ENGLISH

FULL

LENGTH

T E S T- 3

JEE MAIN
Date: 02-02-2014

Time: 3 Hours.

Max. Marks: 360

1.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
The question paper consists of '90' objective type questions. There are '30' questions each in
Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry respectively. Please fill the OMR answer Sheet accordingly
and carefully.

2.

Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

3.

You will be awarded 4 marks for each question, if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1)
mark will be awarded.

4.

There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question
will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per
instruction 3 above.

5.

Use Black or Blue Ball Point Pen only for filling particulars.

6.

Use of Calculator, Log Table, Slide Rule and Mobile is not allowed.

7.

Rough work is to be done on the space provided at the bottom and in end of the booklet for this purpose
in the Test Booklet only.

8.

On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. However,
the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

9.

Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: Al = 27, Mg = 24, Cu = 63.5, Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5, O = 16, H = 1, P = 31, Ag = 108, N = 14,
Li = 7, I = 127, Cr = 52, K=39, S = 32, Na = 23, C = 12, Br = 80, Fe = 56, Ca = 40, Zn = 65.5, Ti = 48,
Ba = 137, U = 238, Co= 59, B =11, F = 19, He = 4, Ne = 20, Ar = 40 , Mo = 96
[Take : ln 2 = 0.693, ln 1.1 = 0.095, ln 3 = 1.09, e = 1.6 1019, me= 9.1 1031 kg ]
Take 0 = 8.85 1012 , g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated

M AT H E M AT I C S
Q.1 to Q.30 has four choices (1), (2), (3), (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Q.1

x 2 y2
x 2 y2

Let the equations of two ellipses be E1 :

= 1 and E2 :
= 1. If the product of their
16 b 2
3
2

eccentricities is
(1) 9
Q.2

1
, then the length of the minor axis of ellipse E2 is
2
(2) 8
(3) 4

(4) 2

1 z2
, where z is any non-zero complex number and i =
Let a = Im.

2iz

The set A = a :| z | 1 and z 1 is equal to

(1) [1, 1]
(2) (1, 0]
(3) [0, 1)

1 .

(4) (1, 1)

Q.3

On the sides AB, BC, CA of a ABC, 3, 4, 5 distinct points (excluding vertices A, B, C) are
respectively chosen. The number of triangles that can be constructed using these chosen points as vertices
are
(1) 220
(2) 215
(3) 210
(4) 205

Q.4

Let f : [1, 3] [8, 72] be defined as f (x) = 4x3 12x, then f is

(1) injective but not surjective
(2) injective as well as surjective
(3) neither injective nor surjective
(4) surjective but not injective
sin x

sin
Q.5

The value of Lim

(1)

1
2

t dt

( x ) 2
(2) 0

is equal to

(3)

1
2

(4) 2

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Q.6

ax b,
2
If the function f (x) = x 5x 6,
px 2 qx 1,

x 2
2x3
3 x

is differentiable in (, ), then
(1) a = 1, p =
Q.7

(2) b = 2, q =

5
3

(3) a = 1, b = 2

(4) a = 1, q =

5
3

A tangent to the hyperbola x2 2y2 = 4 meets x-axis at P and y-axis at Q. Line PR and QR are
drawn such that OPRQ is a rectangle (where O is origin). The locus of R is
(1)

Q.8

4
9

4
2
2 =1
2
x
y

(2)

4
2
2 1
2
x
y

(3)

2
4
2 1
2
x
y

4
1
is equal to
The value of tan tan 2
4
r

r 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3

(4)

2
4
2 1
2
x
y

(4) 4

Q.9

The system of linear equations x + y + z = 2, 2x + y z = 3, 3x + 2y + kz = 4 has a unique solution,

if
(1) 1 < k < 1
(2) 2 < k < 2
(3) k 0
(4) k = 0

Q.10

Let Q be the foot of perpendicular from the origin to the plane 4x 3y + z + 13 = 0 and R be a point
(1, 1, 6) on the plane. The length QR is
(1) 3

Q.11

7
2

(2) 14

(3)

19
2

If z1, z2, z3 C satisfies i z3 + z2 z + i = 0, where i =

z1, z2 and z3 is equal to
(1)

1
2

(2)

(3) 2 2

(4)

3
2

1 then the area of triangle formed by

(4)

1
2 2

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Q.12

If A be a 3 3 matrix with real entries such that det. (adj A) = 16, then det. adj (adjA)
is equal to
(1) 16
(2) 64
(3) 256
(4) 512

Q.13

If the area bounded by the parabolas y2 = 4 (x + ) and y2 = 4 (x ), where > 0 is

48 square units then is equal to
(1)

1
3

(2)

1
9

(3) 3

(4) 9

Q.14

The complete set of real values of x for which ex > 1 + x, is equal to

(1) (, )
(2) (0, )
(3) (, 0)
(4) (, 0) (0, )

Q.15

A common tangent to the conics x2 = 6y and 2x2 4y2 = 9, is

(1) x + y = 1

(2) x y = 1

(3) x + y =

9
2

(4) x y =

3
2

Q.16

If (p ~ r) (~p q) is false, then the truth values of p, q and r are respectively

(1) T, F and F
(2) F, F and T
(3) F, T and T
(4) T, F and T

Q.17

The solution of differentiable equation 2y sin x

(1) y2 = cos x + 1
(3) y2 sin x = 4 cos2x + 1

Q.18

dy
= sin 2x y2 cos x satisfying y = 1 is
2
dx
(2) y = sin2 x
(4) y2 = sin x

x5 x 4

+ 5 has
20 12
(1) no local extremum, one point of inflection.
(2) two local maximum, one local minimum, two point of inflection.
(3) one local maximum, one local minimum, one point of inflection.
(4) one local maximum, one local minimum, two point of inflection.

The graph of function f (x) =

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Q.19

If , are the roots of equation x2 3x + c = 0 (c R) and < 1 < , then c belongs to

9

(1) ,
4

Q.20

Q.21

(2) (, 2)

(3) (2, )

(4) ,
4

If for positive integers r > 1, n > 2, the coefficients of the (3r)th and (r + 2)th powers of x
in the expansion of (1 + x)2n are equal, then n is equal to
(1) 2r 1
(2) 2r + 1
(3) 3r
(4) r + 1
B
If two events A and B are such that P(A') = 0.3, P(B) = 0.4 and P(A B') = 0.5, then P

A B'
equals

(1)

3
4

(2)

5
6

(3)

1
4

(4)

3
7

Q.22

The equation of a plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes x + 2y = 3, y 2z + 1 = 0
and perpendicular to the first plane is
(1) 2x y 10z = 9
(2) 2x y 9z = 10
(3) 2x y + 10 z = 11
(4) 2x y + 7z = 11

Q.23

The equation of line passing through the points of intersection of parabola x2 = 8y and ellipse
x2
+ y2 = 1, is
3
(1) 3y + 1 = 0

(2) y 3 = 0

(3) y + 3 = 0

(4) 3y 1 = 0

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2
3

Q.24

The value of definite integral

e 2 1 sin
d is equal to
1 cos

2
e
(1)
3

(3)

Q.25

e4

e3
6
4
3 2e e

2e 2

e6

3 1

(2)

2e 3

(4)

2e 3

2e 4

If two lines L1 and L2 in space are defined by L1 = x y

L2 = x y 1 , z 1 y

1 , z

1 y

and

then L is perpendicular to L , for all non-negative

1

reals and , such that

(1) =
Q.26

Q.27

(3)

The minimum value of y = 256 sin2x + 324cosec2x, V x R, is

(1) 432
(2) 576
(3) 580
If a complex number z satisfies the equation
then | z | is equal to
(1) 1

Q.28

(2) + = 0

(2) 2

(3)

(4)

(4) 776

z + 2 | z + 1| + i = 0, where i =
3

(4)

1 ,

Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4}. The number of different ordered pairs (B, C) that can be formed such that
B A, C A and B C is empty, is
(1) 42
(2) 34
(3) 43
(4) 24

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Q.29

Let ABC be a triangle with vertices at points A(2, 3, 5), B(1, 3, 2) and C(, 5, ) in
three dimensional space. If the median through A is equally inclined with the axes, then (, ) is equal to
(1) (7, 5)
(2) (10, 7)
(3) (5, 7)
(4) (7, 10)

Q.30

If the sum of the series 25 + 24

2
4
1
+ 23 + 23 + is maximum, then
5
5
5

(1) last term of the series is 0.

1
.
5
(4) number of terms of the series are 40.

(2) last term of the series is

(3) number of terms of the series are 42.

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PHYSICS
Q.31 to Q.60 has four choices (1), (2), (3), (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Q.31

Two blocks A and B of mass m and 4m are connected with a rod PQ of length and mass 6m through
light strings. There is no friction anywhere. If the system is released from rest and the rod PQ slides on
the incline, then for the position shown in the figure, the ratio of the speeds of the mass A to that of the
mass B is
P
m

6m

4m
B

(1)

sin
sin

(2)

cos
cos

(3)

cos( )
cos( )

(4)

sin( )
sin( )

Q.32

The linear velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit of a given radius is

(1) proportional to its mass
(2) independent of its mass
(3) proportional to the square root of its mass (4) inversely proportional to its mass

Q.33

In the figure, a man of true mass M kg is standing on a weighing machine placed in a cabin. The cabin is
joined by a string with a body of mass m kg. Assuming no friction, and negligible mass of cabin and
weighing machine, the measured weight of man in kg force.
m

(1)

Mm
Mm

(2)

Mm
Mm

(3) M

(4) depends on g

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Q.34

Two particles 1 and 2 are moving in concentric circular paths in clockwise sense of radii R1 and R2. At

a certain instant of time both are situated on the same radial line and have radial acceleration a1 and a 2

whereas tangential velocities v1 and v 2 respectively. The acceleration of 2 w.r.t. 1 is

(1) a 2 a1
(2) a 2 a1

v2 v2
(3) a 2 a1 2 1
R 2 R1

v2 v2

(4) a 2 a1 2 1
R 2 R1

Q.35

Power applied to a particle varies with time as P = (4t3 5t + 2) watt, where t is in second. Find the
change in its K.E. between time t = 2 and t = 4 sec.
(1) 184 J
(2) 200 J
(3) 214 J
(4) 224 J

Q.36

Two vessels A and B contain water at temperature TA and TB, at 10C and 2C respectively. If the water
in both the vessels were compressed adiabatically and if we take into account the finite bulk modulus of
elasticity of water, then TA and TB
(1) increase and decrease respectively
(2) decrease and increase respectively
(3) both increase
(4) both decrease

Q.37

A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure p and volume v are related as Vp2 = constant. The bulk
modulus for the gas in this process is
(1) p/2
(2) 2p
(3) 2pv
(4) 3p

Q.38

An ice cube of size a = 20 cm is floating in a lake filled with water. The relative density of ice is 0.9. The
change in gravitational potential energy when ice melts completely will be
(1) Zero
(2) increase by 0.72 J
(3) decrease by 0.72 J
(4) increase by 7.2 J

Q.39

If one mole of an ideal monoatomic gas ( = 5/3) is mixed with one mole of ideal diatomic gas (=7/5),
the value of for the mixture will be
(1) 1.4
(2) 1.5
(3) 1.53
(4) 3.07

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Q.40

A point source emits sound equally in all directions in a non-absorbing medium. Two points P and Q are
at a distance of 9 meters and 25 meters respectively from the source. The ratio of the amplitudes of the
waves at P and Q is
(1) 5:3
(2) 3:5
(3) 25:9
(4) 625:81

Q.41

In a resonance tube water is filled so that height of air column is 0.1 m when it resonates in its fundamental
mode. Now water is removed so that the height of air column becomes 0.35 m and it resonates with next
higher frequency. Then end correction is
(1) 0.012
(2) 0.025
(3) 0.05
(4) 0.24

Q.42

If the Young's modulus of material of rod is 2 1011 N/m2 and density is 8000 kg/m3, what is the time
taken by sound wave to travel 1m of the rod?
(1) 104 sec
(2) 102 sec
(3) 2 104 sec
(4) 2 102 sec

Q.43

A glass capillary tube of internal radius r = 0.25 mm is immersed in water. The top end of the tube
projects by 2 cm above the surface of water. At what angle does the liquid meet the tube? Surface
tension of water = 0.07 N m1 and its contact angle is 0.

Q.44

5
5
(3) cos1
(4) sin1
14
14
Several spherical drops of a liquid each of radius r coalesce to form a single drop of radius R. If T is the
surface tension, then the energy liberated will be -

(1) sin1 (0.5)

(2) cos1 (0.5)

1 1
(1) 4R3T
r R

1 1
(2) 2R3T
r R

(3)

4 2 1 1
r T
3
r R

1 1
(4) 2RT
R r

Q.45

Ratio of amplitude of two waves is 1:16. The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity when 2 waves
interfere is
(1) 289 : 25
(2) 1 : 256
(3) 289 : 225
(4) 3 : 1

Q.46

A coil of inductance L = 300mH and resistance R = 140 m is connected to a constant voltage source.
Current in the coil will reach to 50% of its steady state value after t is nearly equal to
(1) 15 s
(2) 0.75 s
(3) 0.15 s
(4) 1.5 s

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Q.47

If the rheostat slider were to move from the extreme right of the far left, How will the reading of voltmeter
V1 change?
V

V1

(1) First increase and then decrease

(3) Increase continuously

(2) First decrease and then increase

(4) Decrease continuously

Q.48

Two long parallel straight conductors carry current i1 and i2 (i1 > i2). When the currents are in the same
direction, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wires is 20T. If the direction of i2 is reversed,
the field becomes 50T. The ratio of the currents i1 / i2 is :
(1) 5/2
(2) 7/3
(3) 4/3
(4) 5/3

Q.49

In a meter bridge experiment, null point is obtained at 40cm from left end when unknown resistance is
inserted in left gap and a resistance of 60 is inserted in the right gap. If resistance of 60 is kept
same, but the wire in left gap is cut in two equal parts, and joined in parallel across the left gap, the new
null point is at
(1) 40 cm from left end
(2) 20 cm from left end
(3) 10 cm from left end

Q.50

(4)

100
cm from left end
7

Statement-1 : The core of the transformer is laminated to avoid loss of energy.

Statement-2 : A laminated metal sheet placed in a changing magnetic field has lower eddy current.
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

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Q.51

The wavelength of radiation emitted is 0 when an electron jumps from the third to the second orbit of
hydrogen atom. When an electron jumps from the fourth to second orbit of the hydrogen atom, the
wavelength of radiation emitted will be
(1)

Q.52

16
0
25

(2)

20
0
27

(3)

27
0
20

(4)

25
0
16

If the potential difference used to accelerate electrons is tripled, by what factor does de-Broglie wavelength
of electrons beam change.
(1)

1
times
3

(2) 3 times

(3) 3 times

(4)

1
times
3

Q.53

Consider the nuclear reaction

X200 A110 + B90
If the binding energy per nucleon for X, A and B is 7.4 MeV, 8.2. MeV and 8.2 MeV respectively, what
is the energy released ?
(1) 200 MeV
(2) 160 MeV
(3) 110 MeV
(4) 90 MeV

Q.54

A vernier callipers has its main scale of 10 cm equally divided into 200 equal parts. Its vernier scale of
25 divisions coincides with 12 mm on the main scale. The least count of the instrument is(1) 0.020 cm
(2) 0.002 cm
(3) 0.010 cm
(4) 0.001 cm

Q.55

If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 30, the velocity of light in the
medium is
(1) 3 108 m/s

Q.56

(2) 1.5 108 m/s

(3) 6 108 m/s

(4)

3 108 m/s

Statement-1 : When a beam of white light passes through a transparent prism kept in air, red light
deviates less than violet light.
Statement-2 : The photon of red light has more momentum than the photon of violet light.
(1) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
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Q.57

Germanium and silicon junction diodes are connected in parallel. These are connected in series with a
resistance R, a milliammeter (mA) and a key (K) as shown in fig. When key (K) is closed a current
begins to flow in the milliammeter. The potential drop across the germanium diode is- (Reverse break
down does not occures in any diode., (Knee Voltage for Ge = 0.3 volt and for Si is 0.7 volt)
Ge

V
R

Si

mA

+
12V

(1) 0.3 V

(2) 0.7 V

(3) 1.1 V

(4) 12 V

Q.58

You are walking down a long hallway that has many light fixtures in the ceiling and a very shiny, newly
waxed floor. In the floor, you see reflections of every light fixture. Now you put on sunglasses that are
polarized. Some of the reflections of the light fixtures can not longer be seen. The reflections that disappear
are those
(1) Nearest to you
(2) Farthest from you
(3) At an intermediate distance from you
(4) None of these

Q.59

Identify the parts X and Y in the block diagram of generalized communication system shown figure
X

Transmitter

Receiver

(1) Transducer and information source

(2) Information source and transducer
(3) Information source and communication channel
(4) Communication channel and information source

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Q.60

The figure represent B - H curve for commercial iron.

As H is increased, permeability
(1) increases and becomes constant
(2) increases, reaches a maximum and then decreases
(3) decreases continuously till it becomes very small
(4) decreases reaches a minimum and then increases

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C H E M I S T RY
Q.61 to Q.90 has four choices (1), (2), (3), (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Q.61

How many times solubility of CaF2 is decreased in 4 103 M KF (aq.) solution as compare to pure
water at 25C. Given Ksp (CaF2) = 3.2 1011
(1) 50
(2) 100
(3) 500
(4) 1000

Q.62

AgNO3
(W) + (X) + O2
(X) + H2O HNO2 + HNO3
(W) + HNO3 Y + NO + H2O
(Y) + Na2S2O3 (excess) (Z) + NaNO3
Identify (W) to (Z).
(1) W = Ag
X = N2O
Y = AgNO3

Z = Na2[Ag(S2O3)2]

(2) W = Ag2O

X = NO

Y = AgNO3

Z = Na3[Ag(S2O3)2]

(3) W =Ag

X = NO2

Y = AgNO3

Z = Na3[Ag(S2O3)2]

(4) W = Ag2O

X = N2

Y = AgNO3

Z = Na[Ag(S2O3)2]

Q.63

Which of the following produce chiral molecule after treatment with Lindlar's catalyst?
(1)

Q.64

(2)

(3)

(4)

The standard reduction potentials of half cell OCl/Cl, OH and Cl2/Cl are 0.94 volt and +1.36 volt
respectively. What is the reduction potential of half cell whose cell reaction is represented as
2OCl + 2H2O + 2e Cl2(g) + 4OH
(1) 0.21 V
(2) 0.52 V
(3) 1.04 V
(4) 2.1 V

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Q.65

The product A and B in the following sequence of reactions, respectively are

Li, EtOH

i ) O 3 (1 equiv.)
A (
B

NH3 ( l )

( ii ) Zn H 2O

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Q.66

The extraction of aluminium involves the electrolysis of purified bauxite dissolved in molten cryolite,
Na3AlF6. The role of cryolite is to
(1) Increase the electrical conductivity of the melt
(2) Reduces fuel bill
(3) Reduce the melting point of the mixture
(4) All

Q.67

For the reaction : CH3COCH3 + Br2 H

CH3COCH2Br + H+ + Br
the following data was collected
[Acetone]
[Br2]
[H+]
Rate of reaction (Ms1)
0.15
0.025
0.025
6 104
0.15
0.050
0.025
6 104
0.15
0.025
0.050
12 104
0.20
0.025
0.025
8.0 104
The order of the reaction w.r.t. CH3COCH3 and Br2 respectively are :
(1) 0,1
(2) 1,0
(3) 1,1
(4) 1,2

Q.68

Unknown salt 'A' + solid K2Cr2O7 + conc. H2SO4 Reddish brown fumes.
Which is the correct statement regarding the above observation
(1) It confirms the presence of Cl ion
(2) It confirms the presence of Br ion
(3) It confirms the presence of both
(4) It neither confirms Cl nor Br unless it is passed through NaOH solution

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Q.69

( i ) 2 CO 2

CH3MgBr
2SO 4
(2) H
(3)

HC CH 2
(4)

(1)

( ii ) HOH / H

HgSO 4

(4) is:
O
||
(1) CH 3 C COOH

O
||
(2) CH 3 C CH 3
O

O
||
(2) HOOC C CH 2 COOH

CHC

(4)

O
CHC
O

Q.70

When photons of wavelength = 253.7 nm is subjected on Cu plate (work function = 4.65 eV) then
photoelectrons emitted. The magnitude of potential required to stop photocurrent completely is 0.24 V.
The kinetic energy of ejected electron may not be
(1) 0.24 eV
(2) 0.20 eV
(3) 0.10 eV
(4) 0.4 eV

Q.71

Fe2+ and Fe3+ can be distinguished by

(1) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(2) K4[Fe(CN)6]

(3) KSCN

(4) All

Q.72

Glucose and fructose form identical osazones becuase:

(1) they are monosaccharides
(2) they are reducing sugars
(3) they are epimers
(4) their configurations differ only at C-1 and C-2

Q.73

If Hvaporisation of (C2H5)2 O (l) is 350 J/g at it's boiling point 300 K, then molar entropy change for
condensation process is
(1) 86.33 J/mol.K
(2) 86.33 J/mol.K (3) 1.16 J/mol.K
(4) 1.16

Q.74

Which of the following oxides is / are not acidic in nature?

(1) ClO2
(2) N2O
(3) Cl2O

(4) NO2

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conc. H SO

Q.75

Br / H O

2
24 (X) 2
(Y)

excess

Product (Y) of above reaction is

(1)

Q.76

(2)

(3)

(4)

Benzene and toluene forms an ideal solution. Vapour pressure of pure benzene is 100 torr while that of
pure toluene is 50 torr. If mole faction of benzene in liquid phase is

1
. Then calculate the mole fraction
3

of benzene in vapour phase.

(1)
Q.77

2
3

(2)

1
2

(3)

2
5

(4)

1
3

A sodium salt on treatment with MgCl2 gives white precipitate only on heating. The anion of the sodium
salt is:
(1) HCO 3

(2) CO32

(3) NO3

(4) SO 24

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Ph
18

Q.78

H / H 2O

Ph C O

CH3

O
Et
Products of this reaction is :
Ph

Ph

18

18

(1) Ph C OH + HO

CH3 + en

(2) Ph C OH + HO

Et

Et

Ph

Ph

(3) Ph C OH + HO

CH3 + en

18

18

(4) Ph C OH + HO

CH3 + en

18

Et

Q.79

CH3 + en

||
O

Et

A closed rigid empty vessel is maintained at 87C. By any mechanism, COCl2(g) is introduced in the
vessel at 4 bar. If after a long time, the total pressure of gases in the vessel become 7 bar, then KP for the
reaction :
CO(g) + Cl2(g)
COCl2(g)
(1) 9 bar

(2)

1
bar
9

(3)

1
bar1
9

(4) 9 bar1

Q.80

Which of the following molecule is not having perfect geometrical shape.

(1) PCl3F2
(2) CF4
(3) BF2Cl
(4) [SiF6]2

Q.81

Monomer used to prepare Orlon is:

(1) CH2=CHCN
(2) CH2=CHCl

(3) CH2=CHF

(4) CH2=CCl2

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Q.82

Copper metal crystallizes in FCC lattice. Edge length of unit cell is 362 pm. The radius of largest atom
that can fit into the voids of copper lattice without disturbing it.
(1) 53 pm
(2) 45 pm
(3) 93 pm
(4) 60 pm

Q.83

Which of the following can be dehydrated by using a drying agent ?

(1) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2
(2) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl.H2O
(4) All of these

Q.84

Following conversion has to be carried out in three steps.

Cyclohexanone

Cycloheptanone
O

Pick the reagents from the following list in correct order.

* dil NaOH /
(a)
* NaCN/ NH4Cl
(b)
* LiAlH4
(c)
* O3 / Zn H2O
(d)
* NaNO2 + HCl
(e)
* NH2 NH2 . KOH (f)
(1) a, e, f
(2) b, c, e
(3) a, d, f

(4) b, c, f

Q.85

Two gases of molecular mass MA and MB are taken in a container of volume 'V' at temperature. 'T'. If
MA > MB then momentum change per collision of gases are such that [Assume ideal behaviour]
(1) PA>PB
(2) PB<PA
(3) PB=PA
(4) data insufficient

Q.86

Which of the following complexes can exist as diastereoisomers?

(1) [Cr(NH3)2Cl4]
(2) [Co(NH3)5Br] 2+
(3) [FeCl2(NCS)2]2
(4) [PtClBr3]2

Q.87

A tripeptide has ...... peptide bonds :

(1) three
(2) two

(3) four

(4) one

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Q.88

What volume of 0.1 M Ba(OH)2 is needed to completely neutralize 25 ml of 0.2 M SO2Cl2 solution
mixed with excess of water.
(1) 100 ml
(2) 50 ml
(3) 200 ml
(4) 25 ml

Q.89

In which of following silicate structure, the number of corner shared per tetrahedron is '2'.
(1) Four membered cyclic silicate
(2) Pyrosilicate
(3) Orthosilicate
(4) 2D-Silicate

Q.90

( i ) H / H 2O
P
H 3C CH C CH 3
( ii )
|
||
CN O

(1) P gives +ve iodoform test & ve test with Fehling solution.
(2) P gives ve iodoform test & +ve test with NaHCO3 solution.
(3) P gives +ve Lucas test & ve test with NaHSO3 solution
(4) P gives +ve test with NaHSO3 & cerric ammonium nitrate solution.

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