PRACTICE EXAM

Note: Questions on this exam are for student practice only. They are not necessarily
questions that students will encounter on the Excelsior exam.
Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbiology, Taxonomy, & Microscopy
1. The germ theory of disease states that:
a. microbes can invade other organisms causing disease
b. microbes come from unliving things
c. Needhams spontaneous generation studies are correct
2. Redi conducted experiments that discredited the theory of:
a. Biogenesis
b. Cells
c. Inheritence
d. Spontaneous Generation
3. When Jenner inoculated a child with the fluid from a cowpox blister, it:
a. caused an infection.
b. had no effect.
c. stimulated immunity.
d. worked against a vaccine.
4. The final establishment of the germ theory of disease was:
a. Pasteurs air borne infusions
b. b.vital force theory
c. c.vaccine
d. Kochs postulates
5. The father of immunology is:
a. Lister
b. Jenner
c. Metchnikoff
d. Pasteur

6. The first serious chemotherapy investigator was:

a. Chamberlain
b. Paracelsus
c. Jenner
d. Ehrlich
7. The first true antibiotic was penicillin. The first person to create it and be aware of its
potential was:
a. Ehrlich
b. Alexander Fleming
c. Jenner
d. Reed
8.

A microbe is discovered in a local waterway. Testing this water reveals its high
temperature and high acidity. The microbe produces bubbles in this water. However, tests
on the microbe reveal that it does not cause diseases in humans. It probably belongs to
the group of
a. Algae
b. Archaea
c. Fungi
d. Viruses

9.

The most common microorganism manipulated for genetic engineering is a:

a. Bacterium
b. Fungus
c. Protozoan
d. Virus

10. In the binomial name Bacillus subtilis, subtilis refers to the _____________ name.:
a. Class
b. Family
c. Genus
d. Species

11. Which one is not a field of microbiology

a. phycology
b. virology
c. ichthyology
d. parasitology
12. Which is not a health-related field?
a. epidemiology
b. immunology
c. cardiology
d. genetic engineering
13. Which one is a viral disease?
a. measles
b. syphillus
c. tetanus
d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
14. Microorganisms that belong to the same species can be subdivided into:
a. Divisions
b. Domains
c. Kingdoms
d. Strains
15. Select the broadest taxonomic category from the following list:
a. Class
b. Family
c. Order
d. Phylum
16. Wavelength
a. = distance between two adjacent crests
b. = distance between two adjacent troughs

c. is designated by the lowercase Greek letter lambda (

) in formulas

d. all of the above

17. Resolution in ability to see
a. double images
b. a simple image (fuzzy and overlapped)
c. two separate and discrete items
d. long enough wavelengths to see between objects
18. The bending of light rays gives rise to
a. diffraction
b. angle of refraction
c. index of refraction
d. all of the above
19. True or False
a. Diffraction is the process of light passing through 2 differing densities.
b. Diffraction is light passing through a slit to be bent around the opening.
c. Immersion oil prevents refraction and diffraction.
20. Matching -- match words in the first column with definitions in the second:
a. Bright Field Microscopy

light is focused through specimen

b. Dark Field Microscopy

used to view living unstained objects

c. Phase Contrast Microscopy

light is reflected off specimen at an anoyle

21. Matching match items in column 1 with items in column 2:

a. Nomarski

non-fuzzy thin section image

b. Confocal

produces nearly three dimensional image

c. Digital

standard image

22. Matching match items in Column 1 with items in Column 2:

a. Scanning tunneling electron

3-dimensional

b. Transmission electron

highly magnified, not 3 dimensional

23. Within the archaea we find what group?

a. extreme thermoacidophiles
b. methanogens
c. extreme halophiles
d. all of the above
24. Match these criteria for classifying bacteria:
a. nutritional

distinguish strains

b. genetics

distinguish species and genera

c. protein profiles

distinguish species, genera, and higher groups

d. growth

determine relatedness between genera and families

Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry

1. All of the following are atomic particles contained in an atom except:
a. an isoton
b. a proton
c. a neutron
d. an electron
2. Which is not a kind of chemical bond found in living organisms?
a. an isotonic bond
b. a covalent bond
c. a hydrogen bond
d. an ionic bond
3. Which is not a property of water?
a. It has surface tension.
b. It is non-polar.
c. It has a high specific heat.
d. It is a medium for most intracellular reactions.

4. Neutral pH is:
a. 5
b. 8
c. 6
d. 7
5. Disaccharides are:
a. ketones
b. isomers
c. carbohydrates
6. Starch is a
a. monosaccharide and polysaccharide
b. polysaccharide and polymer
c. dissacharide and monosaccharide
d. polysaccharide and disaccharide
7. Proteins are comprised of:
a. peptide bonds
b. chains of amino acids
c. folding of chains held together by hydrogen bonds
d. all of the above
8. Nucleic acids are made of:
a. polymers of nucleotides and genetic information
b. genetic information and polysaccharides
c. polysaccharides and polymers of nucleotides
d. genetic information and ketones
9. RNA and DNA are:
a. nucleic acids
b. genetic material
c. found in all living organisms
d. all of the above

10. Fatty acids are:

a. saturated
b. unsaturated
c. polyunsaturated
d. all of the above
11. Steroids do not have:
a. 3 ring structure
b. 4 ring structure
c. the possibility of being hormones
d. all of the above
12. Lipids
a. provide more energy than carbohydrates
b. are soluble in non polar solvents
c. are contained in cell walls
d. all of the above
13. Matching match the words in the first column with phrases in the second:
Fructose

is found in RNA

Ribose

is found in milk

Glucose

is found in most organisms

Galactose

is found in fruit

14. The most abundant macromolecules in cells are:

a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipids
c. Proteins
d. Water molecules

Chapter 3: Bacteria
1. Matching match items in column 1 with items in column 2
a. spirillum

rod-like

b. bacilli

spherical

c. cocci

corkscrew

d. spirochaete

wavy

2. Select the correct characteristic of prokaryotic cells:

a. Most have a cell diameter of over 100 micrometers nucleolus
b. Most of these cells have a cell wall
c. The DNA is located in a well-defined nucleus
d. They contain numerous kinds of organelles
3. In most bacteria, the cell wall does what? (Two are correct.)
a. maintains the shape of the organism
b. lies inside the cell membrane
c. stops the cell from bursting when materials enter by osmosis
d. all of the above
4. Which substance is the mordant of the Gram stain?
a. Acetone
b. Gentian violet
c. Iodine
5.

A bacterium retains safranin after the decolorizing agent removes the previously applied
Gentian violet of the Gram stain. The bacterium is?
a. Gram-positive only
b. Gram-negative only
c. Gram-positive and Gram-negative
d. Neither Gram-positive nor Gram-negative

6. Internal structures of bacteria do not include:

a. ribosomes
b. cytoplasm

c. nuclear membrane
d. nuclear region
7.

A mesophilic bacterium grows best at normal room temperature. Its total temperature
range for growth is probably about _____________ degrees Celsius
a. 25 to 35
b. 20 to 30
c. 5 to 45
d. 0 to 80

8. The most rapid rate of population growth is in the _____________ phase:

a. death
b. lag
c. log
d. stationary
9. Psychrophiles grow best at a temperature of _____________ degrees Celsius:
a. zero
b. 25
c. 37
d. 100
10. After being diluted to 0.001 of its original concentration, one ml of a bacterial culture in
broth is plated for counting. 300 colonies are produced on the nutrient agar surface in a
Petri dish. The original cell concentration in the broth was about _____________ cells per
ml.
a. 30,000,000
b. 300,000
c. 300
11. True or False. Differential stains are named:
a. _____gram
b. _____ziehl-neelsen
c. _____ safranin
d. _____flagellar

12. The gram stain uses all but

a. safranin
b. 45% ethanol
c. carbol fusion
d. iodine
13. Stains are
a. usually cationic
b. molecules that bind to structures
c. basic dyes
d. all of the above
14. Schaeffer-Fulton spore stain has all of these as components except
a. Heat
b. Safranin
c. Iodine
d. Malachite green
15. The acid-fast stain is specific for:
a. Bacillus
b. Escherichia
c. Mycobacterium
16. The purpose of a serial dilution is to
a. Change the growth medium for a bacterial population
b. Increase bacterial population size
c. Reduce the number of bacteria for counting purposes
d. Stain microorganisms
17. A bacterial culture is growing in a flask of nutrient broth. The flask is in a shaking
machine. Through a malfunction over the next twelve hours, the machine shakes too
vigorously and the seal is lost from the top of the flask. The culture becomes
contaminated but cannot support the growth of any
a. Aerotolerant anaerobes
b. facultative anaerobes

c. microaerophiles
d. strict anaerobes
18. An original cell concentration in nutrient broth is 3000 per ml. Each step of a serial dilution
reduces the concentration of cells in the suspension by one-tenth. After three dilution
steps the concentration of cells is _____________ per ml
a. 0.03
b. 0.3
c. 3.0
d.

30.0

19. The halophilic archaea are named because they are

a. attracted to acids
b. attracted to salts
c. repelled by acids
d. repelled by salts
20. The greatest number of flagella is usually found on a bacterial cell with a(n)
_____________ arrangement.
a. Amphitrichous
b. Lophotrichous
c. Monotrichous
d. Peritrichous
21. Types of media include:
a. selective medium
b. differential medium
c. enrichment medium
d. all of the above
22. Which grows best at temperatures over 40 degrees C?
a. sulfur
b. phosphorous
c. iron
d. thermophiles

23. True or false? The amount of oxygen in the environment affects the growth of bacteria in
these ways:
a. Obligate aerobes require relatively large amounts of free molecular oxygen to
grow.
b. Facultative anaerobes can metabolize substances aerobically if oxygen is
available or anaerobically if it is absent
c. Aerotolerant anaerobes metabolize substances anaerobically but are not harmed
by free oxygen.
d. Obligate anaerobes are killed by free oxygen and must be grown in the absence of
free oxygen.
24. The streak plate method and pour plate method are used to demonstrate:
a. sporulation
b. measure growth
c. obtaining pure cultures
25. Select the correct association
a. bacillus/sphere-shaped
b. coccus/rod-shaped
c. spirillum/hexagonal-shaped
d. vibrio/comma-shaped
26. Matchingmatch the items in Column 1 with the items in Column 2:
a. archaea

cell wall present with peptidoglycan

b. bacteria

absent cell wall

c. eukarya

cell wall present with no peptidoglycan

Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Microorganisms

1. Protists do not include:
a. animal-like protists
b. fungus-like protists
c. plant-like protists
d. avian protists

2. Plant-like protists include

a. plasmodial
b. sarcodines
c. water molds
d. none of the above
3. Animal-like protists include:
a. sarcodines
b. ciliates
c. apicomplexans
d. all of the above
4. Fungal morphology includes:
a. mycelium
b. trichocysts
c. karyogamy
5.

Select the correct description about fungi

a. None are pathogens
b. The yeasts are members
c. They are phototrophic organisms
d. They have a prokaryotic cell structure

6. Members of Mastigophora move by the action of

a. cilia
b. flagella
c. parapodia
d. pseudopodia
7.

Select the correct characteristic about members of Sarcodina

a. They are limited to marine environments
b. They lack pseudopodia
c. They move by cilia
d. Very few members cause human diseases

8.

A network of protein fibers made of microtubes and microfilaments describes:

a. golgi apparatus
b. cytoskeletons
c. peroxisomes
d. osmosis

9. Which is/are external structure(s) of a eukaryote?

a. cilia
b. pseudopodia
c. flagella
d. all of the above
10. Eukaryotic cells have a more complex structure than prokaryotic cells.
a. True
b. False

Chapter 5: Viruses
1. Matching:
a. DNA virsuses

Retrovirus

b. RNA viruses

Herpesvirus

c.

Adenovirus

DNA viruses

d. RNA viruses

Picomavirus

2. Viruses never
a. contain DNA
b. have protein attachments
c. contain RNA
d. contain both RNA and DNA simultaneously
3. Viruses differ from eukaryotes in
a. that they contain DNA or RNA
b. that they contain both DNA and RNA at the same time
c. that they have cell walls
d. that all of the above are true.

4. What is untrue of viruses?

a. They vary in size
b. They are too small to see with a light microscope
c. They attack many different organisms
d. They only attack eukaryotes.
5. Viral characteristics do not include:
a. the need to have host cells in order to replicate
b. the fact that many virions are produced by one virion in a host cell
c. the unharming of a host cell
d. the fact that some only attack humans
6. True or false?
a. _____ Classification of viruses uses envelope presence or absence.
b. _____ Classification of viruses does not use size.
c. _____ Classification of viruses uses whether the virion contains RNA or DNA
d. _____ Classification of viruses does not use shape.
7. Matching
a. a. Flaviviridae

Polio

b. b. Togaviridae

Measles

c. c. Retroviridae

Aids

d. d. Picornaviridae

Yellow Fever

8. Which is not a RNA virus?

a. Herpesviridae
b. Paramxoriridae
c. Arenaviridae
d. Redviridae

9. Which is not a DNA virus?

a. Poxviruses
b. Herpes
c. Orthomyxoviruses
d. Adenoviridae
10. Characteristics of replication include
a. new virions leaving the host cells
b. absorption
c. maturation
d. budding
11. Viral culture is done by
a. monolayer overlay
b. egg culture
c. cell culture
d. all of the above
12. Types of cell culture include all of the following except:
a. primary cell cultures
b. continuous cell lines
c. diploid fibroblast strains
d. teratogenesis
13. Which is thought to be a tumor-causing virus?
a. teratogen
b. Epstein-Barr
c. prion
d. viroid

14. Some virus-like agents include:

a. prions
b. viroids
c. sattelites
d. all of the above
15. Virions are
a. intact, nonreplicating virus particles
b. intact, replicating virus particles
c. the DNA core of the viruses
d. the protein coat of the viruses
16. Oncogenes in cells will cause the cells to
a. develop pigmentation
b. divide too rapidly
c. divide too slowly
d. lose pigmentation
17. Bacteriophage components include:
a. genome
b. tail sheath
c. plate and tail fibers
d. all of the above

Chapter 6: Metabolism
1. Autotrophs are not composed of:
a. chemoautotrophs
b. photoautotrophs
c. heterotrophs
d. all of the above

2. Enzymes
a. produce activation energy
b. are catalysts
c. are proteins
d. all of the above are true
3. What is not true of apoenzymes?
a. Apoenzymes are the protein portion of the coenzyme.
b. Apoenzymes are coenzymes.
c. Apoenzymes are cofactors.
d. Apoenzymes often come from vitamins.
4. No organism can afford to allow continual maximum activity of all its enzymes. It would
waste materials and energy and also may allow harmful quantities of compounds to
accumulate, while others lack. Therefore there must be ways to inhibit enzyme activity in
order to slow or even stop its rate. Which of the following inhibit enzymes?
a. Enzymes are inhibited by feedback.
b. Enzymes are inhibited by concentration.
c. Enzymes are inhibited by noncompetitive inhibitors.
d. Enzymes are inhibited by competitive inhibitors.
5. Which is not one of the four most important steps in the 10--step glycolytic pathway?
a. capture energy in ATP
b. substrate level phosphorylation
c. production of carboxyl groups
d. break 6 carbon molecules into two 3 carbon molecules
6.

Glycolytic alternatives include:

a. alcohol fermentation
b. homolactic acid fermentation
c. formation of pyruvic acid
d. all of the above

7.

Which is not one of the Krebs cycles most important items?

a. fermentation
b. oxidation of carbon

c. transfer of electrons to coenzymes

d. substrate level energy capture
8. Final electron acceptors do not include:
a. fermentation (pyruvic acid)
b. CO2 NO3 SO4
c. sodium
d. oxygen
9. Differing types of fermentation are:
a. homolactic acid fermentation
b. alcoholic fermentation
c. butyric, butylic fermentation
d. all of the above
10. In electron transport chain reactions, which of the following is not a carrier?
a. NAD
b. GAD
c. FAD
d. Coenzyme Q
11. In the catabolism of fats:
a. fatty acids are split into 2 C units
b. triglycerides are split into glycerol and fatty acids
c. glycerol is broken down by glycolysis
d. all of the above
12. Which term means "different feeders"?
a. Autotroph
b. Chemotroph
c. Heterotrophy
d. Phototroph

Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering

1. True or false?
a. The information found in a specific gene is found at a particular locus on the
chromosome or plasmid.
2. Information transfer occurs in these different ways:
a. replication
b. transcription
c. translation
d. all of the above
3. True or false? DNA serves as a
a. template
b. polymer producer
c. site for base pairing
d. synthesizer of RNA
4. In DNA, the base pairs are comprised of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. glycine
b. guanine
c. adenine
d. thymine
5. Base pairs occur as:
a. adenine-thymine
b. cytosine-guanine
c. adenine-uracil
d. all of the above
6. Three kinds of RNA participate in protein synthesis. Which of these is not included?
a. replicating RNA
b. messenger RNA
c. ribosomal RNA

7. Which is not true? Transfer RNA has properties such as:

a. It is found in cytoplasm, where they pick up amino acids and transfer them to RNA
b. Molecules have a cloverleaf shape with an attachment site for a specific amino
acid
c. Each has twp triplet of bases called anticodons, which pair complementarily the
corresponding codon in mRNA
8. Select the incorrect statement about transcription
a. DNA is used as a template to make RNA
b. DNA is made as a complementary strand to DNA
c.

Gene expression begins with this process

d. Ribonucleoside triphosphates pair with exposed bases

9. The role of t-RNA is to
a. carry amino acids to the ribosome
b. synthesize codons at the site of translation
c.

synthesize the ribosome

d. transport DNA nucleotides to the ribosome

10. By conjugation
a. cells reproduce asexually
b. DNA replication is stopped
c.

genes are destroyed

d. plasmids are transferred to cells

11. Select the incorrect description about the lac operon
a. Allolactose cannot bind to the lac repressor
b. Beta-galactosidase splits a disaccharide
c.

Galactoside permease brings lactose into the cell

d. Transcription is regulated at this operon

12. Which is not a category of regulatory mechanisms?

a. feedback inhibition
b. enzyme increase
c. enzyme induction
d. enzyme reduction
13. Which is not a category of mutations?
a. point mutation
b. frameshift mutation
c. radiation mutation
d. dark repair
14. In frameshift mutations,
a. there may be a deletion of one or more bases in DNA.
b. there may be an insertion of one or more basses in DNA.
c. the entire sequence of codons is altered.
d. all of the above
15. Messenger RNA codons:
a. constitute genetic code
b. essentially similar to all living organisms
c. determines protein formation
d. all of the above
16. Which is a gene transfer type?
a. conjugation
b. transformation
c. transduction
d. all of the above

17. Transduction agents do not include:

a. mesophage
b. temporate phage
c. virulent phage
d. prophage
18. The significance of transduction is
a. cell to cell transfer of genetic material
b. use of phage demonstrates a close relationship between prophage and cell
c. both of the above
d. neither a nor b
19. In conjugation, which of these fails to apply?
a. plasmids and DNAs are transduced
b. a single plasma is transferred
c. transfer is effected by plasmid
d. a plasmid and the genes stuck to it leave a bacterium transferred
20. Transformation
a. transfers less than 1% of cells DNA
b. requires a competence factor
c. changes some characteristics of an organism
d. all of the above
21. What is untrue of plasmids?
a. Tumor inducing plasmids can cause tumor formation in plants
b. Resistance plasmids confer resistance to some antibiotics
c. F-plasmids catabolize proteins
d. none of the above

22. Agricultural applications for genetic engineering include:

a. oil eating bacteria
b. vitamin production
c. DNA probes
d. None of the above
23. Recombinant DNA technology involves:
a. cloning identical progeny
b. manipulation of DNA in vitro
c. combining the DNA of a bacteria with DNA of a phage or plasmid
d. all of the above
24. Plasmids
a. are a piece of extrasomal DNA
b. are lysogenic if they contain a prophage
c. have potential to enter lytic cycle
d. all of the above
25. Biotechnology and genetic engineering are used in:
a. vaccines
b. drugs
c. insulin
d. all of the above

Chapter 8: Control of Microorganisms

1. Physical antimicrobial agents do not
a. preserve food
b. prevent infection disease
c. prepare food
d. include hydration
2. True or false? Disinfectants are typically applied to inanimate objects and agents called
antiseptics are applied to living tissue.

3. Match the terms of sterilization and disinfection with their definitions:

a. viricide

an agent that kills fungi

b. germicide

an agent that kills bacteria. Most such agents do not kill spores

c.

an agent capable of killing microbes rapidly;some such agents

effectively kill certain microorganisms but only inhibit the growth of
others.

antiseptic

d. sterilization

a chemical agent used on inanimate objects to destroy

microorganisms. Most disinfectants do not kill spores.

e. disinfectant

an agent that inhibits the growth of bacteria

f.

an agent that inactivates viruses

sanitizer

g. bactericide

the killing or removal of all microorganisms in a material or on an

object

h. fungicide

a chemical agent that can safely be used externally on living tissue

to destroy microorganisms or to inhibit their growth.

i.

bacteriostatic agent a chemical agent typically used on food-handling equipment and

eating utensils to reduce bacterial numbers so as to meet public health standards. May
simply refer to thorough washing with only soap or detergent.

4. Which is used to evaluate the effectiveness of chemical agents?

a. phenol coefficient
b. use-dilution
c. filter paper
d. all of the above
5. Mechanisms of action of chemical reagents include:
a. affect cell components
b. affect membranes
c. affect mamalia
d. all of the above
6. Specific chemical agents do not include
a. acids and alkalis
b. light metals
c. soaps
d. halogens

7. Matching:
a.

dyes

denature protein, disrupts membranes, denatures inactivate enzymes and

is not impaired by organic matter.

b.

phenols

block cell wall synthesis

c.

acids

oxidize cell components

d. halogens

lower pH and denature proteins

8. Match the physical agents properties with their uses:

a. dry heat

slows the rate of enzyme-controlled reactions

b.

refrigeration

removes water from microbes

c.

drying

denatures proteins

d.

osmotic pressure

inhibits enzymes

9. Which is a physical method of sterilization?

a. microwave radiation
b. detergents
c. alcohols
d. UV light
10. What is the name for removing or killing all microbes?
a. disinfection
b. sterilization
c. antiseptic
11. Heat sensitive material is sterilized using
a. dry heat
b. autoclave
c. ethylene oxide
d. all of the above

12. True or false?

a. ____ Freezing food does not sterilize food, but it does significantly slow
the rate of chemical reactions so that microorganisms do not cause food to
spoil.
b. ____ Its perfectly safe to thaw and refreeze food.
c. ____Repeated freezing and thawing of foods does not cause large ice
crystals to form in the foods during slow freezing.
d. ____When food is repeatedly thawed and frozen, cell membranes in the
food rupture, and nutrients leak out.
e. ____Repeated freezing and thawing of foods allows bacteria to multiply
while food is thawed making the food more susceptive to bacterial
degradation.
13. What is true of UV light?
a. damages DNA and proteins
b. it is absorbed by the porcine bases of nucleic acids
c. It is ineffective in inactivating viruses
d. It kills far more bacteria than one might expect.
14. Which is not a universal precaution?
a. wash hands before and after each patient
b. discard needles immediately after use into a sharps box
c. needles must be bent, clipped, or recapped
d. wear masks and eye wear when splashing of blood or body fluids is possible
15. Which two inhibit cell wall sythesis?
a. cephalosporins
b. penicillins
c. aminoglycosides
d. tetracyclines

16. Matching
a.

inhibit nucleic acid synthesis

nitrofuran

b. antimetabolites

influenza A

c. polyene drugs

quinolone

d. amantadine

antifungal

17. Protein synthesis inhibitors include

a. macrolides
b. tetracyclines
c. aminoglycosides
d. all of the above
18. Which is not an antihelminth drug?
a. piperatine
b. mebendaxole
c. niclosamide
d. quinine
19. Antiviral agents do not include
a. Flucytosine
b. Ribavirin
c. Amantadine
d. Acyclovir
20. General properties of antimicrobial therapy include
a. side effects
b. spectrum of activity
c. resistance
d. all of the above
21. Matching:
a.

synthetic drugs

are compounds produced by microbes that inhibit or kill

other microbes

b. antibotics

are for diseases caused by microbes

c. antimicrobials

are made in a laboratory

22. Which is not a broad spectrum agent?

a. cephalosporin
b. ampicillin
c. tetracyclines
d. Nystatin
23. Which is a type of side effect?
a. allergy
b. resistance
c. cross resistance
d. disk diffusion
24. Determining sensitivities in labs does not include
a. Kirby-Bauer
b. the dilution method
c. MIC
d. animal injection
25. Antibacterial agents do not
a. break cell walls
b. inhibit protein synthesis
c. antimetabolize
d. inhibit cell wall synthesis

Chapter 9: The Disease Process

1. Kinds of diseases include:
a. infectious diseases
b. noninfectious diseases
c. communicable diseases
d. all of the above

2. The spectrum of symbiotic associations does not include

a. commensalism
b. mutualism
c. parasitism
d. antagonism
3. Which is true of contamination, infection, and disease?
a. infection is multiplication of any organism in a host body
b. contamination means organisms are present
c. infestation means there is the presence of larger parasites
d. disease means there is a disturbance of the state of health
e. all of the above
4. What is not a typical flora of the mouth?
a. staph epidermidis
b. treponema denticola
c. endolimax nana
d. klebsiella
5. Which is not normally a microbe-free area?
a. blood
b. skin
c. cerebrospinal fluid
d. kidney urine
6. Which is not a disease classification?
a. immunilogical
b. iatrogenic
c. common
d. congenital
7. True or false? Which is a direct action of bacteria?
a. _____ toxins
b. _____ adherence

c. _____ colonization
d. _____ enzymatic virulence factors
8. Match the term with the characteristic of infection
a.

viremia

presence but no multiplication

b.

bacteremia

symptoms occur long after infection

c.

septicemia

viral presence in blood

d.

latent

presence and multiplication of microbes in blood

9. Which is not a stage of infection?

a. invasion
b. decline
c. prodromal
d. latent
10. Which is not an invasive phase symptom?
a. headache
b. skin rash
c. fever
d. cough
11. Resident intestinal flora does not contain
a. Proteus species
b. Giardia intestinalis
c. Veillonella alcalescens
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
12. Matching
a.

incidence

number of cases in a set period in relation to a set population

b.

prevalence

number of new cases within a population in a set time

c.

endemic

total number of cases in a population at any time

d.

morbidity

present in population anywhere

13. Matching
a.

epidemic

occurs in a random and unpredictable manner

b.

pandemic
population

disease suddenly has a higher than normal incidence in a

c.

endemic

epidemic spreads worldwide

d. sporadic disease

an infectious disease agent is present continually in the

population of a particular geographic area, but both the
number of reported cases and the severity of the disease
remain too low to constitute a public health problem

14. Which is true of a descriptive study?

a. It is concerned with the physical aspects of an existing disease and disease
spread.
b. Such a study records the number of cases of a disease, those segments of the
population that were affected, and the locations and time
c. period of the cases. The age, gender, race, marital status, socioeconomic status
and occupation of each patient also are recorded.
d. It is concerned with the number of cases of a disease.
e. all of the above
15. Portals of pathogen entry include
a. broken skin
b. mouth
c. ears
d. all of the above
16. Portals of pathogen exit include
a. anus
b. skin flakes
c. eyes
d. all of the above
17. Modes of transmission include
a. unwashed hands
b. formites
c. water borne
d. all of the above

18. Transmission by vehicles includes

a. vectors
b. airborne
c. food borne
d. all of the above
19. True or false? Nosocomial infections are
a. _____ exogenous
b. _____ susceptible
c. _____ endogenous
d. _____ rare
20. A worldwide epidemic is called a
a. endemic
b. nosocomial
c. pandemic
d. common source

Chapter 10: Immunology

1. Innate and adaptive host defenses do not include
a. physical barriers
b. fever
c. heavy clothing
d. inflammation
2. Physical barriers do not include
a. lysozymes
b. mucosa
c. skin
d. coughing and sneezing

3. Formed elements of blood do not include

a. eosinophils
b. lymph
c. dendrite cells
d. basophils
4. Granulocytes include
a. basophils
b. platelets
c. erythrocytes
5. Fixed macrophages include
a. histiocytes
b. Kupffer cells
c. osteoclast
d. all of the above
6. Matching
a.

PRR

activate cells in inflammatory response

b.

Cytokines

movement of cells toward chemical stimulus

c.

Chemotaxis

recognition receptors

7. Phagocytosis steps include

a. ingestion
b. excretion
c. form phagolysosomes
d. all of the above
8. Lymphoid organs include:
a. thymus
b. spleen
c. nodes
d. all of the above

9. True or false?
a. _____ Histamines diffuse into nearby capillaries and venules, causing the walls of
these vessels to dilate.
b. _____ Antihistamines block release of histamines.
c. _____ Prostaglandins lower the effect of bradykinin.
d. _____ Bradykinins stimulate pain receptors.
10. True or false? Steps in repair include:
a. _____ Fibroblasts replace destroyed tissue.
b. _____ Granulation tissue replaces bone tissue.
c. _____ In the epidermis, the new replaces the old.
d. _____ all of the above
11. True or false?
a. _____ Pyrogens induce fever.
b. _____ Exogenous pyrogens include exotoxins and endotoxins.
c. _____ Endogenous pyrogens are released from macrophages.
d. _____ Lymph nodes excrete protaglondins.
12. Which is untrue of fever?
a. It raises body temperature to optimum pathogen temperature.
b. It heightens the level of immune response.
c. It makes the patient feel ill and seek rest.
d. At its highest, it may inactivate some microbial enzymes or toxins.
13. Complement system
a. refers to > 20 regulatory proteins that play a role in host defense
b. These are created in the liver and circulate in plasma in an inactive form.
c. They account for about 10% of all plasma proteins.
d. all of the above

14. The general function of complement is:

a. enhance phagocytosis
b. kill all microbes
c. generate regulatory cells
d. all of the above
15. Active phase proteins do not include
a. complement
b. c-reactive protein
c. mannose binding proteins
d. all of the above
16. Types of immunity include
a. adaptive
b. naturally acquired
c. artificially acquired
d. all of the above
17. Which is untrue of naturally acquired passive adaptive immunity?
a. It is produced when antibodies made by a mothers immune system are
b. transferred to her offspring via the placenta.
c. It involves receiving antibodies from colostrum in breast milk.
d. It is produced when antibodies made by other hosts are introduced in a new host.

18. Haptens
a. are small molecules
b. act as an antigen if it binds to a larger protein molecule
c. act as epitopes on the surface of proteins
d. all of the above

19. Lymphocytes develop from

a. stem cells
b. haptens
c. yeast
d. white blood cells
20. Lymphocytes give rise to two major types of immune responses, humoral and
____________?
a. T lymphocytes
b. T-cells
c. antibodies
d. cell-mediated immunity
21. General properties of immune response include
a. specificity
b. diversity
c. cell mediated immunity
d. all of the above
22. Classes of immunoglobulins include
a. lgG
b. lgM
c. lgA
d. all of the above
23. B-cell characteristics do not include
a. secreting antibodies
b. cell mediated immunity
c. presence of surface antibodies
d. life span is usually short

24. Which is untrue of T cell characteristics?

a. they are produced in the thymus
b. they have antigen receptors
c. some have a long lifespan and some have a short lifespan
d. none of the above
25. Which duration of effectiveness of immunizations is incorrect?
a. Toxoid 10 years
b. Hepatitis A 10 years
c. Rubella 10 years
d. Measles lifelong
26. For each illness, the nature of the immunization material is listed. Which is incorrect?
a. plague killed bacteria
b. anthrax cellular proteins
c. rabies killed virus
d. tetanus live virus
27. Which is the most appropriate use of these special immunizations?
a. Bacillus anthracis vegan orange farmers.
b. campylobacter doctors
c. adenovirus military recruits
d. equine encephalitis virus cowboys
28. Which of the following is/are true of passive immunization?
a. Mumps immune globulin may prevent orchitis (inflammation of testes) in adult
males exposed to mumps.
b. Varicella-zoster immune globulin prevents chickenpox in high-risk children; must
be given within 4 days of exposure.
c. Rabies immune globulin is administered after a bite from a rabid animal; applied to
the bite if possible and administered intramuscularly.
d. all of the above

29. How do viruses infect?

a. Viruses infect by invading proteins.
b. Viruses infect by invading gamma globulin.
c. Viruses infect by invading platelets.
d. Viruses infect by invading cells.
30. Types of immune disorders include:
a. hypersensitivity
b. immunodeficiency
c. allergens
d. all of the above
31. Which is not a commonly ingested allergen?
a. dander
b. aspirin
c. fruits
d. nuts
32. Which is a commonly inhaled allergen?
a. dust
b. aspirin
c. grains
d. seafood
33. Which is not a mediator of immediate hypersensitivity?
a. Histamine
b. Prostaglandin D
c. leukotrienes (SRS-A)
d. neutrophil and eosinoquil thromatic factors

34. In a sensitized person, a generalized anaphylactic reaction

a. Begins with sudden reddening of the skin
b. Begins with intense itching
c. Begins with hives
d. all of the above
35. Hypersensitivity types include
a. Type I
b. cytotoxins
c. allergens
d. all of the above
36. Contact allergens do not include
a. latex
b. nickel
c. kidney
d. chromium
37. Type III Hypersensitivity characteristics do not include
a. soluble or particulate antigens
b. lgG, IgM as main mediators
c. steroid therapy
d. antihistamine therapy
38. Match the disorder with the affected organ.
a. a. glomerulonephritis

thyroid gland

b. b. Rheumatic Fever

kidneys

c. c. Graves disease

colon

d. d. ulcerative colitis

heart

39. Autoimmune disorders include

a. myasthenia gravis
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. systematic lupus erythematosis
d. all of the above
40. Primary immunodeficiency diseases include
a. agammaglobulinemia
b. DiGeorge Syndrome
c. c .severe combined immunodeficiency
d. all of the above
41. Infections frequently found in AIDS patients do not include
a. vibrio
b. tuberculosis
c. herpes
d. pneumocystis
42. Immunology tests include
a. viral hemagglutination
b. hemagglutination inhibition test
c. Combs antiglobulin test
d. all of the above
43. Tagged antibody tests
a. are the most sensitive immunological tests used to detect antibodies.
b. that have a molecular tag that is easy to detect even at low
concentrations.
c. are the most sensitive immunological tests used to detect antibodies
that have a molecular tag that is easy to detect when at very high
concentrations.
d. are the least sensitive immunological tests used to detect antibodies that have a
molecular tag that is easy to detect even at low concentrations.
e. none of the above

44. Agglutination Reactions

a. depend on the separating of antigen and antibody combinations to
b. determine if ones antibody titer or if seroconversion has happened.
c. depend on the clumping of antigen and antibody combinations to determine if
ones antibody titer or if seroconversion has happened.
d. depend on the clumping of antigens combinations to determine if ones antibody
titer or if seroconversion has happened
e. all of the above

Chapter 11: Environmental, Food, & Industrial Microbiology

1. Ecology is
a. the study of relationships among organisms and their environment
b. includes studying the relationships between organisms and abiotic factors
c. includes studying the relationships between organisms and biotic factors
d. all of the above
2. Energy flow in the ecosystem is comprised of
a. producers
b. consumers
c. decomposers
d. all of the above
3. Biogeochemical cycles include
a. the carbon cycle
b. the water cycle
c. the nitrogen cycle
d. all of the above
4. Approximate proportion of aerovic bacteria in soil is
a. 60%
b. 70%
c. 2-9%
d. none of the above

5. Earths surface is 70% water. The water available for human use is about
a. 1%
b. b 250%
c. 30-40%
d. 50-125%
6. How do caves form?
a. Slightly acid rainwater can dissolve away limestone.
b. Streams of hot lava running out of a volcano cool on their outer surfaces and harden
into a tube. Inside the lava remains liquid, running out, and leaving empty tunnels
called lava tubes.
c. Ocean waves pounding against cliff bottoms erode out sea caves.
d. Microorganisms produce sulfuric acid that eats away rock. Five percent of all
limestone caves are formed in this manner.
e. all of the above
7. Human pathogens transmitted by water include
a. Hepatitis A virus
b. vibrio cholerae
c. salmonella typhi
d. all of the above
8. What is the effect of radioactive wastes being dumped in the oceans?
a. It can cause cancer, birth defects, and radiation sickness when humans come into
contact with large doses.
b. It neutralizes dangerous substances into less harmful or harmless substances with
the assistance of yeast, fungi, and bacteria
c. It causes excessive and sometimes uncontrolled growth of aquatic plants
(eutrophication); impart undesirable odors and tastes to drinking waters.
d. It reduces oxygen solubility in water; alters habitats and kinds of organisms
present; encourages growth of some aquatic life, but can decrease growth of
desired organisms such as fish.

9. What is the effect of sewage being dumped into the ocean?

a. neurological damage
b. causes cancer
c. the water requires more biological oxygen
d. increases the salinity and acidity of water and renders it toxic.
10. This is often in limited supply in ponds and fresh water lakes
a. carbon
b. oxygen
c. nitrogen
d. all of the above
11. Biological treatment of sewage by microorganisms most likely occurs in:
a. the primary stage
b. the tertiary stage
c. the secondary stage
12. The number of Americans who become ill each year from contaminated water is
a. 250,000
b. 940,000
c. 1,500,000
d. 400,000
13. Campylobacter fetus causes
a. Asiatic cholera
b. Balantidiasis
c. Hepatitis
d. Gastroenteritis
14. Bioremediation
a. is a process that uses artificial medications to turn harmful substances
b. into less toxic or nontoxic compounds
c. has been used since the early 1950s
d. lessens oil spills

15. Tests for water purity include

a. BOD
b. ONPG
c. MUG
d. all of the above
16. The percentage of emergency room visits due to food-borne illnesses is
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 80%
17. The most common diseases found by inspectors at slaughterhouses are
a. abscesses
b. nephritis
c. pneumonia
d. all of the above
18. Organisms involved in milk spoilage include
a. Streptococcus lactis
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Micrococcus
19. Campylobacter causes gastroenteritis due to
a. poor sanitation
b. infected food handlers
c. undercooked chicken or raw milk
d. undercooked shell fish
20. Ionizing radiation
a. kills microbes, does not make food radioactive
b. is in use in Japan using gamma radiation from cobalt-60 or cesium 137.
c. is used in Europe
d. all of the above

21. Organisms involved in cheese production

a. streptococcus lactis
b. b bacillus thuricide
c. E coli
d. all of the above
22. Beer and wine are made by fermenting
a. sugary juices
b. fermenting juices and distilling the fermented product
c. none of the above
d. all of the above
23. Which of the following statements about enzymes used in industrial processes is true?
a. A sweetener is made by a yeast enzyme called Sallefedrine.
b. Most enzymes are produced by yeast only.
c. No enzymes used in industrial processes are synthesized by living organisms.
d. none of the above
24. Minerals extracted from low grade ores are
a. copper
b. uranium
c. zinc
d. all of the above
25. Organic products made by using microbes include
a. enzymes
b. antibiotics
c. amino acids
d. all of the above

26. Component of egg white that helps kill bacteria invading the egg
a. salmonella
b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Lysozyme
d. Staphylococcus aureus
27. Which products can be created without the use of microbes?
a. vinegar
b. sauerkraut
c. pickles
d. none of the above
28. Because the muscle of these are consumed, they are less likely to cause disease
a. clam
b. oyster
c. shrimp
d. none of the above
29. Spirulina are
a. algae
b. yeast
c. cyannobacterium
d. fungi
30. Pasteurization methods in use today
a. HTST
b. HTLT
c. TLTL
d. All of the above

Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites

1. Flow of tears involves
a. lacrimal gland
b. lacrimal canals
c. lacrimal sacs
d. all of the above
2. Matching
a. sebaceous glands produce

watery solution

b. sweat glands produce

sebum

c. keratin

mucous

d. goblet cells produce

stops water soluble substances from

entering the dermis

3. Innate lines of defense

a. shedding of skin cells
b. salt from sweat
c. tears
d. all of the above
4. Which is not a staphylococcal infection?
a. pimple
b. abrasion
c. sty
d. pustule
5. Streptococcal infections do not include:
a. scalded skin syndrome
b. scarlet fever
c. erysipelas
d. acne

6. Viral skin diseases include:

a. roseola
b. measles
c. chicken pox
d. all of the above
7. Human warts
a. are always benign
b. human papilloma viruses are transmitted by indirect contact
c. include dermal warts which occur when epithelial cells become infected
and shrink to form dermal warts.
d. Warts can be distinguished by immunological tests and microscopic
examination of tissues.
8. Dermatotomycoses does not include
a. scalping worm
b athletes foot
c. body ringworm
d. jock itch
9. Subcutaneous fungal infections include
a. candidiasis
b. sporotrichosis
c. blastomycosis
d. all of the above
10. Fungal skin diseases include
a. warts
b. Acne
c. Madura foot
d. candidiasis

11. Bacterial eye diseases do not include

a. ophthalmia neonatorum corneal lesions that could lead to bacterial conjunctivitis
b. trachoma
c. loaiasis
d. keratitis
12. Causative agents of conjunctivitis include
a. pseudomonas species
b. streptococcus pneumoniae
c. staphylococcus pneumoniae
d. all of the above
13. Wound infections do not include
a. cat scratch fever
b. Loaiasis
c. rat bite fever
d. chigger dermatitis
14. Arthropid bites and infections
a. tick paralysis
b. sables
c. chigger dermatitis
d. all of the above
15. True or false?
Monkeypox is sometimes mistaken for smallpox.

Urogenital and sexually transmitted diseases

1. The urinary system includes
a. nephrons
b. glomerulus
c. renal cortex
d. all of the above

2. Female reproductive system includes all but

a. seminal vesicles
b. cervix
c. Bartholin glands
d. ovaries
3. Male reproductive system includes all but
a. prostate gland
b. cervix
c. testes
4. Which of these urogenital diseases are usually not sexually transmitted?
a. cystitis
b. pyelonephritis
c. leptospirosis
d. all of the above
5. Which is a sexually transmitted bacterial disease?
a. gonorrhea
b. pelvic Inflammatory disease
c. syphilis
d. all of the above
6. Which is a sexually transmitted viral disease?
a. herpes simplex virus type 2
b. syphilis
c. gonorrhea
d. pelvic inflammatory disease
7. Genital warts are caused by
a. papilloma virus
b. treponema pallidum
c. herpes
d. none of the above

8. Toxic shock syndrome is started by

a. chlamydia
b. staph aureus
c. neisseria
d. streptococcus
9. What treatment is used in trichomoniasis?
a. penicillin
b. tetracyclin
c. mettonadiozobe
d. none of the above
10. Lymphogranuloma venereum characteristics include
a. being common in tropical and subtropical regions
b. 20 times more common in males than females
c. the agent is chlamydia trachomatis
d. all of the above
11. Granuloma inguinale characteristics
a. caused by an encapsulated Klebsiella strain
b. effective therapy is acyclovin
c.none of the above
d. A and B are both true
12. Expressions of herpes include
a. lesions
b. ulcerations
c. fever blister
d. all of the above

13. Genital warts that are most common in sexually promiscuous young people
a. include condyloma
b. often cause cervical cancer
c. progress or regress spontaneously
d. all of the above
14. True or false? Cytomegaloviruses constitue a widespread and diverse group of
herpesviruses.
15. What % of American adults are CMV carriers?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 80%

Diseases of the Respiratory System

1. Components of the Upper Respiratory System
a. nasal cavity
b. nasal sinuses
c. pharynx
d. all of the above
2. Components of lower respiratory system include
a. bronchioles
b. larynx
c. nasal sinuses
d. pharynx
3. Which is not a bacterial upper respiratory disease
a. common cold
b. pharyngitis
c. sinusitis
d. streptococcal pharyngitis

4. Which Diphtheria statement is true:

a. Sequelae are uncommon in diphtheria.
b. Diphtheria is common in American children.
c. is caused by strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d. all of the above
5. Match the disease with the organism.
a. pharyngitis

H. influenza

b. sinusitis

S. pyogenes

c. diphtheria

streptococcus pyogenes

d. otitis media

corynebacterium diphtheria

6. Upper respiration viral diseases include

a. parainfluenza
b. bronchitis
c. none of the above
d. all of the above
7. Lower respiratory diseases include
a. mycoplasma pneumonia
b. classic pneumonia
c. tuberculosis
d. all of the above
8. Which is true of Legionella pneumophila?
a. Legionella pneumophila is Gram-negative
b Legionella pneumophila is strictly aerobic bacillus
c. Legionella pneumophila has fastidious nutritional requirements
d. all of the above

9. Matching
a. military tuberculosis

acquired by dipolar inhalation

b. caseous appearance

spread by circulatory system

c. disseminated tuberculosis

cheesy appearance

d. tuberculosis

infected cells become casts

10. Which is untrue of bird flus?

a. Ornithosis is carried by birds.
b. Chlamydophilia psittaci causes ornithosis.
c. Ornithosis is always quarantined in the USA.
11. Viral lower respiratory diseases include:
a. respiratory syncitial virus
b. adenovirus
c. both of the above
d. none of the above
12. Cryptococcosis is characterized as
a. yeast
b. usually mild symptoms
c. Filobasidiella neoformans is the agent
d. all of the above
13. Pneumoocystis jiroveci
a. long believed to be protozoan
b. disease occurs in infants, elderly and AIDS patients
c. present in high concentrations in bird feces
d. all of the above
14. New cases of tuberculosis per year
a. 1 million
b. 3 million
c. 10 million
d. 100 million

15. Common cold

a. viral cause
b. cant be helped with antibiotics
c. rhinoviruses are usual agents
d. all of the above

Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases

1. Digestive system functions
a. movement of food materials through the tract
b. include digestion
c. include absorption
d. all of the above
2. Components of the digestive system include
a. teeth
b. stomach
c. small intestines
d. all of the above
3. Diseases of the oral cavity include
a. mumps
b. enterotoxins
c. bacterial food poisoning
d. all of the above
4. Bacterial diseases include
a. salmonella
b. food poisoning
c. enteritis
d. all of the above

5. Bacterial diseases of the stomach, esophagus, and intestines include

a. gastritis
b. peptic ulcer
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
6. Upper tract diseases caused by bacteria include
a. helicobacter
b. cholecystitis cholangitis
c. pseudomembranous colitis
d. all of the above
7. Gastrointestinal viral diseases include
a. viral enteritis
b. hepatitis A
c. hepatitis E
d. all of the above
8. Helminth gastrointestinal disease causing agents include
a. amoeba
b giardia
c. cryptosporidium
d. ascaruasus
9. Protozoan systemic diseases include
a. leishmaniasis
b. malaria
c. toxoplasmosis
d. all of the above

10. Fungal toxins include

a. mushroom toxins
b. tapeworms
c. giardia
d. fluke infections

11. The number of hepatitis virus agents is

a. 5
b. 6
c. 3
d. 4
12. Symptoms of giardiasis include
a. diarrhea
b. weight loss
c. dehydration
d. all of the above
13. Trichinosis facts
a. larvae migrate through blood and lymph
b. usually contracted by eating undercooked pork
c. form cysts
d. all of the above
14. How many people in the USA are infected with pinworms?
a. 10 million
b. 18 million
c. 20 million
d. 100 million

15. Agents of viral enteritis include

a. Norwalk virus
b. rotavirus
c. echo virus
d. all of the above

Cardiovascular, Lymphatic and Systematic Diseases

1. The heart is composed of
a. atria
b. external endocardium
c. pericardial sac
d. all of the above
2. Matching
a. septisemia

transient microbes

b. bacteremia

caused by strep pyogens

c. puerpeial fever

blood poisoning

d. rheumatic fever

childbirth fever

3. Pericarditis characteristics
a. usually a viral agent
b. inflammation of the heart muscle
c. none of the above
d. all of the above
4. Blood and lymph helminthes
a. giardiasis
b. filariasis
c. none of the above
d. all of the above

5. Bacterial systemic diseases include

a. anthrax
b. plague
c. relapsing fever
d. all of the above
6. Brucellosis is also called
a. undulant fever
b. Bangs disease
c. Malta fever
d. all of the above
7. Viral system disease
a. yellow fever
b. mononucleosis
c. dengue fever
d. all of the above
8. Rickettsial poxs causative organism is
a. R. rickettsii
b R. typhi
c. R. akari
d. all of the above
9. More viral infections
a. orbivirus
b. leishmaniasis
c. none of the above
d. all of the above

10. Protozoan diseases include:

a. malaria
b. toxoplasmosis
c. babesiosis
d. all of the above
11. Yellow fever is caused by
a. Leishmania donovani
b. Yellow fever virus
c. L tropica
d. toxoplasma gondii
12. Filovirus can be branched, U-shaped, or fishhook-shaped, and are
associated with which disease?
a. yellow fever
b. EBV
c. Ebola
d. all of the above
13. Malaria
a. is caused by plasmodium
b. its vector is a rat
c. periods of low temperature required
d. all of the above
14. True or false? The vector of spotted fevers rickettsial pox is a mite.
a. True
b. False
15. True or false? Relapsing fever is caused by Borrelia.
a. True
b. False

Diseases of the Nervous System

1. Components of the nervous system include
a. Central nervous system
b. Peripheral nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. All of the above
2. Bacterial diseases of the brain and meninges include
a. West Nile virus
b. listeriosis
c. rabies
d. all of the above
3. Viral diseases of the brain and meninges include
a. encephalitis
b. listeriosis
c. haemophilus meningitis
d. all of the above
4. Types of encephalitis include
a. Eastern equine
b. St. Louis
c. Venezuelan equine
d. all of the above
5. Bacterial diseases of the nervous system include:
a. tetanus
b. Hansens Disease
c. botulism
d. All of the above

6. Hansens Disease is the cause of

a. loss of skin pigment and sensation
b. lepromas
c. erosion of skin, mucous membranes and peripheral tissues
d. all of the above
7. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies
a. create holes in the brain
b. use polioviruses as agents
c. has a quick onset of symptoms
d. is cured with penicillin
8. Parasitic diseases of the Central Nervous System (CNS)
a. include Chagas disease
b. use polioviruses as agents
c. has a quick onset of symptoms
d. is cured with penicillin
9. Listeriosis
a. is a bacterial disease of the brain and meninges
b. use polioviruses as agents
c. transmitted solely by poorly processed meats
d. is transmitted solely by poorly processed dairy products.
10. Prion diseases of the CNS include
a. Chagas disease
b. Kuru
c. Trypanosomiasis
d. Poliomyelitis

11. Poliomyelitis
a. is caused by prions
b. is diagnosed by culturing the virus
c. makes holes in the brain
d. results in skin erosion

12. The leading cause of death in World War II among the military was from:
a. staph
b. haemophilus menigitis
c. the bacterium neisseria meningitidis
d. listeria
13. Which statement is true about botulism?
a. The disease occurs in three forms: foodborne, infant and wound.
b. Foodborne botulism accounts for 90% of cases and is caused by ingestion of
toxin, usually from improperly home-canned nonacid foods. Infant
c. Infant botulism and wound botulism involve both infection and intoxication because
the organisms grow in tissue and produce toxin.
d. all of the above
14. Naegleria fowleri is
a. a genera of soil amoeba that is usually seen in swimmers
b. a genera of soil amoeba that is usually seen in farmers
c. a genera of soil amoeba that is usually seen in hot tub enthusiasts
d. none of the above
15. Listeriosis can be transmitted by
a. improperly processed soda
b. improperly processed fruits
c. improperly processed dairy products
d. improperly processed cosmetics