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SAIL Management TraineeRecruitment MT Syllabus and
ExampatternFor 2010
TIME:3:00 hrs NEGATIVE-MARK : 0.25(Consolidated)
The pattern for SAIL Paper for Technical Posts is given below. There is a written test and a personal interview. The written
test comprises of the following five sections:NEGATIVE-MARK: 0.25
Separate sectional cut-offs will be there and overall cut-off will be there.
1.

2.

3.

SAIL MT written test : The test is for 3:00 hrsThere are five sections in the paper which are as follows a. section I The candidate will have to answer the questions based on Reasoning.The total marks will be 45.
b. section II Here the questions are based on quantitative ability. All the questions will carry 35 marks in total.
c. section III There will be General Awareness questions carrying 35 marks.
d. section IV A candidate has to attempt questions of 35 marks on Vocabulary& English language.
e. section V Lastly, there will be Technical paper of 100 marks which is specific to your stream.
Group Discussion ( GD ) & Interview : Those who gets selected in written exam are called for GD & interview.
In this, the capability of the candidate is checked. He should be up-to-date regarding the current affairs, whats all
in happening in the world etc. You should know about how to prepare for Job interview in details so that you
passed this stage also.for GD is similar as that for PSU.Hope this article will help you.
All the best for your exam.
INTERVIEW GUIDANCE will be provided by Sail employee at institute.

The number of questions in the exam is not fixed. It varies year to year. However the number of sections and the time
allotted is always the same. The time duration of the written test is 2 hours 30 minutes. Apart from the overall cut off there
will be sectional cut offs also.
1. If JANTA is coded as 26 and DEPOSIT as 52. How can be the code number for JANTA DEPOSIT SCHEME?
1. 265276
2. 265213
3.265287
4. 2652104
2. If SALEM is coded as RZKDL, how can MADRAS be coded?
1. NZESZR
2. LZESZT
3.LZCQZR
4. NBESBT
3. WCYB : AZBX : : ? : CGFE
1. DGEF
2.EFGD
3.EGFD
4. GFDE
4. EXPLOSION : DEBRIS : : ?
1. Train : Car
2. Bruise : Fall
3. Television : Dial
4. Locusts : Holocaust
5. Madness is to brain as paralysis is to
1. arms
2. face
3. body
4. nerves
Directions (Q 6-8): Below are given four statements. On the basis of these statements, answer the following questions.
Statements:
1. Ram and Sham play chess and cards.
2. Sham and Pappu play cards and carom.
3. Pappu and Sudhir play carom and ludo.
4. Ram and Sudhir play ludo and chess.
6. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and carom
1. Ram
2.Sham
3.Pappu
4.Sudhir

7. Name the boy who plays cards, carom and ludo

1. Sudhir
2.Pappu
3.Sham
4. Ram
8. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and ludo
1. Ram
2.Sham
3.Pappu
4.Sudhir
9. Madhubala is taller than Mugdha but shorter than Geeta who is not as tall as Raveena. Sudha is shorter than Geeta but
not as short as Mugdha. Who among them is the shortest?
1. Sudha
2. Mugdha
3.Madhubala
4. Data inadequate
10. How many such symbols are there in the following series, which are immediately preceded by an even number and
immediately followed by an odd number?
8 4 * 3 5 6 $ 5 8 7 % 9 4 3 # 7 6 2? 3 4 6 ?3 8 9 4 $ 5 9
1.Three
2.Five
3.Four
4. Six
Directions (Q. 11-13): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences, which can be drawn from the facts
stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its
degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer as:
1. if the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
2. if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given.
3. if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
4. if the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light of the facts given.
5. if the inference is definitely false i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
In the overall economy of India, agriculture is the largest sector of economic activity. It plays a crucial role in the countrys
economic development by providing food to its people and raw materials to industry. It accounts for the largest share to the
national income. The share of the various agricultural commodities, animal husbandry and ancillary activities has been more
than 40 percent of the fifties, it actually contributed about half of the national output.
11. Agriculture is the mainstay of Indian economy.
12. The contribution of agricultural sector has decreased in recent years.
13. Agriculture is the only source of income in India.
Directions (Q 14-16): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions
and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(1) if only assumption I is implicit.
(2) if only assumption II is implicit.
(3) if either I or II is implicit.
(4) if neither I nor II is implicit.
(5) if both I and II are implicit.
14. STATEMENT:
Use chlorine tablets for drinking water. A notice by municipal authority.
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. To drink water without using chlorine tablets is hazardous.
II. Municipal authority is providing chlorine tablets.
15. STATEMENT:
If we provide primary education to children of poor families and arrange good attendance in primary schools, then it will be a
great achievement in the field of education
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. Children of poor families do not go to good schools.
II. Children of poor families do not go to school regularly.

16. STATEMENT:
Chief Minister has cancelled all his programmes in Allahabad and he has left for capital by air A news.
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. These types of news are always in headlines.
II. There is an air-route between Allahabad and capital.
17. In a class of 33, 20 play cricket, 25 play football and 18 play hockey. 15 play both cricket and football, 12 play football
and hockey and 10 play cricket and hockey. If each student plays at least one game, how many students play only cricket?
1. 8
2. 6
3.4
4.2
18.mn _ m _ nm _ nm _ n
1. mmmm
2. nnnn
3. mnmn
4. nmnm
Directions (Q 19-20): Given below are pairs of events R and S. You have to read both the events R and S and decide
their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information given in R and S are true and you will not assume
anything beyond the given information in deciding the answer.
Give answer as:
1. If R is the effect and S is its immediate principal cause.
2. If R is the immediate and principal cause and S is its effect.
3. If R is its effect but S is not its immediate and principal cause.
4. If S is an effect but R is not its immediate and principal cause.
5. None of these
19. Event (R): Private bus operators are making good money these days.
Event (S): Delhi Transport Corporation has increased the fare due to hike in diesel price.
20. Event (R): The price of Personal Computer (PCs) have fallen in recent months.
Event (S): Some school children are showing great interest in learning computer.
Directions (Q 21-22): In this category of questions, a pair of words is given, which is followed by four pairs of words as
alternatives. A candidate is required to select the pair in which the words bear the same relationship which each other as the
words of the given pair bear or, a third part is given, and you are required to select the fourth part.
21. DCBA is related to ZYXW in the same way as HGFE is related to
1. RSTU
2.VUTS
3.STVU
4. UVST
22. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ?
1. 41
2. 65
3.56
4. 60
23. CASSOCK is to PRIEST as GRADUATE is to
1. Gown
2.Cap
3. Tie
4. Coat
Directions (Q 24): Make a meaningful word. Use the 2nd, 4th, 6th, 7th letters of the Capitalised word. Indicate the second
letter of the so formed new word.
24. SPECULATION
1. A
2.D
3.L
4. P
25. Which does not cope with others in the following?
1. navigator
2. sailor
3. pilot

4. narrator
Directions (Q 26-28): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have
to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer as
1. if only conclusion I follows
2. if only conclusion II follows
3. if either I or II follows
4. if neither I nor II follows
5. if both I and II follow
26. STATEMENTS:
1. No table is chair.
2. Some chairs are stools.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some tables are not stools.
II. Some stools are not tables.
27. STATEMENTS:
1. All magazines are books.
2. No book is novel.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. No novel is book.
II. No magazine is novel.
28. STATEMENTS:
1. Some tulips are roses.
2. Some roses are daffodils.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some tulips are roses.
II. All roses are tulips.
Direction (Q 29-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below
it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and give answer as:
1. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient
to answer the question.
2. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient
to answer the question.
3. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
29. Four plays M, N, O and P have been staged on four consecutive days one by one. When play P was staged?
STATEMENT:
I. First play was staged on Friday and immediately after it O was staged.
II. There is a gap of one day between N and O.
30. In a certain code language Pit Lit Nit means Red Paint Shirt. What is the code for Paint?
STATEMENT:
I. In that code language Nit Lit Rit Bit means Wash Red Paint Now.
II. In that code language JitCit Pit means Shirt is Dirty.
31. 23457 + 4236 + 79 = ?
1. 24732
2. 23782
3.27772
4.27872
5. None of these
32.
1.
2.
3.

4
5.
33. 145 x 55 + 84 x 35 = ?
1. 10495
2. 10365
3.10685
4.10915
5. 10725
34.
1. 325
2. 75
3.65
4.13
5. 31
35.
% of 1250 99
1. 784
2.729
3.576
4.676
5. 841
36. The greatest 5-digit number which is divisible by 99 is
1. 99999
2.99990
3.99909
4.99099
5. None of these
37. The ratio of 3.5 kg to 280 gm is
1. 2 : 25
2. 4 : 5
3. 25 : 2
4. 5 : 4
5. None of these
38. The compound ratio of 3 : 4, 8 : 15, 25 : 28 is
1. 3 : 28
2. 5 : 14
3. 14 : 5
4. 28 : 3
5. None of these
39. The least among the ratios 5 : 6, 7 : 8, 2 : 3, and 9 : 17 is
1. 5 : 6
2. 7 : 8
3. 2 : 3
4. 9 : 17
5. None of these
40. The ratio of the present ages of father and son is 8 : After 10 years the ratio of their ages would be 2 : the present age of
father is
1. 40 years
2. 45 years
3. 50 years
4. 55 years
5. None of these
41. The ratios of pure milk and water in two vessels are respectively 3 : 1 and 7 : If equal quantities of the mixtures of two
vessels are mixed together, then the ratio of pure milk and water in the new vessel is
1. 1 : 2
2. 2 : 1
3. 5 : 3
4. 3 : 5
5. None of these
42. 20% of 30% of 20% of Rs. 850 is
1. Rs. 19.40
2.Rs. 9.80
3.Rs. 10.20

4.Rs. 10.80
5. None of these
43. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, the final value of the number
1. does not change
2. decreases by 2%
3. increases by 4%
4. decreases by 4%
5. None of these
44. The entry ticket to a trade fair was increased by 20%. Due to this the umber of visitors was reduced by 10%. The daily
money receipts are then increased by
1. 8%
2.10%
2.12%
4.50%
5. None of these
45. The price of sugar is decreased by 10%. To restore to its original, the new price must be increased by
1.
2. 10 %
2. 11%
4.
5. 15%
46. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a purchaser to obtain 5 kg more sugar for Rs. The price of sugar per
kilogram before reduction is
1. Rs. 4.50
2.Rs. 5
3.Rs. 5.50
4.Rs. 8
5. None of these
47. The average age of 30 boys in a class is 16 years. The average of the ages of the boys and the teacher is 17 years. The
age of teacher is
1. 37 years
2. 39 years
3. 33 years
4. 47 years
5. None of these
48. The average age of 10 students in a group increases by 0.4 years when a girl of age 6 years is replaced by another girl.
The age of the new girl is
1. 16.4 yrs
2. 10 yrs
3. 12 yrs
4. 16 yrs
5. 20 yrs
49. The average height of 25 students in a class is 140 cm. five newly admitted students increase the average height by 1
cm. The average height of the set of 5 new student is
1. 146.2 cm
3.147 cm
3.145 cm
4.146 cm
5. 148 cm
50. Nine men went to a hotel. Eight of them spent Rs. 30 each over their meals and the ninth spent Rs. 20 more than the
average expenditure or all the nine. The total money spent by them was
1. Rs. 260
2.Rs. 262.50
3.Rs. 290
4.Rs. 292.50
5. None of these
Answer : First Part 1-5: 4,3,3,4,4,Second Part 6-10: 2,2,1,1,2, Third Part 11-15: 1,3,5,5,5, Fourth Part 16-20: 5,4,2,1,3,
Fifth Part 21-25: 2,2,1,3,4 Sixth Part 26-30: 2,5,4,4,4, Seventh Part 31-35: 3,2,4,4,2, Eight Part 36-40: 2,3,2,4,1,Ninth
Part 41-45: 2,3,4,1,4,Tenth Part 46-50: 2,4,2,4,4

SAIL English paper for MT Exam

Fill in the Blanks with appropriate Words
1. Please and Thank you are the little courtesies by which we keep
the.. of life oiled and running smoothly.
(a) river
(b) garden
(c) path
(d) machine
2. The bright colour of this shirt has. away.
(a) gone
(b) disappeared
(c) faded
(d) paled
3. One major .between the Election Commission and the Union
Government is related to the powers of the former in respect of the
deployment of central police forces at places where an election isheld.
(a) conflict (b) pain
(c) irritant (d) culprit
4.Even a glance will reveal the mystery
(a)crude
(b)cursory
(c) critical
(d) curious
5. His standard of living has. since his son joined service.
(a) lifted
(b) increased
(c) risen
(d) heightened
6. The passengers were afraid but the captain .them that there was no
danger.
(a) instructed
(b) advised
(c) promised
(d) assured
7. His first failure did not him from making another attempt.
(a) interfere
(b) forbid
(c) frighten
(d) deter
8. No one will .. you for having been rude to your teacher.
(a) exclaim

(b) admire
(c) advise
(d) recommend
9.The doctor .. the patient from taking certain medicines.
(a) banned
(b) prohibited
(c) prescribed
(d) proscribed
10.I ..a car to be absolutely necessary these days.
(a) think
(b)regard
(c) consider
(d) agree
11. He didnt have the.. idea of villagers problems.
(a) smallest
(b)finest
(c) faintest
(d) feeblest
12. This is a translation of the speech.
(a) verbatim
(b)verbal
(c) literal
(d) literary
13.The news of the secret deal soon despite official silence.
(a) discovered
(b) disclosed
(c)leaked out
(d) divulged
14. No man had a more ..love for literature, or a higher respect for it,
than
Samuel Johnson.
(a)arduous
(b) ardent
(c) animated
(d) adroit
15.I have often why he went to live abroad.
(a) puzzled
(b) wondered
(c) thought
(d) surprised

16.He lives near a lonely of countryside.

(a) piece
(b) length
(c) stretch
(d) section
17. To nobody else did the story seem
(a) contingent
(b) credible
(c) credulous
(d) creditable
18. The transfer of territories could not take place because one state
..the findings
of the Commission.
(a) objected
(b) questioned
(c)rejected
(d) disputed
19.Anticipating renewed rioting, the authorities erected .to block off
the
streets.
(a) dykes
(b) barrages
(c) barricades
(d) barracks
20.When their examinations were over, the children gleefully. the books
they
had been reading.
(a) despised
(b) neglected
(c) shelve
(d)overthrow
Answers
1
2
3
4
5
6
7

D
C
A
B
C
D
D

8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20

B
B
c
c
c
c
b
b
c
b
d
c
b
SECTION II
GENERAL AWARENESS

85. Which of the following Vedas is the oldest?

1.
2.
3.
4.

Samveda
Yaju veda
Atharva veda
Rig veda

86. Who wrote Panchtantra?

1.
2.
3.
4.

Bhavbhuti
Vishnu Sharma
Kalidasa
Shri Harsha

87. Who was the last Guru of the Sikhs?

1.
2.
3.
4.

Guru Govind Singh

Guru Tegh Bahadur
Guru Nanak Dev
Guru Harkishan

88. Who said, Man is a social animal.

1.
2.
3.
4.

Aristotle
Rosseau
Plato
Laski

89. Which one of the following dynasties was ruling the time of Alexanders invasion?
1.
2.
3.
4.

The Nanda Dynasty

The Maurya Dynasty
The Kanva Dynasty
The Sunga Dynasty

90. The Census was introduced for the first time in India during the tenure of
1.

Lord Cornwallis

2.
3.
4.

Lord William Bentinck

Lord Rippon
Lord Clive

91. Who designed the National Flag of India?

1.
2.
3.
4.

Pingly Venkaiyya
Vallabh Bhai Patel
B.R. Ambedkar
Aurobindo Ghosh

92. From which of the following state does the Tropic of cancer not pass?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Rajasthan
Jharkhand
Tripura
Manipur

93. Which among the following is the smallest state area-wise?

1.
2.
3.
4.

Nagaland
Mizoram
Meghalaya
Manipur

94. As per Census 2001, which one of the following states recorded the lowest growth rates of population during the period
of 1991 to 2001.
1.
2.
3.
4.

Andhra Pradesh
Karnataka
Kerala
Tamil Nadu

95. Which of the following rivers does not form a delta?

1.
2.
3.
4.

Ganges
Narmada
Mandavi
Mahanadi

96. The weight of an object will be minimum when it is placed at:

1.
2.
3.
4.

The North Pole

The South Pole
The Equator
The Center of the Earth

97. Which one of the following is a land-locked country?

1.
2.
3.
4.

Cambodia
Thailand
Vietnam
Laos

98. Earthquake travels fastest in1.

2.
3.

Soil
Molten Rock
Water

4.

Flexible Rock

99. Joint sitting of both the houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by
1.
2.
3.
4.

The President of India

The Speaker of Lok Sabha
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
The Prime Minister

100. To who is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible?

1.
2.
3.
4.

The President
The Prime Minister
The Lok Sabha
The Rajya Sabha

101. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:

1.
2.
3.
4.

only the elected members of both Houses of Parliament

only Rajya Sabha members
all members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
all members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

102. Centre-State financial distribution takes place following the recommendations made by the
1.
2.
3.
4.

Inter-State Council
Finance Commission
Planning Commission
Parliament

103. Sellers market denotes a situation where

1.
2.
3.
4.

Commodities are available at competitive rates

Demand exceeds supply
Supply exceeds demand
Supply and demand are equal

104. Development means economic growth plus

1.
2.
3.
4.

Inflation
Deflation
Price Stability
Social change

105. Which of the following ports of India has a free trade zone?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Cochin
Mumbai
Kandla
Diu

106. Dual pricing implies

1.
2.
3.
4.

Wholesale price and Retail price

Pricing of agents and Pricing of retailer
Price fixed by Government and Price in the open market
Daily prices and Weekly prices

107. Sudden Death rule is associated with:

1.
2.
3.
4.

Wrestling
Hockey
Water Polo
Football

108. Galvanised Iron sheets have a coating of

1.
2.
3.
4.

Tin
Lead
Zinc
Chromium

109. The Principle on which a Jet Engine is base is:

1.
2.
3.
4.

Theory of Angular Momentum

Newtons third Law
Theory of Friction
Theory of Kinetic Energy

110. The different colours of different stars are due to the variations in 1.
2.
3.
4.

temperature
pressure
density
radiation from them

111. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through

1.
2.
3.
4.

glass
vacuum
air
water

112. Which of the following tennis tournaments is played on Clay court?

1.
2.
3.
4.

Australian Open
French Open
Wimbledon
U.S. open

113. The instrument that measures and record the purity of milk is called:
1.
2.
3.
4.

Hydrometer
Hygrometer
Lactometer
Barometer

114. At which part of the tongue are the taste buds for sweet taste located?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Tip
Back
Sides
Middle

115. Stem cuttings are commonly used for re-growing

1.
2.
3.
4.

Cotton
Banana
Jute
Sugar Cane

116. Which one of the following human nutrients plays an important role in the coagulation of blood?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Calcium
Iron
Potassium
Sodium

117. Which of the following is known as first line defense for the body?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Antibodies
WBC
Nails
Skin

118. In the case of a test tube baby

1.
2.
3.
4.

Fertilisation takes place inside the test tube

Development of the baby takes place inside the test tube
Fertilization takes place outside the mothers body
Unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube

119. Which of the following cell organelles is the site for Protein synthesis?

o
o
o
o

Ribosome
Mitochondria
Chloroplast
Golgi Complex

VERBAL ABILTY
In questions 120-123, the word which is opposite in meaning to the word given on the top is:
120. SPURIOUS
1.
2.
3.
4.

genuine
angry
glorious
antique

1.
2.
3.
4.

pray
deliver
request
mumble

1.
2.
3.
4.

pungent
worthy
unyielding
insolent

1.
2.
3.
4.

explore
obstruct
prompt
disburse

121. ENUNCIATE

122. RESILIENT

123. EXPEDITE

Instructions for Questions 124-128: Read the following passage and answer the questions after it.
Differentiation of the two kinds of socialization is to some extent explained by reference to the complex manpower
requirements of the modern state. The social learning acquired through upbringing often needs to the extended because it
does not provided for the national need in many countries for trained personnel like clerical workers technician, civil servants

and so on. In this respect secondary socialization can be regarded as complementary to primary socialization. The former,
we might say, provides the individual with skills which allow him to take on specialist employment and to have a role in a
larger social environment, whereas the latter allows him to be integrated into the particular social group into which he is
born. Thus we might argue that primary socialization defined the individuals role in a small social group and enables him to
identify himself as a member of his family and his local community. Secondary socialization, on the other hand provides for
the individuals role in society as a whole and enables him to identify himself as a citizen of the state. In Short, and to
oversimplify, we might say that the first kind of socialization provides a sense of security and social interaction, whereas the
second provides opportunity and the possibility of social mobility.
124. Which of the following is NOT possible through primary socialization?
1. defining individuals role in a small social group
2. identifying oneself with ones family
3. identifying oneself as a citizen of the state
4. integrating into the local community
125. The modern state very much requires:
1. primary socialization of its citizens
2. many unskilled workers
3. a large social environment
4. specialist manpower
126. The opportunity to go up in ones profession and society is:
1. derived from ones upbringing
2. derived form secondary socialization
3. availed through complex manpower requirements
4. availed by identifying oneself with ones state
127. Secondary socialization is important in ones life because it helps one to:
1. take one specialized employment
2. identify oneself with ones family
3. define his role in his social group
4. integrate with his community
128. Complex manpower requirements means
1. man requires complex powers
2. highly trained personnel are required
3. acquiring power in a complex process
4. power of man is required to be complex
Instructions for questions 129-133: Read the following passage and answer the questions after it.
Nowadays the fine old simplicities are lost. Physicists assure us that there is no such thing as matter and psychologists
assure us that there is no such thing as mind. This is an unprecedented occurrence.
To begin with the latter some of them attempt to reduce everything that seems to the mental activity to an activity of the
body. There are however various difficulties in the way of reducing mental activity to physical activity.
What we can really say on the basis of Physics itself is that what we have hitherto called out body is really as elaborate
scientific construction, not corresponding to any physical reality. The modern would be materialist, thus finds himself in a
curious conceptual dilemma. Evidently we have to look for something that is neither body nor mind, out of which both can
spring.
The common man however thinks that material objects must certainly exist since they are evident to the senses. The
physicists disagree as matter in motion which in motion which used to seem so unquestionable turns out to be a concept
quite inadequate for the needs of physics.
129. In the sentence To begin with the latter, some of them.. latter refers to :
1. physicists
2. matter
3. psychologists
4. mind
130. But the philosopher was apt to reduce it usually to . Here it refers to :
o his analysis of man
o the human body
o the mind of the man
o idea in the mind
131. A plain man thinks that material objects exist because1. they constitute the metaphysics
2. they are real in his through process
3. certain electrons and protons form them
4. he can perceive them

132. Psychologists mentioned in the passage

1. believe that mental activities get manifested in abnormal physical activities
2. try to equate mental activity to physical activity
3. do not accept the distinction between body and soul
4. support the physicists perception of a body
133. Which of the following does the modern science support according to the passage?
1. Mind the matter are necessary to organize events
2. Metaphysical division of events
3. The discovery of equally important mind and matter
4.
Mind and Soul do not exist as an entity
In questions 134-138, then word which is nearest in meaning to the word given on the top is:
134. ATROCITY
1.
2.
3.
4.

endurance
hatred
brutality
aversion

1.
2.
3.
4.

enthusiasm
bravery
cleverness
excitement

1.
2.
3.
4.

sociable
showy
gourmet
talkative

1.
2.
3.
4.

reaction
resistance
repetition
repulsion

1.
2.
3.
4.

fun-loving
self-controlled
benevolent
flatterer

135. FORTITUDE

136. GARRULOUS

137. RESPERCUSSION

138. SYCOPHANT

In questions 139-143, the key word is used in four different ways. Choose the options in which the usage of the
word is NOT correct.
139. COVER
1.
2.
3.
4.

The light was so bright that I had to cover my eyes.

Did you see the cover of the college magazine this year?
We took cover from the rain in a bus shelter.
People try to avoid tax by setting up a cover to donate money to charity.

1.
2.
3.
4.

The manufacturers are really pushing this new shampoo.

He has difficulty pushing his feelings into words.
We should be able to move this table if we push it together.
She pushed through the crowd saying that she was a doctor.

1.
2.
3.
4.

Camera bulbs flashed as the Prime Minister appeared on the podium.

The news on Tsunami flashed around the world within minutes.
Violence flashed in many areas of the town last night.
A strange through flashed through her mind.

1.
2.
3.
4.

The audience could hardly hear the opening remarks.

I like to get out in the opening air on weekends.
The films opening night was a huge success.
the opening of the novel is by far its best part

1.

The problem came to a successful issue.

140. PUSH

141. FLASH

142. OPENING

143. ISSUE

2.
3.
4.

My article appeared in the August issue of the magazine.

The government issued a special stamp on World Health Day.
There were problems of property as he died without any issue.

In questions 144-146, each statement has a part missing. Choose the best option to complete the statement.
144. Of the many technological advances that took place during the 19th Century none was to have _____________ of
the steam engine.
1. quite such enormous impact as inventing
2. quite such an enormous impact as the invention
3. quite such enormous an impact like inventing
4. quite such an enormous impact like invention
145. One of the most ___________ which holds that America is a highly materialistic nation, a nation which exalts the
money-grubber and has a minimum of respect for things of the mind and spirit.
1. fashionable of the clichs is the one
2. fashionable clichs is the one
3. fashionable clich is the one
4. fashionable of the clich is that
146. ____________who watch a great deal of television and also among children, who view television shortly before
bed time.
1. Among children more common sleep disturbances are
2. More common sleep disturbances among children are
3. sleep disturbance among children are more common
4. sleep disturbance are more common among children
In questions 147-149, a sentence with two blanks is given. From the alternative pairs, select the words of which
best completes the given sentence.
147. State hospitality extended to a visiting foreign dignitary is often used symbolically to convey ________ messages,
and very often pomp and ceremony serve to _________ sharp differences.
1. subtle..mask
2. loud..camouflage
3. sharp..hide
4. important.....accentuate
148. A number of journalist and cameramen were ______ questioned by the police when they went to cover the
___________ drive of the state government.
1. deliberately..constitute
2. mistakenly..discover
3. inadvertently..install
4. wantonly..create
149. It is _________ to try to destroy pests completely with chemical poisons, for as each new chemical pesticides is
introduced, the insects gradually become __________ to it.
Quantitative Aptitude
150. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 36 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Pipe C can empty the tank in 30
minutes. First A and B are opened. After 7 minutes, C is also opened. In how much total time, the tank will be full.
o 36 minutes
o 42 minutes
o 46 minutes
o 45 minutes
151. A toy was sold at a loss for Rs. 60. Had it been sold for Rs. 81, the gain would have been 3/4th of the former loss.
The cost of the toy is o Rs. 65
o Rs. 70
o Rs. 81
o Rs. 72
152. Vijay invested Rs. 50,000 partly at 10% and partly at 20%. His total income after a year was Rs. 6000. How much
did he invest at the rate of 10%?
o Rs. 30,000
o Rs. 40,000
o Rs. 12,000

o Rs. 20,000
153. Two alloys A and B contain iron in the ration 7:3. IF 25 kg of alloy A and 25 kg of alloy B are mixed to form a new
alloy which contains 35% of iron, find the amount of iron in alloy B.
o 15 kg
o 7.8 kg
o 8.7 kg
o 18.2 kg
154. Two trains 121 m and 99 m long, are running in opposite directions at speeds of 40 km/hr and 32 kg/hr
respectively. In what time will they completely clear each other form the moment they meet?
o 7 seconds
o 9 seconds
o 10 seconds
o 11 seconds
155. The rate of interest on a sum of money is 4% per annum for the first two years, 6% per annum for the next 4 years
and 8% per annum for the period beyond 6 year. If the simple interest accrued by the sum for a total period of 9
years is Rs. 1120, what is the sum?
o Rs. 1500
o Rs. 2000
o Rs. 2500
o Rs. 4000
156. A soldier ascends a greased pole 36 meters high. He ascends 3 metres in first minute and descends 1 metre in
second minute. He again ascends 3 meters in third minute and descends 1 metre in fourth minute and so on. In
how much time will he reach to top?
o 36 minutes
o 33 minutes
o

minutes

o
minutes
157. The current of a stream runs at 1 km.hr. A motor boat goes 35km upstream and is back again to the starting point
in 12 hours. The speed of motorboat in still water is:
o 6 km/hr
o 7 km/hr
o 8 km/hr
o 8.5 km/hr
158. The average age of a couple (a husband and wife) was 23 years when they were married 5 years ago. The
average age of the husband, the wife and a child, who was born during the interim period, is 20 years now. What is
the present age of the child?
159. Kripal, Vinay and Apoorva went for lunch to a restaurant. Kripal had Rs. 100 with him, Vinay had Rs. 104 and
decided to give a tip of Rs. 16. They further decided to share to total expenses in the ratio of the amounts of
money each carried. The amount of money which Kripal paid more than what Apporva paid is
o Rs. 120
o Rs. 200
o Rs. 60
o Rs. 36
160. Two merchants each sell an article for Rs. 1000. If merchants A computes his profit on cost price, while merchant
B computes his profit on selling price, they end up making profits of 25% respectively. By how much is the profit
made by merchant B greater than that of merchant A?
o Rs. 66.67
o Rs. 50
o Rs. 125
o Rs. 200
161. What is the greatest value of a positive integer n such that 3n is a factor of 1818?
o 15
o 18
o 30
o 33
162. If x+y=5; x+z=7 and y+z=12, then the value of x+y+z=?
o 12
o 2
o 5

o 24
163. What is the remainder when 3x22x2y-13xy2+10y3 is divided by (x-2y)?
o 0
o y
o x+y
o x+2y
164. At a certain ice cream parlor, customers can choose from among five different ice cream flavors and can choose
either a sugar cone or a waffle cone. Considering both ice cream flavor and cone types, how many distinct triplescoop cones with three different ice cream flavors are available?
o 12
o 16
o 20
o 24
165. If a straight line y = ax+b passes through (2,1) and (-1,0), then ordered pair (a,b) is:
o (3, -1)
o
o
o

(-1,3)
(3,3)
166. If ABCD is a quadrilateral such that its diagonals AC and BC intersect at O to form four triangles equal in area .
Then ABCD must be a:
o parallelogram
o Rectangle
o Square
o All of the above
167. The chords AP and AQ of a circle of radius 6 cm are at a distance 3cm and
respectively from the centre O
of the circle, then the area of the smaller sector POQ is :
o 24 p cm2
o 21 p cm2
o 15 p cm2
o 12 p cm2
168. On the xy-coordinate plane, points A and B both lie on the circumference of a circle whose center is O, and the
length of AB equals the circles diameter. If the (x,y) coordinates of O are (2,1) and the (x,y) coordinates of B are
(4,6), what are the (x,y) coordinates of A?

o
o
o
o

169. ABCD is a square, each of side of which is 2 cm. Taking AB and AD as axes, the equation of the circle
circumscribing the square is :
o x2+y2 = (x+y)
o x2+y2 = 2(x+y)
o x2+y2 = 4
o x2+y2 = 16
170. If a is the length of the base and b the height of a right angled triangle hypotenuse of which is h and if the values
of a and b are positive integers, which of the following cannot be a value of the square of the hypotenuse?
o 13
o 23
o 37
o 41
171. The circumference of the front wheel of a cart is 30 ft long and that of the back wheel is 36 ft long. What is the
distance travelled by the cart, when the front wheel has done five more revolutions than the rear wheel?
o 200 ft
o 250 ft

o
o

750 ft
900 ft

172. Four circular card-board pieces; each of radius 7 cm are placed in such a way that each piece touches two other
pieces. The are of the space enclosed by the four pieces is:
o 21 cm2
o 42 cm2
o 84 cm2
o 168 cm2
173. The circumcircle of an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm is drawn. Find the area that is inside the circle but outside
the triangle?
o 22.21
o 19.78
o 22.11
o 18.76
174. A spherical lead ball of radius 10 cm is melted and small lead balls of radius 5mm are made. The total number of
possible small lead balls is:
o 800
o 125
o 400
o 8000
175. A rectangle, having a 72 cm perimeter, is divided into 9 congruent rectangles and two congruent squares. The
edge of square is the same as one of the edges of the smaller rectangle. What is the perimeter and area of the
smaller rectangle?
o 24 cm, 36 cm2
o 24 cm, 32 cm2
o 12 cm, 32 cm2
o 12 cm, 36 cm2
176. In a triangle ABC, the sum of the exterior angles at B and C is equal to:
o 180o - BAC
o 180o + BAC
o 180o - 2BAC
o 180o + 2BAC
177. If x = sin0+cos0 and y = sin 20, then which of the following is true?
o x2-y=1
o x2 =1-y
o y=x2+1
o y2=x+1
178. The angle of elevation of the top of a 30 m high tower, from two points on the level ground on its opposite sides are
45 degrees and 60 degrees. What is the distance between the two points?
o 30
o 51.96
o 47.32
o 81.96
179. A person aims at a bird on top of a 5m high pole with the elevation of 30 degree. If a bullet is fired, it will travel P m
before reaching the bird. The a value of P (in m) is :

o
o

10

o
o

180. Of the two boxes, Box 1 contains 2 Pink and 5 White chalks while Box 2 contains 4 Blue and 3 Green chalks. Four
chalks are taken out, two from Box 1 and remaining from Box 2. What is the probability of getting four different
colour chalks?

o
o

o
o
181. A problem is given to three students x,y,z whose chances of solving the problem are
What is the probability that the problem will be solved?

and

respectively.

o
o
o
o
In questions 182-183, a series is given. Which one of the number or letter-number clusters in the given
series is wrong.
182. G 4 T, J 10 R, M 20 P, P 43 N, S 90 L
o G4T
o J 10 R
o M 20 P
o P 43 N
183. 5, 12,19,33,47,75,104.
o 33
o 47
o 75
o 101
In questions 183 to 185, a number-series is given. Which one of the alternatives will ensure the sequential
continuity of the series?
184. 3, 6, 5, 20, 7, 42, 9,..
o 54
o 60
o 66
o 72
185. 0, 2, 8, 14, 24, .
o 34
o 35
o 36
o 42
In question 186-187, a series is given with a blank shown by a question mark. Which one of the
alternatives can correctly fill-in the question mark?
186. 6, 15, 3, (?), 143, 221
o 63
o 77
o 90
o 56
187. 7T19, 9Q16, 11N13, 13K10, 15H7, (?)
o 17 E 4

o
o
o

18 F 5
17 E 3
18 D 4

In questions 188-189, a letter series is given, in which some letters are missing. The missing letters are
given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find the correct alternative.
188. aa _ ab _ aaa _ a
o aaab
o aabb
o abab
o baaa
189. mnonopqopqrs _ _ _ _ _ _
o mnopq
o oqrst
o pqrst
o qrstu
190. The arrangement of letters of which of the given clusters is different from the rest?
o GTSH
o BYXC
o ETUF
o LONM
191. The arrangement of letters of which of the given clusters is different from the rest?
o BD
o CI
o EY
o AC
192. In a certain code MANISH is written as 415918. How will PRASHANT be written in the same code?
o 79181152
o 79181125
o 79118125
o 79118152
193. If in an cricket season, Mumbai defeated Hyderabad twice. Bangalore defeated Mumbai twice, Hyderabad
defeated Bangalore twice, Mumbai defeated Kolkata twice and Bangalore defeated Kolkata twice. Which of the
teams lost the largest number of matches?
o Mumbai
o Hyderabad
o Bangalore
o Kolkata
194. A bus for Bombay leaves after every forty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus
had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10.45 a.m. At what time did the enquiry clerk give
this information to the passenger?
1. 10:05 a.m.
2. 9:55 a.m.
3. 10:35 a.m.
4. 10:15 a.m.
195. As a Lion is to Cub, a Camel is to:
1. Signet
2. Stag
3. Calf
4. Foal
196. Identify the correct deduction.
Statements: All labourers are wrestlers. All grocers are labourers.
Conclusions:
1.
2.
3.
4.

All grocers are wrestlers

Some wrestlers are grocers.
Some wrestler are labourers.
Some labourers are grocers.
1. All conclusions are correct

2.
3.
4.

Only 1 and 4 conclusions are correct

Only 4 conclusion is correct
Only 2 and 3 conclusions are correct

197. Identify the correct deduction.

Statements: All fruits are sweets.
All sweets are chocolates.
Conclusions:
1.
2.
3.
4.

All sweets are fruits.

All fruits are chocolates
Some chocolates are sweets.
No chocolate is sweet.
1. Only conclusion 1 is correct
2. All conclusions are correct
3. Only conclusion 2 and 3 are correct
4. Only conclusion 3 and 4 are correct
198. In the question, five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 are given on the top. Which among the figures marked a,b,c,d
given below it would continue the series 1-2-3-4-5.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

1.

2.

3.

4.

In each of the questions 199 to 200, five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 continuous a continuous series with
a gap marked (?) are given. Which figure from among the figures marked a,b,c,d given below them would
accurately fill-in the place marked with the questions mark.
199. Answer the Question:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

o
Answer the Question:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

1.

2.

3.

4.
In each of the questions 201 to 203, the figure marked as X is incomplete. Which of the figures
marked as a, b, c, and d would accurately complete the given figure?

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
In each of the questions 204 to 206, a figure drawn on a transparent paper is given on the left
hand side. Which (from among the given four figures given on the right hand side marked as
abcd) will this figure take if its is folded along the dotted lines.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

In each of the questions 207 to 209, figure 1 and 2 as also 3 and 4 (?) have a certain relationship. From among the
given figures a, b, c and d which one, when placed at the position of the question mark, would establish the same
relationship.
207.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

208.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.
209.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

Mechanical-Engineering MT 2009
A definite area or space where some thermodynamic process takes place is known as
A thermodynamic system B thermodynamic cycle
C thermodynamic process D thermodynamic law

2. Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system?

A volume B Temperature
C mass D energy

3. Temperature at which the volume of the gas becomes 0 is called

A absolute scale of temperature B absolute 0 temperature
C absolute temperature D none of these

4. The unit of energy in SI units is

A joule B joule metre
C watt D joule/metre

5. 1 joule is equal to

A 1 Nm B kNm
C 10 Nm/s D 10 kNm/s
6. In an irreversible process there is a
A loss of heat B no loss of heat
C gain of heat D no gain of heat
7. The following is an SI engine
A diesel engine B petrol engine
C gas engine D none of the above
8. In a 4 stroke cycle petrol engine during suction stroke
A only air is sucked in B only petrol is sucked in
C mixture of petrol and air is sucked in
D none of the above
9. The thermal efficiency of petrol engine as compared to diesel engine is
A lower B higher
C same for same power output D same for same speed
10. Compression ratio of diesel engines may have a range
A 8 to 10 B 10 to 15
C 16 to 20 D none of the above
11 The thermal efficiency of good I.C engine at the rated load is in the range of
A 80 to 90% B 60 to 70%
C 30 to 35% D 10 to 20%
12 Carburettor is used for
A SI engines B gas engines
C CI engines D none of the above
13 In SI engine to develop high voltage for spark plug
A battery is installed B distributor is installed
C carburetor is installed D ignition coil is installed
14 In a four cylinder petrol engine the standard firing order is
A 1-2-3-4 B 1-4-3-2
C 1-3-2-4 D 1-3-4-2
15 The knocking is SI engines increases with
A increase in inlet air temperature B increase in compression ratio
C increase in cooling water temperature D all of the above
16 Petrol commercially available in India for Indian passenger cars has octane
number in the range
A 40 to 50 B 60 to 70
C 80 to 85 D 95 to 100
17 The knocking tendency in C.I engines increases with
A decrease of compression ratio B increase of compression ratio
C increasing the temperature of inlet air D increasing cooling water
temperature

18 The air standard otto cycle comprises

A two constant pressure processes and two constant volume processes
B two constant pressure and two constant entropy processes
C two constant volume processes and two constant entropy processes
D none of the above
19 The thermal efficiency of theoretical otto cycle
A increases with increase in compression ratio
B increases with increase in isentropic index gamma

1.

C does not depend upon the pressure ratio

D follows of the above
20 Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant has compared to diesel engine plant is
A higher B lower
C same D may be higher or lower

21 Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to internal combustion

Reciprocating engine is
A higher B lower
C same D unpredictable
22 For a gas turbine the pressure ratio may be in the range
A 2 to 3 B 3 to 5
C 16 to 18 D 18 to 22
23 Thermal efficiency of a closed cycle gas turbine plant increases by
A reheating B intercooling
C regenerator D all of the above
24With the increase in pressure ratio thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine
Plant with fixed turbine inlet temperature
A decreases B increases
C first increases and then decreases D first decreases and then increases
25In two stage turbine plant, reheating after first stage
A increases work ratio B decreases work ratio
C does not affect work ratio D none of the above
26For a jet propulsion unit , ideally the compressor work and turbine work are
A equal B unequal
C not related to each other D unpredictable
27 Various kinematic pairs are given below.choose the lower pair
A ball bearings B tooth gears in mesh
C camm and follower D crank shaft and bearing

28The relation between the number of pairs forming a kinematic chain and the
Number of links is
A l=2p-2 B l=2p-3
C l=2P-4 D l=2p-5
29In a reciprocating engine
A crankshaft and flywheel form 2 kinematic links
B crankshaft and flywheel form 1 kinematics links
C crankshaft and flywheel do not form kinematic links
D flywheel and crankshaft separately form kinematic links
30A kinematic chain is known as a mechanism when
A none of the link is fixed
B one of the links is fixed
C two of the links are fixed
D all of the links are fixed
31 Which of the following is an inversion of single slider crank chain?
A beam engine
B watts indicator mechanism
C elliptical trammels
D whitworth quick return motion mechanism

32 control volumes refer to

A a fixed region in space
B a specified mass
C an isolated system
D a closed system

33An isentropic process is always

A irreversible and adiabatic
B reversible and isothermal
C friction less and irreversible
D reversible and adiabatic
34Work done in a free expansion process is
A0
B minimum
C maximum
D positive

35.The figure shows a pin-jointed plane truss loaded at the point M by hanging a mass of 100 kg. The
member LN of the truss is subjected to a load of?

(a) 0 Newton
(b)490 Newtons in compression
(c)981 Newtons in compression
(d) 981 Newtons in tension
36.In terms of.Poissons ratio (v) the ratio of Youngs Modulus (E) to Shear Modulus (G) of elastic materials is ?
(a)2(1 + v)
(b) 2(1 v)
(c)(1 + v)/2
(d)(1 v)/2
37. Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth respectively. The pinion rotates at
1200 rpm and transmits a torque of 2O N. m. The torque transmitted by the gear is
(a) 6.6 Nm
(b) 20 Nm
(c) 40 Nm
(d) 60 Nm
38. The figure shows the state of stress at a certain point in a stressed body. The magnitudes of normal stresses in the x
and y direction are 100 MPa and 20 MPa respectively. The radius of Mohrs stress circle representing this state of stress is

(a)120
(b)80
(c)60
(d)40
39.For a mechanism shown below, the mechanical advantage for the given configuration is?

(a)0
(b) 0.5
(c)1.0
(d)Infinity
40.A vibrating machine is isolated from the floor using springs. If the ratio of excitation frequency of vibration of machine to
the natural frequency of the isolation system is equal to 0.5, the transmissibility of ratio of isolation is
(a)1/2
(b)3/4
(c)4/3
(d)2
41. A torque of 10 Nm is transmitted through a stepped shaft as shown in figure.

The torsional stiffnesses of individual sections of lengths MN, NO and OP are 20 Nm/rad 30 Nm/rad and 60 Nm
respectively. The angular deflection between the ends M and P of the shaft is?
(a) 0.5 rad
(b) 1.0 rad
(c) 5.0 rad
(d) 10.0 rad
42.

43. The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at

(a)10 3 cycles
(b) 10 4 cycles

(c)10 6 cycles
(d) 10 9 cycles
44. In the window air conditioner, the expansion device used is
(a)capillary tube
(b) thermostatic expansion valve
(c)automatic expansion valve
(d) float valve
45. During chemical de-humidification process of air
(a) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity decrease
(b) dry bulb temperature increases and specific humidity decreases
(c) dry bulb temperature decreases and specific humidity increases
(d) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity increase
46.An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2 /s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If
the top.plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 rn/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity
profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is ?
(a)0.651 x 10 -3
(b) 0.651
(c)6.51
(d) 0.651 x 103
47.Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its chemical formula is ?
(a)CH ClF2
(b) C2 Cl 3F3
(c)C2 Cl 2F4
(d) C2 H2F4
48.

(a)x2y=0
(b) 2x+y=0
(c)2xy=0
(d) x+2y=0
49. A gas contained in a cylinder is compressed, the work required for compression being 5000 kJ. During the process, heat
interaction of 2000 kJ causes the surroundings to the heated. The change in internal energy of the gas during the process is
(a)7000kJ
(b) 3000kJ
(c)+ 3000 kJ
(d) + 7000 kJ
50.The compression ratio of a gas power plant cycle corresponding to maximum work output for the given temperature limits
of Tmin and Tmax will be

51.
(a)10 microns
(b) 20 microns
(c)30 microns
(d) 60 microns
51.

(a) circular Interpolation clockwise

(b) circular Interpolation counterclockwise
(c) linear Interpolation
(d) rapid feed
52. The mechanism of material removal in EDM process is
(a) Melting and Evaporation
(b) Melting and Corrosion
(c) Erosion and Cavitation
(d) Cavitation and Evaporation
53. Two 1 mm thick steel sheets are to be spot welded at a current of 5000 A. Assuming, effective resistance to be 200
micro-ohms and current flow time of 0.2 second, heat generated during the process will be
(a)0.2 Joule
(b) 1 Joule
(c)5 Joule
(d) 1000 Joules
54. In PERT analysis a critical activity has
(a)maximum Float
(b) zero Float
(c)maximum Cost
(d) minimum Cost
55. For a product, the forecast and the actual sales for December 2002 were 25 and 20 respectively. If the exponential
smoothing constant (a) is taken as 0.2, the forecast sales for January 2003 would be ?
(a)21
(b)23
(c)24
(d) 27
56. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to
(a) very high pouring temperature of the metal
(b) insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
(c) absorption of gases by the liquid metal
(d) improper alignment of the mould flasks
57. The percentage of carbon in gray cast iron is in the range of
(a)0.25 to 0.75 percent
(b) 1.25 to 1.75 percent
(c)3 to 4 percent
(d) 8 to 10 percent
58.In the figure shown,

the relative velocity of link1 with respect to link 2 is 12 m/sec. Link 2 rotates at a constant speed of 120 rpm. The magnitude
of Coriolis component of aceeleration of link 1 is
(a)302 m/s2

(b)604 m/s2
(c)906 m/s2
(d) 1208 m/s2
59. The figure below shows a planar mechanism with single degree of freedom.

The instant center 24 for the given configuration is located at a position ?

(a) L
(b) M
(c) N
(d)Infinity
60.A uniform stiff rod of length 200 mm and having a weight of 300 N is pivoted at one end and connected to a spring at the
other end.

For keeping the rod vertical in a stable position the minimum value of spring constant K needed is ?
(a) 300 N/m
(b) 400 N/m
(c) 500 N/m
(d) 1000 N/m
61. In a bolted joint two members are connected with an axial tightening force of 2200 N.

If the bolt used has metric threads of 4 mm pitch, the torque required for achieving the tightening force is?
(a)0.7Nm
(b)1.0 Nm
(c)1.4 Nm
(d) 2.8 Nm

BHEL Previous Paper

240 questions.
120- Technical questions in Mechanical Engineering
120- General Apptitude questions. (Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, Logical thinking, English usage)
The questions were mainly asked in
Thermodynamics
Engineering Mechanics
Theory of machines
Production tech
General Apptitude:
All the sections were very easy. Basic knowledge is sufficient to attend all the questions. But Keep time factor in mind and
increase your speed. There are 120 questions like this!!
English:
--- Detect the words with wrong spellings (5 questions)
--- Fill in the blanks with appropriate words(5 questions)
--- Two reading comprehensions were given(10 questions)
--- Find the error in the sentence (8 questions)
Reasoning:

--- Seating arrangement problems

--- Find the relation between them
Quantitative ability:
All the questions were very easy.
--- 50% of the questions are from basic geometry.
--- Remaining were very general and easy. But as there is a total 120 questions you have to be really quick.

[One Mark for correct answer, 1/5th for wrong answer. Five choices were given]
1)Unit of Entropy (J/kg K or kJ/kg K)
2)A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1 m and penetrates the sand into for 1 m. What is the resistance force
given by sand.
3)Ratio of specific heats of air. (1.41)
4)A body weighs 3 kg in air. If it is submerged in a liquid, it weighs 2.5 kg. What is the specific gravity of the liquid.
5)Two cars travell in same direction at 40 km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in a opposite direction in
60km/hr. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance between them?
6)A simple problem involing in hoops stress. For sphere: M= [3/2]*p*V*[density of pressure vessel
material/Maximum working stress it can tolerate] For Thin walled pressure walls: Hoops stress or stress in the
radial direction =p*r/2t
7)A problem in force calculation in a body moving in a inclined surface.
8)Composition of bronze. (Copper+zinc)
9)Compostion of stainless steel.(iron+chromium+nickel+carbon)
10)CI is manifactured in which process. (cupola process)
11)What percentage of carbon is preset in pig iron. (4.5 to 6%)
12)Water is available at 10m height. What is the pressure available? (pressure=density*g*height; p=1000*9.81*10;
p=98100N/m2)
13)What will happen if the speed of the centrifugal pump doubles.
14)The unit eV is widely used in ? (Nuclear and atomic physics)
15)What will happen to the resistance, when the diameter of the conductor is doubled?
16)The power comsumed by a electrical device is 1000W at 250V, What is the resistance in the device?
(Power= Voltage*current; Current=Power/Voltage, Current,I=1000/250=4
amps. V=IR, Therefore R=250/4=62.5 ohms)
17)Why DC current is not used in transformer.
18)On what principle the sonar/ radar works?
19)Bending moment diagram for the UDL is in what shape?
20)Function of the distributor in petrol vehicles? (Spark timing)
21)Which is not present in CI engines? (carburrettor)
22)What will happen if one cylinder recieves more amount of fuel spray from injectors than other injectors?
23)Purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines? (The purpose of a draft tube is toconvert some of the kinetic energy
of the flow from the runner (the rotating part of the turbine) intopressure energy and thereby increase the efficiency
ofthe hydro power turbine.)

24)What is the effect or reheater in the gas turbine? (The advantage of reheater is significantly increased thrust; the
disadvantage is it has very high fuel consumption and inefficiency)
25)Problems involving with fricition coefficient.
26)Factor of safety = Yeild stress/Working stress.
27)Which is the example of non parallel power transmission (Universal coupling)
28)For perpendicular shafts worm gear is used.
29)A planet gear with 25 teeth is meshed with a sun gear of 100 teeth. Both are connected using a arm. How many
rotations are needed for planet gear to complete one rotation around the sun gear?
30)What is equivalent spring constant for spring in parallel?
31) Some questions was asked related to boundry layer and vortex flow.
32) 5 questions were asked in PERT, Process planning, Product planning, Break even analysis.
33)How are tungsten and sintered composite materials are machined? (Electro Discharge Machining, EDM)
BHEL PLACEMENT PAPER - 11 FEB 2007 - NEW DELHI

1. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to. = 1.41

2. A perfect gas at 270C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final temperature is = 3270C
3. An engine operates between temperature of 9000K and T2 and another engine between T2 and 8000K. For both to do
equal work, value of T2 will be. = 6500K
4. Internal energy of a substance depends on = Temperature
5. Work done in compressing 1kg of gas adiabatically from p1,V1,T1 to p2, V2, T2 is equal to = Cv(T2-T1)
6. The unit of entropy is = J/kg 0K
7. Indicated power of a 4-stroke engine is equal to = pLAN/2
8. Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine :
a) 2 stroke petrol engine b) 4 stroke petrol engine c) Diesel engine d) steam engine e) Gas turbine. = (d)
9. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the:
a) exhaust will be smoky b) piston rings would stick into piston grooves c) exhaust temperature will be high d) engine starts
overheating e) all of the above. = (e)
10. The spark plug gap is normally maintained at: = 0.45 to 0.6mm
11. A distributor in spark ignition engines performs the function of : = Providing the correct firing order in engine
12. Which of the following does not relate to C.I. engine:: a) fuel pump b) fuel injector c) governor d) carburetor e) flywheel =
(d)
13. Air fuel ratio in a jet engine is = 60:1
14. What is the value of Prandtl No.?
15. In domestic refrigerator, the tubes at the back of the refrigerator are: a) evaporator b) condenser c) capillary tubes
d)
16. Which refrigerants has the highest critical point temperature. = Freon-11
17. Wet bulb temperature is. = indication of amount of moisture in air
18. On psychometric chart, dry bulb temperature lines are. = Vertical

19. Surface tension has the units. = newtons/m

20. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the. = Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
21. A pressure of 25m of head of water is equal to. =245kN/m2
22. For a submerged body to be in stable equilibrium, the center of gravity should be. =Below the center of buoyancy.
23. The actual velocity at vena contracta for flow through an orifice from a reservoir of height H=?. =Cvv2gH
24. A body weighing 2kg in air weights 2.5kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity is. = 6
25. In a free vortex motion: = each particle moves in a circular path with a speed varying inversely as the distance from the
center.
26. A centrifugal pump has speed-1000rpm, Flow-1200l.p.m, Head-20m, Power-5H.P. If its speed is increased to 1500rpm,
new flow will be.: = 1800l.p.m
27. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is: = the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without load and
with the wicket gates wide open.
28. 10m of water column is equal to = 100kN/m2
29. M.I. of a circular area about an axis perpendicular to the area is: = pr4/2
30. A projectile is fired at an angle ? to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when ? is . =450
31. An elevator weighing 1000kg attains an upward velocity of 4m/sec in two seconds with uniform acceleration. The tension
in the supporting cables will be = 1200kg.
32. A 13m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall with its lower end 5m from the wall. What should be the co-efficient
of friction between ladder and floor so that it remains in equilibrium. = 0.21
33. A car is moving with a velocity of 60km/hr and possesses energy of 5x105 joules. The mass of the car will be. =3000kg.
34. If l is the span of a light suspension bridge whose each cable carries total weight (w) and the central diop is y, the
horizontal pull at each support is: = wl/y OR
35. A beam of length l, having uniform load w kg/unit length is supported freely at the ends. The moments at mid span will
be: = wl2/8.
36. A boiler shell 200cm dia and plate thickness 1.5cm is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5MN/m2, then the hoop stress
will be. = 100N/m2
37. 100KW is to be transmitted by each of two separate shafts. A is turning at 250rpm and B at 300rpm. Which shaft must
have greater diameter.: = B
38. Two identical leaf springs of spring constant k are arranged like cantilevers in parallel and attached at free end by a
spring of spring constant k. The equivalent spring constant of combination is; = 1.5k.
39. Automobile steering gear is an example of: = lower pair.
40. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line nor parallel, but intersect is. =
Universal coupling.
41. To transmit power from one rotation shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting, use: = Spiral gear.
42. A gear having 100 teeth is fixed and another gear having 25 teeth revolves around it, the centre lines of both gears being
joined by an arm. How many revolutions will be made by gear of 25 teeth for one revolution of arm. = 5 rev.
43. The secondary critical speed of a shaft occurs at: = twice the speed of primary critical speed.
44. Brittle coating technique is used for: = experimental stress analysis.
45. Factor of safety is the ratio of: = yield stress/working stress.

46. Type of gear used for non-intersection perpendicular shafts: = Hypoid gears.
47. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding: = Chromium & Nickel
48. The product of Cupola is called: = cast iron
49. Brinell tester uses a hardness steel ball of size: = 10mm
50. Sintered and tungsten carbides can be machined by: = EDM
51. What kind of abrasive cut off wheel should be used to cut concrete, stone and masonry? =Diamond grit.
52. In break-even analysis, total cost consists of: = Fixed cost + Variable cost.
53. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is : =deposited in the account of
worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.
54. PERT is: = event oriented technique
55. Bar charts are suitable for: = minor works.
56. on a PERT/CPM chart represents: = a significant event representing some mile-stone
57. Electron volt is the unit of : = Energy.
58. Seamless tubes are made by?
59. Reheating in gas turbine results in: = increase of work ratio and decrease of thermal efficiency.
60. Why DC current is not used in transformer?
61. What is the purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines: = to convert the kinetic energy into pressure energy.
62. A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1m and penetrates the sand to 1m. what is the resistance force of the sand?
63. Two cars travel in the same direction at 40km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in the opposite direction at 60km/hr.
It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance between the two cars?