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ATPL - METEOROLOGY Set - B

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1.

1. What is the relationship


between QFE and QNH at an
airport 50ft below MSL?

c. QFE > QNH

2. Which cloud type may indicate


the presence of severe
turbulence?

8.

c. Altocumulus
lenticularis

3. What causes wind?

a. Difference in
pressure

a. Difference in pressure
b. Rotation of the earth
c. Frontal systems
d. Difference in temperature
4.

4. In what cloud is icing and


turbulence most severe?

9.

a. Cb

5. Which cloud would you


encounter the most intensive
rain?

b. Ns

10.

a. Ci
b. Ns
c. St
d. Sc
6.

6. How do you calculate the


lowest usable flight level?
a. Lowest QNH and lowest
negative temperature below ISA
b. Lowest QNH and highest
negative temperature below ISA
c. Highest QNH and highest
temperature above ISA
d. Highest QNH and lowest
temperature

8. Generally, as altitude
increases:

b. Temperature, pressure
and density decreases

9. Where is wind shear the


greatest?

a. Near a strong low level


inversion and in the region
of a thunderstorm

a. Near a strong low level


inversion and in the region
of a thunderstorm
b. Near a valley with wind
speeds greater than 35kts
c. On the windward side of a
mountain
d. When the wind is greater
than 35kts

a. Cb
b. Ns
c. Sc
d. Ci
5.

a. Clear ice

a. Temperature decreases
and density increases
b. Temperature, pressure
and density decreases
c. Temperature and
pressure increase and
density decreases
d. Temperature decreases
and pressure and density
increase

a. Cirrocumulus
b. Nimbostratus
c. Altocumulus lenticularis
d. Stratocumulus
3.

7. The most dangerous form


of airframe icing is:
a. Clear ice
b. Hoar frost
c. Dry ice
d. Rime ice

a. QFE = QNH
b. QFE < QNH
c. QFE > QNH
d. There is no clear relationship
2.

7.

10. Where do you find the


majority of the air within the
atmosphere?

a. Troposphere

a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Tropopause
d. Mesosphere

a. Lowest QNH and


lowest negative
temperature below ISA
11.

11. Where is the 300mb level


approximately in ISA?
a. 30,000ft
b. 39,000ft
c. 18,000ft
d. 10,000ft

a. 30,000ft

12.

12. What type of precipitation would


you expect at an active unstable cold
front?

d. Showers
associated
with
thunderstorms

a. Freezing rain
b. Light to moderate continuous rain
c. Drizzle
d. Showers associated with
thunderstorms
13.

13. Where are icing conditions on route


specified?

14. You are flying at FL170. The


pressure level which is closest to you is
the:

20.

c. SWC (sig.
weather chart)
and SIGMET

15. In which weather report would you


expect to find information about icing
conditions on the runway?

16. TAFs are usually valid for:


a. For the period indicated in the TAF
itself
b. For 18 hours
c. For 24 hours
d. For 8 hours

17.

17. When a TREND is included at the


end of a METAR, the trend is a forecast
valid for:

21.

18. VOLMETs are updated


a. Every hour
b. 4 times a day
c. 2 times a day
d. Every half hour

21. An inversion is:


a. A decrease of pressure with
height
b. A decrease of temperature with
height
c. An increase of temperature with
height
d. An increase of pressure with
height

c. METAR
22.

a. For the
period
indicated in
the TAF itself

b. 2 hours after
the time of
observation

a. 1 hour after the time of observation


b. 2 hours after the time of observation
c. 2 hours after it was issued
d. 1 hour after it was issued
18.

20. What is normally the most


effective measure to reduce or avoid
CAT effects?

c. 500mb

a. GAFOR
b. TAF
c. METAR
d. SIGMET
16.

b. 1025 hPa

a. Change of flight
level

a. Change of flight level


b. Change of course
c. Increase of speed
d. Decrease of speed

a. 300mb
b. 700mb
c. 500mb
d. 850mb
15.

19. QFE is 1000 hPa with an airfield


elevation of 200m AMSL. What is
QNH? (use 8m per hPa)
a. 975 hPa
b. 1025 hPa
c. 1008 hPa
d. 992 hPa

a. TAF and METAR


b. METAR and SIGMET
c. SWC (sig. weather chart) and
SIGMET
d. SPECI and TREND
14.

19.

d. Every half
hour

22. The isobars drawn on a surface


weather chart represent lines of
equal pressure:

c. An increase of
temperature with
height

d. Reduced to sea
level

a. At flight level
b. At height of observatory
c. At a determined density altitude
d. Reduced to sea level
23.

23. How does a pilot react to heavy


freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when
he is unable to deice nor land?
a. He ascends to the cold air layer
above
b. He continues to fly at the same
altitude
c. He turns back before the aircraft
loses maneuverability
d. He descends to the warm air layer
below

c. He turns back
before the aircraft
loses
maneuverability

24.

24. Two aircrafts, one with a sharp wing


profile (S) and the other with a thick
profile (T), are flying through the same
cloud with the same true airspeed. The
cloud consists of small supercooled
droplets. Which of the following
statements is most correct concerning ice
accretion?

d. Aircraft
S
experiences
more icing
than T

25. ATC will only report wind as gusting if:


a. Gust speed exceeds mean speed by
>15kts
b. Gusts to over 25kts
c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts
d. Gusts to under 25kts

26.

26. A flight is to depart from an airport


with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is
270/05; an inversion is reported at 300
feet with turbulence and wind shear. The
wind just above the inversion is 090/30.
What is the safest departure procedure?

27. You are cruising at FL 200, OAT is 40C, sea level pressure is 1033 hPa.
Calculate the true altitude.

c. Gusts
exceed
mean speed
by 10kts

b. Depart
on runway
09 with a
tailwind

28. In what frequency band is the ATIS


normally broadcasted?
a. LF
b. HF
c. ADF
d. VHF

31.

d. 19, 340 ft

d. VHF

d. 300 hPa

31. The station pressure used in


surface weather charts is:

a. Met vis is
usually less than
RVR

a. QNE

a. QNE
b. QFF
c. QFE
d. QNH
32.

32. What is the coldest time of the


day?

d. 1/2 hour after


sunrise

a. 1hr before sunrise


b. 1/2 hr before sunrise
c. At exact moment of sunrise
d. 1/2 hour after sunrise
33.

a. 20,660 ft
b. 21,740 ft
c. 18,260 ft
d. 19, 340 ft
28.

30. With regard to RVR and Met vis:


a. Met vis is usually less than RVR
b. Met vis is usually greater than RVR
c. RVR is usually less than met vis
d. Met vis and RVR are usually the
same

a. Take-off is not possible under these


conditions
b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind
c. Depart runway 27 with maximum
throttle during the passage through the
inversion
d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an
ascent as possible
27.

29. Which constant pressure altitude


chart is standard for a 30,065 ft
pressure level (FL 300)?
a. 200 hPa
b. 700 hPa
c. 500 hPa
d. 300 hPa

30.

a. Aircraft T experiences more icing than S


b. Aircraft S and T experience the same
amount of icing
c. Neither of the aircrafts accumulate ice
due to the small size of droplets
d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T
25.

29.

33. The code "BECMG FM 1100 RASH" in a METAR means:


a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of
rain showers
b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain
showers
c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain
showers
d. Becoming from 1100UTC till
0000UTC slight rain showers

b. Becoming from
1100UTC slight
rain showers

34.

34. Which of the following


statements is an interpretation
of the METAR?
00000KT 0200 R14/0800U
R16/P1500U FZFG VV001
m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800
=

d. RVR for runway 14


800m, vertical visibility
100ft, calm,
meteorological visibility
improving to 800m in
the next 2 hours

36.

LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307


SIGMET 2 VALID
030700/031100 LSSW mod to
sev cat fcst north of alps btn fl
260 and fl 380 / stnr / intsf =

a. Meteorological visibility
200m, RVR for runway 16
1500m, temperature -3C,
vertical visibility 100m
b. Meteorological visibility
200ft, RVR for runway 16 more
than 1500m, vertical visibility
100ft, fog with hoar frost
c. Meteorological visibility for
runway 14 800m, fog with hoar
frost, RVR for runway 16 more
than 1500m
d. RVR for runway 14 800m,
vertical visibility 100ft, calm,
meteorological visibility
improving to 800m in the next
2 hours
35.

35. Refer to the following TAF


for Zurich
LSZH 261019 20018G30KT
9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080
TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ
BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518
23020G35KT 4000 RA
OVC010=
The lowest visibility forecast at
ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:
a. 6km
b. 6nm
c. 4km
d. 10km

36. Which of the following


statement is an interpretation
of the SIGMET?

c. Moderate to severe
clear air turbulence to be
expected north of the
Alps. Intensity
increasing. Danger zone
between FL260 and
FL380

a. Severe turbulence observed


below FL 260 north of the Alps.
Pilots advised to cross this
area above FL 380
b. Moderate to strong clear air
turbulence of constant
intensity to be expected north
of the Alps
c. Moderate to severe clear air
turbulence to be expected north
of the Alps. Intensity
increasing. Danger zone
between FL260 and FL380
d. Zone of moderate to severe
turbulence moving towards the
area north of the Alps.
Intensity increasing. Pilots
advised to cross this area
above FL260

a. 6km

37.

37. From a pre-flight briefing


you know a jet stream is at
31,000ft whilst you are at
FL270. You experience
moderate CAT. What would be
the best course of action?

b. Descend

a. Stay level
b. Descend
c. Climb
d. Reduce speed
38.

38. In which zone of a


jetstream is the strongest CAT
to be expected?
a. The warm air side of the core
b. Exactly in the center of the
core
c. About 12,000ft above the core
d. The cold air side of the core

d. The cold air side of the


core

39.

39. In an area of converging air

b. Clouds can be formed

a. Clouds cannot be formed


b. Clouds can be formed
c. Convective clouds can be dissolved
d. Stratified clouds can be dissolved
40.

40. The greater the pressure gradient the:


a. Closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures
b. Further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature
c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
d. Further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind

c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind