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2

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

x0 ) will automatically be a symmetric function if


Therefore, we see that G(x,
Z
1
F (x) F (x0 ) =
(G(x0 , y) G(x, y)) da.
S
In particular, this will be true if we define F (x) by
Z
1
F (x) =
G(x, y)da.
S
We have shown that for any arbitrary Greens function, G(x, x0 ), satisfyingRNeumann
x0 ) G(x, x0 ) 1
boundary conditions there exists a Greens function G(x,
S G(x, y)da,
which satisfies the same boundary conditions as G(x, x0 ) and has the property that

Z
y) G(x
0 , y) G(x
0 , y) G(x,
y) da = 0.
G(x,
n
n

x0 ) is
From our derivation in part (a), this implies that the Greens function G(x,
symmetric.
o 
2. Capacitance I
a) We are to determine the capacitance of two large, flat, parallel conducting sheets of area A
separated by a distance d.
If we chose a Gaussian region that completely encloses one of the plates such that the
edges are arbitrarily small, then the surface integral of the electric field will give E A
where E is the magnitude of the electric field. Notice that we have used the fact that
the electric field will be non-vanishing only between the plates.
Using Gauss law, was see that the surface integral is equal to the total charge contained
within the region divided by 0 . Specifically, we have that
Q

EA=
= E = ,
0
0
where is the charge density on the surface of one of the plates.
The magnitude of the voltage difference between the two plates is equal to the line
integral of the electric field from one plate to the other. Because we know that in the
region between the two plates the electric field is independent of position, this will
be simply V = d
0 .
Therefore, using the definition of capacitance, we see that
A0
C=
.
d
b) We are to determine the capacitance of two concentric conducting spheres with radii a and b
where b > a.
If we chose a Gaussian region that completely encloses the inner sphere, then the surface
integral of the electric field will give E A where E is the magnitude of the electric
field and A = 4r2 , the area of the boundary of the region.
Using Gauss law, was see that the surface integral is equal to the total charge contained
within the region divided by 0 . Specifically, we have that
Q
Q
= E =
,
E 4r2 =
0
40 r2
where a < r < b and Q is the charge on one of the spheres.
The magnitude of the voltage difference between the two spheres is equal to the line
integral of the electric field from one to the other. Specifically,
Z b
Z b
Q
1
Q ba
V =
Ed` =
dr =
.
2
40 a r
40 ab
a
Therefore, using the definition of capacitance, we see that
40 ab
C=
.
ba

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 1

c) We are to determine the capacitance of two concentric conducting cylinders of length L with
radii a and b where b > a.
If we chose a Gaussian region that completely encloses one the inner cylinder, then the
surface integral of the electric field will give E A where E is the magnitude of the
electric field and A = 2rL, the area of the boundary of the region.
Using Gauss law, was see that the surface integral is equal to the total charge contained
within the region divided by 0 . Specifically, we have that
Q
Q
E 2rL =
= E =
,
0
20 Lr
where a < r < b and Q is the charge on one of the cylinders.
The magnitude of the voltage difference between the two cylinders is equal to the line
integral of the electric field from one to the other. Specifically,

Z b
Z b
Q
dr
Q
b
V =
Ed` =
=
log
.
20 L a r
40
a
a
Therefore, using the definition of capacitance, we see that
20 L
.
C=
log ab
3. Capacitance II
We are to approximate the capacitance per unit length of two parallel, cylindrical conductors
with radii a1 and a2 which are separated by a distance d.
Let us work within the coordinate system such that the center of the first cylinder, with
radius a1 , is located at r = 0 and the second cylinder, with radius a2 , is located at
r = d.
Because the electric field is linear, we can consider the field caused by each of the
conductors separately. Specifically, for points between the two cylinders, we can add
the electric fields produced by each cylinder separately. We can determine the electric
field per unit length induced by each cylinder by imagining a Gaussian region that
completely encloses a unit length of either cylinder. Therefore, for a point collinear
with the centers of each cylinder, we have that
Q
Q
E=
+
.
20 r 20 (d r)
The magnitude of the voltage difference between the two cylinders is equal to the line
integral of the electric field from one to the other. Specifically,

Z da2
Q
1
1
V =
+
dr,
20 a1
r
dr

Q
d a2
a2
=
log
log
,
20
a1
d a1

(d a2 )(d a1 )
Q
log
,
=
20
a1 a2
2
Q
d

log
,
20
a1 a2

Q
d
=
log
.
0
a1 a2
Therefore, using the definition of capacitance per unit length, we see that

0 .
C
log ad1 a2

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 1

c) We are to determine the capacitance of two concentric conducting cylinders of length L with
radii a and b where b > a.
If we chose a Gaussian region that completely encloses one the inner cylinder, then the
surface integral of the electric field will give E A where E is the magnitude of the
electric field and A = 2rL, the area of the boundary of the region.
Using Gauss law, was see that the surface integral is equal to the total charge contained
within the region divided by 0 . Specifically, we have that
Q
Q
E 2rL =
= E =
,
0
20 Lr
where a < r < b and Q is the charge on one of the cylinders.
The magnitude of the voltage difference between the two cylinders is equal to the line
integral of the electric field from one to the other. Specifically,

Z b
Z b
Q
dr
Q
b
V =
Ed` =
=
log
.
20 L a r
40
a
a
Therefore, using the definition of capacitance, we see that
20 L
.
C=
log ab
3. Capacitance II
We are to approximate the capacitance per unit length of two parallel, cylindrical conductors
with radii a1 and a2 which are separated by a distance d.
Let us work within the coordinate system such that the center of the first cylinder, with
radius a1 , is located at r = 0 and the second cylinder, with radius a2 , is located at
r = d.
Because the electric field is linear, we can consider the field caused by each of the
conductors separately. Specifically, for points between the two cylinders, we can add
the electric fields produced by each cylinder separately. We can determine the electric
field per unit length induced by each cylinder by imagining a Gaussian region that
completely encloses a unit length of either cylinder. Therefore, for a point collinear
with the centers of each cylinder, we have that
Q
Q
E=
+
.
20 r 20 (d r)
The magnitude of the voltage difference between the two cylinders is equal to the line
integral of the electric field from one to the other. Specifically,

Z da2
Q
1
1
V =
+
dr,
20 a1
r
dr

Q
d a2
a2
=
log
log
,
20
a1
d a1

(d a2 )(d a1 )
Q
log
,
=
20
a1 a2
2
Q
d

log
,
20
a1 a2

Q
d
=
log
.
0
a1 a2
Therefore, using the definition of capacitance per unit length, we see that

0 .
C
log ad1 a2

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

4. The Force Between Conductors


a) We are to find the attractive force between the conductors of the parallel plate capacitor described
in problem (2.a) and the parallel cylinders of problem (3) for fixed charges on each conductor.
We know that the energy stored between an arbitrary capacitor with fixed charges is
given by Q2 /2C where Q is the charge on each conductor and C is the capacitance
of the system.
Let us fist consider the parallel plate capacitor. Using our results from problem (2.a), we
Q2 d
can easily determine that the energy of the capacitor is given by W = 2A
. Because
0
W
the force F = d , we have that
F =

Q2
.
2A0

Similarly, we can use our results from problem (3) for the capacitance of the parallel

Q2
d
cylinder system to arrive at the energy stored per unit length, W = 2
log
.
a
a
0
1 2
Therefore, we see that
Q2
F =
.
20 d
b) We are to find the attractive force between the conductors of the parallel plate capacitor described
in problem (2.a) and the parallel cylinders of problem (3) for fixed potential difference of the
conductors.
We know that the energy stored between an arbitrary capacitor with fixed potentials on
each conductor is given by 12 CV 2 where V is the voltage difference between the two
conductors and C is the capacitance of the system.
Let us fist consider the parallel plate capacitor. Using our results from problem (2.a),
0A
we can determine that the energy of the capacitor is given by W = 2d
V 2 . Because
W
the force F = d , we have that
0 A 2
V .
2d2
Similarly, we can use our results from problem (3) for the capacitance of the parallel
0
V 2.
cylinder system to arrive at the energy stored per unit length, W =
d
F =

2 log

Therefore, we see that


F =

2 log

0
d
a1 a2

a1 a2

2
2 V .
d

5. Thomsons Theorem
If an empty region is bounded by a number of equipotential surfaces, then the electrostatic
energy inside the region is absolutely minimized.
proof: Let us consider the energy within the bounded, compact region with boundary
which is composed of equipotential surfaces. We will show that the electrostatic
energy W of the region is absolutely minimized.
Recall from the discussion in section (1.11) of Jacksons text that, in general, the electrostatic energy of a region is given by
Z
0
2 d3 x,
W =
2
where (x) is the scalar potential. Integrating this expression by parts, we see that
Z

Z
0
W =
da ||2 d3 x .
2

Using the definition of the scalar potential , E = , we see that this implies that
Z
Z
0
0
W =
E da +
||2 d3 x.
2
2

Physics 505, Classical Electrodynamics


Homework 1
Due Thursday, 16th September 2004
Jacob Lewis Bourjaily
1. Symmetric Greens Functions
a) Any Greens function, G(x, x0 ), which satisfies Dirichlet boundary conditions is automatically
symmetric: G(x, x0 ) = G(x0 , x).
proof: Let us say that the Greens function G(x, x0 ) satisfies Dirichlet boundary conditions.
That is, for a compact, bounded region with boundary , G(x, x0 ) = 0 x0 .
Because G(x, x0 ) is a scalar field, Greens theorem implies that

Z
Z

G(x, y) G(x0 , y) G(x0 , y) G(x, y) da.


G(x, y)2 G(x0 , y) G(x0 , y)2 G(x, y) d3 y =
n
n

Now, because G(x, x0 ) satisfies Dirichlet boundary conditions, the surface integral on
the right hand side of the expression above vanishes identically so that
Z

G(x, y)2 G(x0 , y) G(x0 , y)2 G(x, y) d3 y = 0.

By the definition of a Greens function, 2 G(x, y) = 4 (3) (x y). Therefore, we see


that
Z
Z

G(x, y)2 G(x0 , y) G(x0 , y)2 G(x, y) d3 y = 4


G(x, y) (3) (x0 y) G(x0 , y) (3) (x y) d3 y,

= 4 (G(x, x0 ) G(x0 , x)) = 0,


G(x, x0 ) = G(x0 , x).

o 

b) For any Greens function, G(x, x0 ), which satisfies Neumann boundary conditions, there exists a
x0 ) which satisfies the same boundary conditions.
symmetric Greens function G(x,
proof: Let us say that the Greens function G(x, x0 ) satisfies Neumann boundary conditions. That is, for a compact, bounded region with boundary , we have that

0
0
n0 G(x, x ) = 4/S x where S is the surface area of the boundary .
x0 ) = G(x, x0 ) + F (x, x0 )
Recall that for any Greens function G(x, x0 ), the function G(x,
0
is another Greens function if F (x, x ) satisfies the Laplace equation. In general,
x0 ) will not satisfy the same boundary conditions of G(x, x0 ).
however, G(x,
0
x ) is to satisfy the same Neumann boundary conditions as G(x, x0 ), then not
If G(x,
only must the Laplacian of F (x, x0 ) vanish, but also F (x, x0 ) must satisfy the relation

0
0
n0 F (x, x ) = 0 x .
A wide class of functions satisfy this condition. In particular, any function F (x, x0 ) which

0
is independent of x0 automatically satisfies n
0 F (x, x ) = 0it also has a vanishing
Laplacian. Therefore, let us investigate if any function F (x) F (x, x0 ) can be chosen
x0 ) = G(x, x0 ) + F (x) is symmetric.
so that G(x,
x0 ) will be symmetric if
From our work in part (a) above, we know that G(x,

Z
0

0

G(x, y) G(x , y) G(x , y) G(x, y) da = 0.


n
n

x0 ) and the fact that G(x,


x0 ) satisfies Neumann boundary
Using the form of G(x,
conditions, we have that

Z
Z

0

4
0

y) G(x
0 , y) da,
G(x, y) G(x , y) G(x , y) G(x, y) da =
G(x,
n
n
S

Z
4
=
(G(x, y) + F (x) G(x0 , y) F (x0 )) da,
S
Z
Z
4
4
(G(x, y) G(x0 , y)) da
(F (x) F (x0 )) da,
=
S
S

Z
4
=
(G(x, y) G(x0 , y)) da 4 (F (x) F (x0 )) .
S

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

x0 ) will automatically be a symmetric function if


Therefore, we see that G(x,
Z
1
F (x) F (x0 ) =
(G(x0 , y) G(x, y)) da.
S
In particular, this will be true if we define F (x) by
Z
1
F (x) =
G(x, y)da.
S
We have shown that for any arbitrary Greens function, G(x, x0 ), satisfyingRNeumann
x0 ) G(x, x0 ) 1
boundary conditions there exists a Greens function G(x,
S G(x, y)da,
which satisfies the same boundary conditions as G(x, x0 ) and has the property that

Z
y) G(x
0 , y) G(x
0 , y) G(x,
y) da = 0.
G(x,
n
n

x0 ) is
From our derivation in part (a), this implies that the Greens function G(x,
symmetric.
o 
2. Capacitance I
a) We are to determine the capacitance of two large, flat, parallel conducting sheets of area A
separated by a distance d.
If we chose a Gaussian region that completely encloses one of the plates such that the
edges are arbitrarily small, then the surface integral of the electric field will give E A
where E is the magnitude of the electric field. Notice that we have used the fact that
the electric field will be non-vanishing only between the plates.
Using Gauss law, was see that the surface integral is equal to the total charge contained
within the region divided by 0 . Specifically, we have that
Q

EA=
= E = ,
0
0
where is the charge density on the surface of one of the plates.
The magnitude of the voltage difference between the two plates is equal to the line
integral of the electric field from one plate to the other. Because we know that in the
region between the two plates the electric field is independent of position, this will
be simply V = d
0 .
Therefore, using the definition of capacitance, we see that
A0
C=
.
d
b) We are to determine the capacitance of two concentric conducting spheres with radii a and b
where b > a.
If we chose a Gaussian region that completely encloses the inner sphere, then the surface
integral of the electric field will give E A where E is the magnitude of the electric
field and A = 4r2 , the area of the boundary of the region.
Using Gauss law, was see that the surface integral is equal to the total charge contained
within the region divided by 0 . Specifically, we have that
Q
Q
= E =
,
E 4r2 =
0
40 r2
where a < r < b and Q is the charge on one of the spheres.
The magnitude of the voltage difference between the two spheres is equal to the line
integral of the electric field from one to the other. Specifically,
Z b
Z b
Q
1
Q ba
V =
Ed` =
dr =
.
2
40 a r
40 ab
a
Therefore, using the definition of capacitance, we see that
40 ab
C=
.
ba

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

4. The Force Between Conductors


a) We are to find the attractive force between the conductors of the parallel plate capacitor described
in problem (2.a) and the parallel cylinders of problem (3) for fixed charges on each conductor.
We know that the energy stored between an arbitrary capacitor with fixed charges is
given by Q2 /2C where Q is the charge on each conductor and C is the capacitance
of the system.
Let us fist consider the parallel plate capacitor. Using our results from problem (2.a), we
Q2 d
can easily determine that the energy of the capacitor is given by W = 2A
. Because
0
W
the force F = d , we have that
F =

Q2
.
2A0

Similarly, we can use our results from problem (3) for the capacitance of the parallel

Q2
d
cylinder system to arrive at the energy stored per unit length, W = 2
log
.
a
a
0
1 2
Therefore, we see that
Q2
F =
.
20 d
b) We are to find the attractive force between the conductors of the parallel plate capacitor described
in problem (2.a) and the parallel cylinders of problem (3) for fixed potential difference of the
conductors.
We know that the energy stored between an arbitrary capacitor with fixed potentials on
each conductor is given by 12 CV 2 where V is the voltage difference between the two
conductors and C is the capacitance of the system.
Let us fist consider the parallel plate capacitor. Using our results from problem (2.a),
0A
we can determine that the energy of the capacitor is given by W = 2d
V 2 . Because
W
the force F = d , we have that
0 A 2
V .
2d2
Similarly, we can use our results from problem (3) for the capacitance of the parallel
0
V 2.
cylinder system to arrive at the energy stored per unit length, W =
d
F =

2 log

Therefore, we see that


F =

2 log

0
d
a1 a2

a1 a2

2
2 V .
d

5. Thomsons Theorem
If an empty region is bounded by a number of equipotential surfaces, then the electrostatic
energy inside the region is absolutely minimized.
proof: Let us consider the energy within the bounded, compact region with boundary
which is composed of equipotential surfaces. We will show that the electrostatic
energy W of the region is absolutely minimized.
Recall from the discussion in section (1.11) of Jacksons text that, in general, the electrostatic energy of a region is given by
Z
0
2 d3 x,
W =
2
where (x) is the scalar potential. Integrating this expression by parts, we see that
Z

Z
0
W =
da ||2 d3 x .
2

Using the definition of the scalar potential , E = , we see that this implies that
Z
Z
0
0
W =
E da +
||2 d3 x.
2
2

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 1

Because the boundary is composed of equipotential pieces, (x) must be constant


on the boundary. Therefore, the first integral can be reduced using Gauss law.
Specifically, we have that
Z
Z
0
0
W =
E da +
||2 d3 x,
2
2
Z
Qint
0
| +
=
||2 d3 x,
2
2
Z
0
=
||2 d3 x,
2
where we have used the fact that is empty and therefore Qint = 0. It should be
noted that each term is positive definite and, in particular, the first term is absolutely
minimized by an equipotential boundaryindeed, it vanishes entirely. However, it
remains for us to show that the remaining source of electrostatic energy is minimized.
We will briefly digress to discover what conditions must satisfy so that W is extremized.
Let us imagine that the potential function extremizes the energy W . In particular,
this means that a first-order variation in the potential function should not vary
the energy W (keeping = 0 on the boundary).
Therefore, the condition that W is extremized by is equivalent to the requirement that
W = 0 for any first-order variation , fixed on the boundary . In particular,
using integration by parts and the fact that vanishes on the boundary, we have
that
Z
0
W = 0 =
2 () d3 x,
2
Z
0
=
2 () d3 x,
2
Z
= 0 | 0 2 d3 x,

Z
= 0 2 d3 x = 0,

2 = 0.
In the last step we have used the fact that because the variation was arbitrary,
2 must precisely vanish everywhere in .
Therefore, we have shown that the energy is extremized by a potential which satisfies
Laplaces equation. In particular, this implies that the bulk term of the electrostatic
energy is extremized by a vacuum interior.
The Laplace equation is satisfied by the region because it free of charge. Therefore,
the second source of electrostatic energy is extremizedhopefully, minimized. We
showed above that because the equipotential distribution of charges on the surface
components minimizes the first term. Therefore, if a region is bounded by an equipotential surface, the electrostatic energy of that region is minimized.
o 

Physics 505, Classical Electrodynamics


Homework 2
Due Thursday, 23rd September 2004
Jacob Lewis Bourjaily

2.1 A point charge q is brought a distance d away from an infinite, conducting, grounded plane. We
are to solve the following using the method of images.
a) Let us find the surface-charge density induced on the plane and plot it.
From the symmetry of the problem, it is clear that the potential (x) is equivalent to
that produced by the charge q together with an image charge q 0 = q located a
distance d on the opposite side of the plane. Specifically, the potential is given by

q
1
1
,
(x) =

40 (x21 + x22 + (x3 d)2 )1/2


(x21 + x22 + (x3 + d)2 )1/2
in cartesian coordinates where the point charge is located at the point z (0, 0, d).
The charge density is then computed,


(x) = 0
,
x3 x3 =0

x3 + d
x3 d
q

+ 2
,
2
=
4
(x1 + x22 + (x3 d)2 )3/2
(x1 + x22 + (x3 + d)2 )3/2 x3 =0

q
d
d
=
+
,
4 (x21 + x22 + d2 )3/2
(x21 + x22 + d2 )3/2
(x) =

qd
2(x21 + x22 + d2 )3/2

In Figure 1 below, we have plotted the charge density of the plane.

Figure 1. Problem (2.1): Induced charge density as a function of position on the plane.
The z-axis labels the density in arbitrary units. Specifically, {qd/(2), d} 7 1
b) We are to compute the force between the plane and the charge using Coulombs law for the force
between the charge and its image.
Quite directly we see that
F =

q2
1
z.
40 (2d)2
1

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

c) We are to compute the total force acting on the plane by directly integrating over 2 /20 .
Let us proceed to compute the force directly
Z
Z
2
q 2 d2
rdrd
F = da
=
,
20
8 2 0 (r2 + d2 )3/2
Z
q 2 d2 dud
=
,
8 2 0 u3/2

q 2 d2 1
=
,

2
160 u d2
=

q 2 d2
,
160 d4
F =

q2
1
z.
40 (2d)2

d) We are to compute the work required to remove the charge from its position to infinity.
By direct computation, we see that the work required is

Z
Z
q2
dz
q 2 1
q2
=
W =
F d` =
=
.

2
160 d z
160 z d
160 d
d
e) Let us compute the potential energy of the charge-image-charge system and compare this result
with that of part (d) above.
From the definition of potential energy, we see that
q2
.
80 d
This is precisely twice the energy required to pull the charge q to infinity. This is
expected: the energy is twice that of the original system because we also have energy
associated with the electric field of the image charge. In the original system, there
is only the electric field of a single charge. Furthermore, notice that the position
and hence energy of the image charge depends on the charge and position of q. This
implies that it is negligent to consider q moving in a static field produced by q 0 .
U=

2.2 Let us consider the problem of a point charge q located inside a hollow, grounded, conducting
sphere of inner radius a.
a) We are to find the potential function describing the inside of the sphere.
This problem is superficially similar to that discussed in Jacksons text regarding a
charge located outside a conducting, grounded sphere. It should be clear that if the
charge is located at the point r, then, by axial symmetry, the image charge must
be located along the direction of r at a distance of r0 > aif the method of image
charges applies. Therefore, the potential at a point x will be given in the form

1
q
q0
(x) =
+
,
40 |x r| |x r0 |
Because the sphere is grounded, we must have
identical to that required for the situation
must have that
q0
q
= 0 and
a
r
In particular, this implies that

q
1
(x) =
40 (x2 + r2 2xr cos )1/2

(x) = 0 x| x = a. This situation is


described in Jackson and therefore we
r
a
= 0.
a
r


r x2 +

a
a4
r2

2x ar cos

1/2 .

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

c) We are to compute the total force acting on the plane by directly integrating over 2 /20 .
Let us proceed to compute the force directly
Z
Z
2
q 2 d2
rdrd
F = da
=
,
20
8 2 0 (r2 + d2 )3/2
Z
q 2 d2 dud
=
,
8 2 0 u3/2

q 2 d2 1
=
,

2
160 u d2
=

q 2 d2
,
160 d4
F =

q2
1
z.
40 (2d)2

d) We are to compute the work required to remove the charge from its position to infinity.
By direct computation, we see that the work required is

Z
Z
q2
dz
q 2 1
q2
=
W =
F d` =
=
.

2
160 d z
160 z d
160 d
d
e) Let us compute the potential energy of the charge-image-charge system and compare this result
with that of part (d) above.
From the definition of potential energy, we see that
q2
.
80 d
This is precisely twice the energy required to pull the charge q to infinity. This is
expected: the energy is twice that of the original system because we also have energy
associated with the electric field of the image charge. In the original system, there
is only the electric field of a single charge. Furthermore, notice that the position
and hence energy of the image charge depends on the charge and position of q. This
implies that it is negligent to consider q moving in a static field produced by q 0 .
U=

2.2 Let us consider the problem of a point charge q located inside a hollow, grounded, conducting
sphere of inner radius a.
a) We are to find the potential function describing the inside of the sphere.
This problem is superficially similar to that discussed in Jacksons text regarding a
charge located outside a conducting, grounded sphere. It should be clear that if the
charge is located at the point r, then, by axial symmetry, the image charge must
be located along the direction of r at a distance of r0 > aif the method of image
charges applies. Therefore, the potential at a point x will be given in the form

1
q
q0
(x) =
+
,
40 |x r| |x r0 |
Because the sphere is grounded, we must have
identical to that required for the situation
must have that
q0
q
= 0 and
a
r
In particular, this implies that

q
1
(x) =
40 (x2 + r2 2xr cos )1/2

(x) = 0 x| x = a. This situation is


described in Jackson and therefore we
r
a
= 0.
a
r


r x2 +

a
a4
r2

2x ar cos

1/2 .

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 2

b) Let us compute the charge distribution induced on the sphere.


We call on the simple symmetry of the charge-image-charge system noting that this is
identical to the charge distribution induced by the image charge on the outside of the
sphere. Because we have already derived this expression in classand in Jacksonup
to a redefinition of r and r0 , we simply have that

2
1 ar2

q
(x) = 0
=
,
x |x|=a 4ar 1 + a2 2 a cos 3/2
2
r
r
where is the angle between r and x.
c) Let us compute the force acting on the charge q.
Using our results above, we see that
F =

q2
ar
r.
40 (a2 r2 )2

d) We are to discuss how the work above is altered, if at all, if the sphere were kept at fixed potential
V or if there were total charge Q on its inner and outer surfaces.
Neither of the two situations alters the work above because neither would effect the
interior of the sphereonly the outside. By Gau law, we know that the electric field
inside a charged or fixed-potential sphere is identically zero. Because electrostatics
is linear, the field inside the sphere will be the linear sum of that described above
and that caused by the spherewhich is vanishing. Hence, there is no alteration.
2.7 Let us consider the space R3 satisfying Dirichlet boundary conditions on the plane R3 .
a) We are to find the appropriate Greens function describing this system.
In many ways, this problem is similar to that describing a point charge and an infinite
conducting plane. Specifically, we see that the Greens function given by
1
1
G(x, x0 ) =

,
1/2
1/2
0
0
0
0
((x1 x1 )2 + (x2 x2 )2 + (x3 x3 )2 )
((x1 x1 )2 + (x2 x02 )2 + (x3 + x03 )2 )
is of the correct form and satisfies the Dirichlet boundary conditions. In particular,
we manifestly have that G(x, x0 ) = 0 x0 |x03 = 0. Hence, this is our required Greens
function.
b) Let us say that the potential on the plane x03 = 0 is specified to be = V inside a circle of
radius a and vanish outside the circle. We are to find an integral expression for the potential in
cylindrical coordinates.
In general, we know that the potential function for a problem with a Greens function
satisfying Dirichlet boundary conditions is given by
Z
Z
1
1
G(x, x0 ) 0
(x) =
(x0 )G(x, x0 )d3 x0
(x0 )
da .
40 R3
4 R3
n0
Because the space is empty of charges, the first integral identically vanishes and we
must only consider the boundary integral.
Up to a sign which we will set a posteriori, we see that

G(x, x0 )
x3 x03
x3 + x03

=
+
,

3/2
3/2
0
0
0
0
0
0
2
2
2
2
2
2
x3
0
((x1 x1 ) + (x2 x2 ) + (x3 x3 ) )
((x1 x1 ) + (x2 x2 ) + (x3 + x3 ) )
x3 =0
0
x =0
3

2x3
3/2

((x1 x01 )2 + (x2 x02 )2 + x23 )

Later, we will see that the n0 -direction should coincide with x03 so that the potential
at the surface is positive; this is identical to inserting the seemingly spurious minus
sign in the above calculation.

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 2

b) Let us compute the charge distribution induced on the sphere.


We call on the simple symmetry of the charge-image-charge system noting that this is
identical to the charge distribution induced by the image charge on the outside of the
sphere. Because we have already derived this expression in classand in Jacksonup
to a redefinition of r and r0 , we simply have that

2
1 ar2

q
(x) = 0
=
,
x |x|=a 4ar 1 + a2 2 a cos 3/2
2
r
r
where is the angle between r and x.
c) Let us compute the force acting on the charge q.
Using our results above, we see that
F =

q2
ar
r.
40 (a2 r2 )2

d) We are to discuss how the work above is altered, if at all, if the sphere were kept at fixed potential
V or if there were total charge Q on its inner and outer surfaces.
Neither of the two situations alters the work above because neither would effect the
interior of the sphereonly the outside. By Gau law, we know that the electric field
inside a charged or fixed-potential sphere is identically zero. Because electrostatics
is linear, the field inside the sphere will be the linear sum of that described above
and that caused by the spherewhich is vanishing. Hence, there is no alteration.
2.7 Let us consider the space R3 satisfying Dirichlet boundary conditions on the plane R3 .
a) We are to find the appropriate Greens function describing this system.
In many ways, this problem is similar to that describing a point charge and an infinite
conducting plane. Specifically, we see that the Greens function given by
1
1
G(x, x0 ) =

,
1/2
1/2
0
0
0
0
((x1 x1 )2 + (x2 x2 )2 + (x3 x3 )2 )
((x1 x1 )2 + (x2 x02 )2 + (x3 + x03 )2 )
is of the correct form and satisfies the Dirichlet boundary conditions. In particular,
we manifestly have that G(x, x0 ) = 0 x0 |x03 = 0. Hence, this is our required Greens
function.
b) Let us say that the potential on the plane x03 = 0 is specified to be = V inside a circle of
radius a and vanish outside the circle. We are to find an integral expression for the potential in
cylindrical coordinates.
In general, we know that the potential function for a problem with a Greens function
satisfying Dirichlet boundary conditions is given by
Z
Z
1
1
G(x, x0 ) 0
(x) =
(x0 )G(x, x0 )d3 x0
(x0 )
da .
40 R3
4 R3
n0
Because the space is empty of charges, the first integral identically vanishes and we
must only consider the boundary integral.
Up to a sign which we will set a posteriori, we see that

G(x, x0 )
x3 x03
x3 + x03

=
+
,

3/2
3/2
0
0
0
0
0
0
2
2
2
2
2
2
x3
0
((x1 x1 ) + (x2 x2 ) + (x3 x3 ) )
((x1 x1 ) + (x2 x2 ) + (x3 + x3 ) )
x3 =0
0
x =0
3

2x3
3/2

((x1 x01 )2 + (x2 x02 )2 + x23 )

Later, we will see that the n0 -direction should coincide with x03 so that the potential
at the surface is positive; this is identical to inserting the seemingly spurious minus
sign in the above calculation.

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

We can now compute the potential. Using our work above, it is clear that
Z
1
G(x, x0 ) 0
(, , z) =
(x0 )
da ,
4 R3
n0
Z 2Z a
1
2z0 d0 d0
=
V
,
4 0 0 (( cos 0 cos 0 )2 + ( sin 0 sin 0 )2 + z 2 )3/2
Z 2Z a
zV
0 d0 d
(, , z) =
2 0 0 (2 + 02 20 cos( 0 ) + z 2 )3/2
c) Let us compute the potential along the line = 0.
Using our work above, we may compute the potential directly.
Z 2Z a 0 0 0
zV
d d
(0, 0, z) =
,
02
2 0 0 ( + z 2 )3/2
Z a2 +z2
du
zV
=
,
2 z2
u3/2
a2 +z2
1
= zV
,
u z2

1
1
= zV

,
z
a2 + z 2

z
(0, 0, z) = V 1
.
a2 + z 2
d) We are to explicitly compute the potential by expanding its expression in the limit where 2 +
z 2 >> a2 .
Let us define the variable 2 2 + z 2 . In general, we can rewrite the potential derived
above as
Z 2Z a
zV
0 d0 d0
(, , z) =
.
2 3 0 0 (1 + 2 (02 20 cos( 0 )))3/2
Let us Taylor expand the integrand to O( 4 ). We see that

0
3/2

(1 + 2 (02 20 cos( 0 )))

(, , z) =
=
=
=
=

15 4 02

3 2 02
0
0
0
0 2
6
1
2 cos( ) +
2 cos( ) + O( ) .
2
8

When we integrate over the angle 0 , all terms independent of 0 will be multiplied
by a factor of 2, those directly proportional to cos( 0 ) will integrate to zero,
and the term proportional to cos2 ( 0 ) will obtain a factor of . Therefore,
Z 2Z a
zV
0 d0 d0
,
2 3 0 0 (1 + 2 (02 20 cos( 0 )))3/2

Z 2Z a
15 4 02

zV
3 2 02
0
0
0
0 2
6
0
0 0
2 cos( ) +
2 cos( ) + O( ) ,
d d 1
2 3 0 0
2
8

Z a
zV
3
15
15
d0 0 1 2 02 + 4 02 + 4 04 + O( 6 ) ,
3 0
2
4
8
02
a
04
04 2
06

3
15
5
zV
6
2 +
+
+ O( ) ,
3
4
4

2
8
16
16

0
zV a2
3a2
5(32 a2 + a4 )
1 2 +
+ O( 6 ) .
2 3
4
8 4
Substituting the definition of , we arrive at the desired expression:

zV a2
3a2
5(32 a2 + a4 )
2
2 6
(, , z) =
1
+
+ O(( + z ) ) .
4(2 + z 2 )
8(2 + z 2 )2
2(2 + z 2 )3/2

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 2

2.8 Let us consider two parallel, straight line charges separated by a distance R and with equal and
opposite linear charge densities .
a) Let us find the surfaces of constant potential. We will show that these are circular cylinders.
With the anticipation only available in hindsight, let us work with polar coordinates
suppressing the longitudinal directiondefined such that the origin is located at the
center of one of the circles of constant potential. Specifically, let us say that the first
line charge is located at (, 0) and the second at (R + , 0). Although we do not yet
know the displacement from the first line charge, we know that if is properly
specified, the potential should be independent of the angular coordinate.
In general, the potential will be the linear superposition the potentials of each of the
two line-charges. Having calculated this in homework one, we see


(, ) =
log( 2 2 cos + 2 ) log((R + )2 2(R + ) cos + 2 ) .
40
The requirement that be constant on a cylinder centered at the origin is equivalent to
the condition that
= 0. Using this identity, we compute

sin
(R + ) sin
=0=

20 2 2 cos + 2
(R + )2 2(R + ) cos + 2

sin
(R + )
=

,
20
2 2 cos + 2
(R + )2 2(R + ) cos + 2
(R + )

=
.
2 2 cos + 2
(R + )2 2(R + ) cos + 2
Expanding and collecting terms, we arrive at the constraint

2 = ( + R).
We must now determine the radius such that (, ) = V . To do this, we will
insert the expression derived above for 2 into our expression for the potential with
the condition that = V . Because this will be independent of the angle, let us
choose = /2 to simplify our expressions. We will need to remember this choice
later.
Computing directly, we see that

2 2 cos + 2
(, ) = V =
log
,
40
(R + )2 2(R + ) cos + 2

2 + 2 + R
=
log
,
40
(R + )2 + 2 + R

2 2 + R

log
.
=
40
2 2 + 3R + R2
By rearranging terms, exponentiating, and simplifying, we obtain the quadratic expression

2 2 1 e40 V / + R 1 3e40 V / R2 e40 V / = 0.


Simply using the quadratic formula and a bit of algebra, we see that
=

R
40 V /
40 V /
,
1

3e

e
2(1 e40 V / )

e40 V /
R
Re20 V /
=
=

or = R/2.
2 sinh(20 V /)
1 e40 V /
e40 V / 1
Notice that the solution of the quadratic, = R/2, simply demonstrates that between the two wires the potential is constant along the line (, /2). We could have
anticipated this solution because we simplified our work to determine using the
condition that at , (, /2) = (, /2) = V . The fact that this cannot be a solution is evident from the last line of our expression for (, ) above: the numerator
in the logarithm vanishes if = R/2 and hence this is not a physical solution.
=R

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Using our expression for , we have


2 = R 2

e80 V /
e40 V /
e40 V /
+ R2
= R2
,
4
V
/
2
4
V
/
(1 e 0
)
(1 e 0
)
(1 e40 V / )2

e20 V /
Re20 V /
R
=
=
.
4
V
/
4
V
/
0
0
2 sinh(20 V /)
1e
e
1
Therefore, we have shown that if
=R

R
2 sinh(20 V /)

and

Re20 V /
,
2 sinh(20 V /)

the potential along a right circular cylinder in the longitudinal direction of radius
positioned precisely to the left of the first line-charge is constant and equal to V .
It is important to notice that the sign of is somewhat important. In particular, if
V / < 0 then is a positive displacement to the left of and encloses the first linecharge. However, if V / > 0, then is a negative displacement to the left of the first
line-charge; in particular, > R and so the cylinder is displaced to the right of and
encloses the second line-charge.
b) We are to demonstrate that the capacitance per unit length of two cylindrical conductors with
radii a and b separated by a distance d is given by
20
2 2 b2 .
C=
arccosh d a
2ab

. We
proof: We know from the definition of capacitance that it is given by C/L = V+ V

must show that the above equation is consistent with this fact.
First, we know that the required problem is equivalent to one in which there are only
two line charges, separated by a distance R = + + with radii such that the
two cylinders are at constant voltages V+ and V , respectively. Specifically, we see,
reorganizing the expressions derived above,
R
R
d = + = 4 V /
4 V /
,
0

0
+
(e
1) (e
1)
and,
Re20 V+ /
Re20 V /
a = 4 V /
and b = 4 V /
.
0 +
0
(e
1)
(e
1)
2

b
and see
Looking at the equation we must verify, it may be helpful to compute d a
2ab
if it points us toward the solution. Let us first compute the numerator. We find that

d2 a2 b2 =

40 V

40 V+

40 V

40 V+

40 V

2R
R
R e
R e

40 V+
+ 4 V
2 40 V+
2 40 V
2 ,
0 +
1 e
1
1
1)
1
e
e
e

40 V

1e
2
1e
40 V+

= R 4 V
+ 4 V
+ 40 V
,

2
2
0 +
0

e
1 e
1
e
e
1
1
40 V+
40 V
R2
40 V+
e
.
= 40 V
e
e
1 e
1
2

Now, because
2ab =
e

2R2 e20 (V+ V )/


40 V+
,
1 e
1

40 V

we have that

1
d2 a2 b2
= e20 (V+ V )/ e40 V+ / + e40 V / ,
2ab
2

1 20 (V+ V )/
=
e
+ e20 (V+ V )/ ,
2

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 2


2

d a b
20 (V+ V )
= cosh
.
2ab

Therefore, we see that the capacitance per unit length agrees with the desired formula:

C=

20
2 2 b2 =
arccosh d a
2ab

20
20 (V+ V )

.
V+ V
o 

c) Let us verify that the expression above for the capacitance agrees with that derived in homework
one for a similar problem in the limit where d2 >> a2 + b2 .
proof: Similar to our previous results, we can make extraordinary progress by simply guessing the form of the answer. First, it should be true that
2

d a2 b2
arccosh
= log ,
2ab
for some . In fact, because we are simply verifying a result, we could presume it to
be true and then it would be obvious what must be. However, let us simply see if
such an equation makes sense.
By taking the hyperbolic cosine of each side, we effectively exponentiate the logarithm.
Therefore, must satisfy

1
d2 a2 b2
1 log
1
2 + 1
=
e
+ e log =
+
=
.
2ab
2
2

2
This reduces to the following quadratic equation,
2

d a2 b2
2
+ 1 = 0.
ab
It is clear that in the limit where
solution and that given by

d2 a2 b2
ab

>> 1, the solutions approach the trivial

d2 a2 b2
.
ab
2
Furthermore, in the limit of d2 >> a2 + b2 , this approaches dab .
Therefore, we see that
0
0
0
0
.

2 2 b2
d2 a2 b2
d2
C=
arccosh d a
log
log
2 log d
2ab
ab
ab

ab

20

.
log dab

o 

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

2.10 Let us consider a large parallel plate capacitor which is made up of two plane conducting sheets
separated by a distance D. One of the sheets has a hemispherical boss of radius a on its inner
surface and D >> a. The conductor and the boss are grounded and the electric field between
the plates is E0 .
a) We are to calculate and sketch the surface-charge density on the sheet with the boss.
This problem appears to be identical to that of a conducting sphere in a uniform electric
field which was worked out in class and in Jackson. For that problem, the potential
was constant over a sphere in a uniform field. By the symmetry of that problem, the
plane orthogonal to the field would automatically be at zero potential. Therefore,
we suspect that the problem is precisely identical.
Following this, we suppose that the potential is given by

a3
(r) = E0 r 2 cos ,
r
where a is the radius of the sphere, r is the magnitude of the vector r, and is the
angle relative to the electric field E.
Notice that when r = a, the potential vanishes, thereby satisfying the boundary condition
on the boss. Furthermore, the potential identically vanishes everywhere on the plane
orthogonal to the electric field, because cos = 0.
Therefore, is the correct electric potential.
We can now trivially solve for the surface-charge density. We can determine the density
on the boss or plane by computing the derivative of in the direction normal to the
boss or plane. On the boss, this is given by


a3
(r) = 0
cos = 30 E0 cos .
=
E
1
+
2
0
r
a3
|r|=a

For points on the plane, the normal direction is dz = rd and so we have

a3


a3
(r) = 0
= 0
= E0 1 3 ( sin /2) = 0 E0 1 3 .
z =/2
r =/2
r
r
In figure 2 below, we have plotted the surface charge density of the sheet-boss system.
The shading indicates the density of charge.

Figure 2. Problem (2.10): Induced charge density as a function of position on the


conductor. The shading labels the charge density and is in arbitrary units. Specifically,
{0 E0 , a} 7 1.

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 2

b) Let us compute the magnitude of the charge on the boss.


Quite directly, we have that
Z
Z 1
2
Q = da = 2a
30 E0 cos d cos = 30 E0 a2 .
0

c) Let us now consider the charge induced on the boss given a charge located a distance d from its
center. We are to compute the charge induced on the boss.
proof: This situation is nearly identical to that worked out in class and in Jackson where
we considered the surface charge density induced by a point charge a distance d
from a conducting, grounded sphere. By the symmetry here, it is quite clear that
this description appliesat least for our analysis of the boss. To make the potential
vanish on the sheet, however, we must do a little more work. However, it is not to
hard to guess what need: if we add two image charges to this system, symmetrized
along the direction of the point charge then the potential will precisely vanish along
the conducting plane. Specifically, if the charge q is a distance d from the sphere,
2
then in the direction q, there should be image charges q 0 = ad q at d0 = ad , q 00 = ad
2
placed at d00 = ad and q 000 = q placed at d.
When this system is set up, it is clear that the fixed, vanishing potential on the boss
is achieved because each pair of charges separately leave = 0 on the boss. The
potential on the plane vanishes by the planar symmetry of the problem. Therefore,
this system satisfies our boundary conditions and can be used to compute the density.
The calculation of the density follows precisely that of Jacksons for each charge-pari
separately. Therefore, we may conclude that the charge density on the sphere is
given by
Therefore, we can call upon our previous work to notice that surface charge density
should be given by

2
q
a
1
1
() =
1 2
3/2
3/2 .
4ad
d
a2
a
a2
1 + d2 2 d cos
1 + d2 + 2 ad cos
Let us compute the total induced charge directly.

Z 1
Z
2
a
1
q

1 2 2a2
q 0 = da =
3/2
2
4ad
d
0
1 + ad2 2 ad cos
1+
"Z
#

a 2
a 2
Z
(1 d ) du
(1+ d ) du
q
a2
,
1 2
+
=
2
a2
4
d
u3/2
u3/2
1+ a
1+
2
2
d
d

(1 ad )2
1+ a 2

2
q
1 ( d )
a 1
=
1 2
+ 1/2
,
2
d
u1/2 a2
u
a2
1+ d2

1
a2
d2

1+ d2

q
a
a 1
1
1
=
1+
1
+
q
2
d
d
1 ad
1 + ad
1+

2
1 ad2
q
a
a
,
= 1 + + 1 2 q
2
2
d
d
1 a

2 ad

cos

3/2 d cos ,

a2
d2

1
1+

a2
d2

d2

d2 a2
0
q = q 1
.
d d2 a2

o 

Physics 505, Classical Electrodynamics


Homework 3
Due Thursday, 30th September 2004
Jacob Lewis Bourjaily

2.12 We are to obtain the potential inside a cylinder of radius b in the form of Poissons integral by
solving the general solution of the two-dimensional potential.
Because we are considering the interior of the cylinder, there should no 1 terms in the
series expansion. Therefore, the potential inside will be given by

X
(, ) = 0 /2 +
n n cos(n) + n n sin(n),
n=1

(, ) =
=
=
=
=

=
=

where the coefficients m and m are to be determined. Notice that we have chosen
to work both sine and cosine terms in the series to avoid worrying about the phase
terms.
Proceeding almost canonically, we see that
Z 2
Z 2
1
1
0
0
0
n = n
(b, ) cos(n )d , and n = n
(b, 0 ) sin(n0 )d0 .
b 0
b 0
Notice that the above expression for n includes the case where n = 0.
Using these expressions above in our general series, we can proceed by direct computation

Z 2
Z 2
Z 2

X
1
1 n
1 n
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
(b, )d +
cos(n)
(b, ) cos(n )d + n sin(n)
(b, ) sin(n )d ,
2 0
bn
b
0
0
n=1
(
)
Z

1 2
1 X n
0
0
(b, )
+
(sin(n) sin(n ) + cos(n) cos(n )) d0 ,
0
2 n=1 b
(
)
Z

1 2
1 X n
0
(b, )
+
cos(n( )) d0 ,
0
2 n=1 b
)
(
Z 2
n

X
0
0
1

(b, ) 1 +
ein( ) + ein( )
d0 ,
2 0
b
n=1

Z 2
1
1
1
+
1 d0 ,
(b, )
2 0
1 b ei(0 )
1 b ei(0 )

i(0 )
i(0 )
i(0 )
i(0 )
Z 2

e
+
1

e
1

e
b
b
b
b
1

(b, )
d0 ,

2 0
1 b ei(0 ) 1 b ei(0 )

2
0
0
0
0
Z 2
2 b ei( ) + ei( ) 1 b2 + b ei( ) + ei( )
1
(b, )
d0 ,

2 0
1 + b2 b ei(0 ) + ei(0 )
(
)
2
Z 2
1 b2
1
(b, )
d0 ,
2
2 0
1 + b2 2 b cos( 0 )

Z 2
1
b2 2
(b, ) 2
d0 ,
2 0
b + 2 2b cos( 0 )

Z 2
1
b 2 2
(, ) =
(b, ) 2
d0
2 0
b + 2 2b cos( 0 )
o 

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

2.13 a) We ware to compute the interior potential of a cylinder composed of two separated, conducting
halves which are kept at potentials V1 and V2 .
From our experience with this problem, we should expect that the potential can be
expanded as a cosine series over the azimuthal coordinate. Specifically, we expect

X
m m cos(m),
(, ) = 0 +
m=1

where the coefficients m are determined using the orthogonality conditions. We see
that
Z 3/2
1
V1 + V2
1
(b, )d =
(V1 + V2 ) =
,
0 =
2 /2
2
2
and, similarly,
"Z
#
Z 3/2
/2
1
(V1 V2 ) (1)m
= m
V1 cos(m)d + V2
V2 cos(m)d =
|m (2Z + 1).
b
mbm
/2
/2
Therefore, we can use some of Jacksons tricks in elementary complex analysis to see
V1 + V2
V1 V2 X (1)m m
(, ) =
+
cos(m),
2

m bm
modd
"
#
X im m eim
V1 + V2
V1 V2
,
=
+
Im
2

mbm
modd

V1 + V2
V1 V2
1 + i(/b)ei
=
+
Im log
,
2

1 i(/b)ei

V1 + V2
V1 V2
2/b cos
=
+
arctan
,
2

1 2 /b2

V1 V2
2b cos
V1 + V2
+
arctan
.
(, ) =
2

b2 2
o 

b) Let us calculate the surface charge density on each half of the cylinder.
We recall that the surface charge density is given by

2b cos
(, )
V1 V2
() = 0
arctan
.
= 0
=b

b2 2
Using a computer algebra package to evaluate the derivativetime becomes too
precious to evaluate by handwe see that
0 (V1 V2 ) 2b(2b2 ) cos
,

2b4 + 2b4 cos(2)


cos
20 (V1 V2 )
,
=

b(1 + cos(2))
20 (V1 V2 ) cos
=
,

2b cos2

() =

() =

0 (V1 V2 )
.
b cos
o 

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

2.17 a) We are to construct a the general, free-space Greens function for two dimensional electrostatics
by integrating 1/R with respect to (z z 0 ) between the limits Z where |Z| 1. We may
neglect constant terms that do not depend on the planar coordinates.

1/2
Let us define the variable (x x0 )2 + (y y 0 )2
. We are to determine the
general, electrostatic Greens function by performing the integration
Z Z
d
G(, 0 )
,
1/2
2
Z ( + 2 )
in the limit where Z is large.
The above integral is easily evaluated using the method of trigonometric substitution,

Z Z
d
Z
.
= 2 arcsinh
1/2

Z (2 + 2 )
Notice that this implies that arcsinh(Z/) = /2. If we take the hyperbolic sine of
both sides, we obtain

1 /2
e
e/2 = Z/.
2
Because we are assuming that Z , we may set e/2 7 0, at least to leading
order in /Z. Therefore, we see
e/2 2Z/,
which implies that
2 log 2 + 2 log Z 2 log log 2 .
Therefore, up to constants independent on the planar coordinates, we have shown that

G(, 0 ) = log 2 = log (x x0 )2 + (y y 0 )2 = log 2 + 02 20 cos( 0 ) .


o 
b) We are to show explicitly that the Greens function can be expressed as a Fourier series in the
azimuthal coordinate,
0
1 X
G(, 0 ) =
eim( ) gm (, 0 ),
2 m=
where the radial Greens functions satisfy

m2
( 0 )
1
0

gm = 2 gm = 4
.
0
0
0
02

Let us show that the Greens function G(, 0 ) given above is in fact a Greens function.
This can be demonstrated by the following, mindless calculation

1 2 X im(0 )
2 G(, 0 ) =

e
gm (, 0 ),
2
m=
=

1 X im(0 ) 2
e
gm (, 0 ),
2 m=

= 2

( 0 ) X im(0 )
e
,

m=

( 0 )( 0 )
.

This is precisely the form desired for a general Greens function in polar coordinates
because

Z
Z
( 0 )( 0 )
2
0
0
dd0 = 4.
G(, )dd =
4

Therefore, the Greens function can be expressed as a Fourier series in the azimuthal
coordinate.
= 4

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 3

c) We are to complete the expression above to determine an explicit form of the free-space Greens
function in polar coordinates.
We will use the notation + ( ) to be the larger (smaller) of and 0 .
Noting that when 6= 0 , gm is a solution to the Laplace equation, we immediately see
that it is given by

m 0m
0 <
gm (, 0 ) =
,
0m
m
0 >
where the coefficients m and m will be set by continuity and derivative conditions.
Because when = 0 the two functions must agree, we have
m m = m m ,
m = m m , and m = m m .
Using our notation described above, we see that
m

gm (, 0 ) = m
.
+
To find the value of m , we simply note that when = 0 , there is a discontinuity in the
derivative of gm which is characterized by the d-function. Specifically, we have that

4
dgm
dgm

d0 0 =
d0 0 =
m
= 2m ,

2
.
m =
m
Let us briefly describe the g0 function. In Jackson, we have shown that this term
will be of the form 0 log(0 ) = 0 log(+ ). To determine the unknown coefficient,
we note that the discontinuity in the derivative of gm requires that
4
0

=
,

and so we see that 0 = 4.


Therefore, we can see that in general,
|m|

X
0
1

G(, 0 ) = log(2+ ) +
eim( ) ,
|m| +
m(6=0)=

m
m

X
0
1
1
im(0 )
=
+

e
+
eim( ) ,
m

+
+
m=
m=1

m
m
X 1
X 1
0
0
= log(2+ ) +
eim( ) +
eim( ) ,
m +
m +
m=1
m=1

m
X 1
cos [m( 0 )] .
= log(2+ ) + 2
m

+
m=1
log(2+ )

G(, ) =

1
X

log(2+ )

X
1
+2
cos [m( 0 )] .
m

+
m=1
o 

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

18. a) Using the results obtained in problem (2.17) above, we are to find a closed-form expression for
the Greens function for the interior of a cylinder of radius b with Dirichlet boundary conditions.
From our general work with solutions to the Laplace equation with Greens functions
and from our work about in problem (2.17), we know that the Greens function for
the interior of the cylinder will be given by
G(, 0 ) =

1 X im(0 )
e
gm (, 0 ),
2 m=

where the functions gm (, 0 ) satisfy the Laplace equation and will be given in the
form

m 0m
0 <
gm =
,
0m
0m
m + m
0 >
where the coefficients m , m , and m will be determined by the boundary conditions
and continuity requirements.
Specifically, because of Dirichlet boundary conditions are satisfied at 0 = b, we must
have that gm = 0, we must demand
m bm + m bm = 0,
which implies
m = m bm

and

m = m bm ,

for some set of coefficients m . Similarly, continuity requires that the two solutions
agree when = 0 and so

m
m
b
m
m
m
m = m + m
= m

,
b

which implies that

m
m m
b
m = m

Risking redundancy, we have shown that

m
m
m
m 0
b
0 <

b

m
gm =
m m b
0 >
b

gm =

2
m
2
m

Let us now proceed to determine the coefficients m . These can be found by noting the
discontinuity in the derivative of gm . Specifically, we have that

4
dgm
dgm

d0 0 =
d0 0 =
m

bm
m1 m
b
m1

,
= mm m + mm m+1 mm m
b

2 m
m =
.
m b
Plugging this into our expression for gm , we see that

0 m 0 m
m 0 m m b m

2
0

<

2
2 + m

m
b

,
m
m
m
m m
2
0

b
2
0

m
b
+

=
0
>
2
b

Let us now determine the m = 0 coefficients. We have demonstrated that, in general,


g0 = 0 + 0 log 0 . Because g0 (b) must vanish by the Dirichlet boundary conditions,
we see that 0 + 0 log b = 0] which immediately implies
0 = 0 log(1/b).
Like we found in problem (2.17), we see that 0 = 4. Therefore, we are now ready
to write the explicit Greens function.

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 3

Putting this into our expression for the Greens function, we obtain
m 0 m

X

1

G(, 0 ) = log b2 log(2+ ) + 2

cos [m( 0 )] ,
2
m

b
+
m=1
m

X
X
2
1 0
1
= log b log(2+ ) + 2
cos [m( 0 )] 2
cos [m( 0 )] .
2
m

m
b
+
m=1
m=1
We will evaluate the two sums separately, but using the same technique. With some
inspiration from Davis Fourier Series and Orthogonal Functions, we note that
Z x
Z x
1 m
1 m
x =
m1 d =
d.
m
0
0
Therefore, substituting ( /+ ) 7 x in the above expressions, we can reexpress the
first series as
!
m
Z X

X
+ 1
1
0
m
0
2
cos [m( )] = 2
cos [m( )] d,
m +
m=1
0
m=1

Noting the similar expression used during the solution of problem (2.12) and recalling
that || < 1, we see that

0
1 X m im(0 )
cos [m( )] =

e
+ eim( ) ,
2 m=1
m=1

1
1
1
=
+

2
,
2 1 ei(0 )
1 ei(0 )

0
0
0
i(0 )
+ ei( ) 2 2 2 + 2 ei( ) + ei( )
1 2 e
,

=
2
1 + 2 ei(0 ) + ei(0 )

cos( 0 ) 2
.
1 + 2 2 cos( 0 )

Inserting this relation into the integral above, we can determine the Greens function
completely. Calling trivial substitutional integration, we see that
!
m
Z X

X
+ 1
1
m
0
0
2
cos [m( )] d,
cos [m( )] = 2
m +
m=1
0
m=1
Z
+ 1
cos( 0 ) 2
=2
d,
1 + 2 2 cos( 0 )
0
Z
+
cos( 0 )
=2
d,
1 + 2 2 cos( 0 )
0

Z 1+ 2 2 cos(0 )
+
+
du
=
,
u
1

!
2

0
= log 1 +
2
cos( ) .
+
+
Similarly, we see that
!

m
0 2

X
1 0

0
0
0
2
cos [m( )] = log 1 +
2 2 cos( ) .
m b2
b2
b
m=1

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Therefore, we see that

X
X

1
1 + m
G(, 0 ) = log b2 log(2+ ) + 2
cos [m( 0 )] 2
cos [m( 0 )] ,
2
m

m
b
+
m=1
m=1

!
2
2

2
b

0
+
0
0
= log
log 1 +
2
cos( ) + log 1 +
2 2 cos( ) ,
2+
+
+
b2
b

+ 2
2
2 +b2 cos( 0 )
b
1 + b2
= log
+
log

2
2+

0)
1 +

2
cos(

+
+

+ 2
4
+
0
1 + b2
2 b2 cos( )
b
= log 2 2
,
2
b +

0
1 + + 2 + cos( )

G(, 0 ) = log

b4 + 2 02 20 b2 cos( 0 )
b2 (2 + 02 20 cos( 0 ))

.
o 

b) We are to show that the solution to the Laplace equation with the potential given as (b) on
the cylinder can be expressed as the Poissons integral of problem (2.12).
Because we consider a cylinder that is free of charges in the interior, the most general
solution to Poissons equation with Greens functions is given by

Z
1
G(, 0 )
(, ) =
(b, 0 )
da0 .
4
0 0 =b
Let us begin by computing the derivative of the Greens function in the direction
normal to the cylinder.

20 2 cos( 0 )
22 0 2b2 cos( 0 )
G(, 0 )

= 4
,
0 0
b + 2 02 20 b2 cos( 0 ) 2 + 02 20 cos( 0 ) 0
=b

=b

2b 2 cos( )
2 b 2b cos( )

,
b4 + 2 b2 2b3 cos( 0 ) 2 + b2 2b cos( 0 )

1
22 2b cos( 0 )
2b2 2b cos( 0 )
=

,
b b2 + 2 2b cos( 0 ) 2 + b2 2b cos( 0 )

1 22 2b cos( 0 ) 2b2 + 2b cos( 0 )


=
,
b
b2 + 2 2b cos( 0 )

2
b 2 2
=
.
b b2 + 2 2b cos( 0 )
Therefore, we see that

Z 2
0
1
0 G(, )
(b, )
(, ) =
bd0 ,
4 0
0 0 =b

Z 2
1
b 2 2
1
(b, 0 )
bd0 ,
=
2 0
b b2 + 2 2b cos( 0 )

Z 2
1
b2 2
0
(, ) =
(b, ) 2
d0 .
2 0
b + 2 2b cos( 0 )
=

o 

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 3

c) We are to determine what changes are necessary if the Greens function is desired to describe
the exterior problem. Specifically, we are to show that the closed-form Greens function remains
the same.
Following our now standard technique of generating the terms for the Fourier series,
we see that the exterior Greens function can be expressed as a Fourier expansion
over the azimuthal coordinate,

1 X im(0 )
G(, 0 ) =
e
gm (, 0 ),
2 m=

gm

where the functions gm (, 0 ) satisfy the Laplace equation and will be given in the
form

m 0m + m 0m 0 <
,
gm =
m 0m
0 >
where the coefficients m , m , and m will be determined by the boundary conditions
and continuity requirements.
If we continue mindlessly applying the continuity condition and the condition that
gm (b) = 0 m as before, we conclude that

m
m
b
m
m
m
m = m b
and m = m b
and m = m

,
b

and we determine m by the


now-tedious procedure of derivative-discontinuity check
m
b
2
. With these, we can reexpress the functions gm so
ing and obtain m = m
that they specifically refer to the current situation. We see that

0 m m
0 m 2 m

b
2
b
0
m
2 m b2 m

<

b
0
m

=
=

.
m m
m
m
m

b
2
b2
0
m 0

0
+

= m
0
>

b
0

2.21 We are to use Cauchys theorem to derive the Poisson integral solution.
Let us consider the function (z) which is analytic over a disc, C of radius b centered at
z = 0. Then, as ever middle schooler knows from trivial application of the Residue
theorem,
I
1
dz 0
(z) =
(z 0 ) 0
z C,
2i C
z z
because, by the analyticity of (z) in the region C, the only pole in C comes from
z 0 = z which has a simple Residue of (z).
Furthermore, if z C, then
I
1
dz 0
(z 0 ) 0
= 0,
2i C
z b2 /z
because z 0 = b2 /z
/ Cas trivially seen by the fact that |z 0 b2 /z| > b because
|z| < b. Therefore, we have that for z C,

I
1
1
1
0
(z) =
(z )
0
dz 0 .
2i C
z0 z
z b2 /z

Notice the trivial identity z 0 b2 /z = z 0 /z z z 0 , which can be seen by simple expansion. Noting that |z 0 | = b on C, we have

!
I
1
z
1
0
dz 0 ,
(z )
0
(z) =
2i C
z0 z
z z z0
!

I
I
1
1
z 0 z b2 z 0 z + |z|2
b2 2
0
0
0

dz 0 =
=
(z )
(z

(b,

))
dz 0 ,
2i C
2i C
z 0 (b2 + 2 2b cos( 0 ))
z 0 z 0 z b2 |z|2 + z 0 z
(, ) =

1
2

Z
0

(b, 0 )

b2 2
2
2
b + 2b cos( 0 )

d0 .
o 

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 3

c) We are to determine what changes are necessary if the Greens function is desired to describe
the exterior problem. Specifically, we are to show that the closed-form Greens function remains
the same.
Following our now standard technique of generating the terms for the Fourier series,
we see that the exterior Greens function can be expressed as a Fourier expansion
over the azimuthal coordinate,

1 X im(0 )
G(, 0 ) =
e
gm (, 0 ),
2 m=

gm

where the functions gm (, 0 ) satisfy the Laplace equation and will be given in the
form

m 0m + m 0m 0 <
,
gm =
m 0m
0 >
where the coefficients m , m , and m will be determined by the boundary conditions
and continuity requirements.
If we continue mindlessly applying the continuity condition and the condition that
gm (b) = 0 m as before, we conclude that

m
m
b
m
m
m
m = m b
and m = m b
and m = m

,
b

and we determine m by the


now-tedious procedure of derivative-discontinuity check
m
b
2
. With these, we can reexpress the functions gm so
ing and obtain m = m
that they specifically refer to the current situation. We see that

0 m m
0 m 2 m

b
2
b
0
m
2 m b2 m

<

b
0
m

=
=

.
m m
m
m
m

b
2
b2
0
m 0

0
+

= m
0
>

b
0

2.21 We are to use Cauchys theorem to derive the Poisson integral solution.
Let us consider the function (z) which is analytic over a disc, C of radius b centered at
z = 0. Then, as ever middle schooler knows from trivial application of the Residue
theorem,
I
1
dz 0
(z) =
(z 0 ) 0
z C,
2i C
z z
because, by the analyticity of (z) in the region C, the only pole in C comes from
z 0 = z which has a simple Residue of (z).
Furthermore, if z C, then
I
1
dz 0
(z 0 ) 0
= 0,
2i C
z b2 /z
because z 0 = b2 /z
/ Cas trivially seen by the fact that |z 0 b2 /z| > b because
|z| < b. Therefore, we have that for z C,

I
1
1
1
0
(z) =
(z )
0
dz 0 .
2i C
z0 z
z b2 /z

Notice the trivial identity z 0 b2 /z = z 0 /z z z 0 , which can be seen by simple expansion. Noting that |z 0 | = b on C, we have

!
I
1
z
1
0
dz 0 ,
(z )
0
(z) =
2i C
z0 z
z z z0
!

I
I
1
1
z 0 z b2 z 0 z + |z|2
b2 2
0
0
0

dz 0 =
=
(z )
(z

(b,

))
dz 0 ,
2i C
2i C
z 0 (b2 + 2 2b cos( 0 ))
z 0 z 0 z b2 |z|2 + z 0 z
(, ) =

1
2

Z
0

(b, 0 )

b2 2
2
2
b + 2b cos( 0 )

d0 .
o 

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 3

2.23 a) We are to determine the potential inside as cuber with edge length a with two opposing faces
held at potential V , all other faces having zero potential.
We can find the potential in analogy to the cube-potential problem worked in Jacksons
text. Let us use a cartesian system of coordinates chosen such that the faces at
constant potential are located at z = a/2. We can later change this system to find
that desired by the more explicit problem.
Similar to that of the cube describe in the text, we see that the potential inside should
be described by

X
(~x) =
Anm sin(n x) sin(m y) cosh(nm z),
n,m=1

where the terms n , m and nm are given by


m
p 2
n
, m =
, nm =
n =
n + m2 .
a
a
a
Notice that we have used the hyperbolic cosine because of the symmetry seen in the
coordinate system chosen. By the standard method of analysis, we see that
16V

|n, m (2Z + 1).


Anm =
2
nm cosh /2 n2 + m2
Therefore, we see that
(~x) =

16V sin(n x) sin(m y) cosh(nm z)

.
nm 2 cosh /2 n2 + m2
n,m=1,odd

In the system of coordinates used by the textbook question, one must set z 7
(z + a/2).
b) We are to (numerically) find the potential at the center of the cube.
We are asked to calculate this numerically. Using a standard computer algebra package,
one trivially demonstrates that (in the coordinate system used above)
V
(a/2, a/2, 0) = .
3
c) We are to compute the surface charge density on one of the plates.
Proceeding as we have done many times before, we see that

X

0 16V
sin(n x) sin(m y)mn sinh(nm z)

(x, y) = 0
=
+
,
z z=a/2
2
nm cosh /2 n2 + m2
n,m=1,odd

(x, y) =

0 16V
a

X
n,m=1,odd

nx
my
p
m 2 + n2
sin
sin
tanh(/2 m2 + n2 ).
nm
a
a

Physics 505, Classical Electrodynamics


Homework 4
Due Thursday, 7th October 2004
Jacob Lewis Bourjaily
Problem 3.1
We are to determine the potential between two concentric spheres, having radii a, b(b > a), each
of which is divided into two hemispheres by the same horizontal plane. The upper hemisphere of the
inner sphere and the lower hemisphere of the outer sphere are fixed at potential V while the other two
hemispheres are grounded. We are to calculate the potential as a series of Legendre polynomials up to
order l = 4.
By the azimuthal symmetry about the direction normal to the dividing plane, the potential will
be described by

X
(, ) =
` ` + ` (`+1) P` (cos ),
`=0

where P` are Legendre polynomials and the coefficients ` and ` are determined by boundary conditions.
Notice that by the orthogonality of the Legendre polynomials, we have
Z 1

2
(, )P` (cos )d cos =
` ` + ` (`+1) .
2` + 1
1
Because we know the function (, ) when = a, b we can determine the coefficients ` and ` by
solving the following system of equations:
Z 1

2
` a` + ` a(`+1) ,
V
P` (cos )d cos =
2` + 1
0
Z 0

2 `
V
P` (cos )d cos =
` b + ` b(`+1) .
2` + 1
1
Solving for ` , we see that
` =

V (2` + 1)
2(a2`+1 b2`+1 )

Z
a`+1

Z
P` (cos )d cos b`+1

a`+1 + (b)`+1

P` (cos )d cos ,

1
1

V (2` + 1)
P` (cos )d cos .
2(a2`+1 b2`+1 )
0
Using ` , we see that
Z
V (2` + 1) `+1 1
` =
a
P` (cos )d cos ` a2`+1 ,
2
0
Z
Z
`+1
2`+1 1
V (2` + 1) `+1 1
V (2` + 1)
`+1
=
a
P` (cos )d cos
a
+ (b)
a
P` (cos )d cos ,
2
2(a2`+1 b2`+1 )
0
0

Z
a` a`+1 + (b)`+1
V (2` + 1) `+1 1
=
a
P` (cos )d cos 1 +
.
2
a2`+1 b2`+1
0
=

Now, following the discussion near Jacksons equation (3.25), it is clear that
Z 1
(` 2)!!
P` (cos )d cos = (1/2)(`1)/2
| ` (2Z + 1).
2((`
+ 1)/2)!
0
Specifically, this integral is nonzero only for odd values of `with the exception of 0 . Evaluating these
expressions,
0 =

V
,
2

1 =

3V
3V a2 + b2
2
2 1
(a
+
b
)
=
,
2(a3 b3 )
2
4 a3 b3

3 =

7V a4 + b4
1
7V a4 + b4
(1/2)
=

;
2 a7 b7
4
16 a7 b7

3V a5 a2 b3 a5 a3 b2
3V a2 b2 (a + b)
7V 4
1
7V a4 + b4
7V a4 b4 (a3 + b3 )
=
, 3 =
a (1/2) +a7
=
.
3
3
3
3
7
7
4
a b
4
b a
2
4
16 a b
16
a7 b7
Inserting this work into our general expression for the potential, we have

4
3 a4 b4 (a3 + b3 )
V
3 a2 + b2
a2 b2
7
1
4
(, ) =
1+

P
(cos
)

P
(cos
)
+
.
.
.
.
a
+
b

1
3
2
2 a3 b3
2
8 a7 b7
4
1 =

o 
1

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

We should note that this more-or-less agrees with the expressions for the potential worked out in
the text for similar circumstances. In particular, Jacksons equation (3.36) describes a similar problem,
where 7 0 = V /2 on the inner sphere and the outer sphere is removed completely. Making this
redefinition of the potential on the inner two hemispheres and taking the limit where ab, (keeping only
terms O(ai bj ) where j i), we obtain Jacksons equation (3.36) as desired.
Problem 3.2
Let us consider the potential induced by a uniform, spherical charge distribution of radius R, with
density Q/4R2 except for a spherical cap centered on = 0 defined by the cone = , where there is
no charge.
a) We are to show that the potential inside the spherical surface can be expressed as

Q X 1
`
(, ) =
[P`+1 (cos ) P`1 (cos )] P` (cos ).
80
2` + 1 R`+1
`=0

Quite generally, we can express the potential as a Poisson integral over the charge distribution. Specifically,
Z
1
(x0 )d3 x0
(x) =
.
40
|x x0 |
From the discussion in Jackson near expression (3.70), we know that the function
1/|x x0 | can be expressed in terms of spherical harmonics and so
Z
X
`
`
X
r
1
Q
1

(r, , ) =
Y (, )Y`m
(0 , 0 )r02 dr0 d cos 0 d0 ,

4
`+1 `m
40 4R2
2` + 1 r+
`=0 m=`
where r+ (r ) is the larger (smaller) of r, r0 and is the boundary of the spherical
charge distribution. If we first consider the potential inside the sphere,
then r0 =
q

R = r+ and by azimuthal symmetry all m = 0. Because Y`0 (, ) = 2`+1


4 P` (cos ),
we see
Z X

Q
r` 1
(r, ) =
P` (cos 0 )P` (cos )R02 d cos 0 d0 ,
40 R2
R`+1 4
`=0
Z cos

`
X
Q
r
=
P
(cos
)
P` (cos 0 )d cos 0 .
`
80
R`+1
1
`=0

Now, from Jacksons equation (3.28), we have that


(2` + 1)P` (cos ) =
Z

cos

dP`+1 (cos ) dP`1 (cos )

,
d cos
d cos

which clearly implies


1
1
cos
P` (cos 0 )d cos 0 =
(P`+1 (cos 0 ) P`1 (cos 0 ))|1 =
(P`+1 (cos ) P`1 (cos )) .
2` + 1
2` + 1
Inserting this into our expression above, we have shown that

Q X 1
r`
(r, ) =
[P`+1 (cos ) P`1 (cos )] P` (cos ).
80
2` + 1 R`+1
`=0

o 
From our derivation, it is clear that if one desired to know the potential outside the
`
`
sphere, all one would need to do is substitute Rr`+1 7 rR
`+1 because of the expression
of 1/|x x0 | in terms of spherical harmonics.

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

We should note that this more-or-less agrees with the expressions for the potential worked out in
the text for similar circumstances. In particular, Jacksons equation (3.36) describes a similar problem,
where 7 0 = V /2 on the inner sphere and the outer sphere is removed completely. Making this
redefinition of the potential on the inner two hemispheres and taking the limit where ab, (keeping only
terms O(ai bj ) where j i), we obtain Jacksons equation (3.36) as desired.
Problem 3.2
Let us consider the potential induced by a uniform, spherical charge distribution of radius R, with
density Q/4R2 except for a spherical cap centered on = 0 defined by the cone = , where there is
no charge.
a) We are to show that the potential inside the spherical surface can be expressed as

Q X 1
`
(, ) =
[P`+1 (cos ) P`1 (cos )] P` (cos ).
80
2` + 1 R`+1
`=0

Quite generally, we can express the potential as a Poisson integral over the charge distribution. Specifically,
Z
1
(x0 )d3 x0
(x) =
.
40
|x x0 |
From the discussion in Jackson near expression (3.70), we know that the function
1/|x x0 | can be expressed in terms of spherical harmonics and so
Z
X
`
`
X
r
1
Q
1

(r, , ) =
Y (, )Y`m
(0 , 0 )r02 dr0 d cos 0 d0 ,

4
`+1 `m
40 4R2
2` + 1 r+
`=0 m=`
where r+ (r ) is the larger (smaller) of r, r0 and is the boundary of the spherical
charge distribution. If we first consider the potential inside the sphere,
then r0 =
q

R = r+ and by azimuthal symmetry all m = 0. Because Y`0 (, ) = 2`+1


4 P` (cos ),
we see
Z X

Q
r` 1
(r, ) =
P` (cos 0 )P` (cos )R02 d cos 0 d0 ,
40 R2
R`+1 4
`=0
Z cos

`
X
Q
r
=
P
(cos
)
P` (cos 0 )d cos 0 .
`
80
R`+1
1
`=0

Now, from Jacksons equation (3.28), we have that


(2` + 1)P` (cos ) =
Z

cos

dP`+1 (cos ) dP`1 (cos )

,
d cos
d cos

which clearly implies


1
1
cos
P` (cos 0 )d cos 0 =
(P`+1 (cos 0 ) P`1 (cos 0 ))|1 =
(P`+1 (cos ) P`1 (cos )) .
2` + 1
2` + 1
Inserting this into our expression above, we have shown that

Q X 1
r`
(r, ) =
[P`+1 (cos ) P`1 (cos )] P` (cos ).
80
2` + 1 R`+1
`=0

o 
From our derivation, it is clear that if one desired to know the potential outside the
`
`
sphere, all one would need to do is substitute Rr`+1 7 rR
`+1 because of the expression
of 1/|x x0 | in terms of spherical harmonics.

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 4

b) Let us find the magnitude and direction of the electric field at the origin.
By the azimuthal symmetry of the problem, the electric field must point in the direction
z defined by = 0. Computing rather directly, we see

(r, )
Q X ` r`1

|E | =
=
[P
(cos
)

P
(cos
)]
P
(cos(0))
,

`+1
`1
`

`+1

r
8
2`
+
1
R
0
r=0
`=1

r=0

Q 1
=
P1 (1) [P2 (cos ) P0 (cos )] ,
80 3R2

Q 1
1
2
3
cos
=

1
,
80 3R2 2
2

Q
cos 1/3 2/3 ,
=
160 R2
E =

Q sin2
z.
160 R2
o 

c) Let us briefly discuss the limiting cases of the above results when 0, .
Because sin2 () = 2
approaches

a4
3

+ O(6 ), and is -periodic, it is clear that the electric field


E =

Q2
z + O(4 ),
1620

for 0 and
E =

Q( )2
z + O(( )4 ),
1620

for . This is expected. Notice that as the spherical charge distribution closes,
0, we approach the field inside a closed sphere, which vanishes by Gau law.
The symmetric situation as also begins to vanish because the total charge on
the sphere decreases like ( )2 near . Therefore, the field will decrease like
( )2 .
Similarly, for 0, cos 1 and so P`+1 (1) P`1 (1) vanishes. Therefore, the
potential will vanish for 0 as expected for the interior of a charged sphere. For
, the potential will decrease like ( )2 and will approach the potential of a
point charge of magnitude Q/8R2 ( )2 .

Problem 3.5
Let us consider the potential inside a sphere of radius a where the potential at the surface is specified.
We are to demonstrate that
Z
X
`
r `
X
a(a2 r2 )
(0 , 0 )d0
(r, , ) =
=
A
Y`m (, ),
`m
4
a
(r2 + a2 2ar cos )3/2
`=0 m=`

where cos = cos cos 0 + sin sin 0 cos( 0 ) and A`m =

(0 , 0 )(0 , 0 ).
d0 Y`m

From our work in Jacksons second chapter, we know that the first expression for the potential is
that obtained from the Greens function
G(r, r0 ) =

1
a

.
|~r ~r0 | r0 |~r ra022 ~r0 |

Therefore, it is sufficient for us to show that the second expression for the potential is obtainable from
the above Greens function to show that the two expressions for the potential are equivalent.

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 4

b) Let us find the magnitude and direction of the electric field at the origin.
By the azimuthal symmetry of the problem, the electric field must point in the direction
z defined by = 0. Computing rather directly, we see

(r, )
Q X ` r`1

|E | =
=
[P
(cos
)

P
(cos
)]
P
(cos(0))
,

`+1
`1
`

`+1

r
8
2`
+
1
R
0
r=0
`=1

r=0

Q 1
=
P1 (1) [P2 (cos ) P0 (cos )] ,
80 3R2

Q 1
1
2
3
cos
=

1
,
80 3R2 2
2

Q
cos 1/3 2/3 ,
=
160 R2
E =

Q sin2
z.
160 R2
o 

c) Let us briefly discuss the limiting cases of the above results when 0, .
Because sin2 () = 2
approaches

a4
3

+ O(6 ), and is -periodic, it is clear that the electric field


E =

Q2
z + O(4 ),
1620

for 0 and
E =

Q( )2
z + O(( )4 ),
1620

for . This is expected. Notice that as the spherical charge distribution closes,
0, we approach the field inside a closed sphere, which vanishes by Gau law.
The symmetric situation as also begins to vanish because the total charge on
the sphere decreases like ( )2 near . Therefore, the field will decrease like
( )2 .
Similarly, for 0, cos 1 and so P`+1 (1) P`1 (1) vanishes. Therefore, the
potential will vanish for 0 as expected for the interior of a charged sphere. For
, the potential will decrease like ( )2 and will approach the potential of a
point charge of magnitude Q/8R2 ( )2 .

Problem 3.5
Let us consider the potential inside a sphere of radius a where the potential at the surface is specified.
We are to demonstrate that
Z
X
`
r `
X
a(a2 r2 )
(0 , 0 )d0
(r, , ) =
=
A
Y`m (, ),
`m
4
a
(r2 + a2 2ar cos )3/2
`=0 m=`

where cos = cos cos 0 + sin sin 0 cos( 0 ) and A`m =

(0 , 0 )(0 , 0 ).
d0 Y`m

From our work in Jacksons second chapter, we know that the first expression for the potential is
that obtained from the Greens function
G(r, r0 ) =

1
a

.
|~r ~r0 | r0 |~r ra022 ~r0 |

Therefore, it is sufficient for us to show that the second expression for the potential is obtainable from
the above Greens function to show that the two expressions for the potential are equivalent.

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Let us begin by expressing G(x, x0 ) in terms of spherical harmonics. Following the now standard
procedure used above, we see that

!
X
`
X
1
r`
a
r`
0

0
0
G(r, r ) = 4
Y ( , )Y`m (, )
0 2 `+1 ,
2` + 1 `m
r0`+1
r a r0
`=0 m=`
r 02

`
`
0`
X X
r
r r`
1

0
0
Y ( , )Y`m (, )
2`+1 .
= 4
2` + 1 `m
r0`+1
a
`=0 m=`

To find the potential, we must compute the normal derivative of the Greens function in the direction
of r0 , evaluated at r0 = a. Let us spend a moment and compute this.

X
`
X
G(r, r0 )
1
r`
r0`1 r`

0
0
= 4
Y ( , )Y`m (, ) (` + 1) 0`+2 ` 2`+1
,

r0 r0 =a
2` + 1 `m
r
a
`=0 m=`

= 4

`
X

`=0 m=`

= 4

1
r`
r`

Y`m
(0 , 0 )Y`m (, ) (` + 1) `+2 ` 2`+2 ,
2` + 1
a
a

X
`
X
`=0 m=`

= 4

X
`
X

r 0 =a

r ` 1
1

Y`m
(0 , 0 )Y`m (, ) (2` + 1)
,
2` + 1
a a2

Y`m
(0 , 0 )Y`m (, )

`=0 m=`

r ` 1
.
a a2

Now, we can directly compute the potential (r, , ) using

Z
1
G(r, r0 )
(r, , ) =
(0 , 0 )
a2 d0 ,
4
r0 r0 =a
Z
X
`
r ` 1
X
1
0
0

( , )4
Y`m
(0 , 0 )Y`m (, )
a2 d0 ,
=
4
a a2
`=0 m=`

Z
=

(0 , 0 )

X
`
X

Y`m
(0 , 0 )Y`m (, )

`=0 m=`

X
`
X

Y`m (, )

`=0 m=`

(r, , ) =

r ` Z
a

X
`
X
`=0 m=`

r `
a

d0 ,

(0 , 0 )Y`m
(0 , 0 )d0 ,

A`m

r `
a

Y`m (, ).
o 

Problem 3.6
Let us consider a system of two point charges of charge q located at z = a, respectively.
a) Let us find the electrostatic potential as an expansion in spherical harmonics and powers of r.
First notice that the electrostatic potential is trivially given by

1
1
q

,
(x) =
40 |x ~a| |x + ~a|
where ~a (a, 0, 0) in spherical coordinates. As before, we can expand the function
1/|x ~a| following Jacksons equation (3.70). Furthermore, by azimuthal symmetry,
it is clear that only m = 0 spherical harmonics contribute and so we can substitute Legendre polynomials in their place. Azimuthal symmetry also implies that

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Let us begin by expressing G(x, x0 ) in terms of spherical harmonics. Following the now standard
procedure used above, we see that

!
X
`
X
1
r`
a
r`
0

0
0
G(r, r ) = 4
Y ( , )Y`m (, )
0 2 `+1 ,
2` + 1 `m
r0`+1
r a r0
`=0 m=`
r 02

`
`
0`
X X
r
r r`
1

0
0
Y ( , )Y`m (, )
2`+1 .
= 4
2` + 1 `m
r0`+1
a
`=0 m=`

To find the potential, we must compute the normal derivative of the Greens function in the direction
of r0 , evaluated at r0 = a. Let us spend a moment and compute this.

X
`
X
G(r, r0 )
1
r`
r0`1 r`

0
0
= 4
Y ( , )Y`m (, ) (` + 1) 0`+2 ` 2`+1
,

r0 r0 =a
2` + 1 `m
r
a
`=0 m=`

= 4

`
X

`=0 m=`

= 4

1
r`
r`

Y`m
(0 , 0 )Y`m (, ) (` + 1) `+2 ` 2`+2 ,
2` + 1
a
a

X
`
X
`=0 m=`

= 4

X
`
X

r 0 =a

r ` 1
1

Y`m
(0 , 0 )Y`m (, ) (2` + 1)
,
2` + 1
a a2

Y`m
(0 , 0 )Y`m (, )

`=0 m=`

r ` 1
.
a a2

Now, we can directly compute the potential (r, , ) using

Z
1
G(r, r0 )
(r, , ) =
(0 , 0 )
a2 d0 ,
4
r0 r0 =a
Z
X
`
r ` 1
X
1
0
0

( , )4
Y`m
(0 , 0 )Y`m (, )
a2 d0 ,
=
4
a a2
`=0 m=`

Z
=

(0 , 0 )

X
`
X

Y`m
(0 , 0 )Y`m (, )

`=0 m=`

X
`
X

Y`m (, )

`=0 m=`

(r, , ) =

r ` Z
a

X
`
X
`=0 m=`

r `
a

d0 ,

(0 , 0 )Y`m
(0 , 0 )d0 ,

A`m

r `
a

Y`m (, ).
o 

Problem 3.6
Let us consider a system of two point charges of charge q located at z = a, respectively.
a) Let us find the electrostatic potential as an expansion in spherical harmonics and powers of r.
First notice that the electrostatic potential is trivially given by

1
1
q

,
(x) =
40 |x ~a| |x + ~a|
where ~a (a, 0, 0) in spherical coordinates. As before, we can expand the function
1/|x ~a| following Jacksons equation (3.70). Furthermore, by azimuthal symmetry,
it is clear that only m = 0 spherical harmonics contribute and so we can substitute Legendre polynomials in their place. Azimuthal symmetry also implies that

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 4

(r, , ) = (r, , 0) . Specifically, we obtain

`
X
r
q
1

(r, , ) =
4
(Y`0
(0, 0)Y`0 (, ) Y`0
(0, 0)Y`0 ( , )) ,
`+1
40
2` + 1 r+
`=0

`
q X r
=
(P` (cos ) P` (cos( ))) ,
40
r`+1
`=0 +

2`+1
q X r
P
(cos ),
2(`+1) 2`+1
20
`=0 r+

where r+ (r ) is the greater (smaller) of r and a. Notice in the last line that we have
implicitly made sure to sum only over odd values of `.
b) Keeping qa p/2 constant, let us take the limit of a 0 and find the potential for r 6= 0.
We can compute this quite directly. Notice that because we are considering the limit
a 0 where r 6= 0, we will have r = a in the above expressions. Because we will
take a 0 while keeping qa constant, any term in of O(qaj ) where j > 1 will
vanish in the limit. Therefore,

q X a2`+1
lim (r, ) = lim
P2`+1 (cos ),
a0
a0 20
r2(`+1)
`=0
p
P1 (cos ) + lim O(qa3 ),
=
a0
40 r2
p
(r, ) =
cos .
40 r2
c) Let us suppose that a dipole, as defined by the limit in part (b) above, is surrounded by a
grounded spherical shell of radius b concentric with the origin. We are to find the the potential
everywhere inside the sphere.
By the linear superposition of potentials, we see that

p cos X
(r, , ) =
+
A` r` P` (cos ).
40 r2
`=0

This is true by the general expansion of the laplace equation within the sphere and
because the total charge inside the sphere is zero, cannot have a pole at the origin.
The condition that the sphere be grounded implies that

p cos X
(b, , ) =
+
A` b` P` (cos ) = 0.
40 b2
`=0

Because P` is order ` in cos , this implies that only A1 can be nonzero. In particular,
it implies that
p
A1 =
.
40 b3
Hence, we see that

r
p cos 1

.
(r, , ) =
40
r2
b3

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Problem 3.9
Let us consider a right circular cylinder with radius b whose central axis is coincident with the z-axis.
The ends of the cylinder are grounded and the potential on the face is given by (b, , z). We are to
determine a series solution for the potential everywhere inside of the cylinder.
Almost canonically, let us assume that the potential can be completely separated into
(, , z) = R()()Z(z).
We know that the Laplacian of must vanishthe interior of the cylinder is assumed to be free of
charge. Therefore, taking the Laplacian of and dividing by , we see that

1 2 2
2 (, , z) = 0 =

+ 2
+
,

2
z 2
1 R
1 2
2Z
2R
Z
+
Z
+
RZ
+
R
,
=
2

2 2
z 2

1 2R
1 R
1 2
1 2Z
=
+
+
+
.
2
2
2
R
R

Z z 2
Now, because the expression in brackets explicitly depends on while the other term does not, each
part must be separately constant. Without any loss of generality we can say that the term in brackets
is equal to 2 if this causes problems, which it wont, we could choose to be purely imaginary. In
particular, this implies that
1 2Z
= 2 ,
Z z 2
and hence, we see that
Z(z) = A cos(z) + B sin(z).
From our boundary conditions, Z(0) = Z(L) = 0, we know that A = 0 and n = n
L for n Z.
Therefore, in more generality, the term in brackets that we saw earlier can be equal to 2n for any n Z.
Using our work above for n , we can derive similar relations for . Specifically, we see that
1 2R
1 R
1 2
+
+
2n ,
R 2
R
2 2
2 2 R
R
1 2
=
+
+
2 2n ,
R 2
R
2
2 2

R
R
1 2
2 2
=
+

+
.
n
R 2
R
2

0=

Again, because the expression in brackets is clearly dependent on whereas the other term is not, each
must be separately constant. We will lose no generality by simply demanding that the expression in
brackets be equal to m2 . In almost exact analogy to the case for Z, we have
1 2
= m2 ,
2
which immediately implies that
() = C eim .
Because of the periodicity of the cylindrical coordinate , we have that () = ( + 2) which
demands that m Z.
Let us now determine the function R. Using our work above, we have arrived at the following
differential equation for R.
R
2 2 R
+
2 2n m2 ,
R 2
R

2 R 1 R
m2
2
=
+

+
R.
n
2

2

0=

Using the clarity of hindsight from similar problems in Jackson, we will define the variable n and
we see that the above equation becomes

m2
2 R 1 R
+
1 + 2 R = 0.
2

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 4

Because we have spent many hours roaming the bowels of mathworld, we notice that the above
expression is simply the modified Bessel differential equation whose solution is a modified Bessel function
of the first kind, Im (n ). To be exceedingly pedantic, this is explicitly,

2k+m
n

X
2
R() Im (n ) =
.
k! (m + k + 1)
k=0

Therefore, returning to our original separated form of the potential , we see that
n
nz
X
Anm eim Im
sin
.
(, , z) =
L
L
n,m
In a way that has become so canonical that it is of little worth mentioning, we can use the orthogonality
of the harmonic functions in the expression above to see that
Z 2 Z L
nz
2
Anm =
(b, , z)eim sin
dzd.
LIm (nb/L) 0
L
0
o 

Physics 505, Classical Electrodynamics


Homework 5
Due Thursday, 14th October 2004
Jacob Lewis Bourjaily
Problem 3.12
Let us consider a infinite, thin, grounded sheet of conducting material with a circular hole of radius
a cut into it. Let there be a thin, flat disc of radius a placed within the whole and kept at constant
potential V insulated from the grounded sheet.
a) We are to find an integral expression for the potential at any point above the plane in terms of
Bessel functions.
Noting the azimuthal symmetry of the problem, Laplaces equation becomes

1 R
1 2Z
1 2R
2
=
+
+
= 0.
R 2
R
Z z 2
Because the part in the brackets depends on and the other term does not, it is
apparent that both must be separately constant. Let us say that the term in the
brackets is equal to 2 . This implies that
Z(z) ez ,
for any . Notice that there can be no ez part in Z(z) because the potential must
vanish at infinity.
The remaining equation for R() is
2 R 1 R
+
+ 2 R = 0,
2

which, upon making the substitution , reduces to the very familiar, trivial
Bessel equation
2 R 1 R
+
+ R = 0.
2

This equation has the obvious (or at least very well established) solution R() =
J0 ().
The field will be a linear combination of all of the possible solutions. Because there
are no obvious restrictions on , this sum becomes an integral over , coefficients
A , now a continuous function A (). Specifically, we have
Z
(, z) =
A ()ez J0 ()d.
0

Notice that we will only integrate over positive to avoid putting an absolute value
sign in e|z| .
Now, we can determine the function A () by considering (, 0), multiplying both sides
of the equation by J0 (0 ) and integrating . Specifically, (noting Jacksons equation
3.108) we have,
Z
Z Z
(, 0)J0 (0 )d =
A ()J0 ()J0 (0 )dd,
0
Z

Z a
Z0 0
0
V
J0 ( )d =
A ()
J0 ()J0 (0 )d d,
0
0
0
Z
(0 )
=
A ()
d,

0
A (0 )
=
.
0
Therefore, we see
Z a
A () = V
J0 ()d.
0

This implies

(, z) = V
0

0 J0 (0 )d0 ez J1 ()d.

0
1

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Now, using our favorite tabulation of trivial Bessel identities (my favorite is in the
Dover book by Harry F. Davis, Fourier Series and Orthogonal Functions), we know
Z a
a
0 J0 (0 )d0 = J0 (a).

0
Therefore, the potential is given by,
Z
(, z) = V a

ez J1 (a)J0 ()d.

o 
b) We are to determine the potential at a distance z above the center of the disc.
This problem is very similar to that discussed in Jacksons section 3.13 and so we will
draw our inspiration from there. Above, we showed that
Z Z a
(, z) = V
0 J0 (0 )d0 ez J1 ()d.
0

Using an identity not assigned for homework but quite important, (3.16c), we see
that, at = 0, this reduces to
Z Z a
(z) = V
0 J0 (0 )d0 ez d,
Z0 a 0Z
=V
0
J0 (0 )ez dd0 ,
0
0

Z a
Z
d
=V
0
J0 (0 )ez d d0 ,
dz 0
0
#

Z a "
1
d
0
d0 ,
=V

dz (02 + z 2 )1/2
0
Z a
0 z
=V
d0 ,
3/2
02
2
0 ( + z )
Z 2 2
V z a +z du
,
=
2 z2
u3/2

!
1
1
=Vz

,
1/2
z
(a2 + z 2 )

(z) = V 1
.
z 2 + a2
o 
c) We are to derive the potential a height z above the edge of the disc.
Let us begin with the boxed equation derived in part (a). We see that at = a, we have
Z
(a, z) = V a
ez J1 (a)J0 (a)d.
0

Although we would have typically done something more impressive and challenging,
we simply remark that Mathematica 5 evaluates to be, when simplified, 1,

kz
V
1
K(k) ,
(z) =
2
a
where k

2a
z 2 +4a2

and K(k) is the complete elliptic integral of the first kind,


Z /2
d
p
K(k)
.
0
1 k 2 sin2

1Believe it or not, Mathematica actually returns the evaluated integral in terms of K(k) by default.

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 5

Problem 3.13
We are to determine the potential between two concentric spheres, having radii a, b (b > a), each
of which is divided into two hemispheres by the same horizontal plane. The upper hemisphere of the
inner sphere and the lower hemisphere of the outer sphere are fixed at potential V while the other two
hemispheres are grounded. We are to determine potential using Greens functions obtained in the text.
Scouring the text, we observe that the general Greens function with Dirichlet boundary conditions
for the interior of two concentric spheres is fully worked out in Jacksons section 3.9. In particular, by
equation 3.125,

!
!
X
`
`

X
r+
a2`+1
Y`m
(0 , 0 )Y`m (, )
1
`
0
h
i r `+1
G(x, x ) = 4
2`+1 ,
`+1
2`+1
b
r
r+
(2` + 1) 1 (a/b)
`=0 m=`

which yields the (vacuum interior) potential


1
(r, ) =
4

Z
(x0 )

G(x, x0 ) 0
da .
n0

We can reduce the most general Greens function in our particular situation by noting the azimuthal
symmetry of the shells. Specifically,

!
!

`
2`+1
0
X
r
a
P
(cos
)P
(cos

)
1
`
`
+
`
G(x, x0 ) =
r
`+1
2`+1 .
2`+1
`+1
b
r
r+
1

(a/b)
`=0
Therefore, to determine the potential (x), we need only evaluate the surface integralof which only
the normal derivative at the surface is algebraically not mindless. The normal derivative at the surface
will clearly be in the radial direction and therefore this will pass directly through the angular integration.
notice that there are two separate surface integrals to be performedover r0 = a, b. Specifically,
Z
1
G(x, x0 ) 0
(r, ) =
(x0 )
da ,
4
n0

Z
1
G(x, x0 )
G(x, x0 )
2
0
2
0
=
(a, )
a d cos + (b, )
b d cos ,
2
n0 r0 =a
n0 r0 =b

Z 1

Z 0
G(x, x0 )
V
G(x, x0 )
2
0
2
0
=
a
d
cos

+
0 b d cos ,
2
(r0 ) r0 =a
r0
0
1
r =b

Z 1

Z 0

G(x, x0 )
V X
G(x, x0 )
2
0
2
0
P` (cos )
=
a d cos +
0 b d cos ,
2
(r0 ) r0 =a
r0
0
1
r =b
`=0
" Z

!
!

1
`
r+

a2`+1
V X P` (cos )
1

2
0
0
`

=
a
P
(cos

)d
cos

2`+1
`+1
`+1
2`+1
2
(r0 )
b
r
r
1
+
(a/b)
0

+
0
`=0

! r =a#
!
Z 0

`
2`+1
r+
a

`
r
`+1
2`+1
+ b2
P` (cos 0 )d cos 0
,

`+1
0
0
r
b
r
r+
1
r =b

!
!
Z 1

`
r+
a2`+1
1
V X P` (cos )

0
0 2
`
P
(cos

)d
cos

a
r

=
`

2`+1
`+1
`+1
2`+1
2
r
b
r
r
1
+
(a/b)
0

+
`=0
r =a

!
!

`
2`+1
r
a
1

+
`
,
r
`+1
2`+1
b2 (1)`

`+1

r+
b
r
r+
V
=
2
=

V
2

V
2

`(2Z+1),0

`+1 2`+1

r+ =b

1
r
b
a2`+a
b
`
2`+1 2`+1
r `+1
,
(2` + 1)P` (cos )
P` (cos )d cos
b2`+1 a2`+1 r`+1
b
b
a2`+1
r
0
`(2Z+1),0

!
Z 1

X
a`+1 b`+1 a` + b` r2`+1 a`+1 + b`+1
0
0
,
(2` + 1)P` (cos )
P` (cos )d cos
r`+1 (b2`+1 a2`+1 )
0
`(2Z+1),0

!
`+1 `+1 `

X
a b
a + b` r2`+1 a`+1 + b`+1
(` 2)!!
(`1)/2
.
(2` + 1)P` (cos ) (1/2)
2((` + 1)/2)!
r`+1 (b2`+1 a2`+1 )

`+1

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Notice that in the above we have made explicit use of the fact that the integral over d cos 0 vanishes
for all but odd values of `with the exception of ` = 0. We have also used several results from Homework
4 involving similar expressions. Hence, we have shown that
(r, ) = V /2

(2` + 1)P` (cos ) ()

`(2Z+1),0

`1
2

(` 2)!!
2((` + 1)/2)!

!
a`+1 b`+1 a` + b` r2`+1 a`+1 + b`+1
.
r`+1 (b2`+1 a2`+1 )
o 

It should be noted that this expression agrees with that derived for Homework 4. This was checked
explicitly using a computer algebra package.
Problem 3.14
Let us consider a line charge of length 2d with total charge Q and a linear charge density proportional
to (d2 z 2 ), where z is the distance from the midpoint of the line. A grounded, conducting spherical
shell of inner radius b > d is centered on the midpoint of the line charge.
a) We are to find the potential within the spherical shell for d r b as an expansion in Legendre
polynomials.
We will begin with the advice of distributed assignment sheet and first derive the charge
density inside of the sphere. We will consider a spherical coordinate system in which
the line charge is distributed along = = 0, coincident with the z-axis. This will
allow us to make wonderful use of the azimuthal symmetry.
First, we notice that because there is only charge at = 0, ,
(x) ((cos 1) + (cos + 1)) .
Similarly, because the charge is distributed along a finite length from z = d, we
have
(x) (d r).
Furthermore, we are given the fact that (x) (d2 z 2 ) and that the total charge
is Q. Therefore, we immediately see that
Z
Z 2 Z 1 Z d 2
d r2
Q=
(x)d3 x =
(d r) ((cos 1) + (cos 1)) r2 d cos d,
r2

0
0
0
Z d
8d3
= 2
(d2 r2 )dr =
.
3
0
Hence, =

3Q
8d3

and

(r, , ) =

3Q d2 r2
(d r) ((cos 1) + (cos + 1)) .
8d3 r2

Let us now begin to find the potential inside the sphere. From work in Jacksons section
3.10, we know that the general Dirichlet Greens function for the interior of the sphere
is

!
X
`
`
` `
0
0

X
r
r
r
(
,

)Y
(,
)
Y
`m

+
`m
2`+1 ,
G(x, x0 ) = 4
`+1
2` + 1
b
r+
`=0 m=`
and from the azimuthal symmetry in our case, we have

`
` `
X
r
r
r+
0
G(x, x ) =
2`+1 P` (cos )P` (cos 0 ).
`+1
b
r
+
`=0
In general the potential inside the sphere can be computed using G(x, x0 ) by the relation
Z
Z
1
1
G(x, x0 ) 0
0
0 3 0
(x) =
(x )G(x, x )d x
(x0 )
da .
40
4
n0

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Notice that in the above we have made explicit use of the fact that the integral over d cos 0 vanishes
for all but odd values of `with the exception of ` = 0. We have also used several results from Homework
4 involving similar expressions. Hence, we have shown that
(r, ) = V /2

(2` + 1)P` (cos ) ()

`(2Z+1),0

`1
2

(` 2)!!
2((` + 1)/2)!

!
a`+1 b`+1 a` + b` r2`+1 a`+1 + b`+1
.
r`+1 (b2`+1 a2`+1 )
o 

It should be noted that this expression agrees with that derived for Homework 4. This was checked
explicitly using a computer algebra package.
Problem 3.14
Let us consider a line charge of length 2d with total charge Q and a linear charge density proportional
to (d2 z 2 ), where z is the distance from the midpoint of the line. A grounded, conducting spherical
shell of inner radius b > d is centered on the midpoint of the line charge.
a) We are to find the potential within the spherical shell for d r b as an expansion in Legendre
polynomials.
We will begin with the advice of distributed assignment sheet and first derive the charge
density inside of the sphere. We will consider a spherical coordinate system in which
the line charge is distributed along = = 0, coincident with the z-axis. This will
allow us to make wonderful use of the azimuthal symmetry.
First, we notice that because there is only charge at = 0, ,
(x) ((cos 1) + (cos + 1)) .
Similarly, because the charge is distributed along a finite length from z = d, we
have
(x) (d r).
Furthermore, we are given the fact that (x) (d2 z 2 ) and that the total charge
is Q. Therefore, we immediately see that
Z
Z 2 Z 1 Z d 2
d r2
Q=
(x)d3 x =
(d r) ((cos 1) + (cos 1)) r2 d cos d,
r2

0
0
0
Z d
8d3
= 2
(d2 r2 )dr =
.
3
0
Hence, =

3Q
8d3

and

(r, , ) =

3Q d2 r2
(d r) ((cos 1) + (cos + 1)) .
8d3 r2

Let us now begin to find the potential inside the sphere. From work in Jacksons section
3.10, we know that the general Dirichlet Greens function for the interior of the sphere
is

!
X
`
`
` `
0
0

X
r
r
r
(
,

)Y
(,
)
Y
`m

+
`m
2`+1 ,
G(x, x0 ) = 4
`+1
2` + 1
b
r+
`=0 m=`
and from the azimuthal symmetry in our case, we have

`
` `
X
r
r
r+
0
G(x, x ) =
2`+1 P` (cos )P` (cos 0 ).
`+1
b
r
+
`=0
In general the potential inside the sphere can be computed using G(x, x0 ) by the relation
Z
Z
1
1
G(x, x0 ) 0
0
0 3 0
(x) =
(x )G(x, x )d x
(x0 )
da .
40
4
n0

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 5

1
40

Because the potential vanishes on the spherebeing groundedwe need only worry
about the first contribution. Therefore, we may compute,

(x0 )G(x, x0 )d3 x0 ,

!
)
Z ( 2

`
` `
X
r
r
r+
d r02
1 3Q
0
0
0
0
(d r ) ((cos 1) + (cos + 1))
2`+1 P` (cos )P` (cos ) d3 x0 ,
=
`+1
40 8d3
r02
b
r
+
`=0
(

! )
Z

h
i d
`
` `
X
r
r
r+
3Q
=
P` (cos ) P` (1) + P` (1)
(d2 r02 )
2
2`+1
dr0 ,
`+1
2
3
32 0 d
b
r
0
+
`=0
! )
(

d
`
`
`
X
r r+
r
3Q
=
dr0 .
P` (cos )
(d2 r02 )
2`+1
`+1
3
80 d
b
r+
0

(x) =

`(2Z)

Notice that in the last line, we have implicitly made the summation only over even values
of `, which accounts for an extra factor of two in front. Now, if r d then r0 = r
and r = r+ . This makes life enormously easier: if we were to consider the case where
r < d, then we could not assign either r or r0 to r globally. Rather, this would need
to be implemented somehow through tricky integration bounds: a big mess!
Returning to our evaluation, if r d,
(
0`
)
Z d

X
3Q
r
r0` r`
2
02
(r, , ) =
P` (cos )
(d r )
2`+1 dr0 ,
8 2 0 d3
r`+1
b
0
`(2Z)
)
(

Z d

X
3Q
1
r`
2
02 0`
0
=
P` (cos )
2`+1
(d r )r dr ,
80 d3
r`+1
b
0
`(2Z)
(

2 0`+1
d )

X
1
3Q
r`
d r
r0`+3
P` (cos )
,
=
2`+1

80 d3
r`+1
b
`+1
`+3 0
`(2Z)


X
3Q
1
r`
d`+3
=
P
(cos
)

,
`
40 d3
r`+1
b2`+1 (` + 1)(` + 3)
`(2Z)

(r, , ) =


3Q X
1
r2`
P2` (cos )d2`

.
4 2 0
(2` + 1) (2` + 3) r2`+1
b4`+1
`=0

o 
b) We are to calculate the charge density induced on the shell.
We compute this directly. We have,


(r, )
2` + 1
2`
3Q X
P2` (cos )d2`
() = 0
2`+2
,
=
(r) r=b
4
(2` + 1) (2` + 3) b2`+2
b
`=0

( =

3Q X
4
`=0

d2`
4` + 1
P
(cos
)
.
2`
(2` + 1) (2` + 3) b2`+2
o 

c) We are to briefly comment on our results above in the limit where d 0.


It is abundantly obvious exactly what these limits will give us so let us quickly check.
For the potential , as d 0, all the terms in the sum will vanish except ` = 0,
giving,

3Q P0 (cos ) 1 1
Q
1 1
lim (r, ) =

.
d0
4 2 0
3
r
b
40 r
b

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

That was more than expected. The charge distribution acts similarly when d 0;
namely, only the ` = 0 term in the sum survives so that
3Q 1 1
Q
lim () =
P0 (cos ) =
.
d0
4 3 b2
4b2
This was also expected, as it is just a uniform charge distribution on the sphere.
Problem 3.17
Let us consider the Dirichlet Greens function for the unbounded space between two grounded planes
at z = 0, L.
a) We are to show that a form of the Greens function in cylindrical coordinates is

n
n
nz
4 X X im(0 )
nz 0

+
G(x, x0 ) =
sin
Im
Km
.
e
sin
L n=1 m=
L
L
L
L
Our work will largely follow that of Jacksons section 3.11. We start by simply restating
the requirement that G(x, x0 ) be a Greens function; namely, that it satisfy,
4
2 G(x, x0 ) = ( 0 )( 0 )(z z 0 ).

Recall that we have many rather convenient ways of expressing a -function. In


particular, recall that

1 X im(0 )
0
( ) =
e
,
2 m=

nz
nz 0
2 X
0
sin
sin
.
(z z ) =
L n=1
L
L
Inserting these into the definition of 2 G(x, x0 ) in cylindrical coordinates above, we
see that

nz
4 X X im(0 )
nz 0 ( 0 )
2 G(x, x0 ) =
sin
.
e
sin
L n=1 m=
L
L

Now, recall that G(x, x0 ), like any suitable function (in the l2 topology), can be expanded
in terms of orthogonal functions. In particular, we can in complete generality write

nz
X
X
0
.
G(x, x ) =
Anm eim sin
L
n=1 m=
Now, in general, the coefficients Anm will be functions of the coordinates x0 and .
If we act on this expansion for G(x, x0 ) with the Laplacian in cylindrical coordinates, we
see that

nz
X
X
2 G(x, x0 ) = 2
Anm eim sin
,
L
n=1 m=

2
nz
1
1 2
2 X X

im
+
+
+
A
e
sin
,
=
nm
2
2 2
z 2 n=1 m=
L
2

nz
X
X

1
m2
n2 2
im
=
+

A
e
sin
.
nm
2

2
L2
L
n=1 m=
But recall that

nz
4 X X
nz 0 ( 0 )
im0
G(x, x ) =
e
sin
eim sin
.
L n=1 m=
L

L
2

Now, orthogonal function expansions are unique in a suitable sense (that is, they
can disagree on at most a set of measure zero if the domain of definition is a nice).
Therefore, we see that

2
1
m2
n2 2
4 im0
nz 0 ( 0 )

+
2
Anm = e
sin
.
2

L2
L
L

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

That was more than expected. The charge distribution acts similarly when d 0;
namely, only the ` = 0 term in the sum survives so that
3Q 1 1
Q
lim () =
P0 (cos ) =
.
d0
4 3 b2
4b2
This was also expected, as it is just a uniform charge distribution on the sphere.
Problem 3.17
Let us consider the Dirichlet Greens function for the unbounded space between two grounded planes
at z = 0, L.
a) We are to show that a form of the Greens function in cylindrical coordinates is

n
n
nz
4 X X im(0 )
nz 0

+
G(x, x0 ) =
sin
Im
Km
.
e
sin
L n=1 m=
L
L
L
L
Our work will largely follow that of Jacksons section 3.11. We start by simply restating
the requirement that G(x, x0 ) be a Greens function; namely, that it satisfy,
4
2 G(x, x0 ) = ( 0 )( 0 )(z z 0 ).

Recall that we have many rather convenient ways of expressing a -function. In


particular, recall that

1 X im(0 )
0
( ) =
e
,
2 m=

nz
nz 0
2 X
0
sin
sin
.
(z z ) =
L n=1
L
L
Inserting these into the definition of 2 G(x, x0 ) in cylindrical coordinates above, we
see that

nz
4 X X im(0 )
nz 0 ( 0 )
2 G(x, x0 ) =
sin
.
e
sin
L n=1 m=
L
L

Now, recall that G(x, x0 ), like any suitable function (in the l2 topology), can be expanded
in terms of orthogonal functions. In particular, we can in complete generality write

nz
X
X
0
.
G(x, x ) =
Anm eim sin
L
n=1 m=
Now, in general, the coefficients Anm will be functions of the coordinates x0 and .
If we act on this expansion for G(x, x0 ) with the Laplacian in cylindrical coordinates, we
see that

nz
X
X
2 G(x, x0 ) = 2
Anm eim sin
,
L
n=1 m=

2
nz
1
1 2
2 X X

im
+
+
+
A
e
sin
,
=
nm
2
2 2
z 2 n=1 m=
L
2

nz
X
X

1
m2
n2 2
im
=
+

A
e
sin
.
nm
2

2
L2
L
n=1 m=
But recall that

nz
4 X X
nz 0 ( 0 )
im0
G(x, x ) =
e
sin
eim sin
.
L n=1 m=
L

L
2

Now, orthogonal function expansions are unique in a suitable sense (that is, they
can disagree on at most a set of measure zero if the domain of definition is a nice).
Therefore, we see that

2
1
m2
n2 2
4 im0
nz 0 ( 0 )

+
2
Anm = e
sin
.
2

L2
L
L

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 5

Because the differential operator


acting
on Anm does not act on 0 or z 0 , we can divide

nz 0
im0
both sides by e
sin L :
!
2

1
m2
n2 2
Anm

4 ( 0 )

.
=

0
0
2

2
L2
L

eim sin nz
L
Setting x n
L , it is clear that the expression in parenthesis is a solution to the
inhomogeneous modified Bessel equation.
We know

n that the most general solution


will be a linear combination of Im n
and
K
m
L
L . We know from the discussion

in Jacksons section 3.11 that Im n


is
regular
precisely
when < 0 and Km n
L
L
is regular precisely when 0 < . Therefore, because the Greens function must be
regular over the entire domain (and symmetric in , 0 ), the only possibility is if

!
n
n
Anm
+

K
,
=
I
m
m
0
L
L
eim0 sin nz
L
where the constant will be set by the discontinuity criterion for the derivative of the
Greens function at = 0 . This computation is extremely easy because we already
know the Wronskian of Im and Km from our work through Jackson. Specifically,
1
W [Im (x), Km (x)] = ,
x
and therefore, we see that
4
= .
L
We have finished our challenge; all that is now required is to put it all back together.
Our work immediately above has shown us that

n
n
4
nz 0

+
im0
Anm = Im
Km
e
sin
.
L
L
L
L
This leads us immediately to conclude,
G(x, x0 ) =

n
n
nz
4 X X im(0 )
nz 0

+
sin
Im
Km
.
e
sin
L n=1 m=
L
L
L
L

b) Similar to above, we are to show that the Greens function can also be written in the form,
Z

X
0
sinh(kz ) sinh [k(L z+ )]
G(x, x0 ) = 2
.
dk eim( ) Jm (k)Jm (k0 )
sinh(kL)
m= 0
Our work and method will follow that above. First we recall that the Laplacian acting
on a Greens function G(x, x0 ) satisfies
2 G(x, x0 ) = 4

( 0 )
(z z 0 )( 0 ).

This time, we will make use of the following two convenient ways of writing dfunctions.

1 X im(0 )
e
,
( 0 ) =
2 m=
Z
( 0 )
=
kJm (k)Jm (k0 ) dk.

0
Using these, we can write
2 G(x, x0 ) = 2

X
m=

X
m=

keim( ) Jm (k)Jm (k0 )(z z 0 ) dk,

n
o
0
2keim Jm (k0 )(z z 0 ) eim Jm (k) dk.

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

But we can always (with caveats, as always) expand G(x, x0 ) in terms of these orthogonal
functions and some coefficients Amk ,
Z

X
G(x, x) =
Amk eim Jm (k) dk.
m=

Acting on this expression with the Laplacian in cylindrical coordinates, we see

Z 2

1
1 2
2
2
0
+
+ 2 2 + 2 Amk eim Jm (k) dk,
G(x, x ) =
2

z
m= 0

Z 2

X
2
1
m2

+
A
J
(k)
eim dk,
=
+

mk
m
2
2
2

0
m=

Z 2

2
k Amk eim Jm (k) dk.
=
2
z
m= 0
In the last line, we used the fact that Jm (k), being a Bessel function, solves Bessels
equation.
As before, we see that the two series must agree for each term. Therefore,
2

k
Amk = 2keim Jm (k0 )(z z 0 ).
z 2
Notice that the differential operator acting on Amk does not act on 0 or 0 and
therefore, we may rearrange the expression to see that
2

Amk
2

k
= 2k(z z 0 ).
z 2
eim0 Jm (k0 )
Equations like the one above are solved by freshman in their dreams. Because we need
the potential to vanish on the plates, the function in parenthesis will be composed of
hyperbolic sines (instead of hyperbolic cosines) and by the symmetry of z, z 0 , we see
that

Amk
= sinh(k ) sinh(k(L z+ )),
eim0 Jm (k0 )
where is some constant that we will need to determine using the discontinuity of
its derivative at z = z 0 . We compute this quite directly,

d
d

2k =
sinh(k ) sinh(k(L z+ ))
sinh(k ) sinh(k(L z+ )) ,
dz
dz
z

= k sinh(kz) cosh(k(L z)) k cosh(kz) sinh(k(L z)),


= k sinh(kL),
2
.
sinh(kL)
Putting this work back into our expressions above, we see that we have shown
0
sinh(kz ) sinh(k(L z+ ))
,
Amk = 2eim Jm (k0 )
sinh(kL)
and this allows us to conclude that
Z

X
0
sinh(kz ) sinh [k(L z+ )]
dk eim( ) Jm (k)Jm (k0 )
G(x, x0 ) = 2
.
sinh(kL)
m= 0
=

o 

Physics 505, Classical Electrodynamics


Homework 7
Due Thursday, 28th October 2004
Jacob Lewis Bourjaily
Problem 4.13
We are to consider two long, coaxial, cylindrical conducting surfaces of radii a, b (a < b) that are
lowered vertically into a liquid dielectric. The liquid rises an average height h between the two cylinders
when a potential difference V is established between them. Given that the density of the dielectric is
0 1, we are to determine the susceptibility of the liquid.
First, let us assume that the cylinder is long so that the potential is independent of the and
coordinates. In this case, the Laplace equation for the space between the two cylinders is simply

= 0,

and so we see that () = log + where , are determined by the boundary conditions. Because
we know that (a) (b) = V = log a + log b = log (a/b), we have that
V
=
.
log (a/b)
We see that we can consistently set = 0 because we are only interested in potential differences.
Therefore,
V
() =
log .
log (a/b)
Now, using E = and our general results about macroscopic electrostatics, we see that
(
1
V
in the liquid
V
1
log(b/a)
.
E=
and D =
0 V
1
above the liquid
log (b/a)
log(b/a)
Therefore, following the discussion of electrostatic energy in dielectric media in Jacksons section 4.7,
we see that the energy density associated with the field configuration is given by
Z
1
W =
E Dd3 x,
2
#
"Z
Z b
Z `
h
1
V2
1
V2
=
d
dz +
0 2
,
2
log (b/a) 2
log (b/a) 2
a
h
0
V 2
(h + 0 ` h0 ) ,
log (b/a)
where ` is the height of the cylinder. The term proportional to ` in the expression above for W can
be interpreted as the energy associated with the field configuration before lowing the cylinder into the
dielectric medium. Specifically, we are interested in the energy required to create the new configuration
with the dielectric medium raised some height h above the other liquid (where we have set the level
of the dielectric outside of the cylinder to z = 0.). Therefore, the energy gained by lowering the two
cylinders is

V 2 h
V 2 h

V 2 he 0
W =
( 0 ) =
1 0 =
.
log (b/a)
log (b/a) 0
log (b/a)
It is clear from elementary mechanics that this must be equal to the energy required to raise the mass
of the dielectric liquid in the gravitational field. The mass of the liquid is its density times its volume,
which is of course (b2 a2 ). And the energy required to raise this mass in a constant gravitational
field g is simply 0 (b2 a2 )gh.
Therefore, because the energy gained from the field configuration of the cylinders with the dielectric
medium must be the same as that required to raise the liquid, we have that

V 2 he 0
.
0 b2 a2 gh =
log (b/a)
Therefore, it is clear that

0 gh b2 a2 log (b/a)
e =
.
0 V 2
o 
=

1The subscript on is used to distinguish it from the radial coordinate .


0
1

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Problem 5.1
Let us consider a closed loop carrying a current I. Using the fact that
dB =

0 I 0
x x0
d`
3,
4
|x x0 |

we are to show that the magnetic induction at any point x is given by


0 I
,
4
where is the solid angle about x subtended by the loop.
B=

The required identity is equivalent to showing that


Z
Z
xx
d`0
=

d.
|x x0 |3
S
S

R
This is clear from the fact that the coefficients are the same and B = dB. Throughout our proof, we
will rely on many of the vector identities listed in the front cover Jacksons text although we will not
reference these explicitly for sake of convenience on the authors part.
Now, before we begin, we notice that we can rewrite
x x0
1
= 0
,
0
3
|x x |
|x x0 |
by simple evaluation. We will prove the required identity in by checking that each of the components of
the vector fields are the same. Specifically, let x
i be a basis vector in the Cartesian coordinate system.
It is obvious that the ith component of B is simply x
i B. Therefore, let us evaluate the ith component
of the left-hand-side of the desired identity.

Z
Z
x x0
1
0
0
x
i
d`0
=
x

d`

,
i
|x x0 |3
|x x0 |
S
S

Z
1
=
d`0 0

i ,
|x x0 |
S

Z
1
=
da0 0 0

,
i
|x x0 |
S
(


)
Z
1
1
1
1
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
xi
=
da

+ (
xi )
( x
i )

x
i ,
|x x0 | | {z }
|x x0 |
|x x0 |
|x x0 |
S
{z
}
{z
}
|
|
=0
=0

1
=02 |xx
0 | =0

Z
da0

=
S

0
1

.
x0i |x x0 |

Now, notice that xi = xi and so we can bring this outside of the integral, picking up an extra
minus sign,
Z
Z
x x0

1
x
i
d`0
=

da0 0
.
0
3
|x x |
xi S
|x x0 |
S
During a discussion of a similar problem in section 1.6, Jackson points out that
1
= d.
da0 0
|x x0 |
Therefore, we see that that

Z
d`0

x
i
S

x x0

=
0
3
|x x |
xi

Z
d = x
i .
S

Because x
i was an arbitrary Cartesian coordinate, we see that the more general vector equality is
true, as desired. In particular, this implies directly that
Z
Z
x x0
0 I
0 I
d`0
=
.
B = dB =
0
3
4 S
|x x |
4
o 

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 7

Problem 5.3
Let us consider a right-circular solenoid of finite length L and radius a with N turns per unit length,
each carrying current I. In the continuum limit of the current densities on the surface of the solenoid,
we are to show that the magnetic induction on the cylindrical axis is
0 N I
(cos 1 + cos 2 ) ,
2
where the angles are given in a clear diagram not included here.
Bz =

We can solve this problem rather directly by using our result from problem (5.1) above. There,
we showed that the magnetic induction from a closed current is given in terms of the gradient of the
solid angle subtended by the circular current (with appropriate conventions for signs). Because of the
cylindrical symmetry in the problem at hand, we see that at a particular z,
Z 1
= 2
d cos = 2(1 cos ).
cos

Notice that z = a cos and so is only a function of z. Hence without loss of generality,

.
z
Because of the linearity in the induction, the total field Bz will be given in terms of an integral over
the individual currents over z. Therefore,
Z L
0 N I 0
z,
Bz (z) =
dz 0
4 z 0
0
0 N I
=
((L) (0)) ,
4
0 N I
(1 cos( 2 ) 1 + cos 1 ) ,
=
2
= z

Bz =

0 N I
(cos 1 + cos 2 ) .
2

Problem 5.5 (c)


We are to derive approximations for the z- and -components of the magnetic induction near = 0
and cos2 0.
Being at one of the ends of the solenoid is equivalent to having cos vanish for one of the two
angles defined for problem (5.3). This reduces the induction to
Bz =

0 N I
cos 1 ,
2

where cos 2 = 0.
If the solenoid were long, then cos 1 can be well-approximated by its Taylor expansion.
Bz =

0 N I
0 N I
.
1 O(2 ) '
2
2

We will have a similar expression estimating the -component. To obtain this expression, we recall
that Bz = 02N I cos 1 . Because z = a cos 1 in our coordinates, this implies that Bz = 02N I az . Therefore,
Bz
0 N I
=
.
z
2a
Now, by the vanishing divergence of the magnetic induction and the independence of B on , we see
that
Bz
1
(B ) +
= 0.
B=

z
Using our work above, this implies that

0 N I
(B ) =
.

2a

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 7

Problem 5.3
Let us consider a right-circular solenoid of finite length L and radius a with N turns per unit length,
each carrying current I. In the continuum limit of the current densities on the surface of the solenoid,
we are to show that the magnetic induction on the cylindrical axis is
0 N I
(cos 1 + cos 2 ) ,
2
where the angles are given in a clear diagram not included here.
Bz =

We can solve this problem rather directly by using our result from problem (5.1) above. There,
we showed that the magnetic induction from a closed current is given in terms of the gradient of the
solid angle subtended by the circular current (with appropriate conventions for signs). Because of the
cylindrical symmetry in the problem at hand, we see that at a particular z,
Z 1
= 2
d cos = 2(1 cos ).
cos

Notice that z = a cos and so is only a function of z. Hence without loss of generality,

.
z
Because of the linearity in the induction, the total field Bz will be given in terms of an integral over
the individual currents over z. Therefore,
Z L
0 N I 0
z,
Bz (z) =
dz 0
4 z 0
0
0 N I
=
((L) (0)) ,
4
0 N I
(1 cos( 2 ) 1 + cos 1 ) ,
=
2
= z

Bz =

0 N I
(cos 1 + cos 2 ) .
2

Problem 5.5 (c)


We are to derive approximations for the z- and -components of the magnetic induction near = 0
and cos2 0.
Being at one of the ends of the solenoid is equivalent to having cos vanish for one of the two
angles defined for problem (5.3). This reduces the induction to
Bz =

0 N I
cos 1 ,
2

where cos 2 = 0.
If the solenoid were long, then cos 1 can be well-approximated by its Taylor expansion.
Bz =

0 N I
0 N I
.
1 O(2 ) '
2
2

We will have a similar expression estimating the -component. To obtain this expression, we recall
that Bz = 02N I cos 1 . Because z = a cos 1 in our coordinates, this implies that Bz = 02N I az . Therefore,
Bz
0 N I
=
.
z
2a
Now, by the vanishing divergence of the magnetic induction and the independence of B on , we see
that
Bz
1
(B ) +
= 0.
B=

z
Using our work above, this implies that

0 N I
(B ) =
.

2a

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Notice that the ambiguity of sign represents which end of the solenoid we are interested in. This
differential equation has the trivial solutions
B =
which implies directly that
B '

0 N I 2
,
4 a

0 N I
.
4
a

Problem 5.6
Let us consider a cylindrical conductor of radius a with a hole of radius b bored parallel to, and
displaced a distance d from, the cylindrical axis (with b + d < a). The current density is uniform
throughout the remaining metal and is parallel to the axis. We are to use Amp`eres law and principle
of linear superposition to find the magnitude and direction of the magnetic flux-density in the hole.
By the linear superposition principle, this problem is identical to one in which we consider the combination of two cylindrical conductors, one of radius a with a uniform current density and no hole and
another with opposite current located at the whole.
By Amp`eres law in integral form, we know the magnetic induction for a uniform cylindrical conductor. Only the component normal to the line integral is important, and so only B will be non-vanishing.
In particular, we have that
0 I 0 2 J 1

B =
=
= 0 J .
2
2
2
Now, the expression above did not require us to specify which wire we were discussing and so equally
applies to both. Specifically, if is the radial coordinate in the system of the larger main cylinder and
0 is radial coordinate of the system displaced by distance d, then we see that

1
B = 0 J 0 0 .
2
Notice that we have implicitly included the fact that we want the currents to cancel each other in the
region of the smaller cylinder. We notice, however, that if we write d~ 0 , then z d~ = z z0 =
0 0 . Hance, we see that
1
~
Btotal = 0 J z d.
2

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Notice that the ambiguity of sign represents which end of the solenoid we are interested in. This
differential equation has the trivial solutions
B =
which implies directly that
B '

0 N I 2
,
4 a

0 N I
.
4
a

Problem 5.6
Let us consider a cylindrical conductor of radius a with a hole of radius b bored parallel to, and
displaced a distance d from, the cylindrical axis (with b + d < a). The current density is uniform
throughout the remaining metal and is parallel to the axis. We are to use Amp`eres law and principle
of linear superposition to find the magnitude and direction of the magnetic flux-density in the hole.
By the linear superposition principle, this problem is identical to one in which we consider the combination of two cylindrical conductors, one of radius a with a uniform current density and no hole and
another with opposite current located at the whole.
By Amp`eres law in integral form, we know the magnetic induction for a uniform cylindrical conductor. Only the component normal to the line integral is important, and so only B will be non-vanishing.
In particular, we have that
0 I 0 2 J 1

B =
=
= 0 J .
2
2
2
Now, the expression above did not require us to specify which wire we were discussing and so equally
applies to both. Specifically, if is the radial coordinate in the system of the larger main cylinder and
0 is radial coordinate of the system displaced by distance d, then we see that

1
B = 0 J 0 0 .
2
Notice that we have implicitly included the fact that we want the currents to cancel each other in the
region of the smaller cylinder. We notice, however, that if we write d~ 0 , then z d~ = z z0 =
0 0 . Hance, we see that
1
~
Btotal = 0 J z d.
2

Physics 505, Classical Electrodynamics


Homework 8
Due Thursday, 4th November 2004
Jacob Lewis Bourjaily
Problem 5.11
Let us consider a circular loop of wire carrying a current I located at the center of a Cartesian
coordinate system with its normal having spherical angles 0 , 0 . Let us suppose that there is an applied
magnetic field Bx = B0 (1 + y) and By = B0 (1 + x).
a) We are to calculate the force acting on the loop explicitly. We are then to show that our tedious
calculation reproduces Jacksons (trivial) result in equation (5.69).
Notice that, in general, we know that the force on this system is
Z
F = J B d3 x.
However, the most convenient coordinates systems for B and J are not the same.
Therefore, this problem is essentially an exercise in coordinate transformations. Because
all of our transformations are orthogonal ones, they are trivialbut tedious. Let us
label our two coordinate systems M and M 0 for the obvious Cartesian system and
the one where the current I flows completely in the x0 -y 0 plane, respectively.
It is obvious that we can actively transform M into M 0 , obtaining expressions for x
0 , y0 , z0
in terms of x
, y, z, by first applying the rotation in 0 and then 0 . Specifically, we
see
0

cos 0 0 sin 0
cos 0
sin 0 0
x

y0 = 0
sin 0 cos 0 0 y ,
1
0
z0
sin 0 0 cos 0
0
0
1
z

cos 0 cos 0 cos 0 sin 0 sin 0


x

y ,
cos 0
0
= sin 0
sin 0 cos 0 sin 0 sin 0
cos 0
z

cos 0 cos 0 x
+ cos 0 sin 0 y sin 0 z
.
sin 0 x
+ cos 0 y
=
sin 0 cos 0 x
+ sin 0 sin 0 y + cos 0 z
Similarly, we can transform M 0 into M , obtaining expressions for x
, y, z in terms of
x
0 , y0 , z0 , by first applying the rotation in 0 and then 0 . Specifically, we see that
we can write

0
x

cos 0 sin 0 0
cos 0 0 sin 0
x

y = sin 0
cos 0 0
0
1
0 y0 ,
z
0
0
1
sin 0 0 cos 0
z0

0
cos 0 cos 0 sin 0 sin 0 cos 0
x

cos 0
sin 0 sin 0 y0 ,
= cos 0 sin 0
z0
sin 0
0
cos 0

cos 0 cos 0 x
0 sin 0 y0 + sin 0 cos 0 z0
0 + cos 0 y0 + sin 0 sin 0 z0 .
= cos 0 sin 0 x
sin 0 x
0 + cos 0 z0
Let us now reexpress J in the coordinate system M and B in terms of the polar angle
around the circular current in its plane. In M 0 , the natural coordinate system of
J, we have that
J() = aI = aI ( sin
x0 + cos
y0 ) ,
where we have used to represent the polar angle about the circular loop of current.
Inserting our work above for x
0 and y0 , we see that

sin cos 0 cos 0 cos sin 0


J() = aI sin cos 0 sin 0 + cos cos 0 .
sin sin 0
1

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Because to calculate the force, we must integrate over the entire loop of current, it
would be very nice to express B as a function of in M 0 . This can be done quite
straightforwardly:

1 + y()
1 + a (cos cos 0 sin 0 + sin cos 0 )
B() = B0 1 + x() = B0 1 + a (cos cos 0 cos 0 sin sin 0 ) .
0
0
Now, when we take the cross product, we can use the fact that any single trigonometric
function of will integrate to zero around the loop, unless the term is quadratic in
sin or cos (or any other even power). Therefore, we see that
(J B)x () =a2 IB0 sin2 sin 0 sin 0 + terms that vanish in the integral over ;
(J B)y () =a2 IB0 sin2 sin 0 cos 0 + terms that vanish in the integral over ;

(J B)z () =a2 IB0 sin2 cos 0 sin 0 cos 0 + cos2 cos 0 sin 0 sin 0 +

+ sin2 cos 0 sin 0 cos cos2 cos 0 sin 0 sin 0


+ terms that vanish in the integral over ;
=0 + terms that vanish in the integral over ;
Therefore, we can perform each of the integrations required for F almost trivially: we
will obtain a factor of from each. We have shown,

sin 0 sin 0
F = a2 IB0 sin 0 cos 0 .
0
o 
Let us compare this result with that we would have obtained using Jacksons equation
(5.69). This simply states that F = (m B) where m is the magnetic dipole
moment. In M 0 , m0 = a2 I(0, 0, 1). Transforming this according to our trivial
results above, we see that in M ,

sin 0 cos 0
m = a2 I sin 0 sin 0 .
cos 0
Now, we have that
F (m B) ,

(1 + y)) mx
= B0 (1 + x) my ,
0

my
= B0
,
mx

sin 0 sin 0
= a2 IB0 sin 0 cos 0 .
0
o 
It is clear that this rather easy calculation exactly reproduces our tedious efforts above.
b) We are to calculate the torque to lowest order and describe any observations about higher
contributions for the circular loop and for more general shapes.
While it is slightly unclear what lowest order implies, we can compute the torque
exactly. To do this, we will need to integrate over x0 (J B). Using our transformation matrices, it is a simple matter to see that the vector x in the integration can
be written
x = (cos cos 0 cos 0 sin sin 0 , cos cos 0 sin 0 + sin cos 0 , cos sin 0 ).

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 8

It is clear that when we take the cross product of this with J B, we will obtain
a horrendous expression of trigonometric functions. Luckily, as in the case above,
many of these will automatically vanish under integration over . Despite our nobel
intentions, we decided to evaluate this using a computer algebra package. After a
surprisingly long amount of computation, it determined that

Z 2
cos 0
.
cos 0
N=
x() (J() B())d = aIB0
0
sin 0 (cos 0 sin 0 )
o 
Now, we remark that based on this calculation, it is only important that the magnetic
dipole moment m remain unchanged. This will be the case for any planar loop of
current lying in the same plane as our circle with equal area. Therefore, the shape is
irrelevant as long as the area remains constant and the figure lies in the same plane.
Problem 5.13
Let us consider a sphere of radius a which carries a uniform surface charge distribution (). If the
sphere is rotated at constant angular velocity , then the associated current will induce a magnetic
potential. We are to determine the vector potential inside and outside the sphere.
Confined to the surface of the sphere (although we are leaving out the -functions for brevity), we see
that the current will be

J() = v = sin .
Now, following Jacksons discussion near equation (5.32), we know that the vector potential can be
expressed
Z
Z
0
J(r0 ) 3 0
0
sin 0 0
3
A(r) =
d
x
=
a
d.
0
4 |r r |
4
|r r0 |
We can expand 1/|r r0 | of the integrand in terms of the spherical harmonics. Doing this, we see that
ZX
X
`
`
0
4 r

3
(0 , 0 ) [sin 0 ( sin 0 x
+ cos 0 y)] d.
A(r) =
Y`m (, )Y`m
a
`+1
4
2` + 1 r+
`=0 m=`
After a lot of initial frustration, it becomes clear that the the expression in square-brackets can be
expressed in terms of the spherical harmonics too. Therefore, by the orthogonality conditions, only one
term will remain in the sum. Notice that
r
3
Y11 (, ) =
sin e ,
8
and therefore,
r
r
8
8
0
0
0
0
0
0
sin sin =
Im [Y11 ( , )]
and
sin cos =
Re [Y11 (0 , 0 )] .
3
3
Hence, we can compute directly,
ZX
X
`
`
r
1

A(r) = 0 a3
Y (, )Y`m
(0 , 0 ) [sin 0 ( sin 0 x
+ cos 0 y)] d,
`+1 `m
2` + 1 r+
`=0 m=`
r
Z `
n
o
`
r
8 X X
1

0
0
0
0
0
0
Y
(,
)Y
(
,

Im
[Y
(
,

)]
x

+
Re
[Y
(
,

)]
y

d,
= 0 a3
11
11
`m
`+1 `m
3
2` + 2 r+
`=0 m=`
r
Z
n
o
1
8
r
3

0
0
0
0
0
0
= 0 a
Y
(,
)Y
(
,

Im
[Y
(
,

)]
x

+
Re
[Y
(
,

)]
y

d,
11
11
11
11
2
3
3
r+
1
r
= 0 a3 2 sin ( sin
x + cos
y) ,
3
r+
A(r) =

r
1

0 a3 2 sin .
3
r+

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 8

It is clear that when we take the cross product of this with J B, we will obtain
a horrendous expression of trigonometric functions. Luckily, as in the case above,
many of these will automatically vanish under integration over . Despite our nobel
intentions, we decided to evaluate this using a computer algebra package. After a
surprisingly long amount of computation, it determined that

Z 2
cos 0
.
cos 0
N=
x() (J() B())d = aIB0
0
sin 0 (cos 0 sin 0 )
o 
Now, we remark that based on this calculation, it is only important that the magnetic
dipole moment m remain unchanged. This will be the case for any planar loop of
current lying in the same plane as our circle with equal area. Therefore, the shape is
irrelevant as long as the area remains constant and the figure lies in the same plane.
Problem 5.13
Let us consider a sphere of radius a which carries a uniform surface charge distribution (). If the
sphere is rotated at constant angular velocity , then the associated current will induce a magnetic
potential. We are to determine the vector potential inside and outside the sphere.
Confined to the surface of the sphere (although we are leaving out the -functions for brevity), we see
that the current will be

J() = v = sin .
Now, following Jacksons discussion near equation (5.32), we know that the vector potential can be
expressed
Z
Z
0
J(r0 ) 3 0
0
sin 0 0
3
A(r) =
d
x
=
a
d.
0
4 |r r |
4
|r r0 |
We can expand 1/|r r0 | of the integrand in terms of the spherical harmonics. Doing this, we see that
ZX
X
`
`
0
4 r

3
(0 , 0 ) [sin 0 ( sin 0 x
+ cos 0 y)] d.
A(r) =
Y`m (, )Y`m
a
`+1
4
2` + 1 r+
`=0 m=`
After a lot of initial frustration, it becomes clear that the the expression in square-brackets can be
expressed in terms of the spherical harmonics too. Therefore, by the orthogonality conditions, only one
term will remain in the sum. Notice that
r
3
Y11 (, ) =
sin e ,
8
and therefore,
r
r
8
8
0
0
0
0
0
0
sin sin =
Im [Y11 ( , )]
and
sin cos =
Re [Y11 (0 , 0 )] .
3
3
Hence, we can compute directly,
ZX
X
`
`
r
1

A(r) = 0 a3
Y (, )Y`m
(0 , 0 ) [sin 0 ( sin 0 x
+ cos 0 y)] d,
`+1 `m
2` + 1 r+
`=0 m=`
r
Z `
n
o
`
r
8 X X
1

0
0
0
0
0
0
Y
(,
)Y
(
,

Im
[Y
(
,

)]
x

+
Re
[Y
(
,

)]
y

d,
= 0 a3
11
11
`m
`+1 `m
3
2` + 2 r+
`=0 m=`
r
Z
n
o
1
8
r
3

0
0
0
0
0
0
= 0 a
Y
(,
)Y
(
,

Im
[Y
(
,

)]
x

+
Re
[Y
(
,

)]
y

d,
11
11
11
11
2
3
3
r+
1
r
= 0 a3 2 sin ( sin
x + cos
y) ,
3
r+
A(r) =

r
1

0 a3 2 sin .
3
r+

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Inside
Inside the sphere, we have that r+ = a and r = |r|. Inserting this directly into the expression above,
we wee that
1

A(r) = 0 a sin r.
3
The magnetic flux density is simply the curl of the vector potential, which is trivially computed to be
B(r) = A(r),
1

= 0 a sin r,
3

1
1

1 2
= 0 a
r sin2
r
r sin ,
3
r sin
r r

1
1
= 0 a
2r sin cos r 2 sin ,
3
r sin

2
Bint (r) = 0 a cos
r sin .
3
o 
Outside
Outside the sphere, we have that r+ = |r| and r = a. Inserting this directly into the expression
above, we wee that
1
1

A(r) = 0 a4 2 sin .
3
r
The magnetic flux density is simply the curl of the vector potential, which is trivially computed to be
B(r) = A(r),
sin
1
0 a4 2 ,
3
r


1
1
sin
1 sin
= 0 a4
r

,
3
r sin
r2
r r
r

1
1 2 sin cos
sin
= 0 a4
r

,
3
r sin
r2
r3

1
a4
Bint (r) = 0 3 2 cos
r + sin .
3
r

o 
Problem 5.15
Let us consider two long, straight, parallel wires separated by a distance d, carrying current I in
opposite directions. We are to describe the magnetic field H in terms of a magnetic scalar potential M
where H = M .
a) In the limit of d 0, we are to show that the two-dimensional dipole approaches

Id sin
+ O d2 /2 ,
M
2
where and are the standard polar coordinates.
From our work in class, we know that the magnetic scalar potential of a single infinitely
I
straight wire along the z-axis is simply given by M = 2
. This is also obvious from
Amp`eres law. Therefore, because the scalar potentials will linearly superimpose, the
the potential from the two wires is simply given by
I
(2 1 ) ,
2
where 1 (2 ) is the polar angle from wire 1 (2). However, this is not quite adequate
for our discussion because we are working in a frame where neither of the two wires
are collinear with the z-axis. Therefore, we should express this result in terms of the
total polar angle .
M =

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Inside
Inside the sphere, we have that r+ = a and r = |r|. Inserting this directly into the expression above,
we wee that
1

A(r) = 0 a sin r.
3
The magnetic flux density is simply the curl of the vector potential, which is trivially computed to be
B(r) = A(r),
1

= 0 a sin r,
3

1
1

1 2
= 0 a
r sin2
r
r sin ,
3
r sin
r r

1
1
= 0 a
2r sin cos r 2 sin ,
3
r sin

2
Bint (r) = 0 a cos
r sin .
3
o 
Outside
Outside the sphere, we have that r+ = |r| and r = a. Inserting this directly into the expression
above, we wee that
1
1

A(r) = 0 a4 2 sin .
3
r
The magnetic flux density is simply the curl of the vector potential, which is trivially computed to be
B(r) = A(r),
sin
1
0 a4 2 ,
3
r


1
1
sin
1 sin
= 0 a4
r

,
3
r sin
r2
r r
r

1
1 2 sin cos
sin
= 0 a4
r

,
3
r sin
r2
r3

1
a4
Bint (r) = 0 3 2 cos
r + sin .
3
r

o 
Problem 5.15
Let us consider two long, straight, parallel wires separated by a distance d, carrying current I in
opposite directions. We are to describe the magnetic field H in terms of a magnetic scalar potential M
where H = M .
a) In the limit of d 0, we are to show that the two-dimensional dipole approaches

Id sin
+ O d2 /2 ,
M
2
where and are the standard polar coordinates.
From our work in class, we know that the magnetic scalar potential of a single infinitely
I
straight wire along the z-axis is simply given by M = 2
. This is also obvious from
Amp`eres law. Therefore, because the scalar potentials will linearly superimpose, the
the potential from the two wires is simply given by
I
(2 1 ) ,
2
where 1 (2 ) is the polar angle from wire 1 (2). However, this is not quite adequate
for our discussion because we are working in a frame where neither of the two wires
are collinear with the z-axis. Therefore, we should express this result in terms of the
total polar angle .
M =

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 8

It is not quite clear which geometric identity will yield the desired result, but it is not
hard to demonstrate that the result is reasonable. In particular, a simple diagram of
the situation and the Law of Sines shows one that
sin(1 2 )
sin 1
sin 2
=
=
.
d
2
1
Now, because in the limit where d, (1 2 ) 0, we can use the small angle
approximation to see that sin(1 2 ) = 1 2 + O((1 2 )2 ). Also in this limit,
we have that 2 = + O((1 2 )2 ) and that sin 1 = sin + O((d/)2 ). Therefore,
we see that
d sin
1 2
+ O((d/)2 ).

Combining this with our expression for the scalar potential as a superposition of the
scalar potentials from each wire independently, we see that
M

Id sin
+ O d2 /2 .
2

b) Let us now consider the closely space wires to be centered in a hallow cylinder of steel, with
inner (outer) radius a(b) and magnetic permeability = r 0 . We are to determine the magnetic
scalar potential in the three regions, 0 < < a, a < < b, and > b. We are to show that
the field outside the cylinder is a two-dimensional dipole field, as in part a above, but with a
strength reduced by the factor
f=

4r b2
2

(r + 1) b2 (r 1) a2

Let us call the three regions I, II, and III, for the interior, steel, and outside regions,
respectively. From our work with the Laplace equation in cylindrical coordinates, we
know that the solutions wee necessarily be of the form
I:
II :
III :

1 (, ) =
2 (, ) =
3 (, ) =

X
Id
sin +
n n sin(n);
2
n=1

n=1

n n + n n sin(n);

n n sin(n),

n=1

where the coefficients are set by the boundary conditions1. Specifically, these boundary conditions are the continuity requirements for the magnetic flux density, given in
Jacksons equation (5.88),
I II
B1 n|=a = B2 n|=a
H1 n|=a = H2 n|=a

II III
B2 n|=b = B3 n|=b
H2 n|=b = H3 n|=b

These equations directly correlate into expressions which will determine the unknown
parameters n , n , n , and n . To determine these, we recall that H = m and
B = H inside the steel and B = 0 H in vacuum. Using the gradient in cylindrical
coordinates, these constraints become,
I II
0 1|=a = 2|=a
1
1

a 1 =a = a 2 =a

II III
2 |=b = 0 3|=b
1
1

b 2 =b = b 3 =b

1Notice that our expression for region I is only applicable with the additional constraint that d.

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Specifically, these correspond to the system,


0

X
X

Id
n1
sin

nn an1 nn an1 sin(n);


n
a
sin(n)
=

0
n
2
2a
n=1
n=1

X
X

Id
n1
cos

+
n
a
cos(n)
=
nn an1 + nn an1 cos(n);
n
2
2a
n=1
n=1

X
X

n1
n1

nn b
nn b
sin(n) = 0
nn bn1 sin(n);
n=1

n=1

nn bn1 + nn bn1 cos(n) =

n=1

nn bn1 cos(n).

n=1

From the first equation, it is obvious that n = 0 n > 1 because the polynomials
on the right and left hand sides must match order by order. Also from the first
equation, we see that n = r n where r = /0 for the same reason for n > 1.
Similarly, by looking at the third equation, we see that n = 0 n > 1; also from
the third equation, we have that n = r n for the same reason for n > 1. Putting
this together, we see that all of the coefficients vanish for n 2.
Let us consider the n = 1 coefficients. In this case, we obtain the system (after getting
rid of the redundant trigonometric factors),


Id
1 r r /a2
0
1
2a
2
1 1 1/a2
1 Id 2
0

= 2a .
2
2

0 r r /b
1/b 1
0
0
1
1/b2
1/b2
1
0
Using a computer algebra package to save time for sleeping, we find immediately that
1 =

Id
4r b2
.
2 (r + 1)2 b2 (r 1)2 a2

Therefore, we see that the field outside of the steel cylinder is a two-dimensional dipole
field, as in part a, but with a strength reduced by the factor
f=

4r b2
2

(r + 1) b2 (r 1) a2

.
o 

Problem 5.19
Let us consider a magnetically hard material in the shape of a right circular cylinder of length L and
radius a. The cylinder has a permanent magnetization M0 , uniform throughout its volume and parallel
to its axis.
We are to determine the magnetic field H and the magnetic induction B at all points on the axis of
the cylinder, both inside and outside.
Let us begin our analysis with Jacksons equation (5.100). Specifically, we can describe this situation in terms of a magnetic scalar potential, M which is given by the expression,
Z
Z
1
0 M(x0 ) 3 0
n0 M(x0 ) 0
1
d
x
+
da .
M =
4 |x x0 |
4 |x x0 |
Notice that the first integral will vanish because M(x0 ) is constant throughout the cylinder and hence
its divergence vanishes. The second integral will only obtain contributions from the two circular faces of
the cylinder because everywhere else the magnetization is orthogonal to the cylinders normal. Therefore
M = 1 + 2 where 1 , 2 are the contributions from the top (z > 0) and bottom faces, respectively.

Physics 505, Classical Electrodynamics


Homework 9
Due Thursday, 11th November 2004
Jacob Lewis Bourjaily

Problem 5.18
Let us consider a circular loop of wire having radius a and carrying current I located in vacuum with
its center a distance d away from a semi-infinite slab of permeability .
a) We are to find the force acting on the loop in the case when the plane of the loop is parallel to
the face of the slab.
It is clear that this problem is equivalent to one with the semi-infinite slab replaced by an
appropriately chosen image current located a distance d in the (z)-direction. Before
going through the extraneous effort to find this image current, we notice that this
problem is solved in rather strong generality in problem (5.17); quoting the result,
we see that the image current I 0 = 1
+1 I and will be located symmetrically in the
(z)-direction.
R
Because the force is nothing other than F = I 0 d` B, the problem of computing the
force reduces to finding the magnetic inductance by the ring of image current. In a
spherical coordinate system centered on the original current and obviously oriented,
with the center of the image current located at (2d,
we see that the image
0, 0),

2d
2
2
current is located at r = a + 4d and = arccos a2 +4d2 .
In section 5 of Jacksons text, the magnetic inductance of such a current distribution is
completely worked out. Its two non zero components, r and -directions, are given
by (in the location of the current loop)

0 Ia X (1)n (2n + 1)!!


2d
a2n+1

Br =
P
;
n+3/2 2n+1
2 n=0
2n n!
a2 + 4d2
(a2 + 4d2 )

0 Ia X (1)n (2n + 1)!!


a2n+1
2d
1

B =
P
.
4 n=0 2n (n + 1)! (a2 + 4d2 )n+3/2 2n+1
a2 + 4d2
Therefore, we can compute the force acting on the current directly.
Z
0
F=I
d` B,
Z

= I0
d`Br d`B r ,
Z

Z
B rd` ,
= I 0 Br d`
= 2aI 0 (sin Br + cos B ) z,
2I 0 a2
=
(aBr + 2dB ) z
a2 + 4d2
Putting this all together, we see that

a
0 ( 1)I 2 a2 X (1)n (2n + 1)!!
a2n+1
2d
d
2d
1

F=

P
z.
n+2 n! P2n+1
+1
2n
(n + 1)! 2n+1
a2 + 4d2
a2 + 4d2
(a2 + 4d2 )
n=0
o 
b) We are to find the force acting on the loop in the case where the plane of the loop is perpendicular
to the face of the slab.
I did it quite wrong the first time; Looks like a mess to fix up; I need my sleep. Sorry
Ben.
1

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

c) Let us assess the above in the limit where d a.


Let us begin our analysis with the force derived in part a above. The limit where d a
is equivalent to the limit where a 0 and yet d/a remains constant. Therefore, it is
clear that this limit is obtained by keeping only the lowest order in a. Specifically,
we see that
i
0 ( 1) 2 2 h a
F'
I a
(a cos + d sin ) z,
4
+1
16d

a
0 ( 1) 2 2 a
2d

=
I a
a
+
d
z,
+1
16d4
4d2
4d2
0 ( 1) 2 2 a
a
I a
z,
=
a
+
+1
16d4
2
F'
da

0 ( 1) 3I 2 a4
z.
+1
36d4
o 

Notice that this limit is the same as the requirement that the circular current is
an idealized magnetic dipole with dipole moment m = Ia2 z (and that the image
current is m0 = I 0 a2 z. From section seven of Jacksons text, we know that the
potential energy of dipole m due to m0 is given by U = m B, where B is the
magnetic inductance of a dipole m0 located at (2d, 0, 0). From section (5.6), this is
known to be
0 3
z (
z m0 ) m0
0 m0
B=
=
z.
4
(2d)3
2 8d3
Therefore, we have
U = m B =

0 mm0
,
2 8d3

0
II 0 2 a4 ,
16d3
0 ( 1) 1 2 4
=
I a .
+ 1 16d3
=

Now, to find the force, we differentiate w.r.t. 2d (because of our earlier assumptions)
and find that
0 ( 1) 1 2 4
F = (2d) U = 3
I a .
+ 1 32d4
Therefore, we see that
F'
da

0 ( 1) 3I 2 a4
z.
+1
36d4
o 

Problem 5.20
(copied from last weeks homework)
Starting from Jacksons problem (5.12) and the fact the magnetization M inside a volume bounded
by a surface is equivalent to a volume current density JM = ( M) and a surface current density
(M n), we are to show that in the absence of macroscopic conduction currents, the total magnetic
force on the body can be written
Z
Z
F=
( M) Be d3 x +
(M n) Be da,

where Be is the applied magnetic induction (not including the body in question) .
We will make use of a large number of trivial identities listed in the inside cover of Jacksons text and
elsewhere. Our derivation begins with the expression
Z
F=
JM Be d3 x,

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Specifically, these correspond to the system,


0

X
X

Id
n1
sin

nn an1 nn an1 sin(n);


n
a
sin(n)
=

0
n
2
2a
n=1
n=1

X
X

Id
n1
cos

+
n
a
cos(n)
=
nn an1 + nn an1 cos(n);
n
2
2a
n=1
n=1

X
X

n1
n1

nn b
nn b
sin(n) = 0
nn bn1 sin(n);
n=1

n=1

nn bn1 + nn bn1 cos(n) =

n=1

nn bn1 cos(n).

n=1

From the first equation, it is obvious that n = 0 n > 1 because the polynomials
on the right and left hand sides must match order by order. Also from the first
equation, we see that n = r n where r = /0 for the same reason for n > 1.
Similarly, by looking at the third equation, we see that n = 0 n > 1; also from
the third equation, we have that n = r n for the same reason for n > 1. Putting
this together, we see that all of the coefficients vanish for n 2.
Let us consider the n = 1 coefficients. In this case, we obtain the system (after getting
rid of the redundant trigonometric factors),


Id
1 r r /a2
0
1
2a
2
1 1 1/a2
1 Id 2
0

= 2a .
2
2

0 r r /b
1/b 1
0
0
1
1/b2
1/b2
1
0
Using a computer algebra package to save time for sleeping, we find immediately that
1 =

Id
4r b2
.
2 (r + 1)2 b2 (r 1)2 a2

Therefore, we see that the field outside of the steel cylinder is a two-dimensional dipole
field, as in part a, but with a strength reduced by the factor
f=

4r b2
2

(r + 1) b2 (r 1) a2

.
o 

Problem 5.19
Let us consider a magnetically hard material in the shape of a right circular cylinder of length L and
radius a. The cylinder has a permanent magnetization M0 , uniform throughout its volume and parallel
to its axis.
We are to determine the magnetic field H and the magnetic induction B at all points on the axis of
the cylinder, both inside and outside.
Let us begin our analysis with Jacksons equation (5.100). Specifically, we can describe this situation in terms of a magnetic scalar potential, M which is given by the expression,
Z
Z
1
0 M(x0 ) 3 0
n0 M(x0 ) 0
1
d
x
+
da .
M =
4 |x x0 |
4 |x x0 |
Notice that the first integral will vanish because M(x0 ) is constant throughout the cylinder and hence
its divergence vanishes. The second integral will only obtain contributions from the two circular faces of
the cylinder because everywhere else the magnetization is orthogonal to the cylinders normal. Therefore
M = 1 + 2 where 1 , 2 are the contributions from the top (z > 0) and bottom faces, respectively.

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 8

We can directly compute the contribution of the top face to the scalar potential. Here, we have that
Z 0
1
n M(x0 ) 0
1 (z) =
da ,
4
|x x0 |
Z a
1
d
=
M0 2

1/2 ,
4
2
0
2 + (z L/2)
2
Z 2
M0 a +(zL/2) du
,
=
4 (zL/2)2
u
q

M0
2
=
a2 + (z L/2) |z L/2| .
2
From the obvious symmetry of the problem we see that
q

M0
2
2
2 =
a + (z + L/2) |z + L/2| .
2
Let us now determine the magnetic field. We know that Hz = z M = z (1 + 2 ). Notice that
inside the cylinder 1 + 2 contains an additional M0 z relative to when |z| > L/22. Computing this
trivial derivative, we see that

M0
z L/2
z + L/2
0
|z| > L/2

Hz =
+

1/2

1/2
M
|z| L/2
2
0
2
2
a2 + (z + L/2)
a2 + (z L/2)
Now, notice that Bz = (Hz + M0 ) inside the cylinder and Bz = Hz outside the cylinder. Therefore,
the additional ambiguity is cancelled and we see that, both inside and outside the cylinder,

Bz =

M0

z + L/2
2

a2 + (z + L/2)

1/2 +

z L/2
2

a2 + (z L/2)

1/2 .
o 

Problem 5.20
Starting from Jacksons problem (5.12) and the fact the magnetization M inside a volume bounded
by a surface is equivalent to a volume current density JM = ( M) and a surface current density
(M n), we are to show that in the absence of macroscopic conduction currents, the total magnetic
force on the body can be written
Z
Z
F=
( M) Be d3 x +
(M n) Be da,

where Be is the applied magnetic induction (not including the body in question) .
We will make use of a large number of trivial identities listed in the inside cover of Jacksons text and
elsewhere. Our derivation begins with the expression
Z
F=
JM Be d3 x,

and using the form of J given in the problem, we can write


Z
Z
F=
( M) Be d3 x +
(M n) Be da.

In the first integrand, we have the expression ( M) Be = Be ( M). Now, we know that
Be ( M) = (M )Be + (Be )M + M ( Be ) (M Be ).
Notice that the curl of Be vanishes. Along similar lines, we see that
(M n) Be = Be (M n) = (B n)M + (M Be )n.
2In the other two cases, above and below the cylinder, + does not depend linearly on z and the constant factor
1
2
will vanish upon differentiation.

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 8

We can directly compute the contribution of the top face to the scalar potential. Here, we have that
Z 0
1
n M(x0 ) 0
1 (z) =
da ,
4
|x x0 |
Z a
1
d
=
M0 2

1/2 ,
4
2
0
2 + (z L/2)
2
Z 2
M0 a +(zL/2) du
,
=
4 (zL/2)2
u
q

M0
2
=
a2 + (z L/2) |z L/2| .
2
From the obvious symmetry of the problem we see that
q

M0
2
2
2 =
a + (z + L/2) |z + L/2| .
2
Let us now determine the magnetic field. We know that Hz = z M = z (1 + 2 ). Notice that
inside the cylinder 1 + 2 contains an additional M0 z relative to when |z| > L/22. Computing this
trivial derivative, we see that

M0
z L/2
z + L/2
0
|z| > L/2

Hz =
+

1/2

1/2
M
|z| L/2
2
0
2
2
a2 + (z + L/2)
a2 + (z L/2)
Now, notice that Bz = (Hz + M0 ) inside the cylinder and Bz = Hz outside the cylinder. Therefore,
the additional ambiguity is cancelled and we see that, both inside and outside the cylinder,

Bz =

M0

z + L/2
2

a2 + (z + L/2)

1/2 +

z L/2
2

a2 + (z L/2)

1/2 .
o 

Problem 5.20
Starting from Jacksons problem (5.12) and the fact the magnetization M inside a volume bounded
by a surface is equivalent to a volume current density JM = ( M) and a surface current density
(M n), we are to show that in the absence of macroscopic conduction currents, the total magnetic
force on the body can be written
Z
Z
F=
( M) Be d3 x +
(M n) Be da,

where Be is the applied magnetic induction (not including the body in question) .
We will make use of a large number of trivial identities listed in the inside cover of Jacksons text and
elsewhere. Our derivation begins with the expression
Z
F=
JM Be d3 x,

and using the form of J given in the problem, we can write


Z
Z
F=
( M) Be d3 x +
(M n) Be da.

In the first integrand, we have the expression ( M) Be = Be ( M). Now, we know that
Be ( M) = (M )Be + (Be )M + M ( Be ) (M Be ).
Notice that the curl of Be vanishes. Along similar lines, we see that
(M n) Be = Be (M n) = (B n)M + (M Be )n.
2In the other two cases, above and below the cylinder, + does not depend linearly on z and the constant factor
1
2
will vanish upon differentiation.

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Using these in our expression above, we see that


Z
Z
3
F=
( M) Be d x +
(M n) Be da,

Z
Z
= (M )Be + (Be )M d3 x (M Be ) d3 x +
(M Be )n (Be n)M da,

Z
Z
= (M )Be + (Be )M d3 x
(Be n)M da,

where in the last line we used the generalized Stokes theorem. Applying the identity,
Z
Z
Z
(C )D = ( C)D +
(C n)D,

to the last term in our expression for F, we have that


Z
Z
F = (M )Be + (Be )M d3 x (Be )M + ( Be )M d3 x,

Z
= (M )Be d3 x.

Inserting the useful identity quoted above, we see that this immediately implies that
Z
Z
F=
( M) Be d3 x +
(M n) Be da.

o 

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 9

and using the form of J given in the problem, we can write


Z
Z
3
F=
( M) Be d x +
(M n) Be da.

In the first integrand, we have the expression ( M) Be = Be ( M). Now, we know that
Be ( M) = (M )Be + (Be )M + M ( Be ) (M Be ).
Notice that the curl of Be vanishes. Along similar lines, we see that
(M n) Be = Be (M n) = (B n)M + (M Be )n.
Using these in our expression above, we see that
Z
Z
F=
( M) Be d3 x +
(M n) Be da,

Z
Z
3
3
(M Be )n (Be n)M da,
= (M )Be + (Be )M d x (M Be ) d x +

Z
Z
= (M )Be + (Be )M d3 x
(Be n)M da,

where in the last line we used the generalized Stokes theorem. Applying the identity,
Z
Z
Z
(C )D = ( C)D +
(C n)D,

to the last term in our expression for F, we have that


Z
Z
F = (M )Be + (Be )M d3 x (Be )M + ( Be )M d3 x,

Z
= (M )Be d3 x.

Inserting the useful identity quoted above, we see that this immediately implies that
Z
Z
3
F=
( M) Be d x +
(M n) Be da.

o 
Problem 5.22
We are to show that in general, a long, straight bar of uniform cross-sectional area A with uniform
lengthwise magnetization M , when placed with its flat end against an infinitely permeable flat surface,
adheres with a force given approximately by F ' 20 AM 2 .
The infinite permeability of the flat plate implies that H must vanish inside. Furthermore, because
there are no free currents we know that this should be describable by a magnetic potential with an image
bar along the axis of the real bar. Furthermore, we know that H must be entirely perpendicular to the
surface of the bar because it is an equipotential.
From our solution to Jacksons (5.20), we know that the force is given by
Z
Z
F=
( M) B d3 x +
(M n) B da.

Now, we know that M = 0 and so the first term vanishes. Furthermore, using our solution to
Jacksons (5.19) we know that the magnetic inductance is given by

B=

z
z+L
M

1/2 z.
1/2
2
2
2
2
(a + z )
2
a + (z + L)

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

R
In the limit where A is small, we know that M n ' AM and so
Z
F=
(M n) B da,

' AM (B(L) B(0)) ,

1
1
2

z,
= aM L
a 2 + L2
a2 + 4L2
= AM 2 z + O(1/L),
F ' AM 2 z.
o 

Problem 5.27
Let us consider a circuit consisting of a long thin conducting shell of radius a and a parallel return
wire of radius b on axis inside. If the current is assumed distributed uniformly throughout the cross
section of wire, we are to calculate the self-inductance per unit length and determine the self-inductance
if the inner conductor is a thin hollow tube.
This problem is conveniently solved by first using Amp`eres law in integral form to see that the
magnetic inductance is
I
2b2 0 < < b
0 I
B=

b<<a .
2
0
> a.
Now, we can compute the self-inductance by the relation,
Z
1
1
B H,
W = LI 2 =
2
2
Z
1
=
B2 ,
20
2
2
Z
Z a
2 b
2
d
I
0 I
3
=

d
+
,
2
2 0 2b
20 b
2

a i
I2 h
+ 0 log
.
=
4 4
b
Notice that above, we have explicitly computed the energy in the magnetic field per unit length. Therefore, we see that the inductance per unit length is clearly
a i
1 h
L=
+ 0 log
.
4 4
b
o 
Now, if the inner wire were a hollow, thin cylinder, then the magnetic induction would vanish for
< b (by Amp`eres law). This would only alter the first term in the above expression, setting it to zero.
In this case, one would obtain,
a
0
log
.
L=
4
b
o 

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

R
In the limit where A is small, we know that M n ' AM and so
Z
F=
(M n) B da,

' AM (B(L) B(0)) ,

1
1
2

z,
= aM L
a 2 + L2
a2 + 4L2
= AM 2 z + O(1/L),
F ' AM 2 z.
o 

Problem 5.27
Let us consider a circuit consisting of a long thin conducting shell of radius a and a parallel return
wire of radius b on axis inside. If the current is assumed distributed uniformly throughout the cross
section of wire, we are to calculate the self-inductance per unit length and determine the self-inductance
if the inner conductor is a thin hollow tube.
This problem is conveniently solved by first using Amp`eres law in integral form to see that the
magnetic inductance is
I
2b2 0 < < b
0 I
B=

b<<a .
2
0
> a.
Now, we can compute the self-inductance by the relation,
Z
1
1
B H,
W = LI 2 =
2
2
Z
1
=
B2 ,
20
2
2
Z
Z a
2 b
2
d
I
0 I
3
=

d
+
,
2
2 0 2b
20 b
2

a i
I2 h
+ 0 log
.
=
4 4
b
Notice that above, we have explicitly computed the energy in the magnetic field per unit length. Therefore, we see that the inductance per unit length is clearly
a i
1 h
L=
+ 0 log
.
4 4
b
o 
Now, if the inner wire were a hollow, thin cylinder, then the magnetic induction would vanish for
< b (by Amp`eres law). This would only alter the first term in the above expression, setting it to zero.
In this case, one would obtain,
a
0
log
.
L=
4
b
o 

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 9

Problem 5.29
Consider a collection of two (path-disconnected) perfect conductors of arbitrary, but constant cross
section. Equal but opposite currents flow through each in some specified direction. We are to show that
the product of the inductance per unit length L and the capacitance per unit length C is LC = where
and are the permeability and the permittivity of the medium surrounding the conductors.
We will assume that a perfect conductor has no resistance (i.e., the two objects are superconductors). We know that no magnetic fields exist within superconductors, and so there is only charge
and current densities on the surfaces of the two conductors. Furthermore, because the current flows in

the z-direction, there is no vector-potential in the r- or -directions.


Let us briefly compute the scalar and vector potentials. We see that, if 1 , 2 are the charge-densities
on the surfaces of the first and second objects, respectively, then

Z
Z
2 (, )
1
1 (, )
dd +
dd ,
(, ) =
4
|r r0 |
|r r0 |
and
Z

Z
I
1 (, )
2 (, )
A(, ) =
dd
+
dd
z.
4q
|r r0 |
|r r0 |
Notice that we have that
I
A =
z,
q
where q is the charge per unit length on the surface of either conductor (which is the same for both
because they are carrying equal magnitude currents).
Notice that the magnitudes of E and B are related to one another. This is because
2
2

1
E = =
+
= E2 =
+
,


and, similarly,

Az
I

1
I2
1 Az

=
+

= B2 = 2 2 2 E2 .
B=A=


q
R
2
q
Recall that the energy contained in the electric field per unit length is given by 21 C = 2 E2 where C
is the capacitance per unit length. Similarly, the energy contained in the magnetic field per unit length
R 2
2
1
is 12 LI 2 = 2
B . But because B2 = 2 2 Iq2 E2 , we have that
Z
Z
1 2
1
1
I2
LI =
B2 = 2 2
E2 m,
2
2
2
q
but from the expression for the energy in the electric field,
Z
q2
E2 =
,
C
and therefore,
1 I2
1 2
LI = .
2
2 C
Hence, it is clear that
LC = .
o 

Physics 505, Classical Electrodynamics


Homework 10
Due Thursday, 18th November 2004
Jacob Lewis Bourjaily

Problem 6.2
Consider the charge and current densities for a single point charge q. Formally, these are given by
(x0 , t0 ) = q [x0 r(t0 )]

J(x0 , t0 ) = qv(t0 ) [x0 r(t0 )] ,

where r(t0 ) is the charges position at time t0 and v(t0 ) is its velocity. While evaluating the expressions
involving retarded time, we must put t0 = tret = t R(t0 )/c, where R = x r(t0 ) and R = x x0 (t0 )
inside delta functions.
a) We are to show that
Z
1
d3 x0 [x0 r(tret )] = ,

where 1 v R/c, where is evaluated at retarded time.


Recall the trivial identity of the Dirac -function,
[f (x)] =

(x x0 )
,
(f /x)|x=x0

where x0 is a root of f (x). Setting f (x0 ) = [x0 r(tret )] in the expression above, x0
is such that x0 = r(tret ). Inserting this directly, we find

0
0
0
[x r(tret )] = (x x0 )
(x r(tret ))
,
x0
x0 =x0
1

0
r(tret )
,
= (x x0 ) 1
x0
x0 =x0

1
r
1
0
0 0
= (x x0 ) 1
t |x x (t )|
,
t x0
c
x0 =x0

1
r 1 x x0
0
= (x x0 ) 1
,
t c |x x0 | x0 =x0

1
r 1 x r(t0 )
= (x0 x0 ) 1
,
t c |x r(t0 )|

= (x0 x0 ) 1 v R/c
,
=

(x0 x0 )
,

Z
1
d3 x0 [x0 r(tret )] = .

o 

b) Starting with the Jefimenko generalizations of the Coulomb and Biot-Savart laws, we are to use
the expressions for the charge and current densities for a point charge and the result of part
a above to obtain the Heaviside-Feynman expressions for the electric and magnetic fields of a
point charge.
Let us begin with the electric field. The Jefimenko generalization is given by
(

)
Z

(x0 , t0 )
R
R
1
J(x0 , t0 )
1
3 0
0 0
d x
[(x , t )]ret +
2
.
E(x, t) =
40
R2
cR
t0
c R
t0
ret
ret
1

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

E(x, t) =

1
40

1
40

q
40

q
40

q
40

Directly inserting our current and charge densities, following out the algebra and
using our result from part a, we have
(

)
Z
0 0
(x0 , t0 )

R
1
J(x
,
t
)
R
[(x0 , t0 )]ret +
2
d3 x0
,
R2
cR
t0
c R
t0
ret
ret
(

)
Z


R
R

1
3 0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
d x
q [ (x r(t ))]ret +
q
(x r(t ))
v(t ) (x r(t ))
2 q
,
R2
cR t0
c R t0
ret
ret
)
(
Z

R
R
[ (x0 r(t0 ))]ret 2
[v(t0 ) (x0 r(t0 ))]ret ,
d3 x0
[ (x0 r(t0 ))]ret +
R2
cR t
c R t
#
#
(Z
"
"
)

Z
Z

R
R
1
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
3 0
3 0
3 0
(x r(t ))
+
(x r(t ))

v(t ) (x r(t ))
,
d x
d x
d x
R2
t
cR
t
c2 R
ret
ret
ret
("
#
"
#

1
+

v(t0 )
,
R2
t cR
t c2 R
ret
ret

ret

q
E(x, t) =
40

("

R
R2

#
ret

"
#

R
+
ct R

ret

1
0
2
v(t )
.
c t R
ret
o 

Notice that in the above, we have used the fact that R does not explicitly depend
on t.
Let us now do the analogous calculation for the magnetic field. The Jefimenko generalization is given by
(
)

0
R
J(x0 , t0 )
R
0 0
3 0
B(x, t) =
.
d x [J(x , t )]ret 2 +

4
R
t0
cR
ret
Directly inserting our current and charge densities and computing directly, we have
(
)

Z
0 0

0
J(x
,
t
)
R
R
B(x, t) =
d3 x0 [J(x0 , t0 )]ret 2 +

,
4
R
t0
cR
ret
(
)

q0

R
R
3 0
0
0
0
0
0
0
=
d x [v(t ) (x r(t ))]ret 2 +
v(t ) (x r(t ))

,
4
R
t0
cR
ret
(Z
"
"
#
# )
Z

q0
v

R
v

=
d3 x0
(x0 r(t0 ))
d3 x0
(x0 r(t0 ))
,
+
4
R2
t
cR
ret
ret
("
#
"
# )

q0
vR
vR
=
+
,
4
cR2
t cR
ret

0 q
B(x, t) =
4

("

ret

vR
2
cR

#
ret

"
#

vR
+
ct
R

)
.
ret

o 

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 10

Problem 6.9
We are to discuss the conservation of energy and linear momentum for a macroscopic system of sources
and electromagnetic fields in a uniform, isotropic medium described by a permittivity and a permeability . We are to derive the canonical energy density, Poynting vector, field-momentum density, and
Maxwell stress tensor.
A little bit surprised by the problem, we recall from chapters 4 and 5 of Jacksons text that the
energy density of the electric and magnetic fields are, respectively,
Z
Z
1
1
3
WE =
E D d x and WB =
H B d3 x.
2
2
In a linear medium with the given permittivity and permeability, we have that D = E and B = H.
It is quite obvious therefore that the energy density will be given by

1 2
u=
E + H2 .
o 
2
Although we could simply restate the exact arguments presented in Jacksons section 6.7, we believe
this would be an utter waste of time. We hope that Ben will understand our reluctance to copy obvious
statements from the text. We find that the Poynting vector is simply
S = E H.

o 

For the field-momentum density, we similarly refer to Jacksons section 6.7. Following the discussion
up to equation 6.117, we see that
Z
Pfield =
E H d3 x,

which of course implies that the field-momentum density is simply


g = E H.

o 

As we have done above, we notice that Jackson derives the Maxwell stress tensor in section 6.7 and
arrives at the expression

1
1
1
T = E E + B B
E E + B B .

Inserting our expression B = H, we see that this quickly reduces to the desired

1
2
T = E E + H H E + H
.
2

o 

Problem 6.10
We are to discuss the conservation of angular momentum and derive the differential and integral forms
of the conservation law.
It is not entirely clear to what extent we are supposed to show this fact. It is rather clear that
the exact analogue of the momentum conservation law is given by
Z
I
d
(r gmech + r gfield ) d3 x =
r T n da,
dt

Z
I

d
(Lmech + Lfield ) d3 x =
r T n da,
dt

Z
I

d
3
(Lmech + Lfield ) d x =
n M da,
dt

Z
I

(Lmech + Lfield ) d3 x +
n M da = 0.
dt

o 
It is fairly obvious that the differential form of the above is simply given by

(Lmech + Lfield ) + M = 0.
t

o 

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 10

Problem 6.9
We are to discuss the conservation of energy and linear momentum for a macroscopic system of sources
and electromagnetic fields in a uniform, isotropic medium described by a permittivity and a permeability . We are to derive the canonical energy density, Poynting vector, field-momentum density, and
Maxwell stress tensor.
A little bit surprised by the problem, we recall from chapters 4 and 5 of Jacksons text that the
energy density of the electric and magnetic fields are, respectively,
Z
Z
1
1
3
WE =
E D d x and WB =
H B d3 x.
2
2
In a linear medium with the given permittivity and permeability, we have that D = E and B = H.
It is quite obvious therefore that the energy density will be given by

1 2
u=
E + H2 .
o 
2
Although we could simply restate the exact arguments presented in Jacksons section 6.7, we believe
this would be an utter waste of time. We hope that Ben will understand our reluctance to copy obvious
statements from the text. We find that the Poynting vector is simply
S = E H.

o 

For the field-momentum density, we similarly refer to Jacksons section 6.7. Following the discussion
up to equation 6.117, we see that
Z
Pfield =
E H d3 x,

which of course implies that the field-momentum density is simply


g = E H.

o 

As we have done above, we notice that Jackson derives the Maxwell stress tensor in section 6.7 and
arrives at the expression

1
1
1
T = E E + B B
E E + B B .

Inserting our expression B = H, we see that this quickly reduces to the desired

1
2
T = E E + H H E + H
.
2

o 

Problem 6.10
We are to discuss the conservation of angular momentum and derive the differential and integral forms
of the conservation law.
It is not entirely clear to what extent we are supposed to show this fact. It is rather clear that
the exact analogue of the momentum conservation law is given by
Z
I
d
(r gmech + r gfield ) d3 x =
r T n da,
dt

Z
I

d
(Lmech + Lfield ) d3 x =
r T n da,
dt

Z
I

d
3
(Lmech + Lfield ) d x =
n M da,
dt

Z
I

(Lmech + Lfield ) d3 x +
n M da = 0.
dt

o 
It is fairly obvious that the differential form of the above is simply given by

(Lmech + Lfield ) + M = 0.
t

o 

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Problem 6.11
Let us consider a transverse plane wave that is normally incident in vacuum on a perfectly absorbing
flat screen.
a) From the conservation of linear momentum, we are to show that the pressure exerted on the
screen is equal to the field energy per unit volume in the wave.
We can do this almost entirely in terms of units. Notice that the momentum transferred
to the screen is just the spacetime integral of g, the momentum density. We see that
in a time dt, momentum gc dadt is transferred to the screen on an area da, where c is
d dp
the speed of the radiation. The pressure is simply the force per unit area, dF
da = da dt
which is obviously gc.
By simple analysis of the units involved, gc is given in
energy time length
energy
momentum length
=
=
.
volume
time
volume length time
volume
Therefore, we see that the radiation pressure is simply the energy density.
b) In the neighborhood of the earth the flux of electromagnetic radiation from the sun is approximately 1.4kW/m2 . If an in interplanetary sailplane had a sail of mass 1g/m2 of area and
negligible other weight, what would be its maximum acceleration in meters per second squared
due to the solar radiation pressure?
For fun, let us solve this problem using only an analysis of units, like above. The
only relevant numbers for this problem are 1.4kW/m2 [=]kg/s3 , the speed of light,
299792458m/s, and the mass density of the sail, 103 kg/m2 . We are looking for a
solution with units m/s2 . It is relatively obvious that the solution has to be
1.4kg 1m2
1s
2
= 4.67 103 m/s .
s3 103 kg 299792458m/s
This is why I fear Ill corrupt young physics students someday. Cheers Jake.

Physics 505, Classical Electrodynamics


Homework 11
Due Tuesday, 30th November 2004
Jacob Lewis Bourjaily

Problem 6.15
Let us consider a conductor or semiconductor that has current induced by an applied electric field
with an applied, transverse magnetic field. With the applied magnetic field, the electric field obtains a
component orthogonal to both the applied electric and magnetic fields.
a) Using the vectorial nature of E and J and the dual nature of H, we are to determine E to second
order in H.
If we didnt remember that H was a 2-form and navely wrote down all the terms to
linear order in J and second order in H we would have
E = J + H + H J + (H H)J + (H J)H + O(H3 ).
This is almost identical to what we are looking for.
Notice that because J is contravariant vector like E, can be nonzero; and, in fact,
comparing this with the H = 0 case we see that = 0 , the resistivity.
Similarly, because H H is a scalaras opposed to a pseudoscalar can be nonzero;
Jackson chooses to call it 7 1 .
Because H is a 2-form (or sheaf field) and hence even under parity, must be zero.
Notice that H J is a pseudoscalar, odd under parity, (H J)H is even and so can be
nonzero; Jackson chooses to call it 7 2 .
Lastly, because H is odd under parity while H is even, we have that H J is odd and
so can in general be nonzero. I imagine that Hall chose to call it R.
Putting this all together, we have that
E = 0 J + R(H J) + 1 (H H)J + 2 (H J)H.
o 
b) We are to study the expression arrived at in part (a) above considering the time-reversal properties of the fields in question.
The electric field is even in time whereas both J and H are odd. Notice that because 0
is caused by resistancea phenomenon with a well defined arrow of timeit is odd
under t. This means that 0 J is still allowed.
The term H J is still allowed because the product of two objects odd in time is even in
time. However, unless 1 and 2 are odd in time they must be zero because (H H)J
and (H J)H are both odd.
Therefore, we restrict the expression to
E = 0 J + R(H J).
o 
Problem 6.18
Let us consider the Dirac equation for the vector potential of a magnetic monopole and its associated
string L on the z-axis,
Z
g
d` (x x0 )
A=
.
4 L |x x0 |3
a) We are to explicitly calculate A in spherical coordinates.
It is fairly obvious that the vectors r and lie in the plane spanned by d` and (x x0 )
which allow us to trivially conclude that Ar = A r d` (x x0 ) r = 0 and
similarly for A .
1

Physics 505, Classical Electrodynamics


Homework 11
Due Tuesday, 30th November 2004
Jacob Lewis Bourjaily

Problem 6.15
Let us consider a conductor or semiconductor that has current induced by an applied electric field
with an applied, transverse magnetic field. With the applied magnetic field, the electric field obtains a
component orthogonal to both the applied electric and magnetic fields.
a) Using the vectorial nature of E and J and the dual nature of H, we are to determine E to second
order in H.
If we didnt remember that H was a 2-form and navely wrote down all the terms to
linear order in J and second order in H we would have
E = J + H + H J + (H H)J + (H J)H + O(H3 ).
This is almost identical to what we are looking for.
Notice that because J is contravariant vector like E, can be nonzero; and, in fact,
comparing this with the H = 0 case we see that = 0 , the resistivity.
Similarly, because H H is a scalaras opposed to a pseudoscalar can be nonzero;
Jackson chooses to call it 7 1 .
Because H is a 2-form (or sheaf field) and hence even under parity, must be zero.
Notice that H J is a pseudoscalar, odd under parity, (H J)H is even and so can be
nonzero; Jackson chooses to call it 7 2 .
Lastly, because H is odd under parity while H is even, we have that H J is odd and
so can in general be nonzero. I imagine that Hall chose to call it R.
Putting this all together, we have that
E = 0 J + R(H J) + 1 (H H)J + 2 (H J)H.
o 
b) We are to study the expression arrived at in part (a) above considering the time-reversal properties of the fields in question.
The electric field is even in time whereas both J and H are odd. Notice that because 0
is caused by resistancea phenomenon with a well defined arrow of timeit is odd
under t. This means that 0 J is still allowed.
The term H J is still allowed because the product of two objects odd in time is even in
time. However, unless 1 and 2 are odd in time they must be zero because (H H)J
and (H J)H are both odd.
Therefore, we restrict the expression to
E = 0 J + R(H J).
o 
Problem 6.18
Let us consider the Dirac equation for the vector potential of a magnetic monopole and its associated
string L on the z-axis,
Z
g
d` (x x0 )
A=
.
4 L |x x0 |3
a) We are to explicitly calculate A in spherical coordinates.
It is fairly obvious that the vectors r and lie in the plane spanned by d` and (x x0 )
which allow us to trivially conclude that Ar = A r d` (x x0 ) r = 0 and
similarly for A .
1

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Therefore only A is non-vanishing. We should compute this in cartesian coordinates.


Here, we compute directlymaking use of a computer algebra package
Z 0
g
r sin dz 0
A =
,
4 (r2 2rz 0 cos + z 02 )3/2
g
tan (/2)
=
r sin 2
,
4
r sin
g
A =
tan (/2) .
4r
o 
b) We are to verify that B = A is the Coulomb-like field of a point magnetic charge (excluding
= ).
Because Ar = A = 0, it is clear that B = 0. Also, because rA is independent of r,
we see that B = 0 (the other contribution vanishes because Ar = 0). That leaves
us to compute trivially that
i
1
h g
g
Br =
(1 cos ) =
,
r sin 4r
4r2
which is exactly what we would expect from a point charge.
c) We are to evaluate the magnetic flux passing through a circular loop of radius R sin normal to
the line L, a height R cos above the x y plane.
For < /2, where the loop is above the line, we see directly that
Z
Z
g
B n da =
r2 d,
2
4r
Z
g 1
=
d cos ,
2 cos
g
= (1 cos ).
o 
2
Similarly, for > /2 we have directly that the upward flux is
Z
Z
g
r2 d,
B n da =
2
4r
Z
g cos
=
d cos ,
2 1
g
= (cos + 1).
o 
2
Notice that these computations ignore the contribution from the string.
H
d) We are to evaluate the magnetic flux passing through the loop as in part (c) above from A d`
and comment on the result.
For any , we have that
I
I
g 1 cos
A d` =
r sin d,
4r sin
g
= (1 cos ).
2
This agrees with part (c) for < /2 but for > /2 it is off by
I
Z
g
g
A d` B n da = (1 cos ) + (cos + 1) = g.
2
2
This is most likely a result of the fact that for < /2 the string is included in
the evaluation of part (c), whereas for > /2 the contribution from the string was
ignored.
Problem 6.19

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 11

a) We are to apply a parity transformation on the monopole vector potential in problem (6.18)
above and determine its vector potential.
The magnetic field, being a 2-form (or sheaf or pseudovector), is even under parity
and therefore g 7 g. Changing under parity in our expressions derived in
problem (6.18) above, we see trivially that
A0 =

g 1 cos( )
g 1 + cos
=
.
4r sin( )
4r sin

o 

b) We are to show that the difference A = A0 A can be expressed as the gradient of a scalar
field, so that parity is a gauge transformation.
Computing directly, we see that
g
g
(1 cos 1 + cos ) =
.
A =
4r sin
2r sin
Recalling that the gradient of a scalar field in spherical coordinates has the component given by
1
() =
,
r sin
we see that if
g
,
2
then = A as desired.
o 
c) We are to interpret the gauge in terms of Jacksons figure 6.9
This is not very enlightening. Following the discussion before Jacksons figure 6.9, we
see that we have the gauge transformation
g
g
A A0 = A
=A+
C .
2r sin
4
where C = 2.

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Problem 7.16
Let us consider plane waves propagating in a homogenous, nonpermeable but anisotropic dielectric.
The dielectric is characterized by the tensor ij . We will assume that the coordinate axes have been
chosen so that Di = i Ei where i are the eigenvalues of the tensor.
a) We are to show that plane waves with frequency and wave vector k satisfy
k (k E) + 0 2 D = 0.
This is relatively obvious enough. We know from our general studies of electromagnetic waves that in this principle axis system, E i ei(kxt) . Using simple vector
identities we have
k (k E) = (k E)k (k k)E.
But k Ethe wave vector is always orthogonal to the field. Hence the first term
above vanishes.
Also notice that k k = 0 2 i for the ith component of E. Therefore,
k (k E) = 0 2 i Ei = 0 2 D.
Hence,
k (k E) + 0 2 D = 0.

o 

c) We are to show that Da Db = 0 where Da , Db are the displacements associated with the two
modes of propagation.
This is quite obvious: the two modes of propagation are naturally orthogonalwe choose
orthogonal basesand so it is natural that Da Db = 0.
Problem 7.2
Let us consider a plane wave that is normally incident on two parallel layers with refraction indices
of each layer being n1 , n2 . We are to determine the thickness d of the second layer such that no wave is
reflected from the system at the frequency in terms of the refractive indices.
Let us work in the system where the z-axis is normal to the planesand hence parallel to the
direction of motion of the wavewith the origin at the surface of the first surface. From rather general
considerations the fields E1 , E2 , and E3 for the first medium, second medium and the air on the right
are given by
E1 = aeik1 z + beik1 z ,
E2 = eik2 z + eik2 z ,
E3 = eikz ,
where k1 = n1 c/, k2 = n2 c/ and = c/ and a, b, , , and are constants.
From continuity requirements of the electric and magnetic field at the interfaces, we have the constraints
a+b=+
n2
( )
ab=
n1
Notice that the second two imply that

1
=
1+
2

1
=
1
2

eik2 d + eik2 d = eikd ;


1 ikd
eik2 d eik2 d =
e .
n2

1
eid(kk2 ) ;
n2

1
eid(k+k2 ) .
n2

Now, the case in which there is no reflection is that where b = 0. We can solve for b using the above
system trivially and see that

n2
n2
2b = 1
+ 1+
.
n1
n1

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 12

Substituting our expressions for and and setting the above to zero, we have

n2
n2
0= 1
+ 1+
,
n1
n1

n2
1
n2
1
id(kk2 )
= 1
1+
e
+ 1+
1
eid(k+k2 ) ,
n1
n2
n1
n2

n2
1
n2
1
idk2
= 1
1+
e
+ 1+
1
eidk2 ,
n1
n2
n1
n2

n2
1
n2
1
1
1
idk2

e
+

eidk2 ,
= 1+
+ 1
n2
n1
n1
n2
n1
n1
n1 1
n2 n1
=
cos (dk2 ) + 2
i sin (dk2 ) = 0.
n2
n1 n2
For this to vanish, each of the two contributions must vanish separately. Because n1 1 0 and sin(dk2 )
can be nonzero in general, this implies that cos (dk2 ) = 0 and that n22 n1 = 0. The cosine vanishes if
and only if d = (i+1/2)
for some i Z. Therefore, we have that
k2
n2 =

n1

and

d=

(i + 1/2)c
| i Z.
n2

o 

Problem 7.3
Let us consider two parallel semi-infinite slabs of uniform, isotropic, nonpermeable, lossless dielectrics
with index n that are separated by an air gap (n = 1) of width d, and a linearly polarized electromagnetic
plane wave incident on the slabs with an angle to the normal of the air gap with its polarization
perpendicular to the plane of incidence.
a) We are to calculate the transmission and reflection from the gap.
We will assess this situation with the same notation as problem 7.2 above where we have
the various electric fields given by
E1 = aeik1 x + beik1 x ,
E2 = eikx + eikx ,
E3 = eik1 x ,
where k1 = nc/ and = c/ and a, b, , , and are constants. Notice that the
transmission fraction is given by T = ||2 /|a|2 , the ratio of the final wave magnitude
to the initial, incoming wave magnitude. Also, the reflection fraction is obviously
R = 1 T . Therefore it will be very useful for us to solve for a in terms of (or
vice versa).
The analysis is similar to that of problem 7.2 except that we must now allow for waves
which are nor normal to the surface. The conditions are spelled out rather explicitly
in Jacksons section 7.3 and it is obvious that our continuity requirements become
the following system of constraints,
eik + eik = eik1 ;

a+b=+
ab=

cos 0
( )
n cos

eik eik =

n cos ik1
e
;
cos 0

where d/ cos 0 , the distance travelled by the wave in going between the two
slabs. For the sake of simplicity, set n cos / cos 0 . Solving for , in terms of
, we see that
1
(1 + ) ei(k1 k) ;
2
1
= (1 ) eid(k1 +k) .
2

PHYSICS 505: CLASSICAL ELECTRODYNAMICS HOMEWORK 12

Substituting our expressions for and and setting the above to zero, we have

n2
n2
0= 1
+ 1+
,
n1
n1

n2
1
n2
1
id(kk2 )
= 1
1+
e
+ 1+
1
eid(k+k2 ) ,
n1
n2
n1
n2

n2
1
n2
1
idk2
= 1
1+
e
+ 1+
1
eidk2 ,
n1
n2
n1
n2

n2
1
n2
1
1
1
idk2

e
+

eidk2 ,
= 1+
+ 1
n2
n1
n1
n2
n1
n1
n1 1
n2 n1
=
cos (dk2 ) + 2
i sin (dk2 ) = 0.
n2
n1 n2
For this to vanish, each of the two contributions must vanish separately. Because n1 1 0 and sin(dk2 )
can be nonzero in general, this implies that cos (dk2 ) = 0 and that n22 n1 = 0. The cosine vanishes if
and only if d = (i+1/2)
for some i Z. Therefore, we have that
k2
n2 =

n1

and

d=

(i + 1/2)c
| i Z.
n2

o 

Problem 7.3
Let us consider two parallel semi-infinite slabs of uniform, isotropic, nonpermeable, lossless dielectrics
with index n that are separated by an air gap (n = 1) of width d, and a linearly polarized electromagnetic
plane wave incident on the slabs with an angle to the normal of the air gap with its polarization
perpendicular to the plane of incidence.
a) We are to calculate the transmission and reflection from the gap.
We will assess this situation with the same notation as problem 7.2 above where we have
the various electric fields given by
E1 = aeik1 x + beik1 x ,
E2 = eikx + eikx ,
E3 = eik1 x ,
where k1 = nc/ and = c/ and a, b, , , and are constants. Notice that the
transmission fraction is given by T = ||2 /|a|2 , the ratio of the final wave magnitude
to the initial, incoming wave magnitude. Also, the reflection fraction is obviously
R = 1 T . Therefore it will be very useful for us to solve for a in terms of (or
vice versa).
The analysis is similar to that of problem 7.2 except that we must now allow for waves
which are nor normal to the surface. The conditions are spelled out rather explicitly
in Jacksons section 7.3 and it is obvious that our continuity requirements become
the following system of constraints,
eik + eik = eik1 ;

a+b=+
ab=

cos 0
( )
n cos

eik eik =

n cos ik1
e
;
cos 0

where d/ cos 0 , the distance travelled by the wave in going between the two
slabs. For the sake of simplicity, set n cos / cos 0 . Solving for , in terms of
, we see that
1
(1 + ) ei(k1 k) ;
2
1
= (1 ) eid(k1 +k) .
2

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Solving for a in terms of , in our head and substituting for the above expressions
for , in terms of , we see that in the case where , are real,


1
1
1
a=
1+
+ 1
,
2

1
1 1
1 1
i(k1 k)
i(k1 +k)
1+
,
=
(1 + ) e
+ 1
(1 ) e
2
2
2

eik1
1
1
=
1+
(1 + ) eik + 1
(1 ) eidk ,
4

"
#

2
2

2ik

1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2 1
2ik
= |a| = | |
(1 + ) + 1
(1 x) + 1 +
1+
1
(1 + x) (1 ) e
+e
,
16

1 h
4
4
2
(
+
1)
+
(

1)

2
1

cos(2k)
,
= ||2
16 2
2 1
2
|a|
(4)
T =
=
.
||2
( + 1)4 + ( 1)4 2 (1 2 ) cos(2k)
o 
And it is obvious that
R =1T .
The case that , are real is exactly that when the angle of incidence is less than the
critical angle. In the case where the angle is greater than critical, then , are both
purely imaginary. This changes some of the algebra above. Specifically, we have that

eik1
1
1
ik1
idk
a=
1+
(1 + ) e
+ 1
(1 ) e
,
4

2 i
e2ik1 h
4 2ik
4 2ik
2
= |a|2 = | 2 |
|
+
1|
e
+
|

1|
e

2
Re
(

1)

+
1
,
16||2

e2ik1
= | 2 |
| + 1|4 e2ik + | 1|4 e2ik 2 1 6||2 + ||4 ,
2
16||

2
2 1
4||eik1
|a|
T =
=
.
||2
| + 1|4 e2ik + | 1|4 e2ik 2 (1 6||2 + ||4 )
o 
And it is obvious that
R =1T .
b) In the case there is greater than the critical angle, we are to discuss the limits of d 0 and
d .
When d 0, we see that all of the exponentials become the identity, we have that
16||2
= 1.
| + 1|4 + | 1|4 2 (1 6||2 + ||4 )
Similarly, we see that as d the transmission decays exponentially because
id/ cos 0 = d/| cos 0 | which is exactly what we expect.
T

JACOB LEWIS BOURJAILY

Problem 7.16
Let us consider plane waves propagating in a homogenous, nonpermeable but anisotropic dielectric.
The dielectric is characterized by the tensor ij . We will assume that the coordinate axes have been
chosen so that Di = i Ei where i are the eigenvalues of the tensor.
a) We are to show that plane waves with frequency and wave vector k satisfy
k (k E) + 0 2 D = 0.
This is relatively obvious enough. We know from our general studies of electromagnetic waves that in this principle axis system, E i ei(kxt) . Using simple vector
identities we have
k (k E) = (k E)k (k k)E.
But k Ethe wave vector is always orthogonal to the field. Hence the first term
above vanishes.
Also notice that k k = 0 2 i for the ith component of E. Therefore,
k (k E) = 0 2 i Ei = 0 2 D.
Hence,
k (k E) + 0 2 D = 0.

o 

c) We are to show that Da Db = 0 where Da , Db are the displacements associated with the two
modes of propagation.
This is quite obvious: the two modes of propagation are naturally orthogonalwe choose
orthogonal basesand so it is natural that Da Db = 0.
Problem 7.2
Let us consider a plane wave that is normally incident on two parallel layers with refraction indices
of each layer being n1 , n2 . We are to determine the thickness d of the second layer such that no wave is
reflected from the system at the frequency in terms of the refractive indices.
Let us work in the system where the z-axis is normal to the planesand hence parallel to the
direction of motion of the wavewith the origin at the surface of the first surface. From rather general
considerations the fields E1 , E2 , and E3 for the first medium, second medium and the air on the right
are given by
E1 = aeik1 z + beik1 z ,
E2 = eik2 z + eik2 z ,
E3 = eikz ,
where k1 = n1 c/, k2 = n2 c/ and = c/ and a, b, , , and are constants.
From continuity requirements of the electric and magnetic field at the interfaces, we have the constraints
a+b=+
n2
( )
ab=
n1
Notice that the second two imply that

1
=
1+
2

1
=
1
2

eik2 d + eik2 d = eikd ;


1 ikd
eik2 d eik2 d =
e .
n2

1
eid(kk2 ) ;
n2

1
eid(k+k2 ) .
n2

Now, the case in which there is no reflection is that where b = 0. We can solve for b using the above
system trivially and see that

n2
n2
2b = 1
+ 1+
.
n1
n1

Physics 505, Classical Electrodynamics


Homework 12
Due Friday, 10th December 2004
Jacob Lewis Bourjaily
Problem 7.28
Let us consider a circularly polarized plane wave moving in the z direction that has a finite extent
in the x and y directions. Assuming that the amplitude modulation is slowly varying, we are to give
approximations for the electric and magnetic fields.
Because the wave is circularly polarized, we can assume that its polarization has only a small longitudinal part (which is independent of z because it is plane wave). Therefore, the electric field should be
be of the form,
E = [E0 (e1 ie2 ) + F (x, y)e3 ] ei(kzt) .
Now by Maxwells equations we know that e must be divergenceless in free spaceor in a neutral
mediumso that E = 0. But this is simply the requirement that

E0
E0
i
+ ikF (x, y) ei(kzt) = 0.
E=
x
y
It is clear that this implies that
F (x, y) =

i
k

E0
E0
i
x
y

Hence, we have that

i
E = E0 (x, y) (e1 ie2 ) +
k

E0
E0
i
x
y

e3 ei(kzt) .
o 

We can find the field B using Maxwells equations. If E is slowly varying, then we may neglect second
derivatives of E0 . Solving directly, we have


B
i E0
E0
= E = E0 (x, y) (e1 ie2 ) +
i
e3 ei(kzt) ,
t
k x
y

E0
E0

e3 ei(kzt) ,
' kE0 (x, y)e1 + ikE0 (x, y)e2 + i
x
y
Integrating out time, we see that


1
E0
E0
ik
E0 (x, y)e1 + iE0 (x, y)e2 +
i

e3 ei(kzt) ,
B=
w
k
x
y


ik
1
E0
E0
=
E0 (x, y)e1 iE0 (x, y)e2 +
i

e3 ei(kzt) ,
w
k
x
y


i E0
E0

i
e3 ei(kzt) ,
= i E0 (x, y)e1 iE0 (x, y)e2 +
k x
y

B ' i E.
o 
Problem 7.29
For the circularly-polarized plane wave of problem 7.28 above and assuming that E0 is a real function,
we are to calculate the time-averaged component of angular momentum parallel to the direction of
propagation. We should compare this with the energy of the wave in vacuum and interpret this in terms
of photons.
(or simply the energy density) is given by u =
Recall that inin vacuum, the time averaged energy

1
1
2
2
2
2 |E| + |B| . In our situation, because B ' i B, we have that u = |E| .
For the angular momentum, we have that ` = r (E B) and because E and B are orthogonal vectors

(in complex space) we have that |E B| = |E|2 . The direction of propagation is given by the wave

2
vector vk and so ` = k|E| .
The ratio of the energy density to the angular momentum is therefore
c1
`

= k =
= 1 .
o 
u
c
This reminds us of the quantization of the photon whose angular momentum can only take on discrete
values (and only has two helicities).

Physics 505, Classical Electrodynamics


Homework 12
Due Friday, 10th December 2004
Jacob Lewis Bourjaily
Problem 7.28
Let us consider a circularly polarized plane wave moving in the z direction that has a finite extent
in the x and y directions. Assuming that the amplitude modulation is slowly varying, we are to give
approximations for the electric and magnetic fields.
Because the wave is circularly polarized, we can assume that its polarization has only a small longitudinal part (which is independent of z because it is plane wave). Therefore, the electric field should be
be of the form,
E = [E0 (e1 ie2 ) + F (x, y)e3 ] ei(kzt) .
Now by Maxwells equations we know that e must be divergenceless in free spaceor in a neutral
mediumso that E = 0. But this is simply the requirement that

E0
E0
i
+ ikF (x, y) ei(kzt) = 0.
E=
x
y
It is clear that this implies that
F (x, y) =

i
k

E0
E0
i
x
y

Hence, we have that

i
E = E0 (x, y) (e1 ie2 ) +
k

E0
E0
i
x
y

e3 ei(kzt) .
o 

We can find the field B using Maxwells equations. If E is slowly varying, then we may neglect second
derivatives of E0 . Solving directly, we have


B
i E0
E0
= E = E0 (x, y) (e1 ie2 ) +
i
e3 ei(kzt) ,
t
k x
y

E0
E0

e3 ei(kzt) ,
' kE0 (x, y)e1 + ikE0 (x, y)e2 + i
x
y
Integrating out time, we see that


1
E0
E0
ik
E0 (x, y)e1 + iE0 (x, y)e2 +
i

e3 ei(kzt) ,
B=
w
k
x
y


ik
1
E0
E0
=
E0 (x, y)e1 iE0 (x, y)e2 +
i

e3 ei(kzt) ,
w
k
x
y


i E0
E0

i
e3 ei(kzt) ,
= i E0 (x, y)e1 iE0 (x, y)e2 +
k x
y

B ' i E.
o 
Problem 7.29
For the circularly-polarized plane wave of problem 7.28 above and assuming that E0 is a real function,
we are to calculate the time-averaged component of angular momentum parallel to the direction of
propagation. We should compare this with the energy of the wave in vacuum and interpret this in terms
of photons.
(or simply the energy density) is given by u =
Recall that inin vacuum, the time averaged energy

1
1
2
2
2
2 |E| + |B| . In our situation, because B ' i B, we have that u = |E| .
For the angular momentum, we have that ` = r (E B) and because E and B are orthogonal vectors

(in complex space) we have that |E B| = |E|2 . The direction of propagation is given by the wave

2
vector vk and so ` = k|E| .
The ratio of the energy density to the angular momentum is therefore
c1
`

= k =
= 1 .
o 
u
c
This reminds us of the quantization of the photon whose angular momentum can only take on discrete
values (and only has two helicities).

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