1. The Anopheles mosquito is in favour of what coloured clothing?

a. Blue

b. Yellow
c. White
d. Red
2. In the cold stage of the disease process of Malaria, how many minutes this would
last?
a. 10-15 min
b. 15-30 min
c. 30-60 min
d. 60-120 min
3. What is the causative agent of tetanus?
a. Mycobacterium tetani
b. Neisseria tetani

c. Clostridium tetani

d. Plasmodium tetani
4. Which of the following is not a cardinal manifestation of tetanus?
a. Trismus

b. Anemia

c. Risus Sardonicus
d. Seizure
5. Human tetanus immunoglobulin is what kind of immunity?
a. Natural Active
b. Natural Passive
c. Artificial Active

d. Artificial Passive

6. The following measures could help prevent tetanus to the population, Except:
a. Avoidance of wound especially in the farm
b. Immunization

c. Neutralizing toxin by injecting anti-tetanus toxoid

d. Wound care

7. Based on new researches today, the drug of choice to kill the bacteria of tetanus is:

a. Metronidazole
b. Penicillin
c. Sulfadoxin
d. Dakins solution

8. Which of the following does carry microorganisms but no manifestations?

a. Contact
b. Host

c. Carrier
d. Agent
9. Which of the following is not true?
a. Communicable diseases can be transmitted.
b. Infectious diseases may not be transmitted.
c. Contagious diseases are easily transmitted.
d. All communicable diseases are infectious but all are contagious.
10. Which of the following diseases is not transmitted through air?
a. Tuberculosis
b. Measles
c. Chickenpox

d. Meningococcemia

11. Litho developed immunity from measles because he has measles. What type of
immunity did Litho get?

a. Natural Active

b. Natural Passive
c. Artificial Active
d. Artificial Passive
a.
12. Communicable disease nurses should be alert in observing a Dengue suspect. The
following is important to be considered except:
a. Marked anorexia, abdominal pain and melena
b. hematochezia
c. petechiae

d. pinkish areola

a.
13. Which of the following is the most important treatment of patients with Dengue H
fever?
a. Give aspirin for fever
b. Replacement of body fluids via IV or Oresol
c. Avoid unnecessary movement of patient
d. Ice cap over the abdomen in case of melena
a.
14. What medication is responsible for the discoloration of the lenses who have
tuberculosis?
a. Streptomycin
b. Ethambutol
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Rifampin
a.
15. Which of the following is not a manifestation of typhoid fever?

a. Rose spots in the inner thigh

b. Ladderlike fever
c. Abdominal pain
d. Dull headache
a.
16. Which of the following types of Hepatitis virus cannot multiply without the Hepatitis
B virus?
a. Hepatitis C

b. Hepatitis D

c. Hepatitis E
d. Hepatitis G
17. Leonine face appearance is a manifestation of leprosy. It doesnt include which of
the following?
a. Lagophthalmus

b. Anhydrosis

c. Madarosis
d. Saddle nose deformity
18. Syphilis is characterized by:
a. Greenish yellow odorous discharge in females
b. Feeling of dryness and discomfort about the genitals and conjunctivitis
c. Painless chancre at site of entry of germ with serous exudates
d. Painful frequent urination and purulent discharge
19. When performing a surgical dressing change of a client's abdominal dressing, a nurse notes an
increase in the amount of drainage and separation of the incision line. The underlying tissue is visible to
the nurse. The nurse should do which of the following in the initial care of this wound?
a. Leave the incision open to the air to dry the area.
b. Irrigate the wound and apply a sterile dry dressing.
c. Apply a sterile dressing soaked with normal saline.
d. Apply a sterile dressing soaked in povidone-iodine (Betadine).
20. A nurse is monitoring the status of a postoperative client. The nurse would become most concerned
with which of the following signs that could indicate an evolving complication?
a. Increasing restlessness
b. A negative Homans' sign
c. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants
d. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and a pulse of 86 beats/min
21. A nurse is reviewing a physician's order sheet for a preoperative client that states that the client
must be NPO after midnight. The nurse would telephone the physician to clarify whether which of the
following medications should be given to the client and not withheld?
a. Ferrous sulfate
b. Prednisone (Deltasone)
c. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
d. Conjugated estrogen (Premarin)

22. A client who has undergone preadmission testing has had blood drawn for serum laboratory studies,
including a complete blood count, coagulation studies, and electrolytes and creatinine levels. Which of
the following laboratory results should be reported to the surgeon's office by the nurse, knowing that it
could cause surgery to be postponed?
a. Sodium, 121 mEq/L
b. Hemoglobin, 14.0 g/dL
c. Platelets, 210,000/mm3
d. Serum creatinine, 0.8 mg/dL
23. A nurse in a surgical unit receives a postoperative client from the postanesthesia care unit. After the
initial assessment of the client, the nurse plans to continue with postoperative assessment activities:
a. Every hour for 2 hours, and then every 4 hours as needed.
b. Every 30 minutes for the first hour, every hour for 2 hours, andthen every 4 hours as needed.
c. Every 15 minutes for the first hour, every 30 minutes for 2 hours, every hour for 4 hours, and then
every 4 hours as needed.
d. Every 5 minutes for the first half-hour, every 15 minutes for 2 hours, every 30 minutes for 4 hours,
and then every hour as needed.
24. A nurse receives a telephone call from the postanesthesia care unit stating that a client is being
transferred to the surgical unit. The nurse plans to do which of the following first on arrival of the client?
a. Assess the patency of the airway.
b. Check tubes or drains for patency.
c. Check the dressing to assess for bleeding.
d. Assess the vital signs to compare with preoperative measurements.
25. A nurse has just reassessed the condition of a postoperative client who was admitted 1 hour ago to
the surgical unit. The nurse plans to monitor which of the following parameters most carefully during
the next hour?
a. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr
b. Temperature of 37.6 C (99.6 F)
c. Blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg
d. Serous drainage on the surgical dressing
26. A postoperative client asks a nurse why it is so important to deep-breathe and cough after surgery.
In formulating a response, the nurse incorporates the understanding that retained pulmonary secretions
in a postoperative client can lead to:
a. Pneumonia
b. Fluid imbalance
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Carbon dioxide retention
27. A nurse is planning care for a child with acute bacterial meningitis.
Based on the mode of transmission of this infection, which of the following should be included in the plan of care?
A. Maintain enteric precautions.
B. Maintain neutropenic precautions.
C. No precautions are required as long as antibiotics have been started.

D. Maintain respiratory isolation precautions for at least 24 hours after the initiation of antibiotics.

28. An emergency room nurse is performing an assessment on a child suspected of being sexually abused. Which assessment data obtained
by the nurse most likely support this suspicion?
A. Poor hygiene
B. Fear of the parents

C. Difficulty walking

D. Bald spots on the scalp

29. A nurse performs an admission assessment on a child and suspects physical abuse. Based on this suspicion, the primary legal nursing
responsibility is which of the following?
A. Refer the family to the appropriate support groups.
B. Assist the family in identifying resources and support systems.

C. Report the case in which the abuse is suspected to the local authorities.
D. Document the child's physical assessment findings accurately and thoroughly.

30. A nurse employed in a neonatal intensive care nursery receives a telephone call from the delivery room and is told that a newborn with
spina bifida (myelomeningocele type) will be transported to the nursery. The maternity nurse prepares for the arrival of the newborn and places
which of the following priority items at the newborn's bedside?
A. A rectal thermometer
B. A blood pressure cuff
C. A specific gravity urinometer

D. A bottle of sterile normal saline

31. A nurse is performing an assessment of a 7-year-old child who is suspected of having episodes of absence seizures. Which assessment
question to the mother will assist in providing information that will identify the symptoms associated with this type of seizure?
A. Does twitching occur in the face and neck?
B. Does the muscle twitching occur on one side of the body?
C. Does the muscle twitching occur on both sides of the body?

D. Does the child have a blank expression during these episodes?

32. A nurse is reviewing the record of a child with increased intracranial pressure and notes that the child has exhibited signs of decerebrate
posturing. On assessment of the child, the nurse expects to note which of the following if this type of posturing is present?
A. Rigid pronation of all extremities
B. Flaccid paralysis of all extremities

C. Rigid extension and pronation of the arms and legs

D. Abnormal flexion of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities
33. A nurse is caring for an infant with a diagnosis of hydrocephalus.
Preoperatively, a priority nursing intervention is to:
A. Test the urine for protein.

B. Reposition the infant frequently.

C. Provide a stimulating environment.

D. Obtain blood pressures every 30 minutes.
34. A mother arrives at an emergency room with her 5-year-old child and the mother states that the child fell off a bunk bed. A head injury is
suspected, and a nurse is assessing the child continuously for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following is a late
sign of increased ICP in this child?
A. Nausea

B. Bradycardia

C. Bulging fontanel
D. Dilated scalp veins
35. A nurse is caring for a newborn infant with spina bifida
(myelomeningocele) who is scheduled for surgical closure of the sac.
In the preoperative period, the priority nursing diagnosis would be:

A. Risk for infection.

B. Risk for aspiration.

C. Risk for activity intolerance.
D. Risk for altered growth and development.

36. Clyde is admitted to the hospital with signs and symptoms of stroke. Her Glasgow Coma Scale is 6 on admission. A central venous catheter
was inserted and an IV infusion was started. As a nurse assigned to Clyde what will be your priority goal?
a) Prevent pressure sores
b) Resume activities of daily living
c) Eliminate urinary waste

d) Effective airway clearance

37. Knowing that for a comatose patient hearing is the last sense to be last as Clydes nurse, what will be your action?
a) Tell her family that probably she cant hear them
b) Talk loudly so that Wendy can hear you
c) Tell her family who are in the room not to talk
d) Speak softly then hold her hands gently
38. Which among the following interventions should you consider as the highest priority when caring for Clyde who has dysphagia secondary to
stroke?

a) Place June on an upright lateral position

b) Perform gag exercise
c) Apply anti-cholinergic spray
d) Use straw while feeding in an NGT

39. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has Cushing's syndrome.
Which client statement indicates that instructions related to dietary management are
understood?
a. I can eat foods that have a lot of potassium in them.
b. I will need to limit the amount of protein in my diet.
c. I am fortunate that I can eat all the salty foods I enjoy.
d. I am fortunate that I do not need to follow any special diet.
40. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level higher than 600 mg/dL
and is complaining of polydipsia, polyuria, weight loss, and weakness. A nurse reviews the
physician's documentation and would expect to note which of the following diagnoses?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Pheochromocytoma
c. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
d. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)
41. The family of a bedridden client with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic renal failure
calls a nurse to report the following symptoms: headache, polydipsia, and increased
lethargy. To determine a possible diagnosis, the nurse asks the family which most
important question?
a. What is the client's urine output?
b. What is the client's capillary blood glucose level?
c. Has there been any change in the dietary intake?
d. Have you increased the amount of fluids provided?
42. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of
hypoglycemia with exercising. Which statement by the client indicates an inadequate
understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise?

a. The best time for me to exercise is after I eat.

b. The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast.
c. The best time for me to exercise is mid- to late afternoon.
d. The best time for me to exercise is after my morning snack.
43. A nurse is completing an assessment on a client who is being admitted for a diagnostic
workup for primary hyperparathyroidism. Which client complaint would be characteristic
of this disorder?
a. Diarrhea
b. Polyuria
c. Polyphagia
d. Weight gain
44. A nurse is caring for a client with pheochromocytoma who is scheduled for
adrenalectomy. In the preoperative period, the priority nursing action would be to
monitor:
a. Vital signs
b. Intake and output
c. Blood urea nitrogen results
d. Urine for glucose and ketones

45. A nurse performs a physical assessment on a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Findings include a fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL, temperature of 101 F, pulse of 88
beats/min, respirations of 22 breaths/min, and blood pressure of 100/72 mm Hg. Which
finding would be of most concern to the nurse?
a. Pulse
b. Respiration
c. Temperature
d. Blood pressure
a.
46. Which of the following is not a core value of nursing?
b. Love of God
c. Love of People
d. Love of Self
e. Love of Country
47. The central role of the nurse is:
e) Communicator
f) Care giver
g) Leader
h) Educator
48. A communication skill is one of the important competencies expected of a nurse.
Interpersonal process as viewed as human to human relationships. This statement
is an application of whose nursing model?

i)
j)
k)
l)

Joyce Travelbee
Calista Roy
Martha Rogers
Imogene King
49. You decided to check on Mang Felix, a post TURP patient with IV fluid infusion.
You noted a change in flow rate, pallor and coldness around the insertion site.
What is your assessment finding?
e) Phlebitis
f) Infiltration to subcutaneous tissue
g) Pyrogenic reaction
h) Air embolism
50. The IV fluid of choice for burn as well as dehydration is :
a. 0.45 % NACl
b. NSS
c. Sterile water
d. LR