallopia
n tube appears undamaged, there is no further bleeding, and product of gestation
have been expelled
One answer only.
a)
b)
as and
c)
d)
e)

Non operative treatment

Evacuation of production of gestation and blood clots from pouch of Dougl
peritoneal cavity
Removal of the abortion and clots and incision in tube for exploration
Removal of abortion and clots and salpingectomy
Removal of abortion and clots and salpingo oophorectomy

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------8) Which is not an indication for chemotherapeutic treatment of postmolar tropho

blastic disease
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Abnormal hCG regression curve

Presence of metastasis
Uterine infection
Uterine haemorrhage
Tissue diagnosis of choriocarcinoma

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------9) Incidence of all of the following conditions are increased in tamoxifen users
EXCEPT
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Cervial dysplasia
Endometrial polyps
Endometrial hyperplasia
Uterine fibroids
Endometrial adenocarcinoma

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------10) Women with postmenopausal bleeding need endometrial sampling if endometrial

on gynae USG is thicker than

One answer only.

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1mm
2mm
5mm
8mm
10mm

1) GnRH agonists successfully reduce fibroid & total uterine size in what percen
tage of patients
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

30%
50%
60%
70%
95%

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------2) Menstrual regulation can be performed upto

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

6 wks
12 wks
18 wk
20 wks

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------3) Straussman operation consists of

One answer only.
a) Unification of seperate uterus
b) Sling operation for prolapse
c) Tightening of cervical os d) None of the above

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

4) Perforation of the uterus while doing endometrial biopsy in non pregnant uter
us, needs
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Laparoscopy
Observation
Immediate laparotomy
Hysterectomy

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------5) After fertilization, ova is embedded in the endometrium on which day ?

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

2nd day
4th day
6th day
10th day

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------6) Time taken by the spermatatozoa to reach ampulla of the fallopian tube after
ejaculation is
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

20 mins
30 mins
60 mins
2 hrs

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------7) Least common type of ut anomaly in patients with RPL

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Unicornuate
Arcuate
Septate
Bicornuate
Didelphys

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------8) The first trimester spontaneous abortion rate is highest for patients with wh
ich type of ut anomaly
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Unicornuate
Arcuate
Septate
Bicornuate
Didelphys

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------9) The gold standard in diagnosing ectopic pregnancy

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Laparoscopy
Culdocenteris
Beta HCG
US
Progesterone

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------10) What is the most common side effect with MTX therapy for ectopic pregnancy
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Transient pelvic pain 3 - 7 days after starting treatment

Stomatitis
Bone marrow suppression
Gastritis

1) Radiotherapy is indicated in Endometrial Ca in following situation EXCEPT

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Preop radiotherapy followed by TAH + BSO

Postop adjuvant radiotherapy after TAH + BSO
Primary treatment for medically inoperable
To specifically treat pelvic side wall involvement
Vaginal recurrence after hysterectomy

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------2) Invasive molar tissue is most commonly found in

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Myometrium
Vaginal wall
Ovary
Liver
Lungs

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------3) Which method of terminating a molar gestation is never indicated

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Suction curettage
Prostaglandic
Hypertonicsaline
Hysterotomy
Hyterectomy

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------4) The following are the risk factors for H mole EXCEPT
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Maternal age > 40 yrs

Prior h/o H mole
Prior h/o term pregnancy
Maternal age < 20 yrs
Prior h/o spontaneous abortion

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

5) Treatment of choice for 30 years old para 1 with stress incontinence is

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Pelvic floor exercise

Bladder training
Mechanical incontinence device
Kelly's repair
Sling operation

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------6) Treatment of choice for a 55 yrs old multipara with 3rd degree prolapse uteru
s with cystocele with rectocele with stress incontinence
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair

Kelly's repair
a) + b)
a) + colposuspension

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------7) Best treatment for severe stress incontinence without prolapse is

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Pelvic floor exercise

Kelly's repair
Burch colposuspension
MMK operation
Urethral collagen implant

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------8) Diagnosis of genuine stress incontinence is made by which of the following be

fore taking the patient for surgery
One answer only.
a) History
b) Subjective demonstration of stress incontinence
c) Objective demonstration of stress incontinence

d) Urodynamic studies

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------9) The commonest cause of stress incontinence is

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Constipation
Raised intra abdominal pressure
Congenital weakness of sphincter
Childbirth trauma
Estrogen deficiency

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------10) The amount of progesterone released per day by the progesterone releasing IU
CD ( Progestarest ) is
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

60
65
70
75

mugm
mugm
mugm
mugm

1) A 25 years old woman with rheumatic mitral stenosis reports at 12 weeks gesta
tion. As per her management plan, she requires balloon valvuloplasty. The best t
ime to carry it out will be
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Immediately
16 weeks
28 weeks
32 weeks

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------2) The correct sequence of appearance of embryonic structures as detected by son

ography is
One answer only.

a)
b)
c)
d)

Chorionic sac - yolk sac - embryo - heart beat

Chorionic sac - embryo - yolk sac - heart beat
Amnionic sac - yolk sac - embryo - heart beat
Gestational sac - embryo - yolk sac - heart beat

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------3) All are true about cardiovascular changes during pregnancy except
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

There is a rise in intravascular volume

Cardio - thoracic ratio increases
CVP increases during third trimester
MAP stays unaltered

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------4) A 25 years old woman is found to have high MSAFP at 16 weeks of gestation. Al
l are likely diagnosis except
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Down's syndrome
IUD
Multifetal gestation
Congenital nephrosis

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------5) Banana sign is a sonographic feature of

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Anencephaly
CMV encephalitis
Spina bifida
Congenital absence of corpus callossum

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------6) The diameter that can be clinically measured is

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

External conjugate
True conjugate
Obstetric conjugate
Direct conjugate

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------7) The smallest fetal skull diameter in the coronal plane is

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Bitemporal diameter
Bimastoid diameter
Biparietal diameter
Occipitofrontal diameter

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------8) The kind of pelvis is determined by assessing

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Interischial diameter
Anteroposterior diameter of inlet
Posterior sagittal diameter
Transverse diameter of inlet

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------9) All are true about chorionic villous sampling except

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

It
It
It
It

is one of the earliest methods of prenatal diagnosis

is associated with neural tube defects if performed before 9 weeks
gives quick cytogenetic results as compared to amniocentesis
cannot diagnose structural anomalies

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------10) Quadruple test for screening of Down's syndrome assesses the levels of
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

hCG,
hCG,
hCG,
hCG,

estrogen, progesterone and AFP

estrogen, inhibin A and AFP
progesterone, inhibin A and AFP
AFP, CA-125 and unconjugated estriol

) Amniotic fluid is maximum at

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

32
36
38
At

- 36 weeks
- 38 weeks
- 40 weeks
40 weeks

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------2) Golden liquor is characteristic of

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

IUD
Rh - incompatibility
Concealed haemorrhage
Post maturity

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------3) Icterus gravidarum can cause all except

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Pruritis
Hepatorenal syndrome
Jaundice
Rise in serum transaminases

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------4) Phenytoin intake during pregnancy is peculiarly associated with

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Distal phalangeal hypoplasia

Neural tube defects
Cleft lip
Aplasia cutis

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------5) In a pregnant woman with syphilis and pencillin hypersensitivity, the followi
ng drug may be given
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Septran
Ceftriaxone
Doxycycline
Minocycline

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------6) All are true about incarcerated retroflexed gravid uterus except
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Urinary retention
Constipation
Anterior sacculation
Paradoxical incontinence

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------7) Therapy of choice for red degeneration of fibroid during pregnancy

One answer only.
a) GnRH analogues
b) Antibiotics

c) Analgesics
d) Rubifacients

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------8) A 26 year old woman with term gestation delivers normally and is found to hav
e sudden breathlessness on second post partum day. Chest skiagram shows increase
d cardiac silhoutte. Homan's sign is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Pulmonary embolism
Acute respiratory failure
Peripartum cardiomyopathy
DIC

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------9) Transplacental transfer of HIV can take place in the following % of cases
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

30%
40%
50%
60%

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------10) The following STD is an indication of cesarean section

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

HSV 2
HSV 1
HPV
Condyloma acuminata

1) Pseudocyesis is associated with all except

One answer only.
a) Morning sickness
b) Bloated abdomen
c) Positive urinary hCG

d) Pica

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------2) All are correct matches regarding their maximum values during normal pregnanc
y except
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Se
Se
Se
Se

hCG - 10 weeks
hPL - 35 weeks
estriol - 35 weeks
progesterone - term

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------3) Hypothroidism is associated with all except

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Infertility
Hypomenorrhea
Down's syndrome in the fetus
Abortions

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------4) Drug of choice in a pregnant woman with thyrotoxicosis is

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Propylthiouracil
Methimazole
Lugol's iodine
Carbimazole

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

5) Gestational diabetes is not associated with

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Macrosomia
Neural tube defects
Altered GTT
Hydramnios

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------6) A 30 year old multigravida happens to have a +ve Pap's smear at 28 weeks of g
estation. The next step in her management would be
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Repeat Pap's smear

Colposcopy
Punch biopsy
Four quadrant biopsy

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------7) A 25 years old primigravida reports at 6 weeks gestation with h/o seizure dis
order. She has been on phenytoin for the last 6 months. The appropriate manageme
nt in this case would be
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Continue phenytoin and adjust the levels as per serum levels

Stop phenytoin and start barbiturates
Terminate pregnancy as phenytoin has had its teratogenic effect
Stop phenytoin and terminate pregnancy if sonography detects malformation

s.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------8) All are true about respiratory system changes during pregnancy except
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Tidal volume increases

Total lung capacity increases
Residual volume decreases
Hyperventilation

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------9) All are neonatal complications of diabetes in pregnancy except

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Hypocalcemia
Hypomagnesemia
Hyperbilirubinemia
hyponatremia

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------10) Most common cause of death in a pregnant diabetic is

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Renal failure due to chronic pyelonephritis

Renal failure due to diabetic nephropathy
Diabetic keto - acidosis
Hyperosmolar coma

1) The least common vertex presentation is

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

LOA
ROA
LOP
ROP

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------2) Embryonic heart action must be seen sonographically when CRL is atleast
One answer only.
a) 2 mm
b) 3 mm
c) 4 mm

d) 5 mm

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------3) Nuchal thickness is a useful sonographic feature for screening of

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Anencephaly
Spina bifida
Down's syndrome
Klinefelter's syndrome

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------4) Colostrum can be expressed in a primigravida at

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

6 weeks
12 weeks
16 weeks
20 weeks

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------5) All are true about 2nd meiotic division of ovum except
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

It
It
It
It

occurs on 14th day of 28 day menstrual cycle

follows fertilisation
leads to the release of 2nd polar body
is a must for further development of embryo

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------6) Cytotrophoblast releases all hormones except

One answer only.

a)
b)
c)
d)

hCG
Inhibin
Activin
GnRH

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------7) An embryo acquires human form at

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

6 weeks
8 weeks
12 weeks
16 weeks

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------8) Placenta is formed by

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Decidua
Decidua
Decidua
Decidua

basalis and chorion frondosum

basalis and chorion laeve
capsularis and chorion frondosum
vera and chorion frondosum

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------9) All are true about human placenta except

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Seperation line is through decidua spongiosum

80% of placenta is of fetal origin
Placenta to fetal weight ratio at term is 1: 6
Hofbauer cells constitute the endrocrinal bulk of placenta

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

10) All are signs of placenta ageing except

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Decreased Langhan's cells

Decreased syncytial thickness
Negative Nitabuch membrane
Rohr's striae

1) Which is not the true diameter of pelvic inlet :

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

AP diameter
Oblique diameter
Anatomical conjugate
Transverse diameter

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------2) The following are true for narrow pelvic plane except :
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Beginning of backward curve of pelvic axis

Origin of levator ani
Level of 'O' station
Plane of internal rotation

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------3) Vaginal examination can estimate all except

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Obstetric conjugate
Inter - ischial diameter
Transverse diameter of inlet
Subpubic angle

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

4) The angle of internal rotation in direct occipito - anterior position is

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

45 degrees forward
135 degrees
0 degrees
45 degrees backwards

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------5) The sequence of delivery of head in a normal labor is

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Chin - face - brow - vertex - occiput

Occiput - vertex - brow - face - chin
Face - brow - vertex - occiput - chin
Vertex - brow - face - chin - occiput

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------6) All are methods of intrapartum surveillance of fetus except

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Fetal
Fetal
Fetal
Fetal

scalp stimulation
scalp blood sampling
cord blood sampling
electrocardiography

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------7) All are true about restitution in normal labor except

One answer only.
a)
b)
of
c)
d)

It occurs after expulsion of fetal head

It brings bisacromial diameter in the same oblique diameter of inlet as that
engagement
It relieves the fetal neck torsion
It is a passive fetal movement

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------8) All are signs of placental seperation except

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Harder uterus
Subpubic bulge
True cord lengthening
Sudden gush of blood

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------9) Brim - index of pelvis has a normal range of

One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

65
75
85
95

100
100
100
100

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------10) The antero - posterior diameter of engagement of fetal skull is smallest in

which attitude of head
One answer only.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Complete extension
Partial extension
Marked deflexion
Incomplete flexion